id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
605cdaf0-d20d-49eb-b99d-d1204b02fdac | Niacin
This vitamin differs from the other vitamins of the B-complex group in that an essential amino acids tryptophan serves as its precursor.
Another characterstic of niacin is that it is not excreted in urine as such, but is metabolised to two major methylated derivatives.
N-methyl-nicotinamide
N-methyl pyridones
Niacin deficiency results in *Pellagra ’
Pellagra is identified by the presence of three 'D's → Diarrhea, Dementia, Dermatitis. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Niacin deficiency cause
A. Pellagra
B. Scurvy
C. Rickets
D. Lathyrism
| Pellagra |
75500008-74e5-4fdd-bab6-aedd295f2750 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hypocalcemia o Hypocalcemic seizures carry good prognosis. o Idiopathic seizures have bad prognosis. | Pediatrics | null | Neonatal seizure carries best prognosis if the cause is -
A. Idiopathic
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Infection
D. Asphyxia
| Hypocalcemia |
935de503-043b-4cf6-b42f-ae3362ff1d62 | (A) Spondylisthesis# Spondylolisthesis is the forward displacement of a vertebra, especially the fifth lumbar vertebra, most commonly occurring after a break or fracture. Backward displacement is referred to as retrolisthesis.> Variant "listhesis," resulting from division of this compound word, is sometimes applied in conjunction with scoliosis. These "slips" occur most commonly in the lumbar spine. Spondylolysis (a defect or fracture of the pars interarticularis of the vertebral arch-appears as Scotty dog sign or Scottish terrier sign in oblique view X-Ray) is the most common cause of spondylolisthesis, which should not be confused with a slipped disc, in which one of the spinal discs in between the vertebrae has ruptured.> Hangman's fracture is a specific type of spondylolisthesis where the C2 vertebra is displaced anteriorly relative to the C3 vertebra due to fractures of the C2 vertebra's pedicles. | Radiology | Miscellaneous | Lumbosacral spine lateral view X-ray shows
A. Spondylisthesis
B. Pott's spine
C. Spondylosis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis
| Spondylisthesis |
af81185b-71bb-4ec0-9784-a1219706d38a | Ans-B (Ref. William's Obstetrics 22nd /Table 52 - 4).American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists 2001 Criteria for Diagnosis of Gestational table: DiabetesUsing the 100-g Oral Glucose Tolerance Test: Plasma/ Serum Carpenter and CoustanNational Diabetes Plasma Data GroupStatusmg/dLmmol/Lmg/dLmmol/LFasting955.31055.81 hr18010.019010.62 hr1558.61659.23 hr1407.81458.0 | Unknown | null | As per ACOG - 2001 criteria to diagnose "gestational diabetes" using GTT is plasma glucose at 2 hr more than____ mg/dL:
A. 180
B. 155
C. 140
D. 126
| 155 |
0cc53e2f-35d6-46bd-a95c-0788abb77b66 | HBs Ag is the first marker appear in the blood after infection. Anti-HBc is the earliest antibody seen in blood.HBeAg indicates infectivity REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.546&547 | Microbiology | Virology | A thiy year man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of 5 days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubin of 6.7 mg/dl (conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT/SGPT (AST/ALT) of 1230/900 IU/ml. The serological tests showed presence of HBsAg, IgM anti HBc and HBe Ag. The most likely diagnosis -
A. Chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
B. Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
C. Chronic hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
D. Acute hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
| Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity |
1b292534-da27-418e-9a34-10f9ef755b24 | Abdominal compament syndrome grading system Grade Bladder pressure (mm Hg) Clinical features Treatment I 12-15 None Nomovolemic resuscitation II 16-20 Oliguria, Splanchnic hypoperfusion Hypovolemic resuscitation II 21-25 Anuria, increased ventilation pressure Decompression IV >25 Anuria, Increased ventilation pressure & decreased PO2 Emergency re-exploration | Surgery | Trauma | Which of the following is best treatment for Grade II abdominal hypeension?
A. Laparotomy
B. Immediate decompression
C. Hypovolemic resuscitation
D. Normovolemic resuscitation
| Hypovolemic resuscitation |
6fad5439-8f40-4774-9b35-cd1d3089b790 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 500 calories o Under ICDS Scheme supplementary nutrition is given to: Children below 6 yrs Nursing mothers Expectant mothers o The aim is to supplement nutritional intake for 1) Each child 6-72 months of age --) 500 calories and 12-15 grams ofprotein (financial norm of Rs 6.00 per child per day). 2) Severely malnourished child 6-72 months of age --> 800 calories and 20-25 grams protein (financial norm of Rs 6.00 per child per day). 3) Each pregnant and nursing woman 600 calories and 18-20 grams of protein (financial norm of Rs 5.00 per beneficiary per day). Under the revised nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition, State goverments/UTs have been mandated to provide more than one meal to the children who come to AWCs, which include providing a morning snack in the form of milk/banana/egg/seasonal fruit/micronutrient foified food followed by a hot cooked meal. For children below 3 years of age and pregnant & lactating mothers, "take home ration" is to be provided. o Supplementary nutrition is given for 300 days a year. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Nutritional supplement for two year old child under ICDS scheme is -
A. 200 Calorie
B. 300 Calorie
C. 400 Calorie
D. 500 Calorie
| 500 Calorie |
91931879-0081-42d3-aa3e-2ccc4f6ac7dd | The yellow color is due to degradation of hemoglobin to bilirubin. Deoxyhemoglobin is responsible for bluish bruise seen on the first day after the injury. Bruises change color over time, because of the degradation of haemoglobin in the blood. However, the timescale of this degradation is not fixed, and it is therefore possible only to give a rough estimation of the age of the bruise. Colour changes are: Dark blue/ purple (fresh) Blue Brown Green Yellow | Forensic Medicine | null | Yellow color of a bruise is due to which of the following?
A. Bilirubin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Hemosiderine
D. Deoxyhemoglobin
| Bilirubin |
134d3bc5-a02b-4b43-8a96-163a701f69b5 | Pasteurization doesn't kill thermoduric bacteria nor the bacterial spores. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 606 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Pasteruisation of milk does not kills -
A. Anthrax
B. Brucella
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Streptococcus
| Anthrax |
39168455-61a0-4ff9-9935-7148f066ac33 | Ans. c. Cranberry (Ref: Campbell Urology 10/e p294; Smith 17/e p207)Regular drinking of cranberry juice can prevent UTI."Alternatives to antibiotic therapy so the treatment of recurrent cystitis/UTI include intravaginal estriol, lactobacillus vaginal suppositories, and cranberry juice taken orallyQ.""Cranberry juice is traditionally used for prophylaxis and treatment of UTIQ.""Cranberry juice contains proanthocyanidins that block adherence of pathogens to uroepithelial cells in vitro. Randomized trials in low-risk patients show that 200 to 750 mL daily of cranberry or lingonberry juice or cranberry- concentrate tablets reduce the risk of symptomatic, recurrent infection by 12% to 20%."- Campbell Urology 10th/294 | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Kidney & Uterus) | Regular drinking of which of the following fruit juices can prevent UTI?
A. Raspberry
B. Grape
C. Cranberry
D. Orange
| Cranberry |
71f00af7-da17-49d4-a660-f3c4b16c6540 | Bitewing (also called interproximal) images include the crowns of the maxillary and mandibular teeth and the alveolar crest on the same receptor.
Bitewing receptors are particularly valuable for detecting interproximal caries in the early stages of development before it becomes clinically apparent. Because of the horizontal angle of the X-ray beam, these radiographs also may reveal secondary caries below restorations that may escape recognition in the periapical views.
Bitewing projections are also useful for evaluating the periodontal condition. They provide a good perspective of the alveolar bone crest, and changes in bone height can be assessed accurately through comparison with the adjacent teeth. In addition, because of the angle of projection directly through the interproximal spaces, the bitewing receptor is especially effective and useful for detecting calculus deposits in interproximal areas. (Because of its relatively low radiodensity, calculus is better visualized on images made with reduced exposure).
Oral radiology White and Pharaoh; 7th ed. Page no 114 | Radiology | null | Bitewing radiographs are best suited to monitor:
A. Unerupted teeth
B. Crestal bone levels
C. Crown preparations
D. Endodontic procedures
| Crestal bone levels |
a13a4c95-a088-45d9-b87d-e1e47176dcba | Scalenus medius muscle lies postero-inferior to subclan aery and is not required to be cut. | Anatomy | Head and neck blood supply and scalp | Exposure of left subclan aery by supraclavicular approach does NOT require cutting of:
A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Scalenus anterior
C. Scalenus medius
D. Omohyoid
| Scalenus medius |
51722c05-de8e-4c68-8dba-80f6d86f5e0a | Ans. (a) CellulitisRef: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker 8th ed. 1205# SKIN AND SOFT TISSUE INFECTION BY STREPTOCOCCUS-* Erysipelas-diffuse infection involving the superficial lymphatics* Impetigo-superficial infection of skin (pyoderma)* Cellulitis-cellulitis is caused mainly by hemolytic streptococci* Lymphangitis* Cellulitis is a bacterial infection involving the skin. It specifically affects the dermis and subcutaneous fat.* Gangrene-type of ischemic necrosis# Dry gangrene: Arterial obstruction# Wet gangrene: Venous obstruction* Pyoderma most commanly caused by staph aureus | Microbiology | Streptococci | Streptococcus causes:
A. Cellulitis
B. Gangrene
C. Pyoderma
D. UTI
| Cellulitis |
30819dd7-beaa-4b1f-bf87-e17c6c43300b | For the management, we follow McAfee Johnson Regime, the aim is to continue pregnancy for fetal maturity without compromising the maternal health. If the duration of pregnancy is <37 weeks, active vaginal bleeding is absent, mother and fetal well being is assured then resuscitation and observation in high risk ward is expected. Steroid therapy is indicated when the duration of pregnancy is less than 34 weeks. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Antepaum Haemorrhage | A patient at 30 weeks gestation presents with complaints of vaginal bleeding. She is admitted to a labor room for evaluation. Fetal hea rate is 130 bpm with no accelerations or decelerations. Ultrasonography reveals a placenta covering a poion of the internal cervical os. She currently shows no active vaginal bleeding. The best management of this patient involves which of the following?
A. Cesarean delivery
B. Resuscitation and observation in high risk ward
C. Amniocentesis to assess fetal lung maturity and plan delivery
D. Gentle cervical examination to assess dilatation and amnionic membrane status
| Resuscitation and observation in high risk ward |
c19a3356-65ca-42d3-8dd6-527adfbe3011 | The eighth rib is just below the inferior angle of the scapula. The lower ribs can be identified on the back by counting down from the eighth rib so at the level of inferior angle of scapula is related to 7th rib. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition ,volume 1 , pg. no., 62 | Anatomy | Upper limb | Inferior angle of scapula is at what level of rib
A. 5th
B. 6th
C. 7th
D. 8th
| 7th |
d3d5ad61-ae30-4a0f-b346-03d130cad2e3 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Toxoplasmosis chorioretinitis * Toxoplasmosis is caused by Toxoplasma gondii, an obligate intracellular protozoan.* Symptoms: Unilateral acute or subacute onset of floaters, blurring and photophobia.* 'Spill-over' anterior uveitis is common. It may be granulomatous or resemble Fuchs uveitis syndrome; elevated IOP may develop.* A single inflammatory focus of fluffy white retinitis or retinochoroiditis associated with a pigmented scar ('satellite lesion') is typical. Lesions tend to involve the posterior pole.# Vitritis may be severe and impair fundus visualization. 'Headlight in the fog' is the classic description of a white retinal inflammatory nidus viewed through vitritis.# Extensive and fulminant retinal involvement is generally confined to the immunocompromised. | Ophthalmology | Retina | A 30 year old male came with complains of unilateral blurred vision with floaters since 15 days. On examination, AC flare and cells were seen with 'headlight in fog' appearance on indirect ophthalmoscopy. Also, a single inflammatory focus of fluffy retinochoroiditis lesion is seen. What is the diagnosis?
A. Cytomegalovirus retinitis
B. Toxoplasmosis chorioretinitis
C. Toxocariasis
D. Sarcoidosis
| Toxoplasmosis chorioretinitis |
82575437-d128-4750-992f-f8d8c9b74ec8 | Ref Robbins 8/e p315,9/e p328 Hepatitis C virus is only oncogenic RNA virus in the options.otherd mentioned are oncogenic DNA viruses Hepatitis C Virus Epidemiology and Transmission. HCV also is a major cause of liver disease. The worldwide carrier rate is esti- mated at 175 million persons (a 3% prevalence rate, ranging widely from 0.1% to 12%, depending on the country). Per- sistent chronic infection exists in 3 to 4 million persons in the United States, where the number of newly acquired HCV infections per year dropped from 180,000 in the mid- 1980s to about 19,000 in 2006. This welcome change resulted from the marked reduction in transfusion-associated hepa- titis C (as a result of screening procedures) and a decline of infections in intravenous drug abusers (related to prac- tices motivated by fear of human immunodeficiency virus infection). However, the death rate from HCV will con- tinue to climb for 20 to 25 years, because of the decades- long lag time between acute infection and liver failure. The major route of transmission is through blood inoculation, with intravenous drug use accounting for at least 60% of cases in the United States. Transmission by blood products is now for- tunately rare, accounting for only 4% of all acute HCV infections. Occupational exposure among health care workers accounts for another 4% of cases. The rates of sexual transmission and veical transmission are low. Infections of unknown origin account for 9% to 27% of cases. HCV infection has a much higher rate than HBV of pro- gression to chronic disease and eventual cirrhosis (Fig. 15-13). In fact, hepatitis C is the condition that most frequently necessitates liver transplantation in the United States. Viral Structure and Genome. HCV is a positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus belonging to the family Flavi- viridae. It contains highly conserved 5'- and 3'-terminal regions that flank a single open reading frame of nearly 9500 nucleotides that encode structural and nonstructural proteins. HCV is subclassified into six genotypes, based on the genetic sequence. Moreover, because of the poor fidel- ity of RNA replication, an infected person may carry many HCV variants, called quasispecies. The relationships between quasispecies and disease progression are being investi- gated, but it seems that high multiplicity of quasispecies is associated with worse prognosis. In addition, this variabil- ity seriously hampers effos to develop an HCV vaccine. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA virus
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Human papilloma viruses
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. Hepatitis C virus
| Hepatitis C virus |
c56b6482-d6c6-445f-b209-d455784aef1a | Ans. is a i.e. Squamous cell Ca Vaginal carcinoma Primary cancer of vagina are very rare. Most common age group is Elderly females - 70 years. Most common histologic type is Squamous cell carcinoma Most common site is Upper third of Posterior wall of vagina. Mostly asymptomatic Patient may present with abnormal vaginal bleeding (including post coital bleeding). Foul smelling discharge per vaginum. P/S - Ulcerative/exophytic growth on vagina. Cervix appears normal. Lymphatic Drainage : Tumor arising in upper vagina : drain to pelvic lymph node. Tumor arising in lower pa : drain to inguinal lymph node. Management : Growth limited to middle third : Radiotherapy Growth limited to upper third and lower third : Surgery. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Most common Vagal carcinoma is
A. Squamous cell ca
B. Adenocarcinorna
C. Botroid's tumor
D. Columnar hyperplasia
| Squamous cell ca |
ea60617b-8675-4d64-9d10-d372377faf33 | Ans is 'b' i.e., Hepatotoxicity Adverse effect of Valproate1) Neurological - Ataxia, sedation,tremor2) Systemic- Hepatotoxicity, thromobocytopenia,GI irritation, weight gain, transient alopecia, hyperammonemia, pancreatitis,coagulation disorder | Pharmacology | Epilepsy | Sodium valprote in patient with bipolar mood disorder can cause -
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Renal failure
D. Cystitis
| Hepatotoxicity |
861327be-6776-4776-a001-3a9bc3f2be7c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., heal fluid Cations and anions in biological fluids in meq/dl Fluid Sodium Potassium Chloride Gastric juice 60 10 85 heal fluid 130 10 115 Diarrhea stool 10-90 10-80 10-110 | Medicine | null | Maximum loss of sodium in a child occurs in
A. Gastric juice
B. Ileal fluid
C. Non cholera Diarrhoea
D. Cholera
| Ileal fluid |
585c6c7d-d1ca-4cbb-8daa-ead9bfe4ceff | The Beta-chain of Hb begins with valine and histidine. Both these amino acids are impoant in the synthesis and structure of heamoglobin. Alignment according to helical designation makes homology evident: Residue F8 is the proximal heme-linked histidine, and the histidine on the distal side of the heme is E7. The iron atom is linked by a coordinate bond to the imidazole nitrogen (N) of histidine F8. The E7 distal histidine, on the other side of the heme plane, is not bonded to the iron atom but is very close to the ligand-binding site. Ref: Natarajan K., Townes T.M., Kutlar A. (2010). Chapter 48. Disorders of Hemoglobin Structure: Sickle Cell Anemia and Related Abnormalities. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is required in the formation of the structure of Haemoglobin?
A. Copper
B. Tyrosine
C. Histidine
D. Leucine
| Histidine |
623e5329-88d1-4826-ae15-42d70afc333e | Pharyngomaxillary space (Parapharyngeal space or lateral pharyngeal space) is lateral to the pharynx.
Obviously the abscess of this space will produce the bulge medially, i.e. medial bulge of the pharynx. | ENT | null | The medial bulging of the pharynx is seen in -
A. Pharyngo maxillary abscess
B. Retropharyngeal abscess
C. Peritonsillar abscess
D. Paratonsillar abscess
| Pharyngo maxillary abscess |
a8bd0fa1-6de3-4d4b-845a-dd6250cbe73b | (a) Glass surface on flame(Ref. Dhingra, 6th ed., 384)Laryngeal mirror is warmed before use by placing the glass surface on flame to prevent fogging caused due to breathing.Putting back of mirror on flame or will heat its back surface also which when held against the soft palate of the patient, while doing I/L, will cause burn injury. | ENT | Anatomy of Larynx | Laryngeal mirror is warmed before use by placing:
A. Glass surface on flame
B. Back of mirror on flame
C. Whole mirror into flame
D. Mirror in boiling water
| Glass surface on flame |
f7d1a0b1-d19c-462e-b7f7-59e8731eb020 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amoebic dysentery(Ref: Harrison, 18th/e, 1685)Charcot-Leyden crystals are slender and pointed at both ends, consisting of a pair of hexagonal pyramids joined at their bases. They consist of lysophospholipase (galectin 10), an enzyme synthesized by eosinophils, and are produced from the breakdown of these cells. | Microbiology | Parasitology | Charcot leyden crystals in stool are seen in:
A. Bacillary dysentery
B. Amoebic dysentery
C. Giardiasis
D. Cholera
| Amoebic dysentery |
2c7ec90c-53a4-4241-83fd-5ef6b0c51baa | Ans. a. Atracurium (Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p264; Morgan 4/e p221; Lee 13/e p191,192)Muscle relaxant that can be used in a patient with high serum bilirubin of 6.0 and serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL is Atracurium because of unique metabolism independent of hepatic and renal functions and ensured degradation.AtracuriumAvailable as atracurium besylateQTo be stored at 4degCQPharmacokinetics:Acidic compound, can precipitate if given in IV line containing alkaline solution like thiopentoneQ.Dose: 0.5 mg/kgQOnset of action: 2-3 minutes; Duration of action; 10-15 minutesQMetabolism of AtracuriumIt has unique method of degradationQ.It's metabolism is independent of hepatic and renal functionsQ.It undergoes spontaneous degradation in plasma called as Hoffman degradationQ.Systemic Effects:Histamine release is much less than d-tubocurare.CVS: Can cause bronchospasm because of release of histamine.CNS: At higher doses its metabolic product laudanosine can cross blood brain barrier and produce convulsions.Allergic reactions ranging from pruritic rash to angioneurotic edema can occur.Atracurium is relaxant of choice in (Because of unique metabolism independent of hepatic and renal functions and ensured degradation)Hepatic failureRenal failureQIf reversal agent is contraindicatedQMyasthenia gravisQNewbornQOld ageQCis-AtracuriumIt is an isomer of atracurium, 4 times more potentChief advantage of Cis-Atracurium over atracuriumIt does not release histamineQLaudanosine production is 5 times lesser than atracuriumQ.Whenever available it is always preferred over atracuriumQ.Important Muscle RelaxantsShortest and fastest acting neuromuscular blockerSuccinylcholineQShortest acting competitive (non-depolarizing) neuromuscular blockerMivacuriumQFastest acting non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockerRocuroniumQLongest acting and most potent non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockerDoxacuriumMaximum ganglion blockaded-TC | Anaesthesia | Non-depolarising Neuromuscular Blocking Agents | Muscle relaxant that can be used in a patient with high serum bilirubin of 6.0 and serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/ dL?
A. Atracurium
B. Vecuronium
C. Pancuronium
D. Mivacurium
| Atracurium |
cecbe051-d079-4542-864b-35c2af750b76 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Spironolactone Drugs causing gynecomastia* Calcium channel antagonist* Isoniazide* Reserpine* Clomiphene* Ketoconazole* Digitalis* Methyldopa* Estrogens* Testosterone* Flutamide* Phenytoin* Cimetidine* Ethionamide* Griseofulvin* Goserelin* Griseofulvin* Spironolactone* Cyprotenrone acetate Note: Cimetidine also causes gynaecomastia, but it is not a diuretic. | Pharmacology | Diuretic | Diuretic causing gynaecomastia is -
A. Lubiprostone
B. Spironolactone
C. Cimetidine
D. Chlorthalidone
| Spironolactone |
53e13be6-87c8-4229-b3b3-02e714bfb0c1 | Techniques of detection of DNA-Protein interaction : DNA footprinting Yeast one-hybrid system Electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA) | Biochemistry | Techniques in molecular biology | DNA foot printing is used to detect
A. Single nucleotide polymorphisms
B. Variable number of tandem repeats
C. Parent of origin of the child
D. DNA-protein interaction
| DNA-protein interaction |
ee8524cf-c0e7-46c9-b810-73f2a0a07f92 | • Daily replacement dose of thyroxine: 1.6 μg/Kg body weight (0.1-0.15 gm) .
• For TSH suppression (in PTC and FTC), dose of thyroxine: 2.7 μg/Kg body weight. | Surgery | null | Replacement dose of thyroxine is
A. 0.1 - 0.2 mg
B. 0.3 - 0.4 mg
C. 1 - 2 mg
D. 3 - 4 mg
| 0.1 - 0.2 mg |
7e183c01-dddf-4ed8-b81e-407133dfaac5 | Regular Insulin is short acting formulation given intravenously in cases of Diabetic ketoacidosis. | Pharmacology | null | Insulin of choice in a patient with Diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Lispro
B. Deterimer
C. Aspart
D. Regular Insulin
| Regular Insulin |
1901eeaf-7b79-45ca-9583-ebee79ada513 | Iodine 131 when taken up by thyroid gland result in destruction of the trapping cell and cells in close proximity. Because thyroid gland has extremely high affinity for iodine compared to other tissues, radioactive iodine results in selective ablation of thyroid tissue. Ref: Diseases of the Thyroid in Childhood and Adolescence By Gerasimos E. Krassas, Volume 11, Page 172; Encyclopedia of Diagnostic Imaging By Albe L. Bae, Volume 1, Page 452; Iodine an Overview, Page 18. | Radiology | null | Which radioisotope of Iodine is used in the treatment of hypehyroidism?
A. I123
B. I125
C. I131
D. I132
| I131 |
1da2fef4-a77d-4f3e-b396-db576d0785d8 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., HPV 16 Carcinoma cervixo The m/c etiological factor associated with cancer cervix is Human Papillomavirus (HPV).o HPV is epitheliotropic.o High-risk HPVInclude 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39. 45, 52, 56, 58, 59, 68.o Low-risk HPV associated with genital warts are subtype 6 and 11.o Almost 80% women are infected by HPV at some point in their lives.o HPV DNA detection is used along with pap smear as a screening procedure:o (PCR) polymerase chain reaction or Southern blot or hybrid capture technique is used for HPV DN A detection.Factors predisposing to CIN/Ca Cervixo Human papilloma virus infection (most important)o Factors increasing the risk of sexually transmitted infections :Coitus before 18 years of ageMultiple sex partnersMultiparityPoor personal hygienePoor socioeconomic statuso Smokingo Immunosuppressed individualso Women on OCP or progesterone therapy for a long time, are predisposed to adenocarcinoma of the endocervix.o In utero exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES). | Unknown | null | Virus causing cervical cancer in the ectocervix -
A. HPV16
B. HPV17
C. HPV11
D. HPV19
| HPV16 |
3ff950b5-c990-4681-93d1-ac16ddeee230 | The preoperative erythrocyte sedimentation rate is an independent prognostic factor in renal cell carcinoma. An elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) repoedly has been associated with a poor prognosis among patients with RCC, but the ESR is not incorporated into existing nomograms Ref Harrison20th edition pg 288 | Medicine | Kidney | The commonest systemic abnormality associated with renal cell carcinoma Is -
A. Hypeension
B. Polycythemia
C. Elevated ESR
D. Pyrexia
| Elevated ESR |
7ed10403-b06f-4d16-80cb-6bebf0ac484c | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prolactin o Prolactin levels do not fluctuate much during the menstrual cycle. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Endocrinology in Relation to Reproduction | Which hormone is not affected by menstrual cycle -
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Gonadotropins
D. Prolactin
| Prolactin |
25dbc164-0d6f-46ce-8646-2109dc883575 | A schwannoma (also known as acoustic neuroma, acoustic neurinoma, or acoustic neurilemoma) is a benign, usually slow-growing tumor that develops from the vestibular nerves supplying the inner ear. The tumor comes from an overproduction of Schwann cells--the cells that normally wrap around nerve fibers like onion skin to help suppo and insulate nerves. As the vestibular schwannoma grows, it presses against the hearing and balance nerves, usually causing unilateral (one-sided) or asymmetric hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), and dizziness/loss of balance. It comprises 5-10% of all intracranial neoplasms in adults. Incidence peaks in the fifth and sixth decades and both sexes are affected equally. | ENT | null | Schwannoma arises most frequently from:
A. Vestibular Nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Cochlear Nerve
D. Facial Nerve
| Vestibular Nerve |
6bf8a322-8f3b-4ae1-91bc-ad42673c635d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Listerosis * The toxic or chemical injury states associated with anemia include: Clostridial sepsis, Snake venom, Lead poisoningClassification of Anemia According to Underlying MechanismMechanismSpecific ExamplesBlood Loss Acute blood lossChronic blood lossTraumaGastrointestinal tract lesions, gynecologic distrubances*Increased Red Cell Destruction (Hemolysis)Inherited genetic defects Red cell membrane disordersHereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosisEnzyme deficiencies Hexose monophosphate shunt enzyme deficienciesG6PD deficiency, glutathione synthetase deficiencyGlycolytic enzyme deficienciesPyruvate kinase deficiency, hexokinase deficiencyHemoglobin abnormalities Deficient globin synthesisThalassemia syndromesStructurally abnormal globins (hemoglobinopathies)Sickle cell disease, unstable hemoglobinsAcquired genetic defects Deficiency of phosphatidylinositol-linked glycoproteinsParoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuriaAntibody-mediated destructionHemolytic disease of the newborn (Rh disease), transfusion reactions, drug-induced, autoimmune disorders Mechanical trauma Microangiopathic hemolytic anemiasHemolytic uremic syndrome, disseminated intravascular coagulation, thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpuraCardiac traumatic hemolysisDefective cardiac valvesRepetitive physical traumaBongo drumming, marathon running, karate choppingInfections of red cellsMalaria, babesiosisToxic or chemical injuryClostridial sepsis, snake venom, lead poisoningMembrane lipid abnormalitiesAbetalipoproteinemia, severe hepatocellular liver diseaseSequestrationHypersplenismDecreased Red Cell ProductionInhertod genetic defects Defects leading to stem cell depletionFanconi anemia, telomerase defectsDefects affecting erythroblast maturationThalassemia syndromesNutritional deficiencies Deficiencies affecting DNA synthesisBp and folate deficienciesDeficiencies affecting hemoglobin synthesisIron deficiency anemiaErythropoietin deficiencyRenal failure, anemia of chronic diseaseImmune-mediated injury of progenitorsAplastic, anemia, pure red cell aplasiaInflammation-mediated iron sequestrationAnemia of chronic diseasePrimary hematopoietic neoplasmsAcute leukemia, myelodysplasia, myeloproliferative disordersSpace-occupying marrow lesionsMetastatic neoplasms, granulomatous diseaseInfections of red cell progenitorsParvovirus B19 infectionUnknown mechanismsEndocrine disorders, hepatocellular liver disase | Medicine | Blood | Which of the following toxic states is not associated with anemia?
A. Clostridial sepsis
B. Snake venom
C. Lead poisoning
D. Listerosis
| Listerosis |
c0da51db-5912-43fc-ba24-790d7b6dbba1 | D Harper, 26,h ed, p. 152, Table (18.2) & 25th ed, p. 206, Table (20.2) | Biochemistry | Carbohydrates | Enzyme deficiency in glycogen storage disease type 5 is:
A. Glucose 6 phosphatase
B. Acid maltase
C. De branching enzyme
D. Myophpsphorylase deficiency
| Myophpsphorylase deficiency |
9ab62da4-8eee-4ec7-98a9-9aa339a2abe3 | Achilles tendon reflex:Also known as ankle jerk.Root value: S1,S2Plantar flexion of the ankle joint on tapping the Achilles tendon. Must know:Deep tendon reflexes include reflex responses of the biceps, triceps, brachioradialis, patellar and Achilles tendons. Ref: Clinical Anatomy By Regions By Richard S. Snell, 2011, Page 23. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following is the root value of achilles tendon reflex?
A. L1, L2
B. L3, L4
C. S1, S2
D. S3, S4
| S1, S2 |
bee6781c-5060-40ea-bccd-06c8aeaa10de | Trichomoniasis has an estimated annual incidence of 173 million cases(Ref.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21st Edition page no.304) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Commonest trophozite infection by sexual intercourse -
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Trepanoma palidium
D. Giabrdia intestinales
| Trichomonas vaginalis |
473caf63-7b3b-48f7-8ad2-9cd943179973 | Ref: Diseases of the Ear Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra 5th edn .2010 page page 337 Explanation:TracheostomyTracheostomy is making an opening in the anterior wall of trachea and converting it into a stoma on the skin surfaceIndications areRespiratory obstructionSuction of retained secretionsRespiratory insufficiencyTypes areElective EmergencyBased on the siteHigh tracheostomyOpening Made above the isthmus of thyroid glandThrough the 1st tracheal ringDone in malignancy of the larynxincreased risk of perichondritis and suglottic stenosisMid tracheostomyDone through the 2nd and 3rd tracheal ringsMost commonly doneIsthmus has to be retracted or divided Low tracheostomyDone below the isthmusThrough 4th and 5th tracheal ringsDone when the airway is blocked at the upper tracheal levelRisk of injuring the great vessels of neck | ENT | Ear | Mid tracheostomy is done at which of the following level?
A. 3-4 rings of tracheal cartilage
B. 5-6 rings
C. 1-2 rings
D. 2-3 rings
| 2-3 rings |
b59dc61f-091f-4cae-bd25-f8ba48bdac2c | It is an in-situ method for detecting areas of DNA which are nicked during apoptosis.In-situ methods for labeling apoptotic cells are used to demonstrate the DNA fragments produced by endonucleolytic cleavage directly within tissue sections. The in-situ methods makes use of enzymes that label 3'-OH ends that results from endonucleolytic cleavage, the terminal deoxynucleotidal transferase mediated UTP nick end labeling (TUNEL) reaction employs terminal deoxynucleotidal transferase TdT. Ref: Molecular Genetic Testing in Surgical Pathology By John D. Pfeifer, Page 116; The Journal of Histochemistry and Cytochemistry, Volume 47(5), Pages 711- 717 | Pathology | null | Which of the following represents the indication for In-situ DNA nick end labeling technique?
A. To detect fraction of cells in apoptotic pathways
B. To detect fraction of cells in S phase
C. To detect p53 gene product
D. To detect bcr/abl gene
| To detect fraction of cells in apoptotic pathways |
f27efef8-d1d6-4161-9cd6-c16eefa7ea22 | Within 6-9 hours of treatment with vitamin B12 formation of nuclear DNA component promotes normoblastic reaction of the bone marrow. Folic acid also promotes the formation of nucleic acids. | Unknown | null | The need for vitamin B12 and folic acid inthe formation of red blood cells is related primarily of their effects on:
A. Synthesis and release of erythropoietin from the kidney
B. Absorption of iron from the gut
C. DNA synthesis in bone marrow
D. Hemoglobin formation in the red blood cell
| DNA synthesis in bone marrow |
0bc5a266-8437-4fcc-b05c-9450e25f1bd3 | The hepatic cells are of mesenchymal origin , found in space of Dessie. The stellate cells play a role in the storage and metabolism of vitamin A and are transform into collagen producing myofibroblast when there is inflammation and Fibrosis of liver. Refer 9/e p436 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Function of hepatic stellate cells are
A. Vitamin A storage
B. Formation of sinusoids
C. Increase blood perfusion
D. Phagocytosis
| Vitamin A storage |
27fdb198-e17c-40d0-a02e-8a5e985f6066 | Baonella henselae is the infective agent of cat scratch disease, which generally presents as regional lymphadenopathy with or without low fevers and headaches. Baonella is a gram-variable pleomorphic rickettsial organism that is introduced to the skin in a cat bite or scratch. It produces a self-limited granulomatous response in the draining lymph nodes. Borrelia burgdorferi is a spirochetal organism that is transmitted by a tick bite (Ixodes spp.), producing Lyme disease. Lyme disease progresses from a skin rash to fevers, headache and pain over about one month. It may produce lymphadenopathy, but is not associated with granuloma formation. Chlamydia psittaci infection occurs after contact with infected bird droppings and produces an atypical pneumonia. The central nervous system may also be involved, but lymph nodes are spared. Chlamydia trachomatis is the chlamydial species that typically produces suppurative nodal granulomas (lymphogranuloma venereum). Coxiella burnetii infection is transmitted by inhaling dusts or drinking milk from infected mammals, especially sheep and cows. The disease in humans, Q fever, is marked by mild nonspecific symptoms or pneumonia, and may progress to myocarditis or hepatitis. | Microbiology | null | A 16-year-old girl presents with a painfully enlarged lymph node in her right axilla and low grade fever. Peripheral blood counts are within normal limits. The lymph node is biopsied, and numerous granulomas filled with neutrophils and necrotic debris are observed. Which of the following organisms could produce this disease?
A. Baonella henselae
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Chlamydia psittaci
D. Coxiella burnetii
| Baonella henselae |
8d3c29fc-3223-4164-9fcc-28f9b090f73d | Ans. (A) Old ageCases of SSRl-associated hyponatremia & the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone have been seen in some patients, especially those who are older or treated with diuretics. | Psychiatry | null | Which of the following condition increase chance of hyponatremia in patient treated with antidepressant:
A. Old age
B. Low weight
C. Cold climate
D. Obesity
| Old age |
3bb684b2-50fb-4b41-bb49-df55baa513ff | *The forward bending test is very sensitive in demonstrating the veebral rotation that takes place in a structural scoliotic curve. *Quantification of the rotation is done by measuring the rib hump by use of inclinometer or scoliometer. Ref: Oski's Paediatrics, Principles and practice p.2488 | Anatomy | Spinal injuries | Veebral rotation in scoliosis is checked in-
A. Forward bending
B. Backward bending
C. Sideways
D. Without bending
| Forward bending |
54fc510d-e37c-4bab-b731-f60058bef85d | Ans. A. CroupCroup is the most common etiology for hoarseness, cough, and onset of acute stridor in febrile children. Symptoms of coryza may be absent, mild, or marked. The vast majority of children with croup recover without consequences or sequelae.Croup manifests as hoarseness, a seal-like barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and a variable degree of respiratory distress.However, morbidity is secondary to narrowing of the larynx and trachea below the level of the glottis (subglottic region), causing the characteristic audible inspiratory stridor. Parainfluenza viruses (types 1, 2, 3) are responsible for about 80% of croup cases. Urgent care or emergency department treatment of croup depends on the patient's degree of respiratory distress. Most children with mild croup symptoms can be successfully treated at home by their caregivers. In severe cases are treated by Dexamethasone and inhaled epinephrine. | Pediatrics | Respiratory System | A 9 months old child is brought to you in the emergency with complaints of cough and coryza since last 2 days. Since last 1 day child is having noisy breathing which increases on crying. On examination you find a stridor which the mother was explaining as noisy breathing. What is your diagnosis?
A. Croup
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Asthma
D. Laryngomalacia
| Croup |
01d86c86-8f30-48e6-be84-26a81836ce34 | Semen which is ejaculated during male sexual act is composed of fluid and sperm.
vasdeferens-10%
seminal vesicles-60%-mucoid consistency
prostate gland-30%-milky
so the bulk of semen is seminal vesicle fluid | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The major contribution to the semen from:
A. Testes
B. Seminal vesicles
C. Prostate
D. Bulbourethral and urethral glands
| Seminal vesicles |
1da1bfe7-22d6-4194-8cb6-75ac8f4bcbe9 | The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the medial two-third of the clavicle and thence to the axial skeleton through the coraco-clavicula ligament. | Anatomy | null | The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by ?
A. Coracoclavicular ligament
B. Coracoacromial ligament
C. Costroclavicular ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
| Coracoclavicular ligament |
c4a0afc4-e2d2-4cf6-8e6e-3691242dee59 | Foy percent of retinoblastomas are heritable; the child inherits one mutant allele through the germline and a somatic mutation in the other allele occurs, resulting in the loss of function of that gene. This leads to tumor development, often with multiple tumors in both eyes. Penetrance, however, is not complete, since the second mutation is a chance event. Sixty percent of retinoblastomas are sporadic; both alleles are inactivated by somatic mutation. Because this is a rare event, tumors usually are in only one eye and present at a later age. To detect a mutation in the Rb gene and differentiate between heritable and sporadic cases of retinoblastoma, PCR is the most appropriate technique of the choices given. Using the appropriate primers, a deletion can be detected as a change in size of the DNA band amplified. In heritable cases, one chromosome will show the altered length from the deletion or the translocation in any cell in the body. In sporadic retinoblastoma, samples isolated from anywhere other than the tumor should have two normal alleles. DNA footprinting is a protocol used to detect specific protein binding to DNA molecules by comparing the fragmentation patterns of DNA bound with the protein of interest vs. unbound DNA following digestion with DNase I. If the bound protein protects against DNase I digestion, the position of the protein on the DNA can be deduced by the loss of the characteristic fragment. FACS uses antibodies coupled to fluorescent markers to determine cell surface molecules on whole cells. It is very useful for determining the stage of development or activation of cells, but does not give you any insight into the DNA. Nohern blotting, the RNA counterpa to Southern blotting, will determine the size and abundance of mRNA of a specific gene in a given sample of RNA. RNA is not able to be cleaved by restriction enzymes the way the DNA can; however, RNA molecules for different proteins are of different lengths. The sample is separated by agarose gel electrophoresis, transferred to a nitrocellulose membrane, and probed with a specific, labeled probe. This will be exposed to film and the bands will appear, revealing the size and the abundance of specific mRNAs. | Biochemistry | null | One of your patients is diagnosed with retinoblastoma. He has a single tumor in one eye. The patient is worried whether his children would suffer from the same condition. What test could be used to determine whether it is a heritable or sporadic tumor?
A. DNA footprinting
B. Fluorescence-activated cell soing (FACS)
C. Nohern blotting
D. PCR
| PCR |
69a59914-ec74-4444-a08d-537d052676aa | Pseudomonas (bacterial) cytochrome C differs from eukaryotic (human) cytochrome in the total number of amino acid residues, in composition and in the order of residues in the large segment of amino acid sequence'
Comparison of primary protein structure with the predicted tertiary structure revealed that functionally crucial residues fold closely together in 3D space (tertiary structure), even though some of these residues were distant to each other in the primary structure.
The tertiary structure of cytochrome C's are highly conserved and explain for functional plausibility. | Biochemistry | null | Cytochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of a human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins
A. Quarternary structure
B. Tertiary structure
C. Amino acid sequence
D. Loop and turn segments
| Tertiary structure |
e9254ead-4852-4582-89dc-83b20e1396a9 | Pathologic findings in congestive hea failure include:- Change Time Microscopic signs of coagulative necrosis 24 hours after the onset of vascular occlusion PMNL and marophages 3-5 days from the time of injury Capillary rich granulation tissue 7 days or end of first week Collagen rich scar tisssue(necrotic myocardium is replaced) weeks-months Diagnosis: Myocardial infarction | Pathology | Wound Healing | A 74-year-old woman presents with acute chest pain and shoness of breath. Cardiac catheterization demonstrates occlusion of the left anterior descending coronary aery. Laboratory studies and ECG are consistent with acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the most likely pathological finding in the affected hea muscle 4 weeks later?
A. Capillary-rich granulation tissue
B. Collagen-rich scar tissue
C. Granulomatous inflammation
D. Neutrophils and necrotic debris
| Collagen-rich scar tissue |
9cce27c5-6e60-46c9-9feb-6fa9b837e09a | First line of management for keloid is intra keloidal injection of Triam cinolone acetate. | Surgery | null | First line of treatment for keloid is
A. Intralesional injection of steroid
B. Local steroid
C. Wide excision
D. Radiotherapy
| Intralesional injection of steroid |
8e6d7773-15cf-44d8-97f5-3840832b397e | The mitochondrial creatine kinase (CKm) is present in the mitochondrial intermembrane space, where it regenerates phosphocreatine (PCr) from mitochondrially generated ATP and creatine (Cr) impoed from the cytosol. Apa from the two mitochondrial CK isoenzyme forms, that is, ubiquitous mtCK (present in non-muscle tissues) and sarcomeric mtCK (present in sarcomeric muscle), there are three cytosolic CK isoforms present in the cytosol, depending on the tissue. Whereas MM-CK is expressed in sarcomeric muscle, that is, skeletal and cardiac muscle, MB-CK is expressed in cardiac muscle, and BB-CK is expressed in smooth muscle and in most non-muscle tissues. Mitochondrial mtCK and cytosolic CK are connected in a so-called PCr/Cr-shuttle or circuit. PCr generated by mtCK in mitochondria is shuttled to cytosolic CK that is coupled to ATP-dependent processes, e.g. ATPases, such as acto-myosin ATPase and calcium ATPase involved in muscle contraction, and sodium/potassium ATPase involved in sodium retention in the kidney. The bound cytosolic CK accepts the PCr shuttled through the cell and uses ADP to regenerate ATP, which can then be used as energy source by the ATPases (CK is associated intimately with the ATPases, forming a functionally coupled microcompament). PCr is not only an energy buffer but also a cellular transpo form of energy between subcellular sites of energy (ATP) production (mitochondria and glycolysis) and those of energy utilization (ATPases)Thus, CK enhances skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle contractility, and is involved in the generation of blood pressure Finally, high CK in the blood may be an indication of damage to CK-rich tissue, such as in rhabdomyolysis, myocardial infarction, myositis and myocarditis. This means creatine kinase in blood may be elevated in a wide range of clinical conditions including the use of medication such as statins; endocrine disorders such as hypothyroidism;and skeletal muscle diseases and disorders including malignant hypehermia,and neuroleptic malignant syndrome Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2567 | Medicine | C.N.S | A 9 yr old girl has difficulty in combing hairs and climbing upstairs since 6 months. She has Gower's sign positive and maculopapular rash over metacarphalangeal joints. What should be the next appropriate investigation to be done?
A. ESR
B. RA factor
C. Creatine kinase
D. Electromyography
| Creatine kinase |
c6c44aef-6933-4cca-a387-45eed24bcc49 | Ans. (c) IIIRef. DC Dutta 7th ed./ 422-23PERINEAL TEARS1st degreeIs a laceration of the vaginal mucosa and the perineal skin but not the underlying fascia and muscle.2nd degreeInvolves the vaginal mucosaperineal skinand the fascia and muscles of the perineal body.3rd degreeInvolves the vaginal mucosaskin and perineal body and the anal sphincter is also disrupted4th degreeIn additionthe rectal mucosa is also torn. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Injury to the Birth Canal | During delivery there is a perineal tear involving the anal sphincter but anal mucosa is not involved. Which is the degree of tear?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
| III |
e59c73f7-d0c1-43eb-a772-6f76f70fb4e1 | Ans DImaging wise Meckel diverticulum appears like normal bowel, however Meckel's bleeds because it has ectopic gastric mucosa - secretes acid - damages the mucosa. Most common presentation of Meckel's: GI bleedingQ with abdominal pain. Tc99m - pertechnate scan is most sensitive for diagnosisQ | Radiology | G.I.T. | Most sensitive investigation for diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is?
A. USG
B. CT Scan
C. Barium enema
D. 99m-Tc pertechnetate scan
| 99m-Tc pertechnetate scan |
e82f511d-f89d-4781-8fc0-207c105bfaec | Ans-C5a* Major opsonins: C3b, IgG, mannose-binding lecithin (MBL), fibronectin, fibrinogen, and CRP.* Membrane attack complex: MAC has a subunit composition of C5b, C6, C7fC8, and polymeric C9* Anaphylatoxin: Both C3a and C5a anaphylatoxin activity. | Unknown | null | Which is a Chemoattractant -
A. C5a
B. Cl
C. C3
D. C2
| C5a |
9813a9c4-6a6b-4edf-aaf2-652482c22774 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carbon monoxide * Color of post-mortem staining in various poisoning:POISONCOLORCarbon mono-oxide and hypothermiaCherry redHCN, burnsBright redNitrites, potassium chlorate, potassium bicarbonateNitrobenzene, acetanilide, bromates, aniline (causing methaemoglobinuria)Chocolate or Copper brownPhosphorousDark brown or yellowHydrogen sulphideBluish green | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology | Cherry red postmortem staining is seen in
A. Cyanide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrites
D. Phosphorus
| Carbon monoxide |
93e3da29-f333-42f3-abc3-e61edf157869 | Ans: a (Macrophages) Ref: Robbins,7th ed, p. 71; Ananthanarayan, 7th ed, p. 144; Table 16-2TNF and IL1 are the main mediators of inflammation. They are produced mainly by the activated macrophages.Cytokines and their main sourcesILl, IL 8- MacrophagesIL 2, 3, 9, 10, 12, 13- T cellsIL 4, 5, 6- Helper cellsIL 7, 11- Stromal cells (7 spleen also)IFN a- Leucocyte -| MHC 1 - activate NK cellsIFNb- Fibroblast - | MHC 1 - activates NK cellsIFN g- T cell - | MHC 1 & 2 -| Ag presentationTNF a- Macrophage/ MonocyteB for both TNF b- T cellsLIF-T TGF b- Both B & T cells LIF- T cells | Pathology | Cellular Pathology | TNF is secreted by activated:
A. Macrophages
B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Eosinophils
| Macrophages |
a640781c-2556-438f-a905-a9bf8d376c38 | .cocks peculiar tumour is actually a complication of sebaceous cyst when sebaceous cyst ulcerates excessive granulation tissue forms resembling fungating epithelioma and this iscalled cock&;s peculiar tumour | Surgery | General surgery | Cock&;s peculiar tumor is
A. Basal cell CA
B. Squamous cell CA
C. Ulcerated sebaceous cyst
D. Cylindroma
| Ulcerated sebaceous cyst |
4b1f9d71-a36e-4388-854e-e2d1b7751d02 | Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland tumor in both children and adults. Women are more commonly affected, and the mean age at presentation 4th to 6th decade. Patients present with painless, slow growing mass. On examination it is a solitary, well defined, firm and mobile mass. Within the parotid gland 90% of the adenoma occur lateral to facial nerve within the superficial lobe and most of these are in the tail of the parotid at the angle of jaw. Fine needle aspiration is used in the diagnosis of pleomorphic adenoma. Ref: Salivary Gland Cytopathology By William C. Faqui, Page 83; A Colour Handbook of Oral Medicine By Michael A. O. Lewis and Richard C. K. Jordan, Page 103; CURRENT Diagnosis and Treatment in Otolaryngology - Head and Neck Surgery, 3rd Edition, Chapters 18, 19 | Surgery | null | Which of the following is the most common tumor of the salivary gland?
A. Mucoepidermoid tumor
B. Wahin's tumor
C. Acinic cell tumor
D. Pleomorphic adenoma
| Pleomorphic adenoma |
c2185edf-ab01-42e9-8022-6c133fcb0b40 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pralidoxime o Pralidoxime is most commonly used cholinesterase reactivater.OXIMESo Oximes 1 Pralidoxime 2-PAM, obidoxime and diacetyl-monoxime (DAM)J are used in organophosphatepoisoning.o Oximes acts by reactivating cholinesterase enzyme.o Mechanism of actionIn organophosphate poisoning esteratic site of cholinesterase is phosphorylated and anionic site is free.Phosphorylated cholinesterase reacts very slowly with water.However, if more reactive OH groups in the form of oximes are provided, reactivation occurs more than a million time faster.Oximes attach to anionic site and provide more reactive OH groups.Oximes are ineffective in Carbamates poisoning.Pralidoxime is contraindicated in carbamates poisoning, because not only it does not reactivate carbamylated enzyme, it has weak anti-chE activity of its own.Remembero Obidoxime is more potent than pralidoxime.o Pralidoxime and obidoxime are lipid insoluble, while diacetyl-monoxime (DAM) is lipid soluble so it can cross EBB and regenerate AChE in brain.o Atropine is used in both organophosphate and carbamate anticholinesterase poisoning. | Pharmacology | Cholinergic System | Most commonly used cholinesterase regenerator at NM junction is -
A. Pralidoxime
B. Obidxime
C. Diacetyl monoxime
D. Edrophonium
| Pralidoxime |
3a34d6b3-bc42-4c2a-bfb1-2f12f6779f48 | Scottish Dog Terrier sign is Normal appearance of lumbar spine on posterior oblique X ray view Scottish Dog Collar sign is seen in Spondylolysis Beheaded Scottish Dog Sign is seen in Spondylolisthesis Winking Owl Sign is seen with Veebral Metastasis | Radiology | Musculoskeletal Radiology | Scottish Dog Terrier Appearance on X-ray is seen in:
A. Spondylolysis
B. Spondylolisthesis
C. Normal Lumbar spine on Posterior oblique view
D. Veebral metastasis
| Normal Lumbar spine on Posterior oblique view |
d035efdb-1ccd-4326-b318-550a3f4853ac | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Carcinoma"In normal persons, a click is felt when larynx is moved from side to side over vertebral column, this is called laryngeal click (post cricoid crepitus) It is absent in post cricoid carcinoma -- Moures sign | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Neoplasia) | Moures sign is seen in -
A. Carcinoma
B. Appendicitis
C. Varicose vein
D. Pancreatitis
| Carcinoma |
d1f308ef-0929-4001-9a25-ee147e5e8f1f | Hepato-renal syndrome is a form of functional renal failure without renal pathology. Diagnosis is made in the presence of a large amount of ascites in patients who have a step-wise progressive increase in creatinine. Type 1 HRS is characterized by a progressive impairment in renal function and a significant reduction in creatinine clearance within 1-2 weeks of presentation. Type 2 HRS is characterized by a reduction in GFR with an elevation of S. creatinine level, but it is fairly stable and is associated with a better outcome than that of Type 1 HRS. | Medicine | Cirrhosis | Not a feature of hepato-renal syndrome:
A. Normal GFR
B. Normal urinary sediments
C. Low Na+ in urine
D. Normal renal biopsy
| Normal GFR |
344d60ac-d514-48b2-94b7-691cb87140ef | The ankle jerk reflex, also known as the Achilles reflex, occurs when the Achilles tendon is tapped while the foot is dorsiflexed. This reflex is mediated by the S1 spinal segment of the spinal cord. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 774,775,776 | Physiology | Nervous system | Root value of ankle jerk
A. L3 L4
B. L4 L5
C. S1 S2
D. S3 S4
| S1 S2 |
cf044375-49eb-486f-a17b-7a50d80d0176 | The features noted are those of Vibrio cholerae, the causative organism of the severe diarrheal disease, cholera. The diarrhea is the result of the action of the cholera enterotoxin, which acts by ADP-ribosylating adenylate cyclase, leading to increased cyclic AMP with secondary increased efflux of Cl- and H2O. World-wide, cholera is usually spread by fecally contaminated water. Pseudomonas is an oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod that characteristically produces the blue pigment, pyocyanin. Salmonella is a motile, gram-negative rod that is a non-lactose fermenter that produces H2S. Shigella are non-motile gram-negative rods. | Microbiology | null | A 32-year-old woman goes to an emergency depament because she has developed severe, watery diarrhea. About 36 hours later, she developed vomiting and an abrupt, painless, watery diarrhea. The volume of diarrhea has been copious, and she has subsequently developed intense thirst, oliguria, muscle cramps, and weakness. At the time of being seen in the emergency depament, she is noted to have marked loss of tissue turgor, sunken eyes, and wrinkling of the skin of her fingers. Laboratory studies demonstrate hemoconcentration and severe metabolic acidosis with potassium depletion. An organism cultured from the patient's stool is subsequently characterized as an oxidase-positive, gram-negative curved rod with polar flagella that shows "shooting star" mobility and grows best on TCBS medium. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Vibrio cholerae
| Vibrio cholerae |
7adc4c61-815a-42e8-9cad-3eaaf6a0af9f | Ans. C. 20mmOvulation is aprocessby which a secondary oocyte is released from the ovaryfollowingrupture of a mature Graafian follicle and becomes available for conception.There is a pre - ovulatory enlargement in the Graafian follicle and it measures about 20 mm at the time of ovulation. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Diameter of graafian follicle at the time of ovulation is -
A. 10mm
B. 15mm
C. 20mm
D. 25mm
| 20mm |
b243a825-198d-44ee-864e-785e53227729 | Ans. c (Serotonin) (Ref. Harrison's medicine 17th ed., 2717; Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th ed., p. 901)Biological Factors in Suicide# Diminished central serotonin plays a role in suicidal behavior.# Low concentrations of CSF 5-HIAA also predicts future suicidal behavior.ETIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF SUICIDE# There is some evidence that a functional polymorphism in the serotonin transporter (5-HTT) gene may interact with stressful life events to markedly increase risk of depression and suicide.# Postmortem examination of brains of suicide victims indicate altered noradrenergic activity, including increased binding to a1, - a2-, and b-adrenergic receptors in the cerebral cortex and decreased numbers of noradrenergic neurons in the locus coeruleus. Involvement of the serotonin system is suggested by findings of reduced plasma tryptophan levels, a decreased cerebrospinal fluid level of 5-hydroxyindolacetic acid (the principal metabolite of serotonin in brain), and decreased platelet serotonergic transporter binding. An increase in brain serotonin receptors in suicide victims and decreased expression of the cyclic AMP response element-binding (CREB) protein are also reported.# However, a decrement in mood after tryptophan reduction is considerably less robust in untreated patients, indicating that, if presynaptic serotonergic dysfunction occurs in depression, it likely plays a contributing rather than a causal role.DiseaseAssociated Change in NeuotransmitterSucidal behavior>|?HIAA and serotoninAnxiety| NE, GABA, |serotonin (5HT).DepressionNE and | serotonin (5HT).Alzheimer's dementia|ACh.Huntington's disease|GABA, |ACh.Schizophrenia| dopamine.Parkinson's disease|dopamine, | ACh.Educational point:NTCell BodiesTerminal locationNotesGlutamateGABACortexStriatumSpinal CordInter-neurons,Spinal CordAMPA (Na), NMDA (Ca), Ketamine, Stroke/ lschemiaAnticonvulsantsBarbiturateBenzodiazepineAnestheticsEtOHAchNucleus Basalis, SeptumCortex, HabenulaMemoryAlzheimer'sMyasthenia gravisDopamineSubstantia Nigra, VTACaudatePutamen, Limbic,Frontal Cortex,PituitaryParkinson'sDrug craving Psychosis| ProlactinNELocus CoeruleusCortex Limbic-5-HTRaphe nucleiForebrainLow levels in suicidal behavior.Acts as inhibitor of pain pathways in the cord.Sleep.Acts an inhibitor in higher regions of CNS is believed to help control the mood.MigraineAnti-anxiety.Anti-psychosis.Anti-emetic.Opioid peptidesHypothalamusBasal gangliaPituitaryHypothalamusEndorphinEnkephalinDynorphin | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | Reduction in central_____ plays a vital role in suicidal behavior.
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Serotonin
D. Epinephrine
| Serotonin |
5fd147f4-af9e-4b99-9f47-39d91b42304d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IV o Type IV collagen with laminin are the major constituent of basement membrane.Type of collagenDistributionType ISkin, tendon, bone, corneaType IIArticular cartilage, intervertebral disc. Vitreous humorType IIIFetal skin, cardiovascular systam, lung, reticular fiberType IVBasement membraneType VPlacenta, skin. | Physiology | Cell Physiology and Intercellular Connections | Type of collagen found in basement membrane -
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
| IV |
5ab81d42-af6e-4e57-a9a7-3485922c43f6 | Ans. A. Volume 1.5ml, count 15million/ml, morphology 4%, progressive motility 32%a. Semen volume: 1.5mL or moreb. pH:7.2 or morec. Count: 15million/mL or mored. Motility (within 1 hour of collection) Total motility (progressive + non progressive): 40% or moree. Progressive motility: 32% or moref. Vitality (live spermatozoa): 58% or moreg. Sperm morphology (normal forms): 4% or more | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Physiological changes during Pregnancy | According to the 2010 WHO criteria the characteristics of normal semen analysis are:
A. Volume 1.5ml, count 15 million/ml, morphology 4%, progressive motility 32%
B. Volume 2.0ml, count 20 million/ml, morphology 4%, progressive motility 32%
C. Volume 1.5ml, count 20 million/ml, morphology 4%, progressive motility 32%
D. Volume 2.0ml, count 15 million/ml, morphology 4%, progressive motility 32%
| Volume 1.5ml, count 15 million/ml, morphology 4%, progressive motility 32% |
49947b5b-a3fd-4576-bfc1-7440e96f8d5e | CD 45 is called as Leukocyte common antigen (LCA) Location of cell Molecular marker All leucocytes CD45 and CD45RB Medullary thymocytes ('Naive' T- cells) CD45 RA and CD45RC Coical thymocytes (Memory T-cells) CD45RO | Pathology | Immunology | Memory T cells can be identified by using the following marker:
A. CD45RA
B. CD45RB
C. CD45RC
D. CD45RO
| CD45RO |
56d45d37-0f97-475a-b2c3-ab1026e66c0b | Indications of Surgery in Ulcerative Colitis 1) Intractability2) Dysplasia or Carcinoma3) Massive Colonic bleeding4) Toxic Megacolon Surgical options in Ulcerative colitis1) TPC + IPAA - Definitive Rx2) TPC + Ileostomy3) TPC + Continent ileal reservoir (Kock pouch)4) TAC + End ileostomy TPC + IPAA- It is the Definitive treatment- Preferred in younger patient with no Rectal dysplasia- Procedure* Some pa of Ileum, whole Colon & Rectum are removed* Ileal pouch created & Anastomosed with Anus Surgical option for UC in patients with special situation - Older patients , Pt. with Fecal incontinence- TPC + End ileostomy- Pt. with confirmed Rectal dysplasia - Mucosectomy with hand sewn IPAA- Pt. with Significant Debility (Poor operative candidate) - TAC with very low Haman closure with End ileostomy | Surgery | Inflammatory bowel disease | Treatment of choice in case of chronic ulcerative colitis is:
A. Colectomy with ileostomy
B. Colectomy + manual proctectomy + ileoanal pouch anastomosis
C. Proctocolectomy with ileoanal pouch anastomosis
D. Ileorectal anastomosis
| Proctocolectomy with ileoanal pouch anastomosis |
14e4c190-b431-4a7c-98c0-f27811a1df64 | Option D : Correct answer i.e. the fouh ventricle contains the two lateral foramina (of Luschka), which drain into the two cerebellopontine angle cisterns. Option A : lateral ventricle Option B : third ventricle with fornix and choroid plexus at the roof Option C : quadrigeminal cistern with great cerebral vein (of Galen ) as the content Option E : posterior cerebellomedullary cistern | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy 1 | T1 weighted MRI of midsagittal section of brain is given. Which among the marked structures contains two lateral foramina of Luschka ?"
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| D |
3cd5d890-cce1-4170-ad26-7a8da3cd84c7 | The agent for Toxocariasis (visceral larva migrans) is the cosmopolitan intestinal ascarid of dogs and cats, Toxocara canis or Toxocara cati. The eggs passed by infected animals contaminate parks and other areas that young children frequent. Children with pica are at increased risk. Ingested eggs hatch and penetrate the intestinal wall, then migrate to the liver. Ref: Dominguez S.R., Levin M.J. (2012). Chapter 43. Infections: Parasitic & Mycotic. InHay W.W., Jr, Levin M.J., Deterding R.R., Abzug M.J., Sondheimer J.M. (Eds),CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | Microbiology | null | A 5-year old child presented with fever, fatigue, abdominal pain and vomiting. On fuher history evaluation, he had a habit of eating di. Investigations shows visceral larva migrans. Communication with the following agent must have caused this infection in this child:
A. Pig
B. Dogs
C. Monkeys
D. Cows
| Dogs |
c84e6349-7bc2-4c29-9a0c-be6a0ca8ae33 | D i.e. Chemical conjunctivitis Here the neonate has Ophthalmia Neonatorum. Early presentation of discharge may be due to Gonococcus Q or Chemical Conjunctivitis Q, but Gonococcus is almost always B/L so the answer here is Chemical Conjunctivitis. In the past, if a maternal infection was suspected a drop of silver nitrate (AgNO3) solution 1% Q was instilled into each eye (Crede's method) to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Chemical conjunctivitis used to be seen with in a few hours of prophylactic topical treatment with AgNO3, and disappeared spontaneously in 24-36 hours. It is diagnosed by watery discharge with absence of chemosis and edema Q, which indicate towards infective pathology. Opthalmia Neonatorum It is neonatal conjunctivitis of one or both eyes in first month of life. It is a preventable disease occurring in a new-born child due to maternal infection acquired at the time of bih and used to be responsible for 50% of blindness among children. Any 1 week" v:shapes="_x0000_s1028">discharge, even a watery secretion, from a baby's eye during the first week should be viewed with suspicion, since tears are not secreted so early in life. Aetiological differential diagnosis includes | Ophthalmology | null | Unilateral watery discharge from the eye of a new born, with no edema or chemosis is due to:
A. Chamydia
B. Gonoccocos
C. Sticky eye
D. Chemical conjunctivitis
| Chemical conjunctivitis |
214f6c34-32d6-4c4a-ad87-b48350b2f655 | A i.e. EctodermPrimordial germ cell develops from epiblast (primitive or primary or embryonic ectoderm)Q at the caudal end of primitive streak in the caudal end of embryo. In the 3rd week, primordial germ cells migrate to a mass of extra embryonic mesoderm and then into the endoderm of yolk sac wall. | Anatomy | null | Primordial germ cell is derived from:
A. Ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Mesodermal sinus
| Ectoderm |
d7701a3d-7f48-4b92-bd94-4f4493513c3f | Liver REF: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 17th ed chapter 319 MANIFESTATION OF WAGNER'S GRANULOMATOSIS: Kidney: Glomerulonephritis Ear/nose/throat: Sinusitis Nasal disease Otitis media Hearing loss Subglottic stenosis Ear pain Oral lesions Lung: Pulmonary infiltrates Pulmonary nodules Hemoptysis Pleuritis Eyes: Conjunctivitis Dacryocystitis Scleritis Proptosis Eye pain Visual loss Retinal lesions Corneal lesions Iritis Others: Ahralgias/ahritis Fever Cough Skin abnormalitie Weight loss (>10% body weight) Peripheral neuropathy Central nervous system disease Pericarditis Hypehyroidism | Surgery | null | Wagner's granulomatosis does not affect?
A. Liver
B. Lung
C. Kidney
D. Eye
| Liver |
de39db64-0f14-475e-8e74-f9c6331e4222 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cerebral edema o Two ty pes of neurological disturbance are unique to patients on chronic dialysis.A) Dialysis dementiaQB) Dialysis disequilibriumQDialysis dementia -o It may occur in patients who have heen on dialysis for many years0 and is characterized by dyspraxia, myoclonus, dementia and eventually seizure and death.o The major contribution to this syndrome is Aluminium intoxicationQ.Dialysis disequilibrium -o This occurs during first few weeksQ of dialysis and is associated with rapid reduction in blood urea levels0. It manifests clinically with nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, headache and rarely seizures.o This syndrome has been attributed to cerebral edema & increased intracranial pressureQ due to the rapid (dialysis induced) shift of osmolality and pH between extracellular and intracellular fluids. | Medicine | Dialysis | Dialysis disequalibrium occurs due to -
A. Cerebral edema
B. Hypertension
C. Alumunium toxicity
D. A amyloid deposition
| Cerebral edema |
3f8ebc59-dc44-4574-895a-b36f64848f52 | Ans. is d i.e. Prophylactic oophorectomy BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 are tumour suppressor genes. BRCA-1 is located on chromosome 17 and BRCA-2 on chromosome 13. Individuals who inherit mutations of BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 are highly susceptible for the development of hereditary breast or ovarian cancer. The mutations are inherited as autosomal dominant. Lifetime risk of Ovarian Ca in individual with these mutation - 25% Lifetime risk of Breast Ca in individual with these mutation - 50% BRCA-1 - (20-40% life time risk of ovarian cancer). BRCA-2 - (10-20% life time risk of ovarian cancer). Men in these families have an increased risk of prostate cancer. Strategies for prevention of hereditary ovarian cancer Genetic testing for susceptibility to ovarian cancer is rapidly becoming integrated into the clinical practice of oncology. Strategies have been adopted to reduce the incidence of ovarian cancer in patient with BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 mutations. Prophylactic oophorectomy : "The only proven way to prevent ovarian cancer is surgical oopherectomy. As another possible site of disease among these high risk patients is fallopian tube therefore should be removed. IN BRCA 1 or BRCA-2 mutation carriers, prophylactic bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (B50) may be performed on either completion of childbearing or at age 35. In these patients, the procedure is approximately 90% effective in preventing epithelial ovarian cancer. In women with HNPCC, the risk reduction approaches 100%." Additional benefit of prophylactic oopherectomy is that the risk of breast cancer is reduced by 50-80%. Oral contraceptive pills : Data received from a multicenter control of genetic screening centers indicates that the use of oralcontraceptive pill is associated with 50% decreased risk for developing ovarian cancer in women who have mutation in either in BRCA - 1 or BRCA - 2. However there is sho term increased risk of developing breastcancer. Role of screening with CA 125 and transvaginal ultrasound : "In BRCA1- BRCA2 mutation carriers who donot wish to undergo prophylactic surgery a combination of through pelvic examination, transvaginal sonographic examination and CA 125 blood testing should be done". Oral contraceptive pills : Data received from a multicenter control of genetic screening centers indicates that the use of oral contraceptive pill is associated with 50% decreased risk for developing ovarian cancer in women who have mutation in either in BRCA - 1 or BRCA - 2. However there is sho term increased risk of developing breast cancer. Role of screening with CA 125 and transvaginal ultrasound : "In BRCA1- BRCA2 mutation carriers who donot wish to undergo prophylactic surgery a combination of through pelvic examination, transvaginal sonographic examination and CA 125 blood testing should be done". | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following strategy has been recommended to reduce the heredity risk for ovarian cancer in women with BRCA -1 and BRCA - 2 mutations :
A. Use of oral contraceptive pills
B. Screening with transvaginal ultrasound
C. Screening with CA - 125
D. Prophylactic oophorectomy
| Prophylactic oophorectomy |
ff5f3dd5-0738-4198-adcf-9273666b9571 | Ans. is'c'i.e., ThrombocytopenialRef: ATT drug guide p. 7391Among the given options, hepatitis and thrombocytopenia are adverse effects of rifampicin."If thrombocytopenia purpura or anaemia occurs, rifampin should be stopped and should never be restaed".Rifampicin can be restaed under close observation and supervision, once the liver functional normalize. | Pharmacology | null | Indication for stopping rifampicin ?
A. Hepatitis
B. Visual loss
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Peripheral neuropathy
| Thrombocytopenia |
b119be66-6dce-403a-8659-7ed66a918ef7 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dysgerminoma Dvsgerminomao It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor of ovary,o It affects young women and is usually unilateral.o Bilateral tumors are seen in 15 - 20% of the cases.o It is fleshy in consistency.o Histologically it shows presence of lymphocytic infiltration which is considered a good prognostic sign. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Pathology (Carcinoma Ovary) | Which of the following is the most common malignant germ cell tumor of ovary?
A. Yolk sac tumor
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Polyembryoma
D. Choriocarcinoma
| Dysgerminoma |
f0b4be51-3188-4c43-9f6c-840b7e3f0d6b | The vaccination schedule recommended consists of 6 doses on day 0,3,7,14,28 and a booster dose on day 90(Ref.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21st Edition page no.255) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | In the Rabies vaccine schedule of 0,3,7,14,30,90,0 means -
A. Day of dog bite
B. Day of first injection
C. Day of symptom onset
D. Day of dog death
| Day of first injection |
8510d4be-9c0d-48b6-bb6e-780ce0b6e369 | Henoch schonlein purpura(IgA vasculitis) is characterized by Paplable purpura(most commo buttocks and lower extremities) Ahralgia Gastrointestinal signs and symptoms Glomerulonephritis Pathogenesis:immune complex deposition .IgA antibody class is the most often seen in immune complexes. Ref:Harrison 20th edition pg no 2586 | Medicine | Kidney | Which of the following antibody is incriminated in causing henoch schonlein purpura
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
| IgA |
7d527f41-5d9c-4f27-9219-4e136ec33f50 | Tetracycline and minocycline: Unsightly discoloration of both dentitions results from excessive intake of tetracycline and minocycline during the development of teeth. Chelation of tetracycline molecule with calcium in hydroxyapatite crystals forms tetracycline orthophosphate which is responsible for discolored teeth. | Dental | null | Discoloration of tooth in tetracycline therapy is because of formation of:
A. Calcium orthophosphate
B. Dicalcium phosphate dihydrate
C. Calcium oxide
D. Tetracalcium phosphate
| Calcium orthophosphate |
93ddf325-339c-4936-a101-648aed25a863 | The facial nerve innervates the stapedius muscle, which is responsible for limiting movement of the stapes, thereby reducing the intensity of the sound entering the inner ear. The hypoglossal nerve innervates tongue muscles; the accessory nerve supplies the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles; the vagus does not provide any innervation for sound in the ear; and the glossopharyngeal nerve only supplies general sensation to the middle ear cavity and tympanic membrane, plus muscle innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle. | Anatomy | Head & Neck | A 34-year-old male complains of hyperacusis (sensitivity to loud sounds). Injury to which of the following cranial nerves is responsible?
A. Hypoglossal
B. Facial
C. Accessory
D. Vagus
| Facial |
e3e8f921-b073-499b-9abb-ab5c16407a4c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Edinger westphal nucleusPupillary light reflex (Light reflex)* Pupillary light reflex refers to constriction of pupil in response to light. When a sudden light is thrown into the eye, the pupil of that eye constricts (direct light reflex). The pupil of other eye also constricts (Consensual or indirect light reflex). The pathway for pupillary reflex involve (sequentialy): -i) Afferent: - Retina - Optic nerve - Optic chiasma - Optic tract - Pretectal nucleus - Internuncial neurons - EWN (Edinger westphal nucleus).ii) Efferent: - Edinger westphal nucleus - Occulomotor (3rd) nerve - Ciliary ganglion Short ciliary nerve - Sphinctor pupillae.* Some fibres decussate at optic chiasma and go to contralateral side which is responsible for consensual or indirect light reflex. From retina upto the Pretectal nucleus is afferent pathway and from EWN of third nerve to sphincter pupillae is efferent pathway. | Physiology | Nervous System | Pupillary reflex is controled by which nucleus-
A. Edinger westphal nucleus
B. Nucleus tractus solitarus
C. Nucleus ambiguus
D. Dorsal vagus nucleus
| Edinger westphal nucleus |
090d61a9-75c3-400c-bdc8-71f5f28efc79 | Coisol (Hydrocoisone) has primary glucocoicoid action and has significant mineralocoicoid activity. Prednisolone has glucocoicoid activity but at high doses fluid retention does occur. Fludrocoisone is a potent mineralocoicoid having very less glucocoicoid activity. Methylprednisolone is more selective glucocoicoid with very less mineralocoicoid activity (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition - Page No - 281) | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Which one has least mineralocoicoid activity?
A. Coisol
B. Prednisolone
C. Fludrocoisone
D. Methyl prednisolone
| Methyl prednisolone |
25c1ac55-818f-4278-a40b-3f6ad9e7800e | Somatosensory evoked potential (SEP or SSEP) is the electrical activity of the brain that results from the stimulation of touch. SEP tests measure that activity and are a useful, noninvasive means of assessing somatosensory system functioning. By combining SEP recordings at different levels of the somatosensory pathways, it is possible to assess the transmission of the afferent volley from the periphery up to the coex. SEP components include a series of positive and negative deflections that can be elicited by viually any sensory stimuli. For example, SEPs can be obtained in response to a brief mechanical impact on the fingeip or to air puffs. However, SEPs are most commonly elicited by bipolar transcutaneous electrical stimulation applied on the skin over the trajectory of peripheral nerves of the upper limb (e.g., the median nerve) or lower limb (e.g., the posterior tibial nerve), and then recorded from the scalp. In general, somatosensory stimuli evoke early coical components (N25, P60, N80), generated in the contralateral primary somatosensory coex (S1), related to the processing of the physical stimulus attributes. About 100 ms after stimulus application, additional coical regions are activated, such as the secondary somatosensory coex (S2), and the posterior parietal and frontal coices, marked by a parietal P100 and bilateral frontal N140. SEPs are routinely used in neurology today to confirm and localize sensory abnormalities, to identify silent lesions and to monitor changes during surgical procedures. It is done mostly under General Anaesthesia to monitor neural pathway. | Anaesthesia | Monitoring in Anesthesia | Which is wrong regarding somato sensory evoked potentials (SSEP)?
A. Can be used intraoperatively inside OT
B. Can be used to monitor CNS during intracranial surgery
C. Can be used during spinal cord surgery to detect spinal cord damage
D. Is contraindicated under general anaesthesia
| Is contraindicated under general anaesthesia |
1483505d-6866-4023-928e-b475ae25315f | Cottle test: It is used to test nasal obstruction due to abnormality of nasal valve as in case of deted nasal septum. in this test, cheek is drawn laterally while the patient breathes quietly. If the nasal airway improves on the test side, the test is positive, and indicates abnormality of the vestibular component of nasal valve. | ENT | null | Cottle's test tests the patency of the nares in:
A. Atrophic rhinitis
B. Rhinosporidiosis
C. Deted nasal septum
D. Hyperophied inferior turbinate
| Deted nasal septum |
6187a6b2-8e52-405a-a0d0-2c3339b5f4b7 | Depressive pseudodementia- depression in the elderly people may mimic dementia clinically. Identification of depression is very impoant as it is far more easily treatable than dementia. (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th edition, pg no.23) | Psychiatry | Organic mental disorders | Pseudodementia is seen in
A. Alcoholism
B. Depression
C. Schizophrenia
D. Mania
| Depression |
3e5607d7-2845-467f-9728-1a1c7f133704 | Hypoxic Ischemic Encephalopathy (HIE) is a type of brain damage that occurs when an infant&;s brain doesn&;t receive enough oxygen and blood. It is a dangerous condition that requires immediate medical intervention. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | New born infants | A child presents with lethargy, hyptonia after 12 hours of bih. Resusciation done. There are two episodes of seizure. The stage of HIE is ?
A. 2 B
B. 2 C
C. 1 A
D. 3
| 2 B |
d828256b-bd3b-45c6-bee5-1ef5409b3d2e | Ovulation After estradiol reaches a peak of 200pg/ml and is sustained for about 48 hours, it exes a possitive feedback action for LH surge Final maturation of follicle is obtained by combined effect of FSH and LH Ovulation occurs 24-48 hours after LH surge Ref: D.C. Dutta's Textbook of Gynaecology, 6th edition, page no: 93 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Reproductive physiology and hormones in females | Ovulation occurs :
A. Before LH surge
B. After biphasic rise in body temperature
C. After ripening of follicle by FSH
D. Before estrogen peak
| After ripening of follicle by FSH |
a90d4a21-5cd9-43c9-a371-959bd66621d0 | Musculocutaneous nerve supplies biceps and brachialis. It also gives sensory supply along the radial side of forearm. When it is damaged, it might show the following :
Flexion at elbow weakened (Biceps & Brachialis).
Supination of semiflexed elbow is affected (Biceps).
Sensory loss on radial side of forearm. | Anatomy | null | Musculocutaneous nerve is injured at the lateral cord of brachial plexus, positive clinical findings would be :
A. Loss of flexion at shoulder
B. Sensory loss on the radial side of the forearm
C. Loss of extension of forearm
D. Loss of extension of the wrist
| Sensory loss on the radial side of the forearm |
fee5de57-0ec3-404f-bbec-909622b92315 | The two muscles of middle ear are tensor tympani and stapedius. Both act simultaneously to damp down the intensity of high pitched sound waves and thus protect the internal ear. Notes: The tensor tympani is supplied by the mandibular nerve The stapedius is supplied by the facial nerve Ref BDC volume3,sixth edition pg 280 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Number of muscles in middle ear
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
| 2 |
453173bf-6579-4375-9b11-55785c6b9c8e | type 1 reaction /reversal reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction associated with a rapid increase in specific CMI activity against M.leprae. It usually occurs in borderline types of leprosy, (BB>BT >BL)characteristically associated with immunological instability. Page no.2046Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology | Dental | Bacterial infections | Type-I lepra reaction is commonly seen in:
A. Histoid Leprosy
B. Lepromatous Leprosy
C. Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
D. Polyneuritic leprosy
| Borderline tuberculoid leprosy |
38e5c3aa-2b52-4565-bd90-dc436e9e0a2d | LGB has 6 layers - (i) Layers 1 & 2: They are called magnocellular (contain large cells). The M ganglion cells project to magnocellular poion of LGB, (ii) Layers 3-6: They are called parvocellular (contain small cells). P ganglion cells project to the parvocellular poion of LGB The visual coex has 6 layers. The magnocellular and parvocellular neurons project to layer 4 and 4C of the visual coex. The axons from the interlaminar region end in layers 2 and 3. | Physiology | Special Senses | Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual coex in:
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2 & 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5 & 6
| Layer 4 |
09027adf-4352-4d9f-8e3c-eb486bab7b6f | Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice in alcohol withdrawal. If the question asks to choose a specific benzodiazepine, the best choice would be chlordiazepoxide. | Psychiatry | Substance Related and Addictive Disorders | In alcohol withdrawal drug of choice is:
A. Haloperidol
B. Chlordiazepoxide
C. Naltrexone
D. Disulfiram
| Chlordiazepoxide |
088c8d90-9d1b-46a2-86bf-e9839c03ed3c | Ans. d. Intra arterial digital subtraction angiography Symptoms ofproptosis and pain in the eye following an eye trauma with chemosis, conjunctival congestion and extraocular muscle palsies on examination is typical picture of post traumatic carotico-cavernous fistula. The investigation of choice to arrive at a diagnosis is intra-arterial digital subtraction angiography. | Ophthalmology | Proptosis, Enophthalmos, Developmental Anomalies | Following an eye trauma, a patient presents 4 days later with proptosis and pain in the eye. On examination, he has chemosis, conjunctival congestion and extraocular muscle palsies. The investigation of choice to arrive at a diagnosis is:
A. MRI
B. CECT
C. MR angiography
D. Intra arterial digital subtraction angiography
| Intra arterial digital subtraction angiography |
d0807356-22e2-40d4-a05f-e778d3980b61 | The genotype for a blood group can be AA OR AO blood groups are three genes Ia,Ib,Io Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:155,156,157 | Physiology | General physiology | The genotype of blood group A would be
A. AB
B. AO
C. OO
D. BO
| AO |
901fb958-430d-45ae-b7f3-ec48e374115e | TCAs can cause postural hypotension → Amitriptyline has maximum propensity.
Decreased sweating & salivation are due to anticholinergic side effects. | Psychiatry | null | A patient on t/t for psychiatric disorder takes an overdose of a drug, develops bradycardia, hypotension, decreased sweating and salivation. The likely drug is -
A. Amitryptilline
B. Lithium
C. Selegiline
D. Amphetamine
| Amitryptilline |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.