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e43692cb-196e-4ee2-8082-324750ba68f2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reiter's syndrome Arthropathy following a recent leisure trip suggests reactive arthritis.Eye involvement points towards Reiter's syndrome.Reactive arthritis refers to acute nonpurulent arthritis, complicating an infection elsewhere in the body.Reiter's syndrome is one of the classic forms of reactive arthritis i.e. an aseptic inflammatory arthritis associated with nonspecific urogenital or bowel infection (with manifestations in the eye).Reactive arthritis is frequently associated with the human leucocyte antigen B27 (HLA - B27) Q haplotype.The etiology of reactive arthritis remains uncertain. The most accepted theory about the pathophysiology of reactive arthritis involves initial activation by a microbial antigen followed by an autoimmune reaction that involves skin, eyes and joints.Two forms of reactive arthritis have been recognized a sexually transmitted form and a dysenteric form.Gastrointestinal infections with, Shigella Q, salmonella Q and Campylobacter species and genitourinary infections with chlamydia trachomatis Q have been found to trigger reactive arthritis.The characteristic triad of Reiter's syndromeArthritis Q {polyarthritis, non erosive)Urethritis QConjunctivitis Q | Medicine | Miscellaneous (Infection) | A young man back from leisure trip has swollen knee joints & foreign body sensation in eyes. Likely cause is -
A. Reiter's syndrome
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Behcet's disease
D. SLE
| Reiter's syndrome |
3b2c538e-be58-4f09-9208-196ffb8bd3c4 | Thyroid cailage is a type of hyaline cailage. Hyaline cailage is the most common type of cailage, in adults this is replaced by bone by a process called enchondral ossification. In the aicular surface of bone, costal cailage, nose, larynx, trachea and bronchi hyaline cailage persist throughout life and does not calcify.Elastic cailage: is highly flexible and is found in the external ear, walls of auditory tube, epiglottis and larynx.Fibrocailage is present in the interveebral disc, pubis symphysis and ceain joints. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following is an example of hyaline cailage?
A. Epiglottis
B. Thyroid cailage
C. Apex of Arytenoid Cailage
D. Pinna
| Thyroid cailage |
535c95ae-2fce-4a02-aba3-5905414bf29c | When a normal individual lies down, the pulmonary blood volume increases by up to 400 mL
When the person stands up this blood is discharged into the general circulation.
This shift is the cause of the decrease in vital capacity in the supine position and is responsible for the occurrence of orthopnea in heart failure. | Physiology | null | Orthopnea is heart failure develops due to
A. Reservoir function of pulmonary veins
B. Reservoir function of leg veins
C. Reservoir function of pulmonary arteries
D. Reservoir function of leg arteries
| Reservoir function of pulmonary arteries |
57ef66d4-145d-49e6-9997-57439a71aead | b. Moderate asphyxia(Ref: NNF & WHO guidelines)Apgar scoreInterpretation0-3Severe birth asphyxia4-7Moderate birth asphyxia>7Normal | Pediatrics | New Born Infants | If APGAR score is 6, at 5 minutes of life, then what is the interpretation?
A. Child is normal
B. Moderate asphyxia
C. Severe birth asphyxia
D. It requires immediate resuscitation
| Moderate asphyxia |
36e089e2-16a3-4153-9779-887021d1e6ff | The pyrimidine synthesis is a similar process than that of Purines(Purines Synthesis). In the de novo synthesis of Pyrimidines, the ring issynthesized first and then it is attached to a ribose-phosphate to for a pyrimidinenucleotide. Pyrimidine rings are assembled from bicarbonate, aspaate, and Ammoni | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Which of the following is not involved in synthesis of pyrimidines?
A. Glutamine
B. CO2
C. Aspaic acid
D. Glycine
| Glycine |
b8f7f067-4910-4e2d-aaec-1c90bc8f670f | Length at bih - 50cms At the end of 1st year-75 cms Increase in length is 25cm/yr -1st year of bih At the end of 4yrs - 100cm. From there on till 12 yrs ( i.e, pre pubeal age) increase in height is 6cm per year. There is marked acceleration in height during pubey. Ref- Ghai , Chapter 2 | Pediatrics | Growth and development | The closest pre-pubeal increase in height each year is
A. 1-2cm
B. 3-4cm
C. 5-7cm
D. 8-10cm
| 5-7cm |
fe3d0afd-eeb0-4c45-84b1-a11ae4386833 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyrazinamide Three first line antitubercular drugs are associated with hepatotoxicity :? i) Rifampicin ii) INH iii) Pyrazinamide Of the three, rifampicin is least likely to cause hepatocellular damage, although it is associated with cholestatic jaundice. Pyrazinamide is the most hepatotoxic of the first line drugs. Among the second-line drugs, ethionamide, PAS and protionamide can also be hepatotoxic, although less so than any of the first line drugs. | Pharmacology | null | Maximum liver toxicity is seen with which anti -TB drug?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
| Pyrazinamide |
10be456a-fb44-413d-8716-f9a04ec67aa4 | The immunoglobulin that represents past exposure to an antigen is IgG. It is the predominant antibody in the secondary response and is an impoant defense against bacteria and viruses. In the secondary response, a much larger amount of IgG antibody is produced than IgM, and the levels of IgG tend to persist for a much longer time than in the primary response. IgA , the main immunoglobulin found in secretions, prevents the attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucosal surfaces. It does not bind complement. IgD probably functions as an antigen receptor. It is found on the surface of many B lymphocytes and is found in small amounts in serum. IgE is the primary antibody in type I hypersensitivity. It mediates the anaphylactic response and also paicipates in host defenses against parasites (antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity-ADCC). Ref: Brooks G.F., Carroll K.C., Butel J.S., Morse S.A., Mietzner T.A. (2013). Chapter 8. Immunology. In G.F. Brooks, K.C. Carroll, J.S. Butel, S.A. Morse, T.A. Mietzner (Eds), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e. | Medicine | null | A 20 year old college student working pa-time in a pediatric AIDS clinic develops a viral exanthem with a rash. Her blood is drawn and tested for specific antibodies to varicella-zoster (chickenpox). Anti-varicella immunoglobulin belonging to which of the following antibody classes would indicate that she is immune to chickenpox?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
| IgG |
b0e4fd42-0451-4e7b-aa03-f1eb166fbb80 | Ans. B: Pagets disease Paget's disease of the breast is an eczema-like change in the skin of the nipple, and is a superficial manifestation of an underlying breast cancer. The underlying breast cancer may be an invasive breast cancer or ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). In DCIS, the cancer cells are completely contained within the milk ducts. Paget's disease affects about 1-2 out of every 100 women with breast cancer. It is most common in women in their 50s, but can occur at a younger or older age. It can affect men, but this is extremely rare | Surgery | null | Unilateral breast involvement with scaly skin around the nipple and intermittent bleeding is suggestive of: September 2005
A. Galactocoele
B. Pagets disease
C. Eczema
D. Sebaceous cysts
| Pagets disease |
c19730c4-fd96-435a-a359-6eef794521c9 | Postcoital contraceptive methods prevent implantation or cause regression of the corpus luteum and are highly efficacious if used appropriately. Levonorgestrel is more effective and is associated with fewer side effects than the combination estrogen-progestin regimens. Other hormone-based emergency contraception: Estrogen-progestin Combinations Antiprogestins and selective progestin-receptor modulators Copper-containing intrauterine devices within 5 days after unprotected intercourse Ref: Hall J.E. (2012). Chapter 347. The Female Reproductive System, Infeility, and Contraception. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Progesterone of choice in emergency contraception is the following:
A. DMPA
B. Levonorgestrel
C. Norgestrel
D. Micronised progesterone
| Levonorgestrel |
b1056bb5-b952-4250-8766-dce9f8671688 | M. pneumoniae pneumonia is also referred to as Eaton agent pneumonia (the organism having first been isolated in the early 1940s by Monroe Eaton), primary atypical pneumonia, and "walking" pneumonia. A mild tracheobronchitis with fever, cough, headache, and malaise is the most common syndrome associated with acute M pneumoniae infection. The pneumonia is typically less severe than other bacterial pneumonias. It has been described as "walking" pneumonia because most cases do not require hospitalization. Ref: Hardy R.D. (2012). Chapter 175. Infections Due to Mycoplasmas. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Microbiology | null | Which among the following is known as 'Eaton agent' which causes respiratory infection?
A. Corynebacterium
B. Pseudomonas
C. Mycoplasma
D. Streptococcus
| Mycoplasma |
ab0ebd4f-575d-4225-b10e-b9afb0e76c43 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chaga's disease Arthopods Arthropod borne diseases1) Mosquito:1) AnophelesMalariaFilaria (Not in India) 2) CulexJapanese encephalitisWest nile feverBancroftian filariasisViral arthritis 3)AedesYellow feverDengueDengue hemorrhagic feverChikangu nya feverRift valley feverFilaria (Not in India)Zika virus 4) MansonoidesBrugian filariasis2) SandflyKalazarOriental soreOraya feverSandfly fever 3) Tse - tse flySleeping sickness4) LouseEpidemic typhus, relapsing fever, trench fever; pediculosis, vogabond disease.5) Rat fleaBubonic plague, endemic typhus, chiggerosis, hymenolepis diminua6) Black flyOncocerciasis7) ReduvidbugChagas disease8) Hard tickTick typhus, viral encephalitis, viral hemorrhagic fever, KFD, Tularemia, tick paralysis, human babesiosis, Lyme's disease9) Soft tickQ fever, relapsing fever, KFD10) Trombiculid miteScrub typhus, Ricketssial pox11) Itch miteScabies12) CyclopsGuinea worm disease, Fish tape worm ( D. latum )13) CockroachesEnteric pathogens14) HouseflyTyphoid and paratyphoid fever, diarrhoea, dysentery cholera, gastro-enteritis, amoebiasis, helminthic infestations, poliomyelitis, conjunctivitis, trachoma, anthrax, yaws, etc. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | Reduvid bug transmitts-
A. Kalaazar
B. Relapsing fever
C. Trench fever
D. Chagas disease
| Chagas disease |
92beb499-a292-44f9-8073-3c01eea17cd4 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Psychological dependence Drug dependenceo Drug dependence, as the name suggests, is a state where a person becomes dependent on a drug despite knowing the harmful effect of the drug.o This state arises from repeated, periodic or continuous administration of a drug, that results in harm to the individual.o The subject feels a desire, need or compulsion to continue using the drug and feels ill if abruptly deprived of it (withdrawl syndrome)o Drug dependency is characterized by the triad of:i) Psychological dependenceo First to appearo There is emotional distress if the drug is withdrawnii) Physical dependenceo Follows psychological dependenceo There is physical illness if the drug is withdrawn (withdrawl symptoms)iii) Toleranceo Tolerance may beSelf tolerance -To the drug on which the subject is dependentCross tolerance - To the other similar (usually) or dissimilar (sometimes) drugs.o The frequency of use of drug is usually daily and duration is inevitably greater than 2-3 weeks. | Pharmacology | Pharmacodynamics | Which of the following develop first during dependence of a substance -
A. Tolerance
B. Physical dependence
C. Psychological dependence
D. Withdrawal symptoms
| Psychological dependence |
74bf3532-83e7-42a6-ae27-ac89b576e0cf | (Seperation of the cranial sutures) (222-Reddy's 29th)DIASTAT1C OR SUTURAL FRACTURES - separation of the sutures occurs only in young persons due to a blow on head with blunt weapon* It may occur alone but often is associated with fracture* It is usually seen in saggital sutures* These are particularly common in traffic accidents* Most successful estimate to union of skull is done from sagittal sutures, next lambdoid and then coronal (72- Reddy 29th)* Fissured fracture - These are linear fractures involving the whole thickness of the bone or inner or outer table only about 70% skull fractures are linear* Comminuted fracture - There are two or more intersecting lines of fracture which divide the bone into three or more fragments, and blows from weapon with a large striking surface eg heavy iron bar* Depressed fracture - "fractures a la signature" (signature fracture) as their pattern often resembles the weapon or agent which caused itLocalized depressed fractures are caused by blows from heavy weapon with a small striking surface** stone, stick, axe, chapper, hammer etc.Gutter fractures - They are formed when part of the thickness of the bone is removed so as to form a gutter eg oblique bullet wounds. They are usually accompanied by irregular, depressedfracture of the inner table of the skull* Hinge fracture of base of skull is also termed as a 'Motor cycylist's fracture' *** (247-Reddy 28th)Crescent fracture is - fracture of the iliac bone with sacroiliac joint disruption**Jefferson is - is a burst fracture where both the anterior and posterior arches of atlas (C1) are fractured by a vertical force acting through the skullClay shroveller's fracture - fracture of spinous process of T1 vertebra caused by violent muscular actionHangman fracture - fracture of C2 vertebra seen injudicial hanging due to extensionBox or Bursting fracture - is an extensive fracture running parallel to the two points of contect separating the two hemisphere. It is frequently caused by being run over by heavy vehicleRing fracture - any fracture round the foramen magnum it result fromI. fall from a height on feet or buttockII. sudden violent turn of the head on the spineIII. severe blow on vertex which drives the skull down wards on the vertebral columnIV. heavy blow directed underneath the occiput or chin | Forensic Medicine | Injuries | Diastatic fracture is
A. Seperation of the cranial sutures
B. Also known case "Fracture a-la-signature"
C. There are two or more intersecting lines of fracture
D. A linear fracture involving the whole thickness of the bone
| Seperation of the cranial sutures |
994eadd4-a1a7-4f9a-b56d-2832d5ffc54d | Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used for serious fungal infections and leishmaniasis. The fungal infections it is used to treat include aspergillosis, blastomycosis, candidiasis, coccidioidomycosis, and cryptococcosis. For ceain infections it is given with flucytosine Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1078 | Medicine | Infection | Which one of the following is the drug of choice for treating systemic fungal infection ?
A. Griseofolvin
B. Amphotericins
C. Ketoconazole
D. trimoxazole
| Amphotericins |
bac6588c-f023-4176-8cf6-86e2011080a0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycine* Goups, containing a single carbon atom are called one carbon groups. One carbon groups are formed from following amino acids during their metabolism:- Serine, glycine, histidine and tryptophan. One carbon groups formed during metabolism are: methyl (CH3), methylene (CH2), methenyl (C H), formyl (CHO) and formimino (CH=NH)* These one carbon groups are transferred by way of tetrahydrofolate (THF), which is derivative of folic acid. One carbon groups carried by THF are attached either to nitrogen N5 or N10 or to both N5 and N10. Different one corbon derivatives of THF are- N5- methyl THF, N5, N10-methylene THF, N5, N10-methenyl THF, N5- formyl THF and N5-formimino THF. These derivatives are interconvertable. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Which of the following amino acids is involved in one carbon pool?
A. Glycine
B. Proline
C. Threonine
D. Hydroxyproline
| Glycine |
5905f2c6-84d3-454e-84de-4197e78922d3 | The mean number of bacteria in colon exceeds 10^11 bacteria/ gram of faecal matter. Approximately 99.9% of these bacteria are anaerobic in the colon. 300 to 400 different species or types of bacteria can be found. So the ratio of anaerobes to aerobes in the stool is 1000:01. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition. | Microbiology | general microbiology | The ratio of anaerobe to aerobes in stool is
A. 10:01
B. 100:01:00
C. 1000:01:00
D. 10000 : 1
| 1000:01:00 |
ba9920ca-a1f8-4cf8-a118-33ebfa617c8b | Ans. is'a'i.e., SGLT 2 inhibitor(Ref: KDT p.270)Sodium-glucose cotranspo-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor: Dapagliflozin - antidiabetic drugs - action independent of insulin | Pharmacology | null | Antidiabetic drug with insulin independent action is ?
A. SGLT2 inhibitor
B. DPP4 inhibitor
C. Meglitinide analogues
D. GLP1 agonist
| SGLT2 inhibitor |
50119c2f-5cbf-4e69-8b6f-ff999ab83ad0 | Deficiency of Iodine The most obvious consequence of iodine deficiency is goitre but recent studies have indicated that there is a much wider spectrum of disorders, some of them so severe as to be disabling. They include : (a) hypothyroidism (b) retarded physical development and impaired mental function (c) increased rate of spontaneous aboion and stillbih (d) neurological cretinism, including deaf-mutism (e) myxoedematous cretinism, including dwarfism and severe mental retardation. To express this state of affairs more accurately, the term "endemic goitre", is now replaced by the term Iodine Deficiency Disorders (IDD) to refer to all the effects of iodine deficiency on human growth and development which can be prevented by correction of iodine deficiency. According to WHO, IDD is endemic in a community In which prevelence if goitre in a community is more than 5% Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 642 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | As per WHO guidelines, iodine deficiency disorders are endemic in the community when prevalence of goitre in school age children is more than -
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
| 5% |
de0dbd3e-8446-450f-87d1-4707da3c6b38 | Ethanol + NAD - acetaldehyde + NADH + H So there is increase ratio of NADH / NAD due to increase NADH (1) Beat oxidation will not occur (2) Fatty acid synthesis will increase in liver and lead to fatty liver (3) Oxaloacetate + NADH + H - MALATE (4) Pyruvate +NADH + H - MALATE Due to excess NADH, oxaloacetate is unavailable for TCA CYCLE and acetyl COA will increase and forms fats in body Pyruvate and oxaloacetate, the predominant substrates for gluconeogenesis, are made unavailable by alcohol intoxication and that lead to hypoglycemia in body | Biochemistry | DNB 2018 | Fatty liver caused due to excess alcohol consumption is because of the excess ratio of?
A. NAD/NADH
B. NADP/NADPH
C. NADH/NAD
D. NADPH/NADP
| NADH/NAD |
60daf22f-aa2c-4ac9-9574-da5cc4912fc2 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Negatively skewed Relationship among the three measures of central tendency (ie mean, median and mode) in a skewed curve is an oft repeated question.Lets first see what skewed distribution curve is.* An asymmetrical distribution curve can be of two types:Positive skewed distribution curveNegative skewed distribution curvePositive (or right) and negative (or left) skewed curves are recognized by the location of the tail of the curve (not by the location of the hump - a common error)Positive or Right skewed distribution curve * there curves have a relatively large number of low scores and a small no of very high scores the mean lies towards the extreme right of the curve Negative or left skewed distribution curve.there curves have a large number of high scores and a relatively small number of low scores the mean lies towards the extreme left of the curve.Now lets see the measures of central tendency.Modeis the most frequently occurring valueit lies at the peak of the hump.Meanis the arithmetic averageit is greatly influenced by the relatively small number of very high or very low scoresit liestowards the extreme right in a right (Positive) distribution curve andtowards the extreme left in a left (negative) distribution curve.Medianis the middle valueit lies b/w the mean and mode dividing the curve into two equal halves.Relationship b/w the measures of central tendency* In a symmetrical curveMean = Median = Mode* In a Positive (Right) skewed curveMean > Median > Mode* In a Negative (left) skewed curveMean < Median < Mode | Social & Preventive Medicine | Measures of Central Tendency and Distribution | If mean is less than the median, than the data is said to be
A. Positively skewed
B. Negatively skewed
C. Equitable distribution
D. Normal distribution
| Negatively skewed |
19efe0b5-8267-4527-8786-8ad10e5d022b | B i.e. Osmotic stimulation of supraoptic nucleusBody respond to increased plasma osmolality in two ways.(i) By increasing ADH secretion which decrease water excretion by kidney(ii) By stimulating thirst centre which increase water intakeIn both these mechanism osmoreceptors are involved.(iii) Supraoptic nucleus near anterior hypothalamus causes ADH secretion.(iv) Preoptic nucleus is centre for thirst stimulationThe osmotic threshold for thirst is same or slightly (-5%) greater than the threshold for increased ADH secretion.It is still unceain whether the same osmoreceptors mediate both effects That means centre for ADH secretion and thirst stimulation might be same or stimulation of one can lead to both the mechanism. Thus with increase in osmolality 1st thing to occur is ADH secretion followed by thirst stimulation.Aquaporins: are water channelsAq 1, 2, 3 - Present in kidneyAq, 2 - Vasopressine responsive in collecting ductAq 4 - In BrainAq 5 - In salivary gland, lacrimal gland, Respiratory tract.Vasopressin secretion is regulated by osmoreceptors, that are situated outside blood- brain barrier & located in circumventricular organs primarily in OVLT/ supraoptic crestQ | Physiology | null | Drinking can be induced by:
A. Electrical stimulation of the posterior hypothalamus
B. Osmotic stimulation of supraoptic nucleus
C. Lesions in the paraventicular nucleus
D. Neuronal lesion of the preoptic nucleus
| Osmotic stimulation of supraoptic nucleus |
00db71ab-9349-4bbd-bc53-83c27459ee2f | Complications of internal podalic version rupture uterus if done without adequate liquor and in obstructed labour Anaesthetic risks Atonic postpaum haemorrhage due to the use of uterine relaxants like halothane Bih asphyxia and bih trauma (refer pgno:453 Sheila textbook of obstetrics 2 nd edition) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Abnormal labor | The compiication that can occur with internal podalic version for transverse lie:
A. Uterine rupture
B. Uterine atony
C. Cervical laceration
D. Vaginal alceration
| Uterine rupture |
e765dfd4-ca9b-4fdc-a805-6ffa0cd95e7f | Investigations done in pancreatic cancer
USG
CT scan
ERCP
Endoscopic U/S
Angiography
Barium studies - barium meal & hypotonic duodenography
Contrast enhanced CT scan is the inv. of choice. | Surgery | null | Investigation to diagnose carcinoma head of pancrease are/is -a) Hypotonic duodenogramb) X-ray abdomenc) USGd) Endoscopye) C.T. Scan
A. bce
B. acde
C. abcd
D. abde
| acde |
d344d7c0-1f0f-4735-b7a0-8a7ed4d5afc7 | In acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis, immune complexes localize in glomeruli by deposition from the circulation or by formation in situ as bacterial antigens bind circulating antibodies. The renal biopsy shows complement fixation. Complement activation is so extensive that over 90% of patients with postinfectious glomerulonephritis develop hypocomplementemia. Complement and other inflammatory mediators attract and activate neutrophils and monocytes, which stimulate the proliferation of mesangial and endothelial cells, resulting in diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. Typically, the level of serum C3 is depressed during the acute syndrome but returns to normal within 1 to 2 weeks. The other choices involve the coagulation system and are not components of immune complexes.Diagnosis: Postinfectious glomerulonephritis, nephritic syndrome | Pathology | Kidney | A 14-year-old girl presents with a 5-day history of hypertension, oliguria, and hematuria. She was seen 2 weeks earlier for a severe throat infection with group A (b-hemolytic) streptococci. A kidney biopsy displays glomerulonephritis. Immunofluorescence staining for which of the following proteins would provide the strongest evidence that this patient's glomerulonephritis is mediated by immune complexes?
A. Complement
B. Fibrinogen
C. Hageman factor (clotting factor XII)
D. Plasminogen
| Complement |
aa426e65-4223-40ca-a4f1-fe55da76f63c | Ans is 'a' i.e. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis* Granulomatous lung disease refers a broad group of infectious and well as non infections conditions characterized by formation of granulomas.* The spectrum includes :1) Infectiousa) Mycobacteriali) Pulmonary tuberculosisii) Pulmonary non tuberculous mycobacterial infectionb) Fungali) Pulmonary coccidioidomycosisii) Pulmonary cryptococcosisiii) Pulmonary histoplasmosisiv) Pulmonary blastomycosisv) Pulmonary aspergillus infectionsc) Parasitici) Pulmonary dirofilaria infection2) Non infectiousa) Sarcoidosisb) Wegener granulomatosisc) Churg strauss syndromed) Chronic granulomatous disease2e) Hypersensitivity pneumonitisf) Bronchocentric granulomatosisg) Pulmonary manifestations of rheumatoid arthritish) Granulomatosis secondary to substancesi) Pulmonary talc granulomatosisii) Berylliosisiii) Granulomatous pneumonitis associated with begi) Changes secondary to chronic aspiration pneumonitisj) Lymphoproliferativei) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitisii) Lymphomatoid granulomatosisk) Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosisl) Erdheim-chester diseasem) Granulomatous lung disease associated with common variable immunodeficiency | Pathology | Respiration | Granulomatous lung disease is caused by?
A. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
B. Sarcoma
C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
D. Bronchogenic cyst
| Hypersensitivity pneumonitis |
335cc5db-3dea-4b1a-9303-558503aca5d0 | In Fitzgerald-Hallpike test/ bithermal caloric test, patient lies supine with head tilted 30deg forward so that horizontal canal is veical. Ears are irrigated for 40 seconds alternatively with water at 30degC and at 44deg C (70 below & above normal temperature) & observed for appearance of nystagmus till its end point | ENT | null | Bitherinal caloric test tests:
A. Anterior semicircular canal
B. Horizontal semicircular canal
C. Superior semicircular canal
D. Posterior semicircular canal
| Horizontal semicircular canal |
d504fc9b-f9bd-487e-8ab4-da28b85532c8 | Coffee bean sign is seen in sigmoid volvulus. | Radiology | null | Coffee bean sign is seen in –
A. Intus sus c eption
B. Bowel ischaemia
C. Sigmoid volvulus
D. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
| Sigmoid volvulus |
69a58f05-9195-4020-9d42-8c0e0e80a914 | Ans. d. Superior cerebellar artery (Ref BDC 4/e vol-III/202-203)Medulla is supplied by anterior spinal artery, branches of vertebral artery and posterior inferior cerebellar artery (but not the Superior cerebellar artery).Blood supply of Medulla Oblongata1. Anterior spinal arteryQ:The anterior spinal artery supplies the whole medial part of the medulla oblongata.A blockage (such as in a stroke) will injure the pyramidal tract, medial lemniscus, and the hypoglossal nucleus.This causes a syndrome called medial medullary syndrome.2. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery' (PICA)g:The posterior inferior cerebellar artery', a major branch of the vertebral artery, supplies the posterolateral part of the medulla, where the main sensory tracts run and synapse.3. Direct branches of the vertebral artery0:The vertebral artery supplies an area between the other two main arteries, including the nucleus solitarius and other sensory nuclei and fibersLateral medullary syndrome can be caused by occlusion of either the PICA or the vertebral arteries. | Anatomy | Meninges & Blood Vessels of the Brain | Which of the following artery does not supply medulla?
A. Anterior spinal artery
B. Vertebral artery
C. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
D. Superior cerebellar artery
| Superior cerebellar artery |
4a22e122-612c-4577-8942-4a7d69d52c72 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Superior constrictor o Tonsillar bed is formed by the following:1. Pharyngobasilar fascia3. Buccopharyngeal fascia5. Glossopharyngeal nerve2. Superior constrictor muscle4. Styloglossus muscle | ENT | Pharynx | Bed of tonsil is formed by -
A. Superior constrictor
B. Middle constrictor
C. Inferior constrictor
D. Platysma
| Superior constrictor |
ce00ba2b-5abf-460d-9182-a8d345521cc3 | Under the NLEP, mass surveys are carried out by house to house surveys if prevalence of leprosy is>10/1000. In mass surveys, not less than 95% of the population should be covered. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 295. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Under the National Leprosy Elimination Programme, mass survey for leprosy is done if prevalence of leprosy is more than:
A. 1/1000
B. 5/1000
C. 10/1000
D. 20/1000
| 10/1000 |
5a70499c-c2ae-4eb6-bae1-59be3e07df7d | A. i.e. Splenic vein Inferior mesenteric vein begins as superior rectal vein & drains into splenic veinQ behind the body of pancreas. Inferior mesenteric vein receives superior rectal, sigmoid & left colic veins. | Anatomy | null | Inferior mesenteric vein drains into vein :
A. Splenic
B. Hepatic
C. Poal
D. Inf. vena cava
| Splenic |
10585724-67a9-405e-a3ee-278f6367c41c | (A) # 'a' wave of JVP: Due to right atrial contraction Synchronous with carotid artery pulse> Absent 'a' wave: Atrial fibrillation> Diminished 'a' wave: Tachycardia; Prolonged PR interval> 'a' Wave Fused with 'c' Wave: Supra ventricular tachycardia> Large 'a' Waves: Pulmonary hypertension Pulmonary stenosis; Tricuspid stenosis Tricuspid atresia; AV dissociation> Cannon Waves (Giant 'a' Waves): Complete heart block when right atrium occasionally contracts against closed tricuspid valve Ventricular tachycardia; Ectopic beats | Medicine | Miscellaneous | 'a' wave is absent in
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Heart block
C. Tricuspid regurgitation
D. Pericardial effusion
| Atrial fibrillation |
955df187-bde0-4d1e-942f-bbdad35cc0e2 | Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk of infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient. | Medicine | null | Which action by a nursing assistant (NA) when caring for a patient who is pancytopenic indicates a need for the nurse to intervene?
A. The NA assists the patient to use dental floss after eating.
B. The NA makes an oral rinse using 1 teaspoon of salt in a liter of water.
C. The NA adds baking soda to the patient’s saline oral rinses.
D. The NA puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient’s toothbrush.
| The NA assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. |
d3005b12-49be-47d2-b8ba-1df1a2cd5d6b | In this technique, proteins are identified Proteins are isolated from the tissue and electrophoresis is done Separated protein are then transferred on to nitrocellulose membrane After fixation, it is probed with radioactive antibody and autoradiographedRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 634 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Western Blot detects
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Protein
D. mRNA
| Protein |
d2765406-4b27-43ee-8cda-16771e3145d6 | FRAMINGHAM HEART STUDY:
Is a classical example of cohort study
Initiated in 1948 by US Public Health Service at Framingham, a town in Massachusetts, USA
Aim: To study the relationship of risk factors (serum cholesterol, blood pressure, weight,smoking) to the subsequent development of cardiovascular diseases. | Dental | null | Framingham Heart Study is an example of :
A. Case control study
B. Cohort study
C. Cross-sectional study
D. Interventional study
| Cohort study |
462857f3-87d2-4104-acfa-1d8a6b586ed0 | 250 ml of NS contains 200 mg x 2 = 400 mg vaso-pressure1 ml NS contains = 1.6 mg vaso-pressureVaso-pressure staed 10 micro/kg/min or 80 x 10 micro g/min = 800 micro g/min or 0.8 mg /minVaso-pressure staed 0.8 mg/ min 0r 0.5 ml/ min (1 ml NS contains = 1.6 mg vaso-pressure) or 8 drops/ min (1 ml = 16 drops) | Pharmacology | All India exam | A 80 kg patient is brought in causality. Patient is in shock. Vaso-pressure is to be staed micro/kg/min. Vial has 200 mg in 5 ml, 2 ls diluted in 250 ml NS. 16 drops is equal to 1 ml. Calculate drops per minute required
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
| 8 |
afb6c730-0158-4e01-b450-e1b4238e9998 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., oc-ketoacid decarboxylase o Maple syrup urine disease is due to deficiency of a-ketoacid dehydrogenase (also called a-ketoacid decarboxylase).Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) or branched chain ketoaciduriao It is an inborn error of metabolism of branched chain amino acids valine, leucine and isoleucine,o It is due to deficiency of enzyme that catalyzes the second reaction in these amino acids metabolism i.e. branched chain-a keto acid dehydrogenase which catalyses decarboxylationQ of branched chain amino acidsQ,o As a result, the branched chain amino acids, leucineQ, isoleucineQ and valineQ and their a-keto acids accumulate in blood, urine and CSF.o There is characteristic maple svrup odor to the urine. | Biochemistry | Amino Acid Metabolic Disorder | Maple syrup urine disease is due to -
A. a-ketoacid decarboxylase
B. Transaminase
C. Isomerase
D. Mutase
| a-ketoacid decarboxylase |
ce6d211e-6539-477c-bc0a-79b401a6d520 | - Alibe Bazin syndrome is the other name given for condition MYCOSIS FUNGOIDES. - MYCOSIS FUNGOIDES is the cancer arising from T-Cells - It is associated with cutaneous T-Cell lymphoma - Cutaneous T-Cell lymphoma, the tumor cells has high chances of skin infiltration called as EPIDERMOTROPISM & can also be present in the blood. - Findings of EPIDERMOTROPISM a PAUTRIERS MICROABSCESS - HALLMARK FEATURE of tumor cells a CEREBRIFORM NUCLEI. Tx- Steroids, UV Radiation, Vorinostat- Histone Deacetylase inhibitor. | Pathology | Neoplasm of Mature B & T Cells | In Alibe Bazin syndrome, origin of lymphoma is from:-
A. Eosinophil
B. B lymphocyte
C. Monocyte
D. T lymphocyte
| T lymphocyte |
2a74d954-614e-46ec-ab39-66382d5925b3 | Centrosome plays a critical role in mitotic spindle formation. Gamma-Tubulin is a constituent of Microtubules, which are necessary for the formation and function of the mitotic spindle. Microtubules an integral component of the cellular cytoskeleton consists of cytoplasmic tubes 25 nm in diameter. These are cylinders of 13 longitudinally arranged protofilaments, each consisting of dimers of a-tubulin and b-tubulin. Cytoplasmic microtubules are composed of tubulin (55 kD) and several accessory proteins called microtubular associated proteins (300 kD and 60 kD). They are also involved in the intracellular movement of endocytic and exocytic vesicles and form the major structural components of cilia and flagella. They are a major component of axons and dendrites, in which they maintain structure and paicipate in the axoplasmic flow of material along these neuronal processes. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th Edition, Page 577 ; Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 235, 238 | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following plays a central role in the mitotic spindle formation in cellular division?
A. Ubiquitin
B. Gamma-Tubulin
C. Laminin
D. Keratin
| Gamma-Tubulin |
2264cd73-7c78-426a-8f03-723606171119 | Anencephaly can be detected as early as 10 weeks of pregnancy and the diagnosis is 100% accurate. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which among the following is the earliest to be detected by an antenatal USG?
A. Anencephaly
B. Down's syndrome
C. Gender
D. Cleft palate
| Anencephaly |
d2fcbf6a-746e-4b19-82b0-fd4053a407f8 | Ref: Harrison 20th edition, P 1970Farmers lung is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis which is caused by thermophilic actinomycetes. The same organism grows on sugarcane dust and is the antigen leading to Bagassosis.DiseaseAntigenSourceFarming/Food ProcessingFarmer's lungThermophilic Actinomycetes (e.g., Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula); fungusGrain, moldy hay, silage SugarcaneBagassosisThermophilic actinomycetes | Pathology | Respiration | Which of the following is a causative agent of Farmer's Lung?
A. Thermophilic Actinomycetes
B. Aspergillus Fumigatus
C. Actinobacter
D. Aspergillus Flavus
| Thermophilic Actinomycetes |
4f918b9c-7635-499d-887e-68778d5c188f | Type II Chiari malformation is characterized by progressive hydrocephalus with a myelomeningocele. | Surgery | Cerebrovascular Diseases | Meningomyelocele patient after being operated developed hydrocephalus due to:
A. Arnold Chiari malformation
B. Injury to absorptive surface
C. Central canal injury
D. Arachnoidal block
| Arnold Chiari malformation |
133bd8a9-0cd8-4ca3-802c-4b19c7c40e87 | SUMP SYNDROME Paiculate matter, stones and food debris accumulate and stagnate in the distal, "blind" end of the common duct SUMP syndrome occurs after choledochoduodenostomy Occasional cause of recurrent cholangitis that can result in anastomotic stricture Management Endoscopic management, consisting of sphincterectomy with or without balloon dilation of the anastomosis End - to-side hepatic jejunostomy, Roux-en-Y, to prevent persistent regurgitation of intestinal contents and to remove the "sump" permenantly, is preferred surgical procedure Ref: Blumga 5th edition Pgno :632 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Sump syndrome occurs most commonly after
A. Cholecystojejunostomy
B. Choledochoduodenostomy
C. Mirriz's syndrome
D. Choledochojejunostomy
| Choledochoduodenostomy |
a7c5ad8e-76ea-44c0-9d13-7fe2b1268ef7 | Oestrogen beta receptors are found in blood vessels Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:636,637,638 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Estrogen beta receptors are found on
A. Uterus
B. Blood vessels
C. Ovary
D. Vagina
| Blood vessels |
1927ee0d-7e45-4415-bb3f-58b46c0189d4 | Answer is B (Troponin T/I) Cardiac specific Troponins (Troponin T and Troponin I) are the biochemical markers of choice for detection of Acute MI in both healthy individuals as well as atheletes. 'The measurement of cTnT and cTnl (cardiac specific Troponin T & I) is of considerable diagnostic usefulness and they are now the preferred biochemical markers for MI' CK-MB isoenzvme is not a sensitive marker for AM I in Athletes The MB isoenzyme of CK has the advantage over total CK that it is not present in significant concentration in extracardiac tissue and therefore is considerably more specific. CK-MB rises within 4-8 hr after Acute MI and elevated CK-MB is accepted as a sensitive marker for diagnosis of Acute Myocardial Infarction in healthy individuals. Individuals who train for long distance races (Athletes like marathan runners) however have been observed to have very high resting concentration of CK-MB in skeletal muscles. This may be owing to an adaptation by the athelete to produce a higher relative content of CKMB within skeletal muscles themselves. Studies of CK-MB levels in trained marathan runners have reveaked that total CK and percentage of MB isoenzyme is asymptomatic runners have been comparable to levels of CK and CKMB in patients with myocardial Infarction. Because of nonspecificity of CKMB fraction in runners (atheles) the measurement of this isoenzyme is of little value in making an early diagnosis of myocardial injury in athelets. A measurement of troponin I is much better because it is specific for cardiac injury' | Medicine | null | Which of the following is the preferred marker for detecting Acute STEM I in Atheletes:
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin T/I
C. C-Reactive Protein
D. LDH
| Troponin T/I |
0cbbd32f-213b-47ee-a97b-3a29ecea28cd | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mammography Mammography is most sensitive and specific in detecting small tumors that are sometimes missed on palpation. Screening Test (s) Disease screened Papanicolaou (Pap) smear test Cervical cancer Breast self examination (BSE) Breast cancer Mammography Breast cancer Bimanual oral examination Oral cancer ELISA, RAPID, SIMPLE HIV (National AIDS Control Programme) Urine for Sugar, Random blood sugar Diabetes mellitus AFP (alpha-feto-protein) Developmental anomalies in fetus Digital rectal examination (DRE) Prostate cancer Prostate specific antigen (PSA) Prostate cancer Fecal occult blood test Colorectal cancer | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which one of the following is the most sensitive and specific screening test to detect breast cancer?
A. Regular X-ray
B. Self breast examination
C. Mammography
D. Regular biopsy
| Mammography |
76f1e833-1c96-4821-9b2c-25b41d3b1142 | The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s narayan reddy ; 28th edition ;pg.no 131 A di collar is seen in firearm entry wound ,it is seen as narrow ring of skin ,lining the defect & is sharply outlined . This results from the removal of substances from the bullet as it passes through the skin ,i.e bullet lubrication ,gun oil from the interior of the barrel ,lead from the surface of bullet ,barrel debris etc . | Forensic Medicine | Mechanical injuries | Di collar or grease collar is seen in -
A. Punctured wound by sharp weapon
B. Lacerated wound
C. Firearm entry wound
D. Stab wound
| Firearm entry wound |
b32a3a32-d5ce-4645-a7ba-1d1be5f941c3 | Transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA) is a type of RNA molecule that helps decode a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence into a protein. tRNAs function at specific sites in the ribosome during translation, which is a process that synthesizes a protein from a mRNA molecule. Proteins are built from smaller units called amino acids, which are specified by three-nucleotide mRNA sequences called codons. Each codon represents a paicular amino acid, and each codon is recognized by a specific tRNA. The tRNA molecule has a distinctive folded structure with three hairpin loops that form the shape of a three-leafed clover. One of these hairpin loops contains a sequence called the anticodon, which can recognize and decode a mRNA codon. Each tRNA has its corresponding amino acid attached to its end. When a tRNA recognizes and binds to its corresponding codon in the ribosome, the tRNA transfers the appropriate amino acid to the end of the growing amino acid chain. Then the tRNAs and ribosome continue to decode the mRNA molecule until the entire sequence is translated into a protein.Ref:<a href=" | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Modified nucleotide is seen in
A. tRNA
B. rRNA
C. hnRNA
D. mRNA
| tRNA |
96eb737b-3048-4e80-a94f-9dc5ac7ee3dc | The amount of pressure on the muscles before the contraction starts is the preload. In regards to heart, preload is the amount of pressure on the ventricles at the end of diastole. At the end of diastole, isovolumetric contraction begins. | Physiology | null | Preload leads to -
A. Isovolumetric relaxation
B. Isovolumetric contraction
C. Peripheral resistance
D. Parasympathetic nervous system activation
| Isovolumetric contraction |
21eb2fed-e0af-46bf-95ed-71de73a8bb60 | Ans. (b) 4 day after fertilisationRef: Langman's embryology 10/hed/p 38, Longman's medical embryology 12th ed/ 37-40 | Anatomy | Fertilization and Development of Embryo | Morula reaches uterus at?
A. 3 day after fertilisation
B. 4 day after fertilisation
C. 5 day after fertilisation
D. 6 days after fertilization
| 4 day after fertilisation |
ce5998b4-15fa-4e4c-b319-9b531044e2f9 | Heme is conveed to bilirubin by the macrophages of reticuloendothelial system. (Mainly in the spleen, but also in the liver and bone marrow). The tissue macrophage system includes the following phagocytic cells: * In bone marrow - lining of blood sinuses (littoral cells) * In liver - intervals along vascular capillaries (Kupffer cells) * In spleen - in the pulp * In lymph nodes - line the lymphatic paths The destruction of RBCs occur mostly in the capillaries of spleen as they have very thin lumen. Because of this, spleen is called the graveyard of RBCs. | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Heme is conveed to bilirubin mainly in
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow
| Spleen |
232b50ab-3c7c-4512-9002-9f3088836876 | The above shown image of barium study shows"Coiled spring appearance", which is characterstic of Intussusception. INTUSSUSCEPTION It is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction. It usually presents with nausea, vomiting,pain abdomen with blood in stools. Palpable abdominal mass may be found on physical examination. On Barium: Figure: Coiled spring appearance on Barium study in Intussusception. | Radiology | NEET Jan 2020 | A patient presenting with abdominal pain, blood in stools and a palpable mass on examination. A Barium Study was performed, probable diagnosis is?
A. Meckel's Diveiculum
B. Intussusception
C. Volvulus
D. Diveiculitis
| Intussusception |
c4e6e2c7-80f6-4820-b959-f989fa14ad87 | (D) Surgical exploration # Necrotizing fasciitis is a rapidly progressing bacterial infection of the soft tissue that destroys the subcutaneous fat and fascia. In most cases, the deep fascia and the muscle are spared from destruction by the infection, but myonecrosis can occur due to a compartment syndrome.> Many different bacteria can cause destruction of the soft tissue in a "flesh-eating" manner.> Proper diagnosis is critical in the treatment of necrotizing fasciitis, and in many cases, it is the major factor between life & death> One major clue that a soft-tissue infection is in fact necrotizing fasciitis is the failure of the infection to respond to antibiotic therapy within 24 to 48 hours.> Plain radiographs showing evidence of gas in the soft tissue is another key indicator, along with elevated muscle compartment pressure.> 5 A positive frozen-section biopsy specimen will also aid in proper diagnosis.> Once the diagnosis of necrotizing fasciitis is made, immediate debridement of necrotic tissue is called for. It is very common for a patient to undergo more than one debridement to make sure all of the necrotic tissue has been removed.> At the same time, aggressive antibiotic therapy with clindamycin should be started.> Wound should be examined daily, and the decision of whether or not to perform further debridement should be made> Amputation of an entire limb is sometimes performed, but this is only done as a life-saving measure.> Surgical debridement of the necrotic tissue is an essential part of the treatment of a necrotizing soft-tissue infection | Surgery | Miscellaneous | A patient Came with Necrotising cellulitis after a hug bite on leg. The ideal initial management is
A. MRI of leg
B. CT of leg
C. C-reactive protein estimation
D. Surgical exploration
| Surgical exploration |
73eb0d75-e6cb-49eb-b00e-73f9a2c85cbb | Ans. is 'b' i.e., One week of life Physiological jaundice* Most neonates develop visible jaundice due to elevation of unconjugated bilirubin concentration during their first week. This common condition is called physiological jaundice.* This pattern of hyperbilirubinemia has been classified into two functionally distinct periods -1. Phase one# Last for 5 days in term infant with peak bilirubin levels to 12 mg/dl.# Last for 7 days in preterm infant with peak bilirubin levels to 15 mg/dl.2. Phase two# There is decline to about 2 mg/dl, which lasts for 2 weeks after which adult values are attained.Criteria for physiological jaundicei) Clinical jaundice appears after 24 hours of age.ii) Total bilirubin rises by less than 5mg/dl per day (no sudden rise).iii) Peak bilirubin occurs at 3-5 days of age, with a total bilirubin of no more than 15 mg/dliv) Clinical jaundice is resolved by 1 weeks in term infants and 2 weeks in preterm infants. | Pediatrics | New Born Infants | At what age is physiological jaundice seen?
A. At birth
B. One week of life
C. One month of age
D. One year of age
| One week of life |
f74b53f1-ba8d-4d62-9373-96243e716da9 | Tunning of primary cleft lip and palate procedures (after Delaire) Cleft lip alone Cleft palate alone Clef lip and palate Unilateral(One side) : One operation at 5-6 months Bilateral (both sides) : One operation at 4-5 months Soft palate only : One operation at 6 months Soft and hard palatr : Two operations Soft palate at 6 months Hard palatr at 15-18 months Unilateral : Two operations Cleft lip and soft palate at 5-6 months Hard palate and gun pad with or without lip revision at 15-18 months Bilateral : Two operations Cleft lip and soft palate at 4-5 months Hard palate and gum pad with or without lip revision at 15-18 months Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :692 | Surgery | Head and neck | With respect to surgical repair of cleft palate, the soft palate is first repaired, ideal tune for which is
A. 12 months
B. 9 months
C. 6 months
D. 3 months
| 6 months |
aabde866-091d-4be1-9b84-bb86561e9537 | HMG CoA
Acetoacetyl-CoA is the starting material for ketogenesis.
However, it is HMG-CoA from which acetoacetate arises. | Biochemistry | null | The immediate precursor in the formation of acetoacetate from acetyl CoA in the liver is
A. Mevalonate
B. HMG CoA
C. Acetoacetyl CoA
D. 3-Hydroxybutyryl
| HMG CoA |
e767ab2d-570e-4df0-ab5b-e2e9d3c7547d | SSRI * IMPOANCE Most widely prescribed antidepressant * MECHANISM Specifically acts on serotonin transpoers and increases serotonin in synapse. DRUGS FLUOXETINE FLUVOXAMINE DAPOXETINE CITALOPRAM ESCITALOPRAM ESCITALOPRAM SERALINE PAROXETINE USE FLUOXETINE=============CHILDHOOD DEPRESSION FLUVOXAMINE===========OCD DAPOXETINE==============PME ESCITALOPRAM===========HEA SAFE, PATHOLOGICAL EMOTIONS PAROXETINE=========SEDATING, PANIC DISORDER IMPULSE CONTROL DISORDERS PME PARAPHILIA Ref. kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 955 | Anatomy | Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry | which of the following is antidepressent
A. amitriptilline
B. trazadone
C. nefazodone
D. citalopram
| citalopram |
2883e80e-c6b5-45f7-bd10-ad751443f2f5 | koebners phenomenon is seen in lichen planus,psoriasis, lichen nitidus,vitiligo IADVL textbook of dermatology, page 107 | Dental | Papulosquamous disorders | In which of the following, Koebner phenomenon is NOT seen -
A. Lichen planus
B. psoriasis
C. lichen nitidus
D. Lichen simplex chronicus
| Lichen simplex chronicus |
40209a49-d5e6-448e-94d0-499794199fd5 | Type name Enzyme Deficiency Clinical Features V Myophosphorylase deficiency, McArdle's syndrome Muscle phosphorylase Poor exercise tolerance Muscle glycogen abnormally high (2.5%-4%) Blood lactate very low after exercise Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Table: 18-2; Page no: 179 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Enzyme deficiency in McArdle's syndrome?
A. Acid maltase
B. Muscle phosphorylase
C. Liver debranching enzyme
D. Branching enzyme
| Muscle phosphorylase |
90e71b30-fc23-426e-a844-d3cb0020d506 | Graves disease is a type II hypersensitivity reaction. This type of hypersensitivity reaction is initiated by IgG antibodies that react either with the cell surface or tissue antigen. Most patients possess antibodies to thyroglobulin. The immunological basis is suppoed by idethe notification of the long-acting thyroid stimulator which is an IgG antibody to thyroid membrane antigen. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 180,162 <\p> | Microbiology | Immunology | Graves disease is an example of which type of Immunologic response?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
| Type II |
380dd793-6b97-4bbf-8f97-d5d6864aadd2 | ANSWER: (C) 10-12 kgsREF: dutta 6th ed p. 51weight gain:Total weight gain during pregnancy is llkgs, I.e Ikgs in 1st trimester, 5kgs in 2nd, 5kgs in 3rd.Rapid weight gain, >0.5 kgs/week or 2 kgs/month is an early manifestation of preeclampsia Stationary or falling wTeight suggests IUGR or IUD | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Care of the Pregnant Woman | Weight gain in normal pregnancy is?
A. 1 to 3 kg
B. 5 to 7 kg
C. 10 to 12 kg
D. 12 to 15 kg
| 10 to 12 kg |
97ad7a5b-1504-49e4-a8d5-95e3dfa7c025 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Crude Bih Rate & Female Literacy Rate | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In reproductive and child health programme, districts are divided on the basis of-
A. Crude bih rate & infant moality rate
B. Crude bih rate & female literacy rate
C. Crude death rate & crude bih rate
D. Couple protection rate & infant moality rate
| Crude bih rate & female literacy rate |
8cf397e2-c55e-4e6a-aca7-daab5a11690c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nucleus pulposuso After development of verteral bodies, the notochord degenerates and disappears but persists as the nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disc.o Notochord is a bud like structure formed by epiblast cells extending from cranial end of primitive streak to caudal end of prochordal plate, in between the ectoderm and endoderm. Significances of notochord includes followingIt defines the axis of embryo.It functions as the primary inductor, inducing the overlying ectoderm to develop into neural plate (the primordiwn of CNS).iii) It serves as the basis for development of axial skeleton. The notochord is an intricate structure around which vertebral column is formed and indicates future site of vertebral bodies. However, the notochord does not give rise to vertebral column, after development of vertebral bodies, the notochord degenerates and disappears, but parts of it persist as the nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disc. | Anatomy | Fertilization and Development of Embryo | Remnant of notochord is-
A. Annulus fibrosus
B. Nucleus pulposus
C. Ligament flavum
D. Intertransverse ligament
| Nucleus pulposus |
6cf2a45b-f3bd-415a-b0e7-1cb5dfae1f2e | Ans. B i.e. Gastric carcinoma Krukenberg tumor It is a malignancy in the ovary that metastasized from a primary site, classically the gastrointestinal tract, although it can arise in other tissues such as the breast. Gastric adenocarcinoma, especially at the pylorus, is the most common source. Krukenberg tumors are often (over 80%) found in both ovaries, consistent with its metastatic nature. | Pathology | null | Origin of cancer cells in Krukenberg tumour is from: March 2013
A. Ovarian carcinoma
B. Gastric carcinoma
C. Duodenal carcinoma
D. Pancreatic carcinoma
| Gastric carcinoma |
7b6eca79-3faf-4a7a-afa3-807a83296c25 | Ans A (Ipsilateral chest with bulge)Patients with small pneumothorax findings are:Decreased breath soundsDecreased vocal fremitusResonant percussion noteLarger pneumothrax:Tachypnea and distressBulge of affected hemithoraxImmobile during respirationVery large pneumothorax under tension:Severe respiratory distress DiaphoresisCyanosis HypotensionTraumatic pneumothorax:Subcutaneous emphysema | Medicine | Respiratory | A man presented with right sided moderate size pneumothorax without tension, Physical finding present as
A. Ipsilateral chest with bulge
B. Bronchial breathing
C. Mediastinal crunch
D. Subcutaneous crepitus
| Ipsilateral chest with bulge |
e1be877f-a449-47fe-8ef0-5c898ac2b247 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lateral Sinus thrombophlebitisLATERAL SINUS THRQMBOPHLEBIT1S tSIGMQID SINUS THROMBOSIS)o Lateral or sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis arises from inflammation in the adjacent mastoid. It may occur as a complication of: -Acute coalescent mastoiditisCSOM and cholesteatomaClinical featureso Hectic Picket-Fence type of fever with rigor.o Headache, Progressive anemia and emaciation.o Griesinger's sign : - odema over the posterior part of mastoid due to thrombosis of mastoid emissary veins,o Papiiloedemao Tobey-Ayer testCompression of vein on the thrombosed side produces no effect while compression of vein on healthy side produces rapid rise in CSF pressure which will be equal to bilateral compression of jugular veins,o Crowe-Beck test:- Pressure on jugular vein of healthy side produces engorgement of retinal veins. Pressure on affected side does not produce such change,o Tenderness along jugular veinImaging studieso Contrast-enhanced CT scan can show sinus thrombosis by typical delta-sign. It is a triangular area with rim enhancement, and central low- density area is seen in posterior cranial fossa on axial cuts,o Delta-sign may also be seen on contrast enhanced MRI. | ENT | CSOM and its Complications | Presence of delta sign on contrast enhanced CT SCAN suggests presence of -
A. Lateral Sinus thrombophlebitis
B. Cholesteatoma
C. Cerebellar abscess
D. Mastoiditis
| Lateral Sinus thrombophlebitis |
5cb2b24b-f83b-4452-9bae-2e3433b30437 | An abnormal protein that precipitates with the somatic O antigen of streptococcus pneumoniae appears in the acute phase sera of pneumonia but disappear during convalescence. It is known as C-reactive protein. it is not an antibody produced as a result of pneumococcal infection. It is an acute phase substance and it'itsoduction is stimulated by a bacterial infection, inflammation an, malignancy Reference:Ananthanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 223 <\p> | Microbiology | Immunology | C-reactive protein is -
A. An antibody produced as a result of peumococcal infection
B. Derived from pneumoconiosis
C. Detective by precipitation recation
D. Increased in peumococcal in fection
| Increased in peumococcal in fection |
718910cd-24c0-4928-8a14-281c23c657a7 | Ans. A. Primarya. Esophageal peristalsis can be initiated by deglutition ("primary" peristalsis) or local distention ("secondary" peristalsis).b. Deglutition is one of the most complex reflex neural activities.c. The initial phase is voluntary when food is chewed, mixed with saliva and formed into a bolus before being pushed to the posterior pharynx by the tongue. Receptors in the posterior pharynx are then activated to initiate the involuntary phase of deglutition, which involves carefully sequenced contraction of numerous head and neck muscles.d. Secondary peristalsis refers to peristalsis activated by esophageal distention.e. This can occur physiologically by food left behind after the primary peristaltic wave has passed, or by refluxed contents from the stomach.f. Unlike primary peristalsis, secondary peristalsis is not accompanied by deglutition with associated pharyngeal and upper esophageal sphincter motor function. | Physiology | G.I.T. | Deglutition peristalsis of oesophagus:
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
| Primary |
39b2a812-cfbc-41b4-ade6-5434966f206e | Phosphatase test is widely used yo check the efficiency of pasteurizationREF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-606. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Efficiency of pasteurization can be best assessed by?
A. Oxidase test
B. Phosphatase test
C. Catalase test
D. Indole test
| Phosphatase test |
6c423d0c-71eb-41b2-8e9f-5c47fde3408f | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Anti TPO antibodyHypothyroidism in pregnancyThe clinical association of hypothyroidism in pregnancy may be due to :First time diagnosis in pregnancyHypothyroid women who either discontinue thyroid therapy or who need larger doses in pregnancyHypehyroid women on excessive amounts of antithyroid drugsWomen with lithium or amiodarone therapyPrimary hypothyroidism met in pregnancy is mostly related to thyroid autoimmunity (Hashimoto thyroiditis).Serum thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPO-Ab) or antimicrosomal antibodies are elevated in autoimmune thyroiditis. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Most common cause of hypothyroidism in pregnancy is ?
A. Nutritional
B. Irradiation
C. Anti thyroid drugs ie iatrogenic
D. Anti TPO antibody
| Anti TPO antibody |
dc531381-d572-4dc8-b7f7-c035ca54115c | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Urethral injury Blood at urethral meatus and urine retention are suggestive of urethral injury. | Surgery | null | A patient was brought to the hospital with a history of A eight hours back. A few drops of blood is noted at the external urethral meatus. He has not passed urine and his bladder is palpable per abdomen. The probable diagnosis is :
A. Urethral injury
B. Rupture bladder
C. Urethral injury with extravasation of urine in the retroperitoneum
D. Anuria due to hypovolemia
| Urethral injury |
2750f818-1a35-4a9b-8873-f056186bc226 | CORRELATION COEFFICIENT (R):
Measures the degree or strength of relationship in a correlation (relationship between 2 quantitative or continuous variables).
Correlation coefficient (r) lies between: –1 to +1 (–1 < r < +1)
Strength of correlation:
Weak positive correlation: 0 < r < 0.3
Moderate positive correlation: 0.4 < r < 0.6
Strong positive correlation: r > 0.7 | Dental | null | Strong correlation is signified by a correlation coefficient of:
A. Zero
B. 1
C. Less than 1
D. More than 1
| 1 |
2f0647c1-7f24-4fad-af78-925c5d0f0e4d | Dual Energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) is the gold standard and investigation of choice for diagnosis of osteoporosis. | Radiology | null | The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is –
A. Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
B. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry
C. Ultrasound
D. Quantitative computed tomography
| Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry |
f5c799fe-c8a5-4fc7-9709-64aea09ba8ef | Cutis anserina (goose skin) is seen in drowning, especially on exposure to cold water.
It is not a diagnostic sign of drowning and this sign is rarely seen in India, water being usually warm. | Forensic Medicine | null | Goose skin or cutis anserina seen in -
A. Drowning
B. Lightening
C. Strangulation
D. Fire arm injury
| Drowning |
6cd09c09-2c79-4154-acd4-eb1d61d359e1 | Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis Associated with IV drug abuse and HIV nephropathy. Aggressive form of nephrotic syndrome Poor prognosis Non responsive to steroid therapy (called as 'collapsing variant'). | Pathology | Nephrotic Syndrome | An IV drug abuser develops an aggressive form of nephrotic syndrome that does not respond to steroids. A renal biopsy is performed. Which of the following histological diagnoses will most likely be made from the biopsy tissue?
A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Membranous glomerulonephritis
D. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
| Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis |
227a228f-4e6d-49c8-bb59-a7c24add78c7 | adenosine is the drug of choice for PSVT. Immediate electrical cardioversion is indicated if the arrhythmia is associated with hemodynamic collapse. Adenosine is the preferred drug in those patients in whom verapamil has failed or may cause adverse effects, such as those with hea failure or wide-complex tachycardia In most patients, the drug of choice for acute therapy is either adenosine or verapamil. The use of intravenous adenosine or the calcium channel blocker verapamil are considered safe and effective therapies for controlling SVTs Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1465 | Medicine | C.V.S | The current drug of choice in paroxysmal Sypraventricular Tachycardia (PAVT ) is
A. Digoxin
B. Dilantoin
C. Propranolol
D. Adenosine
| Adenosine |
c6a9a7d9-627b-4b59-99e8-98fab12e9f38 | Punched out lesions of skull are seen both in Eosinophilic granuloma and multiple myeloma. However, beveled edges (double contour) is characteristic of eosinophilic granuloma due to uneven destruction of the inner and outer table of the skull.
Punched out lesions of skull → Multiple myeloma
Punched out lesions with beveled edges → Eosinophilic granuloma | Radiology | null | Multiple lytic lesions of skull with beveled edges are seen in –
A. Eosinophilic granuloma
B. Metastases
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Neuroblastoma
| Eosinophilic granuloma |
604d659c-8bd4-41a1-98a1-28e539b87cb7 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hydatid cyst Impoant zoonoses I. Bacterial -4 Anthrax, Brucellosis, Ornithoses, Q-fever, Leptospirosis, TB, Plague, Tularemia, Salmonellosis. 2. Viral --> Cowpox, Monkeypox, Easternequine, encephalitis, Ross river fever, Yellow fever, Japanese encephalitis, Lassa fever, Rabies. 3. Protozoal ---> Leishmaniasis, Toxoplasmosis, Trypanosomiasis, Babesiosis. 4. Helminthic ----> Clonorchiasis, Fasciolopsis, Schistosomiasis, Echinococus (hydatid disease), Taeniasis, Trichinellosis. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is a zoonotic disease ?
A. Hydatid cyst
B. Malaria
C. Filariasis
D. dengue fever
| Hydatid cyst |
fc18a3e6-207a-4bad-9ec1-3b2a6ff28fef | Ans. c (Hepatoma). (Ref. Robbin, Pathology, 7th ed., 273)BENIGN TUMORS# Fibroma,Lipoma,Chondroma# Osteoma,HemangiomaMeningioma# Leiomyoma,Rhabdomyoma,Squamous cell papilloma# Liver cell adenoma,AdenomaPapilloma# CystadenomaBronchial adenomaRenal tubular adenomaEducational Points:# An ectopic rest of normal tissue--choristoma.Q# Aberrant differentiation may produce mass of disorganized but mature specialized cells or tissue indigenous to particular site--Hamartoma.# Hepatoma is malignant tumor (A misnomer). | Pathology | Neoplasia | Which of the following is not a benign tumor?
A. Lipoma
B. Leiomyoma
C. Hepatoma
D. Chondroma
| Hepatoma |
d95ad1e7-f323-493d-92d4-b1f0cc0bcc84 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dactinomycin o Like anthracyclines (doxo and daunorubicin), dactinomycin can also cause radiation recall syndrome and the dose should be adjusted with radiotherapy. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs required a dose adjustment in patient during radiotherapy in order to present radiation toxicity ?
A. Vincristine
B. Dactinomycin
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. 6-Mercaptopurine
| Dactinomycin |
31606a7b-8605-46e8-bc83-b49ec027bcd2 | Quaternary structure defines the polypeptide composition of a protein and, for an oligomeric protein, the spatial relationships between its protomers or subunits. Monomeric proteins consist of a single polypeptide chain. Dimeric proteins contain two polypeptide chains. Homodimers contain two copies of the same polypeptide chain, while in a heterodimer the polypeptides differ. Ref: Harper 28th Ed. Page-35, Harper 27th Ed. Page: 34 | Biochemistry | Structure and function of protein | Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compact structures. Sometimes, these folded structures associate to form homo or hetero-dimers. Which of the following refers to this associated form?
A. Denatured state
B. Molecular aggregation
C. Precipitation
D. Quaternary structure
| Quaternary structure |
b6f0b264-14fe-4360-8e5f-7ee786a3b7c5 | Investing layer lies deep to the platysma and surrounds the neck like a collar. The surgeon has to stitch platysma muscle separately so that skin does not adhere to deeper neck muscles otherwise the skin will get an ugly scar. Ref BDC volume 3;sixth edition pg 81 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Deep injury of neck always involves
A. Platysma
B. Trapezius
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Longus colli
| Platysma |
28f7a6eb-c4c9-4b80-80e2-b0a93ab65941 | Answer is B (Respiratory acidosis) The acid base disorder is respiratory acidosis. There is acidosis (pH : low) Raised pCO2 (acidosis) indicates that the change in CO2 is therefore primary Normal bicarbonate indicates that there is no alteration in the metabolic component The acid base disorder therefore is Respiratory acidosis. | Medicine | null | A female patient after injury comes to casualty. Her ABG shows low pH, pCO2 high, bicarbonate normal. The diagnosis is:
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
| Respiratory acidosis |
51caac51-a6aa-4398-93e1-7945d3f4082c | Ans. is'b'i.e., DesmopressinDesmopressin (intranasal) is the DbC for central DI. | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus
A. Vasopressin
B. Desmopressin
C. Lypressin
D. Presselin
| Desmopressin |
119ed07f-c029-4498-9f57-4e987ae04d1e | Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine. 18ed.Explanation:The dispiriting term end-stage renal disease' should not be used and is replaced by the term stage 5 CKD"The most frequent cause of CKD is diabetic nephropathy. most often secondary to type 2 diabetes melli- tus Ref: HarrisonLeading Categories of Etiologies of CKDDiabetic glomerular disease (MC Cause)GlomerulonephritisHypertensive nephropathyPrimary glomerulopathy with hypertensionVascular and ischemic renal diseaseAutosomal dominant polycystic kidney diseaseOther cystic and tubulointerstitial nephropathy | Medicine | Chronic Kidney Disease and Uremia | Most common cause of End stage renal disease is:
A. Diabetes
B. Hypertension
C. Chronic GN
D. Polycystic Kidney disease
| Diabetes |
8227baea-4cf2-4ec6-8c40-9d83a74fe4bb | Ans. is 'b' ie sulph lene + pyrimethamine Presumptive treatment in Chloroquine resistant areaSingle dose of 25 mg/kg body wt. sulfalene/sulfadoxine and 1.25 mg/kg body wt. Pyrimethamine combination and thereafter tab. Primaquine 0.75 mg/kg body wt. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | Presumptive treatment of malaria in a chloroquine resistant area:
A. Chloroquine + pyrimethamine
B. Sulphalene + pyrimethamine
C. Chloroquine + primaquine
D. Sulphalene 1000 mg
| Sulphalene + pyrimethamine |
f2d6a184-7d89-4e77-9997-48fce5ad56c0 | Among the following options, highest oxygen conc is found in IVC Saturation of Oxygen in fetal structures - Umbilical vein - 80% (PO2 of 30-35 mm Hg ) ( Max. in entire body of fetus ) Inferior vena cava - 70% (PO2 of 26-28 mm Hg) Left ventricle - 65% Right Ventricle - 55-60% Umbilical aery - very low SVC - (PO2 of 12-14 mm Hg) | Pediatrics | NEET Jan 2020 | In a fetus highest oxygen concentration is found in?
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Superior vena cava
C. Left ventricle
D. Ascending aoa
| Inferior vena cava |
27ad1851-a8a1-4720-9d4b-f3f5ba1ad872 | Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)Interleukin-1 (IL-1)Granulocyte-monocyte colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)Monocyte colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)These factors are formed by activated macrophage cells in the inflamed tissues and in smaller quantities by other inflamed tissue cells.Ref: Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 13th edition. Page:462 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | IL-1 is secreted from which cells
A. Mast cells
B. Eosinophils
C. Macrophages
D. Neutrophils
| Macrophages |
d5fdbe7f-b4ac-4c7e-ab00-0f31b040cd50 | Answer is D (Hyperamylasemia) Serum amylase levels do not form any criteria for prognosis in acute pancreatitis. Hyperglycemia, Hypocalcemia and raised LDH levels are poor prognostic factors according to Ranson's criteria. | Medicine | null | Which one is not poor prognostic factor for acute pancreatitis:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Raised LDH level in blood
D. Hyperamylasemia
| Hyperamylasemia |
db2909b2-bfb2-4b98-9f27-30905dfdef98 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., P. jiroveci Culture of fungi Culture media used in mycology are : Sabouraud's glucose agar (most common) Czapek - Dox medium Corn meal agar Culture media are supplemented with chloramphenicol to minimize bacterial contamination and cycloheximide to reduce contamination with saprophitic fungi. Cultures are incubated at 22 - 30degC and 37degC. Rhinosporidium seebri and Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly P. carinii) can not be cultivated in media. Malassezia furfur does not grow on regular sabouraud's medium. It requires complex media to grow. Malassezia furfur does not grow on regular sabouraud's medium. It requires complex media to grow M. furfur is a lipid dependent fungus and 1% emulsified olive oil is added to sabouraud medium for its cultivation Two media are now widely employed for all malassezia species. Dixon medium Modified dixon medium | Microbiology | null | Fungus not isolated in culture ?
A. Cryptococcus
B. Dermatophyte
C. Candida
D. P. jiroveci
| P. jiroveci |
bb7fbaff-f870-41e5-80cd-07817e09eb62 | NALTREXONE is an OPIOID ANTAGONIST given at a dosage of 50-150mg, should not be used in LIVER DYSFUNCTION ACAMPROSATE is an GABA AGONIST given at a dosage of 666MG TDS, should not be used in KIDNEY DYSFUNCTION Ref.Kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no.626 | Anatomy | Substance abuse | 45 year old alcoholic male came for deaddiction treatment. He has alcohol induced hepatitis with other blood parameters within normal limits. The drug that should not be chosen for relapse prevention is
A. Disulfiram
B. chlordiazepoxide
C. Naltrexone
D. Acamprosate
| Naltrexone |
0bc689fa-79aa-4c7c-a0aa-0b40ec013ad4 | Rediced glutathione is the most impoant anti-oxidant mechanism in lens. Ref: Yanoff ch.501; Biochemistry of Lens p.330; Parson 22nd/e p.261&20th/e p.248; Alder's Physiology 10th/e p.130. | Ophthalmology | Lens | Which of the following prevent lens opacity by free radical scavenging?
A. Glutathione
B. Catalase
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin E
| Glutathione |
50c7d69d-65db-4432-8369-a4a456f5980d | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Infectious waste Drum (or field) incinerator and brick incinerator should be used only as a last reso, as it is difficult to burn the waste completely without generating potentially harmful smoke.The option is appropriate only in emergency situations during acute outbreaks of communicable diseases and should be used only for infectious waste. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Brick incinerator is used for ?
A. Waste sharp
B. Discarded medicine
C. Infectious waste
D. Disposable items
| Infectious waste |
a637b1e3-904a-4fa3-a793-77ee43453cee | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma o Mucinous tumors are multiloculated cysts lined by epithelium resembling the endocervix.o The cut section reveals loculi filled with mucinous contents.o If the tumor ruptures, it may lead to formation of pseudomyxoma peritonei and the viscera showing extensive adhesions.o Bilateral tumors are often metastatic from the gastrointestinal tract, mainly mucocele of appendix or primary adenocarcinoma of appendix.o Appendicectomy at the time of primary surgery prevents pseudomyxoma peritonei, as often mucocele of the appendix is known to cause this complication. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Presentation (Carcinoma Ovary) | Pseudomyxoma peritonii is seen in which ovarian cancer?
A. Serous cystadenocarcinoma
B. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
C. Brenner Tumor
D. Fibroma
| Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma |
ae30b7a1-2912-442e-a319-0214e431a264 | Enterostatin, a peptide that selectively reduces fat intake. It is formed in the intestine by the cleavage of secreted pancreatic procolipase, the remaining colipase serving as an obligatory cofactor for pancreatic lipase during fat digestion. After feeding, enterostatin appears in the lymph and circulation. Enterostatin will selectively inhibit fat intake during normal feeding and in experimental paradigms that involve dietary choice. Both peripheral and central sites of action have been proposed. The peripheral mechanism involves an afferent vagal signaling pathway to hypothalamic centers. The central responses are mediated through a pathway that includes both serotonergic and opioidergic components. Chronically, enterostatin reduces fat intake, body weight, and body fat. This response may involve multiple metabolic effects of enterostatin, which include a reduction of insulin secretion, an increase in sympathetic drive to brown adipose tissue, and the stimulation of adrenal coicosteroid secretionReference: Enterostatin-a peptide regulating fat intake; Erlanson-Albesson C, York D; Obes Res.1997 Jul;5(4):360-72 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | The following substance acts as a 'satiety signal' for lipids
A. Apo-A
B. HCL
C. Fastrine
D. Enterostatin
| Enterostatin |
32c49e69-4af0-493c-a585-481f2c777373 | Dried cervical mucus examined microscopically has characteristic patterns dependent on the stage of the ovarian cycle. Mucus crystallization necessary for the production of the fern pattern is dependent on an increased sodium chloride concentration. Cervical mucus is relatively rich in sodium chloride when estrogen, but not progesterone, is being produced. Thus, during post-ovulatory cycle from approximately the 7th to the 18th day of the cycle, a fernlike pattern is seen. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 8. Prenatal Care. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What is the microscopic finding of cervical mucus during post-ovulatory period?
A. Shows pattern on drying
B. Is thick
C. Is thin and cellular
D. Is thin and alkaline
| Shows pattern on drying |
1a44268a-14f5-4c1a-9e2a-dfec9fc4216a | The features of microfilaria of W. bancrofti are: General appearance: Graceful, sweeping curves. Free cephalic space: As long as broad.
Excretory pore: Not prominent:
Caudal end: Uniformly tapering to a delicate point and no terminal nuclei present.
5. Nuclear column: Nuclei discrete; Important points
Microfilaria of W. bancrofti and B. malayi in India display a nocturnal periodicity. Maximum density of Mf in blood is reported between 10 pm and 2 am.
Man is the definitive host and mosquito the intermediate host of Bancroftian and Brugian filariasis.
Third stage larva in mosquito is infective form.
Adult worm may survive for 15 years or more.
Duration of mosquito cycle (extrinsic incubation period) is between 10 and 14 days.
Main vectors in India are: C. quinquefasciatus (C. fatigans) for Bancroftian filariasis and Mansonia mosquitoes for Brugian filariasis.
Prepatent period: It is the time interval between inoculation of infective larvae and the first appearance of detectable Mf.
Clinical incubation period: Time interval from invasion of infective larvae to the development of clinical manifestations. | Unknown | null | Which one of the following is characteristic of microfilaria of W. bancrofti?
A. Cephalic space twice as long as broad
B. Excretory pore prominent
C. Nuclear column smudged
D. Caudal end uniformly tapering to a delicate point, and no terminal nuclei present
| Caudal end uniformly tapering to a delicate point, and no terminal nuclei present |
2d2b4ff8-7f6c-4eed-86ff-cdc42586d0c2 | Ans. a. Gadolinium (Ref: Grainger 5/e p32-51, 1249-1253; Sutton 7/e p419-421; Wolfgang 7/e p1147)Gadolinium is a non-iodine containing contrast."Gadolinium is a lanthanide. Gd-DTPA is classified as an acyclic, ionic gadolinium contrast medium Its paramagnetic property reduces the T1 relaxation time. Gadolinium based agents may cause a toxic reaction known as nephrogenic systemic fibrosis (NSF) in patients with severe kidney problems."Contrast used inCT scanMRIlodinatedQParamagnetic (non-iodinated): GadoliniumQ Contrast AgentsIonic Contrast AgentsNonionic Contrast Agents* Ionic contrast agents ionize in water in 2 ions per molecule* All monomers contain 1 benzene ring with 3 iodine atoms and dimers contain 2 benzene rings with 6 iodine atoms per molecule.* Therefore ionic monomers have 3 iodine atoms per 2 ionic/ osmotic particles in solutionQ and a contrast agent ratio of 3:2 (i.e. 1.5).* And ionic dimers have 6 iodine atoms per 2 ionic /osmotic particles in solution with a contrast agent ratio of 6:2 or 3:1.* Nonionic agents do not ionize so they have only 1 osmotic particle per molecule.* And similarly monomers contain 3 iodine atom and dimers contain 6 iodine atoms per molecule of contrast agent* Therefore contrast agent ratio of non ionic monomers is 3:1 and nonionic dimers are 6:1. High Osmolar Contrast Agents (HOCM)Low Osmolar Contrast Agents (LOCM)* HOCM are all ionic monomersQ* HOCM have osmolality in range of 1500 mosmols/kg water at concentrations of 300 mg lodine/ml.* Osmolality is proportional to the ratio of iodine atoms to the number of particles in solution.* The contrast agents with lower ratio (3:2) are HOCM and they have more particles in solution per iodine atom.* LOCM may be ionic dimers, and nonionic monomers or dimers (i.e. both ionic and nonionic)Q.* LOCM osmolality is less than half of the osmolality of HOCM.* As compared to physiological osmolality of 300 mosmols/kg water, non-ionic dimers are physiologically isotonic in solution at 300 mg lodine/ml.* Lowest osmolality/osmolarity is seen in non-ionic dimer agents, which becomes almost physiologically isotonic or iso-osmolarQ (visipaque 320 is 290 mosmol/kg and isovist 300 is 320 mosmol/kg H2O: 320 and 300 are iodine concentrations).* Agents with higher ratio (3:1 or 6:2 and 6:1) are LOCM.* lohexol (omnipaque) is a nonionic monomer (LOCM with 3:1 ratio)Qlodinated contrast agentslodinated contrast agents have low lipid solubility, low toxicity, low binding affinities for protein, receptor or membranes, low molecular weight and are very hydrophilic.On IV injection due to high capillary permeability they all are distributed rapidly into extravascular, extracellular interstitial space (except in CNS)Q but do not enter blood or tissue cells.Pharmacokinetics of all extracellular MRI contrast agents (all gadolinium except Gd-BOPTA) are similar to iodinated water soluble contrast media. They do not cross the blood brain barrier unless the barrier is disruptedQ. These agents accumulate in tissues with abnormal vascularity (inflammation and malignancy) and in regions where BBB is disrupted.Contrast enhanced CT scans use intravenous injection of iodinated contrast mediumQ contrast enhanced MRI use non iodinated contrast medium containing paramagnetic metal ions gadolinium (Gd3+), Copper (Cu2+) or manganese (Mn2+)Q.Gd is the most powerful (with 7 unpaired electrons) but unfortunately most toxic of these ions and therefore it is necessary to encapsulate it by a chelate such as DTPA (diethylene triamine pentaacetic acid salt) forming Gd-DTPA.Paramagnetic agents are mainly positive enhancers that reduce the T1 and T2 relaxation times, increase tissue signal intensity on T1 weighted images and almost have no effect on T2 weighted MR images. | Radiology | Contrast agents | Which of the following is a non-Iodine containing contrast?
A. Gadolinium
B. Visipaque
C. lopamidol
D. Diatrozoate
| Gadolinium |
dfb4598a-14da-4e1f-97f8-2abd89ff22f0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enalapril Bradykinin and substance P are also substrate (in addition to angiotensin - I) for ACE. By inhibiting ACE, enalapril inhibits degradation of Bradykinin and substance Pin the lung, which are responsible for cough and angioedema. | Pharmacology | null | Cough is an adverse reaction with intake of ?
A. Enalapril
B. Prazocin
C. Nifedipine
D. Thiazide
| Enalapril |
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