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Answer- A. BromocriptineBromocriptine is recently included as antidiabetic.
Medicine
null
Which of the following is used in management of diabetes? A. Bromocriptine B. Octreotide C. Prednisolone D. Pegvisomant
Bromocriptine
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Ans. (a) Vibrio cholerae OlRef: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker 8th ed. /302-305* Though the various strains of cholera may present with rice watery diarrhea, the classic rice watery diarrhea is usually associated with strains Ol and strain 0139.* In these strains the more common strain to find is strain Ol.
Microbiology
Vibrio
Rice watery stool is indicative of which organism- A. Vibrio cholerae Ol B. Vibrio cholerae 0139 C. Vibrio vulnificus D. Shigella
Vibrio cholerae Ol
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After piercing the dura mater forming the roof of the cavernous sinus, the internal carotid aery gives off three large branches. These are the following. (i) Ophthalmic aery (which supplies the orbit), and the (ii) Anterior and Middle cerebral aeries to the brain.It also gives off two smaller branches that take pa in supplying the brain: these are the (iv) Posterior communicating aery and the (v) Anterior choroidal aery.Ref: BD Chaurasia; volume 3; 6th edition; Page no: 384
Anatomy
Brain
Anterior choroidal aery is a branch of A. Anterior cerebral aery B. Middle cerebral aery C. Posterior cerebral aery D. Internal carotid aery
Internal carotid aery
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The symptoms of PCP include Fever Cough Difficulty breathing Chest pain Chills Fatigue (tiredness) In people with HIV/AIDS, PCP symptoms usually develop over several weeks and include a mild fever. In people who have weakened immune systems for reasons other than HIV/AIDS, PCP symptoms usually develop over a few days, often with a high fever. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1078
Medicine
Infection
The most common oppounistic infection observed in patients with AIDS is - A. Atypical mycobacteria B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Pseudomonas aerugiosa D. Pneumocystis carinii
Pneumocystis carinii
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A quantitative trait locus (QTL) is a section of DNA (the locus) that correlates with variation in a phenotype (the quantitative trait). Usually the QTL is linked to, or contains, the genes that control that phenotype. QTLs are mapped by identifying which molecular markers (such as SNPs or AFLPs) correlate with an observed trait. This is often an early step in identifying and sequencing the actual genes that cause the trait variation. Quantitative traits are phenotypes (characteristics) that vary in degree and can be attributed to polygenic effects, i.e., the product of two or more genes, and their environment.
Pathology
General pathology
Multifactorial inheritance is most likely to play a role in? A. Cleft lip B. Marfan's syndrom C. Erythroblastis fetalis D. Down's syndrome
Cleft lip
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Answer is B (3): Use of Inappropriate words (Inappropriate speech) carries a score of '3' under the 'Verbal Response' according to the Glasgow Coma scale.
Medicine
null
A person with 'Inappropriate speech' evaluated by the 'Glasgow Coma Scale' will have a verbal score of: A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
3
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Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Vitamin B12 o The intestinal absorption of vitamin Bu requires intrinsic factor (IF), secreted by parietal cells of the stomach.o In stomach vitamin Bt2 binds to IF to form vitamin Bn-IF complex which intum is absorbed by sepecific receptors on mucosal cells of the ileum.o Vitamin Buis also called as 'extrinsic factor' of castle.
Biochemistry
Vitamins
Gastrectomy produces deficiency of which vitamin - A. VitaminB6 B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin B2 D. Vitamin B1
Vitamin B12
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For multibacillary cases, adequate treatment implies that the patient has recieved 12 monthly doses of combined therapy within 18 months. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 340
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
Duration of treatment is multibacillary leprosy according to WHO is - A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 5 years
1 year
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Ans is 'b' i.e., Collagen Collagen Collegen is the most common protein in the animal world. It is a component of ECM. The collegens are composed of a triple helix of three polypeptide a-chains. It provides tensile strength to tissues. Collegen type IV with laminin is the main component of basement membrane. Fibrillar collegen is synthesized from procollegen. First there is hydroxylation of lysin & proline residues of procollegen. After hydroxylation of lysine and proline residues of procollegen three procollegen chains align in phase to form triple helix. After that oxidation of lysine & hydroxylysine by lysyl oxidase, and proline & hydroxyproline by prolyl oxidase, take place - this results in cross-linking between the chains of adjacent molecules, thus stabilizing the array that is characteristic of collegen. Cross-linking is a major contributor of the tenile strength of collegen. Vit 'c' is required for hydroxylation of lysine & proline residues ofprocollegen - In scurvy (Vit 'c' deficiency) poor wound healing is due to inhibition of this step.
Pathology
null
Triple helix is found in ? A. Cystine B. Collagen C. Pectin D. DNA
Collagen
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Ischemic hypoxia or stagnant hypoxia is due to slow circulation and is a problem in organs such as kidneys and hea during shock.Hypoxia due to anemia is not severe at rest unless Hb deficiency is marked. Anemic patients may have considerable difficulty during exercise because of limited ability to increase O2 supply to active tissues. In histotoxic hypoxia, hypoxia is due to inhibition of tissue oxidative processes. Most commonly seen with cyanide poisoning. Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology, 25th edition.Pg no.650,651
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
Hypoxia due to slowing of circulation is seen in which type of hypoxia? A. Anemic hypoxia B. Histotoxic C. Hea disease D. Stagnant
Stagnant
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Gastrulation - three primary germ layers from epiblast during week 3 of development i.e dorsal ectoderm, middle mesoderm, ventral endoderm. Neurulation is the process by which neuroectoderm forms the neural plate, which eventually folds to form the neural tube.
Anatomy
Development period- week 1,2,3,4
Which process establishes the three definitive germ layers? A. Neurulation B. Gastrulation C. Craniocaudal folding D. Lateral folding
Gastrulation
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Sodium channels are membrane bound proteins that are composed of one large and subunit through which Na ions pass, and one or two smaller b subunits. Voltage - gated Na channels exist in three stages - resting, open and inactivated local anesthetics bind a specific region of the & subunit and inhibit voltage - gated Na channels preventing channel activation and Na influx associated with membrane depolarization. Main mechanism of action of local anesthetics is through inhibition ofActivated, voltage-gated Na channel. Local anesthetics have a greater affinity for the channel in the open or inactivated state than in the resting state. Local anesthetic binding to open or inactivated channels, or both, is facilitated by depolarization. The fraction of Na channels that have bound a local anesthetic increases with frequent depolarization (eg, during trains of impulses).This phenomenon is termed use-dependent block Local anesthetic inhibition is both voltage and frequency dependent, and is greater when nerve fibers are firing rapidly than with infrequent depolarizations Sodium passess through voltage gated sodium channel and cause change in membrane potential and cause depolarization. Local anesthetic attaches to sodium channel and prevents propogation & depolarization
Anaesthesia
Regional Anesthesia
What is the mode of action of local anesthetics? A. Prevents Na+ channel activation and the Na+ influx associated with membrane depolarization. B. Change the voltage gated Na+ channel from conducting to non conducting C. Destroys the Na+ channel D. Close the Na+ channel
Prevents Na+ channel activation and the Na+ influx associated with membrane depolarization.
86b8f4a7-7f41-45f5-ace8-aac6055619f3
Sampson's Theory of Retrograde menstruation is the most favoured theory explaining endometriosis.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Which of the following is most acceptable theory explaining development of endometriosis A. Coelomic metaplasia B. Retrograde menstruation C. Lymphatic spread D. Mullerian remnants outside uterus
Retrograde menstruation
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IV administration at induction of anesthesia is optimal. If induction is not mentioned in the option go for 30 minutes to 1 hours before surgery.
Surgery
Trauma
Optimal timing of administration of prophylactic antibiotic for surgical patients is: A. At the induction of anesthesia B. Any time during the surgical procedure C. One hour after induction D. One hour prior to induction of anesthesia
At the induction of anesthesia
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An infant should be exclusively breastfed till six months of age Cardinal principles of breastfeeding practice Initiation of breastfeeding within an hour after bih Exclusive breastfeeding up to 6 months of age Continuation of breastfeeding along with complementary feeding for up to 2 yr of age Reference: Paediatrics; O.P Ghai; 8th edition; Page no: 90
Pediatrics
Nutrition
An infant should be exclusively breastfed till A. 4 months B. 6 months C. 12 months D. 24 months
6 months
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TRISS (Trauma and Injury Severity Score) : Injury Severity Score Revised Trauma Score Age Mechanism of Injury (blunt/penetrating) Ref : Bailey and love surgery text book 27th Ed.
Surgery
All India exam
Trauma and Injury Severity Score (TRISS) includes: A. GCS + BP + RR B. S + ISS + Age C. S + ISS + GCS D. S + GCS + Age
S + ISS + Age
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Ans. B: Acute nephritis Nephritic syndrome is characterized by; Proteinuria Hematuria Hypeension Variable renal insufficiency, with; -- Azotemia (elevated blood nitrogen) Oliguria (low urine output The main features are hypeension and RBC casts. Nephritic syndrome causes are usually grouped into 'focal proliferative' and 'diffuse proliferative' on the basis of histology (obtained by a renal biopsy). Focal proliferative IgA nephropathy Chronic liver failure Celiac sprue Dermatitis herpetiformis Henoch-Schoenlein purpura Alpo syndrome SLE Diffuse proliferative Focal glomerulosclerosis Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (malaria, hepatitis B, hepatitis C, chronic infection, sickle-cell disease, SLE, hemolytic uremic syndrome/thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura) Cryoglobulinemia SLE Rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis (RPGNs) - several.
Medicine
null
Syndrome characterized by proteinuria, hematuria and hypeension: March 2007 A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Acute nephritis C. Renal cell carcinoma D. Nephroclacinosis
Acute nephritis
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Measles-like virus has been isolated from the brain cells of patients with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). The role of the host immune response in the causation of SSPE has been supported by several findings including the following: (1) progression of disease despite high levels of humoral antibody; (2) presence of a factor that blocks lymphocyte-mediated immunity to SSPE-measles virus in SSPE cerebrospinal fluid (CSF); (3) lysis of brain cells from SSPE patients by SSPE serum or CSF in the presence of complement (a similar mechanism could cause in vivo tissue injury).Higher-than-normal levels of serum antibodies (Ab) to measles virus and local synthesis of measles Ab in CSF, as evidenced by the oligoclonal IgG, imply a connection between the virus and multiple sclerosis (MS). However, the other studies have implicated the other viruses. Several studies of cell-mediated hypersensitivity to measles and other viruses in MS have been done, but the results have been conflicting. Definite conclusions regarding defects in cellular immunity in this disease cannot be reached until further research is completed.
Microbiology
Immunology
A latent, measles-like viral infection and, presumably, a defect in cellular immunity is associated with which of the following diseases? A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) B. Multiple sclerosis (MS) C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
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Duodenal blow out is massive leakage from duodenal stump following Bilroth II gastrectomy. Clinical features: - It usually occurs on 2nd to 7th postoperative days. (In Bailey 22nd/e on page 689. it is specifically written that it occurs on 4th day). It usually presents as: - Sudden intense thoracoabdominal pain Sudden elevation in pulse and temperature General deterioration of condition T/T Adequate drainage must be instituted immediately which is done by putting a catheter through an incision below the right costal margin. Total parenteral nutrition should be instituted and attention should be directed towards fluid and electrolyte therapy. Fistula closure can be anticipated within 2-3 weeks. Ref : Love & Bailey 22/e page 689
Anatomy
null
Duodenal blow out following Billroth gastrectomy most commonly occurs on which day - A. 2nd day B. 4th day C. 6thday D. 12th day
4th day
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Ans. is `b' i.e., Increase in size of cells
Pathology
null
What happens in hyperophy ? A. Increase no. of cells B. Increase size of cells C. Increase protein in cells D. Decrease in cell number
Increase size of cells
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Henoch-Schonlein purpura, also referred to as anaphylactoid purpura, is a small-vessel vasculitis characterized by palpable purpura (most commonly distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities), ahralgias, gastrointestinal signs and symptoms, and glo merulonephritis. Gastrointestinal involvement, which is seen in almost 70% of pediatric patients, is characterized by colicky abdominal pain usually associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation and is frequently accompanied by the passage of blood and mucus per rectum; bowel intussusception may occur. Renal involvement occurs in 10-50% of patients and is usually characterized by mild glomerulonephritis leading to proteinuria and microscopic hematuria, with red blood cell casts in the majority of patients (Harrison&;&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition,pg no.2797)
Pathology
Cardiovascular system
Frequency of renal involvement in HSP? A. <10% B. >80% C. >6O% D. 1O% - 50%
1O% - 50%
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Bupropion is antismoking drug Buspirone is a drug which is used for anxiety
Pharmacology
Psychiatric Illness
Anti-depressant drug which is used for smoking cessation is? A. Venlafaxine B. Topiramate C. Bupropion D. Amitriptyline
Bupropion
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Bronchiolitis obliterans Repeat from Nov 08 Q no.130
Pediatrics
null
A 3 month old child has moderate fever and non productive cough and mild dyspnea. After course of mild antibiotic the condition of the child improved transiently but he again develops high fever, productive cough and increased respiratory distress. Chest X ray shows hyperluscency and PFT shows obstructive pattern. Most probable diagnosis is A. Alveolar microlithiasis B. Post viral syndrome C. >Follicular bronchitis D. >Bronchiolitis obliterans
>Bronchiolitis obliterans
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National Trust Act (1999) is an act to provide for the constitution of a body at the national level for the welfare of persons with Autism, Cerebral palsy, Mental retardation, and Multiple disabilities and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
Psychiatry
null
Patients suffering from which of the following disease as per ICD/DSM criteria are eligible for disability benefit as per the National Trust Act? A. Schizophrenia B. Bipolar disorder C. Dementia D. Mental retardation
Mental retardation
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Na+ channel blockers reduce the slope of phase 0 whereas K+ channel blockers prolong the APD. Both of these propeies are present in class Ia antiarrhythmics like quinidine and procainamide.
Pharmacology
Hematology and CVS
Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs can decrease the slope of Phase 0 and prolong the action potential duration? A. Lignocaine B. Propanolol C. Quinidine D. Adenosine
Quinidine
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In ghee broth , Yersinia pestis shows a characteristic growth which hangs down into broth from the surface , resembling stalactites ( stalactite growth )
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria)
Which bacteria show this kind of growth pattern in Ghee broth A. Yersinia Pestis B. Acinetobacter C. Aeromonas D. Nocardia
Yersinia Pestis
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Podophyllin Mech of action:- Antimitotic, arrest cells in metaphase by binding tubulin. Uses:- Used for condyloma acuminata . Contraindication:- Contraindicated in pregnancy . Ref:- Sima Jain; pg num:-332
Dental
Sexually transmitted diseases
Podophyllin is treatment of choice in A. Plantar was B. Condyloma lata C. Condyloma accuminata D. Plain was
Condyloma accuminata
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(A) Primary prevention LEVELS OF PREVENTION* Primordial preventionPrevention of emergence of risk factor, through education* Primary preventionElimination or modification of risk factors throughPopulation (Mass) strategyHigh risk strategy* Secondary preventionActions which halts the progress of the disease at its incipient stage and prevent complication through early diagnosis of adequate treatment* Tertiary preventionIntervention in the late pathogenesis phase - to reduce or limit impair-ment and disabilities through rehabilitation-- psychosocial, vocational etc.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Miscellaneous
Specific protection is a type of A. Primary prevention B. Early secondary prevention C. Late secondary prevention D. Tertiary prevention
Primary prevention
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Ans: B (Nodular glomerulosclerosis) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th editionExplanation:Diabetic NephropathyThe term diabetic nephropathy is applied to the conglomerate of lesions that occur in the diabetic kidney.Most common lesions involve the glomeruli and are associated clinically with three glomerular syndromes;Non-nephrotic proteinuriaNephrotic syndromeChronic renal failureDiabetes also affects the arterioles (causing hyalinizing arteriolar sclerosis), increases susceptibility to the development of pyelonephritis and particularly papillary necrosis, and causes a variety of tubular lesions.The morphologic changes in the glomeruli includeCapillary basement membrane thickeningDiffuse mesangial sclerosisNodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimme- Istiel-Wilson lesions). Expansions non-coding regionsDiseaseProteinRepeatingSequenceSpinobulbar muscular atrophy (Kennedy Disease)Androgen ReceptorCAGHuntington DiseaseHuntingtonCAGDentatorubral-palidoluysian atrophy (Haw River Syndrome)Atrophin - 1CAGSpinocerebellar ataxia type 1Ataxin 1CAGSpinocerebellar ataxia type 2Ataxin-2CAGSpinocerebellar ataxia type 3 (Machado Joseph Disease)Ataxin 3CAGSpinocerebellar a taxia type 6Alpha 1a-Voltage-dependant calcium channel subunitCAGSpinocerebellar ataxia type 7Ataxin-7CAGThe morphology is identical in type 1 and type 2 diabetesThe Armanni-Ebstein change tor Armanni- Ebstein cells) consists of deposits of glycogen in the tubular epithelial cells (pars straight of proximal convoluted tubule and loop of Henle).
Pathology
Glomerular Diseases
Which of the follow ing lesion is characteristic of diabetic nephropathy? A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis C. Renal Amyloid deposits D. Fibrinoid necrosis
Nodular glomerulosclerosis
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Therapeutic abortion Declaration of GenevaScope of medical practiseDeclaration of Helisinki (Revised in 1975)Clinical research and human experimentationDeclaration of Tokyo (1975)Doctors approach to torture and other inhuman cruel degrading treatment or punishment in relation to detention or imprisonmentDeclaration of Oslo (1970)o Deals with Abortiono It is a clear example of possibility of codes of conduct based not on absolute values but on consensus opinion changing with time.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological Diagnosis
Declaration of oslo deals with - A. Organ donation B. Right to death C. Therapeutic abortion D. Human experiments
Therapeutic abortion
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Ans. a. Behcet's syndromeHistory of painful oral and penile ulcers with ocular involvement in form of blurring of vision points towards Behcet's disease but confusion arises out of history of recurrent epididymitis, which is solved by Harrison's which states; "Epididymitis is seen in 5% of patients of Behcet's syndrome"Behcet's syndrome is a multisystem disorder presenting with recurrent oral and genital ulcerations as well as ocular involvement.
Skin
Neutrophilic Dermatoses
A young male presents with painful ulcers on the mouth and glans penis with blurred vision and history of recurrent epididymitis. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? A. Behcet syndrome B. Oculocutaneous aphthous ulcer syndrome C. Fabry's disease D. Epidermolysis bullosa
Behcet syndrome
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Glucose-6-phosphate is oxidized by NADP+ dependent Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (GPD). 6-phospho glucono lactone is formed. One molecule of NADPH is formed in the reaction. This is the rate-limiting step. Regulation is effected by this enzyme   Reference: Vasudevan 7th  ed, pg 130
Biochemistry
null
The following enzyme is required for the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway: A. Glucose-6-phosphatase B. Phosphorylase C. Aldolase D. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
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Ref. API Textbook of Medicine. Pg. 784   Urinary stones due to chronic laxative abuse is due to gastrointestinal loss of fluid and electrolytes leads to chronic depletion of urinary volume ,relative super saturation and many other pathophysiologic derangements . These calculi are generally radiolucent with uric acid and ammonium urate as major componenent.
Unknown
null
Chronic Laxative abuse can result in the formation of which type of stone: A. Xanthine B. Cysteine C. Ammonium urate D. Struvite
Ammonium urate
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vasa previa Vasa previao In it a leash of blood vessels happens to traverse through the membranes overlying the internal os, in front of presenting part. Rupture of membranes involving the overlying vessels leads to vaginal bleeding. As it is entirely fetal blood, this may result in fetal exsanguination and even death.Placenta previao When placenta is implanted partially or completely over the lower uterine segment (over and adjacent to the internal os) it is called the placenta previa. The blood is almost is almost always maternal when bleeding occurs.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Hydramnios and Oligo Hydramnios
Fetal exsanguination can occur if - A. Vasa previa B. Placentaprevia C. Polyhydramnios D. Oligohydramnios
Vasa previa
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12 mg beta methasone injection is is indicated in all pregnancies at risk of preterm labour between 28 and 35 weeks to attain LUNG MATURITY. Since there is no indication of fetal distress it is not given. Tocolytics are used to inhibit contractions and keep the uterus quiescent in case of preterm labour.But it is not indicated after 34 weeks. Cervical cerclage is useful in some women with HISTORY OF preterm labour. Thus vaginal swab culture is can be used in this condition as presence of bacterial vaginosis has been found to be associated with preterm labour and most cases are asymptomatic. (TB of OBG sheila 2 and edition pg 193,194,573)
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Abnormal labor
A G2P1 female at 35 weeks experiences uterine contractions. No fetal distress is seen and membranes are not ruptured. Which of the following is to be done? A. 12 mg betamethasone injection B. Vaginal swab culture C. Tocolytic therapy D. Cervical cerclage
Vaginal swab culture
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pachymetry o Corneal Pachymetry: It is the method to measure the corneal thicknesso The following are the other methods of measuring corneal thickness:a) Ultrasoundb) Ultrasound biomicroscopy and very high frequency ultrasoundc) Optical slit lamp pachymetryd) Specular microscopy basede) Scanning slit based Orbscanf) Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)g) Optical low coherence reflectometryh) Confocal microscopy through focusingi) Laser Doppler interferometry
Ophthalmology
Cornea
Corneal thickness is measured using - A. Pachymetry B. Keratometer C. CT scan D. Aesthisiometry
Pachymetry
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Acetylcholine is seen in synaptic vesicles in high concentration in the terminals of cholinergic neurons. It is synthesized in the nerve terminal from choline and acetyl-CoA by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). Choline used in the synthesis of acetylcholine is transpoed from the extracellular space into the nerve terminal a Na+-dependent choline transpoer (CHT). Following its synthesis, acetylcholine is transpoed from the cytoplasm into vesicles by a vesicle-associated transpoer (VAT). Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 7. Neurotransmitters & Neuromodulators. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
Biochemistry
null
The following neurotransmitter is synthesized from choline and acetyl-CoA: A. Acetylcholine B. Glutamine C. Aspaate D. NO
Acetylcholine
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Listeria Information in this question are :- Gram positive Cocobacilli Tumbling motility Listeria is gram positive coccobacilli and shows characteristic tumbiling motility when grown at 25degC. Other options can easily be excludes as no one has tumbling motility (charactristic of Listeria) and no one is gram-positive coccobacillus :- Meningococci : Gram-negative cocci H. influenza : Gram-negative bacilli Pneumococcus : Gram-positive cocci
Microbiology
null
A female patient with signs of meningitis and CSF showing gram positive cocobacilli, which is showing characteristic tumbling motility. Diagnosis is A. Listeria B. Meningococcus C. H. influenzae D. Pneumococcus
Listeria
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Ans. (a) TriquetralRef: Snell's 8th ed / 402
Anatomy
Hand
Pisiform bone articulates with? A. Triquetral B. Lunate C. Scaphoid D. Trapezoid
Triquetral
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Apexification with calcium hydroxide is almost similar when compared with MTA about given options, except achieved physical strength of dentin, which is comparatively less in Ca(OH)2.
Dental
null
Main drawback of calcium hydroxide apexification compared with MTA: A. More treatment time B. Incomplete apical barrier C. Incomplete coronal barrier D. Reduced physical strength of dentin
Reduced physical strength of dentin
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Bruit over carotid artery suggests carotid artery stenosis. Duplex scanning (B-mode scan and doppler ultrasonic velocimetry) is the method of choice for assessing the degree of carotid stenosis.
Radiology
null
An asymptomatic old patient presents with bruit in the carotid artery. Which of the following is the investigation of choice? A. Doppler ultrasonography B. Internal carotid angiography C. Aortic arch angiography D. Spiral CT angiography
Doppler ultrasonography
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ANSWER: (C) Rett's diseaseREF: Kaplan 9th ed p. 1215RETT SYNDROMEIt is a neurodevelopmental disorder of the grey matter of the brain that almost exclusively affects females.Normal prenatal and post natal growth, normal psychomotor development through first 5 months of life.The clinical features include small hands and feet and a deceleration of the rate of head growth between 5-48 months (including microcephaly in some).Loss of previously acquired hand skillsRepetitive hand movements, such as wringing and/or repeatedly putting hands into the mouth, are also noted and also.People with Rett syndrome are prone to gastrointestinal disorders and up to 80% have seizures. They typically have no verbal skills, and about 50% of individuals affected are not ambulatory. Scoliosis, growth failure, and constipation are very common and can be problematic.ASPERGER SYNDROME:AKA Asperger's syndrome or Asperger disorder is an autism spectrum disorder (ASD) that is characterized by significant difficulties in social interaction, alongside restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior and interests.It differs from other autism spectrum disorders by its relative preservation of linguistic and cognitive development. Pursuit of specific and narrow areas of interest is one of the most striking features of AS.Individuals with AS often have excellent auditory and visual perception .Motor clumsiness and inability to appreciate finer nuances.
Psychiatry
Mood Disorders
Which of the following disease is seen only in females? A. Autism B. Asperger's syndrome C. Retts disease D. Colard'd disease
Retts disease
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The given histological examination is indicative of embryonal carcinoma. The tumor cells are large and have basophilic cytoplasm, indistinct cell borders, large nuclei, and prominent nucleoli.The neoplastic cells may be arrayed in undifferentiated, solid sheets or may form primitive glandular pattern. Somatic cells do not normally express telomerase,(enzyme that adds repetitive sequences to maintain the length of the telomere) Thus, with each round of somatic cell replication, the telomere shoens. The length of telomeres may act as a "molecular clock" and govern the lifespan of replicating cells. Cancer cells and embryonic cells express high levels of telomerase Embryonal carcinoma with papillary growth -The other choices are not involved in malignant transformation.
Pathology
General Concepts
A 25-year-old man presents 1 week after discovering that his left testicle is twice the normal size. Physical examination reveals a nontender, testicular mass that cannot be transilluminated. Serum levels of alpha-fetoprotein and human chorionic gonadotropin are normal. A hemiorchiectomy is performed, and histologic examination of the surgical specimen shows the cells grow inalveolar or tubular patterns, the neoplastic cells have an epithelial appearance,exhibit hyperchromatic nuclei with prominent nucleoli.. Compared to normal adult somatic cells, this germ cell neoplasm would most likely show high levels of expression of which of the following proteins? A. Desmin B. Dystrophin C. Cytochrome c D. Telomerase
Telomerase
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Pa Reabsorption Secretion PCT Glucose 100% Amino acid 100% Na along with glucose by SGLT 2 Chloride (manly in late pa of PCT ) Bicarbonate Bile salts Hydrogen ion Creatinine Uric acid Drugs LOOP OF HENLE Descending limb - water Ascending limb - Na , k , Cl by 1NA 2Cl 1k cotranspoer , Slight reabsorption of cation such as Mg , Ca also Hydrogen ion by Na H PUMP DISTAL TUBULE 5% sodium and chloride by sodium chloride cotranspo LATE DISTAL TUBE & COLLECTING DUCT Principle cell - reabsorb sodium and water Intercalated cell - reabsorb potassium ions Principle cell secrete potassium ions Intercalated cell-hydrogen ions
Biochemistry
FMGE 2018
Glucose is reabsorbed in which pa? A. Early PCT B. Henle loop C. Collecting duct D. Distal convoluted tubule
Early PCT
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alkylatings agents Alkylating agents may contribute to sterility by the following effects : Azoospermia in males Amenorrhea and ovarian atrophy in females Specific toxicity of impoant alkylating agents. o Cyclophosphamide ---> Cystitis, alopecia, SIADH o Ifosfamide ---> Cystitis, SIADH, neurotoxicity o Cisplatin ---> Nephrotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, ototoxicity, vomiting. o Busulfan ---> Adrenal insufficiency, hyperpigmentation,pu/monaryfibrosis. o Procarbazine ---> Disulfiram like reaction, secondary leukemias, CNS effects.
Pharmacology
null
Sterility is caused by - A. Vinca alkaloids B. Alkylating agents C. Antimetabolites D. Actinomycin D
Alkylating agents
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IgE is an 8 S molecule. - resemble IgG structurally. - heat liable - an affinity for the surface of tissue cells paicularly mast cells of the same species. This feature is called homocytotropism. - the normal serum contains only traces of IgE ( a few nanograms per ml ) - greatly elevated levels in atopic conditions like asthma, hay fever. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 98,98 <\p>
Microbiology
Immunology
Which of the following immunoglobulins shows homocytotropism - A. IgG B. IgA C. IgE D. IgD
IgE
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Kynurenine is formed from tryptophan in presence of enzyme tryptophan pyrrolaseRef: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 239, fig 18.8
Biochemistry
Metabolism of protein and amino acid
1st product of tryptophan Catabolism A. Kynurenine B. Xantheurenic acid C. Bradykinin D. Melatonin
Kynurenine
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Radiation can cause Posterior subcapsular cataract Lens is the most sensitive pa of eye for radiation induced damage Miscellaneous Cataract impoant for PGMEE * Sunflower cataract: Wilson disease, chalcosis. * Polychromatic Lusture- Complicated cataract * Coicosteroid: Posterior subcapsular cataract. (Topical steroids cause glaucoma, systemic steroids cause cataract more) * Galactosemia: Oil drop cataract * Anterior lenticonus- Alpo * Posterior Lenticonus- Lowe Syndrome * Rosette Cataract: Blunt trauma * Shield cataract- Atopic dermatitis. * Radiation can cause PSC cataract. * Persistent hyaloid aery: Cause of Posterior polar cataract * Myotonic Dystrophy: Christmas Tree Cataract (mimics the lights on a christmas tree) * Posterior polar cataract: Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous * Snow storm/Snow flake cataract: Diabetes
Ophthalmology
Cataract
Radiation induced cataract is A. Shield cataract B. Antrior polar cataract C. Posterior Subcapsular cataract D. Alpo syndrome
Posterior Subcapsular cataract
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A parathyroid adenoma causes the affected gland to release more PTH than it should. This disrupts your calcium and phosphorus balance. This condition is called hyperparathyroidism. Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e
Physiology
All India exam
Commonest cause for hyperparathyroidism is A. Single adenoma B. Multiple adenomas C. Single gland hyperplasia D. Multiple gland Hyperplasia
Single adenoma
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Narcissistic personality disorder is a cluster B personality disorder. Schiziod personality disorder is a cluster A personality disorder. Dependant & Anankastic personality disorders are cluster C personality disorder.
Psychiatry
null
Which of the following is a Cluster B personality disorder? A. Schiziod personality disorder B. Narcissistic personality disorder C. Dependant personality disorder D. Anantastic personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder
cf6e8619-52ed-4282-a197-7d8af75b6188
Ref: Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry 9th/1375-76,1384 The decreased bowel sounds, respiratory depression,pin point pupil and history of heroin addiction strongly points toward the diagnosis of acute opioid poisoning. The drug of choice for acute poisoning is intravenous naloxone.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
A young man is with known heroin addiction is brought in the emergency in unconscious state. On examination, the patient has decreased bowel sounds, depressed respiration and pin point pupil. The treatment of choice for this patient is: A. Oral natrexone B. IV naloxone C. Oral diazepam D. Oral Buprenorphine
IV naloxone
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Refer Katzung 13th/819 Pyrizanimde is most effective against slow growing bacteria inside macrophages Thus it possesses strong sterilizing activity
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
Maximum sterilizing action is shown by which anti TB drug A. Rifamipicin B. INH C. Pyrazinamide D. Streptomycin
Pyrazinamide
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycogen Source of energy for muscular activityo The immediate source of energy for all muscle contraction is ATP, followed immediately by creatine phosphate.o In stemous exercise ATP store is sufficient only for 1-2 seconds and creatine phosphate for another 5-7 seconds.o Thus, energy rich phosphagen stores (ATP and creatine phosphate) permit severe muscle contraction for 8-10 seconds only.o After this, energy is obtained from the metabolism of stored glycogen or from circulating glucose and free fatty- acids, depending upon the availability of oxygen.o Energy source during in exercise can be summarized by : -Short burst of intense activity (e.g., 100 meter sprint or weight lifting) : - All energy comes from ATP and creatine phosphate. Breakdow n of these compound is an anaerobic processes. Little longer intense exercise (e.g., 200 meter sprint or 100 meter swim)Besides ATP and creatine phosphate, glycogen is metabolised by anerobic glycolytic pathways to provide a ready source of energy. So, muscle work is anaerobic.Longer duration exercise (e.g., jogging, marathon run) : - The muscle work is aerobic and energy comes from aerobic utilization of glucose and free fatty acids. More glucose is utilized at the initial stage, but as the exercise is prolonged, free fatty acids become the predominant fuel. Immediate energy systemAnerobic glycolytic systemOxidative (aerobic) systemSubstratesATP, creatine phosphateGlucose or glycogenGlucose or glycogen, fatty acidsEnergy' productionVery fastFastSlowrPeak at0-30 sec.20-180 sec.>3 minLimiting factorDepletion of CrP. ATPLactic acid accumulationGlycogen depletionActivity examplePowerlifting & weight lifting, short sprintsJumping, throwingLonger sprintsMiddle distance team sportsBall games (Soccer, rugby)Endurance eventsTeam sportsBall games (Soccer, field hockey)
Biochemistry
Respiratory Chain
Main source of energy in 1 min is - A. Glycogen B. FFA C. Phosphates D. Glucose
Glycogen
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Genital warts (anogenital warts or condyloma acuminata) is most commonly caused by low risk HPV that is HPV-6,11. High risk HPV  that is HPV-16,18, 31, 33, 45 can lead to cervical carcinoma.
Dental
null
Cervical warts are seen with which HPV - A. 11,13 B. 17,18 C. 5, 8 D. 6, 11
6, 11
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There are 4 deep nuclei in cerebellum: dentate, globose, emboliform, & fastigial nuclei. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:255
Physiology
Nervous system
Not included in cerebellar nuclei A. Dentate nuclei B. Emboliform nuclei C. Fastigial nuclei D. Caudate nuclei
Caudate nuclei
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ritonavir Antiretroviral drugsa) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) - Zidovudin, Didanosine, Zalcitabine, Stavudine, Lamivudine, Abacavir.b) Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor - Tenofovirc) Nonucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIS) - Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Delavirdine, Etravirine Rilpivirine.d) Protease inhibitors - Ritonavir, Indinavir, Nelfinavir, Saquinavir, amprenavir, Lopinavir, Fosamprenavir, Atazanavir, Darunavir, Tipranavir.e) Fusion inhibitor - Enfuvirtide, Maraviroc.f) Integrase inhibitors - Roltegravir, Elvitegravir.
Pharmacology
Anti-Viral
Which is not a NNRTI - A. Ritonavir B. Nevirapine C. Efavirenz D. Delavirdine
Ritonavir
dde019be-3f6a-45e9-b4ac-8df223883316
Pityriasis roses is characterised by herald patch/ mother patch it is the first manifestation of disease in 50% of patients it is a well defined erythematous oval or round lesion 2-10 cm diameter with typical colarette of scale at the margin Most common sites - chest back,abdomen extremities. widespread rash appear after herald patch in a span of 5-15 days.
Dental
Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis
"Annular herald patch" is found in A. Pityriasis alba B. Pityriasis rosea C. Tinea capitis D. Psoriasis
Pityriasis rosea
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Ans. Fusiform muscle enlargement with sparing of tendoms
Ophthalmology
null
Which of the following signs is classic for CT scanning in Graves ophthalmopathy: A. Nodular muscle enlargement B. Solitary muscle enlargement C. Fusiform muscle enlargement with sparing of tendoms D. Kinking of extraocular muscles.
Fusiform muscle enlargement with sparing of tendoms
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"The most common cause of massive Hemothorax in blunt injury is continuing bleeding from torn intercostal vessels or occasionally from the internal mammary aery secondary to the fracture of ribs"
Surgery
Thorax And Mediastinum
Which of the following vessel is injured in Hemothorax patient? A. Pulmonary aery B. Pulmonary vein C. Bronchial aery D. Intercostal aeries
Intercostal aeries
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sanguinarine DiseaseToxinAdulterantLathyrismBOAAKhesari Dal (Lathyrus sativus)Epidemic DropsySanguinarineArgemone mexicana (oil)Endemic AscitesPyrrolizidine alkaloidsCrotolaria seeds (Jhunjhunia)AflatoxicosisAflatoxinA spergillus fiavus/parasiticusErgotismClavine alkaloidsClaviceps Jusiformis
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and Health
Responsible for epidemic dropsy is- A. Sanguinarine B. Ergot alkaloids C. Pyrazolidine alkaloids D. A flat ox in
Sanguinarine
caaeafcc-5e2a-4e55-977b-562b973ecf2a
The CBD opens into the 2nd part of duodenum. So obstructions which are proximal to it like pyloric stenosis & esophageal atresia would not have bile in their associated vomits. Bilious vomiting would only occur if the obstruction is distal to CBD opening. Atresia of the 3rd part of duodenum would always produce bilious vomiting. Malrotation of the gut is a broad entity and may manifest clinically in several different ways. The vomiting may be bilious or nonbilious.
Surgery
null
One of the following will always present with Bilious vomiting - A. Pyloric stenosis B. Esophageal atresia C. Atresia of the 3rd part of the duodenum D. Malrotation of the gut
Atresia of the 3rd part of the duodenum
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bronchiolitis obliterance
Pediatrics
null
A 7 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is - A. Post viral syndrome B. Bronchiolitis obliterans C. Follicular bronchitis D. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
Bronchiolitis obliterans
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Ans. C Purkinje cellsRef Gray's, 41sted. pg. 335-336* The axons of purkinje cells are the only output through cerebellar cortex.* However, it should be kept in mind that the output from the cerebellum is through deep nuclei, and purkinje cells axons generally pass to deep nuclei.
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
Cerebellar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through which cell? A. Golgi cells B. Basket cells C. Purkinje cells D. Oligodendrocytes
Purkinje cells
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Direct endothelial injury, resulting in endothelial cell necrosis and detachment: This effect is usually encountered in necrotizing injury, and is due to direct damage to the endothelium by the injurious stimulus e.g. In severe burns or lytic lesions. Neutrophils adhere to the endothelium, and may also injure the endothelium. In most instances, leakage starts immediately after the injury and is sustained at a high level for several hours, until the damaged vessels are thrombosed or repaired. This reaction is immediate sustained response. All levels of microcirculation are affected, including venules, capillaries, and arterioles. Endothelial cell detachment is often associated with platelet adhesion and thrombosis.
Pathology
null
Immediate sustained permeability in cells is increased by: A. Direct injury and necrosis B. Endothelial gaps by histamine C. Endothelial gaps by serotonin D. Leucocyte mediated endothelial injury
Direct injury and necrosis
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Complication of shoulder dislocation: Banka's anterior glenoid labrum: anterior tear in anterior dislocation Hill Sach's at head of Humerus: posterolateral defect in anterior dislocation Reverse Hill Sach's - anteromedial defect in posterior dislocation Light bulb signis seen on AP radiographs in theposterior dislocation shoulder, where the humerus head appears as a light bulb Note-M/c complication of ant. dislocation of shoulder is reccurent shoulder disclocation
Orthopaedics
Upper Limb Traumatology
The posterolateral lesion in the head of humerus in cases of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation is: A. Banka's lesion B. Hill-Sachs lesion C. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion D. Greater tuberosity avulsion fracture
Hill-Sachs lesion
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Cardinal movements in sequence in labour are - Head floating-Engagement-Descent- Flexion -->Internal rotation-Extension- External rotation- Anterior shoulder delivered- Posterior shoulder delivered
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Labour - normal, abnormal, malposition, malpresentation and their management
The Cardinal movements in sequence in labour are :- A. Engagement-flexion-descent-internal rotation-extension-ext. rotation B. Engagement-flexion-descent-external rotation-expulsion C. Engagement-descent-flexion-internal rotation-extension-external rotation D. Engagement-extension-internal rotation-external rotation-expulsion
Engagement-descent-flexion-internal rotation-extension-external rotation
7d887bc4-619f-4b11-a235-c29044e6140c
Cladribine is a purine analogue, which is  DOC for Hairy cell leukemia.
Pharmacology
null
Drug of choice for Hairy cell leukemia A. Methotrexate B. Gemcitabine C. Cladribine D. Decitabine
Cladribine
3f44e058-4b55-4c19-8c4b-419b3568bc3a
(A) Dog[?]Echinococcus granulosus:oOnly found in canine host (Dog or Wolf is Definitive Host)oIntermediate host - sheep or other ruminants. Human is accidental intermediate host.-Eggs ingested-Contaminated food or water-Objects contaminatedoDog becomes infected by eating raw meat containing hydatid cyst.[?]Life Cycle:oDogs are the definitive hosts:-Adult worm develops in the small intestine-Eggs are voided in the feces of the dogs.oSheep are intermediate hosts.oHumans are accidental intermediate hosts: Larval form develops mainly in the liver & lungs.oThe cycle is completed when a dog eats a cyst-infested liver or lungs.[?]Life Cycle: The adult is in the small intestines of the definitive host (dogs). Gravid proglottids release eggs that are passed in the feces.oThe intermediate hosts are infected by ingesting eggs, the egg hatches in the small bowel & releases an oncospherePARTIAL LIST OF ZOONOSESDisease in manAnimal principally involvedA. Bacterial infections*. Anthrax.*. Brucellosis*. Ornithosis*. Q fever*. Leptospirosis*. Tuberculosis*. Plague*. Cattle, sheep, goats, camels, pigs, dogs, horses, buffaloes*. Wild and domestic birds*. Cattle, sheep, goats, wild animals*. Cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, cats, dogsB. Viral infections*. Cowpox*. Monkeypox*. Easternequine encephalitis*. Ross river fever*. Monkeys, rodents*. Horses, rodents*. Horses, cattle, goats, sheep, dogs, rats, bats, pigsC. Protozoan infections*. Leishmaniasis*. Toxoplasmosis*. Trypanosomiasis*. Babesiosis*. D. Helminthic infections*. Clonorchiasis*. Fasciolopsis Schistosomiasis*. Echinococcosis*. Taeniasis, Trichinellosis*. Dogs, cats, swine*. Cats, mammals, birds*. Game animals, cattle*. Dogs, cats, swine, wild mammals, fish*. Swine, dogs*. Dogs, wild carnivores, domestic and wild ungulates*. Swine, rodents, wild carnivores, marine mammals
Microbiology
Parasitology
Adult worm of Echinococcus granulosus is commonly seen in which of the given animals? A. Dog B. Cat C. Sheep D. Pig
Dog
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The administrative unit of an ICDS project is the community development block in rural areas, the tribal development block in tribal areas and a group of slums in urban areas.Park 23e pg: 592
Social & Preventive Medicine
Maternal and child care
Administrative unit of ICDS project in rural area is A. PHC B. Community development block C. Zilla parishad D. Gram panchayat
Community development block
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Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease (KFD), or histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis, is a benign and self-limited disease that mainly affects young women. Patients present with localized lymphadenopathy, fever, and leukopenia in up to half of the cases.
Physiology
All India exam
Histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis is A. Kimura disease B. Kikuchi disease C. Hodgkin's disease D. Castleman's disease
Kikuchi disease
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Dialysate should be infused quickly. The dialysate should be infused over 15 minutes or less when performing peritoneal dialysis. The fluid exchange takes place over a period ranging from 30 minutes to several hours.
Pathology
null
What is the appropriate infusion time for the dialysate in your 38 y.o. patient with chronic renal failure? A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 2 to 3 hours
15 minutes
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Optimal viewing conditions should allow one to collimate the light, so the light area is restricted to the size of the film. The viewer’s eyes should be blocked to surrounding light to ameliorate perception of details. Also, the ambient light in the room should be dimmed so that more details in the radiographic image can be seen. This is not always feasible in a dental office setting, but efforts should be made to place the view box in a dimmed area of the office.  It is clear that assessing radiographs in a brightly lit dental operatory increases the clinician’s potential to miss diagnostically useful information contained in a radiographic image. Despite the fact that the parents and patients appreciate viewing the radiographic images in the operatory, the initial diagnosis should not be made at the chairside monitor, but rather in an area of the office where the light is dimmed.
Dental
null
During assessment of an analog X-ray film, the lights of a well lit operatory should : A. Be made brighter B. Not be changed C. Be dimmed D. Be put off
Be dimmed
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ECG shows a hea rate of 100/min with ST elevation in lead II, III , aVF and V4R. Indicates inferior wall MI and occlusion of Right coronary aery.
Medicine
ECG and Arrhythmias 1
Comment on the diagnosis from the ECG shown below: A. RCA occlusion by thrombus B. LAD occlusion by thrombus C. LCX occlusion by thrombus D. Aefact
RCA occlusion by thrombus
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A midline episiotomy is associated with higher risk of third and fouh degree lacerations and following factors are associated with an increased risk.: Nulliparity Second-stage arrest of labor Persistent occiput-posterior position, Midorlowforceps Use of local anesthetics Asian race. A medio lateral episiotomy should beperformed in these mentioned situations A multiparous patient with anemia does not have increased risk for third or fouh degree laceration and since the patient is anemic, with a midline episiotomy, blood loss is less and healing is better, making it a better option.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Episiotomy
In which of these patients can a medial episiotomy be considered superior to a medio lateral episiotomy during delivery of fetus? A. Nulligravida with thick perineum B. Second stage arrest C. Second gravida with moderate anemia D. Before application of forceps
Second gravida with moderate anemia
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Ans. (a) Deep facial burns with singed nasal hairRef: Bailey 26th edition, Page 388Indication of intubation in burns* Change in voice* Stridor* Deep burns around the mouth and in the neck
Surgery
Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery
When do you intubate a burns patient? A. Deep facial burns with singed nasal hair B. Superficial facial burns C. Pulse rate >100/min D. Crepitations on auscultation
Deep facial burns with singed nasal hair
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Ans. B: 2 days Pregnancy tests may be used to determine the bility of a pregnancy. Serial quantitative blood tests may be done, usually 2-3 days apa. Below an hCG level of 1,200 mIU/ ml the hCG usually doubles every 48-72 hours, though a rise of 50-60% is still considered normal. Failure to increase normally may indicate an increased risk of miscarriage or a possible ectopic pregnancy.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Plasma levels of hCG during pregnancy doubles every: September 2010 A. Daily B. 2 days C. 4 days D. 6 days
2 days
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Ans. is c, i.e. Red degeneration of fibroidRef: Shaw 15th/ed p355; Dutta Ohs 6th/ed p314; High Risk Pregnancy 2nd/ed p77The answer is quite obvious but let's see how other options can be ruled out.Option "a" Preterm laborPoints in favorPoints against* Patient is pregnant* Pain in abdomen at 28 weeks (preterm labor is where labor starts before the 37th completed weeks. The lower limit is 28 weeks in developing countries and 20 weeks in developed countries* Preterm labor is diagnosed- When there are regular uterine contractions. (Not acute pain) With or without pain at least in every 10 minutes.- Dilatation of cervix is >2cm- Effacement of cervix =80%- Length of cervix as measured by TVS <2.5cm and funneling of the internal OS.- Pelvic pressure backache, vaginal discharge, or bleeding. None of the above criteria are being fulfilled* Presence of leukocytosis and fever can also go against it as even if there is intra-amniotic infection causing preterm labor features like--fever, leukocytosis, uterine tenderness, and fetal tachycardia are absent. Rather, if these features are present it means a final stage of uterine infection has reached. And here our patient is having fever, leukocytosis without regular uterine contractions (off and on pair) but with acute pain in abdomen, so it can be ruled outOption "b" Torsion of fibroidPoints in favorPoints against* Patient has fibroid (Though no mention has been made whether it is pedunculated or not, Remember torsion is seen in subserous pedunculated myomas)Q* Patient is complaining of acute pain in abdomen* Torsion is not associated with fever and leukocytosisOption "d" Infection of fibroidPoints in favorPoints against* Presence of fibroid (Remember. Infection is common in submucous fibroids)Q* Fever* Leukocytosis* Acute pain in abdomen (Infection of fibroid will not cause acute pain in abdomen).* Infection of fibroid occurs following abortion or labor (Here patient is pregnant but there is no history of abortion or labor)* Infection causes blood stained discharge (Not seen in this patient)So, from above discussion infection can be kept in +- status. If we have no better option, we can think about it.Option "c" i.e. Red degeneration of fibroid is the diagnosis-let's have a look.Red degeneration of fibroid* It is seen mostly during pregnancy and mid pregnancyQ* The myoma suddenly becomes acutely painfulQ, enlarged,Q and tender.Q* Patient presents with:- Acute abdominal painQ- VomitingQ- MalaiseQ- Slight feverQLab investigations: Show moderate leukocytosisQ and raised ESRQThus, all the features given in the question favor the diagnosis of red degeneration.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological Disorders in Obs.
A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low-grade fever and mild leukocytosis at 28 week. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Preterm labor B. Torsion of fibroid C. Red degeneration of fibroid D. Infection in fibroid
Red degeneration of fibroid
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Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:146-147 Essential Criteria Evidence for recent streptococcal infection as evidenced by: 1. Increase in ASO titre a. > 333 Todd units (in children) b. > 250 Todd units (in adults). 2. Positive throat culture for streptococcal infection. 3. Recent history of scarlet fever. Two major (or) one major and two minor criteria, in the presence of essential criteria, is required to diagnose Acute Rheumatic Fever. A Positive Rheumatic Fever history is usually elicited in only 50% of patient with Rheumatic Hea Disease.
Medicine
C.V.S
ASO titire Is diagnostic in ? A. SABE B. Rheumatoid ahritis C. Infective endocarditis D. Acute rheumatic fever
Acute rheumatic fever
ac36165a-ad17-4eac-b102-1db616bb0061
Lumbar hernias- Hernias through the superior lumbar triangle (Grynfeltt triangle) are more common and bounded by the 12th rib, paraspinal muscles, and internal oblique muscle. Inferior Lumbar / Petit triangle- bounded by the iliac crest, latissimus dorsi muscle, and external oblique muscle.
Anatomy
All India exam
Grynfeltt triangle not bounded by A. 12th rib B. Paraspinal muscles C. Internal oblique muscle D. External oblique muscle
External oblique muscle
ad7d2399-3c4e-410b-b5ab-20d1c08936f2
Agar, a polysaccharide extracted from certain types of seaweed, is the main active ingredient in the material, while water is the major constituent in the agar impression material. Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 170
Dental
null
Agar is prepared from: A. Bullock heart B. Chemicals C. Seaweed D. Chick cells
Seaweed
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Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenaline) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. Epinephrine has many functions in the body, regulating hea rate, blood vessel and air passage diameters, and metabolic shifts; epinephrine release is a crucial component of the fight-or-flight response of the sympathetic nervous system.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition
Physiology
Endocrinology
Insulin secretion is inhibited by A. Secretin B. Epinephrine C. Growth hormone D. Gastrin
Epinephrine
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The sinus tympani (Posterior facial ridge) is the posterior extension of the mesotympanum and lies deep to both the promontory and facial nerve. The medial wall of sinus tympani becomes continuous with the posterior portion of the medial wall of the tympanic cavity. This is the worst region for access because it is above pyramid, posterior to intact stapes and medial to facial nerve. A retro facial approach via mastoid is not possible because the posterior semi circular canal blocks the access.
ENT
null
Most difficult site to remove cholesteatoma in sinus tympani is related with - A. Anterior facial ridge B. Posterior facial ridge C. Epitympanum D. Hypotymparum
Posterior facial ridge
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Ans: b (Neurofibroma)Ref: Bailey & Love, 24th ed, p. 862, Fig (56.20) & 23rd ed p. 791, Schwartz, 7th ed p. 772
Surgery
Neoplasia
Commonest posterior mediastinal tumour is: A. Lung cyst B. Neurofibroma C. Dermoid D. Thyroid
Neurofibroma
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Ans. a. Corona-virus SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV) caused epidemics of pneumonia from November 2002 to July 2003. Corona Virus SARS virus is corona virus. Corona virus infections in human beings usually remain limited to upper respiratory tract. In contrast, the outbreak of SARS in 2003 was characterized by serious respiratory illness, including pneumonia and progressive respiratory failure. In all likelihood, the SARS virus originated in a non-human host and acquired the ability to infect humans. Chinese horse-shoe bats are natural reservoirs of SARS-like Coronavirus. Incubation period of SARS Coronavirus: 6 days Death from progressive respiratory failure occurs in almost 10% of cases, with highest death rates among elderly.
Medicine
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SARS causative agent A. Corona-virus B. Picorna-virus C. Myxovirus D. Retrovirus
Corona-virus
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Sturge Weber syndrome and Von-Reckling-Hausen disease (NF-1) have been explained earlier about other options.  Tuberous sclerosis ( Bourneville's disease) Tuberous sclerosis is characterized by : - Cutaneous lesions → Adenoma sebaceum, ash-leaf shaped hypopigmented macules, shagreen patches, depigmented nevi. Seizures Mental retardation Other features  → Calcified subependymal nodules, Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, ependymoma, Rhabdomyomas of the heart, and angiomyomas of the kidney, liver, adrenals and pancreas. Von Hippel - Lindau syndrome This syndrome consists of Retinal, cerebellar and spinal hemangioblastoma. Renal cell carcinoma, Pheochromocytoma, benign cyst of the kidney, liver, pancreas and epididymis may also occur. Polycythemia may occur due to secretion of erythropoietin from hemangioblastoma.
Pathology
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The most likely diagnosis is a case of the intractable convulsions mental defect and facial nevus is- A. Sturge Weber syndrome B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Von-Hippen -Lindau disease D. Von- Reckling-Hausens disease
Sturge Weber syndrome
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Testicular torsion is most common between 10 and 25 years of age, although a few cases occur in infancy. Typically, there is sudden agonising pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. The patient feels nauseated and may vomit. Torsion of a fully descended testis is usually easily recognized. The testis seems high and the tender twisted cord can be palpated above it. The cremasteric reflex is lost
Surgery
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A patient of 18 years of age presents with sudden agonising pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. The patient feels nausea and gives a history of vomiting. On physical examination, the testis seems high. The cremasteric reflex is lost. What is the most possible cause? A. Epididymo-orchitis B. Mumps orchitis C. Idiopathic scrotal edema D. Testicular torsion
Testicular torsion
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Rosen's incision is the most commonly used for stapedectomy. It requires the meatus and canal to be wide enough to work. It consists of two pas: A small veical incision at 12 o'clock position near the annulus and A curvilinear incision staing at 6 o'clock position to meet the first incision in the posterosuperior region of the canals, 5-7 mm away from the annulus. Tympanomeatal flap is raised to expose the middle ear in endomeatal approach. Rosen's incision is used in the endomeatal approach for stapedectomy. It is also used for exploratory tympanotomy Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition
ENT
Diagnostic and operative ENT
Rosen's incision is used for A. Septoplasty B. SMR C. Stapedectomy D. Tonsillectomy
Stapedectomy
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Hypochloremia usually manifests when its levels are If the urinary Cl- levels are higher (>40 mEq/L), then hypochloremia may be secondary to volume overload or dilution. Increased urinary Cl- can also result from increased mineralocoicoid activity, which leads to the retention of HCO3- and Na+ at the expense of H+, K+, and Cl-. The treatment of chloride-responsive metabolic alkalosis (urinary Cl- = 10 mEq/L) is IV NS administration. Ref: Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine : A Comprehensive Study Guide, 7 Edition, Chapter 21 ; Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 45.
Medicine
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Which of the following occur as a result of persistant vomiting? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypochloraemia C. Hyperventilation D. Acidic urine excretion
Hypochloraemia
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TRANSVESTISM In this type of sexual perversion, sexual satisfaction is obtained by wearing clothes of the opposite sex. His whole personality is dominated to be identified as a member of the opposite sex. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 312
Forensic Medicine
Sexual offences and infanticide
Sexual gratification obtained by wearing dresses of opposite sides in A. Necrophilia B. Fetichism C. Frotteurism D. Transvestism
Transvestism
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Ans: B i.e. Squamous cell carcinoma Skin malignancy The strongest predisposing factor for basal cell carcinoma is ultraviolet radiation When a squamous cell carcinoma appears in a scar, it is known as Marjolin's ulcer
Surgery
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Marjolin's ulcer (after burn) predisposes to: A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Round cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
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Bacterium Typical food Disease Staphylococcus Custard-filled pastries; Potato, egg, tuna or fish salads Food poisoning especially vomiting Bacillus cereus Reheated rice Diarrhea Clostridium perfringens Cooked meat, stew and gravy Diarrhea E.coli Various food and water Diarrhea E.coli Undercooked meat Hemorrhagic colitis Salmonella enteritidis Poultry, meats, and eggs Diarrhea Shigella species Various foods and water Diarrhea Vibrio cholera Seafood and water Diarrhea Vibrio parahemolyticus Seafood Diarrhea Campylobacter jejuni Various foods Diarrhea Yersinia enterocolitica Various foods Diarrhea Ref : Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 201
Microbiology
All India exam
A man had Egg omelet 1-4 hours back and developed diarrhea, vomiting and abdominal cramps. Most likely cause of poisoning is A. Staphylocoocus B. Salmonella C. Bacillus cereus D. Clostridium
Staphylocoocus
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Ans. (a) Right hemicolectomyRef Internet SourcesAppendix lymphoma:* Most common presentation is like acute appendicitis* Most common in men >55 years age* CT scan will show aneurysmal dilatation of lumen* Most are NHL type lymphomas* Treatment involves right hemicolectomy including nodes followed by CHOP therapy
Surgery
Small & Large Intestine
Treatment of lymphoma of appendix? A. Right hemicolectomy B. Extended right hemicolectomy C. Left hemicolectomy D. Extended left hemicolectomy
Right hemicolectomy
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Ans. is d, i.e. Hepatitis ERef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 292; Robbin's 6/e, p 862Maximum risk of maternal mortality is with hepatitis E.Maximum risk of hepatic encephalopathy is with hepatitis E.Maximum risk of perinatal transmission is with hepatitis B.All pregnant females should be screened for HBV infection in their first antenatal visit and repeated in the last trimester.Screening of HBV is done by determination of HBsAg.Maximum transmission of HBB infection occurs at the time of delivery Q. Hence MTP is not recommended in case of first trimester. There is no evidence that cesarean section lowers the risk of vertical transmission.Breastfeeding is not contraindicated in case of hepatitis.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Hepatic, Biliary, and Pancreatic Disorders
Which of the following types of viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal mortality is the highest? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E
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Entrapment of aftercoming head This complication is usually seen with preterm delivery as the incompletely dilated cervix constricts aruond the neck .Duhurssen&;s incisions can be placed over the cervix avoiding the 3 and 9 o&;clock positions .other alternatives are intravenous nitroglycerin for cervical dilatation.General an anaesthesia followed by breech extraction is another option.As a last reso replacement of fetus high into the vagina and uterus followed by Caesarean section can be attended (Zavanelli manoeuvre).Another option with those who have experience of the same is symphysiotomy to widen the anterior pelvis (refer sheila textbook of obstetrics pgno:381 2 nd edition)
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Abnormal labor
Procedure to be performed in case of arrest of after coming head due to contracted pelvis in breech: A. Craniotomy B. Decapitation C. Zavanelli maneuver D. Cleidotomy
Zavanelli maneuver
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Centchroman/ Ormeloxifene Nonsteroidal estrogen antagonist : SERM (Selective estrogen receptor modulator) Developed at CDRI, Lucknow. Tablets of 30 mg to be taken twice a week for 3 months and then once a week for contraception . Has a weak Estrogenic and potent antiestrogenic effect--acting mostly on the endometrial target organs to suppress proliferation of the endometrium, thereby interfering with nidation of the embryo; Causes asynchrony between the Ovulation and the endometrial development Other uses: Breast cancer, benign breast diseases, abnormal uterine bleeding
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
Centchroman is : A. New drug for fibroids B. New drug for endometriosis C. Injectable contraception D. Nonsteroidal oral contraception
Nonsteroidal oral contraception
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Large vessel vasculitis are Giant cell arteritis, Takayasu arteritis and Cogan syndrome.
Pathology
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Large vessel vasculitis is/are:a) Takayasu diseaseb) Temporal arteritisc) PANd) Giant cell arteritise) Wegner granulomatosis A. acd B. abd C. abc D. ab
abd
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coxsackie B o The commonest cause of myocarditis is coxsackie B infection, which occurs any where from the age of a few hours to 7 weeks, with a peak around two weeks.
Pediatrics
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Infantile myocarditis and pericarditis is due to A. Coxsackie A B. Coxsackie B C. Mumps D. Pox virus
Coxsackie B
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Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is a well-known immune complex disease. Its onset occurs several weeks after a group A alpha hemolytic streptococcal infection, paicularly of the skin, and often occurs with infection due to nephritogenic types of streptococci. The complement level is typically low, suggesting an antigen-antibody reaction with consumption of complement. Lumpy deposits of immunoglobulin and complement component C3 are seen along glomerular basement membranes stained by immunofluorescence, suggesting antigen-antibody complexes. It is likely that streptococcal antigen-antibody complexes are filtered out by glomeruli, fix complement, and attract neutrophils. This series of events results in an inflammatory process that damages the kidney. Ref: Brooks G.F. (2013). Chapter 8. Immunology. In G.F. Brooks (Ed), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e.
Microbiology
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Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is characterised by which of the following hypersensitivity reactions? A. Type II: Hypersensitivity B. Type IV: Cell-Mediated Hypersensitivity C. Tuberculin-Type Hypersensitivity D. Type III: Immune Complex Hypersensitivity
Type III: Immune Complex Hypersensitivity
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Early cases of post-traumatic CSF rhinorrhea are managed conservatively by placing the patient in semi-sitting position, avoiding blowing of nose, sneezing and straining. Prophylactic antibiotics are also administered to prevent meningitis. Persistent cases of CSF rhinorrhoea are treated surgically through nasal endoscopic or intracranial approach. Nasal endoscopic approach is useful for leaks from the frontal sinus, cribriform plate, ethmoid or sphenoid sinuses.
ENT
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A female in the emergency depament is found to have CSF rhinorrhea following a motor vehicle accident. What is the first line of treatment for CSF rhinorrhoea in this patient? A. Immediate plugging of nose with petroleum gauze B. Forceful blowing of nose C. Craniotomy D. Observation for 7 - 10 days with antibiotic therapy
Observation for 7 - 10 days with antibiotic therapy
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Ans. (d) Ca2+Ref : Harrison's Internal medicine 18/e, chapter 387, table 387-10
Medicine
Fluid & Electrolyte
Which ion channel is affected in hypokalemic periodic paralysis? A. K+ B. Na+ C. Cl- D. Ca2+
Ca2+