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7455b458-75ee-46de-8d81-296d073f9ffc | *Calcaneum is the most commonly fractured tarsal bone. ref : maheswari 9th ed | Orthopaedics | Thigh, Knee,Leg,Foot & Ankle injuries | Most commonly injured tarsal bone-
A. Talus
B. Navicular
C. Cunieform
D. Calcaneum
| Calcaneum |
a0af329b-4fee-4d27-8e6f-ed89064ac2e5 | Father of Modern medicine - Hippocrates Father of Indian medicine - Charaka Father of Modern surgery - Ambroise pare Father of Indian surgery - Sushruta Father of Epidemiology/ Modern Epidemiology - John Snow Father of Bacteriology - Louis Pasteur Father of Genetics - Mendel Father of Public Health - Cholera Father of Psychoanalysis - Sigmund Freud First distinguished epidermologist - Syndenham | Social & Preventive Medicine | Disease Causation, Measurements, Milestones | Who is the Father of Public Health?
A. Cholera
B. John snow
C. Edward Jenner
D. Louis Pasteur
| Cholera |
4cf38f7e-d6d9-4729-a2d8-37c63a5b6576 | Major susceptibility gene for Type 1 DM is located in the HLA region on chromosome 6. 95% of patients with IDDM express HLA DR3 or DR4. Concordance rate of Type 1 DM in identical twins ranges between 40- 60%. Type 2 DM has a strong genetic component. The concordance of type 2 DM in identical twins is between 70 and 90%. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition chapter 344. | Medicine | null | Which of the following HLA types is associated with IDDM?
A. HLA DR3, DR4
B. HLA B27
C. HLA B47
D. HLA DR2
| HLA DR3, DR4 |
1ddc270d-5c02-4077-8fb1-b284e9e94df3 | Equilibrium potential of ions is calculated by NERNST EQUATION. For Na, it is +60 mV to +55mV approximately (REF: GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY -23rd EDITION. Page No-7) | Physiology | General physiology | Nernst potential of Na+ is
A. 94
B. 61
C. -64
D. -94
| 61 |
fb4ab748-707e-467e-b484-b1795052fa78 | Nelson syndrome refers to development of ACTH secreting pituitary macroadenoma after therapeutic bilateral adrenalectomy. | Surgery | null | Nelson syndrome is associated with:
A. BRCA2 mutation
B. Prophylactic craniospinal irradiation
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Bilateral adrenalectomy
| Bilateral adrenalectomy |
8ddffe15-d231-4180-af63-fc24363b7ba4 | Transferases catalyze the transfer of groups such as methyl or glycosyl groups from a donor molecule to an acceptor molecule e.g., hexokinase. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th Edition, Pages 49-50; Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Page 31 | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following group of enzymes act by mediating transfer of one molecule to another?
A. Lyases
B. Oxidases
C. Peptidases
D. Transferases
| Transferases |
48a5ef44-59e7-4d30-a9c5-3f15da5236d6 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid freud IMPOANT CONTRIBUTORS IN PSYCHIATRY Term Demence precoce Coined by Dementia precox Catatonia, cyclotymia Hebephrenia Schizophrenia Ambivalence Free association Psychoanalysis, Psychodynamics Id, ego, Superego Psychiatry Moral Emil Kraepelin Kahlbaum Hecker Eugen Bleuler Eugen Bleuler Sigmund Freud Sigmunnd Freud Sigmund Freud Johann christion Rei | Psychiatry | null | Id, ego, superego are terms coined by ?
A. Sigmand Freud
B. Bleuler
C. Moral
D. Kraepelin
| Sigmand Freud |
7dfb2ea5-57b2-4a94-9ef6-be3853d0c16e | Kim's classification of microsurgical cases
Class A: Represents a tooth with no periradicular lesion, no mobility, and normal pocket depth. The clinical symptoms have not resolved, though non-surgical options have been exhausted. Clinical symptoms are the only reason for the surgery.
Class B: Represents a tooth with presence of a small periradicular lesion with clinical symptoms. The tooth has normal periodontal probing depth and no mobility. The teeth in this class are ideal candidates for microsurgery.
Class C: Represents a tooth that has a large periradicular lesion, progressing coronally; without periodontal pocket and mobility.
Class D: Represents a tooth that is clinically similar to that in Class C, but has deep periodontal pockets.
Class E: Represents a tooth that has a large periradicular lesion with an endodontic-periodontal communication to the apex, but no obvious fracture.
Class F: Represents a tooth with an apical lesion and complete denudation of the buccal plate, but no mobility.
Textbook of Endodontics Nisha GARG 3rd ED | Dental | null | According to Kim's classification of microsurgical cases, which class represents a tooth with an apical lesion and complete denudation of the buccal plate but no mobility:
A. Class C
B. Class D
C. Class E
D. Class F
| Class F |
285cb867-45cf-4422-b3df-6e4ddbca335b | Sagittal (central) lesions of the chiasma. These are characterised by bitemporal hemianopia and bitemporal hemianopic paralysis of pupillary reflexes. These usually lead to paial descending optic atrophy. Common causes of central chiasmal lesion are: suprasellar aneurysms, tumours of pituitary gland, craniopharyngioma, suprasellar meningioma and glioma of third ventricle, third ventricular dilatation due to obstructive hydrocephalus and chronic chiasmal arachnoiditis. Ref:AK Khurana 4thE pg 290 | Ophthalmology | Neuro-ophthalmology | Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is charactersitic of -
A. Glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Pituitary tumour
D. Retinal detachment
| Pituitary tumour |
7d361a80-269c-4cfd-a56f-fa3f924642aa | Dropped shoulder occurs due to paralysis of Trapezius. | Anatomy | null | 'Dropped shoulder' occurs due to paralysis of -
A. Deltoid
B. Teres major
C. Trapezius
D. Serratus anterior
| Trapezius |
d8a1a0b3-84f0-4e15-8a7b-bc2a8a43c540 | Signs indicative of retroperitoneal bleeding in severe pancreatitis Flank ecchymosis - Grey Turner sign Periumbilical ecchymosis- Cullen's sign Inguinal ecchymosis - Fox sign Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1527 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Cullen's sign is seen in
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
D. Blunt injury abdomen
| Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis |
f88da465-cb31-4d43-9dcf-da19b9481d2a | In this question, the details are inadequate, however among the given options the best answer is A, depression | Psychiatry | Mood disorders | A young lady lost her job, loss of appetite wakes up at 3 am. What's the diagnosis
A. Depression
B. Schizophrenia
C. OCD
D. Mania
| Depression |
9d6d23c3-6105-4166-b071-4258be776ea9 | Ans. a. Oral cavity Second primary malignancy of head and neck is commonly associated with oral cavity. "The site of index cancer influences the most likely site of a second primary malignancy, as an example, in a series of 1257 patients with SCC of the head and neck, patients with an index malignancy arising in the larynx were more like to develop a second primary cancer in the lung, while those arising in the oral cavity were more likely to develop a second primary in the head and neck or esophagus. This relationship has been observed in other studies as well."- Second primary malignancies in patients with head and neck cancers by Sandeep Samant, Head and Neck 2005; 27; 1042 Patients with head and neck SCC are at increased risk for the development of second primary malignancies compared with general populationQ. These second primary malignancies typically develop in the aerodigestive tract (lung, head and neck, esophagus)Q. MC second primary malignancy: Lung cancerQ Highest relative increase in risk is for a second head and neck cancerQ | Surgery | null | Second primary malignancy of head and neck is commonly associated with which of the following
A. Oral cavity
B. Hypopharynx
C. Larynx
D. Paranasal sinuses
| Oral cavity |
9091d246-5f0a-43c8-b7a0-d7cd70bd0b27 | The injectable typhoid vaccine ViPS is a single dose vaccine which requires booster doses every 3 year. Ty21a vaccine is the oral typhoid vaccine. 3 doses are taken on day 1,3 and 5. It is effective for up to 7 years after last dose. It is recommended in people travelling to endemic areas and during out breaks. Ref: Park, Edition 21, Page - 215 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | You have given ViPS vaccine to a person. How often will you ask him to take booster doses?
A. Every year
B. Every 2 year
C. Every 3 year
D. Every 4 year
| Every 3 year |
ff78e421-87be-4809-9626-f8ab3005f923 | Ans: d (Cephalexin) Ref: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 830; Tripathi, 6th ed, p. 733Enterococci are resistant to all cephalosporins; therefore this class of antibiotics should not be used for treatment of enterococcal infections. Usual treatment for enterococci is combination of penicillin or ampicillin with an aminoglycoside. If patient is penicillin allergic, vancomycin can be used instead.Treatment options for anti biotic-resistant enterococcal infectionsResistance PatternBeta-Lactamase productionRecommended TherapyGentamicin plus ampicillin/sulbactam, amoxicillin/clavulanate, imipenem, or vancomycinBeta-Lactam resistance, but no beta-lactamase productionGentamicin plus vancomycinHigh-level gentamicin resistanceStreptomycin-sensitive isolate: Streptomycin plus ampicillin or vancomycinStreptomycin-resistant isolate; No proven therapy(continuous-infusion ampicillin, prolonged treatment)Vancomycin resistanceAmpicillin plus gentamicinVancomycin and beta-lactam resistanceNo uniformly bactericidal drugs; linezolid (all enterococci) or quinupristin/dalfopristin ( only)Linezolid is a member of the oxazolidinediones, a new class of synthetic antimicrobials.It is active against gram-positive organisms including staphylococci, streptococci, enterococci, gram-positive anaerobic cocci, and gram-positive rods such as corynebacteria and Listeria monocytogenes.It is primarily a bacteriostatic agent except for streptococci, for which it is bactericidal. The principal toxicity of linezolid is hematologic-reversible and generally mild.Thrombocytopenia is the most common manifestationNeutropenia may also occur, most commonly in patients with a predisposition to or underlying bone mairow suppression.Linezolid is 100% bioavailable after oral administrationLinezolid is approved for vancomycin-resistant E.faeciuminfections; nosocomial pneumonia; community- acquired pneumonia; and skin infections, complicated or uncomplicated. It should be reserved for treatment of infections caused by multidrug-resistant gram-positive bacteria.TEICOPLANINTeicoplanin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that is very similar to vancomycin in mechanism of action and antibacterial spectrum. It can be given intramuscularly as well as intravenously.Teicoplanin has a long half-life (45-70 hours), permitting once-daily dosing.It is indicated in enterococcal endocarditis, MRSA and penicillin resistant streptococcal infections, osteomyelitis, as alternative to vancomycin. | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | Which of the following is not used in enterococcal infection?
A. Vancomycin
B. Linezolid
C. Teichoplanin
D. Cephalexin
| Cephalexin |
21221870-22db-4e25-b5da-7262819e5ab5 | Romanowsky dyes are used for staining blood films. They are made up of combination of acid and basic dyes. The nucleus and neutrophilic granules are basophilic and stains blue. Hemoglobin is acidophilic and stains red.
Various modifications available are Leishman’s stain, Wright’s stain, Giemsa and Jenner’s stain.
Basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly body and Cabot rings are seen by Romanowsky stain.
Basophilic stippling: These are small blue or black granules in red cells seen in megaloblastic anemia, heavy metal poisonings, etc.
Howell-Jolly Body: These are remnants of the nucleus seen as small, round dark blue particles near the periphery of the cells; found in postsplenectomy, asplenia and severe hemolytic anemia.
Cabot ring: These are pale staining nuclear remnants in the form of rings or figure of eight seen in hemolytic anemia, megaloblastic anemia, leukemia and after splenectomy. These are arginine rich and acidophilic.
Heinz bodies are denatured hemoglobin which does not stained with Romanowsky stain. It is demonstrated by supravital stains such as crystal violets. Reticulocytes also require Supravital staining. | Pathology | null | Which of these are seen on Romanowsky stain -a) Reticulocytesb) Basophilic stipplingc) Heinz bodiesd) Howell-Jolly bodiese) Cabot ring
A. abcd
B. bcde
C. acde
D. abde
| abde |
778467a1-7c40-4afb-9b77-ce954d48be0a | Ans. (A) Prazosin(Ref: Harrison 20th/e p3329)Scorpion sting is a dreadful medical emergency.Scorpion stings cause a wide range of symptoms, from severe local reactions to cardiovascular, respiratory and neurological manifestations.Alpha-receptors play vital role in the pathogenesis of cardiac failure and pulmonary edema due to scorpion sting.Prazosin is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker. It dilates veins and arterioles, thereby reducing pre-load and left ventricular impedance without rise in heart rate and renin secretion. It also inhibits sympathetic outflow in central nervous system. It enhances insulin secretion, which is inhibited by venom action. It has also been found useful even in cases with hypotension. Thus, its pharmacological properties can antagonize the hemodynamic, hormonal and metabolic effects of scorpion venom action. | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | Drug used for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to scorpion sting:
A. Prazosin
B. Clonidine
C. Furosemide
D. Mannitol
| Prazosin |
729a1a8d-b505-4b1b-b783-9e2de1c0ab37 | Most of the time, bleeding occurs from the Little's area and can be controlled by pinching the nose with thumb and index finger for about 5 min. This will compress the vessels of the Little's area Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 199. | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | A boy has developed epistaxis. What is the treatment of choice
A. Digital pressure
B. Nasal packing
C. Cauterization of vessels
D. Surgical ligation
| Digital pressure |
e854c247-5e20-48f1-9b01-fd32fcb4049c | OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA,6 th most common carcinoma in the world, can be predisposed to dietary deficiencies, human papillomavirus infections, achalasia cardia, oesophageal webs etc.it is most commonly seen in middle third of oesophagus (50%)and also at lower third(33%) and upper third(17%).in the lower pa adenocarcinoma is common .in India 90%are squamous carcinomas.dysphagia, regurgitation, anorexia, loss of weight, ascites, palpable left supraclavicular lymph nodes are the clinical features. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,5th ed, pg no 806. | Surgery | G.I.T | Commonest site of oesophagus - squamous cell carcinoma is
A. Upper 2/3
B. Middle 1/3
C. Lower 1/3
D. Crico-esophageal junction
| Middle 1/3 |
d9e3f657-f8c4-4fff-8197-840adcec860f | Most vascular beds have an intrinsic capacity to compensate for moderate changes in perfusion pressure by changes in vascular resistance, so that blood flow remains relatively constant. This capacity is well developed in the kidneys (), but it has also been observed in the mesentery, skeletal muscle, brain, liver, and myocardium. It is probably due in pa to the intrinsic contractile response of smooth muscle to stretch (myogenic theory of autoregulation). As the pressure rises, the blood vessels are distended and the vascular smooth muscle fibers that surround the vessels contract. If it is postulated that the muscle responds to the tension in the vessel wall, this theory could explain the greater degree of contraction at higher pressures; the wall tension is propoional to the distending pressure times the radius of the vessel (law of Laplace; see Chapter 32), and the maintenance of a given wall tension as the pressure rises would require a decrease in radius. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology,23rd edition, page: 563 | Physiology | Renal physiology | According to myogenic hypothesis of renal autoregulation, the afferent aerioles contract in response to stretch induced by
A. NO release
B. Noradrenaline release
C. Opening of ca2+ channels
D. Adenosine release
| Opening of ca2+ channels |
b8d8db6d-c47f-40d8-b43d-1ad959f039ec | Ophthalmoplegic migraine is characterized by recurrent attacks of ophthalmoplegia, following severe migrainous headaches. The condition almost always begins in childhood, and is considered to be rare in adults. However, OM may occur for the first time in adult life. The typical clinical picture of OM includes a child with severe migraine that lasts for several days and is followed soon after, by ptosis and diplopia due to isolated oculomotor nerve palsy, as the headache remits. Pupillary involvement with a 'full blown' pupil is the rule in children.However, pupillary sparing is not uncommon, especially in adults. Abducens nerve involvement is uncommon and trochlear nerve palsy is rare. Recovery is the rule. Rarely, deficits persist after multiple attacks. ref - pubmed.com | Medicine | All India exam | An ophthalmoplegic migraine means
A. When headache is followed by complete paralysis of the III rd and VI nerve on the same side as the hemicrania.
B. When the headache is followed by paial paralysis of the IIIrd nerve on the same side as the hemicrania with out any scotoma.
C. Headache associated with IIIrd, IVth and VIth nerve paralysis.
D. Headache associated with optic neuritis
| When headache is followed by complete paralysis of the III rd and VI nerve on the same side as the hemicrania. |
fd8e92e3-7f9f-420a-a61d-a07a1bb48c5f | This is a nulliparous patient and is in latent phase of labor. Latent phase duration normally in a nulliparous female is less than 20hrs and in a multiparous female its is 14 hours. The optimal treatment for this patient is administer sedation and observe the patient. Prolonged latent phase occur when the duration exceeds the above parameters. It could be due to unripe cervix, false labor or sedation. Prolonged first stage of labor occur when cervix dilates less than 1 cm/hr in nulliparous women and less than 1.5cm/hr in multiparous women. Management of prolonged first stage includes observation, augmentation by amniotomy or oxytocin, and continuous suppo. Cesarean delivery is warranted if maternal or fetal status become non reassuring. Ref: Obstetrics and Gynecology edited by Charles R. B. Beckmann page 106 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A female at 37 wks of gestation has mild labour pain for 10 hours and cervix is persistently 1CM dilated but non effaced. What will be the next appropriate management?
A. Sedation and wait
B. Augmentation with syntocin
C. Cesarean section
D. Amniotomy
| Sedation and wait |
a7c00419-565b-4941-84d5-4a53e7950318 | This is the closest choice in reference to the claimed rate by the manufacturer after phase three trials where the five-year cumulative pregnancy rate is 0.7 percent.LNG-IUD releases approximately 20 mcg levonorgestrel per day initially then 10 mcg /day. LNG does not increase the risk of PID. Lesser ectopic pregnancy as compared with copper devices. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraceptives | Contraceptive LNG-IUD (levonorgesterol intra-uterine device) has the cumulative pregnancy rate at 5 yrs of:
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2
| 0.5 |
0f68bf8a-a999-4f1e-9a14-db1bb9721792 | Deficiency of vitamin B12 results in megaloblastic anemia and demyelination. It can cause subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord and peripheral neuritis. | Pharmacology | Hematology | A 40 year old man has megaloblastic anemia and early signs of neurological abnormality. The drug most probably required is:
A. Folic acid
B. Iron sulphate
C. Erythropoietin
D. Vitamin B12
| Vitamin B12 |
4b40bc88-ed51-4594-a0ec-949679ec57b6 | Mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressant used to prevent rejection of allogeneic cardiac, hepatic, and renal transplants. It is administered orally or intravenously. indications It is used to prevent rejection of organ transplants and for prophylaxis of organ rejection in allogeneic cardiac transplants. Contraindications Known hypersensitivity to this drug or to mycophenolic acid prohibits its use.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology, 23rd edition Page no:75 | Physiology | General physiology | Mycophenolate mofetil is used in
A. Prevention of organ transplantation rejection
B. Tuberculosis
C. Leprosy
D. Methanol posisoning
| Prevention of organ transplantation rejection |
14e67c31-0045-414c-ad36-8a97d2c7966b | In individuals with the Pizz phenotype, alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, its blood levels are less than 15% of normal, and patients are likely to develop panacinar emphysema at a young age; 50% of these patients will develop liver cirrhosis, because the A1AT is not secreted properly and instead accumulates in the liver. A liver biopsy in such cases will reveal PAS-positive, diastase-resistant granules. | Medicine | null | Liver cirrhosis is associated with which type of emphysema in Pizz phenotype mutation?
A. Centriacinar
B. Panacinar
C. Paraseptal
D. Multifocal
| Panacinar |
933bcb42-e319-404a-979e-27446ae1afb6 | Heroin is a semi synthetic derivative of opium. Withdrawal symptoms are lacrimation, sweating, yawning,anxiety,restlessness, rhinorrhoea and tremors seen 8-12 hours after last dose. All the other drugs donot have the above set of side effects. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | An addict presents with increased sweating, lacrimation, diarrhea, yawning and rhinorrhea. These symptoms may occur due to withdrawal of?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Cannabis
D. Alcohol
| Heroin |
93d4dad2-b320-428c-b321-989c22fd3d5a | Management of Dysgerminoma:
• The treatment of early dysgerminoma.
Surgical – including resection of the primary lesion (unilateral oophorectomy) and proper surgical dissection.
• Metastatic Disease – Chemotherapy or Radiation therapy.
Chemotherapy:
The most frequently used chemotherapy regimens for germ cell tumors are:
• BEP – Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin
• VBP – Vinblastin, Bleomycin, Cisplatin
• VAC – Vincristine, Actinomycin, Cyclophosphamide
Results suggest that patients with advanced stage, incompletely resected dysgerminoma have an excellent prognosis when treated with cisplatin based combination chemotherapy. The best regimen is 4 cycles of BEP. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Chemotherapy for dysgerminoma is:
A. Cisplatin, etoposide, bleomycin
B. Cyclophophamide, vincristine, prednisolone
C. Adriamycin, cyclophophamide, cisplatin
D. Methotrexate, oncovin, cyclophosphamide
| Cisplatin, etoposide, bleomycin |
be1a6b30-129c-4c1a-b072-d10775050b1b | Darbopoietin is a Long acting EPO derivative drug. It has a T1/2 24-36 hrs. So it is given once a week. Epoietin has a half life of 6-10 hrs. Uses - Anemia of chronic renal failure(CRF) Anaemia in AIDS patients treated with Zidovudine. Cancer chemotherapy induced anaemia. Preoperative increased blood production for Autologous transfusion during surgery. Oprelvekin is recombinant Interleukin-11 analogue (eleven) Sargramostim is recombinant GM-CSF analogue | Pharmacology | Hematology | Which of the following is a Longer acting Erythropoietin derivative?
A. Sargramostim
B. Darbepoetin alfa
C. Dornase alfa
D. Oprelvekin
| Darbepoetin alfa |
c2ae4328-5284-454d-9c5f-7b9583b0e6ab | Topical application of Mitomycin C after endoscopic dilatation of laryngotracheal stenosis prevents restenosis. Mitomycin-C (MMC) inhibits fibroblast proliferation and synthesis of extracellular matrix proteins, and thereby modulates wound healing and scarring. Mitomycin C is an antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces caespitosus. It is an alkylating agent that undergoes metabolic activation through an enzyme-mediated reduction to generate an alkylating agent that cross-links DNA. Hypoxic tumor stem cells of solid tumors are more sensitive to the cytotoxic actions of mitomycin than normal cells and oxygenated tumor cells. Its main clinical use is in the treatment of squamous cell cancer of the anus along with fluorouracil and radiation therapy. Additional uses are in cancers of: - cervix - stomach - pancreas - lung - bladder (intravesical treatment) | ENT | null | Topical Mitomycin C is used for _________
A. Endoscopic treatment of angiofibroma
B. Treatment of skull base osteomyelitis
C. Sturge Weber syndrome
D. Treatment for laryngeal stenosis
| Treatment for laryngeal stenosis |
79bf64f7-5219-44f8-a68b-5a5987ed37db | Ans. is 'a1 i.e., Retinitis pigmentosa Associations of retinitis pigmentosa1. Ocular associations : These include myopia, primary open angle glaucoma, microphthalmos, conical cornea and posterior subcapsular cataract.2. Systemic associations : These are in the form of following syndromesLaurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome : It is characterised by retinitis pigmentosa, obesity, hypogenitalism, polydactyly and mental deficiency.Cockayne's syndrome : It comprises retinitis pigmentosa, progressive infantile deafness, dwarfism, mental retardation, nystagmus and ataxia.Refsum's syndrome : it is characterized by retinitis pigmentosa, peripheral neuropathy and cerebellar ataxia.Usherfs syndrome : It includes retinitis pigmentosa and labyrinthine deafness.Hallgren's syndrome : It comprises retinitis pigmentosa, vestibulo-cerebellar ataxia, congenital deafness and mental deficiency. | Ophthalmology | Dystrophies and Degenerations | Refsum's syndrome is associated with -
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Xerophthalmia
C. Chalcosis
D. Diabetes retinopathy
| Retinitis pigmentosa |
2cc1b386-7da7-49eb-852d-a0dc1fa3c153 | Ans. (c) PainRef: Bailey and Love 27th ed; pg. 1230* MC symptom of Chronic pancreatitis - Pain* Site of pain depends on the foci of disease:# Head: Epigastric and Right Subcostal Pain# Left Side pancreas: Back pain# Diffuse pain is also seen sometimes.# Radiation to shoulder also can be seen | Surgery | Pancreas | Most common presentation of chronic pancreatitis
A. Nausea
B. Steatorrhea
C. Pain
D. Brittle Type 3 diabetes
| Pain |
0eb57c66-a806-4ed1-ab8c-4b38be214a2b | Ans. is a i.e. Progestin Adolescent Endometriosis : The incidental finding of minimal to mild endometriosis in a young woman without immediate interest in pregnancy is a common clinical problem. 70% of girls with chronic pelvic pain unresponsive to OCP's or NSAID's are affected by endometriosis. Mild disease can be treated by surgical removal of implants at the time of diagnosis followed by continuous administration of low dose combination oral pills to prevent recurrence. More advanced disease can be treated medically for 6 months, followed by continuous OCP's to prevent disease progression. The question now arises - which medical therapy is best suited for young women. Danazol causes virilising side effects and so not should be given to young women. GnRH causes severe osteoporosis and without backup therapy (like progesterone, OCP or tibolone) should not be used in young women especially in adolescent less than 16 years. So, best option is progestin. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Treatment of a cause of Endometriosis at a younger age group :
A. Progestin
B. Danazol
C. GnRH analogues
D. Hysterectomy with oophorectorny
| Progestin |
517cd3b0-d40b-4b0a-8ea5-43c9292c6434 | Most of the medial surface is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery. It also supplies the medial part of the orbital surface of the frontal lobe
Middle cerebral artery supplies most of the superolateral surface of brain. It also supplies the temporal lobe and the lateral part of the orbital surface of the frontal lobe
Most of the inferior surface(except the temporal pole )and occipital lobe is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery. | Anatomy | null | Anterior cerebral artery supplies which part of brain?
A. Anterior
B. Lateral
C. Medial
D. Posterior
| Medial |
24d55131-5f56-4367-8e09-90b5b1d0f2ab | Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1:MPGN is best considered a pattern of immune-mediated injury rather than a specific disease. The glomeruli are large and hypercellular. The glomeruli have an accentuated "lobular" appearance due to the proliferating mesangial cells and increased mesangial matrix. The GBM is thickened, and often shows a "double contour" or "tram-track" appearance, especially evident in silver or PAS stains. This is caused by "duplication" of the basement membrane (also commonly referred to as splitting), usually as the result of new basement membrane synthesis in response to subendothelial deposits of immune complexes.Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 20; The Kidney; Page no: 920 | Pathology | Urinary tract | Glomerular basement membrane showing "tram-track" appearance is seen in
A. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis type 1
B. Membranous nephropathy
C. Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
D. Minimal-Change Disease
| Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis type 1 |
b4ede1d0-d58e-45b3-8b50-e8ec56ce60b1 | "Most abnormalities associated with damage to the cerebellum are apparent during movement Ataxia is manifest not only in the wide-based, unsteady, "drunken" gait of patients but also in defects of the skilled movements involved in the production of speech, so that slurred, scanning speech results. Voluntary movements are also highly abnormal when the cerebellum is damaged. For example, attempting to touch an object with a finger results in overshooting. This dysmetria or past-pointing promptly initiates a gross corrective action, but the correction overshoots to the other side, and the finger oscillates back and foh. This oscillation is called an intention tremor." | Physiology | Nervous system | A 70-year-old male patient with intentional tremor, drunken gait, and past pointing is having a lesion in which of the following structures
A. Basal ganglia
B. Pyramidal tract
C. Cerebellum
D. Thalamus
| Cerebellum |
2be89eae-c77a-4a86-bd6f-e9724c97f80f | Eltrombopag is a thrombopoietin analogue used in ITP, but carries the risk of hepatotoxicity.
Lustrombopag & Avatrombopag are other thrombopoietin analogues used to prevent bleeding in patients of liver disease. | Pharmacology | null | Eltrombopag is a
A. Erythropoietin analogue
B. Erythropoietin receptor agonist
C. Thrombopoietin analogue
D. GMCSF analogue
| Thrombopoietin analogue |
2d6c7105-9bbd-4334-aa69-3a67f4219962 | Bisgaard method is method for treating venous ulcer. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is method of treating venous ulcer
A. Hilton's method
B. Trivex method
C. Bisgaard method
D. Tessari method
| Bisgaard method |
3b9d23d8-d830-4cbc-ae02-2a99acd38340 | ANSWER: (B) Sequestrated antigenREF: Ananthanarayan & Paniker 7th ed page 171, Textbook Of Medical Physiology ByKhurana 2009 ed page 207Hidden antigen or sequestrated antigen:Certain self antigens are present in the close system and never exposed to the immune system during fetal life. These are known as hidden antigen or sequestrated antigens. E.g.Sperm antigen, Lens proteins being enclosed in capsule | Ophthalmology | Miscellaneous (Lens) | Lens antigen are?
A. Neoantigen
B. Sequestrated antigen
C. Altered antigen
D. Cross reacting antigen
| Sequestrated antigen |
20a6b6da-7205-42db-85c8-f95e09798423 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Infection o Amongst the given options, only infection causes neonatal thrombocytopenia. | Pediatrics | null | Most frequent cause of neonatal thrombocytopenic purura is -
A. Infection
B. Drug idiosyncrasy
C. Large haemangiomas
D. Erythroblastosis
| Infection |
7bb78cdf-b65a-4e4b-b12f-0eb233c29c8b | Diseases Caused by Inflammatory ReactionsDisordersCells and Molecules involved in injuryAcute Acute respiratorydistress syndromeNeutrophilsAsthmaEosinophils; IgE antibodiesGlomerulonephritisAntibodies and complement; neutrophils, monocytesSeptic shockCytokinesChronicAhritisLymphocytes, macrophages; antibodies?AsthmaEosinophils; IgE antibodiesAtherosclerosisMacrophages; lymphocytesPulmonary fibrosisMacrophages; fibroblastsRef: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 3; Inflammation and Repair; Page no: 71; Table: 3-1 | Pathology | General pathology | Which of the following disease is caused by inflammatory reaction involved by neutrophils?
A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
B. Septic shock
C. Asthma
D. Ahritis
| Acute respiratory distress syndrome |
89f8a4d6-b6a3-4159-bfb8-4f8e710aa5cb | ANSWER: (D) RecyclingREF: With textElectronic waste, popularly known as 'e-waste* can be defined as electronic equipments/ products connects with power plug, batteries which have become obsolete due to: advancement in technology, changes in fashion, style and status, nearing the end of their useful life. (REF: Indian Institute of Materials Management (IIMM); weste-managemen t. htm)E-waste is not hazardous if it is stocked in safe storage or recycled by scientific methods ortransported from one place to the other in parts or in totality in the formal sector. The e-waste can, however, be considered hazardous if recycled by primitive methods. (REF: style="color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">. in/site s/upload_files/ di t/files/ E Waste_S ep 11_892011. p df)"Recycling raw materials from end-of-life electronics is the most effective solution to the growing e- waste problem. Most electronic devices contain a variety of materials, including metals that can be recovered for future uses. By dismantling and providing reuse possibilities, intact natural resources are conserved and air and water pollution caused by hazardous disposal is avoided. Additionally, recycling reduces the amount of greenhouse gas emissions caused by the manufacturing of new products. It simply makes good sense and is efficient to recycle and to do our part to keep the environment green. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electronic_waste)The e-waste inventory based on this obsolescence rate in India for the year 2005 has been estimated to be 1,46,180 tonnes which is expected to exceed 8,00,000 tonnes by 2012.1n India, there are no specific environmental laws or Guidelines for e-waste. None of the existing environmental laws have any direct reference to electronic waste or refer to its handling as hazardous in nature. However several provisions of these laws may apply to various aspects of electronic wastes. Since e-waste or its constituents fall under the category of 'hazardous" and "non hazardous waste", they shall be covered under the purviewT of "The Hazardous Waste Management Rules, 2003". Iron and steel constitutes about 50% of the e-waste followed by plastics(21%), non ferrous metals (13%) and other constituents. There is no large scale organized e-waste recycling facility in India and there are two small e-waste dismantling facilities are functioning in Chennai and Bangalore, while most of the e-waste recycling units are operating in un-organized sector. (REF: Ministry of environment forests, central pollution control board Delhi; style="color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> 27.06.08%20guidelines%20for%20E-Waste.pdf) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital Waste | Best way to dispose e-waste is?
A. Burning
B. Incineration
C. In a landfill
D. Recycling
| Recycling |
7b274121-4971-47ab-8d24-2bfa58eebd1c | - Falciform ligament develops in the ventral pa of the ventral mesentery - Lesser omentum (hepatogastric ligament) in the dorsal pa of ventral mesentery. | Anatomy | Mesentry, neurovascular bundle | Which of the following structure develop in ventral pa of ventral mesentery of stomach?
A. Falciform ligament
B. Hepatogastric ligament
C. Lesser omentum
D. Splenogastric ligament
| Falciform ligament |
8963e63d-f43e-4f28-aa48-1060390490ee | Energetics of Beta Oxidation (ATP Yield) - Palmitic acid (16 C) needs 7 cycles of beta oxidation. So, it gives rise to 8 molecules of acetyl CoA. Every molecule of acetyl CoA when oxidised in the TCA cycle gives 10 molecules of ATP. Each molecule of FADH2 produces 1.5 molecules of ATP and each NADH generates 2.5 molecules of ATP, when oxidised in the electron transpo chain. Hence, the energy yield from one molecule of palmitate may be calculated as: 8 acetyl CoA x 10 = 80 ATP 7 FADH2 x 1.5 = 10.5 ATP 7 NADH x 2.5 = 17.5 ATP Gross total = 108 ATP Net yield = 108-2 = 106 ATP. Ref: DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK OF BIOCHEMISTRY, EIGHTH EDITION,PG.NO.,196. | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | ATP yield in Beta oxidation of palmitic acid ?
A. 106 ATP
B. 102 ATP
C. 120 ATP
D. 110 ATP
| 106 ATP |
49453b8e-5511-47da-bab8-98cf7f95f97e | For immunoprophylaxis , trials in different population groups with BCG vaccine either alone or in combination with other vaccine have shown protective efficacy ranging between 28% and 60%. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 344 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Immunoprophylaxis of leprosy includes -
A. BCG
B. MMR
C. ICRC bacillus
D. Anthrax vaccine
| BCG |
71a63683-ada1-4288-ab94-31bb1a060ecc | Following an object up to 180deg comes at 2 months, Neck holding comes at 3 months, Sitting with suppo is attained at 6 months; So, the age of this baby is 6 months | Pediatrics | Impoant Motor Milestones | A baby can follow an object till 180o, can hold neck, can sit with suppo but cannot sit without suppo. The age of the baby is:
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 4 months
D. 6 months
| 6 months |
fe43aecd-b8ef-4660-bded-b6d31321c192 | Answer is C (Renal Hyposensitivity to ADH): Failure of urine osmolality to rise even after administration of exogenous ADH/vasopressin suggests a diagnosis of Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus due resistance to action of vasopressin on the Renal tubule (Renal Hyposensitivity to ADH). | Medicine | null | In a patient if administration of exogeneus vasopressin does not increase the osmolality of urine the likely cause is
A. SIADH
B. Psychogenic polydipsia
C. Renal Hyposensitivity to ADH
D. ADH Deficiency
| Renal Hyposensitivity to ADH |
424aa347-6be2-4ee5-a079-be9ae7c04dae | Presence of recurrent bouts of severe cough followed by an audible whoop suggests a diagnosis of pertusis (Whooping cough).
Nasopharyngeal Swab is the single best specimen to isolate the organism from the options provided. | Pediatrics | null | A child presents with recurrent bouts of severe cough followed by an audible whoop. Which of the following is considered the best type of specimen to isolate the organism and confirm the diagnosis.
A. Nasopharyngeal swab
B. Cough plate
C. Throat Swabs
D. Anterior Nasal Swab
| Nasopharyngeal swab |
6c65711e-aaf6-42b4-a1d8-a95d65d50cf4 | Factors that incriminated in the pathogenesis of lung cancer: Chromosome deletions (paicularly 11p, 13q, 17p, and 3p) Tumor suppressor gene mutations (p53, Hap-1, ErbAb, etc) High-level expression of both growth factor genes (insulinlike and transferrinlike growth factors) Epidermal growth factor receptors (HER2/neu,EGFR1, etc) Protooncogenes (c-, N- and L-myc; H-, N-, and K-ras; and c-myb) Vitamin A deficiency Air pollution Exposure to arsenic, cadmium, chromium, ether, and formaldehyde Employment as bakers, cooks, construction workers, cosmetologists, leather workers, pitchblende miners, printers, rubber workers, and pottery workers Ref: Theodore P.R., Jablons D. (2010). Chapter 18. Thoracic Wall, Pleura, Mediastinum, & Lung. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | Physiology | null | The vitamin deficiency implicated in metaplasia of respiratory epithelium is:
A. Vitamin-A
B. Vitamin-C
C. Vitamin-B
D. Vitamin-E
| Vitamin-A |
0210e35e-002b-4be0-8dbd-391973903c38 | → Apart from A< B and O, RBC of type O contains large amount of another antigen called H substance.
→ H substance is genetically different from ABO, but is a precursor of A and B antigens.
→ An O group individual who inherits A or B genes, but fails to inherit H gene from either parent is called Oh phenotype or Bombay blood group. | Pathology | null | A 40 year old female patient complains of excessive bleeding. Patient gives a history of road traffic accident 5 hours ago and had a lacerated wound on lower back region. Blood grouping test reveals presence of antigen A and antigen H. Anti Rh D antibody and anti B antibody are also present. This patient can receive transfusion from a donor with blood group?
A. A positive
B. O positive
C. B negative
D. Bombay blood group
| Bombay blood group |
da1cf954-bff7-4e65-8e6d-68ce70c6988d | Heberden does is a feature of osteoahritis and not rheumatoid ahritisImpoant hand deformities of hand in RABoutonniere deformity: flexion contracture of PIP joint and extension DIP jointSwan neck deformity: hyperextension of PIP joint and flexion at DIP joint(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 88, 101, 127) | Orthopaedics | All India exam | Which of the following is not a feature of rheumatoid ahritis?
A. Heberden nodes
B. Swan neck deformity
C. Ulnar detion of fingers at metacarpopalyngeal joint
D. Symmetric reduction of joint space
| Heberden nodes |
4e4b1088-b359-440b-851c-1bcd4608e45a | The most common withdrawal syndrome is a hangover on the next morning. Mild tremors, nausea, vomiting, weakness, irritability, insomnia and anxiety are the other common withdrawal symptoms. Sometimes the withdrawal syndrome may be more severe, characterised by one of the following three disturbances: delirium tremens, alcoholic seizures and alcoholic hallucinosis. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 37 | Psychiatry | Substance abuse | Most common symptom of symptom of alcohol withdrawal is
A. Bodyache
B. Tremor
C. Diarrhoea
D. Rhinorrhea
| Tremor |
f54992e3-6b45-4aa3-87b2-40658633ec6c | Ans is 'c' i.e. Streptococcus "The skin graft generally survives when placed over the wounds containing less than 105 organisms per gram of tissue unless the organisms are streptococci, which can rapidly dissolve transplanted skin." - S. Das 3/e, p 142 | Surgery | null | Skin grafting is absolutely C/I in which skin infection?
A. Staphylococus
B. Pseudomonas
C. Streptococus
D. Proteus
| Streptococus |
03009447-dc4f-4ee3-9c35-1c9928a917c8 | Ans. (c) Sweat electrolytesRef: Harrison's Medicine 18th ed p 2149-50 | Medicine | Genetics | Most sensitive investigation for cystic fibrosis is?
A. CT scan
B. Ultrasound
C. Sweat electrolytes
D. Tomogram
| Sweat electrolytes |
05211e03-6a60-475c-978a-9c721c2c352a | (A) Barium meal # Clinical features of Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:> Characteristically it is a first-born male child that is most commonly affected. The condition is most commonly seen at 4 weeks after birth ranging from the third week to, on rare occasions, the seventh.> Inexplicably, it is the time following birth that seems important and not the child's gestational age.> A premature infant will also develop the condition at about 4 weeks after birth.> Vomiting is the presenting symptom that after 2--3 days becomes forcible and projectile. The child vomits milk and no bile is present. Immediately after vomiting the baby is usually hungry. Weight loss is a striking feature and rapidly the infant becomes emaciated and dehydrated.> Diagnosis can usually be made with a test feed. This may produce characteristic peristaltic waves that can be seen to pass across the upper abdomen.> At the same time, using a warm hand, the abdomen is palpated to detect the lump. Ultrasound examination of abdomen reveals dome shaped, thickened pyloric sphincter. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | An Infant brought to the clinic with non-biliousf projectile vomiting. The investigation of choice includes\
A. Barium meal
B. Abdominal ultrasonograpy
C. Flexible Endoscopy
D. Sigmoidoscopy
| Barium meal |
43c1e6b0-0735-4c08-8d36-cac4733a2066 | After cataract, if thin, can be cleared centrally by a YAG laser capsulotomy. | Ophthalmology | Lens | Which laser is used in the management of after cataracts -
A. Argon
B. Krypton
C. YAG
D. Excimer
| YAG |
7a1a7792-bef9-4f5c-bd39-28846fefe15d | Superficial second degree burns usually heal with minimum scarring in 10-14 days unless they become infected. Second degree burns are divided into superficial and deep burns. Superficial dermal burns: Erythematous and painful, blanch to touch and often blister. They heal in 10-14 days. Deep dermal burns : Involve the reticular dermis appear more pale and mottled, donot blanch to touch, but remain painful to pinprick. They heal in 4-8 weeks. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Superficial second degree burns heal by
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
| 2 weeks |
7fbb5f1b-35ce-4cde-aeab-cb5a8d0622e8 | Erotomania (de Clerambault's syndrome): Condition in which a person holds a delusional belief that another person, usually of a higher social status, is in love with him/her. Erotomanic tries to get close to the person through telephone calls, e-mails, letters, gifts and visits. MC in women than in men. Ekbom syndrome (delusions of parasitosis): A form of psychosis wherein the patients acquire a delusional belief that they are infested with parasites, whereas in reality no such parasites are present. Cotard delusion/syndrome: Person holds a delusional belief that he is dead, does not exist, is putrefying or has lost his blood or internal organs. Delusion of infidelity/jealousy (Othello syndrome): Person holds a delusional belief that his spouse is unfaithful. Males are more affected. | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Psychiatry | Syndrome characterized by an elaborate delusion that the patient is passionately loved by another person is also known as:
A. Ekbom's syndrome
B. De Clerambault's syndrome
C. Querulous paranoia
D. Othello syndrome
| De Clerambault's syndrome |
e0f37d7e-02dc-4cf7-86d3-f5c07899fb61 | Ans: D (Folic acid analogue) Ref: The Pharmacological basis of therapeutics bv Goodman & Gilman - 12th edition, page no. 1669 -767/Explanation:"Methotrexate is an anti-metabolite which is a folic acid analogue." Ref: G&GClassification of Anti-Cancer DrugsAnti-metabolitesPemetrexed5 FUCapecitabineCytarabineGemcitabine5-aza-cytidineAlkylating agentsCyclophosphamideMelphalanChlorambucilProcarbazineBusull'anDacarbazineCisplatinOxaliplatinAntibioticsDoxorubicinDuunorubicinDactinomycinNatural products includeVinblastineVincristinePacliiaxelIrinotecanBiologic response modifiers includeInterferon alfaInterleukin-2Other categoriesTyrosine kinase inhibitors - imatinib, Sunitinib, DasatinibmTOR inhibitors - TemsirolimusProtea some inhibitors - Bortezomib | Pharmacology | Anti-Neoplastic Agents | Methotrexate is an example for which of the following class of drugs?
A. Antibiotic
B. Alkylating agent
C. Biologic response modifier
D. Folic acid analogue
| Folic acid analogue |
3103abb3-c4af-44b5-b618-40a0a935fa52 | Dye stuffs & dyeing industries, rubber, gas & electric cable industries are associated with carcinoma of bladder (transitional cell carcinoma). Bladder cancer is caused by aromatic amines, which are metabolized in the body & excreted in the urine. Possible bladder carcinogens are: Beta-naphthylamines, benzidine, para-amino-diphenyl, auramine & magenta. In this case pt. is exposed to dyes for long duration and is at risk for developing bladder cancer. So, urine tests should be done to see if there is any hematuria, which is the mc symptom of bladder cancer. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment | A 45-years-old man who works in textile company visited hospital for routine health check-up. He prepares dyes in company from last 18 years. Which of the following investigation would you recommend for this patient?
A. Pulmonary function tests
B. Liver function tests
C. Urine examination
D. Complete blood count.
| Urine examination |
53c4883e-86a2-44de-bb03-38aa0971cc1f | The five classical signs of inflammation are heat, pain, redness, swelling, and loss of function (Latin calor, dolor, rubor, tumor, and functio laesa). Ref - Internet | Medicine | Immune system | Which of the following joints findings Is most suggestive of an inflammatory, rather than an osteroahritis cause of joints pain?
A. Painful range of motion
B. Crepitus
C. Bony aicular enlargement
D. Swelling and warmth
| Swelling and warmth |
d536075a-2268-4e1a-817e-525f454cf251 | Ans. D. S cells. (Ref. Guyton's Medical Physiology 11th/pg. 801; Ganong 23rd/ Chapter 36).GI secretory products1. Nitrous oxide: Causes smooth muscle relaxation (e.g., elower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxtion).2. Gastrin: Secreted in response to gastric distention, vagal stimulation, and amino acid entering the stomach; causes gastric H+ secretion.3. Secretin: Secreted in response to H+ and fatty acids entering the duodenum; causes pancreatid secretion of of HCO3 and inhibits gastrin H+ secretion. It is known as Nature's antacid as after being secreted by 'S' cells of duodenum it causes, secretion of bicarbonate from pancreas, which neutralises gastric acid.4. Cholecystokinin (CCK): Secreted in response to amino acids and fatty acids entering the duodenum; causes contraction of gallbladder and pancreatic secretion of enzymes and HC03 (AIIMS-99).5. Parasympathetic (ACh): Increases production of saliva; increased gastric H+ secretion; increases pancreatic enzyme and HCO3+ secretion; stimulates enteric nervous system to create intestinal peristalisis; relaxes sphincters.6. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP): Secreted by smooth muscle and nerves of intestines. Relaxes intestinal smooth muscle causes pancreatic HC03 secretion and inhibits gastric H+ secretion.7. Sympathetic (NE): Increases production of saliva; deceases spalnchnic blood flow in fight-or-flight response: decreases motility; constricts sphincters.HormoneSourceActionRegulationNotesGastrinG cells, antrum of stomach| gastric H+ secretion, | growth of gastric mucosa, | gastric motility| by stomach distention, amino acids peptides, vagal stimulation; | by H+ secretion and stomach acid pH <1.5| | in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome; phenylalanine and tryptophan are potent stimulatorsCholecy- stokinin| cells, duodenum, jejunum| pancreatic secretion, | gallbladder contraction; |gasctic emptying, | growth of exocrine pancreas and gallbladder| by secretin and stomach pH < 1.5; | by fatty acids, amino acidsIncholelithiasis, pain woesens after fatty food ingestion due to| CCKSecretinS cells, duodenum| pancreatic HCO3' secretion, | gastric acid secretion| by acid, fatty acids in lumen of duodenum| HCO3 neutralizes gastric acid in duodenum, allowing pancrestic enzymes to functionSomatostainD cells, pancreatic islets; GI mucosa| gastric acid and pepsinogen secretion | pancreatic and small intestine fluid secretion | insulin and glucagon release| by acid; | by vagal stimulationInhibitory hormone; antigrowth hormone effects (digestion and absorption of substances needed for growth)Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)K cells, duodenum and jejunumExocrine: | gastric H+ secretionEndocrine: | insulin release| by fatty acids, amino acids, oral glucose (only GI hormone stimulated by all 3 nutrient classes)| GIP is why an oral glucose load is used more rapidly than the equivalent given by IVSecretin# Secretin is a polypeptide, containing 27 amino acids (molecular weight about 3400), present in an inactive form, prosecretin, in so-called S cells in the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum. When acid chyme with pH less than 4.5 to 5.0 enters the duodenum from the stomach, it causes duodenal mucosal release and activation of secretin, which is then absorbed into the blood. The one truly potent constituent of chyme that causes this secretin release is the hydrochloric acid from the stomach.# Secretin in turn causes the pancreas to secrete large quantities of fluid containing a high concentration of bicarbonate ion (up to 145 mEq/L) but a low concentration of chloride ion. The secretin mechanism is especially important for two reasons: First, secretin begins to be released from the mucosa of the small intestine when the pH of the duodenal contents falls below 4.5 to 5.0, and its release increases greatly as the pH falls to 3.0. This immediately causes copious secretion of pancreatic juice containing abundant amounts of sodium bicarbonate.Cholecystokinin# The presence of food in the upper small intestine also causes a second hormone, cholecystokinin, a polypeptide containing 33 amino acids, to be released 'I cells', in the mucosa of the duodenum and upper jejunum. This release of cholecystokinin results especially from the presence of proteoses and peptones and long-chain fatty acids in the chyme coming from the stomach.# The differences between the pancreatic stimulatory effects of secretin and Cholecystokinin:- intense sodium bicarbonate secretion in response to acid in duodenum, stimulated by secretin,- a dual effect in response to soap (a fat), and- intense digestive enzyme secretion (when peptones enter duodenum) stimulated by CCK.Educational points:Basic Stimuli That Cause Pancreatic SecretionThree basic stimuli are important in causing pancreatic secretion:1. Acetylcholine, which is released from the parasympathetic vagus nerve endings and from other cholinergic nerves in the enteric nervous system2. Cholecystokinin, which is secreted by duodenal and upper jejunal mucosa when food enters small bowel3. Secretin, which is also secreted by duodenal and jejunal mucosa when highly acid food enters small bowel.The presence of acid, fat, protein breakdown products, hyperosmotic or hypo-osmotic fluids, or any irritating factor in the upper small intestine causes release of several intestinal hormones. One of these is secretin, which is especially important for control of pancreatic secretion. However, secretin opposes stomach secretion. Three other hormones--gastric inhibitory peptide, vasoactive intestinal polypeptide, and somatostatin--also have slight to moderate effects in inhibiting gastric secretion. | Physiology | G.I.T. | Secretin is produced by which of the following duodenal cells?
A. I cells
B. T cells
C. M cells
D. S cells
| S cells |
1fb43edd-2cb2-44cb-84f3-313ac468e69e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pruritus o Women with VIN and vulvar cancer commonly present with pruritus and a visible lesion.# However, pain, bleeding, and ulceration may also be initial complaints. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Valva | First symptom in vulval cancer is-
A. Pain
B. Pruritus
C. Ulceration
D. Bloody discharge
| Pruritus |
0b85c902-0dc8-4c70-8799-e28b6dceb1e6 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., forehead LACERATIONS (Tear or Rupture)o Lacerations are tears or splits of skin, mucous membrane and underlying tissue (e.g., muscle or internal organs). Lacerations are produced by application of blunt force to broad area of the body, which crush or stretch tissues beyond the limits of their elasticity. Localized portions of tissue are displaced by the impact of the blunt force, which sets up traction forces and causes tearing of tissues. Features of lacerations are:-i) Hair and hair bulb, nerves and blood vessels are crushed - There may be paralysis (nerve crushed) and hemorrhage is not pronounced (blood vessels crushed).ii) Site of injury is the site of impact.iii) Shape of injury is irregular, margins are irregular and contused/abraded and show tags of tissue.iv) Size of injury does not corresponds to impacting surface.o There are following types of laceration:-1) Split laceration : Splitting occurs by crushing of skin between two hard objects. Blunt force on areas where the skin is close to rigid structures like bone with scanty subcutaneous tissue, may produce a wound that by linear splitting of tissue may look like incised wound, i.e., incised like or incised looking wound. Examples of such area are scalp, eye brows, cheek bones (zygomatic), lower jaw, iliac crest, perineum and skin. A wound produced by a fall on knee or elbow with limb flexed and by a sharp stone also simulates incised wound.2) Strech lacerations: Overstretching of the skin, if it is fixed, will cause laceration, for example, by kicking, sudden deformity of bone occurs after fracture, making it compound.3) Avulsion (shearing laceration): An avulsion is a laceration produced by sufficient force (shearing force) delivered at an acute angle to detach (tear off) a portion of a traumatized surface or viscus from its attachment, the shearing and grinding force by a weight. Flaying is type of avulsion in which shearing and grinding force by weight (such as of lorry wheel passing over a limb) may produce avulsion (separation of skin from underlying tissue/degloving of a large area).4) Tears: Tears of the skin and tissues can occur from imact by a against irregular or semi-sharp objects, such as door handle of a car. This is another form of overstretching.5) Cut laceration: Cut lacerations may be produced by a heavy sharp edged instrument. | Forensic Medicine | Injuries by Sharp Force | Incised looking lacerated wound site is?
A. Forehead
B. Hand
C. Thorax
D. Abdomen
| Forehead |
a2f01d80-2049-4155-8ba7-68aa1a47ef94 | Keshan's Disease Deficiency of Selenium (Se) Affects: Children Women of child bearing age CLINICAL FEATURES: Cardiomyopathy Muscle weakness Hypothyroidism Eczema Increased risk of stroke Hypeension Cancer Selenium Sources- seafood and meat, nuts Deficiency - Keshan's disease Toxicity - Selenium toxicity lead to Selenosis | Biochemistry | FMGE 2019 | Keshan's disease is due to deficiency of:
A. Selenium
B. Zinc
C. Copper
D. Iron
| Selenium |
f79d62c5-a436-4a26-8643-7ba3d8ae75ee | ANSWER: (A) StaphylococcusREF: Harrisons 18th ed chapter 125Important causes of muscle infections:Most common cause of pyomyositis : staphylococcus aureusGas gangrene : CL PerferingensSevere muscle pain : pleurodynia due to coxsackie B, trichinosisRhabdomyolysis : clostridium , streptococcal | Microbiology | Staphylococci | Localized myogenic infection is caused by which bacteria?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Clostridium
C. Cornybacterium
D. Streptococcal
| Staphylococcus |
97bc6a1d-d772-43aa-bdbc-8528bcd42f51 | Pain which is increasing along with decrease in vision paicularly after only three days of cataract surgery strongly suggest endophthalmitis | Ophthalmology | Lens | A56 years old patient presents after three days of cataract surgery with a history of increasing pain and decrease of vision after an initial improvement the most likely cause would be
A. Endophthalmitis
B. After cataract
C. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. Retinal detachment
| Endophthalmitis |
d6bb20bf-62cd-4156-bf97-0377b9a7c824 | Oedipus complex is described by Freud in psychosexual stages of development. | Psychiatry | null | Oedipus complex has been described by -
A. Plato
B. Socartes
C. Freud
D. Huxley
| Freud |
f85038e4-e70b-4a63-b316-5642f0b3f4fc | Nearly 95 percent of ectopic pregnancies are implanted in the various segments of the fallopian tube. The ampulla (70 percent) is the most frequent site, followed by isthmic (12 percent), fimbrial (11 percent), and interstitial tubal pregnancies (2 percent).The remaining 5 percent of non-tubal ectopic pregnancies implant in the ovary, peritoneal cavity, cervix, or prior cesarean scarReference: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition; Chapter 19; Ectopic pregnancy | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | Most frequent site of tubal ectopic pregnancy is
A. Interstitial
B. Isthmic
C. Ampulla
D. Infundibulum
| Ampulla |
50ae24ac-c799-49e2-a820-8f39f295d517 | The INR calculation has become a standard method for monitoring the PT values. It is calculated as = (patient prothrombin time/mean prothrombin time)ISI. Patient prothrombin time = 26 Mean prothrombin time = 13 ISI (International Sensitivity Index) = 1.41 INR = (26/13)1.41 Ref: Laboratory Hematology Practice By Kandice Kottke-Marchant, Bruce Davis, Page 424; Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 11th Edition, Page 1479; Physician Assistant's Clinical Companion By Springhouse, Pages 89-91 | Pharmacology | null | Prothombin Time (PT) of a patient is 26, Control PT is 13 seconds and Sensitivity index is 1.41. What will be the INR of this patient?
A. 26/13
B. (26/13) x 1.41
C. (26/13)+1.41
D. (26/13)1.41
| (26/13)1.41 |
a4fa4c0e-0bf8-4382-9dc9-81c339068c03 | A negatively skewed distribution is where most of the values are on the higher side and the tail is pointing left. The mean of a distribution is more affected by extreme values than is the median. Therefore, in a negatively skewed distribution with few values on the lower end of the distribution, the mean is pulled towards the tail or lower end and becomes less than the median. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine, By K. Park, 19th Edition, Pages 699-702; Essentials of Research Methods in Health, Physical Education, Exercise Science and Recreation, By Kris E. Berg, Richard W. Latin, Second Edition, Pages 85-87; High-Yield Biostatistics, By Anthony N. Glaser, Third Edition, Pages 10, 11. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The systolic blood pressure of 10 individuals was measured. The mean and median values were calculated to be 130 mmHg and 140 mmHg respectively. What is the shape of the frequency distribution curve?
A. Symmetrical distribution
B. Bimodal distribution
C. Positively skewed distribution
D. Negatively skewed distribution
| Negatively skewed distribution |
306b45b9-f851-4dde-9e41-cd5e4aa1b201 | a-length of patellar ligament b-length of patella INSAL-SALVATI index=a/b Normal range is 0.8 -1.2 If ratio increases it suggests patella is at a higher level-PATELLA ALTA If ratio decreases it suggests patella is at a lower level -PATELLA BAHA ref:apley's 9th edition pg no.565 | Orthopaedics | Thigh, Knee,Leg,Foot & Ankle injuries | Insal-Salvati index is used for
A. Olecranon
B. Patella
C. Talus
D. Scaphoid
| Patella |
296ad461-b419-4e1f-9e79-8c2fc9a94657 | Answer is C (11): A head injury patient who opens eyes to painfid stimulus (2), is confused (4) and localizes pain (5) has a GCS `Glasgow coma scale' score of 11. | Medicine | null | A head injured patient, who opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused and localizes to pain. What is the Glassgow coma score :
A. 7
B. 9
C. 11
D. 13
| 11 |
32ac22d6-81a3-427d-a556-c32af0037239 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Capitate o Among the given options only capitate lies in middle (not lateral or medial) and it is the largest carpal boneo Scaphoid is lateral most bone in proximal row, pisiform is medial most bone in proximal row and hamate is medial most bone in distal row.Carpal bonesProximal Row (Lateral to medial)Distal Row (Lateral to medial)o Scaphoido Lunateo Triquetralo Pisiformo Trapeziumo Trapezoido Capitateo Hamateo Capitate is the largest carpal bone, first carpal bone to ossify & articulates with maximum number of bones. | Anatomy | Osteology of Upper Extremity | Which is the middle and large carpal bone -
A. Scaphoid
B. Pisiform
C. Hamate
D. Capitate
| Capitate |
2ceae270-cfa7-495b-a0f8-e1757891266d | Body mass index (BMI) BMI = wt (kg)/ ht (m)2 Example: an adult of 70 kg with a height of 1.75 m has a BMI of 70/1.752= 22.9 kg/m2 * BMI is a useful way of identifying under- or over-nutrition but cannot discriminate between lean body or muscle mass and fat mass <img src=" /> Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 76 | Medicine | Nutrition | Severe malnutrition is defined in adults with BMI less than
A. 18.5
B. 16
C. 13
D. 11
| 16 |
5b48d5da-2c00-428c-85c8-5a75a15806f6 | . In healing 1.intial haemorrhage. 2.acute inflammatory response:this occurs withiwithin 24 hours with appearance of polymorphs from margin of incision by the 3rd day polymorphs are replaced by macrophages. Ref Robbins 9 /e pg62-65 | Pathology | General pathology | First cell to migrate into a wound due to chemotaxis to sta the process of wound healing is -
A. Lymphocyte
B. Macrophage
C. Platelet
D. Neutrophil
| Neutrophil |
4fc36e3f-57ff-431b-bd32-640ace3a0c71 | Below 20 years, 60% ovarian tumours are of germ cell origin and in girls less than 105, 85% tumours are of germ cell origin. Ref: Shaw 15th edition: page; 376. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Most common ovarian tumour in less than 20 year old is:
A. Epithelial tumour
B. Germ cell tumour
C. Metastatic tumour
D. Sex cord stromal tumour
| Germ cell tumour |
80baee15-1dbd-4143-a692-712feb3c74fc | The hormones produced in the kidneys are 1,25 Dihyrocholecalciferol, Renin and Erythropoetin. Angiotensin is an oligopeptide and is a hormone and a powerful dipsogen. It is derived from the precursor molecule angiotensinogen, a serum globulin produced in the liver. It plays an impoant role in the renin-angiotensin system. Ref: The Local Cardiac Renin-Angiotensin Aldosterone System By Edward D. Frohlich, Richard N. ; Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd Edition, Pages 455, 459 | Physiology | null | Which of the following peptides are not produced by the renal system?
A. Renin
B. Angiotensin I
C. Erythropoietin
D. 1,25DHCC
| Angiotensin I |
a223166e-c26f-480b-9450-980a9395053f | (Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no.163-168) | Anaesthesia | All India exam | Bone marrow depression is seen with chronic administration of
A. Isoflurane
B. N2O
C. Ether
D. Halothane
| N2O |
c4920168-0531-41d2-85fa-d66ff3019bf1 | MUMABs- are fully humanized monoclonal antibodies Omabs- derived from mice Zumabs- 80 % Human Adaliimumab: This recombinant monoclonal anti-TNF Antibody is administered s.c. 40 mg every 2 weeks. Injection site reaction and respiratory infections are common adverse effects. Combination with Mtx is advised to improve the response and decrease antibody formation. ESSENTIALS of MEDICAL PHARMOCOLOGY SIXTH EDITION -KD TRIPATHI Page:205 | Pharmacology | Immunomodulators | Which Fully humanized antibody is used in treatment of rheumatoid ahritis?
A. Anakira
B. Adalimumab
C. Infliximab
D. Leflunomide
| Adalimumab |
6641a440-cdc6-482e-8d60-6c14e3a8abbb | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Atropine Mushroom poisoning o Depending on the toxic principal present in the paicular species, at least 3 types of mushroom poisoning is known. 1. Muscarine type (early mushroom poisoning) Due to Inocybe and related species. Symptoms are due to muscarinic action. T/t of choice is atropine. 2. Hallucinogenic type o It is due to muscimol and other isoxazole compounds which are present in A. muscaria. o These isoxazole compounds activate amino acid, receptors, and block muscarinic receptor in brain; and have hallucinogenic propey. o Manifestations are primarily central. o There is no specific treatment and atropine is contraindicated. o Another hallucinogenic mushroom is Psiloocybe mexicana whose active principal Psilocybine is a tryptaminergic compound (this has been added to 6th/e of KDT). 3.Phalloidin type (late mushroom poisoning) o Due to peptide toxin found in A. phalloides and Galerina. o These inhibit RNA & protein synthesis. o Symptoms are due to damage to the GI mucosa, liver and kidney. o Treatment is supppoive, Thiotic acid may be used. | Pharmacology | null | The drug of choice for mushroom poisoning-
A. Adrenaline
B. Physostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Carbachol
| Atropine |
10f7126b-41ba-4203-a3b0-9ff62b84165e | Ans:B.)Aspaic Acid Urea has 2 amino (-NH2) groups, one derived from NH3 and other from aspaate.UREA CYCLE* Location: Cytosol and mitochondria of hepatocytes.* Substrates: NH 3 (as derived from oxidative deamination of glutamate); CO2 ; aspaate; three ATP.* Products: Urea; fumarate; H2O.* Purpose: The urea cycle allows for the excretion of NH 4+ by transforming ammonia into urea, which is then excreted by the kidneys.* Impoant enzymes:Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I: Conves ammonium and bicarbonate into carbamoyl phosphate. This is the rate-limiting step in the urea cycle. This reaction requires two ATP and occurs in the mitochondria.Ornithine transcarbamoylase: Combines ornithine and carbamoyl phosphate to form citrulline. Located in mitochondria.Argininosuccinate synthetase: Condenses citrulline with aspaate to form arginosuccinate. This reaction occurs in the cytosol and requires one ATP.Argininosuccinate lyase: Splits argininosuccinate into arginine and fumarate. Occurs in the cytosol.Arginase: Cleaves arginine into one molecule of urea and ornithine in the cytosol. The ornithine is then transpoed back into the mitochondria for entry back into the cycle.* Regulation: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the cycle and is stimulated by N -acetylglutamate.* Diseases:Hyperammonemia occurs when there is a deficiency in one of more of the urea cycle enzymes, causing insufficient removal of NH 4+ .Ammonia intoxication leads to CNS deterioration in the form of mental retardation, seizure, coma, and death. | Biochemistry | null | Amino acid involved in urea synthesis:
A. Glutamine
B. Aspaic acid
C. Valine
D. Phenylalanine
| Aspaic acid |
a36597d8-c8b2-4eec-b36c-8c91c04ab87d | Ans. a (Epidural analgesia)LUMBAR EPIDURAL ANALGESIAIndications for lumbar epidural analgesia :# Pain in labor, management of the patient with preeclampsia who does not have a coagulation abnormality, management of labor in patients with certain cardiac lesions, and management of breech delivery.# Of the various pharmacologic methods of pain relief used in labor and delivery, regional analgesia techniques--spinal, epidural and combined spinal epidural (CSE) are the most flexible, effective, and least depressing to the CNS, allowing for an alert, participating mother and an alert neonate.Absolute contraindications:# Patient refusal, hemodynamic instability, infection at the anticipated site of puncture, and absence of resuscitation equipment.Relative contraindications:# Fever, preexisting CNS disease, hypovolemia, hypotension, lack of experience by the anesthetist, and blood coagulation defects.# Although an arbitrary platelet count of 100,000 per mm3 has been advocated as the lower limit for safe lumbar epidural analgesia, successful blocks without epidural bleeding complications have been obtained with platelet counts as low as 50,000 per mm3.Three principal advantages of lumbar epidural analgesia:# The parturient remains awake and cooperative.# The incidence of complications is very low when the technique is used correctly.# Once an epidural catheter is in place, it can be used to provide analgesia or anesthesia for a vaginal or cesarean delivery.The disadvantages of lumbar epidural analgesia:# The possibility of poor perineal analgesia# The presence of "hot spots", where analgesia is insufficient# Delayed onset of action# Technical difficulty (Technical failure occurs in approximately 4% of cases)# Intravascular injection# Accidental dural puncture | Anaesthesia | Local and Regional Anesthesia | Current mode of analgesia best for intrapartum pain relief:
A. Epidural analgesia
B. Spinal anaesthesia
C. Inhalational
D. Local analgesia
| Epidural analgesia |
84f81388-d7d7-4ab5-a651-d496c4c0e120 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Conservative management o The presence ofpain and fever in a female in her mid pregnancy with ultrasound examination showing presence offibroid supports the diagnosis of red degeneration.Red Degeneration (Also known as Carneous Degeneration)o Occurs in pregnant females with presence of fibroid because fibroid overgrows its blood supply (micronecrothrombosis).o Most commonly occurs in second trimester of pregnancy followed by in the puerperium.o Cut section : raw beefy appearance, fishy odor.o Patient presents with acute abdomen, vomiting, fever, and leukocytosis,o D/D : acute appendicitis, pyelonephritis, and abruption.Management:o Always conservative management (never surgery)o Hospitalizationo Bed resto Analgesicso IVfluidso IV antibiotics (SOS)Some important points about fibroidso Most common degeneration overall-Hyalineo Most common degeneration in pregnancy-Redo Cystic degeneration is most common in-Post menopausal wromen & interstitial fibroido Calcareous degeneration is most common in-Subserous fibroido Most common fibroid to undergo torsion-Subserous fibroid.o Pseudo Meigh syndrome is associated with-Subserous fibroid.o Wandering or parasitic fibroid-Subserous fibroid.o Most common type of fibroid-Intramural / interstitial.o Fibroid with maximum symptoms-Submucous.o Most symptomatic fibroid-Submucous,o Most common fibroid to undergo malignant change-Submucous.o Lantern on dome of St paul-Cervical fibroid.o Most common to cause urinary retention-Posterior cervical.o Most common menstrual symptom-Menorrhagea.o Inversion is associated with-Fundal fibroid. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Treatment and Recurrence | 28 weeks pregnancy with abdominal pain and fever. Ultrasonographic examination shows presence of fibroid. What is the next line of management-
A. Hysterectomy
B. Conservative management
C. Termination
D. Myomectomy
| Conservative management |
edd890f2-bd51-40c8-8d94-d2c8b46c5444 | Ans. A: Low PaO2With increasing altitude, barometric pressure decreases, so the total pressure of the air decreases and pH2O and pCO2 remains constant So p02 and pN2 decreases progressively with heightHigh-altitude illnessUsually occurs at altitudes of over 1,500 m (4,921 ft)Caused primarily by hypoxia but is compounded by cold and exposure.Hypoxia is the main contributor to high-altitude illness.Atmospheric pressure and the paial pressure of oxygen decrease rapidly at increasing levels above the eah's surfacepCO2 and pH2O remain constant, pN2 also decreasesIt presents as one of three forms: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) and high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE).Cardinal symptoms include dyspnea on exeion and at rest, cough, nausea, difficulty sleeping, headache and mental status changes.Treatment requires descent, and gradual acclimatization provides the most effective prevention.Acetazolamide is an effective preventive aid and can be used in ceain conditions as treatment. | Physiology | null | Which of the following is seen at high altitude:September 2011
A. Low PaO2
B. High PaO2
C. Normal PaO2
D. High PaCO2, Low PaO2
| Low PaO2 |
a67a0110-ea4a-49a7-b0f2-8deba91f86ab | Glutamic acid is formed by the transamination of alanine and vice versa. Alanine aminotransferase is the enzyme and pyridoxal phosphate is the coenzyme.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 201, fig.15.8. | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | Glutamic acid is formed from which of the following amino acid?
A. Threonine
B. Proline
C. Alanine
D. Lysine
| Alanine |
d182c30f-06a5-4d0a-9f0b-a1b5e0254767 | Diseases under WHO surveillance Polio Rabies Relapsing fever Influenza Salmonellosis Malaria Louse born typhus Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | Which disease comes under International Surveillance?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Salmonellosis
C. Chikungunya fever
D. Hepatitis B
| Salmonellosis |
a85db1d4-b089-4fc1-af3b-a5c6ab715ebe | Niacin is used as coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD') for transfer of hydrogen. | Biochemistry | null | Coenzyme used in Kreb's cycle ?
A. NAD
B. NADP
C. NADPH
D. NADH
| NAD |
52cd5175-0cc3-4176-8f64-90ef08fefd33 | A-1 is the integral apoprotein of HDL.LCAT binds to discoidal HDL activated by A1 conves discoidal HDL to HDL 3Harpers Biochemistry; 30th edition | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | Apolipoprotein activating L-CAT (LQ) is
A. B - 48
B. A - I
C. A - II
D. B-100
| A - I |
72f55aa7-5242-4823-80dd-078c86964a1e | - beri beri is due to the deficiency of thiamine. - it has 3 main forms. Dry form characterised by nerve involvement. Wet firm characterised by hea involvement and infantile beri beri. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:618 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Beri-Beri is caused by -
A. Thiamine
B. Folic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. Niacin
| Thiamine |
bdc6cc31-cae1-4f47-9e81-d15797979283 | Answer- B. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radical cystectomy | Surgery | null | A 58 year old male presents with hematuria. He s diagnosed of having bladder cancer which extends muscle deep. The best treatment is
A. Intravesical Chemotherapy
B. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radical cystectomy
C. Radiotherapy
D. Tranurethral resection
| Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radical cystectomy |
106d53c8-ff8d-4e36-8ddd-b945d34f3de4 | The most common cause of pleural effusion is left ventricular failure. Pleural effusions occur in hea failure when there are increased hydrostatic forces increasing the pulmonary interstitial fluid and the lymphatic drainage is inadequate to remove the fluid.Right-sided effusions are more common than left-sided effusions in hea failure. Thoracentesis would show a transudative fluid.Pneumonia can be associated with a parapneumonic effusion or empyema. Parapneumonic effusions are the most common cause of exudative pleural effusions and are second only to hea failure as a cause of pleural effusions.Empyema refers to a grossly purulent pleural effusion. Malignancy is the second most common cause of the exudative pleural effusion. Breast and lung cancers and lymphoma cause 75% of all malignant pleural effusions.On thoracentesis, the effusion is exudative. Cirrhosis and pulmonary embolus are far less common causes of pleural effusions. | Microbiology | All India exam | The most common cause of a pleural effusion is
A. Cirrhosis
B. Left ventricular failure
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pneumonia
| Left ventricular failure |
7b48008c-80f5-4d6b-be71-0abe857dc31c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trauma Laryngeal stenosis (LS) is a congenital or acquired narrowing of the larynx causing airway compromise. The acquired causes may be due to endotracheal intubation, trauma, burns, inflammation, neoplasms, autoimmune disorders and collagen vascular disease. | ENT | null | M/c cause of chronic laryngeal stenosis ?
A. Trauma
B. TB
C. Wegeners
D. Tumor
| Trauma |
b4814935-96ed-49a2-9b76-0072069b8292 | A child knows her full name and gender by the age of 3 years. | Pediatrics | Social and Language Milestones | Child knows his/her sex at the age of:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 7 years
| 3 years |
4ee59051-7c07-46df-ab93-49ca6d608e76 | Injury Phase (Phase of catabolism):-- Begins at the time of injury and lasts for 2-5 days-- Phase of hypermetabolism-- Stress hormones (coisol, catecholamines and glucagon) and volume control hormones (renin-angiotensin, aldosterone and ADH) are increased. This leads to proteolysis, lipolysis, hyperglycemia and wound healing despite of negative nitrogen balance.* Turning Point:-- Transient period marked physiologically by turning off of the neuroendocrine response and clinically by the appearance of getting well. * Early Anabolic Phase:-- Marked by gain in muscular strength or positive nitrogen balance.* Late Anabolic Phase:-- Marked by gain in weight and body fat or positive caloric balance | Surgery | Trauma | Early stage of trauma is characterized by
A. Catabolism
B. Anabolism
C. Glycogenesis
D. Lipolysis
| Catabolism |
4456e5b2-9887-434f-8f27-e0f5e9a330de | Types of sutures:Plane: Internasal sutureSerrate: Coronal sutureDenticulate: Lambdoid sutureSquamous: Parieto-Temporal sutureReference: Chourasia; 6th Edition; 4th page | Anatomy | General anatomy | Example for Denticulate suture
A. Internasal suture
B. Coronal suture
C. Lambdoid suture
D. Parietotemporal suture
| Lambdoid suture |
458239ed-e5e5-4f12-bc31-848ac81d2fd3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. 1000 live births It's a ratio: Denominator is Per 100000 live births. It will be rate : if the denominator is reproductive women. But still some books write it as rate. But in Park it's clearly differentiated. The data we express MMR as 167 is a ratio. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Obstetrics | Denominator of MMR if MMR is expressed as 167 is:-
A. Per 100000 live births
B. Per 1000 total birth
C. Per 10000 total birth
D. Total number of women of reproductive age group in the population
| Per 100000 live births |
3858506b-a4de-4902-8dd4-7dbcb6229dbf | The initial pattern of disturbution of joint involvement may be monoaicular,oligoaicular(less than 4 joints),or Polyariticular (,greater than 5 joints ) usually on a symmetric distribution Ref, :Robbins page no 1209 8th edition | Anatomy | Musculoskeletal system | Polyariticular rheumatoid ahritis is diagnosed when more than............. Joints are involved
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Five
| Five |
9dd4a0f1-3e68-48f5-8ea3-9c96505ef8c2 | First and the last tooth to erupt in permanent dentition is Molars. | Forensic Medicine | null | Which is the first permanent tooth to erupt ?
A. Canine
B. Molar
C. Incisors
D. Premolar
| Molar |
479cc91e-7fda-48cc-a5f0-8607756a620a | A noise of 90 dB (A) SPL, 8 hours a day for 5 days per week is the maximum safe limit as recommended by Ministry of Labour, Govt. of India-Model rules under Factories act Noise induced hearing loss Hearing loss can result from damage to structures or nerve fibers in the inner ear that respond to sound. This type of hearing loss, termed "noise-induced hearing loss," is usually caused by exposure to excessively loud sounds and cannot be medically or surgically corrected. Noise-induced hearing loss can result from a one-time exposure to a very loud sound (at or above 120 decibels), blast, impulse, or by listening to loud sounds (at or above 85 decibels) over an extended period. The louder the sound, the shoer the time period before hearing damage occurs. | ENT | null | The limit of loudness (expressed as decibels) that workers can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing, during their work hours, is:
A. 55
B. 65
C. 75
D. 85
| 85 |
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