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a99768f2-7eb6-4bcd-8f4b-9ee4cc7b1118 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mivacurium Mivacuriumo Mivacurium is the shortest acting competitive blockers.o It does not need reversal - can be used as an alternative to SCh for endotracheal intubation.o It is metabolized rapidly by plasma cholinesterases - prolonged paralysis can occur in pseudocholinesterase deficiency.o Mivacurium is the only nondepolarising (competitive) blocker that is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase (pseudocholinesteres). | Anaesthesia | Non-depolarising Neuromuscular Blocking Agents | Shortest acting muscle relaxant -
A. Pancuronium
B. Atracurium
C. Mivacurium
D. Vecuronium
| Mivacurium |
8c7f702e-1ae0-42fc-896b-599fe8f69a55 | An approximate practical measure of topical medication is the fingeip unit, the quantity of ointment, extruded from a tube with a nozzle of 5 mm diameter extending from the distal crease of the forefinger to ventral aspect of the fingeip. This unit weighs approximately 0.49 g in males and 0.43 g in females and covers, on average, an area of approx 300 cm2. | Skin | null | FTU is a measure of:
A. Area involved in severe drug reactions
B. Amount of topical drug to be applied
C. Mucosal involvement in pemphigus
D. Concentration of drug in topical preparations
| Amount of topical drug to be applied |
add34d85-538e-4c9f-a925-a433d1ca3127 | Antibody dependent methods are:
EUSA
Protein Immunoprecipitation (ChIP assay)
Immunoelectrophoresis
Western blot
Protein Immunostaining
Flow cytometry.
Note: SDS PAGE is a method of separating proteins based on size. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is not antibody dependent methods
A. ELISA
B. Chromatin Immunoprecipitation assay
C. Flow cytometry
D. SDS - PAGE
| SDS - PAGE |
010e2532-0762-4307-9836-c23c2af3a637 | Thoracocentesis is a surgical puncture on the chest wall for aspiration of fluid or air from the pleural cavity. It is advisable to introduce needle along the upper border of the rib to avoid avoid the neurovascular bundle that runs below the rib.Also Know:Never remove more than 1000-1500 mL per tap in patients with chronic effusions (eg, malignant effusions). Doing so can cause hypotension or development of pulmonary edema due to reexpansion of compressed alveoli. | Anatomy | null | While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along?
A. Upper border of the rib
B. Lower border of the rib
C. In the center of the intercostals space
D. In anterior pa of intercostals space
| Upper border of the rib |
9f85daf4-fed5-4c11-ace5-cbed7164d64a | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mefloquine o Amongst the antimalarial drugs, quinine, primaquine and occasionally chloroquine can cause hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency. | Pharmacology | null | Which antimalarial drug can be safely administered in baby with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency -
A. Chloroquine
B. Quinine
C. Mefloquine
D. Primaquine
| Mefloquine |
fe1e01c0-1746-4753-a9ba-09fafc564224 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Enterococcus fecalis Enterococcus ? It belongs to lancefields's group 'FY streptococci Note - Enterococci grow in the presence of bile and hydrolyze esculine ----> bile esculin positive. | Microbiology | null | 45 yrs old Ramlal has intraabdominal sepsis. The causative organism was found to be vancomycin, gentamycin and ampicillin resistant. It grows well in presence of 6.5% NaCI and arginine. Bile esculin hydrolysis is positive. Which of the following is this organism? -
A. Streptococcus agalactae
B. Enterococcus fecalis
C. Streptococcus bovis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
| Enterococcus fecalis |
ed23db53-0e1f-4110-b309-69b9539e2d25 | Levels of intelligence based on IQ levels: Levels of intelligence IQ range Idiot 0-24 Imbecile 25-49 Moron 50-69 Borderline 70-79 Low normal 80-89 Normal 90-109 Superior 110-119 Very superior 120-139 Near Genius 140 and over Calories of mental retardation based on IQ levels: Mental status IQ range Normal IQ 70 and over Mild mental retardation 50-69 Moderate mental retardation 35-49 Severe mental retardation 21-34 Profound mental retardation 20 or below Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 716 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Social science, Mental health & Genetics | Moron is the one with an IQ of:
A. 0-24
B. 25-49
C. 50-69
D. 70-79
| 50-69 |
84ff57f7-e90e-44c2-bd7a-f7ac78163236 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., TB Tubercular larvn_gitis Tubercular laryngitis is almost always secondary to pulmonary lesions, mostly affecting males in middle age (20-40 years). Disease affects the posterior third of larynx more commonly than anterior pa.The pas affected in descending order of frequency are :- i) Interarytenoid fold, ii) Ventricular band, iii) Vocal cords, iv) Epiglottis Clinical features Weakness of voice with periods of aphonia earliest symptoms. o Hoarsness, cough, dysphagia (odynophagia) Referred otalgia Laryngeal examination in TB laryngitis Hyperaemia of the vocal cord in its whole extent or confined to posterior pa with impairment of adduction is the first sign. Swelling in the interarytenoid region giving a mammilated appearance. Ulceration of vocal cord giving mouse-nibbled appearance. Superficial ragged ulceration on the arytenoids and interarytenoid region. Granulation tissue in interarytenoid region or vocal process of arytenoid. Pseudoedema of the epiglottis "turban epiglottis". Swelling of ventricular bands and aryepiglottic folds. Marked pallor of surrounding mucosa. | ENT | null | Turban epiglottis is seen in ?
A. TB
B. Leprosy
C. Laryngeal papilloma
D. Epiglottitis
| TB |
3d6325c4-701e-4007-80e7-74437cb222cc | Rate of cooling of dead body in tropical countries (India) is 0.5- 0.7°C/hours.
In temperate climate, it is about 1.5°C/hours | Forensic Medicine | null | The rate of cooling down of dead bodies in tropical climate is -
A. 0.2°C/ hours
B. 0.5°C/ hours
C. 1.0°C/ hours
D. 1.5°C/ hours
| 0.5°C/ hours |
fe640382-4f06-4181-9eb7-4675af6efd19 | (Septic arthritis) (39- Apley'8th)* Septic Arthritis in Infancy (TOM-SMITH-ARTHRITS)* The head of the femur is cartilaginous and is rapidly and completely destroyed by pyogenic process* Affected leg is shorter and hip movements are increased in all directions* Telescopy test is positive* X-ray complete absence of the head and neck of the femur | Orthopaedics | Arthritis | Tom-smith arthritis results from
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteo arthritis
C. Septic arthritis
D. Garre's osteomyelitis
| Septic arthritis |
bfd184e0-f5ea-49bc-94c1-ade8da7c1b6d | "Orbital roof fracture should be suspected in any child presenting with blunt injury to the brow or forehead with subsequent development of a hematoma of the upper lid in the hours following injury ". — Pediatric ophthalmology | Ophthalmology | null | Most common cause of fracture of roof of orbit
A. Blow on back of head
B. Blow on parietal bone
C. Blow on the forehead
D. Blow on the upper jaw
| Blow on the forehead |
b42c7989-889a-49a5-aca8-82acad9c37f5 | The four major classes of brain tumors are: 1. Gliomas Astrocytoma * Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma * Brainstem glioma * Pilocytic astrocytoma * Fibrillary (diffuse) astrocytomas * Glioblastoma * Oligodendroglioma * Ependymoma 2. Neuronal tumors * Ganglion cell tumors * Gangliocytoma * Ganglioglioma * Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor * Cerebral neuroblastomas 3. Poorly differentiated neoplasm 4. Meningiomas | Pathology | Nervous system | Which is not a neuronal tumour
A. Ependymoma
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Gangliocytoma
D. Ganglioglioma
| Ependymoma |
a2b0a0e4-529f-4b32-a721-19d12d13ed2d | When splenectomy is performed, we are prone to injure the tail of pancreas, there is a high chance of Acute pancreatitis to occur or a duct maybecut leading to fistula. Sometimes, the blood may be collected below the diaphragm which may lead to sub-diaphragmatic abscess. Since, the spleen is in relation to the left dome of the diaphragm, due to pain post-operatively there is ipsilateral collapse of left lung leading to ATELECTASIS. Generally, after splenectomy, there is a rise in platelet count- if indicated for ITP, the patient is immobilized which increases the risk of DVT & Embolism. Complications of Splenectomy are: - 1. Lung related complications of Splenectomy: ATELECTASIS MC REACTIVE PLEURAL EFFUSION CONSOLIDATION 2. Pancreas related complications: ACUTE PANCREATITIS INJURY TO TAIL OF PANCREAS PANCREATIC FISTULA 3. Diaphragm related complications: SUB-DIAPHRAGMATIC ABCESS 4. Thrombo-embolic complications: STASIS THROMBOCYTOSIS | DVT - |PE 5.OPSI (Overwhelming Post Splenectomy Infection): Caused by capsulated organisms such as S. pneumoniae, N. meningitides, H. influenza | Surgery | FMGE 2018 | Most common immediate complication of splenctomy:
A. Hemorrhage
B. Fistula
C. Bleeing from gastric mucosa
D. Pancreatitis
| Hemorrhage |
2cb03957-382f-4a5a-802f-be231f1c51d1 | Ans. (c) ScurvyRef: Maheshwari 5th ed. 1315Scurvy causes failure of collagen synthesis and osteoid formation. It clinically presents with:* Irritability* Gum bleeding* Pseudoparalysis (due to subperiosteal haemorrhage)* Anemia and beading of costo-chondral junction. Radiological features are: Frenkels line (dense line between metaphysic & physis/epiphysis), ring sign, thin cortex, scurvy line (band of rarefaction on the diaphyseal side) and metaphyseal osteopenia, cleft and fractures.Pathology: deficiency causes failure of collagen synthesis or primitive collagen formation, throughout the body, including in blood vessels, predisposing to haemorrhage.RICKETSSCURVY* Metaphysis: indistinct; frayed, splaying, and cupping of margin. Patchy sclerosis in case of intermittent dietary deficiency* Widened epiphysis with hazed cortical margin* Generalized reduction in bone density* Looser's zone (less common)* Severe cases show Genu valgum, bow legs, thoracic kyphosis, pigeon chest, ricketic rosary, skull bossing, cox vera.* Metaphysis: Frankel's white line, Trummerfeld, lucent zone, Pelkan spur due to fracture.* Wimberger's sign (small epiphysis surrounded by sclerotic rim)* Subperiosteal hemorrhage with periosteal elevation* Ground glass appearance of bone with pencil thin cortex. | Orthopaedics | Scurvy | A case of young patient presents to you with knee pain, irritability and gum bleeding. Upon x-ray of leg, cortex is significantly thin with a white line at the metaphysis. What could be possible cause:
A. Fluorosis
B. Rickets
C. Scurvy
D. Caffey's disease
| Scurvy |
20442569-e3fd-409b-93f9-d92923cd6b15 | T315I mutation is a mutation in the critical BCR-ABL kinase in the ATP-binding pocket This prevents imatinib binding and hence leads to resistance to imatinib, nilotinib, bosutinib, and dasatinib. Only drug effective for T315I mutation CML = Ponatinib. Otherwise DOC CML= Imatinib. DOC for Imatinib resistant CML = Bosutinib DOC in case of failure of > 2 Tyrosine kinase inhibitor = OMACETAXINE | Medicine | CLL & CML | First line treatment of T315I mutation in CML management is?
A. Bosutinib
B. Tofacitinib
C. Ponatinib
D. Nilotinib
| Ponatinib |
4337f72f-515e-4118-a504-bae730a1ff58 | Vernal REF: Khurana 4th ed p-451, Yanoff & Ducker-ophthalmology 2nd edition page 407 A characteristic manifestation of limbal vernal conjunctivitis is the presence of Horner-Trantas dots, which are white, chalk-like dots composed of eosinophils and epithelial debris. | Ophthalmology | null | Horner trantas spot is seen in?
A. Trachoma
B. Phlytenular Kerato conjunctivitis
C. Vernal Kerato conjunctivitis
D. Giant Papillary conjunctivitis
| Vernal Kerato conjunctivitis |
b136d913-241c-4bcf-842a-d0ab1260673a | There are three types of microglia: oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells, and astrocytes. Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells are involved in myelin formation around axons in the CNS and peripheral nervous system, respectively. Astrocytes, which are found throughout the brain, are fuher subdivided into two groups. Fibrous astrocytes, which contain many intermediate filaments, are found primarily in white matter. Protoplasmic astrocytes are found in gray matter and have a granular cytoplasm. Both types of astrocytes send processes to blood vessels, where they induce capillaries to form the tight junctions making up the blood-brain barrier. Microglia are immune system cells; they are scavenger cells that resemble tissue macrophages and remove debris resulting from injury, infection, and disease (eg, multiple sclerosis , AIDS-related dementia, Parkinson disease, and Alzheimer disease).Ref: Ganong 25th ed, p 85, 86 | Biochemistry | Enzymes | The blood-brain barrier is formed by
A. Oligodendrocytes
B. Astrocytes
C. Microglial cells
D. Schwann cells
| Astrocytes |
9b0bec46-792b-4995-befa-e3c458c0af86 | The lambdoid suture lies between the occipital bone and the two parietal bones. Sutural bones are common along this suture. Lambdoid sutures are usually visible clearly. The lambdoid suture traverses the posteriormost pa of the skull. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. | Anatomy | Head and neck | Suture present between parietal & occipital bones is
A. Lambdoid suture
B. Saggital suture
C. Coronal suture
D. Metopian suture
| Lambdoid suture |
e3c8ba80-237f-4457-8d59-b720501d070c | In about 50% of patients who have both Hodgkin's and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, the mediastinum may be the primary site." Ref : Schwaz 9/e p575 | Surgery | Vascular surgery | The most common site of enlargement of the lymph nodes in Hodgkin's lymphoma is
A. Cervical
B. Axillary
C. Mediastinal
D. Abdominal
| Mediastinal |
acf5ccc7-76b0-4d41-bfe1-94836d9951cb | New propeies in the bacterium is due to integration of phage genome REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.60 | Microbiology | Virology | Lysogenic conversion is -
A. New propeies in a bacterium due to integration of phage genome
B. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage
C. Transfer of free DNA
D. Transfer of genome during physical contact
| New propeies in a bacterium due to integration of phage genome |
a944d313-ee83-4e21-a2a5-2a5bb3f3e060 | Ans-B i.e., DexamethasonePrenatal treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia consists of maternal administration of dexamethasone which is not degraded by the placenta and crosses into the fetal circulation.The rationale for prenatal therapy is that suppression of pituitary ACTH secretion by exogenous glucocorticoid would prevent or reduce virilization of the external genitalia of affected females. Approximately 85% of prenatally treated female infants are born with normal or slightly Virilize genitalia.This treatment is most effective in preventing abnormal genital development in affected female fetuses when it is initiated as soon as pregnancy is initiated.Very early diagnosis is required because virilization of affected female, fetuses begin as early as four weeks.Rapid genotyping of fetal cells obtained by chorionic villus sampling at 8-10 weeks of gestation appears to be the best approach but therapy must be started at the time of first missed menstrual period, well before the molecular diagnosis is available. If the treatment cannot be begun by nine weeks it should not be given at all.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is an autosomal recessive disorder causing absent or deficient cortisol production.The most common form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia arises from mutations in "CYP21A2 " gene encoding the 21 hydroxylase enzyme.Severely affected female fetuses undergo virilization.* Treating the fetus prenatally with glucocorticoid administration to the mother has been shown to decrease or even prevent this virilization.However, the current approach to prenatal treatment means that unaffected as well as affected fetuses are exposed to dexamethasone and this treatment may have a side effect, particularly on the central nervous system.Prenatal treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia with dexamethasone remains controversial because to prevent ambiguous genitalia in some fetus we have to risk 8 pregnancies to corticosteroid treatment.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is an autosomal recessive disorder. If both the parents are carrier the fetus will have one in four chance of having congenital adrenal hyperplasia.Furthermore, only half of the affected fetuses will be females hence treatment is only potentially beneficial for only one in eight fetuses. (Remember, that only female fetuses need treatment for virilization. Male fetuses do not undergo virilization).To prevent female virilization treatment must be started very early in the first trimester (essentially as soon as a pregnancy test is positive) before it is possible to determine the sex and whether or not the child is affected by congenital adrenal hyperplasia.Therefore 7 of 8 pregnancies will be treated unnecessarily to prevent 1 case of ambiguous genitalia.The diagnosis of CAH can only be made after 9-12 weeks by chorionic villus biopsy:But the treatment should begin much earlier than this as the virilization starts as soon as 4-6 weeks after gestation.Therapy must be started at the time of first missed menstrual period well before the molecular diagnosis is available.This treatment should be initiated as soon as pregnancy is recognized. If treatment cannot be begun by nine weeks of gestation, it should not be given at all.Treatment is discontinued if genetic testing reveals a male fetus or an unaffected female.Since the risk of having an affected female fetus is one in eight when both parents are known carrier, seven in eight infants will receive unnecessary treatment.* Since glucocorticoid treatment is associated with some adverse effect there have been objections or controversies surrounding the prenatal treatment.Corticosteroids are most often used in pregnancy to promote fetal lung maturation before impending premature delivery.But in this use betamethasone is given only for few days rather than for several weeks to months as in congenital adrenal hyperplasia.Glucocorticoids are neurotoxic in fetal and animal studies and accumulating evidence is showing mildly adverse neurodevelopmental outcomes in treated human fetuses.Therefore it does not seem logical to submit 7 of 8 fetuses to any risk whatsoever when the treatment cannot benefit them, but instead potentially benefits in 8 affected. Taken together the safety of corticosteroid has not been established and the potential risk to the mother. It seems prudent to provide prenatal dexamethasone treatment in a research setting. Treatment should only be managed by an experienced team and parents should be fully informed. | Unknown | null | Treatment of choice in prenatal congenital adrenal hyperplasia -
A. Hydrocortisone
B. Dexamethasone
C. Betamethasone
D. Prednisolone
| Dexamethasone |
a7cb3e8d-8707-4305-88e8-da5e751704e2 | "Cystoid macular edema is a common cause of visual loss in patients with uveitis and may be observed in the setting of severe anterior or intermediate uveitis. Long-standing or recurrent macular edema can cause permanent loss of vision due to cystoid degeneration".
- Lange Ophthalmology | Ophthalmology | null | In patients with anterior uveitis, decrease in vision due to posterior segment involvement can occur because of –
A. Visual floaters
B. Inflammatory disc edema
C. Exudative retinal detachment
D. CME
| CME |
71ad3813-7d19-4042-9fd5-bd00b4c2cdba | In maple syrup urine disease there is the excretion of branched chain amino acids (isoleucine, leucine, valine) and their keto acids (α -keto β-methyl valerate, α-ketoisocaproate, α-ketoisovalerate) in the urine. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following amino acid is excreted in urine in maple syrup urine disease
A. Tryptophan
B. Phenylalanine
C. Leucine
D. Arginine
| Leucine |
7b37795d-241f-4fc9-9661-21e6b8eda33f | Pleiotropy occurs when a mutation in a single gene produces effects on more than one characteristic, that causes multiple mutant phenotypes.
In humans, this phenomenon is most obvious when mutations in single genes cause diseases with seemingly unrelated symptoms.
Some examples of this phenomenon are:
Transcription factor TB x 5 mutations that cause the cardiac and limb defects of Holt-Oram syndrome.
Glycosylation enzyme MP1 mutations that produce severe mental retardation and blood coagulation abnormalities of type lb congenital disorders of glycosylation.
DNA damage repairs protein NBSI mutations that lead to microcephaly, immunodeficiency and cancer predisposition in Nijmegen breakage syndrome. | Pediatrics | null | Single gene defect causing multiple unrelated problems –
A. Pleiotropism
B. Pseudodominance
C. Penetrance
D. Anticipation
| Pleiotropism |
19a6f511-0cef-400b-8e09-fea92c81cca1 | In cross-examination, the witness is questioned by the lawyer for the opposite pay. Leading questions are permissible during cross-examination. In examination-in-chief leading, questions are not allowed except in those cases, where the judge is satisfied that a witness is hostile. examination in chief and re-examination are conducted by same side lawyer. dying declaration: is a written or oral statement of a person, who is dying as a result of some unlawful act. . Reference: The synopsis of forensic medicine & Toxicology by Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddy. 28th edition. Pg no: 9&10 | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | Leading questions are permitted only in -
A. Examination in chief
B. Cross Examination
C. Dying declaration
D. Re-examination
| Cross Examination |
5b797d83-adbb-4674-b153-852ba4a67738 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Incidence of disease is 5 times higher in exposed group * Relative risk is a direct measure of the strength of association between suspected cause and effect. For example a relative risk of 2 means that the incidence rate is 2 times higher in the exposed group as compared with unexposed - i.e., a 100% increase in risk.* On the other hand, attributable risk indicates the extent which is attributed by risk factor (exposure) to disease. For example attributable risk of 90% means 90 percent of disease among exposed is due to exposure to risk factor.* In simple words* Relative risk indicates the increased percentage of risk of developing a disease, if person is exposed to risk factor.* Attributable risk indicates the percentage of disease which is attributed by risk factor among the exposed.* Relative risk is a better index than is attributable risk for assessing the etiological role of a factor in disease.* On the other hand, attributable risk gives a better idea than does relative risk of the impact of successful preventive or public health programme might have in reducing the problem. That means attributable risk reflect the public health importance better than relative risk. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Relative risk of 5 means -
A. 50% of disease among exposed is due to exposuse to risk factor
B. 50% of disease is due to risk factors
C. Incidence of disease is 5 times higher in exposed group
D. Incidence of disease is 50% more in exposed group
| Incidence of disease is 5 times higher in exposed group |
64cdae09-be6d-42d6-990a-d170d4225895 | Concept of glycemic index has utility in management of diabetes and obesity. Classification GI range Example Low GI 55 or less Most fruits and vegetables except potatoes and water melon, pasta beans, lentils Medium GI 56-69 Sucrose, brown rice, basmati rice High GI 70 or more Corn flakes, white bread, candy bar Ref: Park 22nd edition, page 568 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Low glycemic index is classified as value less than:
A. 25
B. 45
C. 55
D. 65
| 55 |
2f85150c-3de8-4bd4-a62e-58d88d4475bc | Ans b (Se Ferritin)Ref: Davidson, 21 edpg. 1018Ferritin (n = 50 - 200 microg//)A measure of iron stores in the tissue and is the single best test to confirm iron deficiency Less than normal value of Se. ferritin is seen in:1. Iron deficiency2. Hypothyroidism3. Vitamin c deficiency Raised Se.ferritin value is seen in:1. Liver disease2. As an acute phase responseS. Iron (n= 50-150 microg/d/)Low in Iron deficiency anaemia (<30); also in anaemia of chronic disease, during acute phase response.Se. iron is raised in liver disease and also in haemolysisTIBC (n= 300-360 microg/dl)High in iron deficiency anaemia Low in anaemia of chronic diseaseLow iron-+ Low TIBC = ACDLow iron+ High TIBC = IDATransferrin saturation (n = 30-50%)<16% is consistent with IDA but less specific than ferritin.Transferrin saturation is less in ACD & IDA; normal orincreased in thalassaemia & sideroblastic anaemiaTransferrin levels are low in malnutrition. Nephrotic syndrome,liver disease as well as during acute phaseresponse.Transferrin levels are high in pregnancy & OCP use.Red cell distribution width (RDW) (n = 11.5 - 14.5)Coefficient of variation of RBC volume. Normal RDW - anaemia of chronic disease, aplastic anaemiaIncreased RDW - iron deficiency, B12 defeciency, folic acid deficiency | Medicine | Blood | Iron deficiency is best demonstrated by:
A. RDW
B. S. ferritin
C. BM examination
D. d.......
| S. ferritin |
60ab72e7-01f5-4f63-abf2-0724dac85445 | ANOVA: Analysis of variance is a parametric test used for polyotomous independent variable Chi-square test: is non-parametric test used for testing association between 2 or more qualitative variables Multiple linear regression: Is used if the target variables are dimensional having multiple possible values Multiple logistic regression: Is used if the target variables are binary having only two possible values In the given question, the investigator finds out that 5 independent factors influence the occurrence of a disease. So to compare these 5 factors one should use multiple logistic regressions. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Statistical Tests | An investigator finds out that 5 independent factors influence the occurrence of a disease. Comparison of multiple factors that are responsible for the disease can be assessed by:
A. ANOVA
B. Multiple linear regression
C. Chi-square test
D. Multiple logistic regression
| Multiple logistic regression |
4b68dc66-44a2-494c-b9d6-2449ed9b068e | (A) Lateral corticospinal tract > The nerve fibers that pass from the motor cortex to the cranial nerve nuclei form the corticobulbar tract. The nerve fibers that cross the midline in the medullary pyramids and form the lateral corticospinal tract make up about 80% of the fibers in the corticospinal pathway.> The remaining 20% make up the anterior or ventral corticospinal tract, which does not cross the midline until it reaches the level of the muscles it controls. At this point, its fibers end on interneurons that make contact with motor nerves on both sides of the body.> The lateral corticospinal tract is concerned with skilled movements, and in humans its fibers end directly on the motor neurons. | Physiology | Nervous System | Fine voluntary movements are transmitted by
A. Lateral corticospinal tract
B. Dorsal column
C. Anterior horn
D. Spinothalamic tract
| Lateral corticospinal tract |
372e2a07-8eb6-4190-98a9-b126c038eba3 | sho-acting beta2 agonists- salbutamol., terbutaline, pirbuterol long-acting- salmeterol, formoterol, clenbuterol ref kd Tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | Respiratory system | sho acting acting beta 2 agonist
A. Formoterol
B. Isoprenaline
C. Salbutamol
D. salmeterol
| Salbutamol |
6dc02852-bf7c-4410-be7d-82dafacb96bc | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Gastroduodenal aeryGastroduodenal aery gives following branches :-Right gastroepiploic aerySuperior pancreaticoduodenal aery | Anatomy | null | Superior pancreaticoduodenal aery is a branch of?
A. Hepatic aery
B. Splenic aery
C. Gastroduodenal aery
D. Inferior mesenteric aery
| Gastroduodenal aery |
75b1deff-c4c9-452c-8e79-43368ceeb92d | State medicine. : administration and control by the national government of medical and hospital services provided to the whole population and paid for out of funds raised by taxation. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 10 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | Provisions of free medical care to the people at government expense is known as -
A. State medicine
B. Social therapy
C. Social medicine
D. Preventive medicine
| State medicine |
58846f25-9051-40c6-a826-43d7f27ff837 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Axillary vein Veins of upper limbo Cephalic vein is the paraxial vein of upper limb (like great saphenous vein of lower limb). It begins from the lateral end of dorsal venous arch. It is accompanied by lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm and terminal part of radial nerve.o Basilic vein is the postaxial vein of upper limb (like short saphenous vein of lower limb). It begins from the medial end of dorsal venous arch. It is accompanied by posterior branch of medial cutaneous nerve of forearm and terminal part of dorsal branch of ulnar nerve.The superficial veins of the upper limb : (a) On the front, and (b) on the back of the limbo Basilic vein continue as axillary vein. Cephalic vein drains into axillary vein by : (i) Draing into basalic vein through median cubital vein (greater proportion), and (ii) Directly draining into axillary vein. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | Cephalic vein drains into -
A. Brachial vein
B. Subclavian vein
C. Axillary vein
D. IVC
| Axillary vein |
104861eb-7002-4063-9b42-2618e01da506 | Ans. is c, i.e. Simultaneous emptying of uterus and blood transfusionRef: Williams Obs 23/e. p 767: Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 257, 258; COGDT 10/e, p 333The basic principle in the management of abruptio is termination of pregnancy along with correction of hypovolemia and restoration of blood loss."With massive external bleeding, intensive resuscitation with blood plus crystalloids and prompt delivery to control Hemorrhage are life saving for mother and hopefully fetus". --Williams Obs. 23/e, p 767This means option c is correct"Expectant management of suspected placental abruption is the exception, not the rule. This management pathway should be attempted only with careful observation of the patient and a clear clinical picture." (Option "d" ruled out) --COGDT 10/e, p 333, 334Correction of hypofibrinogenemia (i.e. Option "b")"A rational approach (in abruptio) should be to withhold any specific therapy to rectify the coagulation disorders except in the circumstances such as overt bleeding or clinically evaluated thromboembolic process". --Dutta Obs. 6/e, p 260 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Antepartum Haemorrhage | In accidental hemorrhage, TOC:
A. Induction of labor
B. Rx of hypofibrinogenemia then blood transfusion
C. Simultaneous emptying of uterus and blood transfusion
D. Wait and watch
| Simultaneous emptying of uterus and blood transfusion |
cc0f31c7-9abd-421a-b1d6-20b95fd03be8 | Verapamil is phenylalkylamine which depresses the SA node and slows AV conduction. Others are less potent. But verapamil can cause constipation It is class 4 antiarrhythmic drug REF.Essentials of Pharmacology KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Calcium channel blocker with maximum effect on conduction in hea is:
A. Phenylamine
B. Nifedipine
C. Diltiazem
D. Verapamil
| Verapamil |
2e53d16c-97bc-4c1a-81e0-065e355883e8 | Continuous drooling of saliva indicates no communication of Esophagus distally - esophageal atresia. Type E is also known as H shaped Fistula Least Common- Type D Classification of TEF Type A: Atresia only (6%) Type B: Atresia with proximal TEF (2%) Type C: Atresia with distal TEF (85%): Most common Type D: Atresia with both proximal and distal TEF (rare) Type E: TEF only (1%) Clinical Features The diagnosis of EA is enteained in an infant with excessive salivation along with coughing or choking during the first oral feeding. A maternal history of polyhydramnios is often present. The newborn baby with atresia regurgitates all of its first and subsequent feeds0. Saliva pours continuously from its mouth . Repeated episodes of coughing, choking and cyanosis occur on feeding in TEF. Associated Anomalies MC anomaly associated with TEF is CVS (VSD). Esophageal atresia may occur as pa of VACTERL group of anomalies: -V: Veebral body segmentation defects0 -A: Anal atresia0 -C: Cardiovascular (PDA, VSD) -TE: Tracheoesophageal fistula -R: Renal (unilateral renal agenesis) -L: Limb anomalies (radial ray hyplasia) | Surgery | DNB 2018 | Most probable diagnosis in a newborn baby with regurgitation of feeds and continuous drooling of saliva is:
A. Esophageal atresia
B. Diffuse esophageal spasm
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Zenker's diveiculum
| Esophageal atresia |
44cc1f4b-4341-4b7c-bd55-a4a76a72d1a5 | Ans. (a) Prolonged QT interval.The rate is bradycardic at 54 beats/min. Ihe rhythm is regular with a narrow QRS and normal-appearing sinus P waves are seen. Axis is normal.The QT interval is very prolonged to more than 600 milliseconds with a long, isoelectric ST segment (best seen in lead V6) and T-wave inversions in leads I, aVL, and VI through V5.There are Q waves in leads VI through V3 consistent with anteroseptal myocardial infarction of indeterminate age. The clinical history coupled with ECG findings of a long QT and isoelectric ST segment are classic for hypocalcemia. If left untreated, hypocalcemia can progress to tetany and cardiovascular collapse. The long QT interval and sinus bradycardia predispose this patient to torsades de pointes. | Unknown | null | A 68-year-old patient postoperative from thyroidectomy presents with muscle cramps; Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs are noted on examination.
A. Prolonged QT interval
B. Short QT interval
C. ST elevation
D. ST depression
| Prolonged QT interval |
5925014d-c6a4-47e8-a580-68fefdc68152 | (Adenosine receptors) (202-3-KDT) (220-KDT 6th)Mechanism of action of Methylxanthines - Three distinct cellular actions(a) Release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum especially in skeletal and cardiac muscle.(b) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase which degrades cyclic nucleotides intracellularly.ATPorGTPAdenylcyclase------------guanylcyclasecAMPorcGMPPhosphodiesterase--------------------Inhibited by Theophylline5 AMPor5 GMP(c) ** Blockade of adenosine receptors: adenosine acts as a local mediator in CNS, CVS and other organs- contracts smooth muscles, especially bronchial, dilates cerebral blood vessels, depresses cardiac pacemaker and inhibits gastric secretion. Methylxanthines produces opposite effects. | Pharmacology | Asthma | Methyl xanthines acts on
A. Histamine receptors
B. Adenosine receptors
C. Mast cells
D. Cholinergic receptors
| Adenosine receptors |
0a64945f-1e63-4fe3-ac8f-24e87e553db8 | Ans. (b) Multiple perforation of pars tensaRef: Dhingra's ENT 5ht ed. / 83Clinical features of Tubercular otitis media:# Painless foul smelling ear discharge: very characteristic finding.# Perforation: multiple perforations usually 2-3 on pars tensa is classical sign of disease.# Hearing loss: There is a severe hearing loss , out of proportion to symptoms . Mostly conductive, it may be SNHL if labyrinth is involved.# Facial paralysis* In the presence of secondary pyogenic infection, tubercular otitis media may be indistinguishable from chronic suppurative otitis media. Culture of ear discharge for tubercle bacilli, histopathological examination of granulations and other evidence of tuberculosis in the body help to confirm the diagnosis.Treatment# Systemic antitubercular therapy as being carried for primary focus.# Local treatment in the form of aural toilet and control of secondary pyogenic infection. Mastoid surgery is indicated for complications. Healing is delayed in tuberculous cases. Wound break-down and fistula formation are common. | ENT | Disorders of Middle Ear (Otitis Media) | Which one of the following is characteristic of tubercu otitis media;
A. Marginal perforation of tympanic membrane
B. Multiple perforation of pars tensa
C. Large central perforation of tympanic membrane
D. Attic perforation
| Multiple perforation of pars tensa |
efb4ab05-2841-48e8-a904-25986d677b68 | In Smooth muscles, rise in intracellular leads to binding of 4 Ca++ ions with calmodulin. Calcium-calmodulin complex then activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK). MLCK phosphorylates the regulatory light chain of myosin; this phosphorylation then leads to interaction of myosin with actin. Calmodulin is structurally and functionally related to troponin. Troponin is present in skeletal muscles and initiates contraction by causing a conformational change in the tropomyosin molecule which then uncovers the active sites on the actin filament. | Physiology | Smooth Muscle | Smooth muscle contraction due to release of calcium, occurs because of ?
A. Increased cAMP
B. Calcium combining with troponin C
C. Increased cGMP
D. Calmodulin-dependant myosin light chain kinase
| Calmodulin-dependant myosin light chain kinase |
0a4cc8d8-2e69-4cc4-9a87-cc6a676fccfd | DISADVANTAGES
It does not adhere well to enamel and dentin; hence, it causes microleakage and cannot be used for interim and long-term restorations.
Due to its low strength and high solubility, it cannot be used for permanent cementation(1st choice will be low strength then low solubility if asked in exams).
Its solubility is highest among all cements.
Ref: Materials used in dentistry, S. Mahalaxmi pg 267 | Dental | null | ZOE is not used for permanent cementation because of?
A. Less strength
B. High solubility
C. Poor marginal seal
D. Poor pulpal protection
| Less strength |
766c1858-3d0e-419d-b323-82040b022d13 | Tracheoesophageal fistula and esophageal atresia
Esophageal atresia is the most common congenital anomaly of the esophagus.
More than 90% are associated with tracheoesophageal fistula.
The most common variety is the one where upper part of esophagus ends blindly and the lower part is connected to trachea-by a fistula.
TEF should be suspected in all cases of hydramnios.
There may be associated anomalies → VACTERL (vertebral, anorectal, cardiac, tracheal, esophageal, renal, radial, limb) syndrome.
Presentations
Frothing and bubbling at the mouth and nose.
Coughing, cyanosis and respiratory distress.
Feeding exacerbates these symptoms, causes regurgitation, and may precipitate aspiration.
Aspiration of gastric contents via distal fistula can cause aspiration pneumonitis. | ENT | null | The commonest type of tracheoesophageal anomaly is -
A. Esophageal atresia without tracheoesophageal fistula
B. Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula
C. Esophageal atresia with proximal tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia
| Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula |
21a5961c-411e-4b79-ae91-03b8a6c1fac6 | Most common nerve involved in basal skull fracture is Facial nerve. Most common nerve involved in raised intracranial tension is Abducent nerve . Most common nerve affected during spinal anesthesia is also Abducent nerve. Most commonly involved in intracranial aneurysm is Oculomotor nerve ansd not optic nerve. An aneurysm at the junction of the posterior communicating and posterior cerebral aeries compresses parasympathetic nerve fibers of the Oculomotor nerve, causing a dilated pupil. | Anatomy | Cranial Nerves | Which of the following is a WRONG pair regarding features of cranial nerves:
A. Most commonly involved in basal skull fracture: Facial nerve
B. Most commonly involved in raised intracranial tension: Abducent nerve
C. Most commonly affected in spinal anaesthesia: Abducent nerve
D. Most commonly involved in intracranial aneurysm: Optic Nerve
| Most commonly involved in intracranial aneurysm: Optic Nerve |
c9ac50a8-5907-46a2-8a3e-ca15ccf1f37c | Clinical manifestations of bronchiolitis
The usual course of the disease is 1-2 days of → Fever, Rhinorrhea, Cough
This is followed by -
Wheezing
Cyanosis
Tachypnea
Nasal flaring
The breathing pattern is shallow
Rales, crepitation and Ronchi
Respiratory distress → retraction of intercostal space & suprasternal notch.
Liver and spleen are pushed downward because the hyperinflated emphysematous lungs push the diaphragm downward.
Anteroposterior diameter of the chest is increased and hyper-resonance is noted on percussion.
The leukocyte count is normal or slightly elevated.
Chest X-ray
Hyperinflation of the lung
The diaphragm is pushed down
Lung fields are abnormally translucent. | Pediatrics | null | A 6 months old baby coming with /o increasing difficulty in breathing of 2 days duration and on examination baby is afebrile & B/L wheeze & CXR shows B/L hyperinflation of the lungs with normal WBC count, the diagnosis is –
A. Bronchiolitis
B. Asthma
C. Ch. Bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
| Bronchiolitis |
d698e4de-d3b9-4f39-b8a2-1668e82b09e5 | Ans: a. (Control of DM)Ref: Cuschieri, 4th ed. pg. 783The treatment of diabetic foot should be multi disciplinary involving vascular surgeon, diabetologist, and chiropodist. The main pathophysiology of diabetic foot involves a combination of neuropathy, infection and ischaemia. The goal of management should be control of blood glucose and health education directed at preventing foot trauma.Prolonged antibiotic therapy should be used in the event of osteomyelitis. Prompt surgical drainage of abscesses should be undertaken.In summary, the treatment of diabetic foot should involve:1. Adequate control of blood glucose2. Prompt control of sepsis3. Vascular assessment4. Debridement including minor amputations. Major amputations should be undertaken for severe spreading uncontrollable limb infection threatening life, or the limb is severely ischaemic. Once one limb has been amputated, there is increased risk of amputation of the other limb, and the patient's survival rate is only 30%. Topical antibiotics are not of much benefit in the management of diabetic foot.Though both options, a and c are correct, option a (control of diabetes) seems to be the better answer. | Surgery | Wounds, Tissue Repair & Scars | Which is the principle for management of diabetic foot?
A. Control of DM
B. Topical antibiotics is paramount
C. Protection of the other limb
D. Early amputation
| Control of DM |
fb6c087f-16ac-430e-b805-affe63e8e370 | .Biochemical COMPLICATIONS OF TOTAL PARENTERAL NUTRITON INCLUDES 1. Electrolyte imbalance: Hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia. 2. Hyperosmolarity. 3. Hyperglycaemia. - common. 4. Dehydration. 5. Altered immunological and reticuloendothelial function. 6. Azotaemia. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 89 | Surgery | Urology | Not a complication of total parenteral nutrition
A. Hyperammonemia
B. Hypercholesterolemia
C. Neutrophil dysfunction
D. Hyperphosphatemia
| Neutrophil dysfunction |
2d2b4426-9644-401a-be14-23035bc91bf7 | Burkholderia can be differentiated from Pseudomonas by it's resistance to polymyxin, As polymyxin B is used for treating Psedomonas infection | Anatomy | Bacteriology | Which drug resistance differentiates the non fermenters, Psedomonas and burkholderia?
A. Resistance to ampicillin
B. Resistance to ceftazidime
C. Resistance to ciprofloxacin
D. Resistance to polymyxin B
| Resistance to polymyxin B |
2c7066fd-4849-414a-8d4a-5ff1af06d510 | Ans. b (Vitreous) (Ref. Reddy FMT 23rd/pg. 332).There is a linear relationship between potassium concentration in vitreous and time after death up to 120 hours.Also Know:* The component of vitreous humour that is most useful in determining time since deathPotassium* Mucopolysacchride maximally present in vitreous humourHyaluronic acid* Biological fluids useful for estimating postmortem intervalVitreous humor, CSF & blood* Biological fluid NOT studied for estimating postmortem intervalUrine | Forensic Medicine | Death and Medicolegal Aspects | Fluid best for postmortem investigation?
A. CSF
B. Vitreous
C. Synovial fluid
D. Serum
| Vitreous |
e6133b94-8924-4725-815b-dd4f4aec369a | Natural prostaglandin in the body is PGE2 whereas misoprostol and alprostadil are synthetic PGs which are PGE1 analogues. | Pharmacology | null | Misoprostol is a:
A. Prostaglandin E1 analogue
B. Prostaglandin E2 analogue
C. Prostaglandin antagonist
D. Antiprogestin
| Prostaglandin E1 analogue |
4457aa9e-460c-443d-8330-b1031cf627b0 | Latch bridge mechanism: - Once smooth muscle has developed full contraction, the amount of continuing excitation can usually be reduced to far less than the initial level even though the muscle maintains its full force of contraction. Fuher the energy consumed to maintain contraction is often miniscule, sometimes as little as 1/ 300 the energy required for comparable sustained skeletal muscle contraction. This mechanism is k/a 'latch' mechanism. The impoance of latch mechanism is that it can maintain prolonged toxic contraction in smooth muscle for hours with little use of energy. Little continued excitatory signal is required from nerve fibres or hormonal source. | Physiology | JIPMER 2018 | The mechanism responsible for sustained vascular smooth muscle contraction is
A. Sustained calcium release from SERCA pump
B. Vascular smooth muscle tone
C. Latch bridge mechanism
D. Henneman principle
| Latch bridge mechanism |
39c06e7a-1af3-4da9-869b-b99678fa4a43 | The middle cardiac vein commences at the apex of the hea; ascends in the posterior longitudinal sulcus along with posterior interventricular aery, and ends in the coronary sinus.Ref: V.S Volume 1; 2nd edition; Page: 276 | Anatomy | Thorax | Middle cardiac vein is accompanied by
A. Anterior interventricular aery
B. Left circumflex aery
C. Posterior Interventricular aery
D. Diagonal aery
| Posterior Interventricular aery |
269f6ff3-509c-40d2-b608-0e05d085ae96 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cricopharynx Inferior constrictor muscle has two pas :- (i) Thyropharyngeous with oblique fibres, and (ii) Cricopharyngeous with transverse fibres. Between these two pas of inferior constrictor exists a potential gap called Killan's dehiscence. It is also called the gateway to tear as perforation can occur at this site during esophagoscopy. It is also the site for herniation of pharyngeal mucosa in case of pharyngeal pouch. | Anatomy | null | Killian's dehisence is seen in ?
A. Oropharynx
B. Nasopharynx
C. Cricopharynx
D. Vocal cords
| Cricopharynx |
5270a661-5e17-46f5-b499-ae233cc39d9a | Alzheimer's disease (AD) can be complicated by cerebral amyloid angiopathy and terminal hemorrhagic stroke. Formation and aggregation of the Ap peptide are now considered central to the pathogenesis of AD. Ap peptide is derived from the abnormal processing of amyloid precursor protein (APP). When APP, a transmembrane protein, is cleaved by a-secretase within the Ap sequence, followed by g-secretases, a soluble nontoxic fragment is formed. Cleavage of the Ap sequence by b-secretase and then g-secretase gives rise to Ap peptides that aggregate and form the amyloid cores that elicit a microglial and astrocytic response to form neuritic plaques. Conformational change in prion protein leads to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, rapidly progressive dementia with spongiform encephalopathy but not neuritic plaques or amyloid deposition. Loss of dopaminergic neurons with a deficiency of dopamine is central to the pathogenesis of Parkinson's disease. Expansion of polyglutamine repeats owing to CAG trinucleotide repeat-expansion underlies Huntington disease. Although abnormally phosphorylated forms of tau protein are found in neurofibrillary tangles seen in AD, there is no mutation of the tau gene, and the tangles are not considered primary in the pathogenesis of AD. Mutation of the tau gene can be found in frontotemporal lobe dementias. | Pathology | Central Nervous System | An 86-year-old man has become progressively unable to live independently for the past 10 years, and he now requires assistance with bathing, dressing, toileting, feeding, and transfers in and out of chairs and bed. On physical examination, he has no motor or sensory deficits. He cannot give the current date or state where he is. Six months later, he suddenly becomes comatose and dies. At autopsy, there is a large superficial left parietal lobe hemorrhage. Histologic examination of the brain shows numerous neocortical neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. The peripheral cerebral arteries and the core of each plaque stain positively with Congo red. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for his disease?
A. Aggregation of Ab peptide
B. Conformational change in the prion protein (PrP)
C. Dopamine deficiency
D. Expansion of polyglutamine repeats
| Aggregation of Ab peptide |
4d5a78c5-b894-469a-b113-c84bae36524d | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Putamen Most common site of hypertensive hemorrhage is-Basal Ganglia (Putamen, thalamus & adjacent deep white matter) Also RememberM.C. intracranial hemorrhage: Intracerebral or intraparenchymal hemorrhage *M.C. cause of intracerebral hemorrhage: Hypertension due to rupture of small penetrating arteries. *M.C. cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage : Trauma (IInd rupture Berry's aneurysm) * | Medicine | Cerebrovascular | The commonest site for hypertensive intracerebral bleed is:
A. Putamen.
B. Cerebellum.
C. Pons.
D. Midbrain.
| Putamen. |
bbb61ac4-9054-4cd1-9e86-73e442b1ca5d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cysteine "Adequate dietary source of cysteine 'spares ' methionine".o Methionine is an essential amino acid.o Methionine is required for synthesis of cysteine (thus cysteine is non-essential amino acid)o Thus, cysteine can spare the requirment of methionine in diet. | Biochemistry | Amino Acids Basics | Which amino acid spares the use of methionine -
A. Cysteine
B. Glycine
C. Histidine
D. Arginine
| Cysteine |
50e51cdd-7848-4f31-8a71-2d6764064cfc | Zileuton is a selective and specific inhibitor of 5-lipoxygenase, preventing the formation of both LTB4 and the cysteinyl leukotrienes. Because zafirlukast and montelukast are selective antagonists of the cysteinyl leukotriene- 1 receptor, they block the effects of cysteinyl leukotrienes. All three drugs are approved for the prevention of asthma symptoms. While zafirlukast and montelukast both inhibit the effects of leukotrienes, they do so by blocking the receptor itself. Cromolyn inhibits mast cell degranulation and the release of histamine. Theophylline is a bronchodilator that has no effect on leukotrienes. Lipooxygenase inhibitors Zileuton inhibits synthesis of LTB4 (chemotactic) and LTC4 and LTD4 (bronchoconstrictor). Limiting features of this drug are sho duration of action and hepatotoxicity. | Pharmacology | Respiratory System | Mechanism of action of zileuton:-
A. Cyclooxygenase inhibitor
B. 5-lipooxygenase inhibitor
C. 5-phosphodiesterase inhibitor
D. Prevents mast cell degranulation
| 5-lipooxygenase inhibitor |
9944230d-9674-4929-b8f7-cea2a0fa4b99 | Ans. C: 49 days of Amenorrhea Menstrual regulation provides best results when a person repos between the 35th-45th day from the last menstrual period (LMP) and the MR is done before the 49th day since the LMP. It has been observed that the procedure gives optimum results in terms of least occurrence of associated risks when performed between 42nd and 49th day since the last menstrual period. When the procedure is performed before the 35th day since the LMP, there is the possibility that there was no pregnancy at all and that the procedure was unwarranted. When performed after the 49th day, there is a possibility that the procedure may have not been sufficient to remove the embryonic growth completely. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Menstrual regulation is done upto: September 2010
A. 35 days of Amenorrhea
B. 42 days of Amenorrhea
C. 49 days of Amenorrhea
D. 56 days of Amenorrhea
| 49 days of Amenorrhea |
bcae4984-ad48-4886-bf43-878824fef975 | Ans. (d) Breath soundsRef. B&L page 354/ 26th Edition* Both Tension pneumothorax and Cardiac tamponade both present with breathlessness, tachypnea and distended neck veins* Tension pneumothorax features - Hyper resonance over the chest and absent breath sounds.* Cardiac tamponade - Classically, the presentation consists of venous pressure elevation, decline in arterial pressure with tachycardia, and muffled heart sounds. | Surgery | Trauma | A road traffic accident patient presents with breathlessness. Differentiation between cardiac tamponade and tension pneumothorax is best done by?
A. Pulse pressure
B. Pulse volume
C. JVP
D. Breathing sounds
| Breathing sounds |
c93d8c82-621b-49e0-a8c9-fd80012ce4b2 | Ans. A. TuberculosisEarly renal tb: IVUAdvanced renal tb: CTRadiologic findings in renal tb include:a. Urographic demonstration (ivu) of diminished excretion of the contrast medium, focally or generally.b. Poorly defined one or more calyces.c. Cavitation communicating with the pc system, demonstrable by urography or retrograde pyelography. The irregular cavities may be multiple.d. Cortical scarring with abnormality of underlying calyces, similar to the changes of chronic pyelonephritis.e. Mass lesions due to tuberculoma.f. Dilatation of pc system due to parenchymal destruction or strictures. Ureteral strictures result in generalized pyelocaliectasis. Infundibular (calyceal neck) stretching and strictures result in localized hydrocalycosis.g. Calcification in the renal parenchyma, usually of a granular, mottled type. However, linear or ring calcification or homogenous amorphous collection are seen. The calcification rims outlining the periphery of distorted renal lobes is unique.h. Autonephrectomy/putty kidney.i. Ureteric tuberculosis -i. Produces mucosal and wall ulceration, fibrosis, stricture and calcificationii. "saw-tooth or cork-screw" ureteriii. Beaded ureter, short, straight, rigid and narrow ureter especially terminal segmentiv. Calcification is, however, rare in ureteral tuberculosis and when occurs involves lower segmentj. Symmetrical small spastic, and thickened bladder or small multilobular bladder (thimble bladder). | Radiology | Miscellaneous | "Phantom calyx/Amputated calyx" on IVU is feature of?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Hydronephrosis
C. Bilharziasis
D. UPJ obstruction
| Tuberculosis |
a60ccad1-88eb-4306-9a18-cb8493434680 | Formaldehyde gas is used for sterilising instruments and heat sensitive catheters and for fumigating wards and sick rooms and laboratories REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:36 | Microbiology | general microbiology | Formaldehyde gas sterilization is employed for?
A. Sterilizing hea lung machines
B. Glass materials
C. Paper and cloth
D. Fumigation of operation theater
| Fumigation of operation theater |
7c8980c4-c654-4a7a-abb1-4e774a6c5a95 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Timolol eye drops Timolol maleate is the most widely used drug for open angle glaucoma.It is non-selective B blocker (Blocks both B1 and B2B2 is responsible for bronchodilation, therefore blocking B2 would aggravate asthma.Instead of Timolol, Betaxolol can be used because it is a selective B1 blocker and causes less respiratory side effects. | Ophthalmology | Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma and Related Conditions | A patient of glaucoma with bronchial asthma presents to the emergency with status asthamaticus, causative agent might have been)
A. Pilocarpine eye drop
B. Timolol eye drop
C. Betaxolol eye drop
D. Levobunolol eye drop
| Timolol eye drop |
e285f8f2-9e35-49ee-ac39-3de894d5f47c | Due to the obstruction of the eustachian tube, there is a conductive hearing loss with serious or suppurative otitis media. Tinnitus and dizziness may occur. Presence of unilateral serous otitis media in an adult should raise suspicion of nasopharyngeal growth. Rarely, the tumour grows up the tube into the middle ear. (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat, P.L Dhingra, 7th edition, page 284) | ENT | Pharynx | A 70-year-old male presents with hearing loss and tinnitus. On examination, he has a conductive type of deafness and a dull tympanic membrane on the right side. Lymph nodal enlargement of 3x3 cm was noted in the posterior triangle of the neck. Tympanogram revealed a type B wave. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Middle ear tumor
B. Nasopharyngeal malignancy
C. Acoustic neuroma
D. Tuberculosis of middle ear
| Nasopharyngeal malignancy |
82ca2116-e6ea-4d9f-8e83-0b9a0ddfaeff | Ans. b (Primary open angle) (Ref. Schlote, Pocket Atlas of Ophthalmology, p. 153).# Primary open-angle glaucoma is also known as chronic open-angle glaucoma, chronic simple glaucoma, glaucoma simplex. Not all people with POAG have elevated IOP, but decreasing the eye pressure further has been shown to stop progression. The increased IOP is caused by trabecular blockage. Because the microscopic passages are blocked, the pressure builds up in the eye and causes imperceptible very gradual vision loss. Peripheral vision is affected first, but eventually the entire vision will be lost if not treated.# Diagnosis is made by looking for cupping of the optic nerve.# Rx: Pg agonists open uveoscleral passageways. Beta blockers (timolol) decrease aqueous formation. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease bicarbonate formation from ciliary processes, thus decreasing Aqueous humor formation. Parasympathetic analogs act on the trabecular outflow by opening up the passages and constricting the pupil. Alpha 2 agonists (brimonidine, apraclonidine) decrease fluid production (via. inhibition of AC) and increase drainage.High yield flow chart for Rx of Angle closure glaucoma:Glaucoma Classification (The European Glaucoma Society)Main typesSubtypesPrimary congenital glaucoma/ dysgenetic glaucomaIs due to primary trabecular meshwork dysgenesisPrimary open-angle glaucoma# Primary open-angle glaucoma with high pressur simple glaucoma# Primary open-angle glaucoma without high pressure/normal-pressure glaucoma# Primary juvenile glaucoma# Ocular hypertensionSecondary open-angle glaucoma# Secondary open-angle glaucoma as a result of ocular diseases# Pseudoexfoliation glaucoma# Pigment dispersion glaucoma# Lens-induced secondary open-angle glaucoma (phacolytic glaucoma, lens particle glaucoma, phacoanaphylactic glaucoma)# Glaucoma with intraocular hemorrhage (glaucoma with hyphema, hemolytic glaucoma, ghost cell glaucoma)# Glaucoma with intraocular inflammation# Glaucoma with intraocular tumors# Glaucoma with retinal detachment# Traumatic glaucoma# Iatrogenic secondary open-angle glaucoma contd # Steroid glaucoma# Glaucoma following intraocular surgery and laser therapy# Secondary open-angle glaucoma as a result of extraocular diseases# Glaucoma with raised episcleral venous pressurePrimary angle-closure glaucomaSecondary angle-closure glaucoma# Primary narrow-angle glaucoma# Secondary angle-closure glaucoma with pupillary block# Secondary angle-closure glaucoma without pupillary block with anterior pulling mechanism# Secondary angle-closure glaucoma without pupillary block with posterior pushing mechanismVariants of primary glaucoma# Pigmentary glaucoma# Exfoliation glaucomafpseudoexfoliative glaucoma or glaucoma capsulare) | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | Chronic simple glaucoma is a type of_____ glaucoma
A. Primary closed angle
B. Primary open angle
C. Secondary open angle
D. Secondary closed angle
| Primary open angle |
12c59d09-8bbd-4578-becc-220bf5b2dc5d | Control of ThirstIncrease thirstDecrease thirst| Plasma osmolarity| Plasma osmolarity| Blood volume| Blood volume| Blood pressure| Blood pressure| Angiotensin II| Angiotensin IIDry mouthGastric distentionRef: Guyton; 13th edition; Chapter 29; Urine Concentration and Dilution | Physiology | General physiology | Which of the following results in thirst
A. Cardiac failure
B. Decreased plasma levels of angiotensin II
C. Distension of the cardiac atria
D. Distension of the stomach
| Cardiac failure |
5026b999-e8eb-40c8-970a-829fa8934a8a | Type 2 placenta is a placenta in the lower segment but not covering the os. A posterior type 2, as shown in this figure, is an indication to do a caesarean section as the fetal head can compress the placenta against the sacrum when the head is entering the pelvis. This can cause fetal hypoxia. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Antepaum Haemorrhage | Which type of placenta pre is this?
A. Type 4
B. Type 2
C. Type 1
D. Type 3
| Type 2 |
08463f6d-3bed-4618-b0f0-ebab3180dbb5 | Gettlers test is done for detecting death due to drowning. According to this test, if death occured in salt water, the blood chloride concentration was greater in the left hea chambers when compared to right due to hemoconcentration. If death occured in fresh water, the blood chloride concentration was greater in the right hea chambers due to hemodilution. Diatom test can be used to differentiate between drowning and non drowning cases. According to this test if a person dies from drowning in water containing diatoms, it can be demonstrated in the lung parenchyma and in distant organs such as hea, brain, kidney and bone. Whereas if a dead body is immersed in water, diatoms can be demonstrated only in the lung parnchyma and not in other organs. Because diatoms reach the lungs by passive percolation but not to distant organs because of absent circulation. Ref: Parikh's Textbook of Medical Jurisprudence Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 5th Edition, Page 216 and 6th Edition, Page 3.68 | Forensic Medicine | null | Gettlers test is done for detecting death by:
A. Drowning
B. Hanging
C. Burns
D. Phosphorus poisoning
| Drowning |
d5b34a55-b203-43d5-b475-0a2457c91030 | Ans: a (Hypoglycaemia) no referance needed for this one !!!CAUSES OF HYPOGLYCAEMIAFasting (Postabsorptive) Hypoglycemia DrugsEndogenous hyperinsulinismEspecially insulin, sulfonylureas, ethanolInsulinomaSometimes quinine, pentamidineOther beta cell disordersRarely salicylates, sulfonamides, othersInsulin secretagogue (sulfonylurea)Critical illnessesAutoimmune (autoantibodies to insulinHepatic, renal, or cardiac failureor the insulin receptor)SepsisEctopic insulin secretionInanitionDisorders of infancy or childhoodHormone deficienciesTransient intolerance of fastingCortisol, growth hormone, or bothCongenital hyperinsulinismGlucagon and epinephrineInherited enzyme deficiencies(in insulin -deficient diabetes) Non-beta-cell tumors Reactive (Postprandial) HypoglycaemiaAlimentary (postgastrectomy) hypoglycaemiaNoninsulinoma pancreatogenous hypoglycaemia syndromeIn the absence of prior surgeryFollowing Roux-en-Y gastric bypass.Other causes of endogenous hyperinsulinismHereditary fructose intolerance, galactosaemiaIdiopathic | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Most important side effect of insulin:
A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Lipodystrophy
C. Insulin resistance
D. Antibodies to insulin
| Hypoglycaemia |
82aa9a92-f86b-45cb-b39b-d179b2f6b86f | Ans. A i.e. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder | Surgery | null | Hill Sach's lesion is seen in: September 2003
A. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder
B. Recurrent dislocation of patella
C. Pehe's disease
D. Slipped capital femoral epiphyses
| Recurrent dislocation of shoulder |
22e3e239-1dc6-453d-9f76-da51a5a0e10d | Ans. is c, i.e. Compression of IVC (inferior vena cava)Ref. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 53, 54Supine hypotension syndrome:During late pregnancy Q the gravid uterus produces a compression effect on the inferior vena cava, when the patient is the supine position.This, generally results in opening up of collateral circulation by means of paravertebral and azygous veins.In some cases (10%) when the collateral circulation fails to open, the venous return of the heart may be seriously curtailed which results in production of hypotension, tachycardia and syncope. Normal blood pressure is quickly restored by turning the patient to lateral position. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy | A pregnant woman in 3rd trimester has normal blood pressure when standing and sitting. When supine, BP drops to 90/50. What is the diagnosis?
A. Compression of uterine artery
B. Compression of aorta
C. Compression of IVC (inferior vena cava)
D. Compression of internal iliac vessels
| Compression of IVC (inferior vena cava) |
b7e80a47-fb23-4b16-a4b6-02ef9c8d9bfb | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Focal segmental GNMost characteristic lesion of HIV-associated nephropathy is collapsing glomerulopathy, a morphological variant of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.Morphological changes in FSGS o Sclerosis of some glomeruli with involvement of only a poion of capillary tuft.o Collapse of GBM.o Increase in matrix.o Segmental insudation of plasma proteins along the capillary wall (Hyalinosis).o Lipid droplets and foam cells.o Diffuse effacement of foot processes characteristic of minimal change disease, but in addition, there is focal detachment of the epithelial cells with denudation of the underlying GBM.o IgM and C3 deposits in sclerosed area and in the mesangium.Collapsing alomerulorlathyo It is a morphological variant of FSGS.o Characterized by collapse and sclerosis of the entire glomerular tuft in addition to the usual FSGS lesions.o A characteristic feature is proliferation and hyperophy of glomerular visceral epithelial cells (podocytes). o There is prominent tubular injury with formation of microcystes.o It is the most characteristic lesion of HIV nephropathy.Epithelial damage is the hallmark of FSGS.Following information has been added in 8,h/e of Robbins Sclerosis is characterized by accumulations of extracellular collagenous matrix, either confined to mesangial areas involving the capillary loops or both. The sclerosing process may also result in obliteration of capillary lumens in affected glomeruli.o In contrast Hyalinosis refers to accumulation of homogeneous, amorphous, eosinophic material into glomerular structure. Hyaline is made up of plasma proteins that have insudated from circulation into glomerular structure. Hyalinosis may also result in obliteration of cappillary lumen of glomerular toff. Hyalinosis is usually a consequence of endothelial or capillary wall injury and typically the end result of various form of glomerular damage. It is a common feature of FSGS. | Pathology | null | Glomerulonephritis associated with AIDS is?
A. Focal segmental GN
B. PSGM
C. MPGN
D. Membranous GN
| Focal segmental GN |
ede92cbf-a1a2-4fd2-b983-3820c921c22d | Ans. is `d' i.e., Intense fibrosis o Benign mesothelioma consists of dens fibrous tissue with occasional cysts filled with viscid fluid. o Microscopically, the tumors show whorls of reticulin and collegen fibers among which are interspersed spindle cells resembling fibroblasts. | Pathology | null | Which of the following is a finding in biopsy of mesothelioma of pleura-
A. Myelin figurers
B. Desmosomes
C. Wiebel-Palade bodies
D. Intense fibrosis
| Intense fibrosis |
67b14d31-c4f1-4564-9d84-7bca5532ca03 | Neuropsychiatric reactions, convulsions and encephalopathy are the major side effects of mefloquine. Halofantrine is associated with cardiac conduction defects and and aretmesinin derivatves occassionally cause anaphylaxis. Lumefantrine is usually well tolerated. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 1700 | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following antimalarial drug cause neruopsychiatric reactions and convulsions?
A. Halofantrine
B. Lumefantrine
C. Aemisinin derivatives
D. Mefloquine
| Mefloquine |
5b2bd5bf-5605-4476-909e-25a80dea63c5 | Pitted keratolysis shallow pits on palms and soles causative organism: coryneform bacteria most common in: hyperhidrotics, marshy lands, housewives treatment: topical antibacterials pyoderma gangrenous: neutrophilic dermatosis of skin and mucous membranes impetigo herpitiformis: pustular psoriasis of pregnancy mycosis fungicides: cutaneous T cell lymphoma iadvl textbook of dermatology page 237 | Dental | Bacterial infections | Following is a bacterial infection
A. Pyoderma gangrenosum
B. Impetigo herpitformis
C. Pitted keratolysis
D. Mycosis fungoides
| Pitted keratolysis |
87f73f76-15af-4a6f-a09c-23df9285b46b | Answer C. CalcitoninThis patient had multiple flesh-colored papules on the eyelids, lips, and tongue. This phenotype is suggestive of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2B (MEN-2B), an autosomal dominant condition characterized by medullary thyroid cancer among other features. Serum calcitonin can be used to screen for medullary thyroid cancer. | Medicine | Endocrinology | What laboratory test is most appropriate for this patient?
A. Alpha-fetoprotein
B. Beta2-microglobulin
C. Calcitonin
D. Insulin-like growth factor-1
| Calcitonin |
903187a9-8080-4c63-a1c4-a5881708159a | Osteoporosis occurs because of a defect in attaining peak bone mass and/or because of accelerated bone loss. In normal individuals, bone mass increases during skeletal growth to reach a peak between the ages of 20 and 40 years but falls thereafter (see Fig. 25.52). In women there is an accelerated phase of bone loss after the meno pause due to oestrogen deficiency, which causes uncou pling of bone resorption and bone formation, such that the amount of bone removed by osteoclasts exceeds the rate of new bone formation by osteoblasts. Agerelated bone loss is a distinct process that accounts for the gradual bone loss that occurs with advancing age in both genders. Bone resorption is not paicularly increased but bone formation is reduced and fails to keep pace with bone resorption. Accumulation of fat in the bone marrow space also occurs because of an agerelated decline in the ability of bone marrow stem cells to differentiate into osteoblasts and an increase in their ability to differentiate into adipocytes. Peak bone mass and bone loss are regulated by both genetic and environmental factors. Genetic factors account for up to 80% of the population variance in peak bone mass and other determinants of fracture risk, such as bone turnover and bone size. Polymorphisms have been identified in several genes that contribute to the pathogenesis of osteoporosis and many of these are in the RANK and Wnt signalling pathways, which play a critical role in regulating bone turnover (see Fig. 25.2, p. 1061). However, these account for only a small propor tion of the genetic contribution to osteoporosis and many additional genetic variants remain to be discovered. Environmental factors, such as exercise and calcium intake during growth and adolescence, are impoant in maximising peak bone mass and in regulating rates of postmenopausal bone loss. Smoking has a detrimental effect on bone mineral density (BMD) and is associated with an increased fracture risk, paly because female smokers have an earlier menopause than nonsmokers. Heavy alcohol intake is a recognised cause of osteoporo sis and fractures, but moderate intake does not substan tially alter risk. DAVIDSON'S PRINCIPLES OF PRACTICAL MEDICINE 22ND EDITION PAGE NO-690 | Medicine | Endocrinology | In osteoporosis there is -
A. Decrease in absolute amount of bone mass
B. More common in male
C. Radiographs show normal bone density
D. Hormonal replacement therapy
| Decrease in absolute amount of bone mass |
c0f6b4b3-adb5-49eb-9c2b-697de35a2090 | Ans. B Abdominal aorta* Testicular artery is a branch of abdominal aorta.* Please refer' the image given below: | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | Testicular artery is a branch of:
A. Common iliac artery
B. Abdominal aorta
C. Internal iliac artery
D. External iliac artery
| Abdominal aorta |
69218697-18c9-4e89-9dfe-69cca3039a61 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vascular endotheliumArachidonic acid metabolites During inflammation, various biologically active lipid mediators are derived from membrane phospholipid. o Arachidonic acid is derived from dietry sources or by conversion from the essential fatty acid (linoleic acid).It does not occur free in cell but is normally esterified in membrane phospholipid.When phosphilipase A2 is activated, it releases arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids.From arachidonic acid, mediators of inflammation are synthesized by two different pathway. | Pathology | null | Prostacyclin is mainly produced by-
A. Platelet
B. Vascular endothelium
C. Prostate
D. Testis
| Vascular endothelium |
2cbb87a1-4f45-4139-aa40-636c92cad9b5 | Sec 85 IPC states that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law; provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge or against his will. Sec. 84 IPC deals with criminal responsibility of a mentally ill person. Sec. 82 IPC deals with minimum age of criminal responsibility of a person. Sec. 87 IPC deals with punishment for an act not intended to cause death. Ref: Dr.K.S.Narayan Reddy's synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, 29th edition, Chapter-3. | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | A person who is intoxicated is not considered responsible for his actions under -
A. Section 84 IPC
B. Section 85 IPC
C. Section 82 IPC
D. Section 87 IPC
| Section 85 IPC |
b980ef1f-f337-435c-8922-82b0b58535a4 | Intestinal biopsy showing villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytic infiltration in the given case scenario, suggest a diagnosis of Celiac disease | Pediatrics | Disorders of Gastrointestinal System Including Diarrhea | A 2-year-old child presented with recurrent pain abdomen, failure to thrive and iron deficiency anemia refractory to Iron therapy. His anti TTG anti-body titres were 300 U/L. An upper GI endoscopy was done and duodenal biopsy was taken which showed the following. What is the diagnosis?
A. Crohn disease
B. Hirschsprung disease
C. Celiac disease
D. Congenital lactase deficiency
| Celiac disease |
2445bd18-c326-4ad4-9c59-3c014317d19d | First screening - carried out at 32 weeks of post menstrual age (PMA) or 4 weeks of postnatal age, whichever is later In the given scenario, baby is born at 28 week gestation, so 1st screening should be done at 4 weeks postnatal age i.e 32 weeks PMA As the baby is already 2 weeks old screening for ROP should be done 2 weeks later. | Pediatrics | Neonatal sepsis | How much time later should ROP screening be done for a 2 week old baby being treated in NICU for sepsis, who was born at 28 wk gestation?
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 8 weeks
| 2 weeks |
03600963-2f59-4d57-a88a-6e36403c1c87 | Ref-KDT 6/ Possible side-effects of alpha-blockers include: sudden drops in blood pressure when sitting up or standing up. headaches or nausea. swollen legs or ankles. tiredness, weakness or feeling lethargic. sleep disturbance. tremor. rash or itchiness of the skin. Postural hypotension | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | Postural hypotension Is the common side effect of which of the following'
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Alpha receptor blockers
C. Selective beta1 blockers
D. Aeriolar dilators
| Alpha receptor blockers |
2e1ee52e-baad-4d88-b4a8-3b600675b173 | The brownish pigment seen in hea failure cells are hemosiderin. Hea failure cells are hemosiderin laden macrophages seen in the lung after development of congestion and pulmonary oedema. Lipofuscin are yellow brown pigment granules which are composed of lipid containing residues of lysosomal digestion. It is considered to be pigment of aging. | Pathology | null | Which of the following is the brownish coloured substance seen in hea failure cells?
A. Hemosiderin
B. Lipofuscin
C. Myoglobin
D. Bilirubin
| Hemosiderin |
2d9ec9f0-4fc7-48e8-869c-4073e9713c95 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inheritance pattern is autosomal dominantPiebaldism Hypopigmentation disorderCaused by absence of melanocytes in the affected area.Autosomal dominant inheritance.There is a defect in the KIT proto - oncogene that codes for the KIT receptor. Thus defect in melanocyte survival results in hypopigmentation.KIT receptor activation by KIT ligand/ Stem Cell Factor (SCF) results in phosphorylation and potentiation of MITE Potentiation of MITF activity is responsible for melanocyte survival during development.Clinical features Depigmented patches present on the ventral or lateral trunk and in mid extremities with sparing of hands and feet.Poliosis and white forelock may be associated. Deafness is not a feature.Piebaldism with deafness is referred to as Woolf syndrome. | Pathology | null | In Peibaldism ?
A. Inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant
B. Mutations of the KIT ligand, stem cell factor (SCF)
C. Is associated with deafness
D. Is characterized by excess melanocytes in the affected area
| Inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant |
a985771a-a8fd-467d-a1e0-14f4869d07b2 | Stem cells are located in sites called niches. These include:
Epidermal stem cells located in the bulge area of the hair follicle serve as stem cells for the hair follicle and the epidermis.
Intestinal stem cells are located at the base of a colon crypt, above Paneth cells.
Liver stem cells (commonly known as OVAL cells) are located in the canals of Hering, structures that connect bile ductules with parenchymal hepatocytes.
Corneal stem cells are located in the limbus region, between the conjunctiva and the cornea
The bone marrow contains hematopoietic stem cells as well as stromal cells capable of differentiation into various lineages. | Pathology | null | OVAL cells seen in stem cells of -
A. Liver
B. Skin
C. Cornea
D. Bone
| Liver |
27eb72a0-d151-4a27-98bb-d65d794d728a | A daily supply of 150-200 litres per capita is considered adequate to meet the needs for urban domestic purposes. But again it depends on the climate, standard of living and habits of people. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 766 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | The quantity of water considered adequate in urban areas (in liters per day person) is -
A. 50-100
B. 100-150
C. 150-200
D. 200-250
| 150-200 |
be40043a-8e4b-4124-ba21-66cf0607d86f | Development of sudden aphonia and loss of consciousness while giving spinal anaesthesia (during injection of spinal anaesthesia) suggest the diagnosis of vaso-vagal attack. It often occurs in young, nervours and anxious patients during injection in a sitting position. It is characterized by sudden and transient loss of consciousness.
Total/high spinal anestheria occurs immediately after injection (not during injection). Further total spinal anesthesia has a dramatic course with non-recordable BP, respiratory arrest, longer time required to resolve the symptoms. | Anaesthesia | null | An anaesthesia resident was giving spinal anaesthesia when the patient had sudden aphonia and loss of consciousness. What could have happened?
A. Total spinal
B. Partial spinal
C. Vaso vagal attack
D. Intra vascular injection
| Vaso vagal attack |
deab0437-c9a4-4ec6-bd14-52d442c8e312 | Congenital hydrocele results from a persistence of processus vaginalis. As the testis descends from its retroperitoneal position to beyond the internal ring, it carries with an anteromedial diveiculum of peritoneum (the processus vaginalis). The process of obliteration of the processus vaginalis begins at 32 weeks gestation and may continue for the first two years of life. A narrowly patent processus vaginalis which allows the passage of peritoneal fluid results in a communicating hydrocele. Congenital hydrocele resolve spontaneously upon completion of the process of obliteration of the processus vaginalis. Occasionally, the fluid collection may persist after closure of the processus vaginalis resulting in a hydrocele of cord (hydrocele of canal of Nuck in females) or non communicating hydrocele. The treatment of congenital hydrocoele is same as congenital hernia. Herniotomy through an inguinal approach. Ref: Fundamentals of Surgical Practice edited by Andrew N. Kingsnoh, Aljafri A. Majid, 2006, Page 514; Bedside Clinics In Surgery By M.L. Saha, 2006, Page 468; Fundamentals of Operative Surgery by Vipul Yagnik, 2007, Page 35 | Surgery | null | A neonate is brought with an inguinal swelling which is smooth, transparent, fluctuating swelling, which is prolonged into the inguinal canal, and receives an impulse when the child coughs or struggles. Congenital hydrocele is diagnosed after examination. What is the suggested treatment modality in this case?
A. No treatment before 5 years
B. Herniorraphy
C. Herniotomy
D. Eversion of sac
| Herniotomy |
7c7c2275-edb7-4c89-999e-036f5495eeaa | Loud S1: Tachycardia Sho PR Interval. Mitral stenosis Tricuspid stenosis Soft S1: Bradycardia Prolonged PR Interval Aoic regurgitation Pulmonary regurgitation. Ref : Harrison's 20th edition pg 1563 | Medicine | C.V.S | Loud S1 is caused by-
A. Calcified mitral valve
B. Mitral Regurgitation
C. Sho PR interval
D. Bradycardia
| Sho PR interval |
29c81ebc-ef77-4793-8f00-5e281b9ae6b7 | Many patients with gout will have hyperuricemia, but not all. The big toe is the most common joint involved with gout. Acute gouty attacks are associated with intense pain from acute inflammation.
Incorrect 1. Hyperglycemia is a feature of diabetes mellitus, which is associated with peripheral vascular disease that increases the risk for foot ulcerations and osteomyelitis.
Incorrect 2. The arthralgias common to many autoimmune diseases with a positive ANA, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, are not usually associated with joint swelling, redness, or deformity.
Incorrect 4. There can be bone luceny with hyperparathyroidism, but the joints are not greatly affected, nor is there swelling or redness. | Unknown | null | A 58-year-old man has the sudden onset late one evening of severe pain in his left great toe. There is no history of trauma. On examination there is edema with erythema and pain on movement of the left 1st metatarsophalangeal joint, but there is no overlying skin ulceration. A joint aspirate is performed and on microscopic examination reveals numerous neutrophils. Over the next 3 weeks, he has two more similar episodes. On physical examination between these attacks, there is minimal loss of joint mobility. Which of the following laboratory test findings is most characteristic for his underlying disease process?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Positive antinuclear antibody
C. Hyperuricemia
D. Hypercalcemia
| Hyperuricemia |
dadfc3d3-3910-4af8-9181-01dafc85be7a | Ans. (b) Increased direct bilirubinIncreased indirect bilirubin and not direct bilirubin are the findings in hemolytic anemia MCV%S%A%A2 %FASN35-3862-65<3.5<1SSN88-930<3.55-10S/bdegthalassaemiaL88-930>3.55-10 | Pathology | Misc. (R.B.C) | Which of the following is absent in hemolytic anemia?
A. Increased indirect bilirubin
B. Increased direct bilirubin
C. Increased reticulocyte count
D. Jaundice
| Increased direct bilirubin |
488c4984-6839-4ba0-8e8d-3854f8a0d2e3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trousseau's syndrome * Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis is known as Trousseau's syndrome.Trousseau's Syndrome* It is characterized by recurrent episodes of thrombophlebitis in superficial veins which changes locations over time (thrombophlebitis migrans or migratory thrombophlebitis).* The clot is tender and can be felt as a nodule under the skin. It can involve uncommon sites, such as the chest wall and arms.* This syndrome is a sign of internal malignancy & is particularly associated with pancreatic, gastric and lung cancer.* Heparin therapy is recommended to prevent future clots.Also know* Trousseau sign of latent tetany is caused by hypocalcemia. | Pathology | Blood Vessels | Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in -
A. Trousseau's syndrome
B. Burger's disease
C. Raynaud's disease
D. Kawasaki syndrome
| Trousseau's syndrome |
d5b797a4-ab9f-4b08-8174-1c40f1cff97a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., MollGlands of Moll (Moll's gland) are apocrine sweat glands just next to the eyelashes.Zeis glands are sebaceous glands near lid margins.Meibomian gland (tarsal glands) are specialized sebaceous gland at the rim of eyelids inside the tarsal plate.Krause's glands are accessory lacrimal glands underneath the eyelid. | Anatomy | null | Sweat gland near the lid margins
A. Moll
B. Zeis
C. Meibomian
D. Krause
| Moll |
99abaf6b-a2c1-4e8d-8258-dbeef255ba64 | A i.e. Involves shaft of 2 & 3 rd metatarsals * March fracture is a stress fatigue fracture of second metarsalQ* Avulsion fracture of base of fifth metatarsal is known as pot hole injury or Robe Jones fracture | Surgery | null | Commonest site of march is:
A. Involves shaft of 2 & 3 rd metatarsals
B. Avulsion of 5th metatarsals
C. Calcaneus involved
D. Olecranon involved
| Involves shaft of 2 & 3 rd metatarsals |
53a3ac0e-3a5a-4afc-816e-74ec6cb53dac | (D) Methyl alcohol # Ocular features of Methyl alcohol poisoning:> Visual disturbances like photophobia and blurred or misty vision (snowfield vision), seeing spots, central and peripheral scotomata decreased light perception concentric diminution of visual fields for colour and form, followed by fairly sudden failure of vision or complete blindness occur due to optic neuritis and atrophy from the effects of formic acid on the optic nerve. | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | Optic atrophy is characteristic feature of poisoning by
A. Lead
B. Phosphorus
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Methyl alcohol
| Methyl alcohol |
68e5fee4-ce6c-4a39-8a7e-a44d1f018231 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lateral sinus thrombosis Tobey-Ayer-Queckenstedt sign is used in the diagnosis of unilateral and bilateral lateral sinus thrombophlebitis. In cases where the lateral sinus is obstructed on one side, compression of the jugular vein on the intact side causes a rise in CSF pressure, whereas compression of the obstructed side does not raise the CSF pressure. Crowe-Beck test :- Pressure on jugular vein of healthy side produces engorgement of retinal veins. Pressure on affected side does not produce such change. | ENT | null | Tobey-Ayer test and Crowe-Beck test are used for?
A. Lateral sinus thrombosis
B. Petrositis
C. Cerebral abscess
D. Subarachnoid hemorrage
| Lateral sinus thrombosis |
db0bcd8c-53c8-48bb-ad72-eb388b04e96c | Propofol is metabolized by liver and kidney mainly. but its metabolism exceeds hepatic blood flow, thus having extrahepatic and renal route as well. in liver and kidney dysfuction its metabolism is not delayed making its use safe. | Anaesthesia | Intravenous Anesthetic Agents | Which of the following intravenous anaesthetic agent pharmacokinetic does not change on renal and hepatic dysfunction -
A. Propofol
B. Thiopentone
C. Etomidate
D. Ketamine
| Propofol |
77cf3fea-4139-4734-8c1d-01fb5bc01694 | LOW BACK PAIN Also known as lumbago (at times referred to as waist pain) is pain (as name implies) in the lower back (lumbar) region. Typically, the commonest area of back pain is the low back (lumbar region) and sometimes it spreads to the buttocks or thighs. LBP may radiate into * groin * buttocks * upper thigh (posteriorly) areas that share an interconnecting nerve supply Source of somatic referred pain is a skeletal or myofascial structure of the lumbar spine Source of referred pain is within a body organ * ovarian cysts may refer pain to low back * cancer of head of pancreas can present as low back pain becoming excruciating at night Pharmacotherapy Options* Antidepressants Anticonvulsants &;Muscle relaxants Opioid analgesics Coicosteroids NSAIDs Topical analgesics REF : maheswari 9th ed | Orthopaedics | Spinal injuries | Which of the following is not recommended in the treatment of chronic low back pain -
A. NSAIDs
B. Bed rest for 3 months
C. Exercises
D. Epidural steroid injection
| Bed rest for 3 months |
60d9bf14-bfc0-420d-a7c1-ddb76c67165e | Lymphatic drainage of uterus: Lymph nodes Involved in ca endometrium.... BDC Vol II, 3th ed p 319
Upper lymphatics (from fundus)
From cornua
Middle lymphatics (from body)
Lower lymphatics (from cervix)
Para aortic
Superficial Inguinal nodes.
External iliac nodes.
External iliac node, Internal iliac nodes.
Besides these other regional lymph node involved in CA endometrium are:
Parametrial LN
Presacral LN
Pelvic LN
Obturator. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Lymph nodes not involved in Ca endometrium is:
A. Para-aortic
B. Presaral
C. Inferior mesenteric
D. Inguinal
| Inferior mesenteric |
87f14aed-ed47-4e4f-ae96-7b6c42d3191e | The information in this question is :
Stressor (knowledge about medical disorder in a child).
Mild depressive symptoms → low mood, sleep deprivation but normal social interaction Symptoms within 3 months of stressor.
The diagnosis is adjustment disorder. | Psychiatry | null | Two months after knowing that his son was suffering from leukemia, a 45 year old father presents with sleep deprivation, lethargy, headache and low mood. He interacts reasonably well with others, but he absented himself from work. The most probable diagnosis is :
A. Depression
B. Psychogenic headache
C. Adjustment disorder
D. Somatization disorder
| Adjustment disorder |
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