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c681b4b8-3daf-4407-9d52-b4e18032808f | Ans. is a, i.e. Montevideo unitsRef Williams Obs, 23/e, p 4371 montevideo unit = Intensity of constraction x number of contractions in 10 mins.Montevideo unit is to define uterine activity.As per this:Clinical labour usually commences when uterine activity reaches values between 80-120 Montevideo units (This translates into approximate 3 contractions of 40 mm of Hg every 10 minutes).During labour--Normal uterine contractions are between 190-300 Montevideo units (At the time of delivery it is 300 Montevideo units) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Normal Labour | Pressure of normal uterine contractions is between 190-300 units. Which unit is being referred to here?
A. Montevideo units
B. mm of Hg
C. cm of water
D. Joules/kg
| Montevideo units |
9308e6f7-2efe-4f52-b2dd-858fb18104c4 | The prognosis of severe aplastic anemia managed with suppoive therapy is only poor and more than 50% of people die, usually in the first year. The curative treatment for patients under 35 years of age is allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation if there is an available sibling donor. Older patients and those with suitable donors should proced to bone marrow transplantion as soon as possible. Reference : Davidson, 23rd Edition, page no : 969. | Medicine | Haematology | Treatment of choice for aplastic anaemia is
A. Blood transfusion
B. Oxymethalone
C. Bone marrow transplantation
D. Azathioprine
| Bone marrow transplantation |
cd18524a-fd31-471b-87ea-a7931647b398 | Seminomas are radiosensitive tumors so prognosis is good. | Surgery | null | Testicular tumor with best prognosis is
A. Teratoma
B. Seminoma
C. Yolk sac tumor
D. Sertoli cell tumor
| Seminoma |
1d9714bf-f1cf-4fd1-9263-0f1e97732e7f | The wall of the vagina from the lumen outwards consists firstly of the mucosa of non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium with an underlying lamina propria of connective tissue, secondly a layer of smooth muscle with bundles of circular fibers internal to longitudinal fibers, and thirdly an outer layer of connective tissue called the adventitia. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg395 | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Vaginal epithelium is a derivative of
A. Mesoderm of urogenital sinus
B. Endoderm of urogenital sinus
C. Mesoderm of genital ridge
D. Endoderm of genital ridge
| Endoderm of urogenital sinus |
c067da7e-d1c7-4de1-9c4e-15ee72027526 | Ans. C. Acute onsetGood Prognosis in Schizophrenia:Late onset (Onset >35 yr)Sho duration (<6months)Obvious precipitating factorsAcute onset/ Abrupt onsetGood premorbid social, sexuaI and work historiesMood disorder symptoms(especially depressive disorders)MarriedFamily history of mood disordersGood social suppo systemsPositive symptoms:Presence of precipitating stressorCatatonic subtype(paranoid- intermediate prognosis)First episodePyknic (fat) bodyFemale sexPresence of confusion, perplexity or disorientation in the acute phaseNormal cranial CTOutpatient treatment - Proper treatment & good response to treatment | Psychiatry | null | Good prognosis in schizophrenia is/are seen in:
A. Negative symptoms
B. Early onset
C. Acute onset
D. Family history of schizophrenia
| Acute onset |
3102811b-2f8f-4f34-bdb5-9157eb463aea | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Duodenal ulcer o Peptic ulcer disease is the most common cause of severe UGIB, accounting for upto 50% of cases. | Surgery | Benign Gastric Disease | Most common cause of GI bleed is -
A. Duodenal ulcer
B. CA stomach
C. Oesophageal varices
D. Erosive gastritis
| Duodenal ulcer |
86e555cf-2e94-49a9-858c-a0510a4f22f5 | (Ref: Katzung 11/e p633) Infliximab is a monoclona antibody against TNF-a. It is commonly used to treat moderate to severe rheumatoid ahritis paicularly in patients who have failed methotrexate therapy. TNF-a inhibitors can cause serious adverse effects, including reactivation of latent tuberculosis. All patents being considered for TNF-a inhibitor therapy should have a baseline PPD skin test to screen for latent tuberculosis. | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | Mrs Reeta Wardhan, A 50-year-old female with rheumatoid ahritis is being considered for infliximab therapy. Which of the following tests should be performed before beginning treatment?
A. Liver function tests
B. PPD skin test
C. Pulmonary function tests
D. Visual examination
| PPD skin test |
e221bf59-47dd-4a4a-a416-763509e045dd | The radial nerve is the most likely nerve compressed to cause these symptoms. This type of nerve palsy is often called "Saturday night palsy." One reason for this nickname is that people would supposedly fall asleep after being intoxicated on a Saturday night with their arm over the back of a chair, thereby compressing the nerve in the spiral groove. The radial nerve innervates all of the extensors of the elbow, wrist, and fingers. Paralysis of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus would result in loss of the musculocutaneous nerve and the pectoral nerves, which do not mediate extension of the forearm or hand. The medial cord of the brachial plexus branches into the median nerve and ulnar nerve. Neither of these nerves innervates muscles that control extension. The median nerve innervates flexors of the forearm and the thenar muscles. The lateral and median pectoral nerves do not extend into the arm and innervate the pectoralis major and minor muscles. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | A 23-year-old male medical student fell asleep in his chair with Netter's Atlas wedged into his axilla. When he awoke in the morning, he was unable to extend the forearm, wrist, or fingers. Movements of the ipsilateral shoulder joint appear to be normal. Which of the following nerves was most likely compressed, producing the symptoms described?
A. Lateral cord of the brachial plexus
B. Medial cord of the brachial plexus
C. Radial nerve
D. Median nerve
| Radial nerve |
91d6e525-0dcd-4805-98c0-0b9c7d99c3b7 | C i.e. Clinical Examination Itch (or pruritis)Q is a major diagnostic criteria whereas, Denny Morgan infra orbital fold is a minor criteria for diagnosis of atopic dermatitis. Atopic dermatitis most commonly involves flexural surfaces like antecubital and popliteal fossa Q. However, in infantile phase, face and extensor surface (convexities) are more commonly involved. Spongiosis of epidermis Q is the histological hallmark of dermatitis (eczema). Contact dermatitis is diagnosed by patch testQ & Atopic dermatitis is diagnosed by clinical examinationQ. Clinical criteria for diagnosis of atopic dermatitis Family h/o allergy/atophy Personal history of allergy/atophy i.e. presence of other atopic condition asQ - rhinitis, hay fever, asthma, food allergy or eczemaQ. Extremily pruritic lesions commonly on antecubital or popliteal fossaf2 Dienny morgan foldQ, white dermographism Exacerbation & remissions. Pruritis and scratching made worse by environmental alteration, changes in temperature, sundry (in rainy season) & rough (woolen) clothingQ and leading to excoriation, lichenificationQ, dryness & Dennie's line. Clinical course lasting longer than 6 weeksQ. Lesions typical of eczematous dermatitis i.e. papules, erythematous macules and vesicles, which can coalesce to form patches and plaques. Disease Diagnosis made by Atopic Dermatitis Clinical ExaminationQ Contact Dermatitis Patch TestQ Donovanosis MicroscopyQ (demonstration of Donovan bodies or safety pin appearance)Q Syphilis Dark field microscopyQ, FTA-ABS, VDRL, MHA-TP, TPI Chancroid Gram stainine (gram -ve cocco? bacilli, school of fish or rail road appearance)Q LGV - Microscopic examination of giemsa stained scrapings for inclusion or elementary bodies - Culture, ELISA Tinea (Dermatophytes) KOH SmearQ Lupus vulgaris BiopsyQ | Skin | null | Atopic Dermatitis is diagnosed by:
A. Patch test
B. Wood Lamp
C. Clinical Examination
D. #NAME?
| Clinical Examination |
04f8f8d1-5a2a-445b-95a1-670e73a8794a | Histopathology of pemphigus vulgaris Earliest changes -intercellular edema + disappearance of intercellular bridges in the lower most epidermis. Loss of coherence between epidermal cells (acantholysis) --> formation of clefts -->bullae in the suprabasal zone. Basal cells remain attached to the dermis, producing a "tombstone" appearance. Acantholytic cells are present in the bulla cavity. Scanty perivascular inflammatory infiltrate composed of lymphocytes, histiocytes and occasional eosinophils, neutrophils, and plasma cells is present | Dental | Blistering disorders | "Row of tombstones" appearance is seen in:
A. Irritant dermatitis
B. Pemphigus
C. Pemphigoid
D. Herpes zoster
| Pemphigus |
7bf8ea29-03ab-46a2-b347-ef6343c408f0 | Multiple carboxylase deficiencies is characterized by deficient activities of three biotin-dependent enzymes, propionyl coenzyme A carboxylase, pyruvate carboxylase, and beta-methylcrotonyl coenzyme A carboxylase. Multiple carboxylase deficiencies is a form of metabolic disorder involving failures of carboxylation enzymes. The deficiency can be in biotinidase or holocarboxylase synthetase. These conditions respond to biotin. Forms include Holocarboxylase synthetase deficiency - neonatal; Biotinidase deficiency - late onset; If left untreated, the symptoms can include feeding problems, hypotonia, generalized erythematous rash with skin exfoliation and alopecia, failure to thrive, seizure, coma, developmental delay, foul-smelling urine, metabolic acidosis, ketosis, and hyperammonemia. | Biochemistry | Enzymes | Treatment of Multiple Carboxylase deficiency is
A. Biotin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Thiamine
D. Folic acid
| Biotin |
402f6e78-a5fb-4d48-9ad7-95df52d6c6c9 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Straight sinus * Great cerebral vein of Galen: It is formed by the union of two internal cerebral veins, is 2 cm long and drains into the straight sinus. Its tributaries are:- (a) Internal cerebral veins, (b) Basal veins, (c) Occipital veins, (d) Posterior callosal vein | Anatomy | Head & Neck | Vein of Galen drains into-
A. Straight sinus
B. Sigmoid sinus
C. internal jugular vein
D. Superior longitudinal sinus
| Straight sinus |
d4046ea5-3279-41b9-9cb8-d25de348862b | Posterior Urethral injury- Posterior urethra is located in the pelvis and is fixed.- In cases of pelvic fracture- posterior urethra is more prone for injury.- Most common site of injury - bulbomembranous junction. Bulbar Urethral Injury Membranous Urethral Injury More common Less common Direct blow to the perineum (Straddle Injury) Blunt pelvic trauma with fracture pelvis Retention of urine Retention of urine Blood at urethral meatus Blood at urethral meatus Perineal hematoma Pelvic Hematoma Normal prostate High Lying prostate Superficial extravasation Deep extravasation - Gold standard Treatment for suspection of Urethral injuries- Suprapubic cystostomy - Delayed repair can be done after 3 months.- In emergency, surgical repair should not be attempted due to increased risk of stricture and incontinence.- Repeated urethral catheterization can conve paial tear to complete tear. | Surgery | Urethra and penis | A 32-years old man with pelvic fracture is in urinary retention with blood at the external urinary means. Retrograde urethrogram shows prostatomembranous disruption. The most appropriate immediate treatment is:
A. Urethral catheterization
B. Exploration and repair of urethra
C. Suprapubic cystostomy
D. Perineal urethrostomy
| Suprapubic cystostomy |
eb13766a-30cc-4aed-b10c-819cf5b169ea | Hyperkalemia (plasma K+ +-7.0 meq/L). The PR and QRS intervals are within normal limits. Very tall, slender peaked T waves are now present. Hyperkalemia (plasma K+ +-8.5 meq/L). The QRS complex is broad and slurred and the QRS interval has widened to 0.2 s. The T waves remain tall and slender Fuher elevation of the plasma K+ level may result in ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No: 504 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | The ECG change seen in hyperkalemia is
A. Narrowing of the QRS complex
B. Increased amplitude of P waves
C. Narrowing and peaking of T waves
D. Ventricular arrhythmias
| Narrowing of the QRS complex |
0d1d39d8-62be-4d06-90f2-3ad76a06d798 | Ans. is b i.e. Dysgerminoma "Dysgerminoma is the most common malignant germ cell tumour accounting for about 40% of all ovarian cancers of germ cell origin." "Dysgerminomas are the most common malignant germ cell tumours of the ovary and have been considered the female - equivalent of seminoma." Most common germ cell tumour of ovary is dermoid cyst (mature teratoma). It is benign in nature. Dysgerminoma Commonest malignant germ cell tumourdeg of ovary. Primarily affect young women (average age of incidence is 20 yearsdeg). Usually unilateraldeg but they are the only germ cell malignancy with a significant rate of bilateral ovarian involvement - 15 to 20%. Can be found at gonadal as well as extra gonadal sites.deg Pathologically it is a solid neoplasm with areas of softeningdeg due to degeneration. They are the most common ovarian malignancy detected during pregnancy. Histologically as in seminoma, it mimics the pattern of primitive gonad, lymphocytic infiltration may be seen (good prognostic sign).deg Clinically as with all germ cell tumours most dysgerminoma are diagnosed at an early stage. Unlike other germ cell tumours it does not secrete AFP and HCG is only rarely secreted, however it secretes LDH and placental alkaline phosphate, which are used as tumour marker of dysgerminoma. Although dysgerminoma is most radio sensitive tumouty2treatment of choice is surgery (unilateral salpingo oophorectomy) followed by Bleomycin, Etoposide and Cisplatin (BEP) based chemotherapy as feility can be preserved. They have the best prognosis of all malignant ovarian germ cell variants. Tumours associated with it : - Immature teratoma - Choriocarcinoma - Endodermal sinus tumour. Dysgerminomas are also seen in phenotypic females with abnormal gonads like : Pure gonadal dysgenesis (46XY with bilateral streak gonads, swyer syndrome) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis Testicular feminization syndrome (46XY) Klinfelter syndrome For patients in whom karyotype reveals Y chromosome, both ovaries should be removed although uterus may be left in situ for possible future embryo transfer. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The most common pure germ cell tumour of the ovary
A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Embryonal cell tumor
D. Malignant Teratoma
| Dysgerminoma |
3501f7d8-a2b3-4004-beae-f835e880c6a0 | Plague, also called Black death or Mahamari or The great death, is a zoonoses caused by yersinia pestis.
Wild rodent (Tetra indica) is the natural reservoir in India. o Most effective and commonest vector for plague is rat flea.
Xenopsylla cheopis is the most important species of rat flea for plague. Other important species are X. astia, X. brasiliensis and Pulex irritans. Both sexes of flea bite and transmit the disease.
A partially blocked flea (a flea with partially blocked proventriculus) is more dangerous than a completely blocked flea.
Rat flea can survive upto 4 years in rat burrows under optimum conditions.
This is considered the most likely mechanism of maintaining the natural focus.
Modes of transmission may be :
Bite of infected flea
Direct contact with tissues of infected animal
Droplet infection (in pneumonic plague),
There are three types of plague :
Bubonic plague (most common type) with incubation period 2-7 days
Pneumonic plague (most virulent and least common) with incubation period 1-3 days
Septicemic plague (less infectious) with incubation period 2-7 days.
Streptomycin is the drug of choice for treatment and tetracycline is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Plague is transmitted by the bite of
A. Rat flea
B. Culex mosquito
C. Body louse
D. Tse-Tse fly
| Rat flea |
8ca58b0e-9523-40da-a645-6a377eafc460 | Ans. (b) Vulva(Ref: Robbins 9th ed p 999)Extramammary Paget's is rare lesion of the vulva is similar in its manifestations to Paget disease of the breast. In the vulva, it presents as a pruritic, red, crusted, maplike area, usually on the labia majora. aget disease is a distinctive intraepithelial proliferation of malignant cells. Paget cells are larger than surrounding keratinocyte and are seen singly or in small clusters within the epidermis. The cells have pale cytoplasm containing mucopolysaccharide that stains with periodic acid-Schiff (PAS), Alcian blue, or mucicarmine stains. In addition, the cells express cytokeratin 7. | Pathology | Female Genital Tract | Extramammary paget's is seen in?
A. Uterus
B. Vulva
C. Vagina
D. Ovary
| Vulva |
55b6bc83-2e1f-442f-8845-8eb7a425ec36 | Ans. a (Langerhan cells). (Ref. Robbins, Pathologic Basis of Disease 6th/pg.685)HISTIOCYTOSIS# Histiocytosis represents clonal proliferation of antigen- presenting dendritic cells.# It is of two types:- Localized histiocytosis (70%) i.e. Eosinophilic granuloma. It is the most benign variety of langerhans cell histiocytosis.- Disseminated histiocytosis (30%)i. Hand - Schuller - Christian disease (chronic)ii. Letterer-Siwe disease (fulminant)# Age: 5-10 years most common# Location: Bone (in children) or lung (in adults) most commonly involved.# Sites of infection:- Flat bones: calvarium > mandible > ribs > pelvis > vertebrae- Long bones- Skull: Diplopic space of parietal bone (most common) affected.i. Round/ovoid punched out lesion with beveled edge ('Hole within hole' appearance) with sharply marginated without the sclerotic rim with "button sequestrum" with soft tissue mass overlying lesion (geographic skull).- Jaw: Floating tissue mass overlying lesion- Vertebra plana- Painful diaphyseal expansile lytic long bone lesions.# Pathology:- Birbeck's granules/HX bodies are characteristic pathologic feature of histiocytosis X, noted in cytoplasm of Langerhan cells.- On electron microscope they have 'tennis-racket' appearance.- These tumor cells typically express HLA-DR and CDla.DISEASESCELLULAR CHARACTERISTICS OF THE LESIONSTREATMENTClass 1(Langerhans cell histiocytosis )Langerhans cells (CDla positive) with Birbeck granulesLocal therapy for isolated lesions; chemotherapy for disseminated disease.Class II(Infection-associated hemophagocytic syndrome)Morphologically normal reactive macrophages with prominent erythrophagocytosisChemotherapy; allogeneic bone marrow transplantation.Class III (Malignant histiocytosis)Neoplastic proliferation of cells with characteristics of monocytes/ macrophages or their precursors iAntineoplastic chemotherapy, including - methotrexate, vincristine, etoposide, imatinib....are being tried. | Pathology | Blood | Berbeck's granules are seen in
A. Langerhan cells
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils
| Langerhan cells |
63dd4b1f-7e1c-44f6-9bde-14272f21b7e9 | Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K.D. Tripat hi p. 109, 113.Explanation:Hyoscine (Scopalamine)Atropine substitute and quartemary ammonium compoundLess potent and longer acting than atropineUsed for esophageal and gastrointestinal spastic conditions.- Hyoscine has been used to produce sedation and amnesia during labour (twilight sleep) and to control maniacal states.- It had earned a reputation as a lie detector' during world war SI: its amnesic and depressant action was believed to put the subject 'off guard' in the face of sustained interrogation and sleep deprivation, so that he came out with the truth. | Pharmacology | Seedatives & Hyponotics | Drug used in Narcoanalysis is:
A. Cocaine
B. Pethidine
C. Atropine
D. Scopalamine
| Scopalamine |
cbcf664e-1feb-4762-9633-411f62a078fc | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Myeloperoxidase deficiency Patients with myeloperoxidase deficiency are paicularly liable to candida infection"--Ananthanarayan Immunodeficiency Infection * Chronic-granulomatous disease Catalase positive pyogenic infections * Chediak-Higashi syndrome Pyogenic infections * Myeloperoxidase deficiency Candida albicans infection * Lazy leucocyte syndrome Recurrent bacterial infection | Microbiology | null | Candida infections are seen in -
A. Chronic granulomatous disease
B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
C. Myeloperoxidase deficieny
D. Lazy leucocyte syndrome
| Myeloperoxidase deficieny |
b0525612-6517-4921-b748-9c553914ec68 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Potassium chlorate Cartridge (round)* Cartridge is the ammunition used in firearms. Cartridge consists of (i) Cartridge case, (ii) Propellant (gun powder), (iii) Projectile (missile) and (iv) Wads (only in shotguns.).1) Cartridge case# It is the outer shell or covering of the cartridge. In shotgun it is cylinderical. Base is of brass and rest of it is of cardboard or plastic. In rifled weapons, it is tapering and whole of it is made of brass or steel.# Center of base has percussion cap (detonator cap) which has sensitive composition, i.e. primer, consisting of potassium chlorate, antimony sulphide, mercury fulminate, barium nitrite, lead peroxide or tetrazene.# In all weapons, after firing, the cartridge case remains in the barrel and it is to be taken out manually (shotgun, revolvers, rifle) or it is ejected out automatically, e.g. in pistals.2) Propellent (gun powder)# It propels the projectile (missile) forward. It is composed of black powder or smokeless powder in the form of grains, pellets, thin cylindrical cords or flakes. Its ignition results in formation of expanding hot gases under pressure which (gas pressure) propels the projectile (missile) by providing it necessary muzzle velocity and striking energy.# The classical gun powder is known as black powder, consists of charcol (15%), Sulphur (10%), and potassium nitrate (75%). Depending on fineness, the black gun powder is designated as FG, FFG, FFFG. etc. (F = fineness). Pyrodex is another gun powder with same components, but with different ratios.# Black gun powder produces smoke, i.e. It is smoke producing powder. Smokeless powder, in addition to black powder, has nitrocellulose (single base), or nitrocellulose plus nitroglycerine (double base), or nitrocellulose plus nitroglycerine plus nitroguanidine (triple base). Semi smokeless powder has 80% black powder and 20% smokeless powder (nitrocellulose).3) Projectile (missile)# Projectile is an object propelled by force of rapidly burning gases. In shotgun these are lead shots and pellets (recently steel is also used instead of lead) and in rifled weapons (pistal, rifle, revolver), these are bullets. Tip of the bullet is knwon as nose.4) Wads# Wads are present only in the cartridge of a shot gun. Wad can be made of paper, left, card board, or plastic. These are circular disc of various thicknesses, used to adjust the contents of a shotgun cartridge.# Felt wad (wad made of felt) is imprignated with grease and this lubricates the bore (inside of barrel). | Forensic Medicine | Injuries | Compound used as primer in weapon is
A. Potassium chlorate
B. Sulphur
C. Potassium nitrate
D. Nitrocellulose
| Potassium chlorate |
7b371cdc-84ad-4419-b8ac-ccd94bbde64c | Eruption usually occurs in lower jaw first except it is preceded by lateral incisors in upper jaw. ref : Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 35.. | Forensic Medicine | Identification | Which of the following teeth erupt earlier in the upper jaw-
A. Central incisor
B. Lateral Incisor
C. Canine
D. First molar
| Lateral Incisor |
a2a62be8-bd2e-4fa0-b46d-d25066ea48fb | Ans. c. Pulsatile release of GnRH during sleep | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following is responsible for pubeal growth in females?
A. Decreased level of adrenal androgens at pubey
B. High level of estrogen at pubey
C. Pulsatile release of GnRH during sleep
D. Increased sensitivity of HPO axis to estrogen
| Pulsatile release of GnRH during sleep |
ef7c4f35-1f98-4371-95a8-75d6027ae5b8 | Pure tone and speech audiograms are measured in dB HL (hearing level). In normal hearing adult person hearing threshold is 0 dB HL.dB SL (sensation level) is the intensity of sound that will produce same sensation of hearing as in a normal person. Thus in a hearing-impaired individual who already has a hearing loss of 20 dB, a sound of 50 dB will produce a sensation of 30 dB only.dB SPL (sound pressure level) is the physical measure of sound intensity.Environmental sounds (noise pollution levels) are measured in dB A. dB nHL is used in auditory brain-stem response to click stimulus. | ENT | Ear | Unit of intensity while testing for threshold of hearing in an audiogram is:
A. dB SL
B. dB HL
C. dB A
D. dB SPL
| dB SL |
a8dd9a97-9ea2-4481-8087-2cb858910d15 | The synthesis of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase and 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase may also be induced by insulin in the fed state,A second oxidative step is catalyzed by 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase, which also requires NADP+ as hydrogen acceptor.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry, 30th edition, page no: 210 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | 6-PhosphoGluconate dehydrogenase need
A. NAD
B. NADPH
C. FAD
D. FMN
| NADPH |
1fa36b3c-6f86-4345-9d18-b3c6f69df00d | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Race o Cephalic index is used for determination of race.Race determination of skeletonA) Cephalic Index (CI)# Cephalic index is defined as the index of breadth of skull.Cephalic index =Max. breadth of skull--------------------Max. AP length of skullx 100# Based of cephalic index races are clasified into following three:-1) Dolichocephalic (long headed): Cephalic index is 70-75 and is a feature of Caucasions, Pure Aryan (Indians), Aborigines, and Negroes.2) Mesaticephalic (medium headed): Cephalic index is 75-80 and is a feature of Europeans, and Chinese.3) Brachycephalic (short headed): Cephalic index is more than 80 and is a feature of Mongolian.B) Brachial Index# Brachial index is defined as:-Brachial index =Length of radius----------------Length of humerusx 100# Brachial index is 74.5 in Europeans and 78.5 in Negroes.C) Crural index# It is defined as:-Crural index =Length of tibia--------------Length of femurx 100# Crural index is 83.3 in Europeans and 86.2 in Negroes.D) Humero-femoral index (HF index)# It is defined as:-Humero-femoral index =Length of humerus----------------Length of femurx 100# It is 69 in Europeans and 72.4 in Negroes.E) Intermembral index# t is:-Intermembral index =Length of radius + humerus------------------------Length of tibia + femurx 100# It is almost same (70) in Europeans and Negroes.F) Orbit# It is square in Pure Aryans (Indians), Negroes, and Arborigines. It is triangular in Chinese and Europeans. It is 'rounded' in Mongols.G) Nasal opening# It is broad in Pure Aryans (Indians), Negroes, and Arborigines. It is narrow and elongated in Chinese and Europeans. It is 'rounded' in Mongols.H) Palate# Palate is rectangular in Pure Aryans (Indians), Negroes, and Arborigines. It is triangular in Chinese and Europeans. It is rounded (or horse shoe shaped) in Mongols. | Forensic Medicine | Identification - Medicolegal aspects | Cephalic index is most useful in identification of -
A. Age
B. Sex
C. Race
D. Religion
| Race |
666ca0bc-86b2-4bc8-a9f8-7af85ee48aa2 | Ans. is `b' i.e., 1/3rd of total calories & 1/2 of daily protein requirement | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Mid-day meals provided in schools provide ?
A. 1/2 of total calories & 1/2 of protein
B. 1/3 of total calories & 1/2 of protein
C. 1/2 of total calories & 1/3 of protein
D. 1/3 of total calories & 1/4 of protein
| 1/3 of total calories & 1/2 of protein |
9c1e0b48-d361-4a79-90e6-aa9801f00cf8 | Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Melanoma Radiosensitivity of different tumorsHighly sensitiveModerately sensitiveRelative resistantHighly resistanto Lymphomao Seminomao Multiple myelomao Ewings sarcomao Wilm's tumoro Dysgerminomao Small cell carcinoma of lungo Breast cancero Basal cell carcinomao Medulloblastomao Teratomao Ovarian cancero Nasopharyngeal carcinomao Squamous cell carcinoma of lungo Renal cell carcinomao Rectal carcinomao Colon carcinomao Bladder carcinomao Soft tissue sarcomao Cervical carcinomao Melanomao Osteosarcomao Pancreatic cancero Hepatic carcinoma | Radiology | Physics of Radiotherapy | Radioresistant tumor is-
A. Lymphoma
B. Dvsgerminema
C. Breast cencer
D. Melanoma
| Melanoma |
e7054d83-9b65-4e0d-bd11-456d6aec285b | The bone progresses through an osteolytic and osteoblastic phase, which usually occur simultaneously, but with the osteoblastic phase being ultimately more dominant. Thus, the radiographic appearance is that of an increased radiopacity of the jaws. The bone tends to become more granular in appearance and the lamina dura is obscured or difficult to identify. Here the bony trabeculae, particularly in the posterior part of the body of the mandible, may show linear striations. In addition, the teeth may show hypercementosis. A more classical appearance is that of granular looking bone containing scattered islands of dense or fluffy-looking bone, particularly in the region of the tooth apices.
Key Concepts | Radiology | null | The following radiographic finding is associated with:
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Paget’s disease
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Osteoma
| Paget’s disease |
d451da2e-563c-4b5c-b9b3-9b2320339e97 | Extrathyroidal extension into strap muscles is T3b, Lymph node status is N0.Patients with below 55 years any T and any N with Mo (no metastasis) is taken as Stage IIf patient was above or 55 years age, would have been stage IIT1<2cmT2 2-4 cmT3a > 4cmT3bExtrathyroidal extension into strap musclesT4Gross extrathyroidal extension*This was recent update in AJCC 8th classification, previously cut off age was 45 yearsRef: AJCC 8th edition | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | A 50-year-old lady with thyroid swelling is diagnosed to have papillary carcinoma with mass having 4 cm at greatest diameter and invading strap muscles. Lymph node status was negative. What will be the stage of the disease?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
| Stage I |
9f518ea6-a45e-44a8-bf6d-70140ae5565b | Hemorrhage occur after injury to the inferior rectal vessels in ischiorectal fossa. The ischiorectal fossa lies in the anal triangle and is bound laterally by the obturator internus with its fascia and superomedially by the levator ani and external anal sphincter. It contains the inferior rectal vessels. Thus, haemorrhage occurs in the ischiorectal fossa when it is ruptured. | Anatomy | Development of GU system and Neuro-vascular supply of pelvis & perineum | Into which structure does hemorrhage occur after injury to the inferior rectal vessels?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. E
| E |
0acb7f11-7c36-4c5c-867e-489e2d5f8d14 | please upload a reason for this question, if anyone.. | Pathology | null | Histological finding of Reye's syndrome is
A. Budding and branching of mitochondria
B. Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum
C. Paranuclear microdense deposits
D. Glycogen depletion
| Glycogen depletion |
51b0ec24-5a87-41a7-b7c9-9209b59c815b | The rates of co-morbidity are higher in patients with some psychiatric disorders, compared to general population.
Stroke, Ischemic heart disease, and diabetes are more common in Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder (schizophrenia >bipolor disorder).
Hypertension is more common in bipolar disorder and schizophrenia (bipolor disorder > Schizophrenia).
Epilepsy is more common in schizophrenia and bipolor disorder (Schizophrenia = Bipolor disorder). | Psychiatry | null | Stroke is common in -
A. Mania
B. Depression
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Schizophrenia
| Schizophrenia |
23540665-a0d4-4233-8174-5a3d53abcf9e | Management of migraine Avoidance of identified triggers or exacerbating factors (such as the combined contraceptive pill) may prevent attacks. Treatment of an acute attack consists of simple analgesia with aspirin, paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. Nausea may require an antiemetic such as metoclopramide or domperidone. Severe attacks can be aboed by one of the 'triptans' (e.g. sumatriptan), which are potent 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT, serotonin) agonists. These can be administered the oral, subcutaneous or nasal route. Caution is needed with ergotamine preparations because they may lead to dependence. Overuse of any analgesia, including triptans, may contribute to medication overuse headache. If attacks are frequent (more than two per month), prophylaxis should be considered. Many drugs can be chosen but the most frequently used are vasoactive drugs (b-blockers), antidepressants (amitriptyline, dosulepin) and antiepileptic drugs (valproate, topiramate). Women with aura should avoid oestrogen treatment for either oral contraception or hormone replacement, although the increased risk of ischaemic stroke is minimal . Ref - Davidsons 23e p1096 | Medicine | Miscellaneous | drug of choice for acute attack of migraine is -
A. Sumatriptan
B. NSAIDS
C. Bromocriptine
D. Coicosteroids
| Sumatriptan |
320e8d10-b18d-4eee-84a1-f311dd8abd3d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tuberculosis of skin o Lupus vulgaris is most common type of cutaneous tuberculosis. Cutaneous tuberculosis | |b1Exogenous SourceEndogenousHypersensitivityo Tuberculosis chancre (Primary inoculation TB)o Tuberculosis verucosa cutiso Lupus vulgariso Scrofulodermao Orificial tuberculosiso Miliary tuberculosiso Metastatic tuberculous abscesso Gummao Tuberculids# Lichen scrofulossorum# Papulo-necrotic# Erythema induration# Erythema nodosum | Skin | C. Mycobacteria | Lupus vulgaris is -
A. Tuberculosis of skin
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Fox bite
| Tuberculosis of skin |
7e2dc4c0-c5b4-4456-aa8b-88acb62f4f1b | Presence of fine, white, leathery froth seen at the mouth and nostrils is one of the most characteristic external signs of drowning. It is white or rarely blood stained, lather-like, abundant and increase in amount with compression of chest. Even after wiping it gradually reappears, especially if pressure is applied to the chest. Froth is also seen in strangulation, acute pulmonary edema, electric shock, during epileptic fit, in opium poisoning and putrefaction. But in all these cases the quantity of froth is not as large as in drowning, and the bubbles are also much smaller. Ref: Parikh's Textbook of Medical Jurisprudence, Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 6th Edition, Pages 3.66-3.67 ; Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 325-6 | Forensic Medicine | null | At autopsy, a body is found to have copious fine leathery froth in mouth and nostrils which increased on pressure over chest. Which of the following was the most likely cause of death?
A. Epilepsy
B. Hanging
C. Drowning
D. Opium poisoning
| Drowning |
425321e8-92f9-4769-bb8e-db43df1de965 | Resting tremors are seen in Parkinsonism In cerebellar lesions intension tremors are seen. Tremors are rhythmic oscillatory movements of a body pa. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 2256 | Medicine | C.N.S | Which of the following is not a feature of lateral cerebellar lesion?
A. Resting tremor
B. Dysahria
C. Nystagmus
D. Loss of Co-ordination of movements
| Resting tremor |
77d0436e-f3d3-4355-b814-9c762f534a41 | Microalbuminuria (<300 mg/day or <300mg/d) shows that diabetic nephropathy is reversible. Overt proteinuria ie >300mg/d is usually irreversible.
The most common histological pattern in DM is Diffuse Glomerulosclerosis.
The most typical histological pattern in DM is Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesion (nodular glomerulosclerosis). | Medicine | null | Reversible diabetic nephropathy is characterized by:
A. Microalbuminuria
B. Macroalbuminuria
C. Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion
D. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
| Microalbuminuria |
cefc2124-0fb6-490f-8acf-3ce31567b49a | Ans. B. Hair growthMinoxidil is arteriolar dilator. Its peculiar side effect is hair growth which is used in patients suffering from alopecia. | Pharmacology | C.V.S | Side effect of minoxidil which is used as therapeutic use?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hair growth
C. Gynecomastia
D. Vasodilation
| Hair growth |
538a2633-15b7-4eeb-b9c4-e81afe91613d | Ans. is b' i.e., Bolus of Ringers lactate It is a case of metabolic acidosis (lactic acidosis) due to peripheral circulatory failure (It is a common knowledge that in cases of peripheral circulatory failure metabolic acidosis occurs due to production of lactic acid). In moderate or mild cases of metabolic acidosis i.e., when the pH is > 7.2 metabolic acidosis needs no specific t/t. T/T of the underlying cause is sufficient.(it will correct the acidosis) Once the underlying cause (here tissue perfusion) is corrected the pH will return to normal But when the pH is < 7.2 specific bicarbonate therapy is warranted because this degree of acidosis may depress cardiac contractility. According to Harrison "In general severe acidosis (pH < 7.20) warrant the intravenous administration of 50-100 meq of NaHCO3 over 30-45 minutes during the initial, 1 to 2 hours of therapy". So here, besides fluid administration to correct tissue perfusion, HCO3 transfusion is also required because pH is 7. The question is which complication should be first attended to, peripheral circulatory failure or severe metabolic acidosis. Harrison states: "The underlying condition that disrupts lactate metabolism must first be corrected, tissue perfusion must be restored when it is inadequate". | Pediatrics | null | A child presents with peripheral circulatory failure. The aerial pH is 7.0, pCO2 of 15 mmHg, p0276 mmHg. Which of the following will be the immediate therapy-
A. Sodium bicarbonate infusion
B. Bolus of Ringers lactate
C. Bolus of hydroxyethyl starch
D. Dopamine infusion
| Bolus of Ringers lactate |
705539d1-1662-46aa-b963-9e0bcddb37b3 | Lateral border of tongue is the most common site of squamous cell carcinoma.
Carcinoma of the tongue accounts for more than 50% of intraoral cancers in the United States. Two-thirds of lingual carcinomas appear as painless, indurated masses or ulcers of the posterior lateral border; 20% occur on anterior lateral or ventral surfaces, and only 4% occur on the dorsum. For unknown reasons, the oral tongue represents an increasingly common site of involvement in young patients. | Pathology | null | Most common site of squamous cell carcinoma:
A. Floor of the mouth
B. Tongue
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Lip
| Tongue |
e908e909-9c53-4caf-93fd-7e520d6516cb | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Diaphragmatic hernia o In diaphragmatic hernia, the abdominal contents herniating into thoracic cavity have already compromised ventilation. o Giving bag and mask ventilation to this patient will worsen the condition of the patient as air will also enter in the stomach and fuher compress the lungs. o Indications of Bag and Mask ventilation. Bag and mask ventilation is indicated if even after tactile stimulation. a) The infant is apneic or gasping b) Respiration is spontaneous but hea rate is below 100 beats/minute. Remember Bag and mask ventilation causes abdominal distention as air or oxygen not only enters the lung, but also escapes into the stomach esophagus. Distended stomach presses on the diaphragm and compromises ventilation. Therefore if ventilation continues for more than two minutes, an orogastric tube should be inseed and left open to decompress the abdomen. | Pediatrics | null | Bag and mask ventilation is contraindicated in ?
A. Cleft lip
B. Meconium aspiration
C. Diaphragmatic hernia
D. Multicentric bronchogenic cyst
| Diaphragmatic hernia |
b868860a-7d15-4c6c-b92d-bb6afa4796f2 | High grade fever and recurrent chest infection along with passage of foul smelling stools (steatorrhea) suggests a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. In cystic fibrosis because of pancreatic exocrine insufficiency, foul smelling stool (steatorrhea) is common. Cystic fibrosis: Autosomal recessive disease Mutation in cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductor regulator (CFTR) gene on chromosome 7q There is defective transpo of chloride and not calcium in cystic fibrosis. C/F's: Recurrent respiratory infections Azoospermia and infeility Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency causing steatorrhea Recurrent acute/chronic pancreatitis Biliary cirrhosis Failure to thrive Salt depletion Vitamin deficiencies | Pediatrics | Other Respiratory Disorders | A child is brought to the pediatric OPD with high grade fever of 24 hours duration. History reveals 3 episodes of chest infection and passage of foul smelling stools. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Maple syrup urine disease
C. Bilirubin conjugation defect
D. Criggler Najar syndrome
| Cystic fibrosis |
bcd16365-1272-4aa0-98ac-8ede942d046b | Acanthosis
This term is used to describe an increase in a number of cells in the spinous cell layer or prickle cell layer of the epidermis. | Dental | null | Acanthosis involves –
A. Str spinosum
B. Str granuolosum
C. Str Basale
D. Str corneum
| Str spinosum |
8389d3ec-9846-4edf-8c79-b3b0b7a7368e | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Free from pathogenic organisms | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Criteria for wholesome water?
A. Free from pathogenic organisms
B. Should be colourless
C. Should be free of chlorine
D. Should be clear
| Free from pathogenic organisms |
8c7dddd5-09e2-403a-ad8a-ef71a00d02f1 | History of thorn prick and verrucous or cauliflower like appearance and presence of copper penny bodies suggests of chromoblastomycosis. | Dental | null | A patient from Himachal pradesh gets a thorn prick & subsequently presents with a verrucous lesion on feet which on microscopy revealed "Copper penny bodies". The diagnosis is
A. Sporothrix
B. Chromoblastomycosis
C. Eumycecoma
D. Verruca vulgaris
| Chromoblastomycosis |
80e44ac9-660b-4315-afea-80d9e53d5878 | Answer is 'a' i.e. Sq. Cell Ca. Malignancy arising in burn scar is k/a Marjolin's ulcer. It is most commonly squamous cell ca, although basal cell carcinomas may also be seen. | Surgery | null | Commonest cancer in burn scar is -
A. Sq. cell Ca
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Adenoa Ca
D. Adeno-squamous Ca
| Sq. cell Ca |
303bbb0d-4ae7-410b-ab49-4c0816e8e238 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rectum o Most common site for recording temperature is the rectum.o Thermameter is inserted in rectum around 8-10 cm for 2 minutes.o Other sites for recording temperature are nose, ear (external auditory meatus), vagina, and under liver. | Forensic Medicine | Death and Medicolegal Aspects | The ideal place to record body temperature in dead body is -
A. Rectum
B. Axilla
C. Mouth
D. Groin
| Rectum |
ddb2b5a0-be07-4f3e-8baf-d81c37577185 | 210 gm of alcohol for men and 140 gm of alcohol in women per week is considered safe limit for drinking, if liver damage is to be avoided. Also know: % of alcohol in different beverages Rum - 50 to 60% Whisky, gin, brandy - 40 to 45% Po, sherry - 20% Wine - 10 to 15% Beer - 4 to 8% Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, Edition 21, Page - 490 | Forensic Medicine | null | A person comes to you for advice regarding alcohol intake. He consumes alcohol daily and want to know the safe limit for drinking as he wants to avoid liver damage. What would be the approximate safe limit of alcohol in this scenario?
A. 210 gm/week
B. 310 gm/week
C. 410 gm/week
D. 510 gm/week
| 210 gm/week |
6e36a1e1-dc72-4820-bf57-d6cd048ba3cf | Spongiform Encephalopathy (Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease) Spongiform encephalopathy, also called Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) or mad-cow disease, though included under the group of viral encephalitis but is caused by accumulation of prion proteins. Prion proteins are a modified form of normal structural proteins present in the mammalian CNS and are peculiar in two respects: they lack nucleic acid (DNA or RNA), and they can be transmitted as an infectious proteina- ceous paicles (Dr Prusiner was awarded the Nobel Prize in medicine in 1997 for his discovery on prion proteins). Majority of cases occur sporadically though familial predisposition with autosomal dominant inheritance has also been repoed in 5-15% cases. Other methods of transmission are by iatrogenic route (e.g. by tissue transplantation from an infected individual) and by human consumption of BSE (bovine spongiform encephalopathy)-infected beef, also called as mad-cow disease. Clinically, CJD is characterised by rapidly progressive dementia with prominent association of myoclonus. CJD is invariably fatal with mean survival of about 7 months after diagnosis.Grossly, the changes are too rapid to become noticeable but brain atrophy may be seen in long-standing cases. Microscopically, the hallmark is spongiform change i.e. there are small round vacuoles in the neuronal cells. These changes are predominantly seen in the coex and other grey matter areas. Spongiform changes result in neuronal loss and glial cell proliferation but significantly without any inflammation or white matter involvement. Ref:TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th EDITION - HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:878-879 | Pathology | Nervous system | Spongiform degeneration of cerebral coex occurs in -
A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
C. Fatal familial insomnia
D. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
| Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease |
ef16ab64-2a35-4959-84fa-3bf69c23d59e | Treatment is by a subtrochanteric corrective osteotomy. | Orthopaedics | null | Congenital Coxa yarn is treated by -
A. Fixation by SP Nail
B. Osteotomy
C. Bone grafting
D. Traction
| Osteotomy |
8310d5ad-6cf2-46e4-aa8a-69e6742565e6 | Use of 2% acetic acid or dilute alcohol is the most-effective method to prevent otitis externa after swimming. Antibiotic, antifungal or steroid containing drugs are not recommended for prophylaxis. | ENT | Ear | A young boy of 18 years gets recurrent busts of otitis externa after swimming. Which of the following methods should be recommended?
A. Not to swim
B. Use 2% acetic acid after swimming
C. Use ear drops containing an antibiotic and steroid
D. Use an antifungal ear drops after swimming
| Use 2% acetic acid after swimming |
f8ccdfcf-695d-45ae-8317-caf6fe2f36b0 | There is increased Adreno cortical activity which causes Na+ retention & K+ excretion. | Surgery | null | In the immediate post operative period, body potassium is
A. Exchanged with calcium
B. Exchanged with magnesium
C. Retained in body
D. Excreted excessively
| Excreted excessively |
87fe11c9-75da-412e-9284-28c9c7d27298 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hippocampus o Hippocampus is not involved in Wernicke 's korsakoff syndromeo The areas commonly affected include the:-# Medial dorsal thalamic nucleus# Mammillary bodies# Periaqueductal grey matter# Floor of the fourth ventricle which include the occular motor and vestibular nuclei.o The lesions of wernicke's encephalopathy occur in a characteristic symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct and the fourth ventricle.# Mamillary bodies are involved in virtually all cases and the dorsomedial thalamus, locus ceruleus, periaqueductal gray, occular motor nuclei and vestibular nuclei are commonly affected. | Medicine | Miscellaneous (C.N.S.) | Which of the following is not involved in Wernicke's Korsakoff psychosis-
A. Mamillary body
B. Thalamus
C. Periventricular Grey matter
D. Hippocampus
| Hippocampus |
b9648996-6d4e-4975-bf15-b4bd9b8d0df6 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Basal acid output (BAO) less than 15mEq/litre BAO is usually more than 15 meq/h in pts with gastrinoma (> 80% cases).A gastrinoma is a neuroendocrine tumour that secretes gastrin.The chronic hypergastrinemia leads to - gastric acid hypersecretion - peptic ulcer disease as well as diarrhoea.Symptoms of gastrinoma (Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome)Abdominal pain (70-100%)Diarrhoea (37-73%)0 GERD (30-35%)Diagnosis of Gastrinoma or Zollinger Ellison Syndrome.The first step in evaluation of a patient suspected of having ZES or gastrinoma is to obtain a fasting gastrin level.Virtually all gastrinoma patients will have a gastrin level > 150 to 200 pg/ml (normal <150 pg/ml)The next step in establishing a biochemical diagnosis of gastrinoma is to assess acid secretion. Up to 90% gastrinoma patients may have a BAO of > 15 meq/h (normal < 4 meq/h)A BAO/MAO ratio >.6 is highly suggestive of ZES, but a ratio of <.6 does not exclude the diagnosis.Gastrin provocative tests are helpful in patients with indeterminant acid secretory studies. Three provocative tests are used.Secretin stimulation test*Calcium infusion study*Standard meal test*In each of these tests gastrin level is measured after the stimulus i.e. secretin, gastrin, standard meal.Among these tests secretin test is the most specific and sensitive test*, (there is > 200pg increase in serum gastrin level within 15 minutes)Also know this important point about the diagnosis of gastrinoma.If in a patient - the pH is <2.0 the gastrin level will determine further course gastrin level > 1000 pg/L - diagnosis of gastrinoma is established gastrin level < 1000 pg/L - determination of BAO and secretin provocative test is required. | Medicine | Stomach | Which of the following does not occur in a patient with gastrinoma?
A. Epigastric pain
B. Diarrhoea
C. Basal acid output (BAO) less than 15 mEq/ litre
D. Serum gastrin levels >200 pg/ml
| Basal acid output (BAO) less than 15 mEq/ litre |
b373b67f-be1c-41cf-bc25-eed938c7a24d | Ref: KDT 6/e p429 *Risperidone is an atypical anti-psychotic agent. *It carries no risk of blood dyscrasias. *EPS occur at higher dose (>6mg/day) *It is less epiletogenic than clozapine. It cause rise of prolactin during therapy. It can cause SIADH. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Resperidone increases the risk of:
A. Cerebrovascular accidents
B. Extrapyramidal symptoms
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Diabetes insipidus
| Extrapyramidal symptoms |
2e5a6855-28b0-4984-93d4-1dd90c3425d1 | The peripheral blood picture of this patient is quite characteristic of chronic myeloid leukemia.
Chronic myeloid leukemia is a stem cell disease that is characterized by leukocytosis with granulocytic immaturities, basophilia, splenomegaly and distinct chromosomal abnormality Philadelphia chromosome. | Pathology | null | A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of
A. Acute myeloid leukemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
D. Myelodysplastic syndrome
| Chronic myelogenous leukemia |
8dd0fe26-4547-43b4-8162-db0c01fda34d | Ans: A (2 - 4 months) Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics. 19th Edition Explanation: Timing of elective surgery for various conditions Cleft lip 3 months Cleft soft palate. 3 months Cleft hard palate. 12-15 months Combined soft and hard palate. 1 year Combined lip and soft palate. 3 months Hypospadias. 6-12 months Umbilical hernia.- conservative till 2 years of age. Surgery if still symptomatic Inguinal hernia. As early as possible Hydrocele. >1 year Undescended testis. 6 months - 1 year PDA. At birth COA. 3-4 year or as soon as child is medically fit. "Surgical closure of a cleft lip is usually performed by 3 months of age. When the infant has shown satisfactory weight gain and is free of any oral, respiratory, or systemic infection. " Ref: Nelson "In an otherwise healthy child, closure of the palate is usually done before 1 year of age to enhance normal speech development." Ref: Nelson Modification of the Millard rotation- advancement technique is the most commonly used technique; a staggered suture line minimizes notching of the lip from retraction of scar tissue. The initial repair may be revised at 4 or 5 yr of age. Corrective surgery on the nose may be delayed until adolescence. Nasal surgery can also be performed at the time of the lip repair. Cosmetic results depend on the extent of the original deformity, healing potential of the individual patient, absence of infection, and the skill of the surgeon. | Unknown | null | Cleft lip is repaired at: (Repeat)
A. 2 - 4month
B. 1-4 weeks
C. 6-12 months
D. 12-18 months
| 2 - 4month |
a89f8b03-57b6-42e8-a60e-40c03db9bdc4 | The parachute reflex occurs at 7-8 months of age and remains throughout life. It can be evoked by holding the infant&;s trunk and then suddenly lowering the infant as if he or she were falling. The arms will spontaneously extend to break the infant&;s fall. This reflex is a prerequisite to walking. Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 3059 | Pediatrics | New born infants | Parachute reflex disappears _____
A. at 3 months
B. at 6 months
C. at bih and reappears at 9 months
D. Never
| Never |
124b65fd-0f8a-4e01-a3ae-224657803c7a | Leucopenia
The absolute granulocyte count is particularly low (below 1500/µl) with relative lymphocytosis. The neutrophils are morphologically normal, but their alkaline phosphatase score is high.
Reference: Textbook of Pathology, Harsh Mohan, 7th ed page no 302 | Pathology | null | In leucopenia, which cell type is predominantly involved?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Granulocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
| Granulocytes |
4e1356d3-ec07-44da-a8fe-9da2252391e1 | Pharyngeal pouch V give rise to ultimobranchial body which is a pa of the thyroid gland that give rise to parafollicular or C cells. Pharyngeal pouches and their derivatives: Pharyngeal pouchStructures derivedIMiddle ear cavity, eustachian tube, tympanic membraneIIPalatine tonsil, tonsillar fossaIIIInferior parathyroid gland, thymusIVSuperior parathyroid glandsVUltimobranchial bodyRef: Atlas of Neuroradiologic Embryology, Anatomy, and Variants edited by J. Randy Jinkins page 48 | Anatomy | null | Which of the following pharyngeal pouch give rise to ultimobranchial body?
A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. V
| V |
9590fb31-7cba-4a5c-b4dc-ba8f2ed9b409 | The cisterna chyli, or the beginning of the thoracic duct, receives the right and left lumbar trunks. The cisterna lies on the bodies of the upper two lumbar veebrae between the right crus of the diaphragm and the abdominal aoa and represents a dilated receptacle for the lymph gathered from the lower pa of the body. Ref: Anatomy to Color and Study By Raphael Poritsky, 2nd Ed, page 58 | Anatomy | null | The beginning of the thoracic duct is known as the:
A. Intestinal lymph trunk
B. Bronchomediastinal lymph trunk
C. Jugular lymph trunk
D. Cisterna chyli
| Cisterna chyli |
5fe9fd15-0280-4dbf-abe7-bda975f1aac5 | Tolerance to organic nitrates may develop in a few days or less, depending on the dose and frequency of administration. Continuous exposure to nitroglycerin through use of a transdermal skin patch has frequently caused nitrate tolerance. A daily 10-to-14-hour drug-free period will prevent nitrate tolerance. Nitrate tolerance is a cellular tolerance caused by depletion of sulfhydryl groups required for receptor signal transduction. The drug-free interval allows time for these groups to replenish before the next period of drug exposure. Nitrates are metabolized by hepatic nitroreductase, and there is neither evidence of cytochrome P 450 involvement nor of induction of this enzyme by drugs. Although the patient's symptoms could be caused by increased physical activity or onset of vasospasm, these are less likely causes in a patient with continuous nitroglycerin exposure. Vasospasm is also unlikely because the episodes occurred during exeion. Ref - Harrison's principles of internal medicine 20e pg427,1860 / researchgate.net | Medicine | C.V.S | After using transdermal nitroglycerin skin patches for 1 week, a patient with an 8-month history of chronic stable angina pectoris observes an increasing frequency of mild angina episodes during exeion. The patient has been conscientiously applying a new patch every morning immediately after removing the old one. The patient's increased frequency of anginal attacks is most likely because of
A. A sudden onset of vasospastic angina
B. Engaging in vigorous exercise
C. Cellular tolerance to organic nitrates
D. Induction of cytochrome P450 enzyme by nitroglycerin
| Cellular tolerance to organic nitrates |
5eae8f2e-6151-4a23-b771-318e4b117105 | Ans. C: 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins Mid-day meal programme/school lunch programme is in operation since 1961 with the major objective of attracting more children to schools and retain them so that literacy improvement of children could be brought about. The meal supply should provide at least one-third of the total energy requirement, and half of the protein need. Mid-day meal scheme/ National programme of nutritional suppo to primary education is launched in 1995. In September 2004 the scheme was revised to provide cooked mid day meal with 300 calories and 8-12 grams of protein to all children studying in classes I-V in Government and aided schools and EGS/AIE centers. In addition to free supply of food grains, the revised scheme provided Central Assistance for (a) Cooking cost Re 1 per child per school day, (b) Transpo subsidy was raised from the earlier maximum of Rs 50 per quintal to Rs. 100 per quintal for special category states, and Rs. 75 per quintal for other states, (c) Management, monitoring and evaluation costs 2% of the cost of food grains, transpo subsidy and cooking assistance, (d) Provision of mid day meal during summer vacation in drought affected areas | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Meals supplied in mid day meals programme should provide: September 2005, March 2013 (g)
A. 1/2 calories and 1/2 proteins
B. 1/2 calories and 1/3 proteins
C. 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins
D. 1/3 calories and 1/3 proteins
| 1/3 calories and 1/2 proteins |
ad9aec30-14ba-496a-9524-641cbe973c22 | Acute inflammation Four cardinal signs of inflammation was given by Celsus. Rubor (redness) Tumor (swelling) Calor (heat) Dolor (pain). These signs are hallmarks of acute inflammation. A fifth clinical sign, loss of function (functio laesa), was added by Rudolf Virchow in the 19th century. Metchinkoff described process of phagocytosis. | Pathology | Basic Concepts and Vascular changes of Acute Inflammation | Fifth clinical sign i.e., loss of function (functio laesa) was added by:
A. Rudolf Virchow
B. Elie Metchinkoff
C. Louis Pasteur
D. George Bernard
| Rudolf Virchow |
be3baa02-2d6d-416a-830e-635ef701bac8 | Answer is A (CA 125) : Manual of Clinical Surgery by Kirk CA 125 is the most commonly used tumor marker for ovarian cancer - Kirk CA-125 is found in derivatives of Coelomic epithelium, including pleura pericardium and peritoneum but is not detected in normal ovarian tissue. | Medicine | null | Tumor marker relevant with ovarian carcinoma is:
A. CA-125
B. CA-19.9
C. CD-30
D. CD-25
| CA-125 |
7dcb334a-45f3-4258-aafc-afb323d590eb | *DM is a distinct entity identified by a characteristic rash accompanying or more often preceding muscle weakness. this includes heliotrope rash ,erythema of knuckles with a raised violaceous scaly eruption(Gottron's sign). *Dilated capillary loops at the base of fingernails are also characterised *Palma areas of fingers may become rough and cracked with irregular diy horizontal lines resembling mechanics hands. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2367 | Medicine | C.N.S | In dermatomyositis which is not seen
A. Salmon patch
B. Gottron's papules
C. Peringual telangiectasia
D. Mechanic finger
| Salmon patch |
74c2bc39-f5ab-490a-834a-e2d6e8365dd5 | A person who comes in contact with a coronavirus(COVID-19) case (confirmed or probable) needs to be followed up for apperance of symptoms of coronavirus for the maximum incubation period of 14 days. Treatment: There is no specific antiviral treatment recommended for COVID-19. People with COVID-19 should receive suppoive care to help relieve symptoms. For severe cases, treatment should include care to suppo vital organ functions. Basic protective measures against the new coronavirus: (SARS CoV 2) Wash your hands frequently for atleast 20 seconds. Maintain social distancing- Maintain at least 1 metre distance between yourself and anyone who is coughing or sneezing Avoid touching eyes, nose and mouth Practice respiratory hygiene- cover your mouth and nose with your bent elbow or tissue when you cough or sneeze, then dispose of the used tissue immediately. If you have fever, cough and difficulty breathing, seek medical care early Stay informed and follow advice given by your healthcare provider Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Virology | A person who comes in contact with a case of coronavirus (COVID- 19) needs to be followed up for
A. 7days
B. 21days
C. 42 days
D. 14 days
| 14 days |
b3abeea7-7099-43a6-a7a7-511dbc41f7c5 | Joints involved in ankylosing spondylitisAnkylosing spondylitis primarily affects the axial skeletonThe disease usually begins in the sacroiliac joints and usually extends upwards to involve the lumbar, thoracic, and often cervical spineIn the worst cases, the hips or shoulders are also affected. The hip joint is the most commonly affected peripheral jointRarely knee and ankle are also involved(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 302, 426) | Orthopaedics | All India exam | Involvement of the joints of hand is relatively uncommon in which of following ahritis?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Reactive ahritis
C. Psoriatic ahritis
D. Rheumatoid ahritis
| Ankylosing spondylitis |
5a6e37a7-2877-41c6-b075-b507cfa83f93 | (Ref: Goodman & Gliman 11/e p1422) All other drugs listed in the options posses immunosuppressant propeies. | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | Which of the following drug is an Immunostimulant?
A. Prednisolone
B. Levamisol
C. Cyclosporine
D. Thalidomide
| Levamisol |
5b7f5e6f-870b-4690-a5ec-3a7dd3cd48cc | Ans. is c i.e. Polycystic ovarian disease | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | OCP's are contraindicated in A/E :
A. Smoking 35 years
B. Coronary occlusion
C. Polycystic ovarian ds
D. Cerebro vascular ds
| Polycystic ovarian ds |
41495777-2894-4317-b625-a955be5396d1 | Ans. (a) Live attenuatedRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 286-87* JE vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine. It is available in killed vaccine form also.* Strain: SA 14-14-2- liveNakayama strain- killed* One dose of JE vaccine is given at 16-24 months of age.Also Know* MC live vaccine used: BCG* MC killed vaccine used: Pertusis* All live vaccines are contra-indicated in I pregnancy EXCEPT: YF and OPVLive VaccineKilledToxoidsCell FractionCombined* BCG* OPV (sabin)* MMR* Yellow fever* Live J.E.* Live H1N1* Live choleraHep AHep B PertusisIPV (salk)Rabies Meningo- coccalKilled J.E.Killed H1N1DiphtheriaTetanusHep BMeningo- coccalHiBPneumo- coccalDPTMMR | Social & Preventive Medicine | Principles of Immunization and Vaccination | Japanese encephalitis vaccine is:
A. Live attenuated
B. Inactivated toxoid
C. Cellular fractions
D. Combined
| Live attenuated |
fd2816b5-6580-4168-b2ea-189524732d12 | Ans. (b) Cell shrinkage(Ref: Robbins 9th/38;8th/pg 17)Features of reversible cell injury seen in light microscopy are cellular swelling and fatty change.Cell shrinkage is a feature of apoptosis (cell death) | Pathology | Cellular Pathology | Which of the following is not a sign of reversible cell injury?
A. ATP depletion
B. Cell shrinkage
C. Fatty acid deposition
D. Reduction of phosphorylation
| Cell shrinkage |
2f844c59-f5e0-4072-9d19-6bd4baca6a37 | Wormian bones
Wormian bones are extra bone pieces that occur within a suture in the cranium.
These are irregular isolated bones which appear in addition to the usual centres of ossification of the cranium.
They occur most frequently in the course of the lambdoid suture.
Causes of Wormian bones (Mnemonic - PORKCHOPS)
Pyknodysostosis
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Rickets
Kinky hair syndrome
Cleidocranial dysostosis
Hypothyroidism (cretinism) / Hypophosphatasia
Otopalatodigital syndrome
Progeria
Syndrome of Downs
Wormian bone appears radiographically as islands of ossification in the skull in non ossified membranous bone.
To be diagnostic value, the wormian bones should be 4 mm by 6 mm in size, 10 in number and arranged in a mosaic pattern.
Wormian bones are not present in the normal skull. | Orthopaedics | null | Wormian bones are not noted in -
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Osteogenesis inperfecta
C. Cretinism
D. Rickets
| Fibrous dysplasia |
e3bf752b-0339-40d5-950b-412f182cba4c | Hidradenitis suppurativa is chronic inflammation and secondary infection of apocrine sweat glands Aetiology : Unknown ,common in post-pubeal females, maybe inherited(AD in some families) C/F Rare chronic painful skin condition with inflammation of the skin at sites rich in apocrine glands (axilla, groin, natal cleft) O/E Papules/nodules and abscesses which often progress to cysts/sinus formation. Abscess may rupture--> Purulent discharge. Rx: Weight loss, antibiotics, oral retinoids and co-cyprindiol ('2 mg cyproterone acetate +35 ug ethinylestradiol' in females only) have been tried Severe recalcitrant cases- Sx , skin grafting and IV infliximab therapy Hidrocystoma- Eccrine sweat glandsHidradenitis suppurativa- Apocrine sweat glands | Dental | Disorders of sebaceous and sweat glands | Hidradenitis suppurativa is a disease of:
A. Eccrine sweat glands
B. Apocrine sweat glands
C. Kaposi sarcoma
D. Hair follicles
| Apocrine sweat glands |
3ee97e14-cca4-4712-8080-8611d71adf61 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Black outEffects of positive G:Venous return decreases --> hence, cardiac output decreases.Blood rushes towards lower limbs --> hence increased pressure in lower limb vessels.Blood is drawn away from upper body --> hence decreased cerebral aerial pressure.At very high positive G:Difficulty in blood flow to brain --> results in cerebral ischemia & unconsciousness.Moments before unconsciousness, there is gray-out.Everything appears gray - Due to ischemia of cone & loss of color vision.Eg: Gray-out serves as warning sign for pilots - Indicates need for slowing down aircraft & reduce positive'G'.Gray-out followed by black-outBlack-out means total loss of vision. | Physiology | null | Positive G effect ?
A. Red out
B. Black out
C. Increased cerebral aerial pressure
D. Increased cardiac output
| Black out |
d37f7d4a-22fd-4b56-80cd-ef86d68c3b84 | MC brain tumor is metastasis,arising from - (1) Oat cell Ca lung/small cell Ca lung (2) Ca Breast (3) M. Melanoma MC 1deg Brain tumour- Glioma MC benign brain tumour - Meningioma | Medicine | FMGE 2018 | Most common site of intracranial metastasis is from primary carcinoma of
A. Breast
B. Lungs
C. Stomach
D. Testes
| Lungs |
49c23a01-6c83-4c86-9fad-c1a1295940a7 | Weakness on the left side of the face Weakness of the right sides of arm and leg | Crossed hemiplegia / Millard gubler syndrome. Pontine stroke. I/L 6th N. palsy- Diplopia on looking laterally I/L 7th N. palsy- facial paralysis but sensations not affected Coicospinal tract damage in pons will lead to C/L hemiplegia in arms and legs. | Medicine | Stroke and TIA | A 65-year-old diabetic woman develops weakness on the left side of the face, right arm,and right leg. She also has diplopia on left lateral gaze. What is the site of lesion?
A. Right pons
B. Left pons
C. Right midbrain
D. Left midbrain
| Left pons |
bab08deb-206d-41e4-b4a6-00dd1a34e9d6 | Buerger's Disease is non atherosclerotic inflammatory disorder involving medium sized and distal vessels. It is segmental, progressive , occlusive, inflammatory disease. | Surgery | null | Buerger's Disease is
A. Non - progressive
B. Segmental
C. Non - inflammatory
D. Atherosclerotic
| Segmental |
08b89b55-502f-4d82-95c0-a2212e1270c4 | Laryngomalacia is the most common congenital laryngeal anomaly.
It is the most common cause of stridor in infants and children. | Pediatrics | null | Most common cause of stridor in infant and young children –
A. Abductor palsy
B. Croup
C. Laryngomalacia
D. Epiglottitis
| Laryngomalacia |
e8cd6b5a-5056-4fd4-85ab-444fa290928d | The presence of ketosis can be established by the detection of ketone bodies in urine by Rothera&;s test.Rothera&;s test: Saturate 5 mL of urine with solid ammonium sulfate. Add a few drops of freshly prepared sodium nitroprusside followed by 2 mL of liquor ammonia along the sides of the test tube. Development of a purple ring indicates the presence of ketone bodies in urine. Strip tests based on the same principle are also available.Ref: D M Vasudevan 7th edition Page no: 166 | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | Rothera&;s test used for detection of
A. Proteins
B. Glucose
C. Fatty acid
D. Ketones
| Ketones |
c8f2f6ca-4e81-4d34-b7c4-b5e51d8632c1 | Ans. (d) 3080mL(Ref: Ganong Review of medical physiology, 21st ed p.2)8% of body weight is blood volumeSo, here for 70 kg man, Blood volume is 5.6 Litres (70*8/100)Blood Volume = Plasma volume/1-hematocritSo, Plasma volume = Blood volume*(1-hematocrit)Here, Plasma volume =5.6*(1-0.45)=3080mL | Physiology | General | A man weighing 70 kg has a hematocrit of 45%. What would he his approximate plasma volume?
A. 2310 mL
B. 2695 mL
C. 2890 mL
D. 3080 mL
| 3080 mL |
5f4d2928-eff3-400e-a5a9-e17f6a9cb585 | Nerve to serratus anterior is also called long thoracic nerve(C5,C6,C7). A)Serratus anterior muscle along with the pectoralis minor pulls the scapula forwards around the chest wall to protract the upperlimb. B)The fibres inseed into the inferior angle of the scapula pull it forwards and rotate the scapula so that the glenoid cavity is turned upwards.In this action,the serratus anterior is helped by the trapezius which pulls the acromion upwards and backwards. when the muscle is paralyzed,the medial margin of the scapula gets raised specially when 'pushing movements' are attempted.This is called 'winging of scapula'. REF.B D Chaurasia's human anatomy,Vol.1,pg.47 | Anatomy | Thorax | Division of long thoracic nerve results in
A. Inability to retract the scapula
B. Wasting of pectoralis major muscle
C. Weakness of adduction of humerus
D. Winging of scapula
| Winging of scapula |
47cd7810-d31f-4b29-979b-45635195fe40 | Commonest organisms in otogenic brain abscess include gram negative (Proteus, E coli, Pseudomonas) and anaerobic bacteria along with Staphylococcus and Pneumocci. H. Influenza infection is a rare cause of otogenic abscess. | ENT | null | Patient is having scanty, foul smelling discharge from middle ear, develops fever, headache and neck rigidity. CT of the temporal lobe shows a localized ring enhancing lesion, which of the following is least likely cause of this condition?
A. S. aureus
B. Pseudomonas
C. S.Pneumoniae
D. H. influenza
| H. influenza |
ccc6cd04-a065-4601-8550-136e30fffa03 | Herpes simplex can cause a necrotizing, hemorrhagic acute encephalitis that may rapidly produce death. The encephalitis characteristically involves the lower poions of the cerebral coex, notably the temporal lobes and the base of the frontal lobes, possibly because the infection spreads from the oropharynx. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 33. Viral Infections of the Nervous System, Chronic Meningitis, and Prion Diseases. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e. | Medicine | null | A leukemia patient who has undergone multiple courses of chemotherapy develops herpes simplex encephalitis. Which of the following would you expect a CT scan of the patient's brain to show?
A. Generalized volume loss
B. Volume loss selectively in the basal ganglia
C. Volume loss selectively in the brainstem
D. Volume loss selectively in the temporal and frontal lobes
| Volume loss selectively in the temporal and frontal lobes |
db6a4fc9-b443-4043-aaf9-e364faf7a187 | Agents commonly causing diarrhea in HIV patient.
Rota virus
Isospora
Cryptosporidium
Cyclospora
Microsporidium
Giardia Lambi
Bacterial pathogens | Pediatrics | null | Diarrhoea syndrome in an AIDS patient can be d/t – a) Rota virusb) Cryptosporac) Adenovirusd) E. soli
A. ab
B. a
C. ad
D. bc
| ab |
992646b8-2d5b-4a85-b058-30ffb6b3511f | 25-hydroxy Cholecalciferol is formed in liver Whereas 1, 25 (OH)2 Cholecalciferol is formed in kidneys. Additional edge on synthesis of Vitamin D: Activation of 7-dehydro cholesterol by UV light in skin produces Cholecalciferol 25-hydroxylation in liver to form 25-hydroxy cholecalciferol 1-alpha- hydroxylation in kidneys to form 1,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol PTH activates 1-alpha hydroxylase of kidneys | Biochemistry | Vitamins and Minerals | 1, 25 (OH)2 Cholecalciferol is formed in-
A. Skin
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Kidney
| Kidney |
41a747eb-3827-4dcf-bb4e-6090f9b704b5 | (a) Excessive formation of crust(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 695)The excessive crusting leads to nasal obstruction in spite of roomy cavities.On removal of crusts there is bleeding. But there is no synechiae formation. There is no polypoidal change . | ENT | Rhinitis | Most common cause of obstruction in atrophic rhinitis is:
A. Excessive formation of crust
B. Polyp
C. Synechiae
D. Hypertrophy of turbinate
| Excessive formation of crust |
b1d4887d-8229-4af1-89e6-a435e4cc09e2 | Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by picornaviruses (Enterovirus - 70, coxsackievirus A24) and sometimes Adenovirus type 11. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following does not cause hemorrhagic conjunctivitis –
A. Adenovirus
B. Coxsackie – 24
C. Enterovirus – 70
D. Papilloma virus
| Papilloma virus |
d74d4814-098b-4866-8117-50149c5a9e50 | - in stratified random sample, the sample is deliberately drawn in a systematic way so that each poion of the sample represents a corresponding strata of the universe. - this method is paicularly useful where one is interested in analysing the data by a ceain characteristic of the population. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:850 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostatistics | A population is divided into relevant subgroups and random sample selection is done from each of the subgroups. This is which type of sampling method?
A. Systematic random sampling
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Simple random sampling
D. Cluster sampling
| Stratified random sampling |
197c922c-6f02-4ff8-9629-2e82f40864a8 | TBM disease (also known as benign familial hematuria and thin basement membrane nephropathy) is, along with IgA nephropathy, the most common cause of blood in the urine without any other symptoms. The only abnormal finding in this diseaseis a thinning of the basement membrane of the glomeruli (filters) in the kidneys. Refer robbins 9/e | Pathology | Urinary tract | In thin basement membrane disease, the defect is in
A. a1 and a2 chains of type IV collagen
B. a3 and a4 chains of type IV collagen
C. a1 and a2 chains of type VI collagen
D. a3 and a4 chains of type VI collagen
| a3 and a4 chains of type IV collagen |
ade5ddec-73fa-487b-9958-4e76ff78a830 | PR3-ANCAs are also present in up to 95% of cases; they are a useful marker of disease activity and may participate in Wegener’s granulomatosis. | Pathology | null | Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) is seen in
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Wegener’s Granulomatosis
D. Churg-Strauss syndrome
| Wegener’s Granulomatosis |
83939c0a-197b-440a-a8f8-7e37f4f33371 | Large increase in gamma glutamyl transferase and ALP ours biliary obstruction (Davidson; page 929) 5&;nucleotidase rise parallels ALP but more specific for diseases of hepatic origin (Harsh mohan page 594) | Medicine | G.I.T | Patient with jaundice and white stools. Which of the following enzymes is not raised
A. 5' nucleotidase
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Glutamate reductase
D. Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase
| Glutamate reductase |
b8b6cb77-cdd4-4633-a890-ee94c0feb74c | Glucose is completely reabsorbed in proximal tubules. So its clearance is zero. | Physiology | null | Least clearance is for among these
A. Glucose
B. Inulin
C. Urea
D. Creatinine
| Glucose |
7e822c2e-b62b-4f0e-9306-9b5ec1ff9ca7 | Baby show the symptoms of projectile vomiting, olive shaped mass and visible peristalsis | Surgery | null | At what age baby with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis show symptoms
A. At the time of birth
B. First week
C. 3rd to 4th week
D. Second month
| 3rd to 4th week |
f5e78622-1e8a-4e33-a166-676c72d4c3f0 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Graham's omentum patch repair | Surgery | null | The most commonly practiced operative procedure for a perforated duodenal ulcer is -
A. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
B. Vagotomy and antrectomy
C. Vagotomy and perforation closure
D. Graham's omentum patch repair
| Graham's omentum patch repair |
d54ab332-7771-48fd-8721-be014089d3fa | Monocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis | Microbiology | null | Donovan bodies are:
A. Leukocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
B. EosinophiLs that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
C. Monocytes that contain the organism, Haemophilus influenza
D. Monocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
| Monocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis |
71873be2-d2fa-4f70-bb70-f2b08942ecf9 | Medullary sponge kidney is a congenital disorder characterized by cystic dilatation of papillary collecting ducts of one or both kidneys. Urinary stasis in the dilated ducts, hypocitraturia, and, occasionally, incomplete distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) contribute to the formation of small calcium-containing calculi.
Most cases are asymptomatic or are discovered during investigation of asymptomatic hematuria.
Symptomatic patients typically present as young adults with:
Kidney stones with renal colic
Recurrent hematuria
Infection (UTI)
Most cases are sporadic, while some show autosomal dominant inheritance
Involvement is bilateral in most cases | Surgery | null | A symptom of medullary sponge kidney disease is -
A. Nocturia
B. Anemia
C. Azotemia
D. UTI
| UTI |
53b6d52f-ce67-475e-9f14-5731aa6bfb3b | Tardieu spots or petechial haemorrhages are pinhead size bleeding spots occurring as a result of rupture of venules and are most commonly seen in sclera, conjunctiva or on serous membranes. It is seen in case of mechanical asphyxia. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By V.V Pillay, 15th Edition, Page 275 | Forensic Medicine | null | Tardieu spots are a feature of which of the following forms of death?
A. Cyanide poisoning
B. Mechanical asphyxia
C. Cobra bite
D. Organophosphate poisoning
| Mechanical asphyxia |
286c7f83-dc51-4a9d-b407-b36c60de36e7 | Lung metastasis at initial diagnosis of neuroblastoma is associated with MYCN amplification and elevated LDH levels. Although lung metastasis at diagnosis was not independently predictive of outcome in this analysis, it remains a useful prognostic marker of an unorable outcome. | Pathology | Pediatrics, environment and nutrition | Metastasis in neuroblastoma goes to -
A. Liver
B. Lung
C. Bone
D. Bone marrow
| Lung |
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