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57240d1f-1005-423e-bc91-07d0e24ca924 | Answer is C (Nephrin):"A mutation in the Nephrin gene causes a hereditary form of congenital Nephrotic syndrome (Finnish type) with minimal change glomerular morphology"- Nephrin is a key component of the slit diaphragmIt is a zipper like structure between podocyte foot processes that might control glomerular permeabilityThe Nephrin gene maps to chromosome 19q 13 and is termed as NPHSI.Several type of Mutations of the NPHSI gene have been identified and they give rise to congenital nephritic syndrome of the Finnish type.Podocin' has also been recognized as a component of the slit diaphragmPodocin is encoded by a gene termed as NPHS 2 and maps to chromosome.Mutation in the podocin gene or NPHS2 lead to an autosomal recessive form of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis | Medicine | null | The Finnish type of congenital nephrotic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations the following protein:
A. Podocin
B. Alpha - actinin
C. Nephrin
D. CD2 activated protein
| Nephrin |
88bc2ef9-e7ff-4257-9ba1-12b8a8f1ec4e | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4Pa of humerus OssificationShaft One primary centerUpper end Three secondary centers ?One for head (appears in 1" year).One for greater tubercle (appears in 2ndeg year).One for lesser tubercle (appears in 5th year).This three centers fuses together during 6th year and finally with shaft during 20th year.Lower end Four secondary centersOne for capitulum & lateral flange of trochlea (19t year).One for medial flange of trachlea (9th year).One for lateral epicondyle (12th year).These three fuse during 14th year to form one epiphysis which fuses with shaft at 16 years.One for medial epicondyle (4-6 years), which separately fuses with shaft during 20th year. | Anatomy | null | Distal end of humerous develops from how many centres ?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
| 4 |
ec4a4744-d6ab-4e26-9fc5-307e1ac2536c | D i.e. DiffusionTranspo simple passive diffusion is oured by small size, lipid solubility (hydrophobicity) absence of charge (neutrality), and absence of polarity (nonpolar nature)Q. | Physiology | null | Transpo of neutral substances across the cell membrane occurs
A. Porins
B. Lonophore
C. Lipopolysaccharides
D. Diffusion
| Diffusion |
4ddd23d8-c61a-4d26-a285-c41c2884a02a | Autosomal Recessive Inheritance Cystic fibrosis Phenylketonuria Tay-Sachs disease Severe combined immunodeficiency a- and b-Thalassemias Sickle cell anemia Autosomal Dominant Inheritance Familial hypercholesterolemia Marfan syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Hereditary spherocytosis Neurofibromatosis, type 1 Adult polycystic kidney disease (Robbins Basic Pathology, 9 th edition. page :219 ) | Pathology | General pathology | Which of the following is inherited as autosomal recessive form?
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Hemophilia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. Glucose 6-P04 dehydrogenase deficiency
| Sickle cell anemia |
7c6a626f-389e-4d25-a357-22c87b26178a | a. RSV(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2044-2047, Ghai 8/e p 381-382Acute bronchiolitisIt is predominantly a viral disease and RSV is responsible for more than 50% of casesOther agents include parainfluenza, adenovirus, rhinovirus, Mycoplasma, human metapneumovirus and bocavirus. | Pediatrics | Respiratory System | Most common cause of Bronchiolitis is:
A. RSV
B. Adenovirus
C. Hospitalize and treat
D. Mycoplasma
| RSV |
2b8b0288-6980-49bb-97cd-bfbc2ea72a2b | (Chloramphenicol): Ref: 675-KDT (717-KDT 6th)* Chloramphenicol is the most important cause of aplastic anameia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia or pancytopenia* PURE RED CELL APLASIA: (480-CMDT-06)Associated with -1. SLE, CLL, Lymphomas or thymoma2. Drugs - chloramphenicol, phenytoin3. Parvovirus infections* Most cases the treatment of choice is immunosuppressive therapy with a combination of antithymocyte globulin and cyclosporine (or tacrolimus) | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | Red cell aplasia caused by:
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Penicilline
D. Ciprofloxacin
| Chloramphenicol |
5de3f5ac-4a74-4f54-b7cb-1d5875e1a2bb | Thiacetazone (Tzn, Amithiozone) Thiacetazone was found to be the best out of many derivatives. It was tried in the west, formd to be hepatotoxic. and discarded. In India, interest in Tzn was revived in the 1960s for oral use along with INH as a substitute for PAS. Though, its impoance has declined, it continues to be used as a convenient low cost drug to prevent emergence of resistance to INH and more active agents. Thiacetazone is a tuberculostatic, low efficacy drug; does not add to the therapeutic effect of H, S or E, but delays resistance to these drugs. The major adverse effects of Tzn are hepatitis, exfoliative dermatitis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome and rarely bone marrow depression. The common side effects are anorexia, abdominal discomfo, loose motions and minor rashes. A mild anaemia persists till Tzn is given. Tzn is a reserve anti-TB drug, sometimes added to INH in alternative regimens. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:743 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Drug which produces Steven Johnson's syndrome in HIV infected individuals is:
A. Paraaminosalicylate
B. Cycloserine
C. Thioacetazone
D. Rifampicin
| Thioacetazone |
09569b7e-88c8-4387-a580-5b5dfa7a2cf7 | BRCA-1 is located at - 17q 21
BRCA-2 located at - 13q 12 | Pathology | null | BRCA-1 gene is located at what location of the chromosome?
A. 13p 12
B. 13q 12
C. 17p 21
D. 17q 21
| 17q 21 |
98629bcd-7194-458d-8746-2cbf54d14bbe | ANSWER: (C) 40 yearsREF: Schwartz 9th ed chapter 17, Sabiston 18th ed chapter 34, NCCN guidelines version 1.2014BREAST CANCER SCREENING NCCN GUIDELINES VERSION 1.2014Risk categoryScreening guidelinesAverage risk; age 25 to 40 yearsClinical breast examination every 1-3 yearsAverage risk; age > 40 yearsClinical breast examination annuallyScreening mammography annuallyHigh risk; Family history of breast cancer (> 20% lifetime risk)Begin at age of 30 yearsAnnual screening mammogram + clinical breast examination 6-12 monthsConsider annual breast MRI starting from 30 yrsRefer to genetic counseling if not already doneHigh risk; LCISBegin screening at diagnosisAnnual screening mammogram + clinical breast examination 6-12 monthsHigh risk; prior radiotherapy between age of 10-30 years; If < 25 yearsClinical breast examination annually to start 8-10 years after RTHigh risk; prior radiotherapy between age of 10-30 years; If > 25 yearsAnnual screening mammogram + Clinical breast examination 6-12 monthly to start 8-10 years after RT or age 40 years, which ever comes firstConsider annual breast MRIHigh risk; genetic predispositionRefer to genetic counseling (if Hereditary breast 8t ovarian cancer syndrome positive then)Clinical breast examination every 6-12 months starting at 25 yrs If age 25-30 yrs; annual breast MRI (preferred) or mammography if MRI is not availableIf age 30-75 yrs; annual mammography and breast MRIHigh risk; previous history of breast cancerClinical physical examination every 4-6 monthsfor first 5 years after primary therapy and annually thereafter + Annual mammographyAdd annual MRI (in bilateral disease 8t BRCA mutation) | Surgery | Breast Cancer - Prognosis and Follow-Up | What is the age of routine screening mammography?
A. 20 years
B. 30 years
C. 40 years
D. 50 years
| 40 years |
05f2cad2-9277-41f8-b1f8-a75df052a5f2 | Broca&;s area 44 is in the frontal lobe immediately in front of the inferior end of motor coex which is the inferior frontal gyrus. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:297 | Physiology | Nervous system | Broca's area is present in
A. Superior temporal gyrus
B. Precentral gyrus
C. Post central gyrus
D. Inferior frontal gyrus
| Inferior frontal gyrus |
5d54599c-ed4c-4cbf-bba6-09f9721ddc30 | Osteogenesis imperfecta also known as Fragilitas ossium/ Vrolick&;s disease characterised by, Fragility of bones, deafness, Blue sclera, laxity of joints and tendency to improve with age. It results from defective collagen synthesis and thus affects other collagen containing soft tissues such as the skin, sclera, teeth, ligaments etc. Reference - TB of ohopaedics- Ebnezar-3rd edn-pg no 464 | Orthopaedics | Bony dysplasia and soft tissue affection | Blue sclera is feature of -
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
D. Achendroplasia
| Osteogenesis imperfecta |
675d3f90-1b08-4834-840f-a9d3c96cfee1 | State (2014)IMR / 1000Tamil Nadu20Orissa/Odisha49Maharashtra22Kerala12Madhya Pradesh52(Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24th edition, pg no:604) | Pathology | All India exam | Maximum IMR is seen in
A. Tamilnadu
B. Orissa
C. Maharashtra
D. Kerala
| Orissa |
9dfd6e45-0a65-44de-82bc-78060fc30abc | Tetralogy of Fallot causes low oxygen levels in the blood. This leads to cyanosis (a bluish-purple color to the skin). The classic form includes four defects of the hea and its major blood vessels: Ventricular septal defect (hole between the right and left ventricles) Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 455 | Medicine | C.V.S | Causes of cynosls-
A. TOF
B. PDA
C. Tricuspid atresia
D. Eisonmenger's complex
| TOF |
b00a11a5-75e0-4477-b62a-b1339131747a | Ans. (a) IncomeRef. K. Park 23rded. /17Components/lndicators of PQLI* Literacy rate* Infant mortality rate* Life expectancy at age 1 year | Social & Preventive Medicine | Indicators of Health | Not included in PQLI is
A. Income
B. Literacy
C. Life expectancy at age 1
D. Infant mortality
| Income |
44c79122-33b6-448b-9118-b5529fc0c70d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gaucher's diseaseAlglucerase (ceredase) is used in the treatment of Gaucher's disease. | Biochemistry | null | Enzyme alglucerase is used in the treatment of ?
A. Gaucher's disease
B. Galactosemia
C. Niemann Pick disease
D. Pompe's disease
| Gaucher's disease |
f82e1678-8333-4423-a3fc-83dae641b7b1 | there is increased phosphate level in urine ( Harrison 17 pg 2382) | Medicine | Endocrinology | In hyperparathyroidism, which of the following is not seen
A. Normal alkaline phosphatase
B. Decreased phosphate in urine
C. Increased calcium
D. Hypophosphatemia
| Decreased phosphate in urine |
01aeffa2-4a90-4afe-b0ad-71370447b2f2 | The initial therapeutic management of acute bacterial meningitis includes isolation precautions, initiation of antimicrobial therapy and maintenance of optimum hydration.
Nurses should take necessary precautions to protect themselves and others from possible infection. | Dental | null | A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following nursing measures should the nurse do FIRST?
A. Institute seizure precautions
B. Assess neurologic status
C. Place in respiratory isolation
D. Assess vital signs
| Place in respiratory isolation |
37907502-2158-4f0c-9b59-360c11c34d47 | Ans. is d, i.e. CytomegalovirusRef. Williams Obs. 23/e, p 1216, 1217; Harrison 17/e, p 48Most common cause of intrauterine infection is cytomegalovirus. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical & Surgical Illness Complication Pregnancy | Most common cause of intrauterine infection:
A. Rubella
B. Toxoplasma
C. Hepatitis
D. Cytomegalovirus
| Cytomegalovirus |
3b1b7c05-cf02-4660-b171-b0a5bd9989d2 | Above clinical scenario suggestive of the diagnosis of Tension Pneumothorax In Tension pneumothorax, continuing leak causes increasing positive pressure in the pleural space, leading to compression of the lung, shift of mediastinal structures toward the contralateral side like kinking of Superior vena cava which cause decreases in venous return and cardiac output leading to hemodynamic instability like Hypotension. Staph is responsible for causing pneumatocele; so rupture ;ends to pneumothorax Treatment:- Immediate decompression + wide bore needle into 5th ICS - mid axillary line | Pediatrics | Neonatal Resuscitation | A 1.5 year-old girl is admitted to Pediatric ward with cough, fever, and mild hypoxia. At the time of her admission, on CXR left upper lobe consolidation is seen. Staphylococcus aureus is seen on blood culture within 24 hours. Suddenly the child's condition acutely worsened over the past few minutes, with markedly increased work of breathing, increasing oxygen requirement, and hypotension. On examination there was decreased air entry in left hemithorax and hea sounds were more audible on the right side of chest as compared to left. What could be the possible reason?
A. Empyema
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. ARDS
D. Pleural effusion
| Tension pneumothorax |
178ed19c-07ea-4781-bf5c-ee17a9a3e512 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Perception of the depth of vision o Stereopsis is a term that is most often used to refer to the perception of depth and 3-dimensional structure obtained on the basis of the visual information deriving from two eyes by individuals with normally developed binocular visiono There are two distinct aspects to stereopsis: coarse stereopsis and fine stereopsis, and provide depth information of the different degree of spatial and temporal precision :# Coarse stereopsis (also called gross stereopsis) appears to be used to judge stereoscopic motion in the periphery. It provides the sense of being immersed in one's surroundings and is therefore sometimes also referred to as qualitative stereopsis.Coarse stereopsis is important for orientation in space while moving, for example when descending a flight of stairs.# Fine stereopsis is mainly based on static differences. It allows the individual to determine the depth of objects in the central visual area (Panum's fusional area) and is therefore also called quantitative stereopsis. It is typically measured in random-dot tests; persons having coarse but no fine stereopsis is often unable to perform on random-dot tests, also due to visual crowding which is based on interaction effects from adjacent visual contours. Fine stereopsis is important for fine-motorical tasks such as threading a needle. | Unknown | null | What is stereopsis is -
A. Perception of different colours
B. Perception of depth of vision
C. Perception of Peripheral visual fields
D. Perception of size of an object
| Perception of depth of vision |
059329c7-1cb3-4a71-8339-d8e995c39d40 | Ans. (a) 45 XORef: Shaws 15th ed. H10-111; Harrison 19/e 635; William's Gynecology Ch 16 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Choriocarcinoma | Turner syndrome is
A. 45 XO
B. 47 XXY
C. Trisomy 13
D. Trisomy 18
| 45 XO |
7903b0e1-06e7-403b-870f-5aa4209ce7af | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Measuring current patients care against explicit criteriao Clinical audit is a quality improving process, in which patients care is improved.o In this, current patients outcome and outcomes are measured against explicit audit criteria (against reference standards). | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health Planning and Management | Clinical audit means -
A. Measuring hospitai records
B. Measuring current patients care against explicit criteria
C. Measuring input-output analysis
D. Measuring shortest time needed to complete task
| Measuring current patients care against explicit criteria |
e3129aea-be15-45b2-83a5-7216aeb327bb | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vinca alkaloids M-phase inhibitors (Mitosis inhibitors) are vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel, docetaxel ixabepilone and extramustine. | Pharmacology | null | Drug which arrests mitosis in metaphase ?
A. Busulfan
B. 5-fu
C. Vinca Alkaloids
D. Methotrexate
| Vinca Alkaloids |
f9ebc8b6-0ec1-4110-bd7b-5e5825d5b13c | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Trachoma o SAFE strategy developed by the WHO is the key to the treatment of trachoma. This consists of Surgery (S) on the lids. Antibiotics to treat the community pool of infection (A), Facial cleanliness (F) ; and Environmental changes (E). Blindness From Trachoma Can Be Stopped At FourDifferent points: SAFES - Surgical correction for trichiasis. It is a simple operation that can turn out lashes which are scratching the cornea, patients can be operated on in a local dispensary or health center, or other community space if properly prepared.The surgical procedure can be performed by those who have had surgical training : eye doctors, eye nurses or eye care assistants.A - Antibiotic treatment of people with active trachoma infection.Regular detection and treatment of people with active trachoma is important. The recommended treatment is as follows:o Wash the face and clean the eyeso Apply tetracycline 1% ointment to both eyes two times daily for six weekso The ointment is sticky and may blur the vision for a few moments. This will only last a few moments. If possible, treat all the children in the family.F - Clean FacesFamilies and individuals can do something to protect themselves from infection by increasing the number of times a child washes his/her face. Regular face washing removes discharge so that flies are not attracted to faces. It does not require great quantities of water : one liter of water can wash up to 30 faces.E - Environmental Improvemento This question is a repeat from NEET 2012-13, All India & AIIMS. | Ophthalmology | Inflammations of Conjunctiva - Infective | SAFE strategy is recommended for-
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Trachoma
D. Diabetic retinopathy
| Trachoma |
91df0224-1503-4c91-85f2-4b44ff619982 | Toxoplasma gondii * Worldwide * Zoonotic parasite; Toxoplasma is an oppounistic pathogen. * Infects animals, cattle, birds, rodents, pigs, and sheep. * and humans. * Causes the disease Toxoplasmosis. * Toxoplasmosis is leading cause of aboion in sheep and goats. * Intracellular parasite. * Final host (Felidae family, cat) * Intermediate host (mammals ) Toxoplasmosis 1. All parasite stages are infectious. 2. Risking group: Pregnant women, meat handlers (food preparation) or anyone who eats the raw meat ref : ananthanaryana 9rh ed | Microbiology | All India exam | cat acts as reservoir in the following ?
A. toxoplasma gondii
B. rabies
C. streptocerca infection
D. plague
| toxoplasma gondii |
c5bb9ee4-c85e-443e-a9c3-144f5f1d0c47 | Female tubal sterilization methods-10 year cumulative failure rates:
Unipolar cauterisation – 0.75%
Postpartum tubal excision – 0.75%
Silastic ring/fallope ring – 1.77
Interval tubal exclusion – 2.01
Bipolar coagulation – 2.48
Hulka - clemens clips – 3.65
Note: Although unipolar cauterization has least failure rates, but is not preferred method for female steriliization as it leads to serious gastrointestinal burns. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Least failure in sterilization occurs with:
A. Falope ring
B. Bipolar cautery
C. Unipolar cauterisation
D. Hulka clip
| Unipolar cauterisation |
5bd3cf47-d36b-47d1-8cdf-7b8ff779b374 | The standard blood screening test for HIV infection is the ELISA, also referred to as an enzyme immunoassay (EIA). This solid-phase assay is an extremely good screening test with a sensitivity of >99.5%. The fouhgeneration EIA tests combine detection of antibodies to HIV with detection of the p24 antigen of HIV. The most commonly used confirmatory test is the Western blot. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 1538) | Medicine | Infection | A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhoea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. The best investigation to rule out HIV is-(
A. P24 antigen assay
B. ELISA
C. Western blot
D. Lymph node biopsy
| P24 antigen assay |
cdab73a7-e2fd-461c-8ac1-57238ddcf964 | Tumour cells in histiocytosis typically express HLA -DR,S-100,and CD1a. Reference : Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 622 | Pathology | Haematology | CD marker of histiocytosis is-
A. CD IA
B. CD 1B
C. CD1C
D. CD1D
| CD IA |
f26ab4f3-018f-451d-8f63-d3711b865423 | Among the currently popular antihypeensive agents, angiotensin-conveing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as captopril and enalapril, have been blamed, albeit rarely, for hepatotoxicity (primarily cholestasis and cholestatic hepatitis, but also hepatocellular injury) .Malignant hypeension (whenIV therapy is indicated) - Labetalol, nicardipine, nitroprusside,enalaprilat are preferred.in case of elderly patients with hypeension,diabetes as well as proteinuria without renal failure,enalapril can be used. ref:Harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 628 | Medicine | C.V.S | An elderly patient with hypeension with diabetes, proteinuria without renal failure, antihypeensive of choice is-
A. Furosemide
B. Methyldopa
C. Enalapril
D. Propranolol
| Enalapril |
bc50c0eb-d69b-4ec7-9b2c-f1d1e8920904 | The aoic hiatus situated at the level of T12 veebra. Structures passing through aoic hiatus along with aoa are:Thoracic ductAzygos veinHemiazygos vein | Anatomy | null | Which of the following structures pass through aoic hiatus?
A. Thoracic duct and azygos vein
B. Thoracic duct and gastric aery
C. Vagus nerve with oesophagus
D. Aorla with oesophagus
| Thoracic duct and azygos vein |
267094b6-c0e7-4c00-8088-ca29fdf50ca6 | In the PCT, the apical membrane has Na+/H+-antipoer, which couples H+ secretion with the Na+ movement across the apical membrane. In the TAL of loop of Henle:- The sympoer NKCC moves 1 Na+, 1 K+, 2 Cl- through the apical membrane into the cell. In DCT:- The sympoer is NCC. In the late distal tubule and collecting duct:- Na+diffuses across the apical membrane through the epithelial Na+ channel (ENaC). | Physiology | Excretory System (Kidney, Bladder) Acid-Base Balance | In which of the mentioned segments of a nephron, Na+ reabsorption primarily occurs by the Na+-H+ exchange?
A. PCT
B. loop of Henle
C. DCT
D. Collecting duct
| PCT |
0ca9b748-d980-4d2f-b6f4-4d9dd7134872 | <img src=" /> Image ref Harrison 20th edition pg 67 | Medicine | Nutrition | Perifollicular and petechial hemorrhages are characteristic of-
A. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
B. Pellagra
C. Scurvy
D. Phrynoderma
| Scurvy |
8e9ec1f2-5bc5-41c8-bf34-abeb58cc083f | Five structures in lateral wall of cavernous sinus
1. Oculomotor nerve
2. Trochlear nerve
3. Ophthalmic nerve
4. Maxillary nerve
5. Trigeminal ganglion
Note: Internal carotid artery wrapped in its venous and sympathetic plexus along with abducent nerve passes through the center of cavernous sinus. | Unknown | null | Which of the following structure is not related to cavernous sinus:
A. Abducent nerve
B. Optic nerve
C. Ophthalmic nerve
D. Trochlear nerve
| Optic nerve |
9dcd42c3-2a9c-488b-92dc-a850cf24aefc | According to a recent supreme court judgment, the doctor can be charged for medical negligence
Under section 304-A IPC (i.e. criminal negligence), only if he shows gross lack of competence/skill, gross inattention, or inaction or recklessness or wanton (gross) indifference to the patient's safety or, gross negligence. | Forensic Medicine | null | A patient died and relatives complain that it is due to the negligence of the doctor. According to a recent Supreme court judgment, the doctor can be charged for Medical Negligence under section 304-A, only
A. If he is from corporate hospital
B. If negligence is from inadvertent error
C. Gross negligence
D. Res ipsa Loquitur
| Gross negligence |
9cf16220-eae1-4074-8bfd-bf736c92ccda | Arsenic poisoning present with symptoms mimicking cholera. The differences are - | Forensic Medicine | null | Arsenic poisoning presents with symptoms mimicking -
A. Cholera
B. Dhatura poisoning
C. Barbiturates poisoning
D. Morphine poisoning
| Cholera |
e8aa49e5-8e21-4ef4-9692-f4fa11e3139d | BOGORAD SYNDROME OR CROCADILE TEAR SYNDROME : damage to Para sympathetic fibres occurs before the geniculate ganglion APPLIED ASPECTS Crocodile tears syndrome/ Bogorad&;s syndrome" uncommon consequence of nerve regeneration subsequent to Bell&;s palsy or other damage to the facial nerve in which efferent fibers from the superior salivary nucleus become improperly connected to nerve axons projecting to the lacrimal glands (tear ducts), causing one to shed tears (lacrimate) during salivation while smelling foods or eating. Presumed that one would also salivate while crying due to the inverse improper connection of the lacrimal nucleus to the salivary glands, but less noticeable. ref : bd chaursia/ harrisons 21st ed | Anatomy | All India exam | in bogorad syndrome damage to the parasympathetic fibres of fascial nerve takes place ?
A. at parotid gland
B. before entering in to stylomastoid foramen
C. just before geniculate ganglion
D. before entering into internal auditory meatus
| before entering in to stylomastoid foramen |
2d0272fa-58e4-4efa-950b-070732fff29c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Retention cyst of sublingual gland | Surgery | null | What is Ranula -
A. Retention cyst of sublingual gland
B. Retention cyst of submandibular gland
C. Extravasation cyst of sublingual glands
D. Extravasation cyst of submandibular glands
| Retention cyst of sublingual gland |
ec0f647a-3c8b-4522-9e3a-79dd029cb8fe | The answer to this question is definitely 'A'.Let me explain why. HIV infects T cells that carry CD4 antigen on their surface i.e CD4 T cells.In addition HIV can also affect macrophages that bear CD4 on their surface. The first step in the HIV infection is the binding of envelope glycoprotein of HIV to the CD4 receptor on the T cells/macrophages.How ever this interaction alone is not sufficient for entry and infection of the virus. It needs a second receptor i.e a co-receptor.HIV has two coreceptors- CCR5 CXCR4. Therefore HIV must bind to CD4 receptor and one of the above coreceptor to enter into the cell. Any damage to these coreceptors will prevent HIV from entering the cell, thus leading to resistance to HIV infection. A well known example is a mutation of CCR5 which is called delta 32 mutation. Those persons with this mutation is resistant to HIV infection because HIV virus cannot bind to this mutated CCR5 and therefore cannot enter the cell. | Medicine | null | What is the significance of mutation of CCR5 protein?
A. High resistance to HIV infection
B. High susceptibility to HIV infection
C. Causes resistance to anti retroviral therapy
D. Causes increased virulence of the virus
| High resistance to HIV infection |
eb4ad003-cabb-488c-9087-e897a93e34ea | Answer C. Lead poisoningThe blue lines evident on the gums are Burton's lines, which can be present in patients with lead poisoning. The diagnosis of occupational lead poisoning was confirmed by an elevated serum lead level. The patient recovered following chelation therapy. | Medicine | Disorder of Metabolism & Connective Tissue | What is the diagnosis in this patient with abdominal pain?
A. Amyloidosis
B. Familial Mediterranean fever
C. Lead poisoning
D. Leukemia
| Lead poisoning |
8e5c45c9-01f3-4764-bf9f-ab40adb73dd1 | (Ref: KDT 6/e p444) TCAs abolish the antihypeensive effect of guanethidine and Clonidine by inhibiting their transpo into the adrenergic neurons. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | A hypeensive patient Sattu already receiving a drug 'X' to control his BP was prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant. This resulted in the abolition of the antihypeensive action of 'X'. Which of the following drug can be 'X'?
A. Enalapril
B. Clonidine
C. Atenolol
D. Diltiazem
| Clonidine |
de70db00-1d5a-4c9b-8a76-d32115c813c3 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 317 317 IPC: Abandoning a child (7 years imprisonment +- fine)Offences related to abortion and child birth* 312,313, 314 and 315IPC: For causing voluntary miscarriage (criminal abortion).# 312 IPC: Causing miscarriage with consent (3 years of imprisonment +- fine).# 313 IPC : Causing miscarriage without consent of lady (10 years of imprisonment which can extend up to life +- fine).# 314 IPC: Death of patient caused by miscarriage (10 years of imprisonment +- fine).# 315 IPC: Death of child during miscarriage (10 years imprisonment +- fine).* 316 IPC: Death of quick unborn child by act amouting to culpable homicide (10 years imprisonment + fine).* 317 IPC: Abandoning a child (7 years imprisonment +- fine).* 318 IPC: Concealment of birth by secret disposal of dead body (2 years imprisonment +- fine).Other options* Kidnapping & abduction - IPC 361-369* Voluntary causing grievous hurt - IPC 322* Attention & abetment to suicide- IPC 306 | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | Abandoning a child is punishable under which section of IPC ?
A. 320
B. 317
C. 323
D. 84
| 317 |
45c775dc-00dd-4526-b78e-3a440ec6477b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., M. Ulcerans * Buruli ulcer is caused by M. ulcerans.* It is the only mycobacteria producing a toxin. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Only mycobacteria which produces exotoxin -
A. M. tuberculosis
B. M. Ajarinum
C. M. Ulcerans
D. M.Bavis
| M. Ulcerans |
5a2a168a-f486-43b3-9e20-e08790893530 | Anesthesia machine according increasing pressure system iii) Flow indicators i) Vaporize mounting devices iv) Pipe line indicator ii) Hanger yoke assembly | Anaesthesia | Anesthesia Machine | Arrange following pas of Anesthesia machine according increasing pressure system wise i) Vaporize mounting devices ii) Hanger yoke assembly iii) Flow indicators iv) Pipe line indicator
A. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
B. (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
C. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
D. (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
| (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) |
fa72a3bf-43ec-48f2-b193-8087cf123183 | Both HSV-1 and 2 can cause genital and oral - facial infection but reaction at oral - facial site is more common with HSV-1 and at the genital site with HSV-2 | Microbiology | null | Most common cause of Genital Herpes
A. HSV-1
B. HSV-2
C. HSV-3 (VZV)
D. HSV-4 (EBV)
| HSV-2 |
8940eb7b-eff3-48d7-933b-fff98c87c48b | Amongst the give options, alkaline diuresis is used in barbiturate (phenobarbitone) poisoning. | Forensic Medicine | null | Forced diuresis with acidification or alkalinization of urine is a common method for elimination of certain poisons/drugs from the body. The elimination of which of the following drugs is commonly enhanced by alkaline diuresis -
A. Amphetamines
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Phencyclidine
D. Theophylline
| Phenobarbitone |
dd09d3bf-b2c9-4863-9265-d1cd15dcba0a | Answer is D (conduction): Conduction Aphasia is a 'Fluent' Aphasia with preserved comprehension and impaired Repetition. Clinical Syndrome Non-Fluent Aphasias Fluent Aphas'as Features Transcoical Motor Wernicke's Transcoical Sensory Fluent No No No No Yes Yes Yes Yes Comprehension No No Yes Yes Yes Yes No No Repeat No Yes Yes No Yes No No Yes | Medicine | null | Fluent Aphasia with preserved comprehension and impaired repetition is:
A. Broca's
B. Wernicke's
C. Anomie
D. Conduction
| Conduction |
2b40505c-97e3-4a91-8720-a5ecfdfe135f | In settings where vitamin A deficiency is a public health problem** (prevalence of night blindness is 1% or higher in children 24-59 months of age or where the prevalence of vitamin A deficiency (serum retinol 0.70 umol/l or lower) is 20% or higher in infants and children 6-59 months of age), high-dose vitamin A supplementation is recommended in infants and children 6-59 months of age. Suggested vitamin A supplementation scheme for infants children 6-59 months of age Target group Infants 6-11 months of age (including HIV+) Children 12-59 months of age (including HIV+) Dose 100 000 IU (30 mg RE) vitamin A 200 000 IU (60 mg RE) vitamin A Frequency Once Every 4-6 months Route of administration Oral liquid, oil-based preparation of retinyl palmitate or retinyl acetatea Settings Populations where the prevalence of night blindness is 1% or higher in children 24-59 months of age or where the prevalence of vitamin A deficiency (serum retinol 0.70 mmol/l or lower) is 20% or higher in infants and children 6-59 months of age IU, international units; RE, retinol equivalent. a. An oil-based vitamin A solution can be delivered using soft gelatin capsules, as a single-dose dispenser or a graduated spoon (2). Consensus among manufacturers to use consistent colour coding for the different doses in soft gelatin capsules, namely red for the 200 000 IU capsules and blue for the 100 000 IU capsules, has led to much improved training and operational efficiencies in the field. Ref : | Pediatrics | Nutrition | Dosage of Vitamin-A for children between 1-3 years
A. 5,00,000 IU
B. 2,00,000 IU
C. 1,00,000 IU
D. 3,00,000 IU
| 2,00,000 IU |
856a3c7c-cba6-41fd-946a-3931f03e1ee2 | Nelaton's line :
With the hip in 90 degree of flexion, a line joining the ASIS and ischial tuberosity passes through the tip of the greater trochanter on that side.
In cases of supratrochanteric shortening the trochanter will be proximal to this line.
Shoemaker's line :
With the patient lying supine, the line joining ASIS and tip of the greater trochanter is extended on the side of the abdomen on both sides.
Normally these lines meet in the middle above the umblicus.
In case one of the greater trochanters has migrated proximally the lines will meet in the opposite side of the abdomen and below the umblicus.
Chiene's line :
With the patient lying supine, lines are drawn joining the two ASIS and the two greater trochanters.
Normally these make two parallel lines. In case one of the trochanters has moved proximally the lines will converge on that side.
Perkin's line :
When the congenital Dislocation of hip is mild in nature, the perkins lines are drawn to detect it.
A horizontal line is drawn through the triradiate cartilage and a vertical line is drawn down from the outer edge of the acetabulum on both sides.
The upper femoral epiphyses normally lies medial to the vertical line and below the horizontal line.
But in congenital dislocation of hip the epiphyses will lie on the outer aspect of the vertical line and above the horizontal line.
Bryants triangle :
The patient lies supine.
The tips of the greater trochanter and ASIS on both sides are marked.
A perpendicular is dropped from each ASIS on to the bed. From the tip of the greater trochanter, another perpendicular is dropped on to the first one. The tips of the greater trochanter are joined to the ASIS on the respective side. This forms a triangle ABC.
The side BC of the triangle measures supra trochanteric shortening of the hip. | Orthopaedics | null | The line joining ant. sup iliac spine to ischial tuberosity and passes a greater trochanter -
A. Nelaton's line
B. Showmakers line
C. Chiene's
D. Perkins line
| Nelaton's line |
6e4b72c5-56c1-410f-b748-20124b00de98 | Macronutrients are also known as proximal principles of nutrition as they form the major bulk of food consumed by us. Macronutrients include carbohydrates, proteins and fats. Ref: Park's, 21st Edition, Page 562. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is included as "proximate principles" of nutrition?
A. Iron
B. Vitamin A
C. Carbohydrate
D. Calcium
| Carbohydrate |
6b8d9266-d590-456f-b778-9f408d727e8d | Contact dermatitis causes pruritic plaques or vesicles localized to an area of contact. In this case, a bracelet or wristband would be the inciting agent. The dermatitis may have vesicles with weeping lesions. The process is related to direct irritation of the skin from a chemical or physical irritant. It may also be immune-mediated. | Pharmacology | All India exam | A 17 year old female presents with a pruritic rash localized to the wrist. Papules and vesicles are noted in a bandlike pattern, with slight oozing from some lesions. The most likely cause of the rash is NOT RELATED -DERMATOLOGY
A. Herpes simplex
B. Shingles
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Seborrheic dermatitis
| Contact dermatitis |
d44a96a0-f5be-4042-9cab-fe87c0ed61c3 | Myelography is the radiographic investigation of the spinal canal for the diagnosis of space occupying an obstructive lesion. It requires the contrast agent to be injected into subarachnoid space.
MRI has replaced myelography, these days. | Radiology | null | Dye for myelography is injected in which space :
A. Subdural
B. Epidural
C. Subarachnoid
D. Extradural
| Subarachnoid |
f42ac82d-19bf-4717-a4fd-6b89a47b5029 | KOH preparation: Specimen is placed in a drop of 10%KOH on a slide and covered with a cover slip. It is heated gently and examined under a microscope. Yeast cells and hyphae may be observed. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition . | Microbiology | mycology | KOH wet mount is prepared for
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Parasite
| Fungus |
28e3b5c4-6b89-4ef0-a7cc-02880830d62c | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tadalafil o Tadalafil is the longest acting phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction. Its half life is 17.5 hours. | Pharmacology | null | Among the following, which of the following 5-PDE inhibitor has the longest duration of action?
A. Sildenafil
B. Vardenafil
C. Tadalafil
D. Udenafil
| Tadalafil |
d7f4f29c-0148-4f2e-81e8-de73e5921f2f | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Thioridazine The most important distinction in modem day classification of antipsychotic drug is between the classical agents (typical) agents such as chlorpromazine, haloperidol and Zuclopenthixol and the atypical antipsychotics which include clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine and quetiapine.The atypical antipsychotics are "atypical" in their mode of action and adverse effect profile.Classical antipsychoticsAtypical antipsychotics* Acts by blocking D2 receptors* Usually do not act on D2 receptors* Highly likely to cause extra-pyramidal* Acts on 5HT2, muscarinic acetylcholinesymptomreceptors and 0 3/4 adrenoceptors * Extrapyramidal symptoms less commonExamples PhenothiazinesExamples- Chlorpromazine- Clozapine- Thioridazine- Sulpiride- Trifluoperazine- Olanzapine- Fluphenazine- RisperidoneButyrophenones- Ziprasidone- Trifluperidol- Sertindole- Droperidol- Ami sulpiride- Penfluridol Thioxanthene - Thiothixene - Flupenthixol Others - Pimozide - Reserpine | Psychiatry | Pharmacotherapy Management of Children and Adolescents | The following is not an atypical antipsychotic
A. Thioridazine
B. Clozapine
C. Olanzapine
D. Resperidone
| Thioridazine |
55134f03-7430-49dd-a5ce-c1e3c430e994 | This question may cause a problem in the exam. If growth spu is in the choices then we must mark that s the first option since this is indeed the first event of pubey Pubey specific event which comes in first is Thelarche & then Pubarche, linear growth spu and Menarche In girls, pubeal development typically takes place over 4.5 years). The first sign of pubey is accelerated growth, and breast budding is usually the first recognized pubeal change, followed by the appearance of pubic hair, peak growth velocity, and menarche. The stages initially described by Marshall and Tanner are often used to describe breast and pubic hair development This is from Novaks gynecology and hence we should see what is asked in the question. Mostly the questions are asked for the 'first sign' specific of pubey and breast budding is the answer, but if "Growth spu' is given and the question is non-specific, then that's the option. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Pubeal Changes | First to come in female pubey:
A. Thelarche
B. Menses
C. Adrenarche
D. Growth spu
| Growth spu |
e542fbf2-ed4f-4ab7-9740-b0c5d790c522 | The mammalian ribosome has a sedimentation consisting of 80s unitIt has larger 60s subunit and another smaller 40s subunit The larger ribosomal subunit has 28s, 5.8S, and 5S rRNA And small subunit has only 18SrRNA | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Components of 60 S subunit of ribosome are
A. 5.8 S
B. 23 S
C. 16 S
D. 18 S
| 5.8 S |
560f150b-bc8e-4860-b3eb-3caa6ea8e706 | Weight gain + Oligomenorrhea --->Cushing syndrome. Coisol inhibits gonadotropin release that explains the amenorrhea. Hypeension in these patients is secondary to increased coisol that has some mineralocoicoid activity also. Excess glucocoicoids also interfere with central regulatory systems, leading to suppression of gonadotropins with subsequent hypogonadism and amenorrhea, and suppression of the hypothalamic pituitary-thyroid axis, resulting in decreased TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) secretion. Weight gain + menorrhagia + isolated diastolic hypeension in the question would have prompted thyroid dysfunction as the first answer. | Medicine | Cushing Syndrome | A 28-year-old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years) and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation?
A. Serum electrolytes
B. Plasma coisol
C. Plasma testosterone and ultrasound
D. T3, T4 and TSH
| Plasma coisol |
db0f17bc-c137-4334-98ca-6fc7dae6de09 | Most porcelains have coefficients of thermal expansion between 13.0 and 14.0 × 10 −6 /°C, and metals between 13.5 and 14.5 × 10 −6 /°C. The difference of 0.5 × 10 −6 /°C in thermal contraction between metal and porcelain causes the metal to contract slightly more than does the ceramic during cooling. This condition places the porcelain under slight residual compression, which makes it less sensitive to the tensile stresses induced by mechanical loading.
Craig’s Restorative dentistry 14 ed page 222 | Dental | null | Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of metal used for metal ceramic restoration range from:
A. 11.5-12.5 x 10-6/°C
B. 10.5-11.5 x 10-6/°C
C. 13.5-14.5 x 10-6/°C
D. 16.5-17.5 x 10-6/°C
| 13.5-14.5 x 10-6/°C |
effbecff-c59b-467c-93de-385b6bde19e3 | Ans. (c) Serum ferritin(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 649-652)Among the options provided, most sensitive marker in iron deficiency anemia is Serum ferritin.Serum ferritin reflects the storage of Iron which is decreased even in the pre-latent stage of Iron deficiency Anemia and is the most sensitive marker. | Pathology | Misc. (R.B.C) | Most sensitive indicator of iron deficiency anemia
A. Packed cell volume
B. Hemoglobin
C. Serum ferritin
D. Serum iron
| Serum ferritin |
fe471883-66aa-40ff-8892-ffc0d6faf3b6 | C. i.e. Near heads of 2nd to 10th rib Thoracic sympathetic trunk is a ganglionated chain situated on each side of thoracic veebraQ and crosses the neck of 1st rib, heads of 2" to 10th ribs and bodies of 11th & 12th rib.Q The whole chain descends in front of posterior intercostal vessels & intercostal nervesQ, and passes deep to medial arcuate ligament.Q | Anatomy | null | Thoracic Sympathetic Chain is situated :
A. In front of posterior mediastinum
B. Passes superficial to medial arcuate ligament
C. Near heads of 2nd to 10th rib
D. In front of veebral column
| Near heads of 2nd to 10th rib |
cd6ff05f-adae-4d66-a110-6a00475e793a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Panic attack DSM-IV Criteria for a Panic AttackA panic attack is a period of intense fear or discomfort, developing abruptly and peaking within 10 minutes, and requiring at least four of the followingChest pain or discomfortQChills or hot flushesDerealization (feeling of unreality) or depersonalization (being detached from oneself)Fear of losing controlFeeling of chokingNausea or abdominal distressPalpitations or tachycardia QParesthesiasSensations of shortness of breath Q or smotheringSense of impending doomQSweatingTrembling or shaking | Unknown | null | A 30 year old lady c/o sudden onset breathlessness, anxiety, palpitation & feeling of impending doom. Physical examination is normal. What is the diagnosis -
A. Panic attack
B. PTSD
C. Conversion disorder
D. Acute psychosis
| Panic attack |
238cc302-2725-4050-a53b-09b6b93ed482 | Two types of autoclave are used in laboratories and hospitals. * Moist heat at 121 degree Celsius X 15-20 minutes (Pressure-15 psi) * Moist heat at 134 degree Celsius X 3 minutes (Pressure-30 psi) | Microbiology | General Microbiology (Sterilization and Bacterial Genetics) | The typical temperature of an autoclave (operating at 30 psi of pressure is)
A. 121degC
B. 100degC
C. 63degC
D. 134degC
| 134degC |
2333a97a-0a8b-42c3-abef-44268bce9ac6 | A single antibody titer 1:160 is interpreted as a presumptive positive result for diagnosing tularemia. Agglutination test is used to confirm the diagnosis of tularemia. A fourfold increase in titer between paired serum samples collected 2-3 weeks apa is considered diagnostic. Late in infection, titers of 1:20-1:80 may persist for years. Tularemia is caused by F. tularensis, a gram-negative, pleomorphic, nonmotile, non-spore-forming bacillus. Ref: Jacobs R.F., Schutze G.E. (2012). Chapter 158. Tularemia. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds),Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Medicine | null | Diagnosis of tularemia is confirmed using agglutination testing. In the standard tube agglutination test, what should be the single antibody titre for making the test positive?
A. 1:40
B. 0.097222222
C. 0.125
D. 0.152777778
| 0.152777778 |
fe096cad-b07f-466a-b8c8-333162344754 | Hamman's sign is the Crunching sound heard with every heart beat because of heart beating against air fill. | Surgery | null | Hamman's sign is seen in:
A. Pulmonary thromboembolism
B. Pulmonary atelectasis
C. Pneumomediastinum
D. Intralobar pulmonary sequestration
| Pneumomediastinum |
e0c1c405-cb0c-4b44-9b76-53be27a44eee | Prophylaxis of ARF: 1.primary-To stop streptococcal pharyngitis to procede to ARF In this,Antibiotics are given for a week. DOC-injection benzathine penicillin-1.2 million units(wt>27kgs);0.6 million units(wt<27 kgs). if patient is allergic to penicillins then macrolides are preferred. 2.secondary prophylaxis-To prevent recurrence. given during patient suffering from ARF. DRUG SAME AS PRIMARY-But every (3-4) weeks. if allergic-SULFADIAZINE is given. if also allergic to saulfadiazone,macrolides are preferred. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Drug of choice for primary prophylaxis for acute rheumatic fever?
A. Erythromycin-1.2 million units
B. Erythromycin-1.2 lakh units
C. Benzathine penicllin-1.2 lakh units
D. Benzathine penicillin-1.2 million units
| Benzathine penicillin-1.2 million units |
aa5ff81c-8e1b-48ae-a837-ddade00d50f8 | Answer is A (Seizures): "These is wide variety of presentation of Neurocysticercosis depending on the intensity of the infestation, the localization of cystecerci and the degree of inflammatory reaction. Epilepsy (seizure activity) is the most common manifestation occurring in upto 50% cases - API text book of Medicine 6th/784 Cysticercosis is infection with the larval stage (cysticercus) of T. sollum. These cysts are located in order of frequency in : CNS (Neurological manifestations are the most common) - Harrison's' 15th/1249 Subcutaneous tissue Striated muscle Globe of the eye | Medicine | null | Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is:
A. Seizures
B. Focal neurological deficits
C. Dementia
D. Radiculopathy
| Seizures |
1f7c58ec-7687-4ac0-a058-5e134d926733 | The three genera of medically impoant dermatophytes (literally, skin-plants) are Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton.--Trichophyton: infects skin, hair, and nails-- Microsporum: infects hair and skin-- Epidermophyton: infects nails and skinRef: Sherris Medical Microbiology; 6th edition; Chapter 5; Medically Relevant Fungi; Page no: 335 | Microbiology | mycology | Dermatophyte affecting the hair, nail, and skin is
A. Trichophyton
B. Epidermophyton
C. Microsporum
D. Malassezia
| Trichophyton |
8dc69128-b495-4fc3-a3ab-a1958a437934 | Diphtheria is known to cause cranial nerve palsies and peripheral neuritis. It may cause paralysis of palate, pharynx, larynx and face. Recovery may also occur in a few weeks or months. Thus patient has a chance to recover vocal cord paralysis and the wait and watch policy would be the right option. Also compensation by the left vocal cord is possible if recovery dose not take place. Thyroplasty type-I, i.e. medialisation of right vocal cord would be the option if even the compensation fails. Compensation by the healthy cord may take 6 months to 1 year. | ENT | Larynx | A 10-year-old boy developed hoarseness of voice following an attack of diphtheria. On examination his right vocal was paralysed. The treatment of choice for paralysed vocal cord will be:
A. Gel foam injection of right vocal cord
B. Fat injection of right vocal cord
C. Thyroplasty type-I
D. Wait for spontaneous recovery of vocal cord
| Wait for spontaneous recovery of vocal cord |
3dcc2d48-f678-4bcf-adbf-102ccb0e4514 | The cardiac rhythm is atrial flutter with 2:1 AV conduction. QRS complexes occur with perfect regularity at a rate of about 150/min. Their normal contour and duration indicate that ventricular activation occurs normally via the AV junction-His-Purkinje system. Flutter waves, regular ventricular rate at 150/min make the diagnosis of atrial flutter, rather than atrial fibrillation, sinus tachycardia, or ectopic atrial tachycardia. | Medicine | C.V.S. | A 70-year-old man is evaluated in emergency department for symptoms of dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic kidney disease, and hypothyroidism. Medications are furosemide, enalapril, atorvastatin, metformin, and insulin.On physical examination he has generalized cardiomegaly and pulmonary and systemic venous hypertension. The ECG is shown in Figure below. What is the cardiac rhythm seen on the ECG?
A. ectopic atrial tachycardia
B. atrial flutter with 2 :1 AV conduction
C. sinus tachycardia
D. supraventricular tachycardia
| atrial flutter with 2 :1 AV conduction |
2e0de350-fa42-43c8-93be-88126bd1666c | Osteosarcoma, or osteogenic sarcoma, usually is seen in patients between the ages of 10 and 25 years. The distal femur is the site most frequently involved. The radiograph has a blastic, or sunburst, appearance. The tumor is not sensitive to radiation but does respond well to combination chemotherapy followed by surgical resection or amputation.An osteoid osteoma typically presents with severe pain that is characteristically relieved by aspirin. On radiograph, the lesion appears as a small lucency (usually <1.0 cm) within the bone that is surrounded by reactive sclerosis. These lesions gradually regress over 5-10 years, but most are excised to relieve symptoms. Surgical extirpation is usually curative. | Surgery | Orthopedics | An 11-year-old boy presents with pain in his right leg. A radiograph shows a "sunburst" appearance with bone destruction, soft tissue mass, new bone formation, and sclerosis limited to the metaphysis of the lower femur. select the type of bone lesion with which it is most likely to be associated (SELECT 1 LESION)
A. Osteoma
B. Osteoid osteoma
C. Osteoblastoma
D. Osteosarcoma
| Osteosarcoma |
8aa70395-b1cc-4a6f-bb15-6e39f530f6c8 | The alveolar aerial PO2 difference is obtained by subtracting the aerial PO2 from the alveolar PO2. The normal alveolar-arial PO2 gradient is between 5-15 mm Hg.The alveolar aerial gradient is useful measure of ventilation perfusion mismatch. ILD- Due to pulmonary fibrosis, diffusion defect will lead to significant reduction in value of paO2. Hence the gradient will show an increase. Pulmonary embolism- Due to V/P mismatch in PE, the value of paO2 is normal to reduced. In massive PE, the gradient is definitely increased. There is adequat ventilation but zero perfusion , the V/Q ratio is infinite.At a ratio of infinity, there is no exchange of gases through the respiratory membrane of affected alveoli. Acute severe asthma- Due to severe airflow limitation both paO2 and pAO2 are reduced leading to normal alveolar aerial gradient. FB leading to upper airway obstruction- Due to severe airflow limitation both paO2 and pAO2 are reduced leading t normal alveolar aerial gradient. | Anatomy | Respiratory system | The alveolar aerial gradient is highest in which of the following?
A. ILD
B. Pulmonary Embolism
C. Acute severe asthma
D. Foreign body leading to upper airway obstruction
| Pulmonary Embolism |
a6ccd759-4fda-4e2b-87f0-7a055fc2881c | Hepatitis D virus Hepatitis D accounts for maximum number of fulminant cases of viral hepatitis, a sizable propoion of which are associated with HBV infection. Superinfection with HDV in patients of chronic hepatitis B infection leads to fulminant hepatic failure | Medicine | Hepatic encephalopathy & hepatic failure | Most common cause of Fulminant hepatic failure?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
| HDV |
7c928844-c0e5-4915-9835-da8ff12cdf90 | Anaphylactic reactions to drugs In contrast to the profound immunodeficiency that characterizes most manifestations of AIDS, a host of immunologic and rheumatologic disorders are common in patients with HIV infection. Ceainly the most common such reaction is cutaneous manifested sensitivity to the antibiotics required for treatment of the secondary infections so common in these patients. Some 65% of patients who receive trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole develop an erythematous morbilliform pruritic eruption. Founately, anaphylaxis is very rare, and desensitization is possible. Patients infected with HIV may develop diseases that resemble classic autoimmune diseases in non-HIV-infected persons. A variant of Sjogren's syndrome characterized by dry eyes, dry mouth, and lymphocytic infiltrates of the salivary gland and lung may be seen. HIV -associated ahropathy is characterized by a nonerosive oligoaicular ahritis that generally involves the large joints. Widespread musculoskeletal pain of at least 3 months' duration with tender points, typical of fibromyalgia, may occur in up to 10% of HIV-infected IV drug abusers. Reactive ahritides, such as Reiter's syndrome or psoriatic ahritis, have also been described. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is the LEAST common immunologic manifestation of HIV infection?
A. Cutaneous reactions to drugs
B. Anaphylactic reactions to drugs
C. Anticardiolipin antibodies
D. Oligoaicular ahritis
| Anaphylactic reactions to drugs |
64eea1fd-2ddc-4254-8612-b187b3a7e22b | The outgoing Purkinje axons constitute the sole output from the cerebellar coex and exe an inhibitory influence on intracerebellar nuclei.granule cells are the only intrinsic neurons. of cerebellum which is excitatory.(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy second edition pg 116) | Anatomy | Brain | Efferent from cerebellum is through
A. Granule cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Purkinje cells
D. Basket cells
| Purkinje cells |
9ab9e783-7515-4e31-84a4-215ff3cd01b5 | Adenovirus are grp of medium sized non envolped double stranded DNA REF:ANANTHA NARAYAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.480 | Microbiology | Virology | Which one given below is a DNA virus?
A. Polio virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Hepatitis A virus
| Adenovirus |
70fdbe86-3890-4a35-a1f9-0eb7d39d1abd | Ans. B: Magistrate Simply stated, the death if a person in custody whether of the police or judicial will amount to Custodial Death. The Magistrate inquest is mandatory for any death of a person in custody to ensure examination of the circumstances leading to death. | Forensic Medicine | null | Inquest for custodial death is held by: September 2005
A. Doctor
B. Magistrate
C. Sub-inspector
D. District attorney
| Magistrate |
7c1ac5f3-4a4b-4639-9c62-a8e0dbc2a0c2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Wound care with single dose of tetanus toxoidThe given patients belongs to category B (Booster dose between 5-10 years back). Thus, the requires wound care and single dose of TT. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A 32 years old male has got clean wound without laceration. He had booster dose of TT 6 years back. What is next line of management?
A. Wound care with single dose of tetanus toxoid
B. Wound care with Human Tet Ig with tetanus toxoid single dose
C. Wound care with complete course of tetanus toxoid
D. Wound care with no immunization
| Wound care with single dose of tetanus toxoid |
7ddec216-bfc6-459f-871e-1cdb70f99366 | Heroine-brown sugar /diacetylmorphine is the most commonly abused opioid opiods works on mu, kappa and delta receptor. there is a new recpetor that is introduced that is called as orphanin receptor opiod withdrawl is a distressing experience for the patient that makes the patient to take the sunstance again the main clue for opiod withdrawl isALL ORIFICES BLEED there is lacrimation, sweating, vomiting, rhinorrhea, diarrhoea, muscle cramps and stomach ache the piloerection that occurs in opiod withdrawl is called as COLD TURKEY the tratment of opiod withdrawl can be doneby several means SUPPOIVE CARE: clonidine+benzodiazepines+dicyclomine+anti emetic+anti diarrhoeal AGONIST ASSOSIATED DETOXIFICATION: methadone and bupenorphine ANTAGONIST ASSOSIATED DETOXIFICATION: naltrexone Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg 338 | Psychiatry | Substance abuse | Most commonly abused opioid is
A. Morphine
B. Diacetyl morphine
C. Codeine
D. Fentanyl
| Diacetyl morphine |
6727d45c-4f29-4459-acc2-cded534e3d5f | Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE):- has the highest sensitivity for detecting the presence of air in the right ventricular outflow tract or major pulmonary veins. - It can detect as little as 0.02 mL/kg of air administered by bolus injection. It also has the added advantage of identifying Paradoxical Air Embolism (PAE), and Doppler allows audible detection of venous air embolism (VAE). Overall highest sensitivity :- T.E.E > Doppler > E.T N2> E.T CO2 | Medicine | Thromboembolism and Fat Embolism Syndrome | Air embolism is best diagnosed by?
A. | End tidal CO2
B. | End tidal N2
C. Doppler study
D. Ultrasound
| Doppler study |
43424600-dbca-4794-b14e-92d49c4e46e4 | Ans is a (Prostate cancer) Though increased levels of PSA is seen in Prostate cancer, BPH and Prostatitis; levels above 20 ng/mL would be seen almost only in Prostate cancer. BPH and prostatitis would not cause such a rise in PSA. | Surgery | null | PSA > 2Ong/mL is seen in:
A. Prostate cancer
B. BPH
C. Prostatitis
D. Meatastatic carcinoma
| Prostate cancer |
44c0dbf1-71f0-4037-b7ec-315f1a93d653 | Ans. Greenish discoloration over right iliac fossa | Forensic Medicine | null | First external sign of decomposition in a dead body: NEET 13
A. Decomposition of liver and intestine
B. Greenish discoloration over right iliac fossa
C. Greenish discoloration over dependent pas
D. Bloodstained froth from mouth
| Greenish discoloration over right iliac fossa |
85023e0e-def4-4687-9ee3-71079f8c9daa | Flail chest should be suspected in multiple rib fractures where the individual rib is divided in two places. Paradoxical movement results in lung compression as the flail segment moves inward during inspiration. | Surgery | Trauma | A 60-year-old man is in a car crash in which he is the driver. He did not have a seat belt or an airbag. He is found to have multiple rib fractures over his right chest. His pulse is weaker during inspiration. What are the most likely diagnoses?
A. Flail chest
B. Empyema
C. Diaphragm rupture
D. Cervical rib
| Flail chest |
69d2cb16-44d6-48a5-85c5-79d6b5511301 | The uterus is supplied : (1) Chiefly by the two uterine aeries which are markedly enlarged during pregnancy; and (2) paly by the ovarian aeries. The uterine aery is a branch of the anterior division of the internal iliac aery. Apa from the uterus, the uterine also gives branches to: (1) The vagina; (2) the medial two-thirds of the uterine tube; (3) the ovary; (4) the ureter; and (5) to structures present in the broad ligament. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , Seventh edition , volume 2, pg. no., 422. | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Which of the following structure is not supplied by uterine aeries ?
A. vagina
B. ovary
C. urater
D. lateral one third of uterine tube
| lateral one third of uterine tube |
3aa85aaf-dd46-40f5-9082-2da527af7383 | Marjolin's ulcer is an aggressive transformation of a chronic wound in to a malignant lesion. They are usually present in chronic wounds resulting from burns, chronic inflammation or trauma. The most common malignancy found in Marjolin's ulcer is squamous cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinomas can occur occasionally. Rarely, malignant fibrous histiocytoma, sarcoma and neurotropic malignant melanoma, have also been associated with it. Ref: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapter 9; Trends in Bone Cancer Research By E. V. Birch, Volume 24, Page 58; Cancer Symptom Management By Connie Henke Yarbro, 3rd Edition, Page 295; Atlas of Head and Neck Imaging: The Extracranial Head and Neck By Suresh K. Mukherji, Chapter 11. | Surgery | null | Which of the following type of malignancy is associated with Marjolin's ulcer?
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
D. Neurotrophic malignant melanoma
| Squamous cell carcinoma |
720afc18-c097-4084-8974-4e948c9a4462 | Darriers sign : uicarial wheal produced in a lesion after it is firmly rubbed with a finger or rounded end of a pen, the wheal is strictly confined to the borders of the lesion. Seen in uicarial pigmentosa, and rarely with cutaneous lymphoma or histiocytosiS FITZPATRICK TEXTBOOK OF DERMATOLOGY , PAGE 12. | Dental | Dermatitis | A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperprigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed uicarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Fixed drug eruption
B. Lichen planes
C. Uicaria pigmentosa
D. Uicarial vasculitis
| Uicaria pigmentosa |
45c82b40-8ad8-4904-8e7a-2d8c425a06f5 | Stretch laceration These lacerations occur from over stretching of the skin and soft tissues due to heavy forceful impact exercising a localised pressure. Stretching of tissues can occur in run over by a motor vehicle. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 121 | Forensic Medicine | Mechanical injuries | Stretch laceration is seen in
A. Blunt tangential impact
B. Blunt perpendicular impact
C. Horizontal crushing
D. Impact by sharp objects with heavy base
| Blunt tangential impact |
08b24c07-2dfc-4c96-aaf7-f83c879fec93 | Regulation of glycolysis Glycolysis is regulated at 3 steps which are irreversible. These reactions are catalyzed by following key enzymes : (1) Hexokinase and glucokinase, (2) Phosphofructokinase I, and (3) Pyruvate kinase.Hexokinase and glucokinaseThese enzymes catalyze the first step of glycolysis, i.e., Glucose --> Glucose-6-phosphate. Glucokinase is found in liver, Whereas hexokinase is found in all tissues. Kinetic propeies of these two are different.Hexokinase has low Km, i.e., high affinity for glucose, low Vmax, and is subjected to feedback inhibition by the reaction product, glucose-6-phosphate. Hexokinase is found in most of the tissue except liver and comes into play when blood glucose is low. It is not affected by feeding or insulin. Hexokinase is not specific for glucose metabolism, it is also involved in metabolism of fructose and galactose.Glucokinase, on the other hand, is specific for glucose. It has high Km (i.e., low affinity for glucose), high Vmax and unlike hexokinase, it is not inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate. As it has low affinity for glucose (high km), it comes into play only when intracellular glucose concentration is high. It is induced by feeding and insulin. Glucagon inhibits glucokinase.Function of hexokinase is to provide glucose-6-phosphate at a constant rate, according the needs of cells, i.e., function of hexokinase is to provide constant glucose utilization by all tissues of body even when blood sugar is low. Function of glucokinase in the liver is to remove glucose from blood after a meal, providing glucose-6phosphate in excess of requirement for glycolysis so that it can be used for glycogen synthesis and lipogenesis.Phosphofructokinase IPhosphofructokinase I is the major regulatory enzyme of glycolysis. It catalyzes the 3rd reaction of glycolysis, i.e., fructose-6-P Fructose 1,6 bis-P. This reaction is irreversible and is the "rate -limiting step" for glycolysis. It is also the "commeted step", meaning that once fructose 1,6 bisphophate is formed it must go for the glycolytic pathway only. So, most impoant control point for glycolysis is through regulation of phosphofructokinase I.Phosphofructokinase - I is allosterically activated by : Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose 2,6-bisphophate, AMP, ADP, K+ and phosphate. It is allosterically inhibited by : ATP, citrate, Ca+2, Mg+2, and low pH. Phosphofructokinase is an inducible enzyme that increases its synthesis in response to insulin and decreases in response to glucagon.Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate (F-2,6-BP) is the most impoant allosteric modulator (activator) of phosphofructokinase-I. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate is synthesized as a side product of glycolysis. A bifunctional enzyme named PFK-2/Fructose 2,6 bisphosphatase is responsible for regulating the level of fructose 2,6 bisphosphate in the liver. Phosphofuctokinase-2 (PFK-2) activity of this bifunctional enzyme is responsible for synthesis of F-2,6-BP from fructose-6-phosphate and fructose 2,6 bisphosphatase activity is responsible for hydrolysis of F-2,6-BP back to fructose-6-phosphate. | Biochemistry | null | Fructose 2-6 bisphosphate (F26BP) regulates glycolysis at the level of ?
A. Glucose -6- phosphate
B. Fructose -6- phosphate
C. Glyceraldehyde -3- phosphate
D. Phosphoenol pyruvate
| Fructose -6- phosphate |
fc31558c-1a0a-422c-9f87-b43f70432a57 | .Because of its relationship to inflammation, serum albumin is no longer considered a good indicator of malnutrition or protein repletion. .However, a decreased serum albumin is considered an indicator of morbidity and moality and persons with low albumin levels are sometimes at nutritional risk for other reasons. ref Robbins 9/e pg 345 | Pathology | All India exam | Among patients who require nutritional resuscitation in an intensive care unit, the best evidence that nutritional suppo is adequate is
A. Urinary nitrogen excretion levels
B. Total serum protein level
C. Serum albumin level
D. Serum transferrin levels
| Serum albumin level |
0217d0a4-11d8-4b9f-9f75-009b6d7dce01 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Amoxapine Amoxapine is the only antidepressant which blocks D2 receptors along with inhibition of NA reuptake - has mixed antidepressant + neurolepic propey. Due to blockade of D, receptors it causes extrapyramidal side effects -4 Parkinsonism, Tardive dyskinesia, Akathesia, neuropeptic malignant syndrome. | Pharmacology | null | Antidepressant causing Tardive dyskinesia is ?
A. MAO inhibitors
B. Mianserin
C. Imipramine
D. Amoxapine
| Amoxapine |
57b77163-3637-40fe-af0f-3ac8c5baf48d | Barbiturates (methexitone, thiopentone) do not have analgesic action. Rather they can cause hyperalgesia. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following anaesthetic agent lacks analgesic effect – a) N2Ob) Thiopentonec) Methohexitoned) Ketaminee) Fentanyl
A. a
B. c
C. ac
D. bc
| bc |
d5ed7434-0f5d-4a7b-94be-5e2a1eac40ff | The papillary muscles are connected to the mitral valve leaflets by the chordae tendinae. When there is rupture of the chordae tendinae or the papillary muscle itself, the mitral valve is unable to function properly, resulting in mitral regurgitation. Because this is an acute process, accommodation does not occur, resulting in acute pulmonary edema. Edema predominantly affecting the right upper lobe can be seen if the jet of regurgitant blood is directed into the right superior pulmonary vein, which drains the right upper lobe. The left atrium will enlarge over time in the setting of mitral valve regurgitation due to the increased volume of blood that is directed into the left atrium during systole. However, this change occurs over time and will not be seen in the setting of acute papillary muscle rupture. The left ventricle will enlarge oveime in the setting of mitral valve regurgitation because it receives an increased volume of blood from the left atrium - both the volume of blood returning from the lung as well as the regurgitant volume of blood through the mitral valve. As with left atrial enlargement, left ventricular enlargement will occur over time but will not be seen in the setting of acute papillary muscle rupture. Pericardial effusion can occur in the setting of an acute myocardial infarction due to inflammation of the pericardium. Dressler syndrome, thought to be an autoimmune inflammatory response to myocardial neo-antigens, is not an acute process and, when present, occurs several weeks following a myocardial infarction. However, it is not the most common radiographic manifestation of acute papillary muscle rupture. | Radiology | Cardiovascular system | What is the MOST common radiographic manifestation of acute papillary muscle rupture?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Left atrial enlargement
C. Left ventricular enlargement
D. Pericardial effusion
| Pulmonary edema |
03e558c2-8af2-433f-b660-a4462d7a915a | (D) Oxalate # Diseases associated with glycine metabolism: are 1. Glycinuria and 2. Primary hyperoxaluria> In Glycinuria there is excessive urinary excretion of glycine with a tendency to form oxalate renal stones. This disease is inborn and very rare.> Primary hyperoxaluria is a metabolic disease characterized biochemically by a continuous and high excretion of oxalate in urine, the excess oxalate probably coming from glycine.> There is recurrent infection of the urinary tract.> In vitamin B6 deficiency also, increased quantities of oxalate are excreted | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | In Glycinuria, glycine is excreted as
A. Urea
B. Glutathione
C. Formate
D. Oxalate
| Oxalate |
eecce2d0-8d9f-4be3-9f5a-e2d9e1b5c912 | In Virchows method organs are removed one by one. Cranial cavity is exposed first then thoraxic, cervical and abdominal organs. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 57. | Forensic Medicine | Death and postmortem changes | Virchow method of organ removal is
A. Organs removed en masse
B. Organs removed one by one
C. In-situ dissection
D. En-block removal of viscera
| Organs removed one by one |
bb47f750-5424-4f7b-89bd-bec3174da4d3 | indeterminate leprosy seen in children with immature immunological response. Common in 1-5 years of age 1-3 ill defined hypopigmented macules ranging in size from 1-5cm most common sites: outer side of extremities, buttocks,face and trunk sensations may be impaired. Nerve thickening may be present skin smears : shows acid fast bacilli on serial sections iadvl textbook of dermatology, page 2035 | Dental | Bacterial infections | Multiple Hypoaestetic, hypopigmented macules on right lateral forearm without acid fast bacilli is indicative of -
A. Tuberculoid leprosy
B. Lepromatous leprosy
C. Indeterminate leprosy
D. Borderline leprosy
| Indeterminate leprosy |
7cfc9276-6319-4c23-8512-2a5318055a30 | Burking is a method of homicidal smothering & traumatic asphyxia. Named after Burke & Hare who killed 16 persons. They give the victim alcohol. Then Burke used to kneel or sit on the chest and close the nose & mouth with his hands then Hare used to pull him around the room by the feet. Ref: The synopsis of forensic medicine & Toxicology 28th edition pg:190 | Forensic Medicine | Asphyxia | Burking includes
A. Choking
B. Ligature
C. Overlaying
D. Traumatic asphysia
| Traumatic asphysia |
d71034de-6781-43e2-aac8-c361d417f00c | Muscles of expiration
- Quite breathing- Elastic recoil of lung and chest wall.
- Forced expiration-
o Internal intercostal
o Intercostalis intimi
o Transversus thoracis
o Serratus posterior inferior
o Subcostalis
o Latissimus dorsi
o Abdominal muscles
§ Rectus abdominis
§ Transversus abdominis
§ Internal oblique
§ External oblique | Anatomy | null | Muscle of expiration is/are -a) Diaphragmb) Internal intercostalc) External intercostald) Rectus Abdominis
A. ac
B. bd
C. cd
D. ab
| bd |
1dee4096-13e2-4639-aabe-f54edb091814 | Treatment of Hepatitis C : Sustained virologic response are achieved in only 8-35%of patients given recombinant interferon monotherapy. However significantly higher sustained virologic responses are attained(30-40%)by combining interferon with Ribavarin at 15mg/kg/day Long acting pegylated interferons have been subsequently developed based on the premise that more sustained drug levels would result in greater antiviral activity Interferons have been well tolerated in children Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI, PG NO:195,7th edition | Pediatrics | Gastrointestinal tract | Treatment of choice in 11 years old children with hepatitis C infections ?
A. Vaccine
B. Interferon
C. Gamma-globulin
D. Coicosteroids
| Interferon |
cc73e003-1832-4245-b174-24219a64893f | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Severe pain interfering with activity and not relieved by rest and treatment of 8 weekso Indications for surgery in cases of Prolapsed intervertebral disc areFailure of conservative treatment (even after 8 weeks of treatment).Progressive neurological deficit.Cauda - equina syndrome.Severe sciatic tilt. | Orthopaedics | Management In Orthopedics | When do you operate for prolapsed disc -
A. Busy executive needs quick surgery
B. Only with weakness no pain
C. Severe pain interfering with activity and not relieved by rest and treatment of 8 weeks
D. Patient of P1D with difficulty in ambulation
| Severe pain interfering with activity and not relieved by rest and treatment of 8 weeks |
14f3b60a-92a0-4725-b367-dfe7ef40bc93 | A wave: Arc positive waves due to distention producedby right atrial contraction Large a waves: Indicate atrium is contracting against increased resistance tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, pulmonary hypertension.
Cannon S waves
Regularly: During junctional rhythm. Irregularly: complete Heart Block. Absent a waves: Atrial Fibrillation | Unknown | null | "a" wave in JVP indicates:
A. Atrial systole
B. Ventricular systole
C. Atrial relaxation
D. Tricuspid regurgitation
| Atrial systole |
8b6f8d43-f5a7-461c-be54-8a2c878335ae | Isthmus of the thyroid gland lies in front of the second, third and fouh tracheal rings. It is covered in front by skin and fascia, and by sternothyroid and sternohyoid muscles and by the anterior juglar veins. Upper end of each lobe of thyroid lies opposite C5 veebrae. The lower end of the lobe lies at the level of 5th or 6th tracheal ring corresponding to T1 veebrae. | ENT | null | Isthmus of thyroid gland corresponds to which of the following tracheal rings?
A. 3-Jan
B. 4-Feb
C. 6-Apr
D. 8-Jun
| 4-Feb |
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