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5420c6b5-7fad-4770-99b0-2fba04a7f72b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 30 CFR =Total no. of deaths due to a diseaseTotal no. of cases of the same diseasex 100 CFR due to dengue=No. of death due to dengueTotal cases of denguex 100 =30100x 100 = 30 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Measurement of Mortality and Morbidity | A village with 10000 population 250 suffered from malaria out of which 50 dead, another 100 suffered from dengue out of which 30 died in 2013 case fatality rate of dengue is -
A. 40 '
B. 80
C. 30
D. 70
| 30 |
bca7c6ea-da3c-4ae0-be48-4e4d117b7c97 | Ans. (b) FISH(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 616-618)Flow cytometry: is used for immunophenotyping in Leukemias & LymphomasFISH- used for detecting submicroscopic chromosomal aberrations of BCR-ABL fusionKaryotyping: Used for detecting chromosomal defects of at least 5 mb size (low sensitivity)RT-PCR: used for quantitative DNA estimation | Pathology | Misc. (W.B.C) | BCR-ABL fusion gene is detected by?
A. Flow cytometry
B. FISH
C. Karyotyping
D. RT-PCR
| FISH |
03e894aa-0c5e-44dd-b240-97bfbf3cabba | High thoracic or cervical cord transection causes hypotension and bradycardia due to functional sympathectomy (sometimes with Horner syndrome). Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 15th Edition, Page 2441; Surgery: Basic Science and Clinical Evidence By Jeffrey A. Noon, Philip S. Barie, Randall Bollinger, 2008, Page 314 | Surgery | null | In a patient with head injury, unexplained hypotension warrants evaluation of:
A. Upper cervical spine
B. Lower cervical spine
C. Thoracic spine
D. Lumbar spine
| Thoracic spine |
108cd666-f90d-45a2-939c-830582f4076e | (D) VNTR's# A Variable Number Tandem Repeat (or VNTR) is a location in a genome where a short nucleotide sequence is organized as a tandem repeat is associated with major psychiatric disorders.> Trisomy 21 also known by the karyotype 47, XX+21 for females and 47,XY,+21 for males.> The extra chromosome 21 material may also occur due to a Robertsonian translocation in 2-4% cases. In this situation, the long arm of chromosome 21 is attached to another chromosome, often chromosome 14. | Pathology | Misc. | NOT a mutation in Down's syndrome
A. Mosaicism
B. Robersonian translocation
C. Maternal non disjunction
D. VNTR's
| VNTR's |
c836f213-8fad-4947-bbc1-4efd2e3cee0e | A gastric ulcer that fails to heal after 12 weeks and a duodenal ulcer does not heal at 8 weeks of therapy should be considered refractory. Cause of refractory ulcers: Malignancy Zollinger Ellison syndrome Cigarette smoking Ischemia Crohn's disease Lymphoma Eosinophilic gastroenteritis Infections (TB,CMV) Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 2452 | Medicine | null | A gastric ulcer is said to be refractory when it fails to heal after therapy for:
A. 6 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 14 weeks
| 12 weeks |
8845d5fb-1445-492d-877d-68f59ec7c0ab | Preeclampsia is associated with significant maternal and fetal morbidity and moality. No pregnancy complicated by preeclampsia should be allowed to cross 38 weeks and earlier terminations will often have to be considered depending on maternal and fetal status. Refer page no 559 of Textbook of obstetrics, Sheila Balakrishnan, 2 nd edition. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | Induction at term is not done in
A. Preeclampsia
B. Diabetes
C. Hea disease
D. Renal disease
| Preeclampsia |
3d5cb615-92b7-4ba5-a2fd-9ae68d57012a | ANSWER: (C) Indeterminate LeprosyREF: IAL textbook of leprosy P:157CAUSES OF HYPOPIGMENTED WHITE LESION ON FAE OF CHILD* Pityriasis Alba* Vitiligo* Indeterminate Hansen* Albinism* Halo nevus* Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis* Seborrheic dermatitis* Pityriasis Versicolor See PLATE - KEY INTERMEDIATE LEPROSY(A) Morphology: It appears as poorly defined areas of slight hypopigmentation or erythema, without systemic or neural changes. The condition is only likely to be recognized readily in endemic areas where there is a high awareness of leprosy. (B) Microscopy: Scanty superficial and deep lymphohistiocytic infiltrate in the dermis, with some tendency to localization around appendages. Bacilli are infrequent but scantily present in nerves. Perineural & peri appendageal inflammatory infiltrate consisting of lymphocytes and histiocytes. | Unknown | null | A child presents with a lesion on the face as depicted on the PLATE. The biopsy from the lesion is also shown. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. R Alba
B. Lepromatous Leprosy
C. Indeterminate leprosy
D. Pityriasis Rosea
| Indeterminate leprosy |
b25e080c-1188-4b84-803e-acae16a17f4c | Ans. is'a'i.e., Proctodaeum(Ref: BDC Sh/eVol. Il p. 415)'The lower third of the anal canal is an ectodermal derivative and is derived from the proctodaeum.'Pa of anal canal above pectinate line develops from dorsal pa of md.odermal cloaca (primitive rectum) and pa of anal canal below pectinate line develops from ectodermal proctodeum. | Anatomy | null | Lower 1/3'd of anal canal is derived from?
A. Proctodaeum
B. Cloaca
C. Urogenital Sinus
D. Midgut
| Proctodaeum |
dffef730-fa4d-44ec-baaa-ac6a57e3370a | Treatment of Achalasia The aim of treatment is to relieve the functional obstruction at the cardio The two main methods to achieve this are Forceful dilatation or Esophageal myotomy (Heller's myotomy) with or without an antireflux procedure 1) Forceful dilatation (pneumatic dilatation) The aim is to weaken or rupture the circular muscle fibres of the LES by a forceful stretch. Perforation and bleeding are potential complications 2) Extramucosal cardiomyotomy (Heller's myotomy) this involves surgical division of the muscle fibres of the lower esophageal sphincter. this procedure can be performed through a laparoscopic or thoracoscopic approach (Open surgical procedure i.e. Laparotomy or thoracotomy can also be done, but the videoscopic procedure is better) major complication is gastro-esophageal reflux. paial fundoplication is done to prevent reflux "modified laparoscopic Heller myotomy is the operation of choice"- Sabiston Other methods of treatment Drugs Nitrates and calcium channel blockers can be used, but are ineffective for long-term use. They can be used for transient relief of symptoms and in patients unfit for surgery and pneumatic dilatation. Botulinum toxin Botulinum toxin is given by endoscopic injection into the LES. It reduces LES pressure by blocking the cholinergic excitatory nerves in the sphincter. Its effect is only sho-lived and repeated injections have to be given. Used only in patients unfit for surgery and pneumatic dilatation. Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p1036 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Treatment for achalasia associated with high rate of recurrence :
A. Pneumatic dilatation
B. Laproscopic myotomy
C. Open surgical myotomy
D. Botulinum toxin
| Botulinum toxin |
3061bdab-ea7b-4e3b-97b4-ded37abb8a28 | Doxycycline - antibiotic of choice for adults only single dose suffices. TMP-SMX - antibiotic of choice for children. Furazolidone - antibiotic of choice for pregnant women. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 193; Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 18th Edition, Page 181 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of:
A. Tetracycline
B. Co-trimoxazole
C. Doxycycline
D. Furazolidone
| Doxycycline |
7422396e-c847-42cc-af10-6ad261ebfe0a | I131 is treated by the body just like the ordinary nonradioactive isotope, so that when swallowed it is concentrated in the thyroid gland.
It emits mainly β radiation (90%) which penetrates only 0.5 mm of the tissue and thus allows therapeutic effects on the thyroid without any damage to the surrounding structures, particularly the parathyroids.
It also emits gamma rays, which are more penetrating.
Uses
I131is the preferred initial t/t for hyperthyroidism caused by Grave's disease.
It is used in combination with surgery in some cases of thyroid carcinoma, especially those in which metastases are sufficiently differentiated to take up iodides selectively.
Also know,
It is contraindicated in children and pregnant or breastfeeding women, and can induce or worsen ophthalmopathy. | Surgery | null | In treatment of papillary carcinomas thyroid, radioiodine destroys the neoplastic cells predominantly by
A. X rays
B. β rays
C. γ rays
D. α particles
| β rays |
50fdbc42-2ea4-4934-b036-09b2aa3becbc | IgG molecules contain two gamma heavy chains of a given subtype and two light chains (either kappa or lambda). The 2 in IgG2 indicates the subclass to which the molecule belongs. IgG2 contains two gamma2 chains (since a given B cell can only form one type of heavy chain). The IgG molecule will contain either two kappa chains or two lambda chains, but never one of each. A given cell produces immunoglobulin molecules with a single type of heavy chain. IgG molecules with gamma1 chains would be of the IgG1 subclass. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 58. Cellular Basis of the Immune Response. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | Microbiology | null | An IgG2 molecule is composed of which of the following?
A. One alpha, one gamma, and two kappa chains
B. One gamma1 chain and two kappa chains
C. Two gamma1 chains and one kappa and one lambda chain
D. Two gamma2 chains and two kappa chains
| Two gamma2 chains and two kappa chains |
faa271b0-0ba6-4ad4-a8b7-0647087451b8 | CHLORPROPAMIDE : This Anti-diabetic drug was withdrawn from market as it causes SIADH. So theoretically, it can be used in diabetes insipidus. But the DOC for treatment of Central Diabetes Insipidus: Desmopressin | Medicine | Disorders of pituitary gland | Pituitary diabetes insipidus is improved by?
A. Water restriction
B. Lithium
C. Chlorpropamide
D. Chlohiazide
| Chlorpropamide |
ef9bc893-c0eb-4c1b-9a21-71a6a843270c | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nicotinic cholinergic receptors | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is an ionic channel ?
A. a -1 receptors
B. b - 1 receptors
C. Nicotinic cholinergic receptors
D. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors
| Nicotinic cholinergic receptors |
8d80d19f-8e39-45b9-a512-d26c49606bf2 | In Na+-K+ exchange, 3 Na goes out and 2K goes in to the cell. | Physiology | null | Na+ – K+ ATPase
A. 3 Na+ out/ 2K+ in
B. 3Na+ in/ 2K+ out
C. 2Na+ out/ 3K+ in
D. 2Na+ in/3K+ out
| 3 Na+ out/ 2K+ in |
1314bdbc-21b0-4966-886b-f60ea4fbee1b | Granulomatous hepatitis is a cause of pyrexia of unknown origin and granulomas are picked up on CT scan or USG abdomen. It is associated with infections like tuberculosis, cat scratch disease, blastomycosis, histoplasmosis. | Medicine | Hepatitis | Granulomatosis hepatitis is not caused by:
A. Blastomycosis
B. Metastatic carcinoma
C. Tuberculosis
D. Cat scratch disease
| Metastatic carcinoma |
fa7ac1e6-a7cd-4fb6-ae6d-eb432a54d80a | Ans. is 'c' i.e., HbsAg + HBeAg + HBV DNA In HBV infection, there are two types of carriers : Super Carriers High titre of HBs Ag, HBe Ag, DNA polymerase and HBV in the circulation Highly infective Simple carriers Low titre of HBsAg with negative HBe Ag, DNA polymerase and HBV Have low infectivity | Microbiology | null | Super carrier of HBV shows following serum markers ?
A. HBsAg
B. HbsAg + HBV DNA
C. HbsAg + HBeAg + HBV DNA
D. Anti-HBsAg + HBV DNA
| HbsAg + HBeAg + HBV DNA |
a3a57d7a-c81d-4cda-be2e-7d28ee29688b | Diagnosis Novy-Macneal-Nicole Medium Laboratory diagnosis of leishmaniasis can include the following: Isolation, visualization, and culturing of the parasite from infected tissue Serologic detection of antibodies to recombinant K39 antigen Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for sensitive, rapid diagnosis of Leishmania species Other tests that may be considered include the following: CBC count, coagulation studies, liver function tests, peripheral blood smear Measurements of lipase, amylase, gamma globulin, and albumin Leishmanin (Montenegro) skin testing (LST) (not FDA approved in the United States) Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle medium (NNN) is a culture medium used to grow Leishmania It consists of 0.6% sodium chloride (NaCl) added to a simple blood agar slope. NNN can also be used to grow Trypanosoma cruzi. REF:Medscape | Microbiology | general microbiology | NNN media used in?
A. Leishmania
B. Histoplasma
C. Trypanosoma
D. Entamoeba
| Leishmania |
4798e068-b663-4127-814f-58927566011e | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Four Giardia (review)o Giardia is a flagellate protozoao It is the only common protozoa that inhabits the duodenum and jejunum (upper small intestine) of human.o Infective form - cysto Mode of transmission - Ingestion of cysto Giardia exists in two forms | Microbiology | Parasitology | How many pairs of flagella does Giardia lamblia possess -
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
| Four |
48a76a40-bca9-4936-b7b1-f4efaca201ba | Progestin-only Contraception methods do not impair milk production and are an excellent choice for lactating women. There are no increased risks of genital tract or breast neoplasia MEC 1 However, after the initial 6 weeks of delivery are over, use of IUCDs is equally good. OCP contain estrogens which significantly reduce breast milk production and are therefore contraindicated | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Puerperium | A 27 years old P2L2 has come to OPD for contraceptive advice. She has delivered a male child 3 weeks back and is presently lactating. She has no contraindication of any hormone use. She can be given-
A. DMPA
B. Minipill
C. Levonorgestrol implants
D. Combined OCPs
| Minipill |
68e90803-2748-46c5-b982-84483ab34e16 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., EstrogenAfter mensturation there is proliferative phase, which is under the control of estrogen.Secretory phase is controlled by progesterone | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Endometrial repair after menstrual bleeding is under the influence of which hormone ?
A. FSH
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. LH
| Estrogen |
c3870125-a555-459a-8762-76d5aea29085 | Amongst the given options, Radioactive phosphorus has a well-established role in polycythemia vera. It has also been tried in multiple myeloma, however, its use for this is still debatable. | Radiology | null | Radioactive phosphorus is used in the treatment of –
A. Polycythemia
B. Thyroid metastasis
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Embrynal cell carcinoma
| Polycythemia |
47718736-f2ae-4566-818b-7f1e88e2fb41 | Refer Katzung 10/e p 549 Vitamin K is involved in activition if various clotting factors as well as anticlotting clotting proteins It carries out the final step in activation of these ors I. E, gamma carboxylation of glutamate residues in these factors | Pharmacology | Respiratory system | Vitamin K is a cofactor in
A. Carboxylation
B. Hydroxylation
C. Deaminatiom
D. Hydrolysis
| Carboxylation |
62a6cedf-ba1f-4ca0-a95c-5853454b8383 | Cozen's test - In this test active extension of wrist against resistance produces pain at the point of common extensor origin. It is considered a positive finding for lateral epicondylitis or Tennis elbow. | Surgery | null | Which of the following conditions is diagnosed using Cozen's test?
A. Little leaguer's elbow
B. Tennis elbow
C. Golfer's elbow
D. Frozen shoulder
| Tennis elbow |
b193a37a-1740-4567-aaa4-0a93ea428a2f | Emerging patterns of Adaptive milestones from 1-5years of age 15months Makes a tower of 3 cubes Makes a line with a crayon Inses raisin in a bottle 18months Makes a tower of 4 cubes Imitates scribbling Imitates veical stroke Dumps raisin from a bottle 24months Makes a tower of 7 cubes (6 at 21 mo) Scribbles in a circular pattern Imitates horizontal stroke Folds paper once imitatively 30months Makes a tower of 9 cubes Makes veical and horizontal strokes, but generally will not join them to make cross Imitates circular stroke, forming a closed figure 36months Makes a tower of 10 cubes Imitates construction of "bridge" of 3 cubes Copies circle Imitates cross 48months Copies bridge from model Imitates construction of "gate" of 5 cubes Copies cross and square Draws man with 2-4 pas besides the head Identifies longer of 2 lines 60months Draws a triangle from copy Names heavier of 2 weights Ref: Nelson paediatrics; Table 11-1 | Pediatrics | Growth and development | The child , Draws triangle from a copy at _______.
A. 30 months
B. 36 months
C. 48 months
D. 60 months
| 60 months |
c4f593ff-e24d-46af-8d60-6a204ef4db74 | MULTIPLE MYELOMA : Bone pain is the most common symptom in myeloma, affecting nearly 70% of patients. Unlike the pain of metastatic carcinoma, which often is worse at night, the pain of myeloma is precipitated by movement. Persistent localized pain in a patient with myeloma usually signifies a pathologic fracture. The bone lesions of myeloma are caused by the proliferation of tumour cells, activation of osteoclasts that destroy bone, and suppression of osteoblasts that form new bone. The bone lesions are lytic in nature and are rarely associated with osteoblastic new bone formation due to their suppression by dickhoff-1 (DKK-1) produced by myeloma cells. Therefore, radioisotopic bone scanning is less useful in diagnosis than is plain radiography. The bony lysis results in substantial mobilization of calcium from bone, and serious acute and chronic complications of hypercalcemia may dominate the clinical picture. Localized bone lesions may expand to the point that mass lesions may be palpated, especially on the skull, clavicles, and sternum; and the collapse of veebrae may lead to spinal cord compression. Skull X ray may show the typical "punched out" lesions characteristic of multiple myeloma. The lesion represents a purely osteolytic lesion with little or no osteoblastic activity The next most common clinical problem in patients with myeloma is susceptibility to bacterial infections. Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 714. / MAHESWARI 9TH ED | Orthopaedics | Tumors | Which of the following is not associated with multiple myeloma?
A. Bone pain
B. Metastatic calcification
C. Punched out lesion in the skull
D. Carpopedal spasm
| Carpopedal spasm |
12dffb5b-cb5f-465d-858b-79190c6d5a6d | Ans. d. Immediately after delivery The highest volume overload in a paurient due to maximum cardiac output is seen immediately after delivery. "Peripheral vasodilation leading to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance is thought to be the first cardiovascular change associated with pregnancy (induced by progesterone). Cardiac output increases in response to this, by 20% at 8 weeks gestation and by up to 40-50% at 20-28 weeks gestation. Labour leads to fuher increases in cardiac output by 15% in the first stage and 50% in the second stage due to the combination of auto-transfusion of 300-500 ml of blood back into the circulation with each uterine contraction, and sympathetic stimulation caused by pain and anxiety. Cardiac output increases again immediately after delivery due to auto-transfusion of blood uterine contraction and relief of aoocaval compression. This may increase cardiac output by as much as 60-80%, followed by a rapid decline to pre-labour values within 1 houry Physiological Changes in the Cardiovascular System During Pregnancy Peripheral vasodilation leading to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance is thought to be the first cardiovascular change associated with pregnancy (induced by progesterone). Cardiac output increases in response to this, by 20% at 8 weeks gestation and by up to 40-50% at 20-28 weeks gestation. This is achieved predominantly an increase in stroke volume (due to an increase in ventricular end-diastolic volume, wall muscle mass, and contractility) but also by an increase in hea rate Labour leads to fuher increases in cardiac output by 15% in the first stage and 50% in the second stage due to the combination of auto-transfusion of 300-500 ml of blood back into the circulation with each uterine contraction, and sympathetic stimulation caused by pain and anxiety Cardiac output increases again immediately after delivery due to auto-transfusion of blood uterine contraction and relief of aoocaval compression. This may increase cardiac output by as | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The highest volume overload in a paurient due to maximum cardiac output is seen:
A. During second trimester
B. At term
C. After a heavy meal
D. Immediately after delivery
| Immediately after delivery |
364b074f-caf6-472c-a962-e91382c34ef2 | Turcot's syndrome is a variant of Familial adenomatous polyposis characterized by
- Colorectal polyposis
- Brain tumors (Medulloblastoma, Glioblastoma multiforme)
The colonic polyps in Turcot's syndrome are fewer and larger than in classic FAP. | Surgery | null | Turcot's syndrome is associated with -a) Duodenal polypsb) Familial adenomatous polyposisc) Brain tumorsd) Villous adenomae) Hyperplastic polyps
A. a
B. c
C. bc
D. ad
| bc |
1d211ebf-cd7d-4006-a7e9-98aa50eaa11f | Ans. (b) Acute intermittent phorphyriaMust Know* Thiopentone is C/I in acute intermittent porphyria.* Etomidate is C/I in adrenal insufficiency.* LA which causes meth hemoglobinemia: Prilocaine* Malignant hyperthermia is caused by: Succinylcholine* DOC for malignant hyperthermia: Dantrolene | Anaesthesia | Miscellaneous General Anesthesia | Absolute contraindication to thiopentone:
A. Cardiotoxicity
B. Acute intermittent phorphyria
C. Malignant hyperthermia
D. Methhemoglobinemia
| Acute intermittent phorphyria |
755a5d68-a4ef-4bce-ae9c-d34ed0be80ab | Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS) is an uncommon congestive hepatopathy caused by the obstruction of hepatic venous outflow. Patients may present with acute signs and symptoms of abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly or more chronic symptoms related to long-standing poal hypeension. The obstruction may be thrombotic or nonthrombotic anywhere along the venous outflow system from the hepatic venules to the right atrium. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012, Chapter 16 ; Scwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapter 31 | Medicine | null | Which of the following is the site of Venous Thrombosis in Budd Chiari Syndrome?
A. Infrahepatic inferior vena cava
B. Infrarenal inferior vena cava
C. Hepatic vein
D. Poal vein
| Hepatic vein |
30ba9ad5-f44c-4af8-b386-f0cc0dbbb760 | Organization of the Golgi is directed at proper glycosylation of proteins and lipids. There are more than 200 enzymes that function to add, remove, or modify sugars from proteins and lipids in the Golgi apparatus. Membranous vesicles containing newly synthesized proteins bud off from the granular endoplasmic reticulum and fuse with the cistern on the cis side of the apparatus. The proteins are then passed other vesicles to the middle cisterns and finally to the cistern on the trans side, from which vesicles branch off into the cytoplasm.(REF: GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY 23rd EDITION page no.42) | Physiology | General physiology | Function of Golgi apparatus is
A. Synthesis of protein
B. Maturation of protein
C. Degradation of protein
D. Sequencing of protein
| Maturation of protein |
9e939bbd-40e4-44f2-8c4d-7028715e80e7 | There are 2 schools of thought as far as this question is concerned – Some believe that.
TOC of central perforation is myringoplasty.
TOC of central perforation is conservative management.
But according to Turner 10/e, p 285 - central perforation/ tubo tympanic CSOM are both managed conservatively by antibiotics and by keeping the ear dry.
“If there is recurring discharge or if there is deafness sufficient to cause disability, closure of the perforation by myringoplasty should be considered.”
According to Scott’s Brown (7/e, vol-3 p 3421)
Dry perforations that are symptom free do not require usually require closure.
If the only symptom is a hearing impairment, the chances of improving hearing with surgery should be considered carefully, not just the hearing in the operated ear but the overall hearing ability of the patient.
In patients with a H/O intermittent activity, surgery to close the perforation is probably indicated to minimize future activity.
So from all above discussions it is clear that TOC for central safe perforation is conservative management. | ENT | null | Treatment of choice in central safe perforation is -
A. Modified mastoidectomy
B. Tympanoplasty
C. Myringoplasty
D. Conservative management
| Conservative management |
22362a35-3598-4a88-9ef5-a033c8e05483 | Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma is a B-cell neoplasm composed of small lymphocytes, plasmacytoidlymphocytes, and plasma cells, which typically affects older adults. There is maturation to plasmacytoid cells, but lacking the features of other lymphomas (pseudofollicles, neoplastic follicles, monocytoid B cells). lymph nodes; the pattern is diffuse or interfollicular, sparing the sinuses. The infiltrate consists of small lymphocytes,plasmacytoid cells and plasma cells Immunoblasts, epithelioid histiocytes and mast cells may be present. bone marrow; diffuse, nodular or interstitial infiltration. The consensus panel requires bone marrow involvement for the diagnosis of WM4. There may be circulating neoplastic cells, but the count is lower than for CLL | Pathology | Haematology | Plasmacytoid lymphomas may be associated with increase in
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
| IgM |
cef23903-71b8-47dd-a2ca-e49a99b39a45 | 10 % formalin is ALL - purpose fixative used for preservation of morphology of helminth eggs, larvae, protozoan cysts and coccidian. | Microbiology | null | Best preservative for protozoal cysts is
A. 10 % formalin
B. Isopropyl alchol
C. HCL Solution
D. Naoh solution
| 10 % formalin |
cd4b3186-97d1-4fdd-9108-5052400f1a82 | Ans. a. Clinical, bacteriological, immunological Ridley-Jopling Classification for Leprosy is based on Clinical (skin and nerve involvement), bacteriological (bacteriological/ morphological index in skin and nasal smears) and immunological criteria (Lepromin test). | Skin | null | The Ridley -Jopling classification for leprosy is based on which of the following parameters?
A. Clinical, bacteriological, immunological
B. Histopathological, clinical, therapeutic
C. Histopathological, epidemiological, therapeutics
D. Histopathological, clinical, epidemiological
| Clinical, bacteriological, immunological |
b3fd8ae3-c58a-4280-adca-d02122f6918c | 15 months - 2 cube tower
18 months - 3 cube tower
24 months - 6 cube tower
36 months - 9 cube tower | Pediatrics | null | By what age a child can make tower of 3 cubes?
A. 15 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 28 months
| 18 months |
09209be8-8324-4a45-a3cb-6428a03f8b78 | HTLV-1 is associated with adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma. EBV is found in a subset of Burkitt lymphoma, 30% to 40% of Hodgkin lymphoma (HL), many B-cell lymphomas arising in the setting of T-cell immunodeficiency, and rare NK-cell lymphomas. In addition to Kaposi sarcoma, HHV-8 is associated with an unusual B-cell lymphoma (primary effusion lymphoma) that presents as a malignant effusion, often in the pleural cavity. | Pathology | Non Hodgkin Iymphoma | Which of the viruses is not commonly implicated in the pathogenesis of Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas?
A. Human T-cell leukemia virus-1 (HTLV-1)
B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C. Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
| Cytomegalovirus (CMV) |
17aecbe9-9c27-4320-9850-82c20087b77e | Since artificial fluoridation is not permitted in Sweden a number of other initiatives were introduced in 1971 as part of the "Karlstad studies" to evaluate the separate and combined effects of different plaque control programs.
The efficacy of professional tooth cleaning was extensively investigated for the first time in the so-called Karlstad studies. | Dental | null | Karlstad studies were held in:
A. Netherlands
B. London
C. Sweden
D. Finland
| Sweden |
7ccd20e8-0730-432d-ae6f-ffdf0b717777 | (A) Warfarin # Patients with an anterior location of the infarction, severe LV dysfunction, CHF, a history of embolism, two-dimensional echocardiographic evidence of mural thrombus, or atrial fibrillation are at increased risk of systemic or pulmonary thromboembciism.> Such individuals should receive full therapeutic levels of antithrombin therapy (UFH or LMWHs) while hospitalized, followed by at least 3 months of warfarin therapy. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | In a patient post myocardial infarction developed arrial fibrillation. Subsequently the ECHO showed a mural thrombus. The management is by
A. Warfarin
B. Cardioversion
C. Digoxin
D. Propranolol
| Warfarin |
f1b7bc19-0a26-485e-8695-94dc17aec1e6 | - niacin deficiency results in pellagra. The disease is characterized by diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia. - niacin deficiency is common in maize eating population due to aminoacid imbalance cause by an excess of leucine. - excess of leucine appears to interfere in the conversion of tryptophan to niacin. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:619 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Not seen in pellagra -
A. Diarrhea
B. Dyspepsia
C. Dementia
D. Dermatitis
| Dyspepsia |
9cf04321-2b85-4916-bc37-ca8f764cd4e3 | Ans: d (Phenol) Ref:Reddy, 27th ed, p. 469In phenol poisoning (carbolic acid) green coloured urine is passed which is called carboluria. Il is due lo the presence of oxidized hydroquinone and pyrocatechol in urine. They are derivatives of phenol. The hydroquinone and pyrocatechol cause pigmentation in the cornea and various cartilages - Ochronosis.Brown colored urine is seen in nitric acid poisoning.Appearance of stomach in various poisoningCarbolic acid: Thickened leathery brown stomachOxalic acid: Bleached up appearanceNitric acid: Distended abdomenArsenic: Velvetty stomachAlkali: Chocolate coloured mucosaSulphuric acid: Brown coloured mucosaPotassium: Brown coloured mucosapermanganate BRIDGEAcetic acid produces hemoglobinuriaCarbolic poisoning is the only corrosive acid poisoning where stomach wash can be given. | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology | Green coloured urine is seen in:
A. Copper sulphate
B. Opium
C. Nitric acid
D. Phenol
| Phenol |
8569f191-3105-4946-9511-0403b00fce58 | • Abnormal accumulation in the peritoneal cavity of a milky fluid that resembles chyle.
• The turbidity of the fluid is caused by cellular debris in the fluid.
• Pseudochylous ascites is indicative of an abdominal tumor or infection.
• In some patients the ascitic fluid appears milky because of an excess of chylomicrons (triglycerides) | Surgery | null | Pseudochylous ascites occurs in-
A. Cirrhosis
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Filariasis
D. Malignant ascites
| Malignant ascites |
68c8cd1c-2611-4392-8079-3e1100cc711a | Ans. (b) MetaphysisRef.: Maheshwari 5th ed. 1168* Hematogenous osteomyelitis is an infection caused by bacterial seeding from the blood.* Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is characterized by an acute infection of the bone caused by the seeding of the bacteria within the bone from a remote source. This condition primarily occurs in children.* The most common site is the rapidly growing and highly vascular metaphysis of growing bones. The apparent slowing or sludging of blood flow as the vessels make sharp angles at the distal metaphysis predisposes the vessels to thrombosis and the bone itself to localized necrosis and bacterial seeding.Also Know* MC site of OM in child: Lower end of femur * MC site of OM in adults: Thoraco-Lumbar vertebra (Thoracic > Lumbar)* MC site of OM in infants: Hip | Orthopaedics | Osteomyelitis | Most common site for Osteomyelitis:
A. Epiphysis
B. Metaphysis
C. Diaphysis
D. Sub-chondral growth plate
| Metaphysis |
f01146bf-ec9c-4ec9-a726-1a31f8bb3263 | Ans. (a) Hepsidin(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 649; 8th/pg 659)Ferroportin which regulates the Iron release from tissue store house is regulated by hepsidin hormone released by liver. | Pathology | Misc. (R.B.C) | Release ferroportin store is controlled by?
A. Hepsidin
B. Transferrin
C. Ferritin
D. Hepoxin
| Hepsidin |
9a1916e3-99ff-4096-8450-753ca328fd6f | Retroviral protease Inhibitors (Pis): An aspaic protease enzyme encoded by HIV is involved in the production of structural proteins and enzymes (including reverse transcriptase) of the virus. The large viral polyprotein is broken into various functional components by this enzyme. This protease acts at a late step in HIV replication, i.e. maturation of the new virus paicles when the RNA genome acquires the core proteins and enzymes. In case of different Pis, 6-18 tablets are to be taken daily, some on empty stomach, but others with meals; and this has to go on for months and years. Patient acceptability and compliance are often low. One of the strategies adopted to reduce the dose of IDV, LPV and SQV is to combine them with a lowand subtherapeutic dose (100 mg) of ritonavir. By reducing first pass metabolism, ritonavir increases the bioavailability of the companion PI. This &;boosted PI regimen&; permits reduction in the number I frequency of tablets to be taken each day. Lopinavir is marketed only in combination with ritonavir. Nelfinavir is not to be combined with ritonavir. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:772,773 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Which protease inhibitor has boosting effect?
A. Amprenavir
B. Tenovir
C. Nelfinavir
D. Ritonavir
| Ritonavir |
42d1ea77-4290-49d9-90f3-c668b5101688 | Answer- B. 24 metresVisual acuity 616 means that a Person with normal visual acutiy can read the smallest line at a distance of 6 meters.Visual acdty 6124 means that this person can read paicular letters/lines at a distance of 6 meters which a person with normal visual acuity can read from a distance of 24 mm. | Ophthalmology | null | If a person has visual acuity 6/6. At what distance will he/she be able to read 6/24 lines
A. 6 metres
B. 24 metres
C. 36 metres
D. 48 metres
| 24 metres |
269fb798-5b06-4848-a527-ee75f8f4aa06 | If the intestinal microbes are eliminated, the intestinal contents become voluminous, the caecum is dilated and the intestine remains thinly walled. Historically, in germ-free animals, the villi are shoer, epithelial cell turnover is reduced and gut-associated lymphoid tissue is atrophic. From a functional point of view, in the absence of flora, mucosal disaccharidase activity is increased and nutrient absorption is more efficient, but gastric and intestinal motility is slower, and immunological defense mechanisms are weaker. Regarding infections, the protective influence of intestinal microflora extends beyond the gut. Through an ill-understood mechanism, normal enteral flora protects also against parenteral infections. Bowel flora has also been given the credit for synthesizing several vitamins. These vitamins include vitamin K, cyanocobalamin, folate, pyridoxine, biotin, pantothenate, and riboflavin. Anaerobic bacterial fermentation of fiber in the colon results in the formation of water, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, and sho-chain fatty acids such as acetic, propionic, and butyric acids. | Physiology | G.I.T | Which of the following is not a function of gut flora
A. Protection against parenteral infections
B. Synthesis of vitamin K
C. Decreased proliferation of epithelial cells
D. Fermentation of mucin
| Decreased proliferation of epithelial cells |
0d1b7cf3-a9d7-41b8-9d3e-02c779855560 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Angiotensin-IIImpoant chemical regulator of CVS are :Vasoconstrictors : Noradrenaline, Adrenaline, ADH (vasopressin), angiotension II, Endothelins, PGF2, thromboxane A2.Vasodilators : Kinins (Bradykinin, lysyl-bradykinin), PGE,, PGL (prostacyclin), VIP, ANP, Nitric oxide (NO) | Pathology | null | Vasoconstrictor anong these ?
A. NO
B. PGI2
C. Angiotensin-II
D. ANP
| Angiotensin-II |
d1ea3ca3-fc30-4991-80fa-91cbfe3c4c7a | Ans. (a) E. coliRef Bailey and Love 26th Edition, Page 276* Urinary infection is the most commonly associated infection in postoperative period* Most common organism isolated in catheter related Infections: E. coli | Surgery | Urethra & Penis | Most common cause of Foley catheter induced UTI
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Pseudomonas
D. Staphylococci
| E. coli |
3b2982df-d351-4c30-b91f-0c5667923076 | Ans: a (cholinergic) Ref: Ganong 22nd ed/ p.226Most of the neurons in ANS are cholinergic.Autonomic Nervous System:Parasympathetic preganglionic fibres have a long course.Parasympathetic postganglionic fibres have a short course. This is because the parasympathetic ganglions are located near the tissues it supplies.Each preganglionic axon diverges to an average of 8 or 9 postganglionic neurons.Preganglionic: Postganglionic = 1:8 or 9.Conduction speed in different fibres:* Autonomic preganglionic axons are B type* Autonomic postganglionic axons are C type* Conduction speed A>B>CPreganglionic fibres are myelinated, whereas, postganglionic fibres are unmyelinated.Cholinergic neuronso All preganglionic neuronso Parasympathetic postganglionic neuronso Sympathetic postganglionic neurons which innervate sweat glands and vessels in skeletal muscles.Remaining sympathetic postganglionic neurons are adrenergic or noradrenergic.Types of nerve fibresFibre typeFunctionsA alphaProprioception; somatic motorA betaTouch, pressureA gammaMotor to muscle spindlesA deltaPain, coId, touchBPreganglionic autonomicC- Dorsal rootPain, temperature, some mechano- reception, reflex responsesC - SympatheticPostganglionic sympathetic Relative susceptibility of nerve fibres Most susceptibleIntermediateLeast susceptibleHypoxiaBACPressureABCLocal anaestheticsCBA | Physiology | Nervous System | Most of the neurons in the Autonomic Nervous System are
A. Cholinergic
B. Adrenergic
C. Noradrenergic
D. Dopaminergic
| Cholinergic |
4385f9d2-ff17-4069-9b23-d7ad3adad915 | EXPRESSED BREAST MILK (EBM) STORAGEDURATIONRoom temperature6-8 hoursRefrigerator(4 C)24 hoursFreezer compament(-15 C)2 weeksDeep freezer (-18 C)3-6 months | Pediatrics | All India exam | Expressed breast milk can be stored at room temperature for how many hoursRpt question need to be changed
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 24
| 8 |
0fa489b4-a12e-40be-a0b6-0a5bf19f076c | Nx: Nodal status can't be assessed.
No: No lymph nodes.
N1: Single ipsilateral lymph node <3 cm
N2:
A: Single ipsilater lymph 3.6 cm
B: Multiple ipsilater lymph <6 cm
C: Bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes <6 cm.
N3:
Any lymph node with >6 cm, or
Any lymph node with capsular invasion. | Surgery | null | A patient with oral cancer, had ipsilateral lymph node measuring 2 cm, single in number with capsular spread. According to TNM staging it is included under:
A. Nx
B. N1
C. N2
D. N3
| N3 |
2d0e223f-ecf4-4948-8045-4ce507b28793 | Tinea unguium starts either from distal edge of nail plate or from base of nail. It slowly involves the entire nail plate. | Dental | null | Tinea unguium effects –
A. Nail fold
B. Nail plate
C. Joints
D. Inter digital space
| Nail plate |
9ba348e1-553b-4d8a-984a-ad03e04bfe78 | Ans. is'a'i.e., 1st passNasal endoscopy is done in three passes :-First Pass: Examination of nasal cavity, nasopharynx, opening of eustachian tube, walls of nasopharynx, upper surface of soft palate and uvula, opening of eustachian tube of opposite side opening of nasolacrimal duct and inferior meatus. | ENT | null | In nasal endoscopy Eustachian tube is examined at?
A. 1st pass
B. 2nd pass
C. 3rd pass
D. 4th pass
| 1st pass |
ead6fe56-07de-4eca-9a64-a10320f1a750 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Kaposi sarcoma Neoplastic disease in AIDS . Kaposi sarcoma (most common tumor) . Non Hodgkin lymphoma - Immunoblastic lymphoma (most common lymphoma) - Primary CNS lymphoma (associated with EBV) - Burkitt's lymphoma . Other less common neoplasm are - Hodgkin's disease - Leukemia - Cervical Ca - Brain tumor - Testicular Ca - Multiple myeloma - Melanoma - Lung Ca - Anal Ca - Oral Ca | Microbiology | null | Multifocal tumor of vascular origin in a patient of AIDS -
A. Kaposi sarcoma
B. Astrocytoma
C. Gastric Carcinoma
D. Primary CNS lymphoma
| Kaposi sarcoma |
3bfc573d-5493-47a5-9329-f16f7198e4b7 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4 years o An infant usually doubles his bih height by the age of 41/2 years Age Bih 3 months 9 months 1 year 2 years 41/2 years Height 50 cm 60 cm 70 cm 75 cm 90 cm 100 cm | Pediatrics | null | The height of a child is double the bih height at the age of-
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
| 4 years |
6b97edfe-91c2-4519-98f5-3f0ecf23458e | Answer is C (Stretptococcus pneumonia): 'Streptococcus pneumonia or pneumococcus is the most common cause of community acquired acute pneumonia -Robbins 7th/748 Lobar pneumonia refers to an acute bacterial infection that results in consolidation of a large poion of a lobe or an entire lobe. Streptococcus pneumonia produces a picture of lobar pneumonia. | Medicine | null | The most common causative organism for lobar pneumonia is :
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pheumoniae
D. Haemophilus influenzae
| Streptococcus pheumoniae |
e49da6bd-f2e8-4581-a858-2d214da01da9 | Ans: D i.e. Degenerative myopia Staphyloma & causes The usual causes of intercalary staphyloma are perforating injuries of the peripheral cornea, marginal corneal ulcer, anterior scleritis etc. Developmental glaucoma, end stage primary or secondary glaucoma, scleritis & trauma to the ciliary region of the eye are some of the conditions that lead to a ciliary staphyloma The most common cause of anterior staphyloma is a sloughing corneal ulcer which perforates && heals with the formation of a pseudocornea Degenerative high axial myopia is the most common cause of posterior staphyloma | Ophthalmology | null | Posterior staphyloma is most commonly seen in: March 2012
A. Perforating injuries of the peripheral cornea
B. Developmental glaucoma
C. Sloughing corneal ulcer
D. Degenerative myopia
| Degenerative myopia |
cc95288d-54de-4886-8bfa-101e9c45ae8b | Answer- B. Varicose ulcersIt is named for the dermatologist Paul Gerson Unna.This boot can be used to treat uninfected nonnecrotic leg and foot ulcers that result from such conditions as venous insuftciency (varicose ulcers) and stasis dermatitis. | Surgery | null | Unna boot is used for treatment of
A. Diabetic foot ulcer
B. Varicose ulcers
C. Ankle instability
D. Calcaneum fracture
| Varicose ulcers |
cc71e0e7-2fa5-419b-83bd-13328c6270d5 | Reticulocytes are stained in living state in vitro so staining with dyes like brilliant cresyl blue and new methylene blue is referred to as supravital staining. | Pathology | null | Reticulocytes are stained with
A. Methyl violet
B. Brilliant Cresyl blue
C. Sudan black
D. Indigo carmine
| Brilliant Cresyl blue |
5771fc3c-6963-4f48-b66d-422b7607224c | The fibers of the optic nerve (CN II) are myelinated by oligodendrocytes. This is an impoant distinction from the Other cranial nerves ( myelinated by Schwann cells) because the optic nerve is considered a tract of the central nervous system | Anatomy | Brainstem, cerebellum and ventricles | Which cranial nerve's fibers are myelinated by oligodendrocytes?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. VII
| II |
c9e81c2d-ec7d-400e-a721-f77997d6df7d | Diabetics have a maximum risk of causing sexual dysfunction followed by beta blockers Atenolol ,metaprolol and Carvedilol have high risk whereas nevibolol has maximum risk of erectile dysfunction ACE inhibitors decrease the risk Refer kDT 6/e p139 | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | The antihypeensive which cause decrease libido and impoance is
A. Atenolol
B. Enalapril
C. Prazosin
D. Diltiazem
| Atenolol |
1cd11a50-c962-4559-a968-9bd10e6d5685 | Ans. A. Piezoelectric effectUltrasonography:Ultrasonic image(sonographic/echographic) is based on mechanical oscillations of the crystal excited by electrical pulses (Piezoelectric effect). | Radiology | null | USG is/are based on:
A. Piezoelectric effect
B. Diamagnetic effect
C. Paramagnetic effect
D. Ferromagnetic effect
| Piezoelectric effect |
081090f4-fa5f-4ac5-becf-5f8ceea2ef94 | . Ans : (d) Gangrene localised to feet In chronic atherosclerotic occlusive disease usually it is confined to distal abdominal aoa below the renal aeries. Frequently extends to iliac aeries . Claudication characteristically involves buttocks , thighs and calves & may associated with impotence in males (Leriche syndrome ) . | Surgery | Vascular surgery | Which one of the following is not a symptom of atherosclerotic occlusive disease at the bifurcation of aoa (Leriche syndrome)?
A. Claudication of the buttock and thigh
B. Claudication of the calf
C. Sexual impotence
D. Gangrene localized to the feet
| Gangrene localized to the feet |
97b025c6-5b15-4fe1-b9a1-7d313599ec4e | Most patients developed transient ileus after a major abdominal operation. Most of these resolve within 3 to 5 days. Condition like extensive operative manipulation, major small bowel injury, heavy narcotic use, intra abdominal infection and pancreatitis- can prolong the ileum to 5 to 7 days. Ileus prolonged beyond this period is viewed with suspicion. Management of postoperative ileus The essence of treatment is prevention, with the use of nasogastric suction and restriction of oral intake until bowel sounds and passage of flatus return. Electrolyte abnormality, if any is corrected. A battery of laboratory tests are conducted to look for primary causes. which, if found is treated. "If paralytic ileus is prolonged and threatens life, a laparotomy should be considered to exclude a hidden cause and facilitate bowel decompression" Ref: Bailey & Love 25/e, Page 1201. | Surgery | null | Prolonged postoperative ileus is best treated by?
A. Long tube inseion
B. Calcium pantothenate
C. Laparotomy and exploration
D. Peristaltic stimulants
| Laparotomy and exploration |
875e04dc-6256-4e06-8600-90ef2fcbc089 | Fragile X syndrome
Fragile X syndrome is the prototype of diseases in which the mutation is characterized by a long repeating sequence of three nucleotides.
Normally, a codon is triplet (trinucleotide).
In these type of disorders, this trinucleotide sequence undergoes amplification and the same sequence is repeated many times in the genome.
In most cases, the affected sequences share the nucleotide G and C.
Clinical features of fragile - X syndrome
Mental retardation
Large testis (macroorchidism)
Large everted ears
Hyperextensible joint
Long face with large mandible
High arched palate
Mitral valve prolapse | Pediatrics | null | A 4-year baby is having a large face, large jaw, large ear and macroorchidism is –
A. Mc Cuneal bright syndrome
B. Down's syndrome
C. Cri–du chat syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome
| Fragile X syndrome |
d50d9b86-91c1-44d2-b449-037fe3b516e7 | Aspiration of sperms from testes is done in Testicular sperm aspiration(TESA). In this technique, an aspiration needle is inseed percutaneously to the testis parenchyma to aspirate fluid or small pieces of seminiferous tubules to obtain sperm. Ref: Feility Cryopreservation By Ri-Cheng Chian, Page 52-3; Feility Preservation: Emerging Technologies and Clinical Applications By Emre Seli, page 305. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In which of the following procedures sperms are aspirated from the testes?
A. ZIFT
B. GIFT
C. TESA
D. MESA
| TESA |
38ec1aac-851f-484d-84fa-31e8f7d6ffdb | Digeorge syndrome: Caused by 22q deletion C- Cardiac anomaly A- Abnormal facies (hypeelorism, antimongoloid slant, sho philtrum, mandibular hypoplasia. T- Thymic hypoplasia C- Cleft palate H- Hypocalcemia | Pediatrics | Primary Immunodeficiency | What is the probable genetic defect in this child with recurrent infections, tetany, oral candidiasis & a hea murmur?
A. 21q deletion
B. 21p deletion
C. 22q deletion
D. 22p deletion
| 22q deletion |
21597709-3c1f-414d-b7b6-6a2945f49574 | Ans. b (Vincristine). (Ref. Harrison Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th ed., 469 Fig. 70.3)CYCLE SPECIFIC ANTICANCEROUS DRUGSS-Phase specific drugsM-Phase specific drugsG,Phase specific drugsHydroxyurea,Methotrexate,Dactinomycin,Cytarabine,5-FU,MercaptopurineThiogauanine,ColchicinesVinca alkaloids and taxols (e.g., vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel).Vinca alkaloids (vincristine, vinblastine) inhibit mitotic spindle formation while taxels (paclitaxel) stabilize the mitotic spindles. Thus are known as'Spindle poisons'.Intercalaters: Anthracyclines and actinomycin D.By crosslinking between adjacent guanine in DNA: Cisplatin.By DNA breakage: Bleomycin. | Pharmacology | Anti-Cancer | Cell cycle specific anti-cancerous drug is?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Vincristine
C. Nitrogen mustard
D. Doxorubicin.
| Vincristine |
8dc1d945-42ef-4453-a330-bf835737c711 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Adenocarcinoma Barret's esophagus is the single most important risk factor for adenocarcinoma of esophagus.Barret's esophagus is metaplastic change of distal esophageal mucosa from normal squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium, in response to chronic gastro-esophageal reflux.The junction between squamous esophageal mucosa and gastric mucosa moves proximally.The risk of adenocarcinoma increases with increasing length of columnar-lined epithelium.The adenocarcinoma develops at the squamo-columnar junction (85%) or within 2 cm of the junction.Other complications of Barett's esophagus include : peptic ulcers in the columnar lined seg. of esopahgushigh and long strictures occur at the squamo-columnar junction and move high up as the squamo- columnar junction moves up with progressive injury. | Surgery | Esophageal Diseases - Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease, Carcinoma | Barrets esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Sarcoma
D. Gastrointenstinal stromal tumor
| Adenocarcinoma |
09139cc0-c0f0-46e2-9643-e2a62ff073cf | Aldrich-Mee's lines: Hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles with irregular thickening of the nails and development of bands of opacity in the fingernails. It is seen in prolonged contact of Arsenic. Ref: The essentials of forensic medicine and toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 475 | Forensic Medicine | null | A patient presented with Aldrich-Mee's lines which are characteristic of which heavy metal poisoning?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Arsenic
D. Copper
| Arsenic |
c57ec386-bcdb-4f25-9900-8d69848075b1 | (A) Extradural haemorrhage # Extradural haemorrhage.> It is a period in which person is liable for acts> Lucid interval is a period occurring in insanity, during which all the symptoms of insanity disappear completely. The individual is able to judge his acts soundly and he becomes liable for his acts.> If he commits an offense, he can be held completely responsible.> Because it is very difficult to whether he was suffering from mental aberration at the time of commit the offence. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | Lucid interval is a characteristic pathognomonic feature of\
A. Extradural haemorrhage
B. Intracerebral haemorrhage
C. Tumour in the frontal lobe
D. Intracerebral abscess
| Extradural haemorrhage |
b29fdee7-9c7c-422b-b429-8fbe5bb03abf | Hemo-dialysis catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSIs) are a major complication of long-term catheter us in HD. Gram positive organism are seen followed by gram negative organisms.
Similarly in peritoneal dialysis, the clinical presentation typically consists of pain and cloudy dialysate, often with fever and other constitutional symptoms. The most common culprit organisms are gram-positive cocci, including staphylococcus, reflecting the origin from the skin. Gram-negative rod infections are less common; fungal and mycobacterial infections can be seen in selected patients, particularly after antibacterial therapy.
In cases where peritonitis is due to hydrophilic gram negative rods (g.g., Pseudomonas sp.) or yeast, antimicrobial therapy is usually not sufficient, and catheter removal is required to ensure complete eradication of infection. Nonperitonitis catheter-associated infections (often termed tunnel infections) vary widely | Medicine | null | Which of the following microorganism is incriminated in infection after hemodialysis
A. Gram positive organisms
B. Chlamydia
C. Gram negative
D. Anaerobes
| Gram positive organisms |
c8b54767-4932-4cde-a4c1-839470d899e1 | In mystenia grevis antibodies are directed against Ach Receptors so this a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. 1. Type II cytotoxic reaction is mediated by antibodies directed against antigens on the cell membrane that activates complement thereby causing antibody-mediated destruction of cells. The cell membrane is damaged by a membrane attack complex during activation of the complement. eg:-Stimulation- Grave's disase (LATS), Inhibition - Myasthenia gravis (Anti Ach receptor Ab) 2.Type 1 rxn lead to anaphylaxis. 3. Type 3 rxn.is antigen antibody complex mediated rxn. Myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease | Microbiology | Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders) | Myasthenia gravis is which type of hypersensitivity-
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
| Type II |
f92e6758-1089-4383-94fd-7a24e079828d | SSRIs are the drugs of choice for long-term management of panic disorder Benzodiazepines are DOC for acute panic attacks | Pharmacology | Psychiatric Illness | Which of the following is the drug of choice for long-term management of panic disorder?
A. Phenothiazine
B. Azapirone
C. Beta blocker
D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
| Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor |
bb14ea81-ba6d-4f73-9951-0542c52573e9 | Giant cell tumor refer Robbins page no 1233 Pathogenesis. Current evidence suggests that the neoplas- tic cells of giant cell tumor are primitive osteoblast precur- sors but they represent only a minority of the tumor cells. The bulk of the tumor consists of non-neoplastic osteoclasts and their precursors. The neoplastic cells express high levels of RANKL, which promotes the proliferation of osteoclast precursors and their differentiation into mature osteoclasts RANK expressed by these cells. However, the feedback between osteoblasts and osteoclasts that nor- mally regulates this process during bone remodeling is absent. What results is a localized but highly destructive resorption of bone matrix by reactive osteoclasts. Giant cell tumors arise in the epiphysis but may extend into the metaphysis. The majority arise around the knee (distal femur and proximal tibia), but viually any bone can be involved. The typical location of these tumors near joints frequently causes ahritis-like symptoms. Occa- sionally, they present with pathologic fractures. Most are solitary; | Anatomy | Musculoskeletal system | Bone tumor arising from epiphyses is
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Ewings sarcoma
C. Giant cell tumor
D. Chondromyxoid fibroma
| Chondromyxoid fibroma |
3fab9c1e-18ee-47c8-9f55-1d70ef29b28f | Refer Katzung 12th/440 Propofol is drug of choice for day care surgery | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | Which of the following agents is used for day care surgery
A. Propofol
B. Thiopentone
C. Diazepam
D. Ketamine
| Propofol |
c9ba70ff-be70-42dd-8f9f-4f5d6bcaf262 | Ans. A. Complex I(Ref: Harper 31/e page 123)Inhibitors of ETC at Complex I1. An insecticide and a fish Poison Rotenone2. Amobarbital which is a barbiturate.3. Piericidin | Biochemistry | Respiratory Chain | Phenobarbitone inhibits which complex of ETC?
A. Complex I
B. Complex II
C. Complex III
D. Complex IV
| Complex I |
d110b23f-9c42-4423-8a3c-90fa68619168 | Ethionamide is thought to prevent organification of iodine in thyroid hormone synthesis, as it is structurally related to other thionamides (propylthiouracil and methimazole). So, it can lead to hypothyroidism. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following antitubercular drugs are associated with hypothyroidism?
A. Ethionamide
B. Streptomycin
C. PZA
D. Rifampicin
| Ethionamide |
e3ed0c08-92f2-4fe8-8888-2555f46e925f | Osgood-shaltter disease is osteochondritis of tibial tuberosity (just below the knee joint). | Orthopaedics | null | Osgood Shattiler disease -
A. Involve the knee joint
B. Pelvis
C. Wrist joint
D. Cervical spine
| Involve the knee joint |
9c8f1674-1416-4b53-86a1-6219e75240c1 | In the given question, Total neonatal deaths = Total early neonatal deaths + Total late neonatal deaths = 50 + 150 = 200 Total live bihs = Total bihs - Total stillbihs = 4050 - 50 = 4000 NMR= Neonatal death/Live bihs*1000 Thus, Neonatal moality rate, NMR = 200/4000 X 1000 = 50 per 1000 live bihs. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Obstetric Care in RCH: Visits, IFA, TT, MCH Indicators | In a given population, total bihs in a year are 4050. There are 50 still bihs. 50 neonates die within first 7 days of life whereas the number of deaths within 8-28 days of life is 150. What is the Neonatal moality rate in the population?
A. 12.5
B. 50
C. 49.4
D. 62.5
| 50 |
e4fd9dc3-9462-4736-9ec5-c58ed6da8daa | Protein requirement of an adult:
0.7 gm/kg/day in terms of Egg protein or
1.0 gm/kg/day in terms of mixed vegetable protein (NEW GUIDELINE: 0.83 g/kg/d)
Egg protein has the highest NPU of 96.
Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has recommended 1.0 gm protein per kg of body weight for an Indian adult, assuming a NPU of 65 for dietary proteins. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Protein requirement of an adult is
A. 0.7 gm/kg in terms of Egg protein & 0.7 gm/kg in terms of mixed vegetable protein
B. 1.0 gm/kg in terms of Egg protein & 1.0 gm/kg in terms of mixed vegetable protein
C. 0.7 gm/kg in terms of Egg protein & 1.0 gm/kg in terms of mixed vegetable protein
D. 1.0 gm/kg in terms of Egg protein & 0.7 gm/kg in terms of mixed vegetable protein
| 0.7 gm/kg in terms of Egg protein & 1.0 gm/kg in terms of mixed vegetable protein |
2c88fd28-82ed-4caf-88a6-b5fd04a77b6c | Ans. C: 9-90 days Acquired syphilis: - Primary syphilis: incubation period 2-3 weeks (range 9-90 days): local infection - Secondary syphilis: incubation period 6-12 weeks (range 1-6 months): generalised infection - Early latent syphilis: asymptomatic syphilis of less than 2 years duration - Late latent syphilis: asymptomatic syphilis of 2 years or longer duration - Late symptomatic syphilis (teiary syphilis): cardiovascular syphilis, neurosyphilis, gummatous syphilis Congenital syphilis: - Early congenital syphilis occurs within the first 2 years of life. - Late congenital syphilis emerges in children older than 2 years. | Skin | null | Incubation period of syphilis is: September 2006
A. 10-14 days
B. 30-60 days
C. 9-90 days
D. 3-6 months
| 9-90 days |
028eb157-8e5f-4fa9-ab20-d114d6a39bbb | Ans- D Erythematous urticarial patches and plaques (classically periumbilical) that progress to tense vesicles and blisters in a pregnant woman is herpes gestationis (also known as pemphigoid gestationis). There is no association to the husband's URI. Herpes gestationis is a pruritic blistering dermatologic disorder unique to pregnancy. It is not associated with past or present herpes infection. The onset is generally later in pregnancy (second trimester or later). The distribution involves the abdomen or extremities but may be generalized. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition triggered by pregnancy, with antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins. It is associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Grave's disease, or pernicious anemia. Tunzi et al. describe some of the major pregnancy-specific skin conditions, which include pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy, prurigo of pregnancy, intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, pemphigoid gestationis, impetigo herpetiformis, and pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy. The majority of skin conditions resolve postpartum and require only symptomatic treatment. Lipozencic et al. detail the specifics of diagnosing pemphigoid gestationis, which includes the presence of subepidermal vesicles on routine histologic examination and the linear deposition of C3 and IgG along the basement membrane of perilesional skin. Detection of C3 and IgG is accomplished by immunofluorescence microscopy. Figure A displays the classic findings of vesicular skin lesions in a pregnant woman with herpes gestationis. Illustration A displays herpes zoster, note the dermatomal distribution. Illustration B displays bullous pemphigoid. Illustration C displays pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy. Incorrect Answers: Answer 1: Herpes zoster is a viral skin condition affecting only one dermatome. Answer 3: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy involves diffuse burning and itching without visible skin changes. Answer 2: Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy presents with umbilical-sparing abdominal skin wheals. | Unknown | null | A 27-year-old G1P0 female at 36 weeks gestation presents to her obstetrician with a 3-day history of abrupt onset of extremely pruritic and urticarial papules and blisters on the abdomen and trunk. She states that the itching has worsened such that it is interfering with her everyday life.
A. Herpes zoster
B. Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy
C. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
D. Herpes gestationis
| Herpes gestationis |
9e36f14c-c95f-49c0-bd24-9e121a13f153 | Factor Xa inhibitors * Oral Direct Factor Xa (Stua-Prower factor) Inhibitors are Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, Betrixaban and Edoxaban * Rivaroxaban inhibits free and clot associated Factor Xa AE reducing !rombin generation AE suppressing Platelet aggregation and Fibrin formation. * Other options: * Dabigatran etexilate is an Oral Direct Factor IIa (Thrombin) Inhibitor * Fondaparinux is a parenteral synthetic Heparin derivative anticoagulant * Bivalirudin is a parenteral Hirudin-based Thrombin Inhibitor. * Salient features of Rivaroxaban: Ref:- Goodman & Gilman's the pharmacological basis of therapeutics 13th Edition; Pg num:- 594. | Pharmacology | Hematology | Oral Factor Xa Inhibitor is
A. Dabigatran etexilate
B. Fondaparinux
C. Bivalirudin
D. Rivaroxaban
| Rivaroxaban |
ffa601b1-ab92-4780-b3dc-d1c93143d7ed | Ans. D. Histotoxic anoxiaHypoxia or Anoxia O2 deficiency at the tissue level Type:a. Hypoxic Hypoxia (anoxic anoxic)i. PO2 of arterial bloodii. Chemoreceptor stimulatedb. Anaemic Hypoxiai. Arterial PO2 is normal but amount of Hb available to carry O2 is reducedii. Chemoreceptors are not stimulated, since dissolved O2 in blood is enough to keep these receptors normal.c. Stagnant or ischemic hypoxiai. Normal PO2 and Hb cone.ii. Blood flow to tissue is so slow that adequate O2 is not deliverediii. Chemoreceptor are strongly stimulated.d. Histotoxic Hypoxia: -i. Caused by Cyanide, that inhibit cytochrome oxidase (cyt aa3), so that tissue cells cannot make use of O2 .ii. O2 delivery to tissue is normal.iii. Chemoreceptor are strongly stimulated. | Physiology | Respiratory System | Death due to cyanide poisoning results from which of the following types of anoxia?
A. Anoxic anoxia
B. Anaemic anoxia
C. Stagnant anoxia
D. Histotoxic anoxia
| Histotoxic anoxia |
e9d2479e-dfdd-400f-acc5-0abdb0e3476d | (B) Thought insertion # THOUGHT INSERTION is more commonly associated with shizophrenia.> OBSESSIVE-COMPULSIVE DISORDER (OCD) is an anxiety disorder characterized by intrusive thoughts that produce uneasiness, apprehension, fear or worry (obsessions), repetitive behaviors aimed at reducing the associated anxiety (compulsions), or a combination of such obsessions and compulsions.> The acts of those who have OCD may appear paranoid and potentially psychotic. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | Obsessive Compulsive Disorder is NOT associated with
A. Repetitive behavior
B. Thought insertion
C. Anxiety
D. Paranoid behavior
| Thought insertion |
a1f3d457-ccc2-4b5a-9be8-edfca004add2 | 2,3-BPG is very plentiful in red cells. It is formed from 3phosphoglyceraldehyde, which is a product of glycolysis the Embden-Meyerhof pathway (Figure 36-4). It is a highly charged anion that binds to the bchains of deoxyhemoglobin. One mole of deoxyhemoglobin binds 1 mol of 2,3-BPG. In effectHbO2 + 2,3-BPG =Hb - 2,3-BPG + O2In this equilibrium, an increase in the concentration of 2,3BPG shifts the reaction to the right, causing more O2 to be liberated. So decrease in 2,3 BPG shift the reaction to leftMetabolic acidosis (or nonrespiratory acidosis) occurs when strong acids are added to blood. If, for example, a large amount of acid is ingested (eg, aspirin overdose) this decrease in pH cause shift to the rightA rise in temperature shifts the curve to the rightThe pH of blood falls as its CO2 content increases so that when the PCO2 rises, the curve shifts to the rightRef: 23rd Edition of Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 611,615 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | The Hb-O2 dissociation curve is shifted to left by
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Increased temperature
C. Increased PCO2
D. Decreased 2, 3 DPG
| Decreased 2, 3 DPG |
c9da7744-614b-47e7-a334-412c6837f06c | Ketoconazole (KTZ): It is the first orally effective broad-spectrum antifungal drug, useful in both dermatophytosis and deep myc osis. The oral absorption of KTZ is facilitated by gastric acidity because it is more soluble at lower pH. Hepatic metabolism is extensive; metabolites are excreted in urine and faeces. Elimination of KTZ is dose dependent: tlh varies from llh to 6 hours. Penetration in CSF is poor: not effective in fungal men ingitis. However, therapeutic concentrations are attained in the skin and vaginal fluid. Adverse effects Ketoconazole is much less toxic than AMB, but more side effects occur than with itraconazole or fluconazole, that have largely replaced it for systemic use. The most common side effects are nausea and vomiting; can be reduced by giving the drug with meals. Others are-loss of appetite, headache, paresthesia, rashes and hair loss. Ketoconazole decreases androgen production from testes, and it displaces testosterone from protein binding sites. Gynaecomastia, loss of hair and libido, and oligozoospermia may be themanifestations. Menstrual irregularities occur in some women due to suppression of estradiol synthesis. A dose-dependent decrease in serum hydro coisone due to synthesis inhibition has also been noticed, but without any clinical manifestations in normal individuals. Mild and asymptomatic elevation of serum transaminases occurs in -5% patients, but serious hepatotoxicity is infrequent. It is contraindicated in pregnant and nursing women. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:762,763 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Most serious adverse effect of ketoconazole is:
A. Adrenal insufficiency
B. Pellagra like skin lesion
C. Liver injury
D. Prostate cancer
| Adrenal insufficiency |
2d02e49e-b28e-4923-ac54-557fc4057fee | GIC has fluoride releasing property and it also binds with the tooth chemically. So, it should be the cement of choice. | Dental | null | Which of the following cement has most anticariogenic effect used while placing bands on molar to prevent caries?
A. GIC
B. Polycarboxylate
C. Zinc phosphate
D. Silicate
| GIC |
910bbdab-feea-4b56-bc3a-0c15cdfc7d45 | (B) MAO-B inhibitor # Selegiline is a MAO-B inhibitor.> MAO exist in forms MAO-A & MAO-B.> MAO-A predominates in peripheral adrenergic structures & intestinal mucosa.> MAO-B predominates in brain & Blood platelets. Selegline, along c- levodopa, prolongs its action, & wearing-off effect.> Based on the theory that oxidation of DA or toxin MPTP in the striatum by MAO to free radicals is cause for parkinsonism early therapy c- selegiline night delay progression of disorders.> Non selective MAO inhibitors include: Phenelzinec/lsocarboxazide/Tranylcypromine.> Selective MAO-A are: Clorgiline/ Moclobemidee> Selective MAO-B are: Selegiline (Deprenyl), Rasagline, Periphery, BLood brain barrier | Pharmacology | Miscellaneous (Pharmacology) | Selegiline is
A. Dopa decarboxylase inhibitor
B. MAO-B inhibitor
C. COMT inhibitor
D. MAO-A inhibitor
| MAO-B inhibitor |
1523dcf4-9d03-40ad-a6b7-5f48085616f9 | Antibiotics safe in pregnancy P - Penicillin C - Cephalosporin M - Macrolides Ciprofloxacin causes cailage and bone destruction Gentamycin causes hearing loss in fetus Cotrimoxazole contains sulfonamides which can cause kernicterus in the child | Pharmacology | Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors | A female with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with fever and dysuria. A preliminary diagnosis of cystitis was made. Which of the following drugs will be safe to use for this patient?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Gentamicin
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. Amoxicillin
| Amoxicillin |
9463eeaf-d1a7-4421-8e8a-885d79459848 | Central chemoreceptors are situated in the deeper pa of medulla oblongata, close to the dorsal respiratory group of neurons. This area is known as a chemosensitive area, and the neurons are called chemoreceptors. Chemoreceptors are in close contact with blood and cerebrospinal fluid. Central chemoreceptors are connected with respiratory centers, paicularly the dorsal respiratory group of neurons through synapses. These chemoreceptors act slowly but effectively. Central chemoreceptors are responsible for 70% to 80% of increased ventilation through chemical regulatory mechanisms. Main stimulant for central chemoreceptors is the increased hydrogen ion concentration. However, if hydrogen ion concentration increases in the blood, it cannot stimulate the central chemoreceptors because the hydrogen ions from blood cannot cross the blood-brain barrier and blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier. On the other hand, if carbon dioxide increases in the blood, it can easily cross the blood-brain barrier and bloodcerebrospinal fluid barrier and enter the interstitial fluid of the brain or the cerebrospinal fluid. There, carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid. Since carbonic acid is unstable, it immediately dissociates into hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion. CO2 + H2O - H2CO3 - H+ + HCO3- Hydrogen ions stimulate the central chemoreceptors. From chemoreceptors, the excitatory impulses are sent to the dorsal respiratory group of neurons, resulting in increased ventilation (increased rate and force of breathing). Because of this, excess carbon dioxide is washed out and respiration is brought back to normal. Lack of oxygen does not have a significant effect on the central chemoreceptors, except that it generally depresses the overall function of the brain. Ref: Sembulingam - physiology 7th edition | Anaesthesia | Fundamental concepts | The main controlling agent for respiratory drive is which of the following -
A. CO2
B. Oxygen
C. NO
D. HBO3
| CO2 |
b1fd2546-bd8f-4e2b-860e-a762ac039f84 | Answer is B (Demonstrate an abnormal nasal potential difference) Nasal Potential Difference is a sensitive test of electrolyte transpo (CFTR function) that can be used to suppo or refute a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis when sweat chloride levels are normal or border line and two CF mutations cannot be demonstrated by DNA testing. Diagnostic criteria for cystic fibrosis Risk Factor For CF PLUS Laboratory Evidence of CFTR Dysfunction * Presence of one or more typical clinical feature * Positive sweat chloride test (> 1 phenotypic symptom) Plus (>60 mcq/l on two occasions) or Or * History of CF in sibling Plus * Identification of 2 CF mutations or or * Positive Neonatal screening test Plus * Abnormal Nasal Potential Difference The patient in question has typical clinical features of cystic fibrosis; however the sweat chloride levels are border line (between 40-60meq/1) on two separate occasions. To establish the diagnosis of cystic. fibrosis, another laboratory evidence demonstrating CFTR dysfunction is therefore required. This can be achieved by demonstration of abnormal CF mutation by DNA analysis or by demonstrating an abnormal nasal potential difference. The diagnostic criteria for cystic fibrosis requires demonstration of at least two CF mutations and hence demonstration of an abnormal F508 mutation alone is not sufficient to establish the diagnosis of CF An abnormal CFTR nasal potential difference is an established laboratory evidence of CFTR dysfunction and is accepted as a diagnostic criterion to establish the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. | Medicine | null | A seven year old child with recurrent chest infections and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is suspected of having cystic fibrosis Sweat chloride levels have been observed between 40-60 mmo1/1 on two separate occasions. Which of the following test should be performed next to suppo the diagnosis of Cystic fibrosis:
A. Repeat Sweat chloride levels on a different day
B. Demonstrate an abnormal nasal potential difference
C. Demonstrate an abnormal F508 mutation by DNA analysis
D. Demonstrate an abnormal 72 hour fecal fat
| Demonstrate an abnormal nasal potential difference |
080790bd-d9b2-46bb-9bae-af04b24ca7a4 | The most common symptoms of niacin deficiency involve the skin, the digestive system, and the nervous system. The symptoms of pellagra are commonly referred to as the three "Ds": sun-sensitive dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. A fourth "D," death, occurs if pellagra is left untreated | Biochemistry | null | A patient is found to have sun-sensitive dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia he must be suffering from the deficiency of which of the following.
A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Folic acid
D. Iron
| Niacin |
3d3fc67e-3193-4623-8a01-b19d9ea2741c | Oral contraceptives Estrogen increases the synthesis of various clotting factors and produce a hypercoagulable state. Thus OCP containing estrogen decrease the effectiveness of warfarin and other oral anticoagulants. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs should not be administered concomitantly with warfarin as it decreases the effect of oral anticoagulants
A. Broad spectrum antibiotic
B. Cimetidine
C. Aspirin
D. Oral contraceptive
| Oral contraceptive |
4c792e63-310f-41f7-8989-1e460674d570 | Ans. d. Maklakov tonometer Indentation tonometry Indentation tonometry was devised by SchiotzQ. Because of its simplicity, reliability, low price and relative accuracy, it is the most widely used tonometer in the world. For repeated use in multiple patients it can be sterilized by dipping the footplate in ether, absolute alcohol, acetone or by heating the footplate in the flame of spirit. The greatest accuracy is attained if the deflection of lever is between 3-4. Its main disadvantage is that it gives a false reading when used in eyes with abnormal scleral rigidity') False low level of 10P are obtained in eyes with low scleral rigidityQ seen in high myopes and following ocular surgery Applanation tonometry The concept of Applanation tonometry was introduced by GoldmannQ is 1954. It is best on lmbe-Fick lawQ. Currently, it is the most popular and accurate tonometerQ | Ophthalmology | null | Tonometer with variation in application surface
A. Mackey Marg tonometer
B. Rebound tonometer
C. Dreger's tonometer
D. Maklakov tonometer
| Maklakov tonometer |
7bdc8144-4b5f-4ec7-b4ad-68f73e9cf05a | Administration of dexamethasone before delivery:
– Reduces the incidence and severity of intraventricular hemorrhage
– Accelerates fetal lung maturation in preterm labour and prevents hyaline membrane disease.
It should be given atleast 24 hours before delivery.
Its effect lasts for 7 days therefore earlier it was said that repeat injections of betamethasone should be given weekly. Recent trials have shown that repeated injection lead to an increase in incidence of cerebral palsy therefore repeated injections are not given.
Steroid of choice for lung maturity is Betamethasone.
Dose = 2 doses of 12 mg of steroid (i.e., 3 ampules) are given i/m - 24 hours apart.
Adverse effects of Dexamethasone: | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In a lady of 32 weeks pregnancy injection dexa- methasone is to given to prevent:
A. Respiratory distress syndrome
B. Neonatal convulsions
C. Neonatal jaundice
D. Cerebral palsy
| Respiratory distress syndrome |
54e415d9-2edc-4dc0-bc09-678a39aaa046 | Diastolic Notching in uterine aery Doppler usually disappears beyond 22 weeks of gestation. Persistence of uterine notch beyond 22 weeks is indicator of preeclampsia. | Radiology | ULTRASOUND | Early diastolic notching of uterine aery disappears by which week of gestation?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 24
| 22 |
bb6045d2-0c83-43c5-9893-8a356b72ef5d | ANSWER: (C) Increased sensitivity to chemical mediatorsREF: Ganong physiology 22nd edition page 111"When the motor Nerve supply to a smooth muscle is cut, the muscle does not atrophy (this is in contrast to skeletal muscle which atrophies on denervation), It becomes hyper responsive to the chemical mediators that normally activate it" | Physiology | Smooth Muscle: Contraction and Excitation | Which among the following is a feature of denervation of smooth muscle?
A. Atrophy of the muscle.
B. Decrease in no of receptors for neurotransmitters
C. Increased sensitivity to chemical mediators
D. Decreased neurotransmitter release At NMJ
| Increased sensitivity to chemical mediators |
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