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d46bfb42-0e5b-4701-999a-dc4f91c47d39 | Location of carcinoid tumors: Bronchus 27.9% , Ileum 14.9%, Rectum 13.6 %, colon 8.6 %. So Ileum comes next to bronchus and first in GI tract. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3058, Table 350-3 | Medicine | null | Which is the most common location of carcinoid tumor ?
A. Bronchus
B. Ileum
C. Rectum
D. Colon
| Bronchus |
0aa3ac17-73ac-4d47-8b19-d9bb50d510f8 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1-Level of significance First read about these different terms : ? Confidence interval It is the interval within which a parameter value is expected to lie with ceain confidence levels, as could be revealed by repeated samples. o It is the interval (range) around the mean of population in which the means of multiple samples of same population are dispersed. o If independent samples are taken repeatedly from the same population, and a confidence interval is calculated, then a ceain percentage (confidence level) of the intervals will include the unknown population parameter. o For example 95% of sample means will be covered by 2SD from population mean here. Confidence level --> 95%. 95% confidence interval for population mean --> Mean +- 2SD. o A narrow confidence interval is always preferable as it tells more precisely about the population mean:-- i) Large the sample size, narrower the confidence interval. ii) Smaller the Standard detion, narrower the confidence interval. Confidence limits o Are the upper and lower boundries of confidence interval, i.e., the values which define the range of confidence interval. Confidence limits is calculated by mean and standard detion. I am giving a very simple example : ? o If mean weight of a sample of children in a school is 30 Kg and SD is 1. Then. i) Confidence interval = Mean +- 2SD = 30 +- 2 = 28 to 32 kg. ii) Confidence level = 95% (that means 95% of values will be covered under the range 38 to 32). iii) Confidence limit = 28 (lower limit) and 32 (upper limit) Level of significance Level of significance is the criterian used to rejecting null hypothesis, i.e., to find out significant difference between two variable. o In simple words, it is defined as the probability of making a decision to reject the null hypothesis. o The decision is often made by using p value, i.e., p value denotes significance level. P vlalue 0.01 means that there is 99% of probability of rejecting null hypothesis when it is false, that is there is significant difference between two variable. o The significance level is usually set at 0.05 (p=0.05). The smaller the p-value (significance level), the more significant the result said to be. Now explanation for this question is : ? Confidence intervals are closely related to statistical significance testing. In many situations, if the point estimate of parameter is 'X', with confidence interval `a-b' at confidence level P, then any value outside this interval (a-b) will be significantly different from X at significance level a =1 - P under the same distributional assumption that were made to generate the confidence interval. o That means, if in an estimtion of second parameter we obsrved a value less than 'a' or greater than 'b' we would reject null hypothesis that the true value of this parameter equaled 'X' at the level of significance. o Conversely, if the estimate of second parameter lay within the interval `a-b', we would be unable to reject the null hypothesis that the parameter equaled 'X'. In consequence, if the estimates of two parameters have a confidence interval at a given P value that do not overlap, it is very likely that the two values are significantly different at the corresponding value of a. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Limits of confidence of a hypothesis determined by?
A. Power factor
B. Level of significance
C. 1-power factor
D. 1 -lev el of significance
| 1 -lev el of significance |
78057260-857c-478a-9027-bc6c60bf6163 | Morphology of papules/plaques in various papulosquamotas disorders
Psoriasis - Erythematous papules and plaques on extensors (elbow & knee
Lichen planus - Violaceous papules with Wickham's striae an flexural surface
Pityriasis rosea - Annular plaques on Trunk
Seborrheic dermatitis - Yellowish, follicular papules on scalp and face
Pityriasis rubra pilaris - Erythematous follicular papules on Trunk & dorsum of hand
Secondary syphilis - Dusky erythematous papules
Pityriasis lichenoides et varioliformis acuta - Erythematous edematous papules surmounted by vesicles/crust
Coming to question
Clues in this question are :-
Characterstic scales → silver scale
Involvement of elbow & knee
Bleeding on scale removal → Auspitz sign | Dental | null | A 30 years old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is –
A. Pityriasis
B. Seborrhoeic dermatitis
C. Psoriasis
D. Secondary syphilis
| Psoriasis |
2813db08-5b53-42d8-ade7-71490e3e8ce8 | Ans: c) Hemopexin Option analysis: Binding protein Ceruloplasmin is a copper containing protein Haptoglobin Free Haemoglobin Hemosiderin Denatured ferritin Hemopexin is a b1-globulin that binds free heme | Biochemistry | Vitamins and Minerals | Which of the following protein binds to free heme?
A. Ceruloplasmin
B. Haptoglobin
C. Hemopexin
D. Hemosiderin
| Hemopexin |
1d1c4bc1-e356-402c-8378-5aacb22eda4b | Speculum Examination- Done taking aseptic precautions to inspect the liquor escaping out through the cervix. During sterile speculum examination,ruptured membranes are diagnosed if Amniotic fluid pools in the posterior fornix or clear fluid flows from cervical canal | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | JIPMER 2017 | Pregnant patient comes at 34 weeks gestation with leaking. which investigation can be done for diagnosing the leak?
A. Speculum examination
B. USG
C. Non stress test
D. 3 swab test
| Speculum examination |
84b19255-3121-471c-ad86-c9ae99b02bf1 | Lamotrigine is a mood stabilizer which works best in BIPOLAR DEPRESSION Lithium is a mood stabilizer which works best in BIPOLAR MANIA valproate is a mood stabilizer which works best in RAPID CYCLING ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 thedition, pg no.935 | Anatomy | Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry | mood stabilizer used in the tretament of rapid cycling
A. vaproate
B. lithium
C. carbamezepine
D. lamotrigine
| vaproate |
7287324b-5568-4f43-95da-59fad2919b0f | Ans. C. IvermectinRef: K.D,T, Thle p, 850i Katzung 13th/e p. 909; Satoskar Pharma 24'e p. 816; Rang and Dale |th/e p. 573Strongyloid - IvermectinAnaerobes - MetronidazoleAtypical Pneumonia (mycoplasma) - ErythromycinCholera - DoxycyclineStaphylococci - PenicillinVRSA - LinezolidP. Carinii (jiroveci) - CotrimoxazolePseudomonas -Antipseudomonal beta-lactam + aminoglycosideStreptococcus - PenicillinToxoplasma - CotrimoxazoleToxoplasma in pregnancy Spiramycin.Rheumatic fever - Benzathine penicillinTB - INH with or without rifamPicinRickettsia - TetracYclinesInfluenza A and B - OsetamivirDiphtheria - Penicillin / ErythromycinAnthraxCiprofloxacin / Doxycycline + Peussis - ErYthromYcinHSV - AcYclovirLePtosPirosisMilder - Oral amoxicillinSevere - Iv Penicillin GLyme's disease - DoxycYclineSyphilis - Penicillin GPeussis - ErYthromYcinActinomycosis - Penicillin GLymphogranuloma venereum - Azithromycin or DoxycyclineLegionella - Azithromycin or levofloxacinPlague - StrePtomYcinListeria - Ampicillin + GentamicinMAC - Azithromycin / clarithromycinGroup B - streptococcus - AmpicillinUTI - CotrimoxazoleEndocarditis - Amoxicillin / ClindamycinBabesiosis - Quinine + ClindamycinP vivax - ChloroquineChloroquine resistant P vivax - Aemisinin combination therapy (ACT) | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice for strongyloides stercoralis?
A. Mebendazole
B. Albendazole
C. Ivermectin
D. Levamisole
| Ivermectin |
4cc0d4b6-741d-4386-9a27-cd47ad53f74f | Ans. a (Infant mortality, Life expectancy and Literacy). (Ref Park PSM 22nd/ pg. 16)INDEXPHYSICAL QUALITY OF LIFE INDEX (PQLI)Consist of# Infant mortality,# Life expectancy at age one, and# Literacy.National and international comparison can be done.Kerala has highest PQLI.KUPUSWAMY INDEXKupuswamy index of social classification include:# Education# Occupation# IncomeSULLIVAN'S INDEX (MH'01)This index (expectation of life free of disability) is computed by subtracting from life expectancy the probable duration of bed disability and inability to perform major activities.It is considered one of the most advanced indicator/measure of disability rate, currently available.HUMAN DEVELOPMENT INDEXConsist of three dimensions:# Longevity (life expectancy at birth);# Knowledge (Adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling); and# Income (real GDP per capita in purchasing power).The HDI ranges between 0 to 1.In India HDI is 0.545DALY (DISABILITY ADJUSTED LIFE YEARS)Measure of burden of disease in defined population and effectiveness of intervention.1DALY = 1 lost year of healthy life.HALE (HEALTH ADJUSTED LIFE YEARS)It consists of life expectancy at birth and adjustment of time spent in poor healthICIDH 2 (International Classification of Impairments, Activities, and Participation)Concept:# sequences of illness related phenomenon;# Diseases--impairment--disability--handicapSections (coding for each section)# impairment# disability# handicapWHODASDeveloped for assessment of social functioning in psychiatric patients on 1CIDHmodelITEMS# Pts overall behavior# Social role performance# Social functioning in ward and occupational setting# Functioning in home and environmentWorld Health Organization'Disability Assessment Scale II (WHO-DAS II)A generic health-status instrument that provides six domain scores and a total, aggregate score.IDEAS# Brief scale for Indian setting# Developed to identify and quantify disability produced by mental disorders# Purpose: determining eligibility for welfare programmes.# Items: 4-self care, interpersonal activities, communication and understanding, and work. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of Health and Disease | PHYSICAL QUALITY OF LIFE INDEX (PQLI) includes:
A. Infant mortality, Life expectancy and Literacy
B. Maternal mortality, Life expectancy and Literacy.
C. Disability rate, Pregnancy rate and GNP
D. Longevity, Knowledge and Income
| Infant mortality, Life expectancy and Literacy |
cb821836-54fe-4c5f-8008-bfb167dcebc8 | Ans. is c, i.e. Add methyldopaIn this case although patient has mild elevated BP but her BP is continuously increasing which means she needs antihypertensive. The antihypertensive which can be used in pregnancy is Methyldopa. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Obs) | A 26 years old primigravida at 30 weeks of gestation on clinical examination, has blood pressure values of 142/100 mm Hg. 150/94 mmHg and 150/100 at 6 hours intervals. The next line of management is:
A. Add captopril
B. Add atenolol
C. Add methyldopa
D. No medical management is necessary at present
| Add methyldopa |
7fdfe0d6-8fa7-4002-a0ce-5ba23f45374f | CA 19-9 is a tumor marker for pancreatic as well as colon cancers. | Pathology | null | Which of the following can be used as tumor marker in pancreatic carcinoma?
A. CA-125
B. CA 27-29
C. CA 19-9
D. CA 15-3
| CA 19-9 |
42893522-81c6-4195-bc5d-bfc0c3a8600e | Diphtheria Causative agent : Corynebacterium diphtheriae, a gran positive non-motile organism Diphtheria is an endemic disease in India Source of Infection Carriers are more impoant as source of infection: 95% of total disease transmission Nasal carriers are more dangerous than throat carriers Incidence of carriers in a community : 0.5-1% Immunization does not prevent carrier state Incubation period : 2-6 days Mode of transmission Droplet infection (main mode), directly from cutaneous lesions anf fomites. Ref : Park 25th edition Pgno : 235 Typhoid Causative agent : Salmonella typhi Reservoir of infection : Man (cases and carriers) Source of infection : Faeces, urine of cases/carriers (primary source) and water, food fingers, flies (secondary sources) Incubation period: 10-14 days Mode of transmission : Faeco-oral route, urine-oral route Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 174,258 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Incubation period for diptheria and salmonella is
A. 1-2 days and 20-40 days
B. 2-6 days and 7-21 days
C. 2-6 days and 10-14 days
D. 1-2 days and 10-14 days
| 2-6 days and 10-14 days |
73f93ccf-8777-4f82-ab69-6f5895b910f1 | The poison fluoroacetate is found in some of the plants, and their consumption can be fatal to grazing animals. Some fluorinated compounds used as anticancer agents and industrial chemicals (including pesticides) are metabolized to fluoroacetate. It is toxic because fluoroacetyl-CoA condenses with oxaloacetate to form fluorocitrate, which inhibits aconitase, causing citrate to accumulate.Reference: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 16; The Citric Acid Cycle: The Central Pathway of Carbohydrate, Lipid & Amino Acid Metabolism | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Fluoroacetate blocks the Krebs cycle by inhibiting the following enzyme
A. Citrate synthase
B. Aconitase
C. a-KG dehydrogenase
D. Succinate dehydrogenase
| Aconitase |
1185b0be-394a-4882-8882-97029b40d379 | Following three pathogens can invade the intact corneal epithelium and produce ulceration:
Neisseria gonorrhoea,
corynebacterium diphtheriae and
Neisseria meningitidis. | Ophthalmology | null | An organism not invading intact cornea-
A. Gonococci
B. C. diphtheriae
C. Meningococci
D. Pseudomonas
| Pseudomonas |
981e2d0b-f9f2-4fc1-8882-90aeaed67069 | Exercise increases oxygen requirements, which must now be met in the face of this decreased oxygen. Increase workload, will increase sever O2 demand, which cannot be met at high altitude due to low paial pressure of oxygen, fuhermore it can precipitate pulmonary edema. But decrease workload and increase duration, will produce a low-grade hypoxic drive. This hypoxia produces hypoxia-inducible factor-1a, which stimulate vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) production. This promotes angiogenesis, augmenting blood flow and supplying more oxygen to the tissues. All these changes are helpful for acclimatization | Physiology | Respiratory System Pa 1 | Which of the following adaptations will be apt to increase the work capacity at high altitude?
A. Increasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
B. Increasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
C. Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
D. Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
| Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise |
71893543-2585-4ff0-a8ca-812672965a99 | The lower part of anterior borders of right and left laminae of thyroid fuse and form a median projection called laryngeal prominence. | Anatomy | null | Laryngeal prominence is formed by-
A. Cricoid cartilage
B. Hyoid bone
C. Anterior margin of thyroid
D. Angle of the thyroid cartilage
| Angle of the thyroid cartilage |
143ed582-f790-463b-ae8b-f637295169b9 | Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) radicals like the hydroxyl radical . It is the most reactive of them all; note how it differs from the hydroxyl ion . the superoxide anion which is both ion and radical | Biochemistry | Respiratory chain | Strongest oxygen radical amongst the following is
A. O2-
B. OH-
C. H2O2
D. HCIO
| OH- |
638e198c-897d-4eb5-93df-6a9593fdda24 | Sclerotherapy is used in esophageal varices Endoscopic sclerotherapy controls active hemorrhage in 80% to 90% of patients. The combination of sclerotherapy with somatostatin, octreotide, and vapreotide has been repoed to be superior to sclerotherapy alone in terms of control of bleeding and reduction of treatment failures within 5 days. | Anatomy | G.I.T | Which of the following causes minimal Poo hepatic compromise
A. Non selective shunts
B. TIPSS
C. Distal splenorenal shunt
D. Sclerotherapy
| Sclerotherapy |
4cd8542b-50fa-4c8a-9916-96b6baaa0dbe | A i.e. USG Earliest detection Investigation Ascites USGQ Pericardial effusion EchocardiographyQ Bronchiectasis CT-ScanQ Fetal life DopplerQ Pleural effusion IA lateral decubitus viewQ Pneumoperitonum Erect chest X-ray or left lateral decubitus abdominal X-rayQ | Radiology | null | Minimal Ascites can be best detected by:
A. USG
B. Plain X-ray abdomen
C. MRI
D. CT scan
| USG |
d66c9834-4b3e-4b80-8841-4c7e1d962fc6 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Temazepam BZDs with significant anticonvulsant propey are diazepam, clonazepam, nitrazepam, lorazepam and flurazepam. | Pharmacology | null | Benzodiazepine without anticonvulsant propey is?
A. Nitrazepam
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Temazepam
| Temazepam |
ff2354a9-2811-43a4-97d9-3c4091612557 | Cavernous hemangioma is the most common benign, intraconal tumor in adults.
Hemangiopericytoma is also retrobulbar intraconal lesion found in adults but is a rare tumor Moreover owing to its tendency to invade the adjacent tissues, its margins are less distinct than cavernous hemangioma.
Rest 2 options i.e. Dermoid and Capillary hemangiomas are primarily extraconal lesions. | Ophthalmology | null | A tumor has the following characteristics. Retrobulbar location within the muscle cone, well defined capsule, presents with slowly progressive proptosis, easily resectable, occurs most commonly in the 2nd to 4th decade. Most likely diagnosis is -
A. Capillary hemangioma
B. Cavernous hemangioma
C. Lymhangioma
D. Hemangiopericytoma
| Cavernous hemangioma |
dfb6c882-8bb1-4d0f-8aa3-4ed533ea88e1 | The submandibular duct is found deep to the mucous membrane of the mouth, but superficial to the muscles of the tongue and the muscles on the floor of the mouth. So, genioglossus, mylohyoid, and hyoglossus are deep to the submandibular duct. | Anatomy | null | After a radiograph revealed a sialolith (stone) in a patient's right submandibular duct, the surgeon exposed the duct an intraoral approach. In this approach, what tissues or structures must be cut through?
A. Mucous membrane only
B. Mucous membrane and genioglossus muscle
C. Mucous membrane and mylohyoid muscle
D. Mucous membrane and hyoglossus muscle
| Mucous membrane only |
21d9fe08-5d30-4a65-815a-ea0dd970407b | Ans. C. Splenic hilum. (Ref. LB 26th pg. 1089)"Splenunculi are single or multiple accessory spleen that are found approximately in 10-30% of the population. They are located near the hilum of the spleen in 50% of the cases and are related to the splenic vessels or behind the tail of pancreas in 30%. The reminder are located in the mesocolon or the spelnic ligaments. Their significance lies in the fact that failure to identify and remove these at the time of spelnectomy may give rise to persistent disease".Additional Educational points:FUNCTIONS OF SPLEEN# Immune# Filter function# Pitting# Reservoir# Cytopoiesis# Splenectomy harms the patientCONGENITAL ABNORMALITIES OF SPLEEN# Splenic agenesis is rare but is present in 10% of children with congenital heart disease.# Polysplenia is rare condition resulting from failure of splenic fusion.The 2 primary subtypes of situs ambiguous include :1) right isomerism, or asplenia syndrome, and2) left isomerism, or polysplenia syndrome.In classic right isomerism, or asplenia, bilateral right-sidedness occurs. These patients have bilateral right atria, a centrally located liver, and an absent spleen, and both lungs have 3 lobes. The descending aorta and inferior vena cava are on the same side of the spine. In left isomerism, or polysplenia, bilateral left-sidedness occurs. These patients have bilateral left atria and multiple spleens, and both lungs have 2 lobes. Interruption of the inferior vena cava with azygous or hemiazygous continuation is often present.The features of situs ambiguous are inconsistent; therefore, situs ambiguous cases are challenging and require thorough evaluation of the viscera. The location and relationships of the following should be reviewed carefully: abdominal viscera, hepatic veins, SVC, IVC, coronary sinus, pulmonary veins, cardiac atria, atrioventricular connections and valves, cardiac ventricles, position of the cardiac apex, and aortic arch and great vessels.SPENIC CYSTNon-parasitic splenic cysts are rare. Splenic cysts are classified as primary cysts (true) or pseudocysts (secondary) on the basis of the presence or absence of lining epithelium. True cysts form embryonal rests and include dermoid and mesenchymal inclusion cysts. True cysts of the spleen are very rare and are frequently classified as cystic hemangiomas, cystic lymphangiomas and epidermoid and dermoid cysts. Epidermoid cysts are thought to be of congenital origin and represent 10 % of the splenic cysts. They are lined by flattened squamous epithelium and are more frequent in children and young patients. Splenectomy or partial splenectomy is usually considered for cysts larger than 5 cm in diameter. | Surgery | Spleen | Most common location of Splenculi?
A. Behind the tail of pancreas
B. Splenic ligaments
C. Splenic hilum
D. Mesocolon
| Splenic hilum |
847da7bd-ea39-4f28-8619-17ae213fd83e | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Amiodarone Drugs causing hypokalemia agonist o Licorice o Penicillin derivatives o Amphotericin B o Theophylline o Steroids alpha Blockers o Toluene abuse o Gentamicin o Insulin o Vitamin B12 o Diuretics Carbenoxalone | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drug does not cause hypokalemia -
A. Gentamicin
B. Diuretics
C. Amphotericin B
D. Amiodarone
| Amiodarone |
cc69edda-e85b-40a7-8621-9c9bd7e0e07f | Cutis anserina is a postmoem skin finding in drowning. In this the skin appears like an orange peel. This is due to the rigor mois of the erector pilorum muscles of hair follicles in the skin and subcutaneous tissues. Another postmoem skin finding of drowning is postmoem lividity, which is seen on the dependent pas of the body. It solely depends on the position in which body is floating. Common findings of drowning found in the hand are cadaveric spasm and washerwoman's hands. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Jaypee Brothers, Medical Publishers, Rao, page 174. | Forensic Medicine | null | Which of the following condition is associated with Cutis anserina?
A. Drowning
B. Suffocation
C. Lust murder
D. Electrocution
| Drowning |
8b4e4e47-4da5-4700-8ab8-b41ac8ed2c3e | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 126 mg/di DIAGNOSTIC CRITERIA FOR DIABETES1) Symptoms of diabeticsplusrandom blood glucose concentration >200 mg/dl.(Random is defined as without regard to time since last meal)or2) Fasting plasma glucoseQ > (126 mg/dl)or3)Two hour plasma glucoseQ > (200mg/dl) during an oral GTTor4) A1C > 6.5% (Added in 18th/ep. 2969)o The random blood sugar level does not meet the criteria for diabetes where as fasting blood glucose far exceeds the required level.o The diagnosis of diabetes cannot be made only with fasting blood glucose > 126 mg/dL.o So the next best step is to either repeat the test or perform oral G..1. T.o Harrison further adds that in the absence of unequivocal hyperglycemia and acute metabolic decompensation these criterias should be confirmed by repeat testing on a different day.o Benedicts test is a qualitative test for detecting the presence of sugar in urine so there is no use in repeating it. | Medicine | Endocrinology | For diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, Fasting blood glucose level should be more than -
A. 126 mg/dl
B. 140 mg/dt
C. 100 mg/dl
D. 200 mg/dl
| 126 mg/dl |
9cf11a9a-eb54-458b-8fa0-5fada2947b0a | HLA DRUG DISEASE B1502 CARBAMAZEPINE STEVEN JOHNSON SYNDROME B5801 ALLOPURINOL SKIN REACTION B5701 ABACAVIR MI B53 MALARIA PROTECTION B27 ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS | Pharmacology | JIPMER 2017 | The risk of carbamazepine induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome is increased in the presence of which of the following genes?
A. HLA-B* 5801
B. HLA-B* 1502
C. HLA-B* 5701
D. HLA-B 27
| HLA-B* 1502 |
84b27bac-35df-4522-a9f1-b41518231794 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Use of alkaline detergent As the name suggests, nondeliberate antimosquito effect means mosquito control measure which is not intentional or deliberate. Mosquitoes do not grow in water with alkali. Since most soaps and detergents are alkali based, use of soaps and detergents has a nondeliberate antimosquito effect (because soaps and detergents are not intended to use as mosquito control measure). o Other methods, which are intended to be used as mosquito control measures are deliberate mosquito control measures. Deliberate mosquito control measures Anti-larval measures Anti-adult measures Protection against mosquito bites (a) Environmental control (a) Residual sprays (a) Mosquito net (b) Chemical control (b) Space sprays (b) Screening (c) Biological control (c) Genetic control (c) Repellents | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 'Which of the following represents a non deliberate cultural practice leading to anti-mosquito effect -
A. Use of alkaline detergent
B. Use of larvicidal agents
C. Use of bed nets
D. Use of repellents
| Use of alkaline detergent |
d15573bd-dfa1-40e9-b734-c9528b8eb3a0 | Overwhelming post splenectomy infection MC late(after 2-5 years) fatal complication of splenectomy After splenectomy, ability to filter and phagocytose bacteria, paicularly encapsulated bacteria (Streptococcus pneumonia, Hemophilus influenza, Neisseria meningitides) and parasitized blood cells is lost. MC infection after splenectomy : Streptococcus pneumonia (50-90% cases) Neisseria meningitidis (Meningococcus) H. influenza type B Prevention- By vaccination Best time for vaccination 2 weeks before elective splenectomy * As early as possible after emergency splenectomy | Surgery | Spleen | Most common infections after splenectomy are:
A. Uncapsulated bacteria
B. Capsulated bacteria
C. Gram-positive sepsis
D. Gram-negative bacteria
| Capsulated bacteria |
07ebe108-3779-43fe-a63a-2895740db9dd | Remember this
In normal person → Low dose dexamethasone suppresses cortisol secretion.
In Cushing's syndromes → Low dose dexamethasone is unable to suppress cortisol secretion.
When Cushing's syndrome is caused due to ectopic ACTH production → Even high dose dexamethasone is unable to suppress cortisol secretion. | Medicine | null | In a chronic smoker with mild haemoptysis. He also gave a history of hypertension and obesity. Lab data showed raised ACTH levels, which were not suppressed by dexamethasone. The cause for the Cushing's syndrome in the patient is -
A. MEN I
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Adrenal cortical adenoma
D. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor
| Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor |
43565b3e-113c-4357-aaec-c275c2fdf700 | Pemphigus
Is a skin and mucous membrane disease with autoimmune etiology.
Characterized histologically by intradermal blisters circulating IgG (IgG1 and IgG4) antibody against keratinocyte cell surface (attack Desmoglein 1 and 3). | Pathology | null | In pemphigus circulating antibodies attack:
A. Desmoglein 1&2.
B. Desmoglein1&3.
C. Desmoglein1&4.
D. Desmoglein2&4.
| Desmoglein1&3. |
21bf716c-485d-4d00-b120-8b7fd88cddbc | Ans. B : Oral leukoplakia Oral hairy leukoplakia is viually pathognomic of HIV disease in the context of HIV risk factors. AIDS and HIV Infection with HIV-1 is associated with a progressive decrease of the CD4+ T cell count and an increase in viral load, the level of HIV in the blood. The stage of infection can be determined by measuring the patient's CD4+ T cell count and viral load. The stages of HIV infection are acute infection (also known as primary infection), latency and AIDS. Acute infection lasts for several weeks and may include symptoms such as fever, lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis, rash, myalgia, malaise, and mouth and esophageal sores. The latency stage involves few or no symptoms and can last anywhere from two weeks to twenty years or more, depending on the individual. AIDS, the final stage of HIV infection, is defined by low CD4+ T cell counts (fewer than 200 per microliter), various oppounistic infections, cancers and other conditions. When CD4+ T cell numbers decline below a critical level of 200 cells per uL, cell-mediated immunity is lost, and infections with a variety of oppounistic microbes appear. The first symptoms often include moderate and unexplained weight loss, recurring respiratory tract infections (such as sinusitis, bronchitis, otitis media, pharyngitis), prostatitis, skin rashes, and oral ulcerations. Common oppounistic infections and tumors, most of which are normally controlled by robust CD4+ T cell-mediated immunity then sta to affect the patient. Typically, resistance is lost early on to oral Candida species and to Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which leads to an increased susceptibility to oral candidiasis (thrush) and tuberculosis. Later, reactivation of latent herpes viruses may cause worsening recurrences of herpes simplex eruptions, shingles, Epstein-Barr virus-induced B-cell lymphomas, or Kaposi's sarcoma. Pneumonia caused by the fungus Pneumocystis jirovecii is common and often fatal. In the final stages of AIDS, infection with cytomegalovirus (another herpes virus) or Mycobacterium avium complex is more prominent. | Medicine | null | Pathognomic lesion in HIV is: September 2011
A. Gingivitis
B. Oral leukoplakia
C. Herpes simplex
D. Aphthous ulcers
| Oral leukoplakia |
02799291-223f-4ad4-b9e3-b4e1cea3623b | Posterior rhinoscopy: It is method of examination of the posterior aspect of nose and pharynx. Structures seen on posterior rhinoscopy: - Both choanae - Posterior end of nasal septum - Opening of Eustachian - Posterior end of superior/tube middle and inferior turbinates - Fossa of Rosenmuller - Torus Tubarius - Adenoids - Roof and posterior wall and nasopharynx. | ENT | null | Which is not visualized on posterior rhinoscopy:
A. Eustachian tube
B. Inferior meatus
C. Middle meatus
D. Superior concha
| Inferior meatus |
d8275833-5ac3-4f9d-8b30-4d17a37ce7f4 | The tests used to measure the field of vision are confrontation test and Perimetry. | Ophthalmology | null | Perimetry is a test to assess the –
A. Visual acuity
B. Intraocular pressure
C. Visual field
D. Depth of the anterior chamber
| Visual field |
1d7f79a0-54ea-487e-89af-a6e1340b589a | The OH groups of serine, tyrosine, and threonine frequently serve as the points of covalent attachment for phosphoryl groups that regulate protein function Protein kinase enzymes catalyse the phosphorylation while protein phosphatase enzymes catalyse the dephosphorylation. Ceain protein kinases are specific to the amino acid e.g. tyrosine kinases specifically phosphorylate tyrosine residues. | Biochemistry | Basics of amino acids | Which of the following amino acids can be phosphorylated?
A. Cysteine
B. Leucine
C. Methionine
D. Serine
| Serine |
d7ddf832-2f66-4187-ad3f-c598d12ebe59 | New bone formation i.e osteophyte formation is seen in non inflammatory conditions like osteoahritis. Raised ESR, morning stiffness in and around the joints lasting for more than 30 minutes, periaicular osteoporosis are features of inflammatory ahritis. The joint space narrowing, and marginal erosions are also seen. | Surgery | null | Which among the following is not seen in inflammatory ahritis?
A. Raised ESR
B. Morning stiffness
C. Periaicular osteoporosis
D. New bone formation
| New bone formation |
b0701dbc-311d-4118-a228-f14b14724865 | The first local anesthetic, cocaine, was serendipitously discovered to have anesthetic propeies in the late 19th century. Cocaine occurs in abundance in the leaves of the coca shrub (Erythroxylon coca). Cocaine was first isolated in 1860 by Albe Niemann. Ref: Catterall W.A., Mackie K. (2011). Chapter 20. Local Anesthetics. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Anaesthesia | null | Various agents are used for local anaesthesia. The first local anaesthetic used in clinical anaesthesia was:
A. Bupivacaine
B. Cocaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Procaine
| Cocaine |
0b2d5b25-3af2-4e1f-bd2d-86cd51b96be2 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Paccinian corpuscle Tactile (touch) receptors* For touch (superfical touch) :- Meissner's corpuscle (detect texture of surface, i.e. rough or smooth), Merkel's disc (detect two point discrimination).* For pressure (deep touch) :- Ruffini's end organ (slowly adapting).* Vibrations :- Detected by Pacinian corpuscle (rapidly adapting). | Physiology | Nervous System | Recptors for vibration sense-
A. Merkel's disc
B. Ruffini's end organ
C. Paccinian corpuscle
D. Meissner's corpuscle
| Paccinian corpuscle |
16eb7ff7-d75c-486e-80ae-8a5ae4d6a0fa | (Refer: Robbins & Cotran’s – Pathologic Basis of Disease, SAE, 1st edition, Vol I–pg no: 82-85)
Chemical mediators of inflammation
Cellular mediators | Unknown | null | Mediator of acute inflammation not derived from cell is:
A. Histamine
B. Leukotrienes
C. Kinins
D. Cytokines
| Kinins |
093564c5-eef6-4613-bfd2-15c0fe4c54ea | Non depolarizing muscle relaxants are classified according to their structure and duration of action as: Stucture Clinical duration Long acting (>50 min) Intermediate (20-50 min) Sho (15-20 min) Ultra-sho (<10-12 min) Steroidal Pancuronium Pipecuronium Vecuronium Rocuronium Benzyliso- quinolinium d-Tubocurarine Metacurine Doxacurium Atracurium Cis-atracurium Mivacurium Onium chlorofumarate Gantacurium Phenolic ether Gallamine | Anaesthesia | Neuromuscular Blocker | Which of the following is/are not intermediate acting non depolarizing NMB -
A. Pancuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Rocuronium
D. Atracurium
| Pancuronium |
bfdc5682-9740-4f33-9f03-ec43faa3e9cb | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leucine o Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors is called gluconeogenesis.o When the end product is glycogen instead of glucose, the process is called glyconeogenesis, i.e., synthesis of glycogen from noncarbohydrate precursors.o Terms gluconeogenesis and glyconeogenesis are used interchangeably as all reactions are same except for last where glucose-6-phosphate enters the glycogen synthesis pathway, instead of by being converted to glucose.Coming back to questiono Alanine, threonine, and methionine are glucogenic amino-acids, i.e. can be used as substrates for gluconeogenesis or glyconeogenesis.o Leucine is purely ketogenic amino acid, can not be used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis or glyconeogenesis. | Unknown | null | The amino acid cannot be used for glycogen synthesis -
A. Alanine
B. Threonine
C. Leucine
D. Methionine
| Leucine |
0e8327f6-c48c-47db-a6ab-ba0e0f6b1ba5 | Signs of paralytic squint:
1. Primary deviation.
2. Secondary deviation.
3. Restriction of ocular movements.
4. Compensatory head posture.
5. False protection. | Ophthalmology | null | Diplopia is characteristic feature of
A. Concomitant squint
B. Non-paralytic squint
C. Paralytic squint
D. Latent squint
| Paralytic squint |
3403b1ac-450c-45bb-903f-85630e8c6feb | In Lv dysfunction and MS there will increase in pcwp with pulmonary edema . Normal pcwp withpulmonary edema is seen in Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema like ARDS,HIGH ALTITIDE ,Rapid evacuation of pneumothorax /hemothorax. | Medicine | Respiratory system | Normal PCWP with pulmonary edema is seen in?
A. Left atrial myxoma
B. High altitude
C. Mitral stenosis
D. LV systolic dysfunction
| High altitude |
a2cc0687-2a1f-471d-9df4-1e02330b91d8 | Ans. B. Splenic veininferior mesenteric vein (IMV) is a blood vessel that drains blood from the large intestine. It usually terminates when reaching the splenic vein, which goes on to form the portal vein with the superior mesenteric vein.Tributaries of the inferior mesenteric vein drain the large intestine, sigmoid colon and rectum and include thea. left colic veinb. sigmoid veinsc. superior rectal veind. rectosigmoid veins | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | Inferior mesenteric vein drains into:
A. Portal vein
B. Splenic vein
C. Superior mesenteric vein
D. Renal vein
| Splenic vein |
978e9f6e-71ee-4060-8729-6e0fea0c5c95 | Waste such as anatomical waste , solid waste,soiled waste , chemical waste is collected in yellow coloured bag and treated and disposed by incineration | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health | Waste in yellow plastic bags are treated by
A. Incineration
B. Autoclaving
C. Microwaving
D. Shredding
| Incineration |
ff73ac06-3957-4951-9053-be3f9644b085 | Ref: The Washington Manual of Surgery, 6th editionExplanation:"Hormonal therapy with either bilateral orchiectomy or luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonists usually is reserved for men with locally advanced or metastatic disease"Management of Prostate cancerIncidentally diagnosed Tla and T1b disease.For men >70 years: Conservative treatment would usually he the correct approach.For men < 65 years: Radical surgical treatmentLocalised T2 disease.In younger fitter men (<65 years): Radical prostatectomy or radical radiotherapy.In patients with outflow obstruction: Transurethral resection +- hormone therapyLocally advanced T3 and T4 disease.These patients are at significant risk of disease progression.Early androgen ablation is favouredFor the sexually active: Conservative approach with the adoption of androgen ablationMetastatic disease.Once nietastases have developed the out-look is poor.For patients with symptoms: androgen ablation will provide symptomatic reliefGnrH analoguesTreatment options for men with organ-confined prostate cancer includeRadical prostatectomyExternal-beam radiation therapyInterstitial radiotherapy (brachytherapy)Hormonal therapy with either bilateral orchiectomy orLuteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonists (reserved for men with locally advanced or metastatic disease)Staging using the Ca ProstateT1a, T1b and T1c:These are incidentally found tumours in a clinically benign gland after histological examination of a prostatec-tomy specimen.T1a is a well or moderately well- differentiated tumour involving less than 5 per cent of the resected specimen.T1b is a poorly differentiated tumour or a tumour involving >5 percent of the resected specimen.T1c tumours are impalpable tumours found following PSA screeningT2a disease presents as a suspicious nodule on rectal examination of <2 cmT2b disease is a nodule involving greater than 2 cmT2e is tumour in both lobes but still clinically confinedT3 is a tumour involving the seminal vesicles or bladder neckT4 is a tumour involving the rectum or pelvic side wall | Surgery | Prostate Cancer | Treatment of metastatic prostate carcinoma is:
A. Radiotherapy
B. Estrogen therapy
C. GnRH analogs
D. Radiotherapy with chemotherapy
| GnRH analogs |
ef58a5af-2f27-4fce-878f-5df3990bfc0f | Section 54 in The Code Of Criminal Procedure, 1973 54. Examination of arrested person by medical practitioner at the request of the arrested person. When a person who is arrested, whether on a charge or otherwise alleges, at the time when he is produced before a Magistrate or at any time during the period of his detention in custody that the examination of his body will afford evidence which will disprove the commission by him of any offence or which will establish the commission by any other person of any offence against his body, the Magistrate shall, if requested by the arrested person so to do direct the examination of the body of such person by a registered medical practitioner unless the Magistrate considers that the request is made for the purpose of vexation or delay or for defeating the ends of justice. CrPC 53: Section 53 of the Criminal Procedure Code Examination of accused by medical practitioner at the request of police officer I.P.C. 82. < 7 years : Not liable 83. 7-12 years : Liable/Not liable (Depends on mental maturity) 84. Mental ill person : Not liable 85. Involuntary intoxication : Not liable 86. Voluntary intoxication : Liable 87. A child below the age of 18 years can not give consent for an act not intended and not known to be likely to cause death or grievous hurt, e.g.- For surgical procedure. 89. A child below the age of 12 years can not give consent even for general physical examination; parent or guardian has to consent. *That means a child between the age of 12 and 18 can give consent only for general physical examination (Not for PV/PR) 90. Invalid consent 92. In emergency : Consent is not required 88. Act not intended to cause death, done by consent in good faith for person's benefit 93. Communication made in good faith (E.g.- A surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock. A has committed no offence, though he knew it to be likely that the communication might cause the patient's death. 290. Public nuisance (Frotteurism) 294. Obscene acts (Exhibitionism) 297. Indignity to human corpse (Necrophilia, Necrophagia, Embalming without consent, etc.) 354. Indecent assault (Outrage the modesty of a girl) 354A. Sexual harassment 354B. Disrobe 354C. Voyeurism 354D. Stalking 497. Adultery 375. Rape - Definition 376. Rape - Punishment (10 years - Life imprisonment) Custodial Rape (10 years - Life imprisonment) 376A. Rape resulting in Death or PVS (20 y - Death sentence) 376B. Sexual Intercourse by husband during separation (2 - 7 y) (Without her consent and on her complaint) 376C. Sexual Intercourse by a person in authority (5 - 10 Y) (Induces or seduces a woman to has sexual intercourse not amounting to Rape) 376D. Gang Rape (20 y - Life imprisonment) 376E. Repeat offenders (Life imprisonment - Death sentence) (Already convicted under Sec. 376/376A/376D) 377. Unnatural sexual offences (Up to life imprisonment) 509. Word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman 304B. Dowry Death (7 y - Life imprisonment) 498A. Dowry harassment 317. Abandonment of child under 12 years by parent/guardian 318. Concealment of birth by secret disposal of dead body 312. Causing miscarriage (with consent) 313. Causing miscarriage without consent 314. Death of mother due to miscarriage 315. Preventing the child being born alive or to cause it to die after Birth 316. Causing death of quick unborn child by act amounting to culpable homicide. 166B. Non Treatment of victim of Rape 172. Absconding to avoid service of summons 174. Non-attendance to an order from public servant (summons) 176. Omission to give information to public servant 177. Furnishing false information 191. Giving false evidence (Perjury - definition) 192. Fabricating false evidence 193. Punishment for false evidence (Perjury) 197. Issuing or signing false certificate 201. Causing disappearance of evidence 202. Intentional omission to give information 204. Destruction of document or electronic record 269. Negligent act likely to spread infection/disease dangerous to life 270. Malignant act likely to spread infection/disease dangerous to life 299. Culpable homicide 300. Murder (Culpable homicide not amounting to murder is also defined under this section) 302. Punishment for murder 304. Punishment for Culpable homicide not amounting to murder 307.Attempt to murder 308. Attempt to commit culpable homicide 334. Voluntarily causing hurt on provocation (Up to 1 month imprisonment/Up to Rs.500 fine/Both) 335. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt on provocation (Up to 4 y imprisonment/Up to Rs.2,000 fine/Both) 326A. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid (10 y - Life imp) 326B. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid (5-7 y) 319. Hurt 320. Grievous Hurt 324. Voluntarily causing hurt by dangerous weapons/means 326. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons/means 304A. Causing death by rash and negligent act 336. Endangering life by rash and negligent act 337. Causing hurt by rash and negligent act 338. Causing grievous hurt by rash and negligent act 351. Assault (Technically, operation without consent amounts to assault) 510. Misconduct in public by a drunken person 45. Life: The word "life" denotes the life of a human being 46. Death: The word "death" denotes the death of a human being 51. Oath/Solemn affirmation 228A. Punishment for disclosure of identity of the victim of Rape Criminal Procedure Code 39. Duty to give information 53(1). Examination of an accused (arrested person) by medical practitioner at the request of police officer not below the rank of S.I. of police (Doctor can examine even without consent). 53(2). Examination of a accused female by female medical practitioner 53 A. Examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner 54. Examination of arrested person by medical practitioner at the request of the arrested person. 164A. Examination of the victim of Rape (Protocol) 174. Police inquest 176. Magistrate inquest 327. In camera trial 357C. All hospitals should give free first aid treatment to victims of rape and should inform the police. 416. Commutation of capital sentence on pregnant woman | Unknown | null | Examination of arrested person by medical practitioner at the request of the arrested person. Is defined under which section of the Code Of Criminal Procedure
A. Section 53
B. Section 54
C. Section 56
D. Section 57
| Section 54 |
62646e23-4278-451a-b589-04585b286644 | Td vaccine should be given to pregnant women in the second or third trimester if they had not been vaccinated in the past 10 years. If a pregnant women received Td in the past 10 years Tdap should be given postpaum. American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommend that influenza vaccine should be given only to pregnant women with serious underlying diseases such as chronic diseases or pulmonary problems. Ref: The Vaccine Handbook: A Practical Guide for Clinicians: the Purple Book By Gary S. Marshall page 252. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following vaccine is routinely given in pregnancy?
A. Influenza
B. Oral polio
C. Tetanus
D. Rabies
| Tetanus |
6daf8a6e-9fc6-4d51-a878-b83f4e9d2637 | Ans. (b) Promyelocytic (M3)(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 612; 8th/pg 622)Acute Promyelocytic Leukemic (APML, M3) cells can induce Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) | Pathology | Misc. (W.B.C) | D1C is common in which AML-
A. Monocytic (M5)
B. Promyelocytic (M3)
C. Erythrocytic (M6)
D. Megakaryocytic (M7)
| Promyelocytic (M3) |
65bb604d-f85f-4302-b6f4-e180fedb0805 | A child can draw a rectangle by the age of 4 years. All other options can be performed by a 3 year old child. Ref: O P Ghai, 7th Edition, Pages 26-29, 6th Edition, Page 44; Nelson, 18th Edition, Page 44. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following cannot be done by a 3 year old child?
A. Draw a circle
B. Draw a rectangle
C. Telling a story
D. Riding tricycle
| Draw a rectangle |
12c2d9c1-25fa-476c-bb40-72cc36f7c414 | Ref Harrison 18/e p 144;9/e p99 Interleukin-18 is a protein which in humans is encoded by the IL18 gene. The protein encoded by this gene is a proinflammatory cytokine. This cytokine is produced by many immune cells and can modulate both innate and adaptive immunity and dysregulation can cause autoimmune or inflammatory diseases | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following is not a pyrogenic cytokine
A. Il_1
B. TNF
C. IFN _alpha
D. IL -18
| IL -18 |
ba3aaf54-0014-4065-b561-e0d241907b1a | In both classic migraine and basilar migraine ,women are more susceptible. aura and visual disturbances are seen in both. But it is more severe in basilar migraine that it may lead to complete blindness, frank psychosis, quadriplegia and coma. | Medicine | null | Basilar migraine differs from classic migraine in the
A. Sex of persons affected
B. Duration of aura
C. Severity of symptoms
D. Sequence of neurologic deficits
| Severity of symptoms |
23fbb2a0-5d66-4989-8b9b-00240f6387c3 | Ans- C Ventilation-perfusion inequality a. Although hypoventilation, incomplete oxygen diffusion, and pulmonary shunts all are causes of hypoxemia, the most common cause is ventilation-perfusion inequality. b. The mismatch of ventilation and blood flow occurs to some degree in the normal upright lung but may become extreme in the diseased lung. c. The three indices used to measure ventilation-perfusion inequality are alveolar arterial PO2 difference, physiologic shunt (venous admixture), and alveolar dead space. d. Elevated 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) levels shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right and thereby augment tissue oxygenation. This elevation does not result in hypoxemia. | Unknown | null | Most common physiologic cause of hypoxemia is-
A. Hypoventilation
B. Incomplete alveolar oxygen diffusion
C. Ventilation-perfusion inequality
D. Pulmonary shunt flow
| Ventilation-perfusion inequality |
2f10fb55-83cd-4a57-a7c8-274bd3d4d4a5 | Ans. A: Rhesus Incompatibility Jaundice appearing after 72 hours: Sepsis neonatorum' Neonatal hepatitis Extra hepatic biliary atresia Breast milk jaundice Metabolic disorders | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is not a cause for neonatal jaundice manifesting for the first time in the second week: September 2008
A. Rhesus incompatibility
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Jaundice due to breast milk
D. Galactosemia
| Rhesus incompatibility |
cf2753e3-c36f-42e6-8797-1d04c8a07a1f | Streptomycin and ethambutol are not hepatotoxic. Read carefully, option (c) is ethionamide, not ethambutol. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following antitubercular drug is not hepatotoxic :
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethionamide
D. Streptomycin
| Streptomycin |
34476f87-48fb-41ea-9f2f-26b467624a38 | (Born before 37 weeks of gestations): Ref: (460-Park 20th)1. Preterm babies - babies bom too early before 37 weeks of gestations (259 days)2. Small for date (SFD) babies - bom at term or preterm. They weight less than the 10th percentile for the gestational age.3. Term: babies bom from 37 completed weeks to less than 42 completed weeks (259 to 293 days) of gestations4. Post term: - Babies bom at 42 completed weeks or anytime thereafter (294 days and over) of gestation | Social & Preventive Medicine | Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics | Preterm babies:
A. Bom before 37 weeks of gestations
B. Bom before 38 weeks of gestations
C. Bom before 39 weeks of gestations
D. Bom before 40 weeks of gestations
| Bom before 37 weeks of gestations |
0bd68318-07fa-424e-bea6-9ae7365387a3 | Tophi appear as characteristic punched out cysts or deep erosions with over hanging bony edges -Mael's or G' sign. GOUT:- Sometimes only feature is acute pain and tenderness. hyperuricemia is not diagnostic and is often seen in normal middle aged men. During acute attack X-rays show only soft tissue swelling. Chronic gout may result in joint space narrowing and secondary OA. | Orthopaedics | Joint disorders | 42 yrs male with frequent attacks of joint pain, underwent an X-ray showing soft tissue swelling. The likely diagnosis is:
A. Gout
B. Parathyroid adenoma
C. Psoriasis
D. RA
| Gout |
2df07de1-15f1-4261-b60f-2195f312f6ce | Antimalarial month is observed every year in month of June throughout the country, prior to the onset of mansoon and transmission season, to enhance the level of awareness and encourage community participation. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Antimalarial month is –
A. April
B. May
C. September
D. June
| June |
63fe1814-a414-4c20-8f21-03d23f0fefef | (D) Dorsal nucleus of X cranial nerveNUCLEI BELONGING TO COLUMNSGSEOculomotor, Trochlear, Abducent, Hypoglossal nucleiSVEMotor nucleus of V nerve Motor nucleus of VII nerve Nucleus AmbiguusGVEEW nucleus, Lacrimatory nucleus, Superior & Inferior salivatory nuclei, Dorsal vagal nucleusGVA/SVANucleus of Tractus solitariusGSASpinal, Principal sensory & Mesencephalic nuclei of V nerveSSAVestibular & Cochlear nuclei[?]III-Special Visceral (Branchial)Efferent (SVE) Column:Motor nuclei which supply musclesdeveloped from the pharyngeal arches, (Branchiomotor cell column).These are (5,7,9 & 10)Ambiguus nucleus, in Medulla (9,10 & cranial part of Accessory nerve)Motor Nucleus of the Trigeminal nerve, in the Mid pons.Motor nucleus of the Facial nerve in the Caudal pons.CRANIAL NERVE FUNCTIONAL COMPONENTSFunctional componentAbbreviation General FunctionCranial nerves containing componentGeneral somatic afferentGSAPerception of touch, pain, temperatureTrigeminal nerve (V); Facial nerve (VII); Vagus nerve (X)General visceral afferentGVASensory input from visceraGlossopharyngeal nerve (IX); Vagus nerve (X)Special afferentSASmell, taste, vision, hearing & balanceOlfactory nerve (1); Optic nerve (II); Facial nerve (VII); Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII); Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), Vagus nerve (X)General somatic efferentGSEMotor innervation to skeletal (voluntary) musclesOculomotor nerve (II); Trochlear nerve (IV); Abducent nerve (VI); Hypoglossal nsrve (XII)General visceral efferentGVEMotor innervation to smooth muscle, heart muscle & glandsOculomotor nerve (III); Facial nerve (VI); Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX); Vagus nerve (X)Branchial efferent**BEMotor innervation to skeletal muscles derived from pharyngeal arch mesodermTrigeminal nerve (V); Facial nerve (VII), Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX); Vagus nerve (X); Accessory nerve (XI)* Special sensory or Special Visceral Afferent (SVA) - smell, taste; special somatic afferent (SSA) - vision, hearing, balance.** Special Visceral Efferent (SVE) or branchial motor.Other Option[?]Nucleus AmbiguusRuns in a rostral to caudal direction in the medulla & is located in the ventrolateral reticular formation, posterior to the inferior olivary nuclear complex and anteromedial to the spinal trigeminal nucleus.[?]Dorsal nucleus of the Vagus nerve (or Posterior motor nucleus of Vagus)Is a cranial nerve nucleus for the vagus nerve in the medulla that lies ventral to the floor of the fourth ventricle.It mostly serves parasympathetic vagal functions in the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, and other thoracic and abdominal vagal innervations.The cell bodies for the preganglionic parasympathetic vagal neurons that innervate the heart reside in the nucleus ambiguus.Additional cell bodies are found in the nucleus ambiguus, which give rise to the branchial efferent motor fibers of the vagus nerve (CN X) terminating in the laryngeal, pharyngeal muscles & musculus uvulae. | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Special visceral efferent DOES NOT involve
A. Nucleus ambiguus
B. Motor nucleus of V cranial nerve
C. Motor nucleus of VII cranial nerve
D. Dorsal nucleus of X cranial nerve
| Dorsal nucleus of X cranial nerve |
6f7bb4d4-e327-4710-8dc7-21992f14fadb | <p> SWINE FLU:- Pandemic influenza A (H1N1). This differs from seasonal influenza in two ways. 1. Majority of population has little/no pre existing immunity to virus,the impact of the infection thus leading to wider range. 2. The virus infect the lower respiratory tract and can cause progressive pneumonia. Incubation period:- 2-3 days but can range upto 7 days. {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.156}</p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Swine flu is caused most commonly by -
A. H1N1
B. H5N1
C. H3N2
D. B virus
| H1N1 |
05b03ceb-6996-4e75-b1d1-5d4b41ce004f | The massively increased uterine blood flow necessary to maintain pregnancy is made possible by significant hyperophy and remodeling of all pelvic vessels. After delivery, their caliber diminishes to approximately the size of the pre pregnant state. Uterine blood flow is increased from 50 ml/min in non pregnant states to about 750 ml near term. The increase is due to the combined effect of utero-placental an feto-placental vasodilation. The vasodilation is due to smooth muscle relaxing effects of progesterone, oestrogen, nitric oxide, prostaglandins and ANP. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 30. The Puerperium. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Uterine blood flow at term is?
A. 800-1200 ml/min
B. 50-70 ml/min
C. 175-200 ml/min
D. 500-750 ml/min
| 500-750 ml/min |
1f3ac1ac-7607-46a1-9e9e-735a4c53d1ef | Type XXV is present in the brain Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 628 Table no: 50-1 | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | Type of collagen in brain
A. Type IV
B. Type VII
C. Type XXV
D. Type XXVI
| Type XXV |
ad8fe151-86ac-4b28-919f-5ee6f1fdc28a | Ans. A. AnencephalyUltrasound can be used to detect anencephaly as early as 10 weeks' gestation. With an abnormal head/trunk ratio and abnormally large orbits, the absence of the superior vault is associated.The length of crown-rump is normal in most anencephalic fetuses. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Antenatal Care & Assessment of Fetal Well Being | Which Congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
A. Anencephaly
B. Iniencephaly
C. Microcephaly
D. Holoprosencephaly
| Anencephaly |
2e97b71e-5a3d-4593-9592-9929f2c6d4e3 | The Internal Veebral Venous Plexus is located in the spinal epidural space. The veebral aery and vein occupy the transverse foramina of the upper six cervical veebrae. The external veebral venous plexus consists of the anterior pa, which lies in front of the veebral column, and the posterior pa, which lies on the veebral arch. The lumbar cistern is the enlargement of the subarachnoid space between the inferior end of the spinal cord and the inferior end of the subarachnoid space. | Anatomy | Back region | A 44-year-old woman comes to her physician and complains of headache and backache. On examination, she is found to have fluid accumulated in the spinal epidural space because of damage to blood vessels or meninges. Which of the following structures is most likely ruptured?
A. Veebral aery
B. Veebral vein
C. External veebral venous plexus
D. Internal veebral venous plexus
| Internal veebral venous plexus |
b735bf17-7282-426a-afbc-0e8b1335bea1 | Ans. b (Potassium). (Ref. Ganong Physiology, 21st ed., 55, 56)Myocardial action potentialPhase 0Rapid upstrokeVoltage-gated Na-channels open.Phase 1Initial repolarizationInactivation of voltage-gated Na+ balances K+ effiux.Phase 2PlateauCa2+ influx through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels balances K+ efflux.Ca2+ influx triggers myocyte contraction.Phase 3Rapid repolarizationMassive K+ efflux due to opening of voltage gated slow K+ channels and closure of voltage-gated Ca2+ channelsPhase 4Resting potentialHigh K+ permeability through K+ channels | Physiology | General | The resting membrane potential depends mainly on gradient of
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
| Potassium |
72fac339-edf2-45f2-bc84-8a0a77043825 | Ans. is'a'i.e., FibratesRef: KDT 6h/e p. 614; Harrison 18th/e ch. 356Fibrates (e.g. clofibrate) activate lipoprotein lipase, therefore, enhance lipolysis of triglycerides in VLDL.Statins and nicotinic acid also decrease VLDL but it is not their main mechanism of action. | Pharmacology | null | Which hypolipidemic drug acts primarily by decreasing VLDL -
A. Fibrates
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Statins
D. Cholestyramine
| Fibrates |
dfa14f0f-beb7-480e-a805-3af9376d968a | The chromic catgut contains the chromic salt solution to delay absorption. | Surgery | null | Chromic catgut suture has added advantage that is:
A. Delayed resorption.
B. No resorption.
C. Early resorption.
D. Greater adherence.
| Delayed resorption. |
7a574efa-6ad2-461e-aa8c-56606a9e2541 | As mentioned in the question, the person is uncomfoable with his sex and feels that he is imposed by a female body (i.e., he is of another sex). Both are characteristics of gender identity disorder. TRANSEXUALISM: It is the severest form of gender identity disorders There is a sense of discomfo with anatomical sex organs & desires to get rid of them i.e., dissatisfaction with allotted sex. Phrases like - I am a male in female body or vice versa are quite characteristic of it. Observation for a long period of time is needed to be very ceain of diagnosis Treatment: Sex Reassignment Surgery (SRS) with hormonal treatment TRANSVESTISM: episodic cross dressing to have a sense of belonging to opposite sex-Dual role Transvestism Cross dressing to attain sexual excitement-Fetishistic Transvestism(occurs exclusively in heterosexual males) VOYEURISM: Also known as scopophilia. This is a persistent or recurrent tendency of watching others in the act of sex or undressing This is often followed by masturbation to achieve orgasm Almost always seen in males Watching pornography is not included here. PARAPHILIAS: These are disorders of sexual preference in which sexual arousal occurs persistently and significantly in response to objects which are not a pa of normal sexual arousal. | Psychiatry | Sexual Disorders | A homosexual person feels that "he is a woman trapped in a man's body" and has persistent discomfo with his sex. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Trans - sexualism
B. Transvestism
C. Voyeurism
D. Paraphilias
| Trans - sexualism |
8c361301-25cb-4ea5-9059-06ae62cc1dbf | <p>Vitamin D-dependent rickets type I Rickets can be due to resistance to the action of vitamin D as well as to vitamin D deficiency. Vitamin D-dependent rickets type I, previously termed pseudovitamin D-resistant rickets , differs from true vitamin D-resistant rickets (vitamin D-dependent rickets type II, see below) in that it is less severe and the biochemical and radiographic abnormalities can be reversed with appropriate doses of the vitamin's active metabolite, 1,25(OH) 2 D 3 . Physiologic amounts of calcitriol cure the disease This finding fits with the pathophysiology of the disorder, which is autosomal recessive, and is now known to be caused by mutations in the gene encoding 25(OH)D-1a-hydroxylase. Both alleles are inactivated in all patients, and compound heterozygotes, harboring distinct mutations, are common. Clinical features include hypocalcemia, often with tetany or convulsions, hypophosphatemia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia, often associated with skeletal deformities and increased alkaline phosphatase. Treatment involves physiologic replacement doses of 1,25(OH) 2 D 3 Vitamin D-dependent rickets type II Vitamin D-dependent rickets type II results from end-organ resistance to the active metabolite 1,25(OH) 2 D 3 . The clinical features resemble those of the type I disorder and include hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and rickets but also paial or total alopecia. Plasma levels of 1,25(OH) 2 D are elevated, in keeping with the refractoriness of the end organs. This disorder is caused by mutations in the gene encoding the vitamin D receptor; treatment is difficult and requires regular, usually nocturnal calcium infusions (harrison 18 pg 3117)</p> | Medicine | Endocrinology | Hypophosphatemia is seen in -
A. Pseudohypoparathyropdism
B. CRF
C. Rickets
D. Hyperparathyroidism
| Rickets |
f2ec9119-f005-4471-ab60-e84a9c78a78f | Therapeutic index : LD50/ED50 Therapeutic window Range of steady-state concentrations of drug that provides therapeutic efficacy with minimal toxicity Therapeutic efficacy: Ability of a drug to activate a receptor and generate a clinical response is Therapeutic efficacy Therapeutic dose: Dose of a drug required to have a clinical response | Pharmacology | Pharmacodynamics | X in the graph represents
A. Therapeutic index
B. Therapeutic dose
C. Therapeutic window
D. Therapeutic efficacy
| Therapeutic window |
5c7ee598-f85d-42c2-b848-eaab77d72301 | Regulation of beta-catenin preventsgenes that stimulate cell division from being turned on too often and prevents cell overgrowth. The humanAPC gene is located on the long (q) arm of chromosome 5 in band q22.2 (5q22.2). The APC gene has been shown to contain an internal ribosome entry site. Refer robbins | Pathology | General pathology | APC gene exes its effect in combination with which of the following
A. Beta catenin
B. E cadherin
C. Alpha catenin
D. BCX
| Beta catenin |
beb0adc6-f9df-47d6-bd5c-15f35d5365d2 | Calcium-phosphate deposits in the skin may cause pruritus.
Scratching leads to excoriation and breaks in the skin that increase the patient’s risk of infection.
Keeping fingernails short and clean helps reduce the risk of infection. | Pathology | null | Your patient with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should you include in this patient’s teaching plan?
A. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel
B. Take frequent baths
C. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin
D. Keep fingernails short and clean
| Keep fingernails short and clean |
dc9d097d-44a0-46a9-b056-b404482bb6ed | Ans. is 'a' i.e., DecreasesThe commonly used parameters in the umbilical aery doppler are:SD ratio: systolic velocity/diastolic velocityPulsatility index (PI) (Gosling index): (PSV - EDV)/ TAVResistive index (RI) (Pourcelot index): (PSV - EDV) / PSVNormally the parameters mentioned above should decrease progressively as the pregnancy advances, as there is increase in the end diastolic velocity due to growth and dilatation of umbilical circulation.Any detion in the parameters is suggestive of either IUGR or pre - eclampsia .Thus, during progressive monitoring of the umbilical aery Doppler, as the severity of the disease increases, we observe first:The decreased velocity in the end diastolic phaseThen absent flow in the end diastolic phase followed byReversal of flow in the end diastolic phase. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | During progression of normal pregnancy, S/D ratio in umblical aery ?
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Plateau
D. Not significant
| Decreases |
926ee788-b6a0-415a-ac99-06338e814400 | answer: b) As (DHINGRA 6TH ED, P-24* Type A- normal tympanogram* Type As- (Low compliance) otosclerosis, malleus fixation* Type AD- (High compliance) ossicular discontinuity or thin and lax tympanic membrane* Type B- (No Change in compliance with pressure changes) middle ear fluid, thick tympanic membrane.* Type C- (Maximum compliance occurs with negative pressure in excess of 100 mm of H2O) retracted tympanic.OTOSCLEROSIS or OTOSPONGIOSIS* Disease of bony labyrinth where spongy bone replaces normal enchondral layer of bony otic capsule* Most often the otosclerotic focus involves stapes leading to stapes fixation and CHLEtiology* Family history present* Autosomal dominant* Common in Indians; Age 20-30 yrs* Females affected twice more than males.* But in India males are more affected* May be initiated or made worse by pregnancy, menopause, after an accident or a major operation* Van der hoeve syndrome- triad of Osteogenesis imperfecta, Blue sclera and Otosclerosis* Virus involved - Measles virusTypes* Stapedial otosclerosis causing stapes fixation and CHL is the most common variety* Fistula ante fenestrum - in front of oval window is the site of predilection (anterior focus)* Cochlear otosclerosis - causes SNHLMicroscopic* Immature focus - vascular spaces, osteoclasts, osteoblasts & fibrous tissue - stains blue on HE staining (Blue mantles of Manasse)* Mature focus - less vascular with lot of fibrous tissue and few osteoblasts - stains red on HE stainingSymptoms and Signs* Hearing loss - painless progressive bilateral CHL* Paracusis willisi - hears better in noisy surroundings* Tinnitus, Vertigo, Monotonous soft speech* TM - normal and mobile* Schwartz sign - flamingo pink blush or reddish hue seen on the promontory through TM - indicates active focus* TFTs- negative Rinne, Weber lateralized to the ear with greater hearing loss* In some cases a dip in the bone conduction curve appear at 2000Hz which disappears after successful stapedectomy (Carhart's notch)* Bezold's triad - absolute negative Rinne's, raised lower tone limit, prolonged bone conductionTreatment* Medical- Sodium fluoride* Surgical: Stapedectomy/ Stapedotomy with a placement of prosthesis - treatment of choiceSelection of patients for Stapes surgery* Hearing threshold for air conduction should be > 30 DB* Average air-bone gap should be atleast 15 DB* Rinne negative for 256 and 512 Hz* Speech discrimination score > 60% | ENT | Ear | A 25 year old woman complaints of bilateral hearing loss since 4 years which worsened during pregnancy. Type of tympanogram will be
A. Ad
B. As
C. C
D. B
| As |
272af7f7-d14e-4d0e-a171-2edf05820529 | MORPHOLOGIC FEATURES. The pathologic features are common to both HBV and HCV infection and include the following lesions 1.Piecemeal necrosis. Piecemeal necrosis is defined as peripoal destruction of hepatocytes at the limiting plate (piecemeal = piece by piece). Its features in chronic hepatitis are as under: i)Necrosed hepatocytes at the limiting plate in peripoal zone. ii)Interface hepatitis due to expanded poal tract by infiltration of lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages. iii)Expanded poal tracts are often associated with proliferating bile ductules as a response to liver cell injury. 2.Poal tract lesions. All forms of chronic hepatitis are characterised by variable degree of changes in the poal tract. i)Inflammatory cell infiltration by lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages (triaditis). ii)Proliferated bile ductules in the expanded poal tracts. iii)Additionally, chronic hepatitis C may show lymphoid aggregates or follicles with reactive germinal centre TEXT BOOK OF HARSH MOHAN SIXTH EDITION PAGE.611 IMAGE REF: TEXTBOOK OF HARSH MOHAN SIXTH EDITION FIG:21-13 PAGE 612 | Pathology | G.I.T | Peripoal fatty infiltration of liver is seen with
A. Alcoholism
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Malnutrition
D. Tetracycline
| Viral hepatitis |
7764514c-7847-45c0-b3ff-130210105bab | Ans. B. Atopic dermatitisAtopic dermatitis is a very common, extremely itchy disorder of unknown cause which characteristically, but not always, affects the face and flexures of infants, children, adolescents and young adults. Foods, inhaled allergens, bacterial infection, reduced humidity; excessive sweating and irritants cart exacerbate pruritus and scratching. | Skin | Dermatitis Erythema | A 25-yr man C/O recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections & severe abdominal cramps & diarrhea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from:
A. Seborrheic dermatitis
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Airborne contact dermatitis
D. Nummular dermatitis
| Atopic dermatitis |
3ab8036b-559a-4de6-92ed-c36ce4a90d0d | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Xylose D-xylose test : Xylose absorption test is the most commonly employed test for carbohydrateQ absorption.D - Xylose TestAim :o Assessment ofproximal small intestinal mucosal function6.Principle :o D - Xylose is a carbohydrate absorbed almost exclusively in the small intestineQ.o It does not require pancreatic enzymes for its digestion. So. if there is any decrease in its level in urine. It indicates abnormalityQ in carbohydrate absorption in proximal intestine.Procedure:o 25g of D - xylose is given to the patient, then urine is collected after 5 hours Xylose le\>el is measured in the urine.Result:o Presence of D- xylose less than 4.5g reflects the presence of duodenal jejunal mucosal disease.Clinical implication of D - Xylose TestUrine D - Xylose is decreased inD - Xylose Test is normal in the following conditionso Intestinal malabsorptionQo Impaired renal functionQo Small bowel ischemiaQo Whipple s diseaseo Viral gastroenteritiso Bacterial overgrowthQ in small intestineo Malabsorption due to pancreatic insufficiencyQo Post gastrectomyQo Malnutrition | Medicine | Intestine | The following is used for testing absorption in intestine-
A. Xylose
B. Sucrose
C. Fructose
D. Maltose
| Xylose |
21406f7e-2534-494b-9768-fcd09535ea51 | Ans: a (Colour) Ref: Nelson, 18th ed, p. 879; OPGhai, 6th ed, p. 144Parameters used in APGAR score* Respiratory effort* Heart rate / min* Colour of the body* Muscle tone* Reflex stimulationAPGAR score is a semi objective measure of assessing the infants respiratory, circulatory and neurological status at birthNormal babies have an APGAR score of 9 at one and five minutesAPGAR score between 4-8 is moderately low while that less than 4 is very lowMost important cause of cardiopulmonary, neurological depression indicated by low APGAR score is birth asphyxiaInfants with low 5 minute APGAR score should be monitored for manifestation of hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy. | Pediatrics | New Born Infants | Which of the following is seen in APGAR score?
A. Colour
B. Bilirubin
C. Blood group
D. Respiratory rate
| Colour |
25e9e3df-46e0-46e2-bc21-3f0d22287e24 | Sensory retina REP: Khurana 4th ed p. 275 "Retinal detachment is defined as separation of neurosensory retina from pigmentary retina" | Ophthalmology | null | Retinal detachment occurs in which layer?
A. Sensory retina
B. Pigmentary retina
C. Inner nuclear layer
D. Outer plexiform layer
| Sensory retina |
7d8f3fae-a714-4421-9210-fe57988606d6 | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Sorbitol containing agar Culture of 0157: H7 E.colio E.coli 0157:H7 is not identified on routine stool cultures.o E.coli 0157:H7 can be specifically detected by the use of modified Mac Conkey media which containssorbitol in place of lactose (SMAC).o Sorbitol Mac Conkey media is specifically useful for the detection of E.coli 0157:H7 as unlike most strains of E. coli, the 0157: H7 strain does not ferment sorbitol.o Non fermenting colonies on a Sorbitol Mac Conkey plate (SMAC) therefore suggest the diagnosis of E.coli 0157:H7.o Sorbitol Mac Conkey media is the screening method of choice for E.coli Ol57:H7. | Microbiology | Enterobecteriaceae | Culture media used for O157 : H7 Entero- hemorrhagic E coli -
A. Sorbitol containing agar
B. Mannitol containing agar
C. Sucrose containing agar
D. Dextrose containing agar
| Sorbitol containing agar |
8e840bab-f4a2-47a6-a9c1-a2d4087343ee | (D) Inhibitor of HSV polymerase # Mechanism of action:> Acyclovir differs from previous nucleoside analogues in containing only a partial nucleoside structure: the sugar ring is replaced with an open-chain structure. It is selectively converted into acyclo-guanosine monophosphate (acyclo-GMP) by viral thymidine kinase, which is far more effective (3000 times) in phosphorylation than cellular thymidine kinase.ANTIVIRAL AGENTS ACTIVE AGAINST HERPESVIRUSESAgentDescription* AcyclovirInhibits HSV polymerase* FamciclovirProdrug of penciclovir (a guanosine analogue)* ValacyclovirProdrug of acyclovir; better absorption* GanciclovirMore potent polymerase inhibitor; more toxic than acyclovir* ValganciclovirProdrug of ganciclovir; better absorption* CidofovirNucleotide analogue of cytosine* FoscarnetPhosphonoformic acid; inhibits viral DNA polymerase | Pharmacology | C.N.S | Mechanism of action of Acyclov ir is
A. Inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase
B. Inhibitor of viral thymidine kinase
C. Inhibitor of viral reverse transcriptase
D. Inhibitor of HSV polymerase
| Inhibitor of HSV polymerase |
04f211c9-553b-4414-8d87-7efcc96cfce4 | Influenza has an incubation period of 18 to 72 hours Incubation period of :- Hepatitis A : 10 to 50 days Hepatitis B : 30 to 180 days Rubella : 2 to 3 weeks Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Shoest incubation period is seen with
A. Influenza
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis A
D. Rubella
| Influenza |
6f6e2bab-f320-4f43-9ada-1ddfc7bab41a | * Pulsus paradoxus describes an exaggeration of the normal variation in systolic aerial blood pressure seen with respiration (normally falls by <10 mm on inspiration). * It is seen in the presence of- Airway obstruction. - Pericardial tamponade. - Massive pulmonary embolism. * Some conditions associated with pulsus paradoxus are - Constrictive pericarditis, -Restrictive cardiomyopathy, - Cardiac tamponade. | Surgery | null | Pulsus paradoxus is seen in-
A. Shock
B. Elderly
C. Emphysema/Asthma
D. High output state
| Emphysema/Asthma |
680e3f51-1011-4e03-ba4a-fa4dfb29b932 | tat is a nonstructural and regulatory gene of HIV REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.572 | Microbiology | Virology | Which of the following is not a structural gene of HIV -
A. Gag
B. Polio
C. ENV
D. Tat
| Tat |
5dd266cd-fedc-4a4a-aaab-805c4881bbf4 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Renal plasma flow * Imagine a substance that not only passes freely across the glomerular membrane but is also secreted by the tubules to such an extent that the plasma leaving the kidney does not contain that substance any more. In that case the entire plasma flowing through the kidney would be cleared of the subsance. Or, in other words, the clearance of the substance would give us the renal plasma flow (RPF). A substance which closely satisfies this description is para-aminohipporic acid (PAH). Therefore, PAH is used t o measure renal plasma flow.* The PAH clearance in a normal adult is about 625 ml/minute. This is a measure of effective renal plasma flow (ERPF). PAH is only 90% excreted in the urine in a single passage through the kidney, i.e., its extraction ratio is 0.9 (90%). Therefore, PAH understimates RPF by about 10% because it does not measure the plasma flowing through those portions of the kidney which do not secrete PAH, the renal medulla, perirenal fat, renal capsule, pelvis and calyces. Thus actual RPF is 10% more than ERPF i.e., 690 ml/min.Knowing RPF and hematocrit (RBCs), renal blood flow can be calculated.* In simple words, clearance of PAH is a measure of effective renal plasma flow and actual renal plasma flow is 10% more than the PAH renal clearance (or ERPF). | Physiology | Kidneys and Body Fluids | PAH is used to measure-
A. Extracellular fluid
B. Glomerular filtration rate
C. Renal plasma flow
D. Plasma value
| Renal plasma flow |
6e071360-322b-48f6-9d8f-d8b4302d044b | Glomerular injury is characterised by the presence of RBC casts & dysmorphic erythrocytes in urine microscopy. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 292 | Medicine | Kidney | Presence of which of the following in the urine is diagnostic of glomerular injury-
A. Bright red cells
B. 20% dysmorphic RBC's
C. 100RBC per high power field
D. Beta 2 micro globulin
| 20% dysmorphic RBC's |
77087998-31ef-40cd-a18f-a1c8f301c0e0 | In Syphilis, thrombocytopenia is often associated with platelet trapping in an enlarged spleen. Characteristic osteochondritis and periostitis and a mucocutaneous rash manifesting with erythematous maculopapular or vesiculobullous lesions followed by desquamation involving hands and feet are common. Reference : Nelson textbook of pediatrics 19th edition Page 1017 & 1018 | Pediatrics | Infectious disease | Thrombocytopenia, macerated skin lesions, rash and periostitis in a new born are seen in
A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
B. Cytomegalovirils infection
C. Syphilis
D. HIV infection
| Syphilis |
db588a2d-f69d-4fbd-b6fa-038f09425a6a | A reaction between Cu3 Sn (ε phase) and γ2 occurs and yields Cu6Sn5 (η phase). Because of the low copper content, a majority of γ2 remains. The addition of more than 6% of copper by weight can reduce or eliminate the γ2 phase by the formation of Cu-Sn phase.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 344 | Dental | null | In a high copper amalgam, the phase which is eliminated is:
A. Gamma 1
B. Gamma 2
C. Gamma 1 and 2
D. No phase is eliminated
| Gamma 2 |
47ea7a4c-6029-4a48-9f9c-2ff118ba37e1 | Visual information from the primary visual coex (Brodmann's area 17) is relayed to Brodmann's area 18 and then into other areas of the cerebral coex for fuher processing. Analysis of three-dimensional position, gross form, and motion of objects occurs in the posterior midtemporal area and occipitoparietal coex. Analysis of visual detail and color occurs in the inferior ventral and medial regions of the occipital and temporal coex. | Physiology | Special Senses | Analysis of visual detail occurs in which secondary visual area?
A. Brodmann's area 18
B. Inferior ventral and medial regions of the occipital and temporal coex
C. Frontal lobe
D. Occipitoparietal coex
| Inferior ventral and medial regions of the occipital and temporal coex |
1458ec75-7090-4681-a33f-e353c835d448 | In the third phase grey hepatisation, no new erythrocytes are extravasating, and those already present have been lysed and degraded.
The neutrophil is the predominant cell, fibrin deposition is abundant, and bacteria have disappeared. This phase corresponds with successful containment of the infection and improvement in gas exchange. | Medicine | null | Dominant cell type in grey hepatization stage of community acquired pneumonia is
A. Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes
| Neutrophils |
262a143a-7c71-4c39-a74f-98144bcfe521 | The enterotoxigenic strain of Escherichia coli secretes a heat-labile toxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase, producing a cholera-like syndrome that is responsible for the majority of cases of traveler's diarrhea. Because the bowel mucosa is not invaded and there is no toxin-induced damage, the fecal smear is negative for leukocytes. Campylobacter enteritis, shigellosis, typhoid fever, and amebiasis are all invasive, and infected individuals have stools with inflammatory cells. Typhoid fever is unique because the inflammatory cells are not neutrophils, but mononuclear cells. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 1150t,1152-1153 | Medicine | Infection | A patient with diarrhea has a fecal smear that is negative for leukocytes. The patient&;s diarrhea is most likely caused by
A. Campylobacter enteritis
B. Shigellosis
C. Typhoid fever
D. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
| Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli |
c7d8d3e6-c3d3-4842-ab0b-443308f56262 | Moality rate in 5-10% & is due to respiratory failure<\p> REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.487 | Microbiology | Virology | Death of Poliomyelitis is due to -
A. Infection
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Cardiac failur
D. Respiratory paralysis
| Respiratory paralysis |
e57c7406-1794-41b2-84cb-64f3f71a7dd9 | Ans. is 'd' i.e.. After 6 months o litre of anti-A and anti-B antibodies is almost zero immedietly after birth.o Infants start producing anti-A and anti-B antibodies at age of 2-8 month when corresponding antigen is not present in cell.o Maximum titre rech at 8 to 10 years of age after that it started declinning. | Pediatrics | Blood Disorders | Anti-A, anti-B, antibody appear in child -
A. Just after birth
B. 1 week after
C. 6 week after
D. After 6 months
| After 6 months |
4f597b92-df01-4222-84d8-5a91312a40ad | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Physostigmine Physostigmine penetrates blood-brain barrier and antagonizes both central and peripheral actions of anticholinergics in acute anticholinergic poisoning (belladonna poisoning). About other options o Neostigmine does not cross blood brain barrier. Thus it is ineffective for central anticholinergic actions. o Tacrine is used for chronic central anti-cholinergic syndrome (Alzhiemer's disease). | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice in Acute central anticholinergic syndrome is -
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Tacrine
D. 4-amino pyridine
| Physostigmine |
13780ba3-12ad-4419-9efa-aa5b3905bc0b | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sequestrated in body tissues o Drug may have volume of distribution for in excess of total body water if it is sequestered in other tissues because most of the drug is present in tissues and plasma concentration is low. | Pharmacology | null | Apparent volume of distribution of a drug exceeds total body fluid volume, if a drug is -
A. Sequestrated in body tissues
B. Slowly eliminated from body
C. Poorly soluble in plasma
D. Poorly bound to plasma protein
| Sequestrated in body tissues |
5d1998c6-c19e-4a6f-8356-d0f2b652f51c | D. i.e. Ventral/ Anterior rami of Sz, S3, S4Parasympathetic supply of gastrointestinal tract from pharynx upto midgut (or proximal 2/3 transverse colon) is supplied by vagus nerve and parasympathetic supply of hindgut (i.e. distal 1/3 transverse colon onwards) is by pelvic splanchnic nerve.Vermiform appendix is derived from midgut and is supplied by vagus nerve (parasympathetic) and T9 -- Tip nerves through celiac plexus (sympathetic)Q. | Anatomy | null | Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by :
A. Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by :
B. Posterior rami of S2-S3 S4
C. Anterior rami of L5 SI S2
D. Anterior rami of S2 Si S4
| Anterior rami of S2 Si S4 |
53ae1d7b-d084-4a79-9871-81ec7abfc672 | VECTORS : The gene is trasferred to acarrier ,known as a vector.Most commonly used vectors are plasmids.Plasmids are circular double -stranded DNA molecuels seen inside bacteria. Different vector systems used for gene delivery are : Retro viruses , Adenoviruses , Adeno associated viralvectors and Herpes simplex virruses.Non -virus systems include Liposomes , Plasmids and physical methods. Proteosomes are protein complexes which degrade unneeded or damaged proteins by proteolysis , a chemical reaction that breaks petide bonds.Enzymes that help such reactions are called proteolysis. REF :DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK ,7th EDITION , Page no :629. | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Which of the following is not used as vector in genetics?
A. Adeno virus
B. Proteosome
C. Liposome
D. Retrovirus
| Proteosome |
e036cece-b323-4779-8a92-50e4d94331c7 | HOCM EFFECT OF VARIOUS INTERVENTIONS ON SYSTOLIC MURMURS | Surgery | null | Murmur increasing with valsalva maneouvre aEUR'
A. Mitral stenosis
B. HOCM
C. VSD
D. Aoic stenosis
| HOCM |
9243456c-521e-4e43-8eeb-c22d05f5a7a5 | The hallmark symptoms of retinitis pigmentosa are night blindness (nyctalopia) and gradually progressive peripheral visual field loss as a result of increasing and coalescing ring scotomas. The most characteristic fundoscopic findings are attenuated retinal aerioles, waxy pale optic disk, mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium, and peripheral retinal pigment clumping, referred to as "bone-spicule formation. Ref : Fletcher E.C., Chong N., Augsburger J.J., Correa Z.M. (2011). Chapter 10. Retina. In P. Riordan-Eva, E.T. Cunningham, Jr. (Eds), Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e. | Ophthalmology | null | Ring scotoma is seen in :
A. Papilledema
B. Macular edema
C. CRAO
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
| Retinitis pigmentosa |
f0c65348-7306-4a67-b659-53c736176061 | Ans. is d i.e. 14 days after ovulation The first definitive sonographic finding to suggest early pregnancy is visualization of the gestational sac. Using transvaginal transducers with frequency of 5 MHz, the size threshold for sac detection is 2 - 3 mm, corresponding to 4 weeks + 1 day gestational age to 4 weeks + 3 days gestational age." To understand how many days after ovulation, you should first understand that gestational age is calculated from 1st day of last menstrual period. As is evident from above diagram gestational sac is visualised approximately 15-17 days after ovulation (or within 1-3 days of missed period) but since it is not given in options so the nearest possible answer is 14 days after ovulation. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | In transvaginal ultrasound, earliest detection of gestation sac is by :
A. 21 days after ovulation
B. 21 days after implantation
C. 28 days post ovulation
D. 14 days after ovulation
| 14 days after ovulation |
0c65ecbe-dde9-40bb-b4dc-cb1d102cc76a | A i.e. Larger brain The propoion of the various pas of the brain are similar in the brains of apes and human, but the human brain is largerQ, so the absolute size of the association area is greaterQ.* Brain size: Human >Chimpanzee > MonkeyQ.Weight of Human brain=1400 gm and Monkey brain = 100gmAssociation AreasAssociation areas: are pa of six- layered neocoical mantle of gray matter that spreads over the lateral surfaces of cerebral hemisphere from concentric allocoical & juxta coical rings around the hilum. The most prominent gross feature of the human brain is immense growth of three major association areasQ.i) Frontal in front of premotor areaii) Parietal temporal occipital - b/w somatesthetic & visual coex extending into posterior poion of temporal lobe.iii) Temporal - from the lower poion of temporal lobe to limbic system. Speech & other intellectual function are controlled by neocoex.The ratio b/w brain weight and body weight is more impoant than size of the brain as three species have brains larger than humans (the whale, elephant & porpoise)The right to left differentiation is seen in chimpanzee and human. In humans left brain > Right brain | Physiology | null | Human brain is more intelligent than monkey's brain due to:
A. Larger brain
B. Increased convulations
C. Increased brain area compared to body surface area
D. More blood supply
| Larger brain |
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