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Ans. is a i.e. Alendronate Alenderonate, Etidronate, Pamidronate, Ibandronate are bisphosphonates which inhibit bone resorption, and are very effective for both osteoporosis prevention and treatment. Uses : * Postmenopausal osteoporosis Paget's disease Osteolytic bone metastasis. Caution : Patient should be instructed to take these drugs on an empty stomach with a large glass of water and then to remain upright for atleast 30 minutes as its major side effect is GI upset. Route of administration : Oral or I.V. infusion of Alendronate and risedronate can be given once weekly, whereas ibandronate is given once in a month. Now lets have a look at other options : Raioxitene : is a selective Estrogen receptor modulator which is also useful in management of osteoporosis. Parathyroid horrnope . is a novel therapy for osteoporosis. Unlike most of the treatments for osteoporosis that inhibit bone resorption, parathyroid hormone stimulates new bone formation. Parathyroid hormone is given by daily subcutaneous injection. Also know : Other non hormonal drugs used for treatment of osteoporosis : Calcium Vitamin D Calcitonin Slow releasing sodium fluoride.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Non hormonal drug to prevent post menopausal osteoporosis is : A. Alendronate B. Estrogen C. Raloxifene D. Parathyroid
Alendronate
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Triple therapy immunosuppression given to all post-renal transplant recipients for 0-3 months includes, a calcineurin blocker (cyclosporine or tacrolimus), an anti-proliferative agent (mycophenolate mofetil or azathioprine) and a coicosteroid such as predisolone. FK 506 is not a pa of 'triple therapy'. Ref: Bailey and Love Sho Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, Page 1415; Neonatal and Pediatric Pharmacology: Therapeutic Principles in Practice By Sumner J. Yaffe, Page 674; Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12th Edition, Chapter 35.
Surgery
null
Which of the following drug is not a pa of the triple therapy immuno suppression for post-renal transplant patients? A. Cyclosporine B. Azathioprine C. FK 506 D. Prednisolone
FK 506
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Most common cause of Infant moality is upper respiratory tract diseases. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 522
Social & Preventive Medicine
obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics
Most common cause of infant morntality? A. LBW B. Injury C. A D. Tetanus
A
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EHEC Entero haemorrhagic E.coli Cause HUS Shiga like toxin or Verotoxin (VT-1& VT-2) Aka verotoxigenic E.coli Culture media is Sorbitol mac-Conkey agar (SMAC) and Rainbow agar used Diarrhoea causing E coli EPEC - Entero Pathogenic Attaching/Effacing lesions to villi EIEC - Entero Invasive resemble shigellosis & sereny test +ve 3. ETEC - Traveller's diarrhoea CFA (colonisation factor antigen 4. EAEC - Aggregative persistent type of diarrhoea (EAST-1 Toxin) Parvo Virus B19: Single standard DNA Virus cause Aplastic Crisis
Microbiology
FMGE 2019
Hemolytic uraemic syndrome associate with A. E. coli 0157 B. Malaria C. Parvovirus B19 D. Baonela henselae
E. coli 0157
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chloroquine is a rapidly acting erythrocytic schizontocide against all species of plasmodia; controls most clinical attacks in 1-2 days with disappearance of parasites from peripheral blood in 1-3 days. The mechanism of action of chloroquine is not completely known. It is actively concentrated by sensitive intraerythrocytic plasmodia: higher concentration is found in infected RBCs. By accumulating in the acidic vesicles of the parasite and because of its weakly basic nature, it raises the vesicular pH and thereby interferes with degradation of haemoglobin by parasitic lysosomes. Polymerization of toxic haeme to nontoxic parasite pigment hemozoin is inhibited by formation of chloroquine-heme complex. Heme itself or its complex with chloroquine then damages the plasmodial membranes. Clumping of pigment and changes in parasite membranes follow. Other related antimalarials like quinine, mefloquine, lumefantrine appear to act in an analogous manner. It has additional antiinflammatory local irritant and local anaesthetic propeies Essentials of medical pharmacology K D Tripathi Sixth dition Page no 821, 822:
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
Chloroquine is used in the treatment of : A. DLE B. Pemphigus C. Psoriasis D. Nummular eczema
DLE
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Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stry chnine Post mortem caloricity:o The temperature of body remains raised for first two hours or so after death.o It is seen with:WTten the regulation of heat production has been severely disturbed before death as in sunstroke & some nervous disordersWhen there has been a great increase in heat production in the muscles due to convulsions e.g. tetanus, strychnineWhen there is excessive bacterial activity eg septicaemia, cholera & other fevers.
Forensic Medicine
Injuries
Post mortem caloricity is seen with - A. Arsenic B. Lead C. Datura D. Strychnine
Strychnine
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The lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio for assessment of fetal pulmonary maturity. Before 34 weeks, lecithin and sphingomyelin are present in amniotic fluid in similar concentrations. At 32 to 34 weeks, the concentration of lecithin relative to sphingomyelin begins to rise. In the absence of complications, the ratio of these 2 components reaches 2.0 at approximately 35 weeks. There is increased risk of respiratory distress when this ratio is below 2. Because lecithin and sphingomyelin are found in blood and meconium, contamination with these substances may lower a mature L/S ratio. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 29. Diseases and Injuries of the Fetus and Newborn. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
The lecithin sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is measured for assessing maturity of the following organ: A. Lung B. Brain C. Hea D. Spleen
Lung
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An infection becomes apparent only after a ceain incubation period which is defined as the time interval between invasion by an epidemiological agent and the appearance of first sign or symptoms. During incubation period the infectious agent undergoes multiplication in the host Incubation period is of fundamental impoance in epidemiological study tracing the source of infection and contacts Period of surveillance Immunization Identifying point source or propagated epidemics Prognosis (refer pgno:100 park 23rd edition)
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
Time interval between inoculation of infection to maximum infectivity is - A. Lead time B. Median incubation period C. Generation time D. Serial inverval
Generation time
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In the given options, all are influenced by sympathetic and parasympathetic activity. Right vagus mainly innervates SA node, right atrium and left vagus innervates left atrium, AV node, a bundle of His. But vagal innervation of the ventricle is sparse. Hence, vagal stimulation strongly inhibits heart rate (strong - negative chronotropic effect) and poorly affects the force of contraction (weak - negative inotropic effect). Moreover, vagus dominates sympathetic nerve in controlling SA node activity at rest. Therefore, basal heart rate mainly depends on the vagal tone. Ejection fraction, stroke volume, LVET (Left Ventricular Ejection Time) are mainly influenced by sympathetic stimulation as the vagus has a weaker inotropic effect.
Pharmacology
null
Which of the following is a better predictor of vagal tone A. Basal heart rate B. Ejection fraction C. Stroke volume D. LVET
Basal heart rate
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Uncoupler: Uncoupler means electron flow (oxidation) is occurring but phoshorylation is not occurring. This will lead to reduced ATP formation as phosphorylation is not occurring. It will stimulate electron transpo in order to produce more ATPs. Thermogenin, a protein present in brown fat, is a natural/physiological uncoupler of ETC. This is responsible for non-shivering thermogenesis. ADDITIONAL EDGE: Other uncouplers of ETC are:
Biochemistry
ETC
Which of the following is a physiological uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation: A. 2, 4dinitrophenol B. Cyanide C. Thermogenin D. Cyanide
Thermogenin
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The granules are often situated at the poles of the bacilli and are called Polar bodies they are more strongly Gram positive than the rest of the bacterial cell stained with Loefflers methyelene blue the granules take up a bluish purple colur and are hence called Metachromatic Granules . They are also called Volutin or Babes Ernest Granules . These granules composed of polymetaphosphate and serve as storage granules . Special stains such as Albes , Neissers and Ponders have been devised for demonstrating the granules clearly Ref :Ananthanarayan & paniker's Textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg no 237
Microbiology
general microbiology
Metachromatic Granules are stained by - A. Ponder's stain B. Negative stain C. Gram's stain D. Leishman stain
Ponder's stain
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Fluoxetine is an SSRI and it's adverse effects are nausea, vomiting, insomnia, headache, restlessness, anxiety and sexual dysfunction. Inhibition of platelet function may result in ecchymosis. Ref KD Tripati 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
Which of the following is the most common side effect seen with fluoxetine therapy? A. Seizure B. Anxiety C. Hypotension D. Loose stools
Anxiety
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Neonate is probably at risk for neonatal thyrotoxicosis. Neonatal thyrotoxicosis: Occurs due of maternally acquired thyrotropin receptor-stimulating antibody (TRSAb). Usually disappears within 2 to 4 months as the concentration of TRSAb falls. Unlike TRSAb, TSH does not cross the placenta. All forms of thyrotoxicosis are more common in females, except for neonatal thyrotoxicosis, which has an equal sex distribution. C/F: Tachycardia, tachypnea, irritability, low bih weight with microcephaly, severe vomiting and diarrhoea, thrombocytopenia, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly and hea failure. Eye signs are not commonly seen in children Third-degree hea block is sometimes seen in infants born to mothers with SLE.
Pediatrics
Thyroid disorders
A mother gave bih to a male baby in her home 2 days ago. The mother complaints that she is anxious, unable to tolerate heat and is fatigued most of the time, and repos that she has not gained much weight despite having an increased appetite. She also told that before pregnancy too she had similar complaints. On examination, she has a tremor, her HR is 100 bpm and has bulging eyes. Based on mother's findings, baby is most likely at risk for development of which of the following? A. Hea failure B. Constipation C. Third-degree hea block D. Macrocephaly
Hea failure
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TSS occurs when measles vaccine is contaminated or the same l is used for more than one section on the same day or next day, the vaccine should not be used after 4hrs of opening the l. Symptoms - watery diarrhoea, vomiting and high fever are repoed within few hours of measles vaccine. Ref: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine; 23rd edition
Microbiology
Virology
Toxic shock syndrome occurs after one of the following vaccinations A. DPT B. Recombinant DNA vaccine against hepatitis B C. Oral polio vaccine D. Measles vaccine
Measles vaccine
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Ans. D Medial pterygoidRef: Gray's Anatomy 41st ed. P 552* Trismus/Lock jaw is painful reflex muscle spasm. It occurs due to spasm of muscle of mastication and leads to inability to open the oral cavity* Trismus occurs due to involvement of masseter or medial pterygoid muscle or due to sub mucosal fibrosis.* Note: Infection of pterygomandibular region can cause trismus, which usually affects medial pterygoid muscle.
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
Trismus is due to spasm of which muscle? A. Orbiculis B. Lateral pterygoid C. Mentalis D. Medial pterygoid
Medial pterygoid
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* The most common causes of acute bacterial conjunctivitis are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae. * Hyperacute cases are usually caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae or N. meningitidis. * Chronic cases of bacterial conjunctivitis are those lasting longer than 3 weeks, and are typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Moraxella lacunata, or gram-negative enteric flora. * Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonococcal conjunctivitis, which usually results from sexual contact with a person who has a genital infection. * The incidence rates of gonococcal conjunctivitis increase during spring and summer. * This is a potentially devastating ocular infection, because N. gonorrhoeae can cause severe ulcerative keratitis, which may rapidly progress to corneal perforation. REF : AK KHURANA 7TH ED
Ophthalmology
All India exam
Severe Conjunctivitis caused by: A. NeisseriA B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Haemophilus
NeisseriA
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The Malpighian layer of the skin is generally defined as both the stratum basale and stratum spinosum as a unit, although it is occasionally defined as the stratum basale specifically,or the stratum spinosum specifically. It is named after Marcello Malpighi
Dental
null
Lichenisation occurs in which layer of skin­- A. Stratum malpighi B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum hucidum D. Stratum granulosum
Stratum malpighi
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Ans. c. Insulin + glucose Administering insulin and glucose are the most rapid way to decrease serum potassium level."Intravenous insulin is the fastest way to lower serum potassium levels.""Intravenous calcium gluconate is the first drug to he administered in a patient with hyperkalemia having ECG abnormalities. It stabilizes the myocardium immediately. It acts within minutes and is characterized by improvement in ECG appearance. "Complaints of muscle weakness, nausea, vomiting and fatigue and ECG showing tall peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, wide QRS and absent P wave is suggestive of Hyperkalemia, Beta-agonists are used in the management of hyperkalemia, not the beta-blockers.ECG changesHypokalemiaHyperkalemia* ST depressionQ* Flattened or inverted T waveQ* Prominent U waveQ* Prolonged PR intervalQ* Rarely S-A blockEarly* Increased T wave amplitudeQ* Peaked T wavesQLater (with severe degrees of hyperkalemia)* Prolonged PR intervalQ* Prolonged QRS durationQ* AV conduction delayQ* Loss of P wavesQ* Sine wave patternQ* Ventricular fibrillation or asystoleQHyperkalemiaHyperkalemia is defined as plasma K+ conc. > 5.0 mmol/L, but every case of Hyperkalemia doesn't require treatment.The management strategy of Hyperkalemia depends upon:Plasma K+ concentrationAssociated muscular weaknessChanges on ECGTreatment of Hyperkalemia is required in following cases:Serum K+ >5 along with ECG manifestation of HyperkalemiaSerum K+ >6 (even when ECG manifestation are not present)In Hyperkalemia the treatment is directed atMinimizing membrane depolarizationRedistribution of potassium (shifting of K+ back into cells)Increased excretion of potassium* Administration of calcium in the form of calcium gluconate, decreases membrane excitabilityQ* Calcium directly reverses the effect of potassium on the cardiac conduction systemQ* Administering insulin and glucose* Alkali therapy with I.V. NaHCO3Q* Beta2 adrenergic agonistQ* (When administered parenterally or in nebulized form, beta2 adrenergic agonist promote cellular uptake of K+)Q* Cation exchange resinQ (Sodium polystyrene sulfonate)* Diuretics (Enhance K+ excretion)Q* Hemodialysis (Most effective and rapid way of lowering plasma K+ conc.)Q
Medicine
Fluid & Electrolyte
A girl presented with severe hyperkalemia and peaked T waves on ECC. Most rapid way to decrease serum potassium level: A. Calcium gluconate IV B. Oral resins C. Insulin + glucose D. Sodium bicarbonate
Insulin + glucose
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., 6thEach rib (except for 11th& 12th) is ossified from four centres :-One primary centre-->for bodyThree epiphyseal (secondary )centres for :-HeadAicular pa of tubercleNon aicular pa of tubercleOssification begins near the angle toward the end of 2" month (around 8th week) of fetal life, and is seen first in 6th and 7th ribs.The epiphyses for the head and tubercle make their appearance between 16th and 20th years, and are united to the body about the 25th year.
Anatomy
null
Rib ossification center first appears in which rib ? A. 1st B. 12th C. 6th D. 3rd
6th
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Pterygium is subconjuctival fibrobasvular growth encroaching on the cornea REF:Refer Khurana 6th edition page number 87
Ophthalmology
Conjunctiva
Pterygium is A. An inflammatory response B. A connective tissue disorder C. An infection D. Assosciated with vitamin A deficiency
An inflammatory response
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MMR vaccine and IPV each contains less than 25 mg of neomycin per dose . Persons who are known to be allergic to neomycin should be closely observed after vaccination so that any allergic reaction can be treated at once.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Impoant facts in Immunization, Newer Vaccines
Neomycin is used in which of the following vaccines to prevent bacterial contamination? A. OPV and BCG B. MMR and IPV C. DPT and HPV D. Hib and HPV
MMR and IPV
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Ans. (a) Tc-99 radionuclide scanRef: Sabiston 19th edition, Pages 1268-1270* Tc99m radionuclide scan is based on the presence of ectopic gastric mucosa.* The sensitivity of the scan can be increased by giving glucagon, pentagastrin or cimetidine.
Surgery
Small & Large Intestine
Ectopic mucosa of Meckel's diverticulum is diagnosed by: A. Tc-99 radionuclide scan B. Angiography C. CT D. Endoscopy
Tc-99 radionuclide scan
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The considerably increased volume of cervical secretions within the vagina during pregnancy consists of a somewhat thick, white discharge. The pH is acidic, varying from 3.5 to 6. This results from increased production of lactic acid from glycogen in the vaginal epithelium by the action of Lactobacillus acidophilus. The number of Lactobacilli also increase.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis of Pregnancy
Vaginal changes in normal pregnancy show: A. High pH B. Increased lactobacilli C. Increased anaerobic bacteria D. Decrease in glycogen contents
Increased lactobacilli
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o Biopsy of hair follicle of base of neck is more sensitive and considered as the best sample for direct florescent antibody (DFA) test done for antemoem diagnosis of Rabies. o Corneal smears, biopsy from hair follicle from the nape of the neck, and saliva are the used specimens for antemoem diagnosis of rabies. o Corneal impression smear is only 30% sensitive, mainly it is positive in late stage. o The brain biopsy of the dead animal is the specimen of choice for postmoem diagnosis of rabies.
Microbiology
Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)
Best specimen for rabies diagnosis in living person: A. Corneal smear B. CSF C. Biopsy of hair follicle of neck D. Brain biopsy
Biopsy of hair follicle of neck
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Ans: A (Mongols) Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010. Pg: 54Explanation:Cephalic Index =Maximum breadth of skull Maximum length of skttllx 100The length and breadth are measured by calipers between both parietal eminences, between glabella and external occipital protuberance, and not by measuring tapeThe skull of an Indian is Caucasian with a few Negroid charactersWith skull measurements, race can be determined in 85% = 90% of casesRacial difference in the skullRaceType of SkullCephalic IndexPure AryansAboriginesNegroesDolicocephalic (long headed)70 - 75EuropeansChineseMesati-cephalic (Medium headed)75 - 80MongolianBrachy-cephalic (Short headed)80-85
Forensic Medicine
Misc.
Cephalic Index of 80-85 is seen in: A. Mongols B. Chinese C. European D. Negroid
Mongols
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Seroepidemiological studies suggest an association between several microbes and coronary heart disease. Microbes or their structural components are found in atherosclerotic plaques, but the only intact microbes commonly present are herpes viruses and Chlamydia pneumoniae. These agents are able to initiate and accelerate atherosclerosis in animal models. If they cause persistent infection in the vessel wall, they can directly promote a proinflammatory, procoagulant, and proatherogenic environment.
Pathology
null
The infective agent causing atherosclerosis - A. M. pneumoniae B. C. Pneumoniae C. H influenza D. C. Diptheriae
C. Pneumoniae
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rectus sheath Rectus sheath* It is an aponeurotic sheath enclosing rectus abdominis muscle formed by aponeuroses of the three flat abdominal muscles. Rectus sheath has two walls - (i) anterior and (ii) posterior.* Anterior wall is complete and its composition is variable as follows -i) Above costal margin :- Formed by external oblique aponeurosis.ii) Between costal margin and arcuate line Formed by external oblique aponeurosis and anterior lamina of aponeurosis of internal oblique.iii) Below arcuate line:- Aponeurosis of all three muscles (external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis). The oponeurosis of internal oblique and transversus abdominis fuse, but the external oblique neurosis remains separate.* Posterior wall is incomplete and is deficient above the costal margin and below arcuate linei) Above costal margin :- Deficient and rectus abdominis rests directly on 5th, 6th and 7th costal cartilages.ii) Between costal margin and arcute line Formed by posterior lamina of aponeurosis of internal oblique and aponeurosis of transversus abdominis.iii) Below arcuate line :- Deficient and the rectus muscles rests on the fascia transversalis.* Contents of rectus sheathi) Muscles Rectus abdominis, pyramidalis.ii) Arteries:- Superior epigastric artery (a branch of internal thoracic) which anastomoses with inferior epigastric artery (a branch of external iliac).iii) Veins Superior epigastric and inferior epigastric veins.iv) Nerves Terminal parts of lower six thoracic nerves (lower 5 intercostal and subcostal nerves).* Three aponeurotic layers forming rectus sheath of both sides interlace with each other to form a tendinous raphe, Linea alba. It extends from xiphoid process to pubic symphysis. Linea alba is narrow and indistinct below the umblicus, as two recti lie in close contact. Linea alba broaden out above the level of umblicus.
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
Fascia covering the rectus abdominis muscle is- A. Rectus Sheath B. Peritoneum C. Scarpa's Fascia D. Buck's Fascia
Rectus Sheath
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Ans: D i.e. Milk Foodstuff and vitamin-D content Fish fat contains 5-30 microgram/100 gram of vitamin D Egg contains 1.25-1.5 microgram/100 gram of vitamin D Halibut liver oil contains 500-10,000 microgram/100 gram of vitamin D Milk has 0.1 microgram/100 gram
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Vitamin D is not found in sufficient quantities in: March 2012 A. Fish fat B. Egg C. Halibut liver oil D. Milk
Milk
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mycetoma o Mycetoma are chronic, slowly progressive infections of the subcutaneous tissue usually of the foot caused by a number of Actinomycetes and filamentous fungi.o The disease usually begins as a small subcutaneous swelling of the foot, which enlarges, burrowing into deeper tissues and tracking to the surface as multiple sinuses discharging viscid, seropurulent fluid containing granules.
Microbiology
Actinomycetes
A patient with sulphur granules discharging from sinus, suggestive of infection with - A. Staphylococcus B. H ducryei C. Mycetoma D. Sporotrichosis
Mycetoma
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Smoking alters estrogen metabolism and lowers physiologically active serum estrogen levels. This explains lower risk of leiomyoma formation in smokers.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Smoking has which effect on Uterine leiomyoma formation A. Higher risk of fibroid uterus B. Lowers risk of leiomyoma formation C. No change compared to general population D. Higher risk of fibroid uterus in postmenopausal women
Lowers risk of leiomyoma formation
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Hydrocoisone REr: Katzung 9th edition page 648, KDT 6th edition page 283 "Acute Adrenal Insufficiency: Hydrocoisone sodium succinate 100 mg IV every 8 hourly is REF: Katzung given until the patient is stable" "In Acute adrenal insufficiency, Hydrocoisone or Dexamethasone are given IV first as bolus & then as infusion"
Pharmacology
null
Coicosteroid of choice in Acute Adrenal Insufficiency is? A. Fludrocoisone B. Hydrocoisone C. Dexamethasone D. Prednisolone
Hydrocoisone
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clubbing "Clinical indicators of clubbing are Lovibond profile sign and curth s modified profile sign"o Lovibond angle is the angle located at the junction between the nail plate and proximal nail fold. It is normally less than 160deg. In clubbing, the angle exceeds 180deg (Lovibond profile sign).
Skin
General
Lovibond profile sign is seen in - A. Koilonychias B. Platynochia C. Clubbing D. Onycholysis
Clubbing
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Transthoracic pressure Transthoracic compliance : Alveolar pressure - Atmospheric pressure
Physiology
JIPMER 2018
Transthoracic compliance formula A. C = Vt x RR /PEEP B. C= V/Alv p - atmospheric pressure C. C = Vt/Pplt - PEEP D. C = Vt/Pk - Pplt
C= V/Alv p - atmospheric pressure
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.Complications of pseudocyst--* Rupture--3% - into bowel or peritoneum * Infection, commonest--20% * Bleeding from the splenic vessels--7% * Cholangitis * Duodenal obstruction * Poal/splenic vein thrombosis and segmental poal hypeension * Cholestasis due to CBD block ref:SRB&;S manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 623
Surgery
G.I.T
Commonest complication of Pseudocyst of the pancreas is A. Commonest into peritoneum B. Rupture into colon C. Hemorrhage D. Infection
Infection
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bestiality o Section 377 IPC defines unnatural sexual offences as sexual intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman or animal and lays down punishment for the same. These offences are sodomy, buccal coitus, tribadism (lesbianism), and bestiality'.Sodomyo Sodomy is sexual intercourse through anus. It is of two types : Homosexual and Heterosexual. In Homosexual, it is done by a male on another male. Heterosexual sodomy is anal intercourse with a women. The person who does the act is knowm as active agent and the person, on wrhom the act is done, is known as passive agent. If the passive agent is adult/elderly the act is knowTi as Gerontophilia. If the passive agent in sodomy is a child, act is called Paederasty, the passive agent is labelled as catamite, and the active agent is known as Paedophile,o Examination findings of sodomy areIn active agent: (i) Peculiar smell of anal gland secretion on penis, (ii) Fecal soiling, lubricant (if used) and blood on penis, (iii) Penis shaft is elongated and constricted in habitual sodomites with consequent twisting/ angulation of urethra, (iv) Abrasions on prepuce and glans penis, tearing of frenulum, swelling and redness of penis.In passive agent: Passive agent may beHabitual: (i) Funnel shaped anus with deeply situated ana! opening, (ii) Dilatation and laxity of anal sphincter, (iii) Shaved anal skin, (iv) Anal fissures and piles, (v) Lateral buttock truction test positive: On applying lateral traction on anus in normal person, there will be reflex contraction of anus, but in habitual sodomine there is comple relaxation of sphincter with dilatation of opening.Non-habitual (forcibly victimized) : (i) Presence ofsemen in anus is the only confirmatery evidence, (ii) Signs of violence around anus, i.e. abrasions, fisures, contusion or triangular bruised tear of posterior part of anus (in sudden violence).Other unnatural sexual offenceso Bestiality: is the sexual intercourse by a human being with a lower animal.o Tribadism (Lesbianism or female homosexuality): Sexual gratification of a women is obtained by another woman by kissing, body contact, manipulation of breast and genitalia. Active partner is called dyke or butch and the passive agent is called femme. This is not an offence in India.o Buccal coitus (coitus per as/sin of gomorrah): In this, the male organ is introduced into mouth, usually of a young child. Fellatio is oral stimulation of penis by male or female. Cunnilingus is oral stimulation of female genitals.
Forensic Medicine
Sexual Offenses and Dowry Death
Sexual intercourse by a human being with a lower animalis- A. Bestiality B. Cunnilingus C. Tribadism D. Sin ofgomorrah
Bestiality
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Transverse diameters of fetal skull in mechanism of labor are: Biparietal diameter: 9.5cm Super-subparietal: 8.5cm Bitemporal: 8cm Bimastoid: 7.5cm Reference: D C Dutta Textbook of Obstetrics 7th edition,page 85
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
The widest transverse diameter of the fetal skull is : A. Biparietal diameter B. Occipito-frontal diameter C. Bitemporal diameter D. Suboccipito-frontal diameter
Biparietal diameter
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(c) Streptomycin(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2371)Streptomycin is predominantly vestibulotoxic. In very high doses they can affect the cochlear system also, leading to hearing loss and tinnitus.
ENT
Miscellaneous Ear
A patient on ATT develops tinnitus and hearing loss due to: A. Isoniazid B. Pyrazinamide C. Streptomycin D. Rifampicin
Streptomycin
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Shoer, more practical regimens staing later in pregnancy have been shown to reduce peripaum transmission by 40-50%. Ref: Aicle: Prevention of Mother-to-Child Transmission of HIV: Challenges for The Current Decade, 2001, Marie-Louise Newell1 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By Dutta, 6th Edition, Pages 300-302 ; Williams Obstetrics, 21st Edition, Page 1502 ; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 15th Edition, Pages 1858, 1901
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
The sho retroviral regime administration in the peripaum period decreases the risk of veical transmission by: A. 30% B. 50% C. 65% D. 75%
50%
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Ans. is'd'i.e., Von Zumbusch typeVon Zumbusch type of pustular psoriasis is the suddenly developing most serious type, characterized by severe systemic upset, swinging pyrexia, ahralgia and high polymorphonuclear lymphocytes.The skin first becomes erythrodermic and then develops sheets of sterile pustules over trunk and limbs.Pustules become confluent to from "lakes of pus".
Skin
null
Most malignant type of pustular psoriasis is ? A. Palmo - planter pustolosis B. Acrodermatitis continua C. Pustular bacterids D. Von Zumbusch type
Von Zumbusch type
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cubitus varus Cubitus yarns Cubitus varus, also known as a "gunstock deformity", is the most common complication of supracondylar fracture humerus, due to malunion. It is called gunstock because the deformity resembles a rifle gunstock. The three static deformities of cubitus varus are (all with respect to distal fragment):-i) Extension, ii) Medial rotation, iii) Varus (corona! tilt). All these three components should be corrected during the initial reduction of the fracture otherwise cubitus varus deformity results. Treatment of cubitus varus Cubitus varus is only a cosmatic deformity with no functional impairment of the elbow. Treatment of choice is corrective supracondylar osteotomy. Surgery is deferred until skeletal maturity for the fear of recurrence of deformity, if surgery is done before skeletal maturity. Osteotomy methods are :- Lateral close wedge osteotomy (French or modified French) Medial open wedge osteotomy (King's osteotomy) Derotation osteotomy
Surgery
null
French osteotomy is used in treatment of ? A. Cubitus varus B. Cubitus valgus C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga
Cubitus varus
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Renal (kidney) carcinoma       →       Osteolytic bone metastasis. Breast and lung (bronchus)     →       Mixed osteolytic - Osteoblastic Prostate carcinoma                →       Osteoblastic metastasis
Orthopaedics
null
Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristics of primary malignancy of - A. Kidney B. Bronchus C. Breast D. Prostate
Kidney
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(Ref: KDT 6/e p279) Coicosteroids induce the synthesis of lipocoins that inhibit the enzyme phospholipase A2.
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
Hydrocoisone acts as an anti-inflammatory agent because of induction of the synthesis of which of the following protein? A. Heat shock protein 90 B. Inhibin C. Transcoin D. Lipocoin
Lipocoin
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Poor urinary stream in 3 years old boy suggests urinary tract obstruction (usually intravesical) and the most common cause of obstructive uropathy in a male child is posterior urethral valve. Posterior urethral valve These are symmetrical folds of urothelium extending distally from prostatic urethra to external urinary sphincter. It most commonly lies just distal to the verumontanum or at the verumontanum* It occurs only in males. It behaves as flap valves so, although urine does not flow normally a urethral catheter can be passed without difficulty. Sometimes, the valves are incomplete and the patient remains without symptoms until adolescence or adulthood. Approximately 30% of patients experience end stage renal disease Vesicoureteral reflux occurs in 50% of patients. Diagnosis is made by voiding cystourethrogram* & endoscopy Both of these investigations clearly depict the site of obstruction. The diagnosis can be established prenatally by ultrasound.* Management First, a small polyethene feeding tube is inseed in the bladder and left for several days. Then fuher management is done according to serum creatinine level. with normal serum creatinine - transurethral ablation of the valve leaflets. * With increased serum creatinine and the worsening of condition - vesicostomy to bypass the obstruction and when normal creatinine levels are achieved, transurethral ablation is done. Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e 1362
Anatomy
Urology
A three years old boy presents with the poor urinary stream. Most likely cause is A. Stricture urethra B. Neurogenic bladder C. Urethral calculus D. Posterior urethral valve
Posterior urethral valve
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Ans: A (% of burn area* body wt*4) Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics. 19th EditionExplanation:Parkland's FormulaTotal percentage body surface area x weight (kg) x 4 = volume (ml)Half this volume is given in the first 8 hours, and the second half is given in the next 16 hours
Pediatrics
Fluid and Electrolyte Treatment of Specific Disorders
Parkland formula is: (Repeat) A. %of burn area*body wt*4 B. %of burn area*body wt / 4 C. %of burn area*body surface area*4 D. %of burn area*body surface area / 4
%of burn area*body wt*4
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Primary prevention Immunization is a specific protection type of primary prevention
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Immunization is - A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Teiary prevention D. Disability limitation
Primary prevention
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Duplication of ureter * Reflux of the urine from one limb of the collecting system to the other limb, rather than down towards the bladder is called yo-yo reflux (saddle reflux)* Cause: Duplication of ureters, partial duplication of ureters, duplicate renal pelvis* Another explanation of yo-yo reflux is the pressure gradient between two ureteric segments. The pressure of the lower moiety is generally higher than the upper moiety and therefore the urine generally refluxes from the lower moiety to the upper moiety* Duplication of the upper collecting system is one of the most common of renal anomalies* Complete duplication is associated with ectopic ureter, ureterocele or vesicoureteral reflux.* The incomplete duplication of the upper collecting system rarely causes urinary symptoms and usually does not carry clinically importance
Surgery
Urinary Tract
Yoyo reflux - A. Duplication of ureter B. Polycystic Kidney C. Mellutary sponge Kidney D. Pseudo kidney
Duplication of ureter
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Ecological study [Ref: Park, 21/e p59 (19/e, p58) www.ucel.ac.uk.rlos/specs/rlo_observational_study.doc; Repeat Nov 10 & Nov 06 This is an example of ecological study. An ecological study is a type of Observational study where information is collected on a group (or population) rather than on individual members and then analyzed. Here the association between a summary measure of sale of antiarrythmic drugs (risk factor) and summary measure of deaths due to asthma (outcome) is studied. For detailed explanation see Nov10
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
In a study in UK, an association was found between sale of antiarrythmic drug and an increase in deaths due to asthma. This is an example of A. Ecological study B. Coho study C. Case reference study D. Experimental study
Ecological study
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Amoebic liver abscess The abscess is usually found in the right hepatic lobe. There may not be associated diarrhoea. Early symptoms may be only local discomfo and malaise; later, a swinging temperature and sweating may develop, usually without marked systemic symptoms or signs. An enlarged, tender liver, cough and pain in the right shoulder are characteristic but symptoms may remain vague and signs minimal. A large abscess may penetrate the diaphragm, rupturing into the lung, and may be coughed up through a hepatobronchial fistula. Rupture into the pleural or peritoneal cavity, or rupture of a left lobe abscess in the pericardial sac, is less common but more serious. Investigations The stool and any exudate should undergo prompt microscopic examination for motile trophozoites containing red blood cells. Movements cease rapidly as the stool preparation cools. Several stools may need to be examined in chronic amoebiasis before cysts are found. Sigmoidoscopy may reveal typical flask-shaped ulcers, which should be scraped and examined immediately for E. histolytica. In endemic areas, one-third of the population are symptomless passers of amoebic cysts. An amoebic abscess of the liver is suspected on clinical grounds; there is often a neutrophil leucocytosis and a raised right hemidiaphragm on chest X-ray. Confirmation is by ultrasonic scanning. Aspirated pus from an amoebic abscess has the characteristic chocolate-brown appearance but only rarely contains free amoebae . Serum antibodies are detectable by immunofluorescence in over 95% of patients with hepatic amoebiasis and intestina amoeboma, but in only about 60% of dysenteric amoebiasis. DNA detection by PCR has been shown to be useful in diagnosis of E. histolytica infections but is not generally available Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 287
Medicine
G.I.T
A young patient presents to the emergency depament with fever and right upper quadrant pain Clinical examination reveals obvious hepatomegaly but there is no jaundice. Ultrasound reveals a solitary, homogeneous, hypoechoic lesion in the right lobe measuring 5 cm 5 cm 4 cm. Test for hydatid disease were negative. Which of the following is the best recommendation for initial treatment - A. Multiple Aspirations and antiamoebies/antibiotics B. Catheter drainage and antiamoebics/ antibiotics C. Antiamoebics/ antibiotics alone D. Hepatectomy followed by antiamobics/ antibiotics
Antiamoebics/ antibiotics alone
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Distribution of data is symmetrical Standard normal curveo It is also known as bell curve or Gaussian distribution.o The shape of the curve is like a bell - bell shaped curve.o The data are distributed symmetrically on either side of a central value.o Normal distribution curve looks symmetrical in the dispersion with the largest frequencies in the middle score and tapering down of frequencies towards the highest as well as the lowest score - No tail.o Normal distribution curve is based on mean and standard deviation.o Mean median and mode all coincide - No skew,o Mean = median = mode = 0o Total area of curve is 1.o Its standard deviation is 1.o Variance is 1.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Measures of Central Tendency and Distribution
Normal curve - A. Distribution of data is symmetrical B. Mean > Mode C. Mode > Mean D. Median > Mean
Distribution of data is symmetrical
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Ans. is 'a' . Organic matter & Bacteria. "The strength of sewage is expressed in terms ofBiochemical oxygen demandChemical oxygen demandsSuspended solids demand""Biochemical Oxygen demand -It is the most important test done on sewage. It is defined as the amount of oxygen absorbed by a sample of sewage during a specified period, generally 5 days, at a specified temperature, generally 20 deg. G, for the aerobic destruction or use by organic matter and living organisms. BOD value ranges from about 1 mg per litre for natural waters to about 300 mg per litre for untreated domestic sewage. If the BOD is 300 mg/I and above, sewage is said to be strong ; if it is 100 mg/l, it is said to be weak."
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and Health
Biochemical oxygen demand is determined by A. Oranic matter and bacteria B. Oxygen content C. Alage content in water D. Agriculture fertiliser content in water.
Oranic matter and bacteria
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Malignant tumor arise from pleuripotent mesenchymal cells , seen in childrens below 15yrs of age and common in adults Ref : ak khurana 6th edition
Ophthalmology
Tumors
Most common orbital tumor in children- A. Rhabdomyosarcoma B. Retinoblastoma C. Melanoma D. Chloroma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
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Both the omental bursa and the greater omentum are derived from the dorsal mesogastrium, which is the mesentery of the stomach region.Must know:The dorsal mesoduodenum is the mesentery of the developing duodenum, which later disappears so that the duodenum and pancreas come to lie retroperitoneally.The pericardioperitoneal canal embryologically connects the thoracic and peritoneal canals. The pleuropericardial membranes become the pericardium and contribute to the diaphragm. Ref: Gray's Basic Anatomy: With Student Consult Online Access - Page 151
Anatomy
null
The greater omentum is derived from which of the following embryonic structures? A. Dorsal mesoduodenum B. Dorsal mesogastrium C. Pericardioperitoneal canal D. Pleuropericardial membranes
Dorsal mesogastrium
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SA node acts as pacemaker because of slow & spontaneous depolarization (due to slow influx of Na (If) causing || in prepotential). Repolarisation is rapid - due to RAPID EFFLUX OF K+ Automaticity is also provided by AV node but recovery after every impulse is fastest in SA node. Every pa of the hea has its own rhythmicity, but they follows the rhythm of SA-node because it has fastest rate and the main reason is Overdrive suppression .
Physiology
Conducting System of Hea
SA node is the pacemaker, under normal conditions, due to which of the following:- A. Slow depolarization, slow repolarization B. Rapid depolarization, rapid repolarization C. Slow depolarization, early repolarization D. Rapid depolarization, delayed repolarization
Slow depolarization, early repolarization
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By 6-12 months, only a trace is present. Amongs the given options, 10% is the minimum and therefore the best answer.
Pediatrics
null
% of HbF in a 6 month old infant is – A. 10 B. 30 C. 50 D. 60
10
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The is a case, of a symptomatic aneurysm suggested by pain as well as a fusiform dilatation of the aoa. 95% of the abdominal aneurysms are due to atherosclerosis. Ref: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, Page 918 and 23rd Edition, Page 727.
Surgery
null
An elderly man presents with h/o abdomianl pain. He is found to have a fusiform dilatation of the descending aoa. Likely cause is: A. Trauma B. Atherosclerosis C. Right ventricular failure D. Syphilitic aoitis
Atherosclerosis
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anti-ds DNA antibody Autoantibodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)AntibodyPrevalence%Antigen RecognizedClinical Utilityo Antinuclear antibodies98Multiple nuclearBest screening test; repeated negative tests make SLE unlikelyo Anti-dsDNA70DNA (double-stranded)High titers are SLE-specific and in some patients correlate with disease activity, nephritis, vasculitiso Anti-Sm25Protein complexed to 6 species of nuclear U1 RNASpecific for SLE; no definite clinical correlations; most patients also have anti-RNP; more common in blacks and Asians than whiteso Anti-RNP40Protein complexed to U1 RNAyNot specific for SLE; high titers associated with syndromes that have overlap features of several rheumatic syndromes including SLE; more common in blacks than whiteso Anti-Ro (SS-A)30Protein complexed to hY RNA, primarily 60 kDa and 52 kDaNot specific for SLE; associated with sicca syndrome, predisposes to subacute cutaneous lupus, and to neonatal lupus with congenital heart block; associated with decreased risk for nephritiso Anti-La (SS-B)1047-kDa protein complexed to hY RNAUsually associated with anti-Ro; associated with decreased risk for nephritiso Anti hi stone70Histones associated with DNA (in nucleo- some, chromatin)More frequent in durg-induced lupus than in SLEo Antiphospholipid50Phospholipids, (3, glycoprotein 1 cofactor. prothrombinThree tests available - ELISAs for cardiolipin and (LG 1, sensitive prothrombin time (DRVVT); predisposes to clotting, fetal loss, thrombocytopeniao Antiervthrocyte60Eiythrocyte membraneMeasured as direct Coombs' test; a small proportion develops overt hemolysiso Antiplatelet30Surface and altered cytoplasmic antigens on plateletsAssociated with thrombocytopenia but sensitivity and specificity are not good; this is not a useful clinical testo Antineuronal (includes anti-glutamate receptor)60Neuronal and lympho-In some series a positive test in CSF correlates with cyte surface antigens active CNS lupuso Antiribosomal P20Protein in ribosomesIn some series a positive test in serum correlates with depression or psychosis due to CNS lupus
Medicine
SLE
Which of the following antibodies correlates with disease activity for S.L.E - A. Anti Smith antibody B. Anti dS DNA antibody C. Anti Histone antibody D. Anti Rho
Anti dS DNA antibody
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lignocaine - 5%oDose of lignocaine for spinal anesthesia is 5% solution diluted in 7.5% dextroseoBupivacaine dose for spinal anesthesia is 0.75% solution diluted in 8.25% dextroseLocal Anesthetic Dosing for Spinal Anesthesia Suggested Dose (mg)Duration of Effect (Minutes)AnesthaticUsual ConcentrationLower extremities, perineumUpper abdomenLocal anesthetic without epinephrineLocal anesthetic with epinephrineLidocaine5% in dextrose30-5075-10060-7575-90Bupivacaine0.75% in dextrose5-1012-1790-120100-150Ropivacaine0.25-1.0%8-128-128-1216-1890-120Tetracaine0.5% - 1% in dextrose4-810-1690-120120-140*. Epinephrine concentration 1:200,000, or 5mg/mL.
Anaesthesia
Local and Regional Anesthesia
Dose of local anesthesia for spinal is/are? A. Lignocaine -1% B. Lignocaine - 2.5% C. Lignocaine - 5% D. Bupivacaine - 0.5%
Lignocaine - 5%
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Answer is A (Lung perfusion -- ventilation scan): The clinical picture depicted in the question is suggestive of a case of pulmonary thromboembolism. As the patient has a high clinical likelihood, the first investigation should be a non invasive imaging modality in accordance with the diagnostic strategy for PTE outlined in Harrison's textbook. CT of the chest with intravenous contrast (Multidetector CT) is the imaging test of choice but it has not been provided amongst the options. As CT scan of the chest is not provided amongst the options, a Lung Ventilation Perfusion Scan is the modality of choice. Diagnostic Strategy in cases of suspected Pulmonary Thromboembolism An elderly man on bed rest for past 10 days: predisposition for deep vein thrombosis. (immobilization) Complaints of breathlessness and chest pain: indicative of pulmonary embolisation. (A chest X-Ray in patient with PTE may well be normal or near normal - Harrison's 15th/1510) Remember: Most specific test for establishing a diagnosis of pulmonary thromboembolism is selective pulmonary angiographyQ
Medicine
null
A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest X-ray is normal. The next investigation should be: A. Lung ventilation-perfusion scan B. Pulmonary aeriography C. Pulmonary venous angiography D. Echocardiography
Lung ventilation-perfusion scan
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Ans. is'b'i.e., Kaposi sarcomaElectron-beam radiation therapy is the most common modality employed for the treatment of localized KS.
Radiology
null
Electron beam therapy is used for which tumor ? A. Renal carcinoma B. Kaposi sarcoma C. Hepatic carcinoma D. AML
Kaposi sarcoma
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Relaxin is a peptide hormone. deg It is produced by the ovarydeg to be specific by the corpus luteum of pregnancydeg If corpus luteum is in options, it should be the answer of choice. It has also been identified in : - placentadeg - deciduadeg - choriondeg It is not detected i 11-11 -Os lel s -es, t women.deg Levels of Relaxin rise during 1st trimester when corpus luteum is dominant and declines in the second trimester. This suggests a role in maintaining early pregnancy. deg In animals, relaxin softens the cervix, inhibits uterine contractions and relaxes p.iblic symphisis.deg It has no effect on prolactin secretion but enhances growth hormone secretion by the pituitary.deg
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
The probable source of relaxin is : A. Ovary B. Adrenal coex C. Liver D. Baholins gland
Baholins gland
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Localised infection An abscess may present with persistent abdominal pain, focal tenderness and a spiking fever. The patient may have a prolonged ileus. If the abscess is deep-seated these symptoms may be absent. The patient will have a neutrophilic leucocytosis and may have positive blood cultures. An ultrasound or CT scan of the abdomen should identify any suspicious collectionand will identify a subphrenic abscess, which can otherwise be difficult to find and aspiration is done under ultrasound Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 297
Surgery
Urology
Post operative abscess treatment of choice A. Hydration B. IV antibiotics C. Image guided aspiration D. Reexploration
Image guided aspiration
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pregnancy The normal healthy adult is in "nitrogen balance or equilibrium". That is the amount of nitrogen ingested in the diet over a given period of time is equals that excreted in the urine and feces as excretory products.Positive nitrogen balance means amount of nitrogen taken in and retained exceeds that excreted. Positive nitrogen balance is seen in ?PregnancyRecovery phase of trama/surgeryInfancy and childhoodNegative nitrogen balance is seen in :StarvationInfectionBurnsAcute stressImmediately after trauma/surgery Hormones causing positive nitrogen balance - GH, insulin, testosteroneHormone causing negative nitrogen balance - Glucocoicoids
Biochemistry
null
Positive nitrogen balance is seen in ? A. Trauma B. Burns C. Pregnancy D. Stress
Pregnancy
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Sub Occipitofrontal diameter is measured from below the occipital protuberance to the centre of the sinciput. It measures 10cm. It is the diameter which distends the vulva in a normal veex presentation. Diameters of fetal skull: Occipitofrontal: It follows a line extending from a point just above the root of the nose to the most prominent poion of the occipital bone. 11.5cm Biparietal : It is the greatest transverse diameter of the head, which extends from one parietal boss to the other. 9.5cm. Bitemporal: It is the greatest distance between the two temporal sutures. 8cm. Occipitomental: It extends from the chin to the most prominent poion of the occiput. 12.5cm. Suboccipitobregmatic: It follows a line drawn from the middle of the large fontanel to the undersurface of the occipital bone just where it joins the neck. 9.5cm. Ref: Midwifery By Pauline M. Sellers pag 111. , Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 4. Fetal Growth and Development. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Which of the measurement correlates with the sub occipitofrontal diameter of fetal skull? A. 9.4 cm B. 10 cm C. 11.3 cm D. 12 cm
10 cm
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Ans. (b) CMV esophagitisEndoscopy showed shallow ulcera at lower end of esophagusHistopathology shows large eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion and multiple small cytoplasmic inclusions
Pathology
G.I.T.
45-year-old male complained of dysphagia. On investigation, he was HIV positive. He underwent endoscopy and biopsy. Endoscopy findings and histological findings are suggestive of? A. Herpes B. CMV C. Candida D. Pseudomonas
CMV
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Nitrates level >50 increases the risk of infantile methaemoglobinaemia. Ref: Park's textbook of PSM 25th edition, pg 783
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
Nitrates in excess of ----mg/L may cause infantile methaemoglobinemia A. 15 B. 25 C. 35 D. 45
45
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The definitive diagnosis of rabies in humans is based on the finding of Negri bodies, which are cytoplasmic inclusions in the nerve cells of the spinal cord and brain, especially in the hippocampus. Negri bodies are eosinophilic and generally spherical in shape; several may appear in a given cell. Negri bodies, although pathognomonic for rabies, are not found in all cases of the disease. Also Know: The rabies virus is a bullet-shaped, enveloped, RNA virus, 180 by 70 nm, of the Lyssavirus genus within the Rhabdovirus family. Ref:Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 17. Rabies. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds),Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e
Microbiology
null
The presence of Negri inclusion bodies in host cells is characteristic of? A. Mumps B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Rabies D. Congenital rubella
Rabies
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ENac (Epithelial sodium channel)*ENac is a sodium transpo channel that is produced in the apical surface of all exocrine epithelial cells (All tracts and ducts)*The channel absorbs sodium from the luminal secretions and sent it back to the circulation thus maintaining the sodium level in blood and hence normal blood pressure.*Mutation of this ENaC channel will cause loss of sodium through luminal secretions and causes hyponatremia and hypovolemia. This in turn stimulates Renin angiotensin system causing hypeension through aldosterone. This condition is called "Liddle syndrome"*ENac is downregulated by CFTR gene in normal individuals. In cystic fibrosis, loss of CFTR causes increased expression of ENaC in all the tracts and ducts except sweat ducts. In sweat ducts, the function of ENaC channel is impaired causing "salty sweat" ( Ref: Robbins 8/e p493)
Pathology
Urinary tract
ENaC mutation is associated with A. Liddle syndrome B. Gordon syndrome C. Baer syndrome D. Giltleman syndrome
Liddle syndrome
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Von Graefe's sign - upper eye lid lags behind the eyeball when the patient looks down. Stellwag's sign - Staring look with infrequent blinking of eyes and widening of palpebral fissure. Moebius sign - Inability to converge eyeball Joffroy's sign - Absence of wrinkling of forehead when the patient looks upwards with face inclined downwards. Ref: Das, 5th Edition, Page 291.
Surgery
null
A patient with a nodular thyroid swelling is suspected to have hypehyroidism. On examination there was absence of wrinkling on forehead when looking upwards with face inclined downwards. Which term denote this sign? A. Von Graefe's sign B. Joffrey's sign C. Stellwag's sign D. Moebius sign
Joffrey's sign
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Most dependent Bronchopulmonary segment in supine position is Right Superior segment.
Anatomy
null
Most dependent Bronchopulmonary segment in supine position is A. Left Superior segment B. Right Superior segment C. Right posterior basal segment D. Left posterior basal segment
Right Superior segment
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According to Sec. 304- B IPC, where the death of a woman is caused by burns or bodily injury or occurs under abnormal circumstances within seven years of her marriage and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any relative of her husband for or in connection with any demand for dowry such death shall be called "dowry death" and such husband or relative shall be deemed to have caused her death. The imprisonment shall be punishment less than 7 years but may extend to life imprisonment. The usual defence is either suicide or accidental death. Inquest is usually done by a Magistrate or police officer not below rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police and autopsy by two doctors. Ref: Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 135.
Forensic Medicine
Medico legal procedures
Dowry deaths under IPC act - A. 304A B. 304B C. 420 D. 498
304B
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Diaphragmatic hernia in a neonate is evidenced by the presence of bowels in the thorax, characterised by multiple air-filled structures. The pleuro-peritoneal canal is a defect in the diaphragm which allows the contents of the abdomen to enter the thorax. The mediastinal structures are pushed to the opposite side leading to the contralateral mediastinal shift. Hernia is on the left side in 90% of the cases. Poor prognosis depends upon the presence of stomach in the thorax and the degree of hypoplasia of the lungs. Ref: Radiological Imaging of the Neonatal Chest By Veronica B. Donoghue, Per G. Bjornstad, 2007, Pages 157-158 ; Pediatric Radiological Signs, Volume 1 By Michael Grunebaum, Page 283 ; Radiological Imaging of the Neonatal Chest By Veronica B. Donoghue, 2nd Edition, Page 104.
Radiology
null
A newborn male child presents with respiratory distress in the neonatal unit. His X-ray shows left hemithorax with multiple air-filled structures and mediastinal shift to the right. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Streptococcal Pneumonia C. Congenital Tumour of Lungs D. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
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Ans. is 'b' Goodpasture syndrome Goodpasture syndromeo Goodpasture syndrome is a rare condition characterized by rapid destruction of the kidney and diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage.o It is an autoimmune disease characterized by presence of circulating autoantibodies targeted against basement membrane oflung and kidney.o These antibodies are directed against the noncollagenous domain of the a-3 chain of type IV collegen (collegen of basement membrane).o The antibodies initiate an inflammatory destruction of the basement membrane in kidney glomeruli and lung alveoli.o In Goodpasture syndrome, immune reaction is ty pe II hypersensitivity.Morphological changesLungo The lungs are heavy, with areas of red brown consolidation.o There is focal necrosis of alveolar walls associated with intraalveolar hemorrhages.o Alveoli contain hemosiderin-laden macrophages.o Linear deposits of immunoglobulins along the basement membranes of the septal walls.Kidneyo Diffuse proliferative rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis,o Focal necrotizing lesion and crescents in >50% of glomeruli.o Linear deposits of immunoglobulins and complement along glomerular basement membrane.Clinical manifestationso Occur typically in young males.o Most cases begin clinically with respiratory' symptoms, principally hemoptysis.o Soon, manifestations of glomerulonephritis appear and typically present as nephritic syndrome - hematuria, nephritic urinary- sediment, subnephrotic proteinuria, rapidly progressive renal failure,o The common cause of death is renal failure.
Pathology
Pulmonary Diseases of Vascular Origin
Alveolar hemorrhage and hemosiderin laden macrophages - A. Sarcoidosis B. Goodpasture syndrome C. Bronchial pneumonia D. Bronchieactasis
Goodpasture syndrome
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Ans. d (60 hrs ) (Ref. Park Textbook of PSM 22nd/pg. 759) Answer is d). because the question includes overtime, so 60 hours/week. If including overtime was not mentioned then it should be 48 hours/week. With 9 hours/day with rest for at least Vz hour after continuous 5 hours. "......But the option in exam was 60 yrs....... certainly a misprint....we consider option as 60 hrs....so ans. is d........" FACTORY ACT- 1948: # Applicable to whole India except Jammu & Kashmir. # Scope - establishment >10 workers where power is used and > 20 where power is not used. # Minimum 500 cu.ft of space for each worker. Factories before 1948 minimum 350 cu.ft. # Prohibit employment <14 years. 15 to 18 are called adolescents; they should be dully certified by certifying surgeon. They are allowed to work only between 6 am to 7 pm. # Hours of work - max 48 hours/week. Including overtime 60 hours/week. # Leave with wage - after 12 months of continuous service- adult 1 day for 20 days of work, children 1 day for 15 days. Maximum accumulated leave - adult 30 days. Children 40 days. # Notifiable diseases - byssinosis, asbestosis, occupational dermatitis, and noise-induced hearing loss. # Officers - safety officer- > 1000 workers, welfare officer- >500 workers, canteen > 250 workers # Creches - > 30 female workers.
Unknown
null
Maximal permissible hours of work per person per week (including the overtime) under the Factory Act 1976, should not exceed_______? A. 42 hours B. 48 hours C. 56 hours D. 60 hours
60 hours
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Ans. D. NarcolepsyIt has become apparent that the hypo cretin system plays a critical role in narcolepsy. Narcolepsy is the prototypical example of sleepiness produced by a basic central nervous system dysfunction of sleep mechanisms. The etiology stems from a genetically triggered hypo cretin dysfunction and deficit. Insomnia is defined as difficulty initiating sleep or maintaining sleep or having nonrestorative sleep for 1 month or more. The insomnia or resulting sleepiness must cause clinically significant impairment or distress. To qualify as primary insomnia, the etiology must not be rooted in psychiatric conditions, parasomnias, substance use or abuse, sleep-disordered breathing, or circadian rhythm disorders.
Psychiatry
Mood Disorders
Hypocretin system plays a critical role in which of the following disorders? A. Insomnia B. Depression C. OCD D. Narcolepsy
Narcolepsy
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Acarbose , voglibose, miglitilol are alpha glucosidase inhibitors nateglinide- glinides, pioglitazone- thiazolidinediones (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 270)
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
Which of the following drug is aipha-glucosidase inhibitor? A. Pioglitazone B. Miglitol C. Met-formin D. Nateglinide
Miglitol
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pott's spine * Characteristic radiological feature of pott's spine is obliteration of disc space with destruction (wedge compression) of one or two adjacent vertebrae.* This feature differentiates Koch's spine from other diseases causing vertebral destruction (like metastasis, multiple myeloma), in which disc space is preserved.
Orthopaedics
Tuberculosis of Bone & Joints
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the patient with the following x-ray? A. Osteoporosis B. Pott's spine C. Metastatic bone disease D. Multiple myeloma
Pott's spine
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypochloremic alkalosisClinical manifestations of congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis Pyloric stenosis is usually not present at bih.o Nonbillous vomiting is the initial symptoms of pyloric stenosis.The vomiting usually stas after 3 weeks of age, but symptoms may develop as early as the 1st week of life and as late as the 5 months of life.o Emesis may follow each feeding, or it may be intermittent.o After vomiting, the infant is hungry and wants to feed again.Due to vomiting, there is progressive loss of --> Fluid, Hydrogen ion, ChloridesThis results in hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.o Serum potassium levels are usually maintained, but there may be a total body potassium deficit.o Jaundice (unconjugated bilirubin) is associated with a decreased level of glucuronyl transferase in 5% of patients.
Pediatrics
null
The metabolic derrangement in congenital pyloric stenosis is - A. Hypochloremic alkalosis B. Hyperchloremic alkalosis C. Hyperchloremic acidosis D. Hypochloremic acidosis
Hypochloremic alkalosis
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Ans. is'a'i.e. OsmoreceptorsChemoreceptors are:-Taste buds (gustatory receptors) - OsmoreceptorsOlfactory receptors - Glucoreceptors
Physiology
null
Which of the following is a chemoreceptor? A. Osmoreceptors B. Rods & cones C. Hair cells D. Merkel's disc
Osmoreceptors
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Chlamydia trachomatis (serotypes A, B, and C) causes a conjunctival and corneal infection that is spread in developing countries by eye-seeking flies. The lesions begin with formation of lymphoid follicles in the conjunctiva. With disease progression, there is tissue necrosis, granulation tissue deposition, and scar formation, leading to lacrimal duct obstruction and distoion of the eyelids. With the loss of an adequate tear system, the cornea becomes vulnerable to dehydration and opacification. Also, the vigorous inflammatory response can directly involve the cornea, with resulting opacity. In developed countries, chlamydial eye infections are often transmitted venereally rather than by flies, and may cause conjunctivitis in the newborn and in sexually active young adults. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 39. Chlamydia. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e.
Microbiology
null
A 4 year old African child develops an infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. How does infection with this organism cause blindness? A. Cataract formation B. Hemorrhage into the anterior chamber C. Hemorrhage into the posterior chamber D. Scarring of the cornea
Scarring of the cornea
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The traditional viral vectors are adenoviral vectors followed by papilloma viruses and retroviruses. Retroviruses are the main and most commonly used viral vectors.Other cloning vectors for gene delivery are :-PlasmidBacteriophageCosmidBAC (Bacterial aificial chromosome)YAC (Yeast aificial chromosome).Liposomes or lipoplexes are also used as vector for gene delivery.
Biochemistry
null
Which of the following is not used as vector in genetics ? A. Adenovirus B. Proteasome C. Liposome D. Retrovirus
Proteasome
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Coxsackie virus It is necessary to employ suckling mice for the isolation of coxsackie viruses. Inoculation is usually made by intracerebral, subcutaneous and intraperitoneal route. Adult mice are not susceptible.
Microbiology
null
Suckling mice is used for isolation of ? A. Coxsachie virus B. Pox C. Herpes D. Adenovirus
Coxsachie virus
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People living with RHD need to be on medication to reduce the risk of blood clots which can cause stroke. Medication may be needed if you have a hea valve replacement operation or an abnormal hea rhythm (atrial fibrillation). The most common anticoagulation medicine is called warfarin An INR range of 2.0 to 3.0 is generally an effective therapeutic range for people taking warfarin for disorders such as atrial fibrillation or a blood clot in the leg or lung. If InR increases stop anti coagulation Medication and review the patient Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 435
Medicine
C.V.S
A patient of rheumatic hea disease with mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation is on oral warfarin. On one OPD visit, his INR is found to be 6. What is the action to be taken? A. Stop warfarin, and review B. Stop wairfarin, and administer fresh frozen plasma C. Stop wairfarin, and administer fresh frozen plasma D. Stop warfarin, and administer intramuscular vitamin K
Stop warfarin, and review
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Mastoiditis is the most common complication of CSOM. Acute mastoiditis usually accompanies or follows acute suppurative otitis media. Complications of otitis media are classified into two main groups: A.Intratemporal: Mastoiditis Petrositis Facial paralysis Labyrinthitis B.Intracranial: Extradural abscess Subdural abscess Meningitis Brain abscess Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
ENT
null
What is the COMMONEST complication of CSOM? A. Subperiosteal abscess B. Mastoiditis C. Brain abscess D. Meningitis
Mastoiditis
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Sites of damage in Brown-Sequard Syndrome:Ascending sensory pathway: Dorsal-column pathway, Ventrolateral spinothalamic tract.Descending motor pathways: Coicospinal tract.Effects:Ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch, vibration, and proprioception below the level of lesion - (due to lesion of fasciculus cuneatus and gracilis)Controlateral loss of temp. and pain, 2-3 segments below the level of lesion - (due to loss of ventrolateral spinothalamic tract)Weakness and spasticity of ceain muscle groups on same side of the body - (due to loss of coicospinal tract) (i.e., LMN paralysis on same side)Ref: Ganong&;s 23rd Edition pg: 177
Physiology
Nervous system
Brown-sequardsyndrome A. Pain loss in the opposite side of lesion B. Fine touch lost in opposite side of lesion C. UMN paralysis in opposite side of lesion D. LMN paralysis in opposite side of lesion
Pain loss in the opposite side of lesion
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*Judet view of X- ray is for acetabular (pelvis) fracture. Ref : Maheshwari J Essential Ohopaedics 9th/e p.38 & 5th/e p.38,369
Orthopaedics
Pelvis and Hip injuries
Judet view of X-ray is used for viewing injury of what ? A. Pelvis B. Calcaneum C. Scaphoid D. Spine
Pelvis
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Ans. (b) To prevent gastric aspirationRef : Miller's Anaesthesia 7th ed. 12430* Sellick s manuever is a method of preventing regurgitation of an anesthesized patient during endotracheal intubation by applying pressure to the cricoid cartilage.* Or in other words, Sellicks maneuver is application of backward pressure on cricoid cartilage to prevent gastric aspiration (Mandelson s syndrome).
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
Sellick's maneuver is used for A. To prevent alveolar collapse B. To prevent gastric aspiration C. To facilitate Respiration D. To reduce dead space
To prevent gastric aspiration
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Liver function tests, including serum bile acids are Evaluated. Bile acids are the specific measure of the diagnosis and monitoring. Liver USG is to be done to exclude cholelithiasis. Reference: Textbook of Duttas, 9th edition ,page 271
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
Best diagnostic test for cholestasis of pregnancy: A. Serum bilirubin B. Bile acid C. Serum alkaline phosphatase D. Serum transaminase
Bile acid
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cholera toxin Cholera toxino V. cholerae produces cholera toxin, the model for enterotoxins, whose action on the mucosal epithelium is responsible for the characteristic diarrhoea of the cholera.o Cholera toxin is a protein complex made up of six subunits - a single copy of 'A' subunit (Port A) and five copies of'B' subunit (Part B). 'A' subunit has two fragments; A1 and A2.o cAMP inhibits the absorptive sodium transport system (decreases sodium & chloride reabsorption) and activates the secretory chloride transport system (increases chloride and bicarbonate secretion)o This leads to accumulation of sodium choride in the intestinal lumen.o Accumulated sodium chloride draws water into the lumen due to increased osmolality leading to watery> diarrhoea.
Microbiology
Vibrio
Which of the following stimulate adenylate cyclase with G-protein coupled action - A. Shiga toxin B. Cholera toxin C. Diphtheria toxin D. Pseduomonas toxin
Cholera toxin
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Ans. d (> 1,00,000) (Ref. H-18th, Chapter 288; Ananthanarayan Microbiology 7th/pg. 276)Hass and other investigators have established that in the presence of active infection in the urinary tract the urine will contain 1,00,000 or more/mL. The level is, therefore, considered to represent significant bacteriuria.SIGNIFICANT BACTERIURIA# Counts of 10,000 or less/mL are due to contamination during voiding and are of no significance.# In most instances, growth of >105 organisms per milliliter from a properly collected midstream "clean-catch" urine sample indicates infection - significant bacteriuria.# When carefully sought by chamber-count microscopy, pyuria is a highly sensitive indicator of UTI in symptomatic patients.# Pyuria is demonstrated in nearly all acute bacterial UTIs, and its absence calls the diagnosis into question.# The leukocyte esterase "dipstick" method is less sensitive than microscopy in identifying pyuria but is a useful alternative when microscopy is not feasible.# Pyuria in the absence of bacteriuria (sterile pyuria) may indicate infection with unusual agents such as C. trachomatis, U. urealyticum, or Mycobacterium tuberculosis or with fungi.# Alternatively, sterile pyuria may be documented in noninfectious urologic conditions such as calculi, anatomic abnormality, nephrocalcinosis, vesicoureteral reflux, interstitial nephritis, or polycystic disease.
Medicine
Infection
Significant bacteriuria is defined as presence of_____ bacteria per ml of urine. A. 100-1000 B. 1000-10,000 C. 10,000-1,00,000 D. >1,00,000
>1,00,000
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Galantamine Galantamine: o It is a natural alkaloid which selectively inhibits cerebral acetylcholinesterase and has some direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors as well. o It has produced cognitive and behavioral benefits in Alzheimer's disease
Pharmacology
C.N.S
A 55yr old man with dementia was given a natural alkaloid. Which of the following could it be- A. Tacrine B. Donepezil C. Galantamine D. Rivastigmine
Galantamine
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Big sized needle is used to reduce the risk of hemolysis and speed up the blood flow rate. As per the norms, the needle to be used in the adults for blood transfusion is 18-20 guage. The transfusion has to be staed within 30 minutes and finish within 4hrs of issue from the blood bank.
Pathology
Blood transfusion
RBC should be transfused with a needle having which of the following size? A. With a 16-18 G needle B. With a 18-20 G needle C. With a 20-22 G needle D. With a 22-24 G needle
With a 18-20 G needle
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Predominent ions in ECF are Na+ and Cl-predominent ions in ICF are K+ ,Mg+,phosphate Table1.3.3 of Textbook of physiology AK Jain 4th edition page no.27.
Physiology
General physiology
Least common ion in EOF is A. Na B. K+ C. CI D. HCO3
K+
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Scrub typhus aka chigger borne typhus is caused by orientia tsutsugamushi.In a heterephile agglutination test(weil Felix reaction), the sera of scrub typhus patients agglutinated only OX K strain of proteins mirabilis without getting agglutinated with OX 19 and OX 2 ...as some rickettsiae and ceain strains like OX K ,OX 19 and OX 2 of proteus share alkali stable carbohydrate antigen Ref: Ananthnarayan and paniker's microbiology 10th edition
Microbiology
Bacteriology
Scrub typhus is positive for A. OX K B. OX 2 C. OX K and OX 19 D. OX 19 only
OX K
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MUSCLES helping in looking down - Inferior rectus - primary function supplied by 3rd cranial nerve Superior oblique - secondary function-suppliecd by 4th cranial nerve
Ophthalmology
Squint
A patient is NOT able to look downward. Which muscle may be paralyzed? A. Superior oblique B. Superior rectus C. Inferior oblique D. Lateral rectus
Superior oblique
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Femtolaser (1053 nm) is the new paradigm in the Ophthalmology. Its uses are: *Laser assisted cataract surgery *Refractive surgery * Keratoplasty *Intracorneal ring segments for keratoconus Nd:YAG laser has a wavelength of 1064 nm, Frequency doubled Nd:YAG has wavelength of 532 Argon Fluoride laser has a wavelength of 193 nm
Ophthalmology
Cataract
Femto Laser assisted cataract removal done using laser of how much wavelength A. 1064 B. 1053 C. 532 D. 193
1053
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The chlamydia trachomatis cause inclusion blenorrhea, a neonatal form of inclusion conjunctivitis. It develops when infant is infected in the bih canal. The specimen of choice in this case is conjunctival scrapings, where characteristic inclusion bodies can be demonstrated. Image : Follicles on the bulbar conjunctiva, characteristic of Chlamydia trachomatis infection (photo 1). Also note the follicles in the inferior fornix (photo 2). Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker&;s 9th edition, pg no 419,420
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
Baby born to patient suspected of chlamydial infection sample to be taken for diagnosis? A. conjunctival B. Urethral C. Urine sample D. Blood
conjunctival
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Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity seen with high bolus dose of fentanyl. CWR related to opiate administration was first described by Hamilton and Cullen in 1953 . Following opiate administration, clinicians may observe significant difficulty with mask ventilation, respiratory arrest, and a rigid chest wall; this phenomenon has been noted with various opioid substances. The majority of repoed cases and physiologic studies focus on CWR occurring with high opioid doses --administeredas pa of anesthetic induction
Anaesthesia
Intravenous Anesthetic Agents
Wooden chest rigidity is seen with A. Morphine B. Fentanyl C. Remifentanyl D. Pentazocine
Fentanyl
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Dyskeratosis - Premature or abnormal keratinization Seen in -1. Malignant condition : Squamous cell carcinoma2. Premalignant : Bowen's disease3. Benign conditions :a. Darier's diseaseb. Hailey-hailey disease
Dental
Histopathological findings
Dyskeratosis is characteristic feature of ? A. Darier's disease B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Psoriasis D. Tinea capitis
Darier's disease
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The four main NCDs are cardiovascular diseases, cancers, diabetes and chronic lung diseases. The leading causes of NCD deaths in 2016 were Cardiovascular diseases ( 44% of all NCD deaths) Cancers (22% of all NCD deaths) Respiratory diseases, including asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (9% of all NCD deaths). Diabetes caused another 1.6 million deaths.
Social & Preventive Medicine
NCDs: CHD, HTN, DM, RF, Cancers, Obesity, Blindness
Arrange the following causes of NCD deaths as per decreasing order of frequency? A. Cancers B. Cardiovascular diseases C. Diabetes D. Respiratory diseases A. A>D>C>B B. D>A>B>C C. B>A>D>C D. C>B>D>A
B>A>D>C
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dermatophytes Kerion is a hypersensitivity and inflammation reaction in tinea capitis caused by zoophilic species of dermatophytes (T. verruca and T. mentagrophytes).
Microbiology
null
Keroin is caused by - A. Candida B. Streptococcus C. Dermatophytes D. Herpes
Dermatophytes