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92e72deb-d0bc-485c-81a3-6af699e85c8a | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hemodialysis associated | Pathology | null | Deposition of protein 'A beta 2m' is seen in which clinicopathologic category of amyloidosis -
A. Familial Mediterranean fever
B. Hemodialysis associated
C. Senile cerebral
D. Systemic senile
| Hemodialysis associated |
94c2904d-2d6d-4d92-9ad9-a88415418efb | Alveolar air equation: Using the alveolar air equation - PAO2 = - Data: Fraction of O2 in the inspired air = 80% Barometric pressure = 760 mm Hg (sea level) Water vapor pressure = 47 mm Hg Respiratory quotient = 0.8 Hence, Alveolar PO2 = - = 570.4 - 50 = 520.4 mm Hg Aerial PO2 is given = 100 mm Hg Hence, (A - a) DO2 = 520.4 - 100 = 420.4 mm Hg | Physiology | Respiratory System Pa 3 | Aerial blood gas of a 5 year old child done at sea level gives the following results: pH 7.41, PaO2, 100 mmHg, and PaCO2, 40 mmHg. The child is being ventilated with 80% oxygen. What is the (A-a) DO2.-
A. 570.4 mm Hg
B. 520.4 mm Hg
C. 470.4 mm Hg
D. 420.4 mm Hg
| 420.4 mm Hg |
85a88804-96b9-42ec-93b8-a13c0b2daaf1 | Unilateral purulent nasal discharge with occasional bloody discharge in a child is highly suggestive of foreign body.
Antrochoanal polyp does not cause bloody discharge.
Angiofibroma most commonly presents with nasal obstruction and epistaxis (not purulent nasal discharge).
Rhinosporidiosis presents most commonly with polypoid mass. | ENT | null | A child presented with a history of unilateral purulent nasal discharge with occasional bloody discharge from the same side, The diagnosis is -
A. Antrochoanal polyp
B. Foreign body
C. Angiofibroma
D. Rhinosporidiosis
| Foreign body |
a6958436-9471-4225-b5d2-c477192da91d | Answer is D (Vitamin D deficiency) Serum Ca Serum phosphorus Alkaline phosphatase PTH * Osteomalacia (Rickets) (|iNit. D) | | | | * Primary hyperparathyroidism bone disease | | , | | * Bone disease in renal failure with secondary hyperparathyroidism N/| | | | * Lytic bone neoplasms N/| N/| N/| N * Osteoporosis N N N N * Paget's disease N N | N | Medicine | null | A patient Shweta with raised serum alkaline phosphatase and raised parathormone level along with low calcium and low phosphate level is likely to have
A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
B. Paget's disease
C. Osteoporosis
D. Vitamin D deficiency
| Vitamin D deficiency |
9988d555-e41d-4f02-b78f-60f6b6f93b66 | In about 10% of heas,the right coronary is rather small and is not able to give the posterior interventricular branch. In these cases the circumflex aery,the continuation of left provides the posterior interventricular branch and called left dominant. <img src=" /> B D CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY UPPER LIMB THORAX-VOLUME1 SIXTH EDITION Page no:265 | Anatomy | Thorax | If circumflex aery gives the posterior interventricular branch, this circulation is described as
A. Right dominance
B. Left dominance
C. Codominance
D. Undetermined
| Left dominance |
9fe50a93-278b-41d1-898d-a31b95709b08 | parvovirusB19 causesaplasyic crisi ,persistent anemia,erythema infectiosum&fetal hydrops REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.554 | Microbiology | Virology | Parvovirus B19 does not cause
A. Roseola infantum
B. Aplastic anemia in sickle cell disease
C. Fetal hydrops
D. erythema infectiosum
| Roseola infantum |
1a9dc641-10a9-4571-90d1-9483cb14029e | Due to defect in dermis, pressure on a neurofibroma gives a feeling of hole in dermis, which is called as Button hole sign. | Dental | null | Button hole sign is seen in:
A. Lupus vulgaris
B. Intertigo
C. Neuro fibromatosis
D. Psoriasis
| Neuro fibromatosis |
108ab257-4a62-4cb6-804b-a8fb57aedf1a | lopoxins are the metabolites produced lipooxygenase pathway. They act to regulate and counter Balance actions ad Leucotriens i:e, decreases leukocyte adhesion, migration and chemotaxis. .ref Robbins 9/e p46 | Pathology | General pathology | Lipoxins synthesized from arachidonic acid act by-
A. Decrease leucocyte migration, adhesion, chemotaxis
B. Increase leucocyte migration, adhesion, chemotaxis
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Increased vascular permeability
| Decrease leucocyte migration, adhesion, chemotaxis |
d17e8812-8507-4726-b1f8-d82be8a09a9b | Aldolase is the enzyme which catalyzes the reversible reaction of glycolysis. So this enzyme is utilized in gluconeogenesis.Glucokinase, pyruvate kinase and phosphofructokinase are enzymes which catalyze the irreversible reaction of glycolysis and which are bypassed by different sets of enzymes during gluconeogenesis. | Microbiology | All India exam | Which of the following glycolytic enzyme is used in gluconeogenesis?
A. Glucokinase
B. Pyruvate kinase
C. Aldolase
D. Phosphofructokinase
| Aldolase |
29c07a2a-41e2-4929-a4af-b18191223ff9 | There is a large, well-demarcated, calcified pleural-based opacity abutting the lateral chest occupying two-thirds of the left hemithorax. It has a rounded, intensely calcified inferior and medial border and thus suggests a pleural origin. The shadow is most consistent with a large, old organized hemothorax. The calcified and organized pleuralbased opacity is consistent with an old hemothorax secondary to previous trauma. The pulmonary functions in this case would show restrictive limitation due to fibrosis of the pleural space and decreased lung compliance. | Radiology | Respiratory system | A 53-year-old female nonsmoker is being evaluated with symptoms of progressive shoness of breath. She has a past history of trauma to the right side of the chest. There is no history of asthma, sputum production, or recent chest pain. CXR is shown in,The likely diagnosis is
A. Calcified cyst
B. Organized hemothorax
C. Blastomycosis
D. Asbestosis
| Organized hemothorax |
7570ad1b-7a71-4a46-a6d7-0125cbc2a61a | Scleroderma is systemic disease accompanied by esophageal abnormalities in approximately 80% of patients. The esophageal lesion consists of atrophy of the smooth muscles, manifested by weakness in the lower two-third of the esophageal body and incompetence of the LES. Gastroesophageal reflux is due to incompetent LES combined with poor esophageal clearance which inturn leads to severe reflux esophagitis and stricture formation. Ref: Schwaz 9/e, Page 846; Harrison 17/e, Page 1850. | Surgery | null | Which of the following connective tissue disorder is associated with gastroesophageal reflux?
A. SLE
B. Scleroderma
C. Behcet's syndrome
D. Dermatomyositis
| Scleroderma |
5487bd71-7f0e-4d50-91a6-9e486d860c72 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Metolazone o Metolazone is the only thiazide which is effective in severe renal failure. | Pharmacology | null | Thiazide diuretic used when GFR<30 ml/min?
A. Metolazone
B. Benzthiazidc
C. Chlohiazide
D. Hydrofulthiazide
| Metolazone |
9c5a488d-97f1-4e77-b4d3-d21cb0f0c9f6 | Ans. a. Terminalia Arjuna Terminalia Arjuna (An ayurvedic cardioprotective botanical) Although many Ayurvedic plants have shown to help coronary aery disease, Arjuna (Terminalia Arjuna) by far seems to be the best plant for hea health. Terminalia arjuna is a traditional ayurvedic plant containing tannins, triterpenoid saponins (arjungenin, arjunglucosides), flavonoids (arjunon, arjonolone), phytosterols, oligomeric proanthocyanidins (OPC's), calcium, magnesium, zinc, and copper. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following traditional medicines is effective in the treatment of hea failure
A. Terminalia Arjuna
B. Neem bark extract
C. St. John's wo
D. Gingkoba biloba
| Terminalia Arjuna |
95f22481-cf82-4c1f-bac4-be74a2e1997f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Serine o Selenocysteine is considered as 21" standard amino acid. o It is present at the active site of some enzymes that catalyze redox reactions, e.g. thioredoxin reductase, glutathione peroxidase, and the deiodinase (converts thyroxin to triiothyronine). o Biosynthesis of selenocysteine requires cysteine, serine, ATP and a specific t-RNA o Serine provides the carbon skeleton of selenocysteine. o Selenocysteine has a structure similar to cysteine, but containing the trace element selenium in place of sulfur atom of cysteine. | Biochemistry | Amino Acids Basics | Selenocysteine is derivative of which aminoacid -
A. Serine
B. Alanine
C. Arginine
D. Glycine
| Serine |
b010c4fd-35c5-440f-a8aa-8219c856ae18 | Bupivacaine is a widely used amide local anesthetic. It is a potent agent capable of producing prolonged anesthesia. Its long duration of action plus its tendency to provide more sensory than motor block has made it a popular drug for providing prolonged analgesia during labor or the postoperative period. By taking advantage of indwelling catheters and continuous infusions, bupivacaine can be used to provide several days of effective analgesia. Lignocaine, tetracaine, and cocaine are used as local anaesthetics and anesthesia lasts for 30-45 minutes (30-60 minutes with tetracaine). Anesthesia is entirely superficial; it does not extend to submucosal structures. Ref: Catterall W.A., Mackie K. (2011). Chapter 20. Local Anesthetics. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following local anaesthetic is NOT used as a surface anaesthetic?
A. Lignocaine
B. Tetracaine
C. Cocaine
D. Bupivacaine
| Bupivacaine |
4fccd3d5-4706-4f62-8708-46c2d05b5faf | Ans. is 'c- i.e., Formyl-methionine o in prokaryotes and in mitochondria, the first amino acid methionine is modified by formylation, i.e. the initiator t-RNA carries an N-formylated methionine. The formyl group is added by the enzyme transformylase (formyl- transferase). In Eukaryotes, the initiator t-RNA carries a methionine that is not formylatedDifferenceProkaryotesEukaryotesm-RNAPolycistronic i.e. have several coding regions; each with its initiation & termination codon producing a seperate polypeptideMonocistr onic with one coding regionAmino acid incorporation rate18 aa/sec6aa/sec.Initial amino acidFormylated methionine ( f-met)Methionine r (Met)Initial t-RNAt-RNA/MettRNAMetTranscription & translationTranslation starts before transcription is ended (coupled)UncoupledInitiation factors (IF)3i.e.IF1,IF2,IF3> 10 designated elFDetermination of initiatingcodon# Shine Dalgarno sequencer# Facilitated by IF-2 bound to GTPKozak consensus sequencesr Facilitated by elF-2 bound to GTP (Plus additional elF)Elongation: Del Every of aminoacyl t-RNA to A site# Facilitated by EF-Tu & EF-TsFacilitated by EF1 a and EF 1 b yNucleotide exchange factors# EF - Ts (as it exchanges its GTP for GDP on EFTu)EF 1 b g (as it exchanges its GTP forGDP on EF a)Peptidyi transferase activity catalyzing peptide bond formation23 S rRNA of 50 S ribosomal subunit (ribozyme)28 S rRNA of 60 S ribosornal subunit (ribozyme)TranslocationRequires EF-G & GTPRequires EF-2 & GTPTerminationRelease factor (RF) 1 recognizes UAA & UAG, RF2 recognizes UAA & UGARF-3 (bound to GTP) causes release ofRF-1 or RF-2 as GTP is hydrolysedeRF recognizesail 3 UAA, UAGandUGA and release nascent polypeptide chaineRF-3 (bound to GTP) function like prokaryotic RF-3 & release eRF | Biochemistry | Amino Acids Basics | Initial amino acid in prokaryotic protein synthesis -
A. Arginine
B. Methionine
C. Formyl-methionine
D. Alanine
| Formyl-methionine |
6bbd139e-6000-4acb-beb0-042dc471df1e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Latanoprost Drugs used in open-angle glaucoma MechanismMethods of AdministrationCholinomimetics Pilocarpine, carbachol, physostigmine, echothiophate, demecariumCiliary muscle contraction, opening of trabecular meshwork, increased outflowTopical drops of gel; plastic film slow-release insertAlpha agonists UnselectiveEpinephrine, dipivefrinIncreased outflowTopical dropsAlpha2-selectiveDecreased aqueous secretion ApraclonidineBrimonidine Topical, postlaser only TopicalBeta-blockers Timolol, betaxolol, carteolol, levobunolol, metipranololDecreased aqueous secretion from the ciliary epitheliumTopical dropsDiuretics Dorzolamide, brinzolamideDecreased aqueous secretion due to lack of HCO3TopicalAcetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, Methazolamide OralProstaglandins Lantanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost, unoprostoneIncreased outflowTopical | Pharmacology | Anti Adrenergic System | Antiglaucoma drug which acts by increasing uveo- sclerol outflow -
A. Apraclonidine
B. Latanoprost
C. Timolol
D. Brinzolamide
| Latanoprost |
f8000fa0-b8f6-47d3-9503-f2cd30e935f9 | Hereditary Spherocytosis—Peripheral blood smear.
Splenomegaly is more common and prominent in hereditary spherocytosis than in any other form of hemolytic anemia. The splenic weight usually is between 500 and 1000 g. The enlargement results from marked congestion of the splenic cords and increases in the numbers of macrophages. Phagocytosed red cells are seen within macrophages lining the sinusoids and, in particular, within the cords.
Robin’s Textbook of pathology 10th ed Page 442 | Pathology | null | Most commonly affected organ in the disorder characterized by the peripheral blood smear is:
A. Lungs
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Liver
| Spleen |
6a48c652-ecd2-40d4-b57b-074bf293d393 | Tyrosinemia REF: Sapira's a & science of bedside diagnosis - Page 138, Textbook of Pediatric Emergency Medicine by Gary R. Fleisher, Stephen Ludwig Page 1566 Tyrosinaemia is an error of metabolism, inherited, in which the body cannot effectively break down the amino acid tyrosine, found in most animal and plant proteins. It is an autosomal recessive, which means two copies of an abnormal gene must be present in order for this to develop. There are three types of tyrosinemia, each with distinctive symptoms and caused by the deficiency of a different enzyme. One of the symptoms of Tyrodinaemia type 1 is an odor like cabbage or rancid butter. | Biochemistry | null | Boiled cabbage or rancid butter smelling urine is seen in
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Tyrosinemia
C. Isovaleric Acidaemia
D. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
| Tyrosinemia |
bbdd80b6-d9db-484a-b348-612f8131340e | This organism is readily isolated from gastric biopsies but not from stomach contents. It is like Campylobacter species and grows on chocolate agar at 37degC in the same microaerophilic environment suitable for C. jejuni (Campy-Pak or anaerobic jar without the catalyst). H. pylori, however, grows more slowly than C. jejuni, requiring 5 to 7 days incubation. C. jejuni grows optimally at 42degC, not 37degC, as does H. pylori. | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria) | A patient with a peptic ulcer was admitted to the hospital and a gastric biopsy was performed. The tissue was cultured on chocolate agar incubated in a microaerophilic environment at 37degC for 5 to 7 days. At 5 days of incubation, colonies appeared on the plate and were curved, Gram negative rods, oxidase positive. The most likely identity of this organism is
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Helicobacter pylori
| Helicobacter pylori |
0de12fbd-c9de-4106-b321-27db49459f1e | Wintrobes hematology mentiins granulocytes contain and release B12 binding proteins.Markedly elevated transcobalamin 1 level are seen in chronic myelocytic leukemia and myeloid metaplasia whereas low levels are seen in chronic leucopenia and aplastic anemia. Williams hematology 8th adds that the increase is propoional to the total leucocyte count in untreated patients and falls with treatment.(ref Robbins 7th /697-698) | Anatomy | Haematology | In CML serum vitamin B12 level is:
A. Slightly decreased
B. Normal
C. Markedly decreased
D. Increased
| Increased |
b6967054-beb5-4661-a64d-40cb11cd2b4d | 1. In this patient no pulmonary edema, MI absent and aoic dissection also absent. 2. Nephrotic syndrome patient will be in hypercoagulable state, long flight- DVT- pulmonary embolism- acute Cor pulmonale 3. Most common causes of Cor pulmonale- pulmonary embolism 4. CXR is normal because it is only a small clot and clot usually not visible on X-ray | Medicine | Thromboembolism and Fat Embolism Syndrome | A 52-year-old businessman with nephrotic syndrome after a non-stop flight from New York to New Delhi presents with sudden onset of breathlessness, haemoptysis, and chest pain. He is brought into Casualty in shock. His chest X-ray is normal. The ECG shows sinus tachycardia.
A. Pneumothorax
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Aoic dissection
| Pulmonary embolism |
335dafcd-9a46-42c8-a359-e59cb1b94af7 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mycetoma Mycetoma (Maduramycosis) . Is a localized chronic granulomatous involvement of the subcutaneous and deeper tissues, commonly affecting the foot and less often the hand and other pas. . Presenting as a subcutaneous swelling with multiple discharging sinuses. . Sinuses discharge seropurulent fluid containing granules. . These granules are microcolonies of the etiological agents. . A similar condition called botryomycosis is caused by staphylococcus aureus. | Microbiology | null | A farmer has an ulcer on leg with indurated margin and multiple sinuses with discharging granules. The likely diagnosis is -
A. Mycetoma
B. Scrofuloderma
C. Lupus vulgaris
D. Actinomycosis
| Mycetoma |
81e75f78-2c14-4b8d-bcff-1f3d47cdc9ed | General feility rate (GFR) : Number of live bihs per 1000 women in the reproductive age group 15-49 years in a given year Denominator : Takes 'mid-year population' of 15-49 years age females into account Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 539 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Non communicable diseases | The denominator in General feility rate
A. Live bihs
B. Mid year population
C. Reproductive women in the age group 15-45 mid year population
D. Married women in the age group 15-45
| Reproductive women in the age group 15-45 mid year population |
1825fbdb-260f-4277-894c-884957f106d3 | Scissor gait is a form of gait abnormality primarily associated with spastic cerebral palsy rigidity and excessive adduction of the leg in swing plantar flexion of the ankle flexion at the knee adduction and internal rotation at the hip progressive contractures of all spastic muscles complicated assisting movements of the upper limbs when walking | Surgery | Trauma | Scissors gait is seen in
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Hyperbilirubinemia
D. Hyponatremia
| Cerebral palsy |
aa6c5cbe-a0d3-41dd-a133-86704b55af0e | Gestational diabetes is associated with caudal regression syndrome. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Caudal regression syndrome is seen in
A. Preeclampsia
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Sickle-Cell anemia
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
| Gestational diabetes |
78f93c5b-dc84-45c8-a709-80989ce38230 | (A) (Chromosome number 6) (136 Baveja 4lh) (106 D. Greenwood 18th)MAJOR HISTOCOMPATIBILITY COMPLEX (MHO* The MHC in human is known as human leucocyte antigen (HLA) complex.* The HLA complex of genes is located on short arm of chromosome 6.* They are arranged over a region of between 2000 and 4000 kilobases is size, containing sufficient DNA for more than 200 genes.HLA Complex (MHC complex)||||Class IClass 11Class III* Comprising A, B and C loci* 'D' region - DR, DQ, DPComplement region encodes* Responsible for* Responsible for* C2&C4# Graft rejection# Graft versus host response* Properdin factor B# Cell mediated cytolysis# Mixed leucocyte reaction* Heat shock protein* Found on the surface of all nucleated cells and platelets* Found only on cells of the immune system* TNF a and b* Enzyme 21 hydroxylaseIndications of HLA typing:* Tissue typing prior to transplantation.* Paternity determination.* Disease and HLA - associationHLA - B27 - Ankylosing spondylitis.HLA - DR4 - Rheumatoid arthritis | Microbiology | Immunology | MCH located on -
A. Chromosome number 6
B. Chromosome number 7
C. Chromosome number 8
D. Chromosome number 9
| Chromosome number 6 |
95b485b4-c2a2-453d-8f86-c65e4ffcd55a | Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by intestinal hamaomatous polyps in association with a distinct pattern of skin and mucosal macular melanin deposition. Gardner syndrome, a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by GI polyps, multiple osteomas, and skin and soft tissue tumors. Cutaneous findingsof Gardner syndrome include epidermoid cysts, desmoid tumors, and other benign tumors. Turcot syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder that can present with brain tumors (glioblastoma multiforme, medulloblastoma) and colonic adenomas that frequently become malignant in those younger than 30 years. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is an autosomal-dominant syndrome. It is divided into Lynch syndrome I (familial colon cancer) and Lynch syndrome II (HNPCC associated with other cancers of the gastrointestinal or reproductive system). | Medicine | null | A lady comes with melanotic pigmentation of lip, presence of multiple polyps in the intestine, and a positive family history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome
B. Gardner's syndrome
C. Turcot's syndrome
D. Lynch syndrome
| Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome |
cf45ffba-7d88-46f1-9bce-05a8297ac4ba | Answer-C. Posterior subcapsularComplicated cataract refers to the lens opacification secondary to some other intraocular disease, Anterior uveitis is the most common cause.Posterior coical complicated cataract : - This type of cataract is due to affections of posterior segment. This cataract is located in a posterior subcapsular cataract and typically opacification stas in the posterior pa of the coex in the axial region. | Ophthalmology | null | In complicated cataract opacity develops in
A. Anterior capsule
B. Nucleus
C. Posterior subcapsular
D. Coical
| Posterior subcapsular |
b0ca1f5c-fe61-471f-8a8a-84b9aa624894 | Uric acid is the common end product of purine catabolism. However, in non-primate mammals, Allantoin is the end product of purine catabolism as an extra enzyme, Uricase is present. OTHER OPTIONS: OPTION B: The end products of pyrimidine catabolism are NH3, CO2 & beta alanine (for Cytosine, Uracil) Option C - Xanthine is an intermediate of catabolism of purines. Xanthine gets conveed to uric acid by Xanthine Oxidase. | Biochemistry | FMGE 2019 | Which is a product of purine metabolism?
A. Uric acid
B. Urea
C. Xanthine
D. Beta alanine
| Uric acid |
ffeed031-b8c3-429f-b3af-59c8529f09a2 | Primary Oocyte – 2n.
Secondary Oocyte – n and 2N.
Spermatid – n and N. | Anatomy | null | Secondary Oocyte is :
A. n and N
B. n and 2N
C. 2n and N
D. 2n and 2N
| n and 2N |
35d75098-0242-48cc-8a93-5f7f14ab4241 | pH < 7.35 is acidosis ; pH >7.45 is alkalosisPrimary change in HCO3- is termed as metabolic (normal range: 22-30 meq/l)If there is acidosis and HCO3- decreased, the problem is a metabolic oneIf in acidosis HCO3- is increased or normal, the problem is compensatory metabolicPrimary change in CO2 is termed as respiratory (normal range: 35-45 mmHg)If in acidosis CO2 is raised, the problem is respiratoryIf in acidosis CO2 is decreased or normal, the problem is compensatory respiratorypH is low, HCO3- is high, Pa CO2 is high.Ref: Harrison's 18/e p363, 17/e p384, 2061 | Medicine | All India exam | pH 7.24, PaO2 55 mm Hg, PaCO250 mm Hg, HCO3-30 mEq/L consistent with:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
| Respiratory acidosis |
2dbd8ee9-c3c1-48d7-b579-ab971f653b6a | Ans. A. Cubitus valgusTardy ulnar nerve palsy is due to cubitus valgus.Fracture of the lateral condyle of humerus in the long run can lead to complications such as cubitus valgus.Friction neuritis of the ulnar nerve as it moves over the medial epicondyle every time the elbow is flexed and extended may result in a late ulnar nerve palsy called as 'tardy ulnar nerve palsy'. | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around Arm & Elbow | Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is due to _____:
A. Cubitus valgus
B. Fixation of the nerve in the groove by osteoarthritis
C. Excision of elbow joint
D. Fracture of internal condyle
| Cubitus valgus |
0c662544-29f5-4b23-9bcc-a631b6a320ad | Ans. b (Ultrasound) Ref: AK Khurana, 4th ed, p. 193In phacoemulsification nucleus is emulsified & aspirated by phacoemulsification. Phacoemulsifier acts through a titanium needle ( hollow 1 mm needle)It vibrates in its longitudinal axis at an ultrasonic speed of40000 times a second and thus emulsifies nucleusAdvantage: Very small corneoscleral incision (3.2-3.5 mm), hence sutureless surgeryNOTE:Various surgical techniques with length of corneoscleral incisionECCE- 7-8 mm (120deg)ICCE- 10-12 mm (180deg)Small incision cataract surgery (SICS) - 4-6 mmPhacoemulsification- 3.2-3.5 mm (30deg) | Ophthalmology | Lens | Phacoemulsification is done with
A. Laser
B. Ultrasound
C. Cryo
D. UV light
| Ultrasound |
286f06c4-a6df-4f41-b1dd-5d45c3f7a484 | ANSWER: (D) Superficial thrombophlebitis of breastREF: Schwartz 9th ed chapter 17MQNDOR'S DISEASEMondor's disease is a variant of thrombophlebitis that involves the superficial veins of the anterior chest wall and breast. In 1939, Mondor described the condition as "string phlebitis ," a thrombosed vein presenting as a tender, cord-like structure. Frequently involved veins include the lateral thoracic vein, the thoracoepigastric vein, and, less commonly, the superficial epigastric vein. Typically, a woman presents with acute pain in the lateral aspect of the breast or the anterior chest wall. A tender, firm cord is found to follow the distribution of one of the major superficial veins. Rarely, the presentation is bilateral, and most women have no evidence of thrombophlebitis in other anatomic sites. This benign, self-limited disorder is not indicative of a cancer. When the diagnosis is uncertain, or when a mass is present near the tender cord, biopsy is indicated. Therapy for Mondor's disease includes the liberal use of anti-inflammatory medications and application of warm compresses along the symptomatic vein. Restriction of motion of the ipsilateral extremity and shoulder as well as brassiere support of the breast are important. The process usually resolves within 4 to 6 weeks. When symptoms persist or are refractory to therapy, excision of the involved vein segment is appropriate. | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Breast) | Mondor's disease is?
A. Congenital breast disease
B. Carcinoma breast
C. Radiation induced carcinoma breast
D. Superficial thrombophlebitis of breast
| Superficial thrombophlebitis of breast |
5879fa64-2412-432e-9eec-9e44223323e5 | Ans: C (9th cranial nerve) Ref: Gray Is Anatomy. 40th edition, pg. 495Explanation:Pharyngeal Arches and Their DerivativesArchnumberArch nameEmbryoniccartilageCartilage derivativeMuscleNerveArterylMandibularQuadrateMeckel's* Incus* Malleus* Anterior ligament of malleus* Spine of sphenoid* Sphenomnndibular ligament* Genial tubercle of mandible* Tensor tympani* Muscles of mastication* Mylohyoid* Anterior belly of digastric* Tensor veli palatiniTrigeminal (V) Mandibular division* First aortic arch artery 2HyoidReichert's* Stapes* Styloid process of temporal bone* Stylohyoid ligament* Lesser horn and upper part of body of hyoid bone* Stapedius* Stylohyoid* Facial muscles, including* Buccinator* Platysma* Posterior belly of digastricFacial (VII)* Stapedial artery 3Third * Greater hom and lower part of body of hyoid* StylopharyngeusGlossopharyngeal(IX)* Common carotid artery, first part of internal carotid artery4Fourth * Thyroid cartilage* Comiculate cartilage* Cunieform cartilage* Pharyngeal and extrinsic laryngeal muscles, levator veil palatiniVagus (X)Phary ngeal branch* Proximal part of subclavian artery on the right side* Arch of aorta between origins of left common carotid and left subclavian arteries6Sixth * Arytenoid cartilages* Intrinsic laryngeal musclesVagus (X) recurrent laryngeal branch* Part between the pulmonary trunk and dorsal aorta* Becomes ductus arteriosus on left, disappears on rightThis is a small, oval, flat reddish-grev ganglion situated just below the foramen ovale.It is a peripheral parasympathetic ganglion related topographically to the mandibular nerve, but connected functionally with the glossopharyngeal nerve. (See the following figure) | Anatomy | Head & Neck | The parasympathetic supply to otic ganglion comes from: (Repeat)
A. 7th cranial nerve
B. 8th cranial nerve
C. 9th cranial nerve
D. 3rd cranial nerve
| 9th cranial nerve |
ccfe3ef3-a59c-4563-b625-14ac18ed5ae1 | Active immunisation with tetanus toxoid to mother will protect both mother and child.2 doses should be given. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 331 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Best preventive measure againts tetanus neonatorum-
A. Active immunization of mother
B. Passive immunization of child
C. Active immunization of child
D. Passive immunization of mother
| Active immunization of mother |
cc01e2e0-6470-4a6a-8834-a4eabfa4f3aa | A Meckel's diveiculum is caused by failure of obliteration of the vitello-intestinal duct. It is classically located in the distal ileum within 30 cm of the ileocecal valve, and the structure is a true diveiculum with mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis propria. Many Meckel's diveicula contain ectopic pancreatic tissue or gastric mucosa, and the acid production from the gastric mucosa may be sufficient to produce a small peptic ulcer in adjacent intestinal mucosa. Such small peptic ulcers are occasional sources of mysterious appendicitis-like pain or intestinal bleeding. Peptic ulceration adjacent to a Meckel's diveiculum should be suspected in any child who presents with massive, painless rectal bleeding. Technetium concentrates in gastric mucosa, and the scan in this patient demonstrated a small amount of ectopic gastric mucosa located in the diveiculum.Acute appendicitis is usually very painful and does not typically cause rectal bleeding. A lesion of the cecum would have been revealed by thorough colonoscopy. Failure of upper endoscopy to demonstrate a peptic ulcer of the duodenum makes duodenal disease unlikely. | Anatomy | null | A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with massive, painless bleeding from the rectum. Colonoscopy fails to demonstrate a lesion in the colon or anus. Upper endoscopy fails to demonstrate esophagitis, gastric ulcer or duodenal ulcer. A 99mTc (technetium) scan demonstrates an abnormality in the lower half of the abdomen. Failure of a normal developmental process involving which of the following structures is the most likely cause of this child's bleeding?
A. Appendix
B. Cecum
C. Duodenum
D. Ileum
| Ileum |
88569ef1-1856-40aa-87c2-e535c96987ee | Health systems are made up of: * "Horizontal system" of general services, providing prevention and care for prevailing health problems. "Veical programmes" for specific health conditions . | Social & Preventive Medicine | PH Care, Elements & Principles | Single disease control strategy done by program known as
A. Horizontal program
B. Veical program
C. Interventional program
D. Volunteer program
| Veical program |
39a82898-60e0-406b-b86b-211196d6eb90 | Analysis of the human genome suggests novel genes created by retroposition may play an impoant role in primate evolution. However, data from non-human primates is still scarce. A comprehensive comparison was thus performed among four primate genomes (human, chimpanzee, orangutan, and macaque), which detects elevated rates of retroposition in both the common ancestor of hominoids and macaques. Fuher analysis shows approximately 10% of intact retrocopies may be under positive selection and at least 4% of retrocopies become functional copies eventually. Moreover, human intact retrocopies were found enriched in transcription-related functions. Collectively, these findings emphasize the impoant contribution of retroposition to primate genome evolution | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Gene duplication plays an impoant role in the evolution of
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. hnRNA
| mRNA |
eb1cfdd6-a1f0-4e30-abb7-56fd77476247 | Malignant hypehermia (MH) is a rare (1:15,000 in pediatric patients and 1:40,000 in adult patients) genetic hypermetabolic muscle disease, the characteristic phenotypical signs and symptoms of which most commonly appear with exposure to inhaled general anesthetics or succinylcholine (triggering agents). MH may occasionally present more than an hour after emergence from an anesthetic, and rarely may occur without exposure to known triggering agents. Most cases have been repoed in young males; almost none have been repoed in infants, and few have been repoed in the elderly. Neveheless, all ages and both sexes may be affected. The incidence of MH varies significantly from country to country and even among different geographic localities within the same country, reflecting varying gene pools. The upper Midwest appears to have the greatest incidence of MH in the United States. Anesthetic drugs that trigger MH include ether, halothane, enflurane, isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and depolarizing muscle relaxants, succinylcholine being the only anesthetic drug currently used. Desflurane and sevoflurane appear to be less potent triggers than halothane and produce a more gradual onset of MH. The onset may be explosive if succinylcholine is used. Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e | Anaesthesia | Complications of anaesthesia | Which does not cause malignant hypehermia
A. Isoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. N2O
D. Enflurane
| N2O |
f9d33407-a31e-43bd-a285-9ebd89199cea | Ans. a (10% glycerin). (Ref. Parikh, FMT, 5th/pg.l68)PHENOL OR CARBOLIC ACID POISONING# Corrosive poison# Hardening of the tissues occurs with it.# Thorough gastric lavage with 10% glycerine in water + MgS04 till phenolic odour emited.# Then, about 2 ounces of liquid may be left in stomach. | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology | The stomach wash for phenol poisoning is done with?
A. 10% glycerin
B. KMnO4
C. Alkaline water solution
D. Saline water
| 10% glycerin |
98802414-2f8f-452c-b6ae-6ee455cbe19a | Given scenario suggests diagnosis of Chronic granulomatous disease. Chronic granulomatous disease. Due to NADPH oxidase defect Subtypes: X linked recessive Autosomal recessive Gp 91 PHOX defect Gp 47 PHOX defect Gp 67 PHOX defect C/F: Recurrent infections: by catalase positive organism.Eg- S. aureus, Pseudomonas, Nocardia Granuloma formation Diagnosis: Nitroblue-tetrazolium test- No O2 radicals - No formazan - No colour Flow cytometry: Done using Dihydro Rhodamine (DHR) | Microbiology | Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders) | A 3-year-old male child is brought by his father with complaint of recurrent infections despite proper treatment and hygiene. While reviewing his history, pediatrician notices that the child has been infected multiple times with S. aureus, Pseudomonas & E. coli. Which of the following test will be useful to diagnose condition of the child?
A. Negative nitroblue-tetrazolium test
B. Positive nitroblue-tetrazolium test
C. Increased IgM, Decreased IgG, IgA, and IgE
D. Increased IgE and IgA, Decreased IgM
| Negative nitroblue-tetrazolium test |
4e770d24-c09d-4c8e-b183-ba54af84844a | Crevicular incision is also known as Second incision for which 12 number blade is used. | Dental | null | Which number blade is useful for Crevicular incision :
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 15
| 12 |
ed1a3ec7-266c-4783-99f6-2c15c38548aa | Ans. (c) Heinz bodiesImage source - style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> | Unknown | null | Which defect in RBC is shown below ?
A. Cabot ring
B. Basophilic stippling
C. Heinz bodies
D. Toxic granules
| Heinz bodies |
37f89b56-ed0e-419b-858e-b215841497a0 | "Bilious vomiting is the first sign of the volvulus, and all infants with bilious vomiting must be evaluated rapidly to ensure that they do not have intestinal malrotation with volvulus. If left untreated, vascular compromise of the midgut initially causes bloody stools, but eventually results in circulatory collapse" Ref: Schwaz 9/e, Page 1428. | Surgery | null | Malrotation presents with which of the following features: 1. Mass abdomen 2. Bleeding PR 3. Bilious vomiting 4. Hematemesis
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 1 & 3
D. 3 & 4
| 2 & 3 |
4eb78972-bfbf-436f-9cee-68232b2163d7 | Fusion of neural folds begins in middle and gradually extend in cranial and caudal directions REFERENCE: TEXTBOOK OF CLINICAL EMBRYOLOGY... VISHRAM SINGH SECOND EDITION..PAGE NO:52 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Closure of Neural tube begins at which of the following level?
A. Cervical region
B. Thoracic region
C. Cephalic end
D. Caudal end
| Thoracic region |
44452663-87a9-4889-a7a1-da3f9d717baf | Ans. is 'a' i.e., herpes zoster * Here is a D/d of commonly asked vesico bullous disorders* So the crux is -Painful lesions are seen in Herpes infection.Painless lesions are seen in-Dermatitis herpetiformis Pemphigoid Pemphigus Erythema multiformeDermatomal involvement-Herpes zosterItchy lesions-Dermatitis herpetiformisIntraepidermal-Herpes and pemphigusSubepidermal-Dermatitis herpetiformis Pemphigoid Erythema multiforme | Unknown | null | A 45-year-old male has multiple grouped vesicular lesions present on the T10 segment dermatome associated with pain The most likely diagnosis is -
A. Herpes zoster
B. Dermatitis herpetiformis
C. Herpes simplex
D. Scabies
| Herpes zoster |
22f45302-4183-4557-ad02-7d3086c0f56b | Sodium concentrations in various crystalloids and colloid Hamann's (RL) 130mmol/L Normal saline (0.9% NaCl) 154mmol/L Dextrose saline (4% dextrose in 0.18 saline) 30mmol/L Gelofusine 150mmol/L Hemacel 145 mmol/L Hetastarch - Lactated potassium saline injection (Darrow's solution) 121mmol/L Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :281 | Surgery | General surgery | Concentration of sodium in RL is
A. 154
B. 120
C. 130
D. 144
| 130 |
606d2532-2a10-494d-a9ad-2eecd37d27cb | Ans. is c i.e. Embryo As explained earlier most common cause of aboion in first trimester are chromosomal abnormalities involving the zygote or embryo | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | MC cause of aboion in first trimester is, defect in:
A. Placenta
B. Uterus
C. Embryo
D. Ovarian
| Embryo |
12c866c8-22e0-40d7-af76-4ceec267c3f2 | Fingernail involvement in psoriasis appears as punctate pitting, onycholysis, nail thickening, or subungual hyperkeratosis The nail matrix will have pitting, which appears as punctate depressions that are small, shallow, and various shapes and sizes. Characteristically, they are isolated and deep, though they may occur as regular lines or grid-like pattern. The nail is dull, rough, and fragile The nail bed may have "oil" spots, which are oval, salmon-coloured nail beds, and there may be onycholysis secondary to "oil" spots affecting hyponychium medially or laterally. Secondary infections may occur. The nail plate may become raised off the hyponychium (subungual hyperkeratosis). The most frequent signs of nail matrix disease are pitting, leukonychia, crumbling, and red spots in the lunula, whereas salmon patches or oil spots, subungual hyperkeratosis, onycholysis, and splinter hemorrhages represent changes of nail bed psoriasis Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 347; Fitzpatrick dermatology | Dental | Papulosquamous disorders | These nail changes are seen in
A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis
C. Darier disease
D. Onychomycosis
| Psoriasis |
8fa82c7b-8643-40ec-b9da-22974e60eb8a | Ans. (d) Physiological blockRef Apley's 8th/ 231Patterns of nerve injuryNeuropraxiaAxonotmesisNeurotmesis* Reversible physiological nerve conduction block* It is seen in crutch palsy tourniquet palsy, and Saturday night palsy.* There is loss of conduction because of axonal interruption but the nerve is in continuity and the neural tubes are intact* Seen in closed fractures and dislocations* There is complete division of nerve with complete loss of conduction (i.e. epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium, & axon all have lost their continuity)* Seen in open wounds | Orthopaedics | Nervous System | Neuropraxia is a condition characterized by
A. Division of nerve sheath
B. Division of axons
C. Division of nerve fibres
D. Physiological block
| Physiological block |
9ccf6348-49f5-453c-9f75-37a99ac5ea3d | Jowar (sorghum) Jowar is also known as kaffir corn or Milo. It is a major crop grown in India next only to wheat and rice. For several population groups, it is a staple diet. The protein content of jowar varies from 9 to 14 per cent, and the proteins are limiting in lysine and threonine. Ceain varieties of jowar have a high leucine content and consumption of these varieties is associated with pellagra. This disorder is often seen in the Telengana and Marathwada regions where jowar is predominantly consumed. Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 23th Ed Pgno: 628 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Sorghum is pellagrogenic due to excess content of
A. Lysine
B. Threonine
C. Leucine
D. Tryptophan
| Leucine |
2191e565-9e6f-4762-9921-24087383f685 | Ans. C. (C).a. P waveThe P wave is a small deflection wave that represents atrial depolarization.b. PR intervalThe PR interval is the time between the first deflection of the P wave and the first deflection of the QRS complex.c. QRS wave complexThe three waves of the QRS complex represent ventricular depolarization. For the inexperienced, one of the most confusing aspects of ECG reading is the labeling of these waves. The rule is: if the wave immediately after the P wave is an upward deflection, it is an R wave; if it is a downward deflection, it is a Q wave:i. small Q waves correspond to depolarization of the interventricular septum. Q waves can also relate to breathing and are generally small and thin. They can also signal an old myocardial infarction (in which case they are big and wide)ii. the R wave reflects depolarization of the main mass of the ventricles -hence it is the largest waveiii. the S wave signifies the final depolarization of the ventricles, at the base of the heartd. ST segmentThe ST segment, which is also known as the ST interval, is the time between the end of the QRS complex and the start of the T wave. It reflects the period of zero potential between ventricular depolarization and repolarization.e. T waveT waves represent ventricular repolarization (atrial repolarization is obscured by the large QRS complex). | Physiology | Heart, Circulation, and Blood | In the diagram below A-D represent depolarization of ventricles. Which one represents "R" wave?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| C |
8ef60370-a6c1-4264-b837-ade67b118a64 | Ans. D. GlycosylationRNA produced after transcription is hn RNA. To form m RNA it undergoes modifications to remove intervening sequence called introns by splicing. For this 5'capping and 3'tailing is done to stabilize RNA. | Biochemistry | Molecular Genetics | During post transcriptional modification of RNA the following process does not take place:
A. Splicing
B. 5'capping
C. 3'polyadenylation
D. Glycosylation
| Glycosylation |
c16e22b6-f5d0-435a-b3eb-00404bb856d6 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Fumarate |Ref: Harper 29th/e p. 276-277]o Fumarate is released during urea cycle, which is an intermediate of Kreb's cycle, thus linking the two.Both urea cycle and TCA cycle have been explained in previous years. | Biochemistry | Urea Cycle and Disorders | Urea cycle is linked to TCA cycle by -
A. Arginine
B. Ornithine
C. Oxaloacetate
D. Fumarate
| Fumarate |
ba0d4611-9418-4b54-bbae-c32e4a742d18 | CD4+ T cells have TCRs with an affinity for Class II MHC Ref: Ananthanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg: 135 | Microbiology | Immunology | T helper cells recognises -
A. MHC class I
B. MHC class II
C. Processed peptides
D. Surface Ig
| MHC class II |
e4958250-5d35-4cae-8d1e-af35dec6617d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Diabetes mellitus Aldose reductase catalyzes the NADPH-dependent conversion of glucose to sorbitol, the first step in polyol pathway of glucose metabolism. Aldose reductase inhibitors are a class of drugs being studied as a way to prevent eye and nerve damage in people with diabetes mellitus. Examples of aldose reductase inhibitors include: Tolrestat (withdrawn from market) Apalrestat Ranirestat Fidarestat | Medicine | null | Aldose reductase inhibitor drugs are useful in
A. Cataract
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Hereditary fructose intolerance
D. Essential fructosuria
| Diabetes mellitus |
d7870fb8-928a-40e1-943a-cbdc834832d5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Uterine contraction Abortion stick is a thin wooden or bamboo stick about 15 to 20 cm long, or a twig of similar length from some irritant plant as mentioned below.When the stick is used it is equipped at one end with cotton wool or a piece of cloth soaked in an irritant substance as mentioned below.The abortion stick or the twig is introduced in the os of the uterus and retained there till uterine contractions begin.Irritant substances used to soak the abortion stickmarking nut juicecalotropis (madar)jequirityasafoetidapaste made from white arsenic, red lead etc.Irritant plants twig used for abortionmadar (Calotropis)chitra (Plumbago zeylandica)lal chitra (Plumbago rosea)kaner (Nerium odorum) | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | Abortion stick used in criminal abortion causes abortion by the mechanism of
A. Uterine contraction
B. Stimulation of uterine nerves
C. Uterine infection & necrosis
D. Placental separation
| Uterine contraction |
44326465-758f-48ec-aca1-5d98db6514ef | Patient is showing features of monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance. It refers to a clinical condition, defined by the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin production without evidence of myeloma, waldenstorms macroglobulinemia or other lymphoproliferative disorder. It is an incidental finding detected by elevated total protein concentration. Serum protein electrophoresis shows a monoclonal spike. In MGUS, IgG is seen in 75% cases, IgM in 15% and IgA in 10%. Plasma cells in the bone marrow and smear appear mature ( Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 111 ; Hematopathology: Morphology, Immunophenotype, Cytogenetics and Molecular By Faramarz Naeim, Page 386 ; Cancer and The Kidney: The Frontier of Nephrology and Oncology By Eric P. Cohen, 2nd Edition, Page 102 | Medicine | null | An 80 year old asymptomatic woman on a routine examination was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5 g/dl). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Indolent myeloma
C. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
D. Waldenstorm's macroglobulinemia
| Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance |
5fb1f637-4197-401f-9a3e-c2c0b9357df3 | Alvimopan, Naloxegal & Methyl naltrexone are peripherally acting opioid antagonists used to treat opioid induced constipation & paralytic ileus. | Pharmacology | null | Opioid induced constipation is treated by
A. Loperamide
B. Biperiden
C. Alvimopan
D. Naltrexone
| Alvimopan |
d0e9d2f6-8205-4053-88d9-119904e3ecbf | Ans- A 0,3, 7,14, 28 Ref- Vaccine Post-exposure prophylaxis depends on the type of contact with the confirmed or suspect rabid animal, as follows: 1. Wound treatment Thorough washing of the wound with soap/detergent and water, followed by the application of ethanol or an aqueous solution of iodine or povidone. 2. Passive immunization Human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) or equine rabies immunoglobulin (ERIG) or F(ab')2 products should be used for category III exposures as well as for some category II exposures (see table above). Passive immunization should be administered just before or shortly after administration of the first dose of vaccine given in the post-exposure prophylaxis regimen. If it is not immediately available, passive immunization can be administered up until the seventh day after initiation of the primary series of postexposure prophylaxis (with cell-culture or embryonated-egg rabies vaccine). Dosage and administration: The dose for HRIG is 20 IU/kg body weight and for ERIG and F(ab')2 products 40 IU/kg body weight. The full dose of rabies immunoglobulin, or as much as is anatomically feasible, should be administered into and around the wound site. Any remainder should be injected i.m. at a site distant from the site of active vaccine administration. Multiple needle injections into the wound should be avoided. If the correct dose of rabies immunoglobulin is too small to infiltrate all wounds, as might be true of a severely bitten individual, it can be diluted in physiological buffered saline to ensure greater wound coverage. 3. Active immunization Cell-culture- or embryonated-egg-based rabies vaccines should always be used for post-exposure prophylaxis. They can be administered either i.m. or i.d. Intramuscular regimens: Both a five-dose and a four-dose i.m. regimen are recommended for post-exposure vaccination; the fivedose regimen is the more commonly used: The five-dose regimen is administered on days 0, 3, 7, 14 and 28 into the deltoid muscle. The four-dose regimen is administered as two doses on day 0 (one dose in the right and one in the left arm (deltoid muscles), and then one dose on each of days 7 and 21 into the deltoid muscle. An alternative post-exposure regimen for healthy, fully immunocompetent exposed people who receive wound care plus high-quality rabies immunoglobulin plus WHO-prequalified rabies vaccines consists of four doses administered i.m. on days 0, 3, 7 and 14. Intradermal regimens: Intradermal administration of cell-culture- and embryonated-egg-based rabies vaccines has been successfully used in many developing countries that cannot afford the five- or four-dose i.m. schedules. The two-site i.d. method: one i.d. injection at two sites on days 0, 3, 7 and 28. The volume per intradermal injection should be 0.1 ml with both purified Vero cell rabies vaccine, and purified chick embryo rabies vaccine. | Unknown | null | The schedule of HDCV in rabies is-
A. 0,3, 7,14, 28
B. 0, 3, 14, 28, 90
C. 3, 7, 14, 16,18
D. 0, 7, 14, 16, 18
| 0,3, 7,14, 28 |
0f420b10-3f43-4507-a395-2e9ab7ffabda | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cardiac anomaly Lithium is a weak teratogen in human.The main effects attributable to lithium are increased cardiac malformation in the fetus especially "Ebsteins anomaly".Lithium may increase the incidence of Ebstein9s anomaly in fetus but it is not contraindicated during pregnancy.Lithium is not considered a major human teratogen and the risk for Ebstein's anomaly is only .5% for babies whose mother takes lithium during pregnancy.Therefore lithium is not contraindicated during pregnancy. It is however advisable to perform a "fetal echocardiography" to exclude the possibilities of cardiac anomaly.Evaluation of studies on lithium in pregnancy shows that lithium therapy throughout pregnancy does not seem to increase the general rate of major anomalies and apparently add only a small risk for cardiovascular defects notably Ebstein's anomaly.It can be concluded that whenever lithium is the drug of choice in women with bipolar disorder, it may be continued even in pregnancy.Moreover it is advised not to discontinue lithium as it may subsequently lead to relapse of the disorder.In addition, pregnancy of lithium treated women should be considered high risk and therefore monitoring during pregnancy has to include "fetal echocardiography".Pregnancy interruption in lithium treated mothers can probably be considered only if severe cardiac anomaly is diagnosed.According to K.D.T.Lithium is contraindicated during pregnancy.But all other books states that lithium can be administered is during pregnancy. | Pharmacology | C.N.S | Abnormality to check if lithium is given to a pregnant female -
A. Cardiac anomaly
B. Neural tube defect
C. Facial defect
D. Urogenital defect
| Cardiac anomaly |
f76a4382-9f3c-4a8d-bd9c-a93716652ef6 | Buffering capacity of a buffer is most effective when the concentrations of salt and acid are equal or when pH = pKa. The effective range of a buffer is 1 pH unit higher or lower than pKa. pKa refers to the pH at which the concentration of the acid equals that of the base. Phosphate buffer is effective at a wide range because it has three pKa values. Ref: Vasudevan, Biochemistry, 3rd Edition, Page 320 | Biochemistry | null | The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum when the pH is equal to:
A. 0.5 pKa
B. pKa
C. pKa+1
D. 2 pKa
| pKa |
6890b2de-674b-452f-b016-0cbca62ca572 | Asbestosis
There are two distinct geometric forms of asbestos -
Serpentine chrysolite
Amphibole (crocidolite)
Serpentine chrysolite accounts for most of the asbestos used in industry.
Both serpentine and amphibole can cause all asbestosis related disease except for mesotheloma, which is usually associated with amphibole (crocidolite).
Asbestos related diseases
Localized fibrous plaques which may be calcified.
Diffuse pleural fibrosis
Pleural effusion
Parenchymal interstitial fibrosis (asbestosis).
Lung carcinoma → Most common neoplasm associated with asbestos exposure.
Mesothelioma of pleura and peritoneum → most specific neoplasm associated with asbestos exposure.
Laryngeal and colon carcinomas.
Stomach carcinoma
Note - Concomitant cigarette smoking greatly increase the risk of lung carcinoma but not that of mesotheloma. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Mesothelioma is caused by –
A. Asbestosis
B. Silicosis
C. Baggasois
D. Anthracosis
| Asbestosis |
cfcac655-98cf-43df-ae68-859cc8eac2a1 | The baby may pass meconium in utero or soon after birth, but all healthy newborn babies must evacuate within 24 hours of birth. During the first 2..3 days the baby passes black, tarry (like tar) 'meconium' stools which are followed by greenish (transitional) stools for the next 1 or 2 days.
The normal breastfed baby usually passes 4-8 semisolid sticky golden yellow stools everyday. Some babies may pass stools after each feed due to the 'exaggerated' gastrocolic reflex. The stools are often very small (at times like drippings of the birds) with normal consistency. The babies continue to gain weight.
Tar means a thick, sticky, brown to black liquid with a pungent odor, obtained by the destructive distillation of wood, coal, peat, shale, etc. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Meconium is excreted by a new born till _______ day:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 4
| 3 |
84733d91-02fd-4eda-a7b5-9de87d086c77 | Within the macrophage, heme derived from haemoglobin is broken down by heme oxygenase, conveing it to biliverdin Carbon monoxide and iron arereleased as by-productsReference: Harper biochemistry 30th edition page no 672 | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | Home to bilirubin conversion is carried out by
A. Heme oxygenase
B. Heme reductase
C. Heme isomerase
D. Heme hydrolase
| Heme oxygenase |
793bef1c-96fb-47f4-856b-1c07a23eef73 | Dysplasia. Actinic keratosis is a form of dysplasia in sun-exposed skin. Histologically, such lesions are composed of atypical squamous cells, which vary in size and shape. They show no signs of regular maturation as the cells move from the basal layer of the epidermis to the surface. Dysplasia is a preneoplastic lesion, in the sense that it is a necessary stage in the multistep evolution to cancer. However, unlike cancer cells, dysplastic cells are not entirely autonomous, and the histologic appearance of the tissue may still revert to normal. None of the other choices represent preneoplastic changes in sun-exposed skin.Diagnosis: Actinic keratosis, dysplasia | Pathology | Cellular Pathology | A 60-year-old farmer presents with multiple patches of discoloration on his face. Biopsy of lesional skin reveals actinic keratosis. Which of the following terms best describes this response of the skin to chronic sunlight exposure?
A. Atrophy
B. Dysplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Hypertrophy
| Dysplasia |
e1110c5c-bcc3-4f75-9e36-52055c54638f | Ans. (B) Benzhexol(Ref: KDT 8/e p460)Central anticholinergics like trihexy phenydyl (Benzhexol) are the only drugs effective in drug induced Parkinsonism. | Pharmacology | C.N.S | Drug of choice in drug induced parkinsonism is:
A. Levodopa
B. Benzhexol
C. Amantidine
D. Carbidopa
| Benzhexol |
6a8cedf9-21c8-4a97-a4a3-2426d5352004 | High specificity All are impoant attributes of screening test but among them high specificity is less impoant as Park states -'Screening test is not intended to be a diagnostic test. It is only an initial examination. Those who are found to have positive test results are refen-ed to a physician for fuher diagnostic work-up & treatment. High specificity is a necessary attribute for a diagnostic test. Below are given the differences between screening and diagnostic tests. Screening test Diagnostic test * Done on apparently healthy Done on those with indications or sick (asymptomatic) * Applied to groups Applied to single patients, all diseases are considered * Test results are arbitrary and final Diagnosis is not final but modified in light of new evidence, diagnosis is the sum of all evidence 4. Based on one criterion or cut-off Based on evaluation of a number of symptoms, signs and point (e.g., diabetes) laboratory findings Less accurate More accurate 6. Less expensive More expensive 7. Not a basis for treatment Used as a basis for treatment 8 The initiative comes from the investigator or agency providing care The initiative comes from a patient with a complaint Criteria for Screening test Screening test must satisfy the criteria of - acceptability - repeatability - validity - simplicity - safety - rapidity - ease of administration - low cost 1. Acceptability - Considering that screening tests are applied on asymptomatic people in large numbers, a high rate of people cooperation is needed. Thus the tests should be acceptable to the people. In general, tests that are painful, discomfoing or embarrasing (eg. rectal or vaginal examinations) are not likely to be acceptable to the population in mass campaigns. 2. Repeatability (Precision or reproducibility) - means that the test must give consistent results when repeated more than once on the same individual or material under the same conditions. 3.Low cost - A screening should be inexpensive. As a screening test has to be applied on millions of people to identify a small percentage who have early disease or its precursors, an expensive test however good, cannot justify use of restricted financial resources that has to be used for fuher diagnostic workup and t/t of those screened on positives. 4. High safety margin - This is an attribute of any test, whether diagnostic or screening. Moresoever for screening as screening tests are to be applied on millions of asymptomatic people and any adverse effect would bring whole process into disrepute. iims IN/nee answers & explanations -- May 2007 5. Validity - It expresses the ability of a test to separate or distinguish those who have the disease from those who do not - Validity has two components - sensitivity & specificity - An ideal screening test should be both highly sensitive and highly specific. But this is seldom possible and a compromise has always to be made. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following characteristics is not of much impoance in a screening test
A. Low cost
B. High safety margin
C. High sensitivity
D. High specificity
| High specificity |
5b399597-9652-4958-8e90-3d218c133b7f | knowlede about the classes of antidepressents is very impoant as they are frequently asked in examinations amitriptilline is a tri cyclic antidepressent Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inibitor trazadone is a serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor (SARI) Bupropion is a Noradrenaline and Dopamine reuptake inhibitor Ref.kalon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, 1040 | Anatomy | Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry | which of the following is a tri cyclic antidepressant
A. amitryptilline
B. fluoxetine
C. trazadone
D. bupropion
| amitryptilline |
c01abea7-7ffe-42eb-b6a9-34d15880b196 | LETHAL SIDE EFFECTS OF VALPROATE - Hyperammonemia - Pancreatitis - Hepatic failure - Neural tube defects - Thrombocytopenia MINOR SIDE EFFECTS OF VALPROATE - Hair loss - PCOD - WEIGHT GAIN - TREMORS Ref.kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 935 | Anatomy | Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry | thrombocytopenia is the side effect of which drug
A. valproate
B. clonazepam
C. aripiprazole
D. amisulpride
| valproate |
8fe21cce-6639-4ace-a59f-9c4b1a720bef | Ref Robbins. 9/e p132-133 Endothelial injury is also a cause..see the above questions In gram-negative sepsis, free LPS attaches to a circulating LPS-binding protein, and the complex then binds to the CD14 receptor on monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils. Engagement of CD14 (even at doses as minute as 10 pg/mL) results in intracellular signaling an associated "Toll-like receptor" protein 4 (TLR-4). This signaling results in the activation of nuclear factor kappaB (NF-kB), which leads to transcription of a number of genes that trigger a proinflammatory response. It was the result of significant activation of mononuclear cells and synthesis of effector cytokines. It also results in profound activation of mononuclear cells and the production of potent effector cytokines such as IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-a. TLR-mediated activation helps to trigger the innate immune system to efficiently eradicate invading microbes, but the cytokines they produce also act on endothelial cells. There, they have a variety of effects, including reduced synthesis of anticoagulation factors such as tissue factor pathway inhibitor and thrombomodulin. The effects of the cytokines may be amplified by TLR-4 engagement on endothelial cells | Anatomy | General anatomy | The intiating mechanism in endotoxic shock is
A. Peripheral vasodilation
B. Endothelial injury
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Cytokine release
| Cytokine release |
b8225ec8-8461-4ede-b757-f651354feb30 | Ans. a (93.75 %). (Ref. KDT, Pharmacology, 4th ed., 53)Elimination of drugsZero order eliminationRate of elimination is constant regardless of C (i.e., constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time). Cp linearly with time. Examples of drugs--ethanol., phenytoin aspirin (at high or toxic concentrations).First order eliminationRate of elimination is proportional teo the drug concentration (i.e., constant fraction of drug eliminated per unit time). Cp exponentially with time. tl/2Drug eliminated1 t 1/2 50% drug is eliminated.2 t 1/2 75% (50 + 25) drug is eliminated.3 t 1/2 87.50% (50+ 25 + 12.50) drug is eliminated.4 t 1/2 93.75% (50+ 25 + 12.50 + 6.25) drug is eliminated.Thus, complete drug elimination occurs in 4-5 t ViVolume of distribution (apparent)Vd =Dose---C # Vd estimates the volume into which the drug has distributed (one needs to extrapolate plasma concentration at time zero)# The lower the Co, the higher the Vd, and vice versa# Drug stored in non fluid compartments like fat may have a Vd greater than TBW (e.g. lipid soluble drugs, quinacrine),# Drugs that bind strongly to plasma proteins have a Vd that approaches plasma volume.# Approximate Vd values (weight 70 kg)--plasma volume (3 L), blood (5L), extracellular fluid (12-14 L), TBW (40-42 L)Cdeg = Plasma concentration at time zeroClearanceCI =Rate of drug elimination----------------Plasma drug concentrationClearance is the theoretical volume of blood totally cleared of drug/unit time. It represents the ratio of drug elimination to its plasma concentration. For a drug with first-order elimination, clearance is constant. CI=Kc x Vd Kc=Elimination constant EliminationThe rate of elimination of the active drug. It is not drug excretion because it may be metabolized before excretion. | Pharmacology | General Pharmacology | What % of drug is eliminated by first order kinetics after four half-life cycles?
A. 93.75%
B. 87.50%
C. 75.00%
D. 50.00%
| 93.75% |
95ca07c4-e6bc-40cc-9bb7-3ecd6f517910 | Antideoxyribonuclease B ( anti-DNA as B)antibody: serological test to determine streptococcal infection. Anti-DNAase B and antihyaluronidase test are very useful for retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal pyogenes infections, where ASO titer may be low. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10th Edition; page:214 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Anti-DNAase B is used for diagnosis of
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Corynebacterium
D. Neiserria
| Streptococcus |
a395398e-aa48-4b4e-81b2-24c909683872 | Granulosa Cell Tumor: Most are benign; however, between 5 and 25% are malignant. The tumors can produce estrogen, thus leading to endometrial hyperplasia and cancer. Microscopic morphology of granulosa cell tumor shows Call-Exner bodies (appear similar to ovarian follicle), and produce inhibin, which can be identified in serum and by immunohistochemistry. Ref: Wyatt C., Moos P.J., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 17. Pathology of the Male and Female Reproductive Tract and Breast. In C. Wyatt, P.J. Moos, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Mostly granulosa cell tumors are benign. Marker for granulosa cell tumor is:
A. CA 19-9
B. CA 50
C. Inhibin
D. Teratoma
| CA 50 |
0585563f-db79-458c-a2b8-50540502f2ee | Para neoplastic syndromes in HCC Hypocholesterolemia(most common) Hypoglycemia Erythrocytosis Hypercalcemia Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1458-1463 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Most common Paraneoplastic syndrome of HCC
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypeension
C. Hypercalcaemia
D. Erythrocytosis
| Hypoglycemia |
2aa41409-8860-4856-b79b-f74cfcd45b11 | Maximum sodium reabsorption occours in PCT. Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 681 | Physiology | Renal physiology | Which of the following ion is absorption in proximal convoluted tubule?
A. Na+
B. Urea
C. K+
D. Mg+
| Na+ |
8000c837-6d44-4898-80c6-49e19de8a2a6 | The values enclosed in a normal distribution curve are:Mean +- 1 SD 68% of data Mean +- 2 SD 95% of dataMean +- 3 SD 99% of dataIn the above question,Mean = 60SD = 10Hence, the range of values from 40 to 80 i.e. 60 +- 20 (Mean +- 2 SD) would include 95% of the readings.Therefore, the total number of readings in the given range = (95 x 200) / 100 = 190Hence, 190 patients are expected to have a QOL score between 40 and 80. | Microbiology | All India exam | The postoperative quality of life (QOL) scores of 200 prostate cancer patients have a mean of 60 and a standard detion of 10. How many patients are expected to have a QOL score between 40 and 80?
A. 190
B. 136
C. 120
D. 140
| 190 |
30995109-2ebe-4b4d-b943-1bac84e778dd | Amalgam has a linear coefficient of thermal expansion that is 2.5 times greater than tooth structure, and it does not bond to tooth structure (unless an amalgam bonding agent is used).
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, Mosby, 4th Edition, Page No: 155 | Dental | null | A 40 year old male patient came for routine checkup. Intra-oral examination reveal multiple teeth restored with silver amalgam restoration. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of this restoration is?
A. 5 times greater than tooth structure
B. 2 times greater than tooth structure
C. 3 times greater than tooth structure
D. 2.5 times greater than tooth structure
| 2.5 times greater than tooth structure |
2a3a259d-d58a-4eeb-92f7-7b78c1fad52f | hypoglossal nerve hooks arround the origin of occipital aery of lower end of sternocleidomastoid muscle ref : bd chaursia | Anatomy | All India exam | which cranial nerve is present arround the origin of occipital aery of lower end of sternocleidomastoid muscle ?
A. spinal accesory cranial nerve
B. superior laryngeal nerve
C. hypoglossal nerve
D. petrosal nerve
| hypoglossal nerve |
8b308da1-b9b5-41ed-98cb-4453ee1d11cc | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Necrotizing hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis Goodpasture syndromeo Goodpasture syndrome is a rare condition characterized by rapid destruction of the kidney and diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage.o It is an autoimmune disease characterized by presence of circulating autoantibodies targeted against basement membrane of lung and kidney.o These antibodies are directed against the noncollagenous domain of the a-3 chain of type IV collegen (collegen of basement membrane).o The antibodies initiate an inflammatory destruction of the basement membrane in kidney glomeruli and lung alveoli.o In Goodpasture syndrome, immune reaction is type II hypersensitivity.Morphological changes1. Lungo The lungs are heavy, with areas of red brown consolidation.o There is focal necrosis of alveolar walls associated with intraalveolar hemorrhages.o Alveoli contain hemosiderin-laden macrophages.o Linear deposits of immunoglobulins along the basement membranes of the septal walls.2. Kidneyo Diffuse proliferative rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis,o Focal necrotizing lesion and crescents in >50% of glomeruli.o Linear deposits of immunoglobulins and complement along glomerular basement membrane.Clinical manifestationso Occur typically in young males.o Most cases begin clinically with respiratory symptoms, principally hemoptysis.o Soon, manifestations of glomerulonephritis appear and typically present as nephritic syndrome - hematuria, nephritic urinary sediment, subnephrotic proteinuria, rapidly progressive renal failure,o The common cause of death is renal failure. | Pathology | Glomerular Diseases | Good pasture's syndrome is characterised by -
A. Necrotisting hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis
B. Alveolitis
C. Patchy consolidation
D. Pulmonary edema
| Necrotisting hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis |
f99295fa-7fb4-4cef-aad2-84f36fa583ff | Erythropoietin is produced in the fetal liver in the first and second trimester.After bih, the major site of production is in the kidney.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2305 - 2306) | Pediatrics | All India exam | Which of the following is the major site of erythropoietin production during the fetal stage?
A. Liver
B. Yolk sac
C. Bone
D. Spleen
| Liver |
1bc4d1f2-7093-4a15-bb44-1be1f63b5774 | The commonest intra - abdominal tumor in first two years of life → Neuroblastoma.
The commonest intra - abdominal tumor between 2nd to 5th year of life → Wilm’s tumor.
The commonest intro - abdominal tumor in children (no age specification) → Neuroblastoma.
(Wilm's tumor is the second most common abdominal tumor in children).
Remember:
The commonest cause of abdominal mass in Newborn is Multiple dysplastic kidneys (if neoplasm or tumor has not been mentioned when asking for the commonest intra-abdominal mass, the answer will be multiple dysplastic kidneys). | Pediatrics | null | Which is the commonest abdominal mass in neonate :
A. Wilm's tumor
B. Polycystic kidney
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
| Neuroblastoma |
2c1722ef-950e-486c-aca8-450a1263b312 | O.P. Ghai 7th ed, page7 Achild rolls over by 5 months | Anatomy | General anatomy | child rolls over by ?
A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 7 months
D. 8 months
| 5 months |
4811f36f-4846-4e80-ae5c-45fa6dafd801 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 14th November8 May - World Red Cross Day8th March - International Women's Day14th November -/ World Diabetes Dayl' December - World AIDS Day | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | World diabetes day is celebrated on ?
A. 8th may
B. 8th march
C. 14th November
D. 1" december
| 14th November |
bf54dfd8-9b7b-484a-bd37-f4cbe1b77903 | Answer is 'b' i.e. Infection "Other than pain, infection is the most common complication" - Maingot's 10/e, p 1929 Other complications are: Obstruction of GIT Hemorrhage Rupture Pseudoanetoysm - splenic aery is most frequently involved. | Surgery | null | Commonest complication of pancreatic pseudocyst ?
A. Rupture
B. Infection
C. Obstruction of GIT
D. Hemorrhage
| Infection |
3c4ede0e-5148-40ed-bb7f-5f5e6370e316 | Ans. C i.e. Proton pump inhibitor Omeprazole It is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of: - Dyspepsia, - Peptic ulcer disease (PUD), - Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD/GERD), - Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) and - Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. | Pharmacology | null | Omeprazole effects are due to: March 2013
A. Prostaglandin analogue
B. H, antihistamines
C. Proton pump inhibitor
D. Ulcer protective mechanism
| Proton pump inhibitor |
7e080e57-4eec-4fca-bb60-9211849b93de | Glycosaminoglycans are heteropolysaccharide (heteropolysaccharides are polysaccharides which contain two or more different monosaccharide unit or their derivates).Glycosaminoglycans are linear (unbranched) polysaccharides, with repeating diasaccharide units. Each disaccharide unit consists of an amino sugar and an acid sugar (sugar acid). | Biochemistry | null | Uronic acid pathway does not have role in formation of which glycosaminoglycan proteoglycan?
A. Keratan sulfate
B. Chondroitin sulphate
C. Hyaluronic acid
D. Heparan sulphate
| Keratan sulfate |
5a7144e1-c1c7-4459-8a65-953340a9eed6 | Blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by the development of cavernous hemangiomas, most commonly involve the skin and the GI tract. The most common presentations of blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome are either the appearance of the skin lesions alone or iron deficiency anemia. Ref: American Gastroenterological Association (AGA) Institute Technical Review on Obscure Gastrointestinal Bleeding 2007. | Medicine | null | The most common presentation of a blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome is:
A. Asymptomatic iron deficiency anemia
B. Cardiac conduction defects
C. Renal aminoaciduria
D. Painful peripheral neuropathy
| Asymptomatic iron deficiency anemia |
54c559f3-0d2d-4a92-b9f4-593e4f0417f6 | Injury at stylomastoid foramen causes LMN palsy, so the face sags and drawn across to the opposite side.
Chorda tympani is spared at this level, taste sensation over anterior 2/3 of tongue is preserved. | ENT | null | Which test can detect facial nerve palsy occurring due to the lesion at the outlet of stylomastoid foramen -
A. Deviation of angle of mouth towards opposite side
B. Loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3 of tongue
C. Loss of sensation over right cheek
D. Deviation of tongue towards opposite side
| Deviation of angle of mouth towards opposite side |
08f6efe6-812a-4e35-9669-43519a2c7f85 | The presence of the oxygen atom in the 2nd carbon of RNA make it more prone to spontaneous hydrolysis DNA is much more stable, the half-life of spontaneous hydrolysis is about 200 million years The possibility of mutations occurring and remaining unidentified is more with uracil since cytosine can be easily deaminated to uracilRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 576, boxes 44.1 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | DNA is selected for genetic information compared to RNA because
A. It is stable
B. Double stranted compared to RNA
C. Two strands are complementary
D. I has genes
| It is stable |
da9670b6-4737-40c6-bc39-ba1393755c18 | Pseudocyst complications Infection (MC) :14% Pain due to expansion Hemorrhage upto 10% Duodenal obstruction Rupture Abscess Ref: Shackelford 7th edition Pgno :1159 | Anatomy | G.I.T | The complication least likely to occur in a pseudocyst of the pancreas
A. Hemorrhage
B. Rupture
C. Infection
D. Carcinomatous change
| Carcinomatous change |
d86b98eb-c7ef-4052-ab4e-2b0c78dcdd58 | Ans. c (7). (Ref. Harrisons Medicine, 18th/735)LIGNOCAINE# Maximum safest dose 3 mg/kg or 200 mg and with adrenaline 7 mg/kg or 500 mg.# Duration of effect 45 to 60 min and with adrenaline it is 2-3 hours.# Should not be given in patients with history of malignant hyperthermia.# Concentration usedo Surface topical analgesia- 4%o As jelly, for urethra- 2%o Nerve blocks/epidural/infiltration block-- 1-2%o Spinal- 5%# Lignocaine is an amide# It is 4 times less potent than bupivacaine# Drug of choice for lignocaine-induced arrhythmia is bretylium tosylate (SGPGI 2002)# Repeated doses of 4-5 mL of 0.5% bupivacaine or 1% lignocaine are used to maintain epidural analgesia.# 'Transient neurological symptoms' is an disntinct side-effect of LignocaineEducational point:The baricity of the local anesthetic solution. Baricity is defined by the ratio of the density of the local anesthetic solution to the density of CSF. A solution with a ratio > 1 is hyperbaric and tends to sink with gravity within the CSF. An isobaric solution has a baricity of 1 and tends to remain in the immediate area of injection. A ratio < 1 is a hypobaric solution, which rises in the CSF. | Anaesthesia | Local and Regional Anesthesia | Maximum dose of lignocaine with adrenaline is (in mg/ kg)
A. 4
B. 2
C. 7
D. 10
| 7 |
510bb2c9-e6cc-46c4-b836-263b513f8c36 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Regional ileitis Inflammatory bowel disease o Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is used to represent two distinct disorders of idiopathic intestinal inflammation : i) Crohn disease or regional ileitis ii) Ulcerative colitis | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following includes inflammatory bowel disease in children -
A. Coeliac disease
B. Tropical sprue
C. Regional ileitis
D. Cystic fibrosis
| Regional ileitis |
7cabe561-11cd-4a69-b653-abd9faa09928 | Ans. C. Foetal heart soundsPresence of fetal heart sounds is considered to be one of the most diagnostic signs of pregnancy.Other absolute signs of pregnancy are mentioned as follows:* Perception of active fetal movements and Palpation of fetal parts.* Ultrasonographic evidence of gestational sac and embryo in early pregnancy and even later.Probable signs:* Osiander's sign (increased pulsation felt through lateral fornix by 8 weeks), Chadwick's sign (Blue hue of vagina), and Goodell sign (softening of cervix)* Enlargement of the abdomen.* Change in shape, size as well as consistency of uterus* Softening of cervix* Internal as well as external ballottement* Contraction of Braxton Hicks | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis of Pregnancy | Which of the following serves as the MOST DIAGNOSTIC sign of Pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhoea
B. Quickening
C. Foetal heart sounds
D. Distention of abdomen
| Foetal heart sounds |
c431288a-8db5-4886-a417-474f8e240dc8 | Answer A. Inferior hemifield lossDilated ophthalmoscopy of this left eye illustrates a nonrefractile plaque in the proximal superior retinal artery with retinal whitening in the superior macula signifying retinal ischemia. Superior retinal ischemia will result in a defect in the inferior visual field, as in this patient. A diagnosis of hemiretinal arterial occlusion was made. | Medicine | C.N.S. | Which one of the following patterns of visual disturbance would be predicted to be demonstrable on examination of this patient?
A. Inferior hemifield loss
B. Temporal quadrantanopsia
C. Uniocular blindness
D. Macular sparing hemianopia
| Inferior hemifield loss |
467199b8-81d2-477c-aea5-7b59224bcf45 | Ans: b (Pituitary haemorrhage) Ref:Harrison, 16th ed, p. 2078Sheehan syndrome refers to panhypopituitarism after postpartum pituitary apoplexy.Apoplexy is an endocrine emergency that may result in severe hvpoglycaemia. hypotension. CNS haemorrhage and death.The hyperplastic enlargement of the pituitary during pregnancy increases the risk for haemorrhage and infarction. Acute symptoms - severe headache, signs of meningeal irritation, bilateral visual changes, ophthalmoplegia, cardiovascular collapse and loss of consciousness.Investigation:Pituitary CT or MRI - intratumoral or sellar haemorrhage. Pituitary stalk deviation and compressionTreatmenta) Patient with visual loss and impaired consciousness - surgical decompressionb) No visual loss, no loss of consciousness - high dose glucocorticoids. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Sheehan syndrome is due to:
A. Adrenal haemorrhage
B. Pituitary haemorrhage
C. Hypothalaamic hemorrhage
D. Pancreatic haemorrhage
| Pituitary haemorrhage |
e9841753-72a1-4f8c-8375-a967e4a0bf87 | Trimethoprim is usually given orally, alone or in combination with sulfamethoxazole, which has a similar half-life. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can also be given intravenously. Trimethoprim is well absorbed from the gut and distributed widely in body fluids and tissues, including cerebrospinal fluid. Because trimethoprim is more lipid-soluble than sulfamethoxazole, it has a larger volume of distribution than the latter drug. Therefore, when 1 pa of trimethoprim is given with 5 pas of sulfamethoxazole (the ratio in the formulation), the peak plasma concentrations are in the ratio of 1:20, which is optimal for the combined effects of these drugs in vitro. Ref: Deck D.H., Winston L.G. (2012). Chapter 46. Sulfonamides, Trimethoprim, & Quinolones. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e. | Pharmacology | null | The ratio of concentration of drug in co-trimoxazole trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is:
A. 1:02
B. 1:03
C. 1:05
D. 3:01
| 1:05 |
b1cf0dd3-bf12-41fe-8d87-ee8ada94a093 | The autopsy in a case of a suspected asphyxial death has to be thorough including conventional neck dissection protocol. Dissection of the neck is performed after removal of the brain and thoracic organs in order to provide a clean bloodless field for the study of neck organs and prevents any aifactual seepage of blood in soft tissues of the neck. Ref: Concise Text and Manual of Forensic Medicine, Medical Law, and Ethics, 2005, Page 224. | Forensic Medicine | null | Which is the last organ to be dissected during autopsy in asphyxial death?
A. Neck
B. Head
C. Abdomen
D. Thorax
| Neck |
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