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c4e8104d-3705-4545-9d99-950aa83e8f60 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Glargine o All insulin preparations are supplied at neutral pH (7.2-7.4) except glargine (supplied at pH 4.0); therefore, glargine cannot be mixed with any insulin. | Pharmacology | null | Which insulin is never mixed with other insulins?
A. Utile
B. Aspa
C. Lispro
D. Glargine
| Glargine |
b84c3e66-52e7-4e18-a1b7-e7576d9f528d | Pseudopolyps (inflammatory polyps) can be seen in both Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis
In ulcerative colitis, the distribution of these pseudopolyps can be diffuse but in Crohn's disease, the distribution cannot be diffuse because a classic feature of crohn's disease is the sharp demarcation of diseased bowel segments from the adjacent uninvolved bowel. When multiple bowel segments are involved the intervening bowel is essentially normal (skip lesions).
Mucosal edema
- The hallmark of both ulcerative colitis and crohn's disease is mucosal inflammation and chronic mucosal damage. So mucosal edema is a feature of both of these diseases.
- The important point is that while in Ulcerative colitis these processes are limited to mucosa or submucosal, in crohn's disease these processes extend beyond the mucosa and submucosa and involves the entire wall.
Crypt abscesses -
- Crypt abscesses are produced due to infiltration of the neutrophil into crypt lumen.
- These crypt abscesses are not specific for ulcerative colitis and may be observed in crohn's disease or any active inflammatory colitis.
Lymphoid aggregates in mucosa
The characteristic mucosal feature of idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease on histology includes —
i. Distortion of crypt architecture
ii.Destruction and loss of crypt
iii.A marked increase in lymphocytes and plasma cells in lamina propria.
iv. These features are specific to inflammatory bowel disease and help to differentiate idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease from acute infectious colitis and other chronic colitis. | Pathology | null | Which of the following would be the best morphological feature to distinguish ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease -
A. Diffuse distributions of pseudopolyps
B. Mucosal edema
C. Crypt abscesses
D. Lymphoid aggregates in the mucosa
| Diffuse distributions of pseudopolyps |
fe9ff7b5-27de-40d1-8508-63415026438d | Y chromosome is Acrocentric. X chromosome is Submetacentric. IMG showing METACENTRIC CHROMOSOME. IMG showing SUBMETACENTRIC chromosome. IMG showing ACROCENTRIC chromosome. IMG showing TELOCENTRIC chromosome. Sub-Metacentric chromosome - example - 'X' chromosome Acrocentric chromosome - example - 'Y' chromosome, 13,14,15,21,22 chromosome. Telocentric chromosome - are not seen in humans. | Pathology | Introduction | Y-chromosome is:
A. Telocentric
B. Metacentric
C. Submetacentric
D. Acrocentric
| Acrocentric |
4b2aa1fb-f777-43a1-ab44-a13adc54e370 | 131I is used in treatment of thyroid cancer. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is used in the treatment of thyroid malignancy.
A. 131
I
B. 125
I
C. 99
Tc
D. 32
p
| 131
I |
2a153c6c-4133-42aa-89ca-b7dffd7651e8 | D i.e. Merges with putrefactive changes - Postmoem lividity also k/a suggilation, vabices, hypostasis, staining, darkening of death is an early sign of death & commences within an hour of death.Q - Fixed in about 4 - 6 hoursQ; reaches maximum between 6-12 hoursQ and persists until putrefaction sets in.Q Lividity does not develop in drowning in running water & areas of contact flattening.Q When lividity first develops (i.e. before fixing), on applying firm pressure it disappears & releasing pressure it reappears (Difference from bruise). | Forensic Medicine | null | Post moem lividity persists till :
A. 24 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 2-3 days
D. Merges with putrefactive changes
| Merges with putrefactive changes |
2dc6456f-71d6-4718-a6a6-2d7637a80a95 | All other options are suggestive of septate uterus. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following finding is suggestive of Bicornuate uterus
A. Intercornual angle < 75°
B. Diverging horns
C. Intrafundal downward cleft < 1 cm
D. Hysteroscopic resection is treatment
| Diverging horns |
04e1e6fb-8ef0-4825-bb92-97fb949b41a0 | Fibroadenomas are typicially homogeneous well defined masses and do not contain internal lucency. Hamaomas are typically well defined mass with interspersed internal lucency, as seen in this patient. Hematomas do not contain central lucency. Acutely, these appear as ill-defined masses at the site of trauma and decrease in size and visibility as they resolve. While galactocele, may contain fat density, this will only occur in a lactating female. A history of lactation (which is unlikely in a 55 year old patient) or fat/fluid level on straight lateral view would be necessary to suggest this diagnosis. | Radiology | Fundamentals in Radiology | You are shown the screening mammogram right CC and MLO of a 55-year-old woman. Which one of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Hamaoma
C. Hematoma
D. Galactocele
| Hamaoma |
a4e9845e-cb27-47c7-b616-6ddc1eb1fc8d | In klumpke's paralysis lower trunk of brachial plexus is involved that is mainly T1 and paly C8. C6 is mainly involved in Erb's paralysis along with C5. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 59 | Anatomy | Upper limb | In klumpke's paralysis nerve roots involved are
A. C6 -C7
B. C7- C8
C. C8-T1
D. T1-T2
| C8-T1 |
5becf6ff-8b2c-4319-be38-ed95dd037a67 | coprolalia-involuntary use of vulgar or obscene language. Observed in some cases of schizophrenia and in Tourette's syndrome. coprophagia- Eating of filth or feces. The echolalia-psychopathological repeating of words or phrases of one person by another; tends to be repetitive and persistent. Seen in catatonic schizophrenia. Reference: Page No 922 signs and symptoms in psychiatry(Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Edition) | Psychiatry | All India exam | Coprolalia is seen in
A. Delirium
B. Alcoholic intoxication
C. Mania
D. Tourette syndrome
| Tourette syndrome |
bc4eede8-b281-4802-8f1c-4e913be70251 | The toxins produced by organisms such as Diptheria & Tetanus are detoxicated and used in preparation of Vaccines (Toxoids). This detoxified toxins when administered in the body can elicit immune response resulting in antibody production & memory. The Antibodies produced neutralize the toxic moeity produced during infection by these organisms thus providing active immunization to the body. Active Immunity Passive Immunity Definition Include humoral and cellular responses of host Results in Ab production in the body. Formed by transfer of ready made antibodies Host body does not produce its own Ab. Modes of acquiring Following clinical infection, subclinical/ inapparent infection or immunization with an Ag. Administering Ig / antiserum or transplacental transfer of Ab/ Transfer of lymphocytes. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concepts of Immunity, Classification of Vaccines | Injectable tetanus toxoid (TT ) is an example of:
A. Active immunity
B. Passive Immunity
C. Native Immunity
D. Reaction Immunity
| Active immunity |
47f9e1f2-5cf5-4b21-b2fb-de91d48252d8 | Ans. is. 'c' i.e., 1/4 o The fact that one child of a normal couple is affected by an autosomal recessive condition (cystic fibrosis) indicates that both parents are carriers of this condition. o The recurrence risk of autosomal recessive disorders in siblings is 25% (') for each bih. Both the parents are carrier --> 25% children will be affected, 50% will be carrier and 25% will be normal. o From above flow cha it is clear that with each bih :? (i) One chance in four been affected (25%), i.e. the risk of recurrence is 25% for each bih. (ii) Two in four chance to being normal but a carrier (50%) (iii) One in four chance of being normal and unaffected (25%) (iv) Three in four chances of being phenotypically normal (75%), i.e. not manifesting disease | Pathology | null | Cystic fibrosis is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. A normal couple has one daughter affected with the disease. They are now planning to have another child. What is the chance of her sibling being affected by the disease -
A. 0
B. 2-Jan
C. 4-Jan
D. 4-Mar
| 4-Jan |
d43682d6-da0b-4579-a51b-0fb3cee61dc7 | Pudendal nerve block during delivery mitigates somatic pain during second stage of labor. | Anaesthesia | null | The regional anaesthesia technique that would not be expected to provide appropriate analgesic benefit during the first stage of labor is
A. Lumbar epidural
B. Pudendal nerve block
C. Lumbar sympathetic block
D. Paracervical block
| Pudendal nerve block |
628efaba-b94e-45b2-802a-fc78a1a8b5a8 | Ans. (d) 6 monthsRef : OP Ghai 8th ed./150* Exclusive breast feeding is up to 6 months and should be continued uptil 2 years.* Prelacteal feeds like water, honey, and so called health tonics are contraindicated in children less than 6 months of age. | Pediatrics | Newborn Infant - Parent-Infant Bonding | Recommendation for exclusive feeding is up to:
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 5 months
D. 6 months
| 6 months |
f38737e4-491f-4272-8b6e-1f2e34f0ebfc | Digoxin half-life is long -40 hrs It gets trapped in muscles and vd -volume of distribution is more elimination is difficult in cases of poisoning Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Half-life of digoxin is?
A. 24 hours
B. 40 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 60 hours
| 40 hours |
c91195bc-a2e8-4a39-9dd8-016b14b66626 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Othello syndrome o Othello Syndrome :- When the content of delusions is predominantly jealousy (infedility) involving the spouse, person feels an unreasonable fear that a partner has been unfaithful, is presently unfaithful, or plans to be unfaithful, it is called as Othello Symdrome or conjugal paranoia. Elaborate steps are taken to prevent the spouse to go outside (Locks the spouse, not allowing her to go outside).o Clerambaultfs syndrome :- When the content of delusions is erotic (erotomanic), the condition is knowm as Clerambaulfs syndrome or erotomania. It occurs most often in women, there is an erotic conviction that a person with (usually a) higher status is in love with the patient.o Stockholm syndrome, or capture-bonding: is a psychological phenomenon in which hostages express empathy and sympathy and have positive feelings towrard their captors, sometimes to the point of defending and identifying with the captors. | Psychiatry | Disorders of Adult Personality | Spouse jealousy is a feature of -
A. Othello syndrome
B. Chronic alcoholism
C. Stockholm syndrome
D. Clerambault's syndrome
| Othello syndrome |
fa8e485d-4f2b-400e-b334-fe0b43b11b4c | It is a lipid storage disease, due to deficiency of sphingomyelinase. Leads to the accumulation of sphingomyelin.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 193 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Niemann-Pick disease is due to deficiency of
A. Hexosaminidase
B. Sphingomyelinase
C. Galactokinase
D. Glucosidase
| Sphingomyelinase |
f8f7a0ca-cfaf-41a2-b3df-f631c85e06a2 | Lead Lead is not at all an essential mineral; rather it is toxic to the body. (Harrison I7/e Chapter e34. Heavy Metal Poisoning ) Harper gives a list of essential minerals along with their functions in the body. Essential minerals and their function Function Mineral Structural function Calcium, magnesium, phosphate Involved in membrane function Sodium, potassium Function as prosthetic groups in enzymes Cobalt, copper, iron, molybdenum, selenium, zinc Regulatory role or role in hormone action Calcium, chromium, iodine, magnesium, manganese, sodium, potassium Known to be essential, but function unknown Silicon, vanadium, nickel, tin Have effects in the body, but essentiality is not establislifd Fluoride, lithium May occur in foods and known to be toxic in excess Aluminum, arsenic, antimony, boron, bromine, cadmium, cesium, germanium, lead, mercury, silver, strontium | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is a non-essentialmetal/mineral?
A. Sodium
B. Manganese
C. Iron
D. Lead
| Lead |
2466fa61-249b-4556-9926-5a5cc765d248 | Presence of purulent sputum with recurrent haemoptysis suggests a diagnosis of bronchiectasis. HRCT .is now the diagnostic procedure of choice having repalced bronchiography Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1710 | Anatomy | Respiratory system | Rampal 45 yr old man present with history of recurrent haemoptysis and purulent sputum.his chest X-RAY is normal, which of the following will be the next best investigation for him.?
A. HRCT
B. CT guided angiography
C. Angiography
D. Spiral CT
| HRCT |
6ac9f389-419b-4d9c-ad12-48f924323859 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Spironolactone o Spironolactone and eplerenone are the aldosterone antagonists. They are used as potassium sparing diuretics. Their diurectic effect is quite feeble, but in CHF these drugs reduce the moality (at doses lower than diuretic doses) by antagonizing the effect of aldosterone (reversal of remodelling). Spironolactone also possesses anti- androgenic effects. | Pharmacology | null | Anti androgen used in hea failure ?
A. Carvedilol
B. Sampatrilat
C. Spironolactone
D. Abiraterone
| Spironolactone |
04a6feaa-fa55-4630-af72-624630e770ed | Ans: B (Community level voluntary worker for heath) Ref: Park 22nd editionExplanation: ASHA (Accredited social health activist) are involved in health care of community under the National Rural Health Mission. Accredited social health activists (ASHAs) are community health workers instituted by the Government of India's Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) as part of the National Rural Health Mission (NRMM The mission began in 2005; full implementation was targeted for 2012. Once fully implemented, there is to be "an ASHA in every village" in India, a target that translates into 250.000 ASHAs in 10 states.Roles and ResponsibilitiesASHAs are local women trained to act as health educators and promoters in their communities. Their tasks include;Motivating women to give birth in hospitals.Bringing children to immunization clinics.Encouraging family planning (e.g., surgical sterilization).Treating basic illness.Injury with first aid.Keeping demographic records.Improving village sanitation.ASHAs are also meant to serve as a key communication mechanism between the healthcare system and rural populations.SelectionASHAs must primarily be female residents of the village that they have been selected to serve, who are likely to remain in that village for the foreseeable future.Married, widowed or divorced women are preferred over women who have yet to marry since Indian cultural norms dictate that upon marriage a woman leaves her village and migrates to that of her husband.ASHAs must have class eight education or higher, preferably be between the ages of 25 and 45, and are selected by and accountable to the gram panchayat (local government).If there is no suitable literate candidate, a semiliterate woman with a formal education lower than eighth standard, may be selected.RemunerationAlthough ASHAs are considered volunteers, they receive outcome-based remuneration and financial compensation for training days.For example, if an ASHA facilitates an institutional delivery she receives Rs. 600 and the mother receives Rs. 1400.ASHAs also receive Rs. 150 for each child completing an immunization session and Rs. 150 for each individual who undergoes family planning. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health Planning and Management | Who is ASHA?
A. Worker of a Non-Governmental Organization
B. Community level voluntary worker for health
C. Government health worker
D. Helper of anganwadi
| Community level voluntary worker for health |
cf61c601-6f3f-42c0-b986-ed5d4d0bf839 | The only absolute contraindication for ECT is raised ICT. | Psychiatry | null | The absolute contraindication for Electro-Convulsive Therapy (ECT) is -
A. Raised Intra-Cranial Tension
B. Vascular Dementia
C. Diabetic Retinopathy
D. Peripheral Neuropathy
| Raised Intra-Cranial Tension |
9d439b63-7572-4e1f-87f3-a28775ad0fc5 | In acute congestive glaucoma, pupil is semidilated (mild dilated), vertically oval and fixed. | Ophthalmology | null | In acute congestive glaucoma, pupil is –
A. Oval and horizontal
B. Oval and vertical
C. Circular
D. Slit like
| Oval and vertical |
c47357ef-9bb6-4ba7-8d54-5d5f552ea814 | The transpo form of Ammonia in blood and from Brain is Glutamine. From muscles, it is Alanine. The answer is not glutamate because free ammonia is trapped by glutamine Glutamate is formed transamination of amino acids, not from free ammonia. | Biochemistry | Urea cycle | Ammonia is detoxified in brain by formation of
A. Glutamate
B. Uric acid
C. Glutamine
D. Urea
| Glutamine |
694ca767-9cec-4d35-8018-d38e5e5db351 | Ans. (b) P. falciparum This is a thin smear representing ring forms of P. falciparum. For details of blood picture see image platelets. | Microbiology | null | The following diagram depicts blood smear of which species?
A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. P. ovale
D. P. malariae
| P. falciparum |
088d3ec9-54ea-45dc-a88a-08da73e715c8 | Sec 498 A IPC- Subjecting a married woman to cruelty by husband or in laws. Sec 320 IPC- Grievous Hu - Definition Sec 304 A IPC- Death caused by rash and negligent act - 2 yrs. Sec 304 B IPC- Dowry death: death of a female within 7 yrs of marriage. | Forensic Medicine | Legal sections | Cruelty of Mrs. X for dowry by her husband Mr. Y and in Laws is Punishable under
A. 304 A IPC
B. 304 B IPC
C. 498 A IPC
D. 320 IPC
| 498 A IPC |
cb1a4a54-4efa-4b98-95af-4e5f085abfb4 | Radiosensitivity of important organs in decreasing order.
Bone marrow > Testes > Ovary > Kidney > Liver > Lung > Heart > GIT (Stomach > Intestine) > Thyroid > Brain & spinal cord (CNS) > Skin + Cartilage > Adult bone > Vagina > Uterus. | Pathology | null | The most radiosensitive tissue is -
A. Brain
B. Bone marrow
C. Thyroid
D. Liver
| Bone marrow |
d43e6ec4-bd5a-4eff-818e-790a93a7d459 | Ans. is a i.e. Propylthiouracil Management of Hypehyroidism during Pregnancy : Medical management is the management of choice.deg Antithyroid drug of choice is propylthiouracildeg because it : -- Inhibits conversion of T, to -13deg -- Crosses placenta less rapidly than rnethimazoledeg -- It is not associated with aplasia cutis seen with methimazole deg Both propylthiouracil and methimazole / carbimazole are however effective and safedeg Side effect of propyithiouracil : Transient leukopenia, Agranulocytosis and Fetal hypothyroidism Side effect of methimazole/carbimazole : -- Aplasia cutis -- Esophageal atresia -- Choanal atresia Radio active iodine is an absolute contraindication in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy. Infect it should not be given to patients even wanting pregnancy within 1 year. Surgical Management : Thyroidectomy may be carried out after thyrotoxicosis has been brought under medical control.deg Because of increased vascularity of thyroid gland during pregnancy, such surgery is more complicated than in non preg? nant state. It is indicated in women who cannot adhere to medical treatment or in whom drug therapy proves toxic. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Antithyroid drug of choice in pregnancy is :
A. Propyithiouracil
B. Carbimazole
C. Propranolol
D. Lugol's iodine
| Propyithiouracil |
a3323d52-99fe-4e2e-82ed-4ed86c8baeb5 | Ans. A. HypothyroidThe image showing loss of lateral l/3rd eyebrows or lateral madarosis. This is seen in many conditions:a. Leprosyb. Syphilisc. Hypothyroidismd. Blepharitise. Dermatitisf. Fungal Infectionsg. Drug Therapiesh. Autoimmune diseases | Medicine | Endocrinology | Following condition is most likely seen in which of the following condition:
A. Hypothyroid
B. Acromegaly
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Grave Disease
| Hypothyroid |
38b5ced9-1875-4725-8ebb-882bdb107a5d | Long acting antipsychotics are Fluphenazine (2 - 4 weeks) and Penfluridol (1 week). | Psychiatry | null | An antipsychotic drug with prolonged action -
A. Trifluperazine
B. Thioridazine
C. Penfluridol
D. Fluphenazine
| Fluphenazine |
5384ed88-5f83-46df-a13a-10853669f1a3 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Skull sutures Functional classification of joints (movement) Joints can also be classified functionally according to the type and degree of movement they allow: Synahrosis - Permits little or no mobility. Most synahrosis joints are fibrous joints (e.g., skull sutures). Amphiahrosis - Permits slight mobility. Most amphiahrosis joints are cailaginous joints (e.g., interveebral discs). Diahrosis - Freely movable. All diahrosis joints are synol joints (e.g., shoulder, hip, elbow, knee, etc.), and the terms "diahrosis" and "synol joint" are considered equivalent by Terminologia Anatomica | Surgery | null | Which of the following is not a diahrosis ?
A. Elbow joint
B. Interphalangeal joint
C. Skull sutures
D. Hip joint
| Skull sutures |
edce30f6-1702-4b67-b830-52e9c57bcbb0 | Right coronary artery
origin: Left posterior aortic sinus of aorta
Supplies :
a) Right atrium
b) right ventricle except area adjoining anterior inter ventricular groove.
c) small part of left atrium
Left Coronary Artery
Origin: left posterior aortic sinus of ascending aorta.
Supplies:
a) Left atrium
b) left ventricle except area adjoining posterior inter ventricular groove
c) small part of right ventricle. | Anatomy | null | Right coronary artery arises from which sinus:
A. Right aortic
B. Left aortic
C. Coronary sinus
D. Anterior aortic sinus
| Anterior aortic sinus |
4ca328e3-bce0-4218-b6e3-4bb06e364a97 | Abdominal Examination Signs Sign Description Diagnosis Aaron Sign Pain or pressure in epigastrium or anterior chest with persistent firm pressure applied to McBurney's point. Acute appendicitis Bassler Sign Sharp pain created by compressing appendix between abdominal wall and iliacus Chronic appendicitis Blumberg's Sign Transient abdominal wall rebound tenderness Peritoneal inflammation Carnett's Sign Loss of abdominal tenderness when abdominal wall muscles are contracted Intra-abdominal source of abdominal pain Claybrook Sign Accentuation of breath and cardiac sounds through abdominal wall Ruptured abdominal viscus Mannkopf's Sign Increased pulse when painful abdomen palpated Absent if malingering Ten Horn Sign Pain caused by gentle traction of right testicle Acute appendicitis | Surgery | Vermiform Appendix | Aaron's sign is seen in:
A. Chronic appendicitis
B. Hiatus hernia
C. Mediastinum emphysema
D. Acute appendicitis
| Acute appendicitis |
dc14a2c0-88ad-4eaa-9c5c-cc20c80ca4f9 | Sentinel surveillance is a method for identifying the missing cases and thereby supplementing the notified cases. it estimates disease prevalence in the total population. Repoing biases are minimised. It detects missing cases; so it comes under secondary prevention. Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition - Pgno 40 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | Under which level of prevention should sentinel surveillance be categorised
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Teiary prevention
| Secondary prevention |
90c9c09a-e70b-4732-84b9-1b2c829d6e92 | Sound localization Sound localization in horizontal plane depends on 2 things: 1. the time lag between the entry of sound into one ear and its entry into the opposite ear, and 2.difference in intensities between the sound in the two ears The detectable time difference is said to be the most impoant factor at frequencies below 3000 Hz and the loudness difference more impoant for frequencies above 3000 Hz. Sounds coming from directly in front of the individual and the back of the individual cannot be differentiated by the above two mechanisms. Here shape of the pinna plays role, it changes the quality of the sound depending on the direction from which sound comes. | ENT | null | Higher auditory centre determines:
A. Sound frequency
B. Loudness
C. Speech discrimination
D. Sound localization
| Sound localization |
015265c6-3b50-4912-8edd-71f2855c58d3 | Permanent teeth begin to come in around the age of 6. In some children, the first permanentmolars are the first to emerge; in others, the incisors are the first to emerge. By the age of 13, most of the 28 permanent teeth will be in place. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Growth and development | 1st Permanent teeth to appear ______________
A. Molor
B. Premolor
C. Incisor
D. Cannine
| Molor |
842a7998-b8cf-45cb-b3a3-628f56dd4015 | Among the given options, only spinal muscular atrophy presents in infancy and the rest in late childhood. Spinal Muscular atrophy (SMA) It is a degenerative disease of motor neurons, caused by the mutation of SMN gene with autosomal-recessive inheritance. Clinical features: Usually stas in infancy with hypotonia, hyporeflexia, and thin muscle mass Diagnosis: Genetic testing for SMN gene mutation. Muscle biopsy for cases of negative genetic testing. Treatment: Symptomatic and suppoive Ref: nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 3246 | Pediatrics | Musculoskeletal disorders | An infant present with hypotonia and hyporeflexia with significant prenatal history of polyhydraminos and decreased fetal movements. What do you suspect?
A. Spinal muscular atrophy
B. Classical myotonic dystrophy
C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D. Emery-Dreifuss syndrome
| Spinal muscular atrophy |
b350d044-bc1b-4510-989d-7601ea5c2075 | The petrosquamous suture may persist as a bony plate - the Korners septum. | ENT | null | Korner's septum is seen in -
A. Petrosquamous suture
B. Temporosquamous suture
C. Petromastoid suture
D. Frontozygomatic suture
| Petrosquamous suture |
afbd8f0b-7b7d-4b4d-bac5-0b319ae01568 | All of the above inheritance pattern is seen, but if we have to choose one, it is X linked dominant pattern. Because it is the most common inheritance pattern. | Pathology | null | What is the inheritance pattern of Alport syndrome
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive
| X linked dominant |
41da97d2-ffff-4e11-8667-0898943e2635 | .Septic ahritis, also known as jointinfection or infectious ahritis, is the invasion of a joint by an infectious agent resulting in joint inflammation. Symptoms typically include redness, heat and pain in a single jointassociated with a decreased ability to move the joint. | Pediatrics | Musculoskeletal disorders | A 3 year old child comes with complaint of limp diagnosis is
A. Septic Arhritis
B. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
C. Pehe's disease
D. DDH
| Septic Arhritis |
be0d8e8a-7596-45f0-af43-fec6d875b1d8 | ANSWER: (D) S2 S3 S4REF: Morgan 3rd ed p. 331. Essentials of Pain Management - Nalini Vadivelu, Richard D. Urman, Roberta L. Hines Page 428, Grant's atlas of anatomy - Page 270"Pudendal nerve block involves S2 S3 S4"The pudendal nerve innervates the lower vagina, perineum, and vulva. Block of this nerve can be used to supplement pain relief during the second stage of labor. The S2-S4 nerves give off branches to the pudendal nerve that pass between the pyriformis and coccygeal muscles. The nerve is blocked at the pudendal canal, just lateral and inferior to the sacroaspinous ligament. A pudendal nerbe block does not abolish sensation from anterior and lateral part of perineum and hence a block of ilioinguinal and/or posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh may also be required. | Anaesthesia | Spinal, Epidural, & Caudal Blocks | Pudendal nerve block involves?
A. LI L2 L3
B. L3 L4 L5
C. SI S2 S3
D. S2 S3 S4
| S2 S3 S4 |
d8b5549f-e64a-4899-80f2-8da1aebe83cf | ANSWER: (D) Purkinje fibersREF: Guyton's physiology 22nd edition page 105Velocity of Signal Conduction in Cardiac Muscle:The velocity of conduction of the excitatory action potential signal along both atrial and ventricular muscle fibers is about 0.3 to 0.5 m/sec, or about 1/250 the velocity in very large nerve fibers and about 1/10 the velocity in skeletal muscle fibers. The velocity of conduction in the specialized heart conductive system-in the Purkinje fibers-is as great as 4 m/sec in most parts of the system, which allowTs reasonably rapid conduction of the excitatory signal to the different parts of the heart | Physiology | Heart: Rhythmical Excitation of the Heart | Maximum velocity of conduction is seen in?
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Bundle of HIS
D. Purkinje fibers
| Purkinje fibers |
2beacc2b-8318-47ce-8cb6-35230de0bd82 | Ans. (d) Transversalis fasciaRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 955* Deep inguinal ring is the opening in the transversalis fascia through which the ductus deferens and gonadal vessels (or round ligament in the female) enter the inguinal canal.* Located midway between anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle, it is bounded medially by the lateral umbilical fold (inferior epigastric vessels) and inferiorly by the ilio-pubic tract. Indirect inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring. | Surgery | Inguinal Hernias | Deep inguinal ring is a defect in aponeurosis of:
A. External oblique muscle of abdomen
B. Internal oblique muscle of abdomen
C. Transverse abdominis muscle
D. Transversalis fascia
| Transversalis fascia |
31517a16-ba77-46a5-8cbd-b19d27e8e263 | According to sec. 320 IPC any of following injuries are grievous. Emasculation Permanent privation of sight of either eye Permanent privation of hearing of either ear Privation of any member or joint Destruction or permanent impairing of power of any member or joint Permanent disfiguration of head or face Fracture or dislocation of bone or tooth Any hurt which endangers life or which causes the victim to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits for a period of twenty days. | Forensic Medicine | null | 320 IPC is for –
A. Defines hurt
B. Defines murder
C. Attempt to murder
D. Defines grievous hurt
| Defines grievous hurt |
4641554c-923d-4dcf-9f65-e7bb9016b8cb | Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed: Pg no:152 Tropicamide is the shoest acting, so very commonly used for fundoscopy atropine is the longest acting - acts for 1 week not commonly used for adults, used only for children for fundoscopy - 1% atropine ointment | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Which of the following is a mydriatic drug with longest duration of action
A. Cyclopentolate
B. Tropicamide
C. Homatropine
D. Atropine
| Atropine |
6c4f19c6-0dd7-4780-b543-a746d1d48bae | Ans. C Recurrent laryngeal nerveRef: BDC, Vol: 3 pg. 171, 172,173, 176.* It is recurrent laryngeal nerve that pierces the thyroid gland.Must know about Thyroid* The gland consists of 2 lobes that are joined to each other by the isthmus* The gland extends against vertebrae C5, C6, C7 and T1* It weighs about 25 g.* The thyroid gland is supplied by the superior and inferior thyroid arteries.# The superior thyroid artery is the first anterior branch of the external carotid artery.# The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of thyro cervical trunk* Nerve supply# Nerves are derived mainly from the middle cervical ganglion and partly also from the superior and inferior cervical ganglia.* It is made of following two types of Secretory cells# Folicular cells lining the follicles of the gland secrete T3 and T4.# Parafollicular cells (C cells) are fewer and lie in between the follicles. They secrete thyrocalcitonin.Extra MileWhat is the function of thyrocalcitonin?* It promotes deposition of calcium salts in skeletal and other tissues, and tends to produce hypocalcemia. | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Which nerve pierces the thyroid gland?
A. Superior laryngeal nerve
B. Inferior laryngeal nerve
C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. Posterior laryngeal nerve
| Recurrent laryngeal nerve |
c3df5528-a18d-4253-b0d4-048c4e4d066e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5% cresol "The most effective disinfectant for general use is a coal-tar disinfectant with a Rideal-Walker (RW) coefficient of 10 or more such as cresol". | Microbiology | null | Feces are disinfected best by ?
A. 1% formaldehyde
B. 5% cresol
C. 5% phenol
D. Isopropyl alcohol
| 5% cresol |
386c4725-7713-44d3-92b4-cbf70c223313 | Closure of neural groove into neural tube begins in cervical region(5th somite) and proceeds cranially and caudally in a bidirectional manner. But according to latest concept it has been postulated that closure begins at multiple sites and proceeds simultaneously. | Anatomy | General Embryology 2 | Closure of neural tube begins at which of the following levels:
A. Cervical region
B. Thoracic region
C. Cephalic end
D. Caudal end
| Cervical region |
9a94579e-2a42-40e4-9db4-29234fcbe0d3 | Ans. (a) Coagulative necrosisRef. Robbiti's pathology 9th ed. /41-43, 50COAGULATIVE NECROSIS* This pattern of necrosis is typically seen in hypoxic environments, such as infarction.* Coagulative necrosis occurs primarily in tissues such as the kidney, heart and adrenal glands.* Severe ischemia most commonly causes coagulative necrosis.* Coagulation occurs as a result of protein denaturation, causing the albumin in protein to form a firm and opaque state.* It is characterized by the formation of a gelatinous (gel- like) substance in dead tissues in which the architecture of the tissue is maintained, and can be observed by light microscopy.Also KnowQUEFACTIVE NECROSIS* It is characterized by the digestion of dead cells to form a viscous liquid mass. This is typical of bacterial, or sometimes fungal, infections because of their ability to stimulate an inflammatory response.* The necrotic liquid mass is frequently creamy yellow due to the presence of dead leukocytes and is commonly known as pus.* Hypoxic infarcts in the brain presents as this type of necrosis, because the brain contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes and lipids, and cells therefore can be readily digested by their own enzymes.CASEOUS NECROSIS* It can be considered a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necroses, typically caused by mycobacteria, fungi and some foreign substances.* The necrotic tissue appears as white and friable, like clumped cheese.* Microscopic examination shows amorphous granular debris enclosed within a distinctive inflammatory border. Granuloma has this characteristic.FAT NECROSIS* It is specialized necrosis of fat tissue, resulting from the action of activated lipases on fatty tissues such as the pancreas.* In the pancreas it leads to acute pancreatitis, a condition where the pancreatic enzymes leak out into the peritoneal cavity, and liquefy the membrane by splitting the triglyceride esters into fatty acids through fat saponification.* Calcium, magnesium or sodium may bind to these lesions to produce a chalky-white substance. The calcium deposits are microscopically distinctive and may be large enough to be visible on radiographic examinations. To the naked eye, calcium deposits appear as gritty white flecks.Fibrinoid necrosis is a special form of necrosis usually caused by immune-mediated vascular damage. It is marked by complexes of antigen and antibodies, sometimes referred to as "immune complexes" deposited within arterial walls together with fibrin. | Pathology | Mechanisms of Cell Injury | Which of the following type of necrosis is most commonly associated with ischemic injury:
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Casseous necrosis
C. Liquifactive necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
| Coagulative necrosis |
6b3f923c-68fb-4ba1-882b-f4e17a8dcf9f | Metastatic calcification may occur in normal tissues whenever there is hypercalcemia. Metastatic calcification may occur widely throughout the body but principally affects the interstitial tissues of the gastric mucosa, kidneys, lungs, systemic aeries, and pulmonary veinsReference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 2; Cellular Responses to Stress and Toxic Insults: Adaptation, Injury, and Death | Pathology | General pathology | Metastatic calcification is most commonly seen in
A. Cornea
B. Extensor tendons
C. Brain
D. Renal tubules
| Renal tubules |
adf12de6-6ed0-40f8-8570-c6c94619ad11 | Erythema multiforme is associated with infections like herpes simplex virus mostly. And less commonly Mycoplasma pneumonia. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 186 | Dental | Vestibulobullous disorders | Erythema multiforme Is most often related to
A. Herpes zoster infection
B. Herpes simplex infection
C. Molluscurn contagiosum infection
D. Human papillorna virus infection
| Herpes simplex infection |
39e77ab9-f92e-4fb9-a0f2-e79b8c9922c4 | 1. Formative tributaries of Azygos Vein are Lumbar Ascending vein, Subcostal Vein and lumbar azygos vein.
2. Right Bronchial Vein is the last tributary of Azygos Vein | Anatomy | null | Not a tributary of Azygos Vein among the following is
A. Lumbar Ascending vein
B. Subcostal Vein
C. Intercostolumbar azygos vein
D. Right Bronchial Vein
| Intercostolumbar azygos vein |
78e73595-a7e5-409c-866c-7f580505aa20 | Remember the following facts
A sub centre caters a population of - 5000 in general, 3000 in hilly, tribal & backward areas
A PHC caters a population of* - 30,000 in general, 20,000 in hilly, tribal & backward area.
A Community health centre caters a population of - 80,000 to 1.2 lakh.
A health assistant (male & females) are at a population of - 30,000 in general or (20,000 in hilly, tribal or backward area).
Male and female health workers are at a population of - 5000 in general or 3000 in hilly, tribal or backward area.
Health guide caters a population of - 1000
Anganwadi workers - 1000
Local dai -1000 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of –
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 5000
| 3000 |
cfec8ed3-9f71-48be-ab44-802db72aeffe | (c) Rhinophyma(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 1; 1150)Also known as potato nose Rhinophyma is due to hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands of the tip of nose. It does not involve the septum. | ENT | Disease of External Nose & Nasal Septum | Septal perforation is not seen in:
A. Septal abscess
B. Leprosy
C. Rhinophyma
D. Trauma
| Rhinophyma |
dd790351-25c3-4fd1-8501-067826ab7b4c | Ans. a. Abducent nerve (Ref: Gray's anatomy 40/e p240; Netter Collection of Medical Illustrations 2013/Vol. 7/e p178) Abducent nerve nucleus is located deep to facial colliculus."Facial colliculus is situated in the pons. It overlies the abducent nucleus. The facial nerve originates from its nucleus and goes around the abducent nerve. This is called as neurobiotaxis. "---Gray s anatomy 40/e p240"On each side of the median sulcus is a longitudinal elevation, the medial eminence. lateral to which lies sulcus limitans. Its superior part is the locus ceruleus, coloured bluish-grey from the patch of deeply pigmented nerve cells. Also lateral to the upper part of the medial eminence is a slight depression, the superior fovea, and just below and medial in this fovea is a rounded swelling, the facial colliculus, which overlies the nucleus of the abducens (VI) nerve and the facial (VII) nerve fibers encircling in the motor nucleus of the facial nerve lies more deeply in the pons. Inferolateral to the superior fovea is the upper part of the vestibular area, which overlies parts of the nuclei of the vestibulococchlear (VIII) nerve. " Netter Collection of Medical Illustrations 2013/Vol. 7/e p178 | Anatomy | Cranial Nerves | Which of the following cranial nerve nucleus is located deep to facial colliculus?(AIIMS May 2015, November 2014)
A. Abducent nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve
| Abducent nerve |
ae87e085-2991-427e-8af6-f5d547216d0f | The ECG represents P mitrale pattern which is seen in left atrial hyperophy. P- mitraleis Broad, notched/bifid ( M shaped) P wave in limb leads. Width of P wave > 2.5mmwith anotch in Lead II. ( increased duration > 0.12s) Seen in MS,MR and Systemic HTN. Rabbit ear pattern is seen in Bundle Branch Block Delta wave is seen in WPW syndrome P pulmonale is seen in Right atrial enlargement. | Medicine | ECG and Arrhythmias 1 | The following ECG represents ?
A. Rabbit ear pattern
B. Delta wave
C. P pulmonale
D. P mitrale
| P mitrale |
a36f28f3-5ced-4d4d-985c-963b2a79955d | Decitabine is used to treat myelodysplastic syndromes (diseases of the blood and bone marrow; MDS) and ceain types of anemia. This medicine is an antineoplastic (cancer medicine) . Mechanism of Action: Inhibits DNA methyltransferase, causing hypomethylation of DNA & cellular differentiation or apoptosis Pharmacokinetics Protein Bound: <1% Vd: 63-89 L/m2 Half-life: 30-35 min REFERENCE : www.mayoclinic.org , www.medscape.com | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Which of the following anticancer drugs acts by hypomethylation?
A. Gemcitabine
B. 5-FU
C. Decitabine
D. Homoharringotonine
| Decitabine |
238a47a7-f936-4e00-bdd9-9f5ef7417b20 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Proseal LMA [Ref: Understanding Paediatric Anaesthesia Td/e p. 141A type of definite airwayDefinite airway is an airway that is adequately secured in trachea and it adequately protect the airway from aspiration.ProSeal (PLMA), a modification of Classic LMA, has a gastric drainage tube placed lateral to main airway tube which allows the regurgitated gastric contents to bypass the glottis and prevents the pulmonary aspiration. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following prevents aspiration?
A. LMA
B. Oropharyngeal airway
C. Nasopharyngeal airway
D. Proseal LMA
| Proseal LMA |
3ee175ef-557b-4287-a8a0-c6110be542b0 | Ans. A. Finkelstein testFinkelstein test is performed to make a diagnosis of Dequervain's disease, which is tenosynovitis of Abductor polices longus (APL) and extensor polices brevis (EPB), which make the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. | Orthopaedics | Peripheral Nerve Injuries | Following test is known as:
A. Finkelstein Test
B. Tinel test
C. Phalen's test
D. Cozens test
| Finkelstein Test |
720e98a5-a254-483b-a705-c47040d14eb4 | B i.e. Renal vein thrombosis - Nonvisualization of kidney (or absence of nephrogram) occurs in complete renal ischemia secondary to occlusion of main renal aery, (global absence) or focal renal infarction/ischemia secondary to focal aerial occlusion or renal vein thrombosisQ or space occupying lesions (segmental absence). - Persistent dense nephrogram (both increasingly or immediate) is seen in systemic hypotension, severe dehydrationQ, renal aery stenosis, renal vein thrombosis, tubular obstruction & damage and urinary tract obstruction (eg ureteral obstruction)Q but not in systemic hypeension. Although hydronephrosis usually 1/t scalloped/shell i.e. non smooth rim nephrogramQ. | Radiology | null | Non-visualisation of kidney in excretory urogram is seen in
A. Duplication
B. Renal vein thrombosis
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Hypoplasia
| Renal vein thrombosis |
09557f67-2898-4fa2-a172-a90ca2212bc7 | Uses of Capnography
It is the surest confirmatory sign of correct intubation in the trachea. Incorrect position of the tube in oesophagus instead of the trachea (oesophagal intubation) will yield ETCO2 = 0.
Intraoperative displacement of endotracheal tube → ETCO2 will become zero.
Obstruction or disconnections of endotracheal tube → ETCO2 will fall.
Diagnosing malignant hyperthermia → ETCO2 increases significantly (more than 100 mg Hg). | Anaesthesia | null | Capnography is useful for –
A. Determining Vaporizer malfunction or contamination
B. Determining circuit hypoxia
C. Determining the appropriate placement of endotracheal tube
D. Detecting concentration of oxygen in the anesthetic circuit.
| Determining the appropriate placement of endotracheal tube |
17db0828-b126-41dd-a8d9-28802c614829 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Apoptosis o Caspases and endonuclease cause chromatin fragmentation in apoptosis,o They are inactive, so first they should be activated,o Cytochrome 'c' binds with Apaf-1 and this complex activates caspases.o Caspases cause fragmentation of chromatin and also activate endonuclease.About option 'b'o Though Apaf-1 helps in activation of caspases, it has no role in chromatin fragmentation and It does not have two seprate forms active or inactive. It just forms complex with cytochrome 'C' to activate caspases.Neet Points about Apoptosiso Mitochondrion is the critical organelle required for apoptosis.o Chromatin condensation is the most characteristic feature.o Cell shrinkage is seen.o Gel electrophoresis demonstrates 'step ladder pattern'.o Annexin V is the marker for apoptosis.o CD 95 is the molecular marker for apoptosis. | Pathology | Apoptosis | Caspases are involved in -
A. Apoptosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Cell signaling
D. Cell injury
| Apoptosis |
fda5f83f-cbfd-4020-a61f-e2719eb922a5 | Chondrosarcomas are unusual in the facial bones, accounting for about 10% of all cases. They occur in the mandible and maxilla with equal frequency. Maxillary lesions typically occur in the anterior region in areas where cartilaginous tissues may be present in the maxilla. Mandibular lesions occur in the coronoid process, condylar head and neck, and occasionally the symphyseal region.
Oral radiology White and Pharaoh; 7th ed. Page no 440 | Radiology | null | The sarcoma which has equal propensity for maxilla and mandible is:
A. Fibrosarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Chondrosarcoma
| Chondrosarcoma |
e0c1f8f3-b0be-46e6-9e59-33baff786eff | Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis upto 12 months is coagulase-negative staphylococci (staph. epidermidis). | Microbiology | null | A patient has prosthetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism responsible is -
A. Staph. aureus
B. Strept. viridans
C. Staph. epidermidis
D. HACEK
| Staph. epidermidis |
800b8fa4-83ba-412c-9c43-050f17da13cd | (D) Chronic Cough # Constitutional symptoms associated with Pulmonary tuberculsosi include Chronic productive cough for atleast 2 or 3 weeks Low grade evening raise of temperature Loss of apetite Significant weight loss Night cries in bone and joint tuberculosis | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Most common symptom seen in pulmonary tuberculosis is
A. Chest pain
B. Breathlessness
C. High temperature
D. Chronic Cough
| Chronic Cough |
1bb94866-07c1-4b49-9a8a-0cf7326df65e | Answer is C (Vesicouretrial reflux induced pyelonephritis): Renal scarring is most commonly a result of chronic pyogenic infection of the kidney or chronic pyelonephritis. Chronic pyelonephritis occurs only in patients with major anatomic abnormalities, such as obstructive uropathy, struvite calculi, or, most commonly, VUR (in 30 to 45% of young children with symptomatic UTI). - Mercks manual ( `In children < 10 yr, about 30 to 50% of UTIs are associated with vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) which can lead to renal scarring and renal insufficiency if not treated' - Merck's manual Remember :Renal tuberculosis is always secondary to some primary focus elsewhere in body and occurs later in life then other forms (commonly around 20-40 years age group.) | Medicine | null | The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is:
A. Trauma
B. Trauma
C. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis.
D. Interstitial nephritis
| Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis. |
b157af8a-a205-4895-88f7-6055f03b5b10 | option a - 100% Glucose is reabsorbed from PCT by secondary active transpo, with the help of SGLT (Sodium Dependent Glucose Transpoer). | Biochemistry | Glucose Transpo | Glucose is reabsorbed in which pa ?
A. Early PCT
B. Henle loop
C. Collecting duct
D. Distal convoluted tubule
| Early PCT |
52c57139-6208-4e15-acc0-a5abd57237d2 | The second hea sound is widelysplit and is relatively fixed in relation to respiration. A mid-diastolicrumbling murmur, loudest at the fouh intercostal space and alongthe left sternal border, reflects increased flow across the tricuspidvalve. In ostium primum ASD, an apical holosystolic murmur indicatesassociated mitral or tricuspid regurgitation or a ventricularseptal defect (VSD).These findings are altered when increased pulmonary vascularresistance causes diminution of the left-to-right shunt. Both thepulmonary outflow and tricuspid inflow murmurs decrease inintensity, the pulmonic component of the second hea sound anda systolic ejection sound are accentuated, the two components ofthe second hea sound may fuse, and a diastolic murmur of pulmonicregurgitation appears. Cyanosis and clubbing accompanythe development of a right-to-left shunt (see "Ventricular SeptalDefect" below). In adults with an ASD and atrial fibrillation, thephysical findings may be confused with mitral stenosis with pulmonaryhypeension because the tricuspid diastolic flow murmurand widely split second hea sound may be mistakenly thought torepresent the diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis and the mitral"opening snap," respectively. Harrison's principle of internal medicine,20th edition,pg no.1445 | Medicine | C.V.S | Wide-split second hea sound is seen in -
A. ASD
B. LBBB
C. PDA
D. MR
| ASD |
fcd25cfd-28f2-4d4d-acc4-b3313dda7adc | Primary Level - Health Promotion and Specific Protection.
Secondary Level - Early Diagnosis and Treatment.
Tertiary Level - Disability Limitation and Rehabilitation. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Health promotion is which level of prevention
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
| Primary |
bc5fb7e2-c5d7-4ed2-ae58-8c69a83394db | NERVE SUPPLY OF LARYNX Motor:- All the muscles which move the vocal cord (abductors, adductors or tensors) are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except the cricothyroid muscle. The latter receives its innervation from the external laryngeal nerve-- a branch of superior laryngeal nerve. Sensory:- Above the vocal cords, larynx is supplied by internal laryngeal nerve--a branch of superior laryngeal, and below the vocal cords by recurrent laryngeal nerve. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-298 | ENT | Larynx | Sensory nerve supply of larynx below the level of vocal cord is
A. External branch of superior laryngeal nerve
B. Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. Inferior pharyngeal nerve
| Recurrent laryngeal nerve |
1f4c75b3-46a3-4b9f-a3ad-6ae61985fca1 | Disopyramide It is a quinidine like Class IA drug that has prominent cardiac depressant and anticholinergic actions, but no a adrenergic blocking propey. Disopyramide usually has no effect on sinus rate because of opposing direct depressant and antivagal actions. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-530 | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action
A. Quinidine
B. Lignocaine
C. Disopyramide
D. Procainamide
| Disopyramide |
17eb85b1-2fe6-47d3-b6fe-e53aa19d2c03 | Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocoicoid. Not used clinically because of the low oral bioavailability. most potent synthetic or man made is- fludrocoisone- having more mineralocoicoid activity (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 282) | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Most potent mineralocoicoid is
A. Aldosterone
B. DOCA
C. Fludrocoeisone
D. Triamcinolone
| Aldosterone |
e975d179-37c5-454f-add0-dc3809875a66 | The triacylglycerols are esters of the trihydric alcohol glycerol and fatty acids and are available abundantly in animal diet Ref: Harper's Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 21; Lipids of Physiologic Significance | Physiology | General physiology | Which of the following is the most abundant diet of animal origin?
A. Phospholipids
B. Cholesterol esters
C. Cholesterol
D. Triglycerides
| Triglycerides |
d4cd674c-3a81-41e3-9103-38105e6ea463 | Bulimia nervosa * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Binge eating at least once a week for 3 months * Uses laxatives, diuretics, self-induced vomiting * Association= * Impulsive behaviors * increased interest in sex * They may be of normal weight * Less secretive * Mood disorders * Complication * Electrolyte abnormalities * Hypokalemia * Hypochloremia alkalosis * Russel's sign==== as these patients uses their fingers to be stick out in the throat and vomit, there is a lesion in meta carpo phalangeal joints. * Drugs * Carbamazepine * MAOI * SSRI Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no 509 | Anatomy | Sleep disorders and eating disorders | ulimia nervosa is assosiated with
A. impulsive behaviour
B. obesity
C. metabolic syndrome
D. amnorrhera
| impulsive behaviour |
765080b5-7009-49db-a737-e6ebdfb7f3fe | The oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate and a-ketoglutarate, which plays a key role in energy metabolism of most cells, is paicularly impoant in tissues of the nervous system. In thiamine deficiency, the activity of these two dehydrogenase-catalyzed reactions is decreased, resulting in a decreased production of ATP and, thus, impaired cellular function. 1. Beriberi: This is a severe thiamine-deficiency syndrome found in areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet. Signs of infantile beriberi include tachycardia, vomiting, convulsions, and, if not treated, death. The deficiency syndrome can have a rapid onset in nursing infants whose mothers are deficient in thiamine. Adult beriberi is characterized by dry skin, irritability, disordered thinking, and progressive paralysis. 2. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome:In the United States, thiamine deficiency, which is seen primarily in association with chronic alcoholism, is due to dietary insufficiency or impaired intestinal absorption of the vitamin. Some alcoholics develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome--a thiamine deficiency state characterized by apathy, loss of memory, ataxia, and a rhythmic to-and-fro motion of the eyeballs (nystagmus). The neurologic consequences of Wernicke&;s syndrome are treatable with thiamine supplementation. Reference: Lippincott edition 5, pg no. 379 | Biochemistry | vitamins | Patient present with severe energy deficiency. Which of the following vitamin might be deficient in this patient?
A. Pyridoxine
B. Riboflavin
C. Thiamin
D. Folic acid
| Thiamin |
67fbcfe1-c082-455f-89b6-582f8a4a4689 | Raynaud phenomenon results from exaggerated vasoconstrictionof aeries and aerioles in the extremities, paicularlythe fingers and toes, but also sometimes the nose,earlobes, or lips. The restricted blood flow induces paroxysmalpallor or cyanosis; involved digits characteristicallyshow "red-white-and-blue" color changes from most proximalto most distal, reflecting proximal vasodilation, centralvasoconstriction, and more distal cyanosis, respectively.Raynaud phenomenon can be a primary entity or may besecondary to other disorders.Secondary Raynaud phenomenon refers to vascular insufficiencydue to aerial disease caused by other entitiesincluding systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, Buerger disease, or even atherosclerosis.(Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no.355) | Pathology | Cardiovascular system | Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in
A. SLE
B. Rheumatic fever
C. Hypeension
D. Diabetes mellitus
| SLE |
b211aaa8-5eb5-4d7f-b651-eedba204c3cc | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Skull sutures Functional classification of joints (movement)o Joints can also be classified functionally according to the type and degree of movement they allow:Synarthrosis - Permits little or no mobility. Most synarthrosis joints are fibrous joints (e.g., skull sutures).Amphiarthrosis - Permits slight mobility. Most amphiarthrosis joints are cartilaginous joints (e.g., intervertebral discs).Diarthrosis - Freely movable. All diarthrosis joints are synovial joints (e.g., shoulder, hip, elbow, knee, etc.), and the terms "diarthrosis" and "synovial joint" are considered equivalent by Terminologia Anatomica | Orthopaedics | Anatomy of Bone & Fracture Healing | Which of the following is not a diarthrosis -
A. Elbow joint
B. Interphalangeal joint
C. Skull sutures
D. Hip joint
| Skull sutures |
ae5665ad-f852-4797-82ed-a43d2cc87561 | GERD
In infants presents with esophagitis, failure to thrive, obstructive apnea, stridor, otitis media, sinustis. | Pediatrics | null | An infant presented with failure to thrive, stridor, otitis media and esophagitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Tracheoesophageal fistula
B. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
| Gastroesophageal reflux disease |
aede1d22-b740-45ac-88ff-d5fb3dbc7f0e | Ans. B Radial arteryRef: BDC, 6th ed. vol. I pg. 22, 5th ed. pg. 102* The anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of extensor polloicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus.* It has the radial artery running in the floor of the snuffbox, and the radial nerve passing to the dorsum of the hand.* Boundaries of snuff box:# Postero-medial border is the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus.# Antero-lateral border is a pair of parallel and intimate tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and the abductor pollicis longus.#The proximal border is formed by the styloid process of the radius.# The distal border is formed by the approximate apex of the schematic snuffbox isosceles. | Anatomy | Hand | Anatomical snuff box contains:
A. Axillary nerve
B. Radial artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Ulnar artery
| Radial artery |
fca1281f-4904-4d2a-95e1-a8cb4cc9ff19 | Option 1 HUS By EHEC or Shigella dysenteriae type 1. Dissemination of toxin- Verocytotoxin or Shiga toxin to glomerular capillaries. Option 2 Ischemic jejunitis: Not caused by any pathogen. Due to local or systemic pathlogy Option 3 Toxic shock syndrome By Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Due to toxins that act as superantigens. Option 4 ETEC Most common cause of traveler's diarrhea in the world. Most common cause of bacterial diarrheas in all ages. | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli) | Enterotoxigenic E. Coli causes:
A. Haemolytic uremic syndrome
B. Ischemic jejunitis
C. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Travellers diarrhea
| Travellers diarrhea |
82bb9d20-9f22-4d49-8389-51092bbb18a4 | CSF is absorbed through 3 ways:
Arachnoid villi and granulations (main)
Perineural lymphatics around 1st, 2nd, and 8th cranial nerves and
Veins related to spinal nerves. | Anatomy | null | CSF is partly absorbed by lymphatics around cranial nerves -
A. I, II, VII, VIII
B. I, II, VI, VII
C. I, III, VII, VIII
D. I, II, VI, VIII
| I, II, VII, VIII |
58fe4bee-8a6a-40ba-aac7-fcc4f798000d | Ans. a (Inquest). (Ref. Parikh, Textbook of FMT, 5th/5)INQUEST (legal or judicial inquiry to ascertain matter of fact). : Section 174 Cr.P.C. -# When a person dies it is necessary to determine the cause of death either natural or unnatural to meet with the requirement of law.# In forensic, an inquest generally means an inquiry into the ca use of death (not due to natural cause).# Types of inquest in India:- Coroner's inquest (Mumbai and culcutta)- Police inquest- Magistrate inquest# Coroner's inquest was abolished in India in the year: 1999.# The most common type of inquest in India: Police inquest.# In India, inquest is NOT carried out by: Doctor# In case of death in prison, inquest can be conducted by: Executive Magistrate.# Supposed to be the best inquest internationally: Medical examiner's inquest. | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | Section 174 Cr.P.C. deals with
A. Inquest
B. Inquiry
C. Murder
D. Medical negligence
| Inquest |
8e1e6e00-795c-4ae9-895e-46b5b5901d63 | Any trauma to the ciliary body can cause sympathetic ophthalmitis ; hence it is considered the dengerous area of the eye | Ophthalmology | Trauma | Dangerous area of the eye is
A. Retina
B. Sclera
C. Ciliary body
D. Optic nerve
| Ciliary body |
5215c0e9-a187-43d0-9e44-fa0df712fcc5 | Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons found in the gray matter of the spinal cord. They receive axonal collaterals from nearby motor neurons; it inhibits the activity of the same or related adjacent motor neurons. This recurrent inhibition by the Renshaw cell facilitates and sharpens the activity of the projecting motor neuron from which it receives the collaterals. | Physiology | null | Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons found in:
A. Gray matter of brain
B. White matter of brain
C. Gray matter of the spinal cord
D. White matter of spinal cord
| Gray matter of the spinal cord |
b4d3ffb7-e255-42f9-a6e8-42e0e16b4625 | Ans. B: Treatment of type II lepra reaction Thalidomide is a sedative-hypnotic, and multiple myeloma medication. The drug is a potent teratogen. Thalidomide was chiefly sold during the late 1950s and early 1960s to pregnant women, as an antiemetic to combat morning sickness. Children were born with severe malformities, including phocomelia, because their mothers had taken thalidomide during pregnancy. Apa from its infamous tendency to induce bih defects and peripheral neuropathy, the main side effects of thalidomide include fatigue and constipation. It also is associated with an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis especially when combined with dexamethasone,for treatment of multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma patients, concomitant use with zoledronic acid may lead to increased incidence of renal dysfunction. High doses can lead to pulmonary oedema, atelectasis, aspiration pneumonia and refractory hypotension. It is very effective in dermatolgical conditions like: ENL, aphthous stomatitis, Behcet's disease, LE, and prurigo nodularis | Pharmacology | null | Thalidomide is useful in: March 2007
A. Treatment of leprosy
B. Treatment of type II lepra reaction
C. Treatment of type I lepra reaction
D. Treatment of neuritic leprosy
| Treatment of type II lepra reaction |
a64fb4eb-33a7-4c4b-8cf2-0b33b24855da | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sex determination Krogman's table is used to determine the percentage of accuracy in sex determination from isolated skeletal pas.According to Krogman, the degree of accuracy in sexing adult skeletal remains is :-Entire skeleton - 100 %Pelvis alone 95 % | Forensic Medicine | null | Krogmans table system is used for ?
A. Age determination
B. Sex determination
C. Dental examination
D. Calculating estimated height
| Sex determination |
e1820e13-9867-47cc-b460-38512a9aee76 | Discoloration of the porcelain near the cervical region of the metal-ceramic prosthesis has been reported to occur when a silver-containing alloy is used as the substrate. Color changes included green, yellow-green, yellow-orange, orange and brown hues. This discoloration phenomenon has generally been called “greening.” It was likely caused by the colloidal dispersion of silver atoms entering body and incisal porcelain or the glazed surface from vapor transport or surface diffusion.
The extent of porcelain discoloration was most severe for higher-silver-content alloys, lighter shades, multiple firing procedures, higher temperatures, body porcelain in direct contact with the alloy, vacuum firing cycles and with certain porcelains containing lower opacifier and higher sodium contents.
Silver is added to Au-Ag-Cu casting alloys to offset the reddish hue contributed by Cu.
Ref: Phillips 12 ed page no 413 | Dental | null | When gold fused with porcelain is fired at very high temperature, greenish discoloration of cervical margin is due to:
A. High firing temperature
B. Disintegration of opaque layer
C. Presence of silver
D. Formation of excess oxides
| Presence of silver |
72e1ea09-ebfa-4edc-b229-84793671050f | Answer- A. Phacomorphic glaucomaPhocomorphic glaucoma :- It occurs in intumescent stage of cataract. The swollen lens leads to relative pupillary block (pupillary block glaucoma), iris bombe and angle closure. It is a type of angle closure glaucoma and anterior chamber is very shallow. | Ophthalmology | null | Which glaucoma is associated with cataract
A. Phacomorphic glaucoma
B. Neovascular glaucoma
C. Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma
D. Buphthalmos
| Phacomorphic glaucoma |
5ba96faa-ab71-4f2c-bf37-cb3bc6dd890a | Retinal laser photocoagulation is the ideal treatment for treating diabetic Retinopathy neovascularization. Ref AK khurana 6/e p 282 | Ophthalmology | Vitreous and retina | Treatment of diabetic retinopathy neovascularisation is/are -
A. Retinal laser photocoagulation
B. Pars plana vitrectomy
C. Phacoemulsion
D. LASIK
| Retinal laser photocoagulation |
d44971d3-d692-41ba-96f5-ece5966fc710 | Bechet's disease is characterized by a triad of recurrent oral ulcers (aphthous ulcers), recurrent genital ulcers and uveitis.
Important non-infective causes of genital ulcer are Trauma, Bechet's disease, Stevens-Johnson syndrome and carcinoma. | Dental | null | Noninfective cause of genital ulcer is -
A. Behcets disease
B. Hansen's disease
C. Ramsons's disease
D. Syphilis
| Behcets disease |
50ce5733-98c6-4404-8dc5-a8488a0bb819 | (c)This case refers to post-traumatic pain in proximal femur, scarpas triangle refers to area of femoral neck and for stress or occult fracture of neck femur where traumatic marrow edema is seen - MRI is investigation of choice. | Orthopaedics | Miscellaneous | 45-year-old female has history of slip in bathroom complaints of pain right hip, tenderness in scarpas triangle and normal X-ray. Next investigation is:
A. USG guided aspiration
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Bone scan
| MRI |
3f9d4916-e88e-4898-b34f-736f3dbe7e57 | * Gram staining clearly shows Gram positive cocci (violet/purple coloured) in pairs - classical image of Streptococcus pneumoniae or pneumococci. Infections caused by Pneumococcus: - * Pneumonia * Meningitis * Otitis media * Bacteremia * Septic ahritis * It is the most impoant cause of infections in splenectomy patients, chronic alcoholics, sickle cell anaemia patients. Ref:- Ananthanarayan and Paniker T.B of microbiology 10th ed; pg num:- 225 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | A 9 years old child presented to OPD with complaints of high grade fever, vomiting, one episode of seizure. CSF examination was done and Gram staining of the culture showed the following finding. What is the probable causative agent
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Escherichia coli
| Streptococcus pneumoniae |
d8e7b8fb-6bbe-410e-9ce5-0865456f5f6b | Ans. 'b' i.e., Frontal lobe A glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is a type of brain tumour called an astrocytoma. Astrocytomas are some of the most common brain tumours. They develop from the highly vascular and quickly reproducing astrocyte cells in our brain and are often malignant. | Pathology | CNS Tumors | Most common site of glioblastoma multiforme is-
A. CP angle
B. Frontal lobe
C. Brainstem
D. Occipital lobe
| Frontal lobe |
cbf6f5fa-0ea7-4541-8ae2-9ef6edbbc3ca | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Trisomy 13 Trisomv 13 (Patau's syndrome)Head & FaceChestExtremitieso Scalp defects (cutis aplasia )o Congenital heart diseaseo Overlapping of finger &o Microphthalmia, comeal(VSD, PDA, ASD in 80%)toes (Clinodactyly, polydactyly)abnormalitieso Thin posterior ribs (missingo Hypoplastic & hyperconvexo Cleft lip & palate (60-80%)ribs)nailso Microcephaly o Sloping head o Hoioprosencephaly o Capiiary hemangioma o Deafness o Severe developmenal delays & prenatal, postnatal growth retardation & renal abnormalities is seen in trisomy 13.o Only 5% patients of trisomy 13 live more than 6 months. | Pathology | Mendelian Disorders: Single-Gene Defects | Pataus syndrome due to -
A. Trisomy 21
B. Trisomy 18
C. 18 P
D. Trisomy 13
| Trisomy 13 |
04c8b466-4b33-47c4-b1ea-669ae84d1f1b | Opiods are synthetics while opiates are semi synthetic. Opiods include pethidine,fentanyl,methadone,dextropropoxyphene,tramadol. Semisynthetic opiates include heroin ,pholcodine,ethylmorphine . Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | "Opioids" differ from "opiates" in that they are:
A. More powerful in action
B. More long acting
C. Synthetic derivatives
D. Derived directly from opium
| Synthetic derivatives |
34984002-d5ba-43ac-810d-7067cc12fce0 | In molecular biology, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced by the syncytiotrophoblast, a component of the feilized egg, after conception. Following implantation, the syncytiotrophoblast gives rise to the placenta.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-414 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Beta HCG is secreted by
A. Ovary
B. Pituitary
C. Corpus luteum
D. Placenta
| Placenta |
9294dd10-66b0-499a-8c5c-b1aa175dc434 | Solitary collapsed vertebra (vertebra plana) with preserved disc spaces in a child suggests the diagnosis of Eosinophilic granuloma (a type of Histiocytosis). | Radiology | null | An eight year old boy presents with back pain and mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadow. The most likely diagnosis is -
A. Ewing's sarcoma
B. Tuberculosis
C. Histiocytosis
D. Metastasis
| Histiocytosis |
c7a05329-8bbd-4a18-92ad-e1bd5d7493f0 | Alagille syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder affecting liver,hea,kidney,etc.Liver biopsy in Alagille syndrome shows too few bile ducts(bile duct paucity) or in some cases,the complete absence of bile ducts(biliary atresia).Bile duct paucity results in reduced absorption of fat & vitamins(A,D,E,K) which may lead to rickets/a failure to thrive in children. | Surgery | G.I.T | Alagille syndrome is
A. Bile duct paucity
B. IHBR dilation
C. PBC
D. PSC
| Bile duct paucity |
fc3110ba-dbf1-4a4b-beaa-9abad5cb3a03 | Refer CMDT 2010/110 *griesofulvin is used for dermatophytoses including Tinea capitis, Tinea cruris, Tinea pedis, Tinea ungunum and Tinea corporis *Tinea versicolor is caused by yeast Malassezia furfur .it is treated by selenium sulfide AMD ketaconazole shampoo | Anatomy | General anatomy | Griesofulvin is not useful in one of the following
A. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea Cruris
C. Tinea versicolor
D. Tinea pedis
| Tinea versicolor |
e98e19f6-b6bc-4ffe-a651-abd151a2438c | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bubonic plague A dead end host is an infected person from which infectious agents are not transmitted to other susceptible host or from which a parasite cannot escape to continue its life cycle. The diseases in which human acts as dead end host, i.e., dead and disease : ? Japanies encephalitis Trichinosis Bubonic plaque Echynococcosis (hydatid disease) Tetanus | Microbiology | null | Human is dead end host for?
A. Malaria
B. Typhoid
C. Bubonic plague
D. Filaria
| Bubonic plague |
0b206a1d-b712-4b19-9e5c-c54b8565e671 | Human papillomaviruses (HPV) are the causative agents of cutaneous warts as well as proliferative squamous lesions of mucosal surfaces. Although most infections by human papillomavirus are benign, some undergo malignant transformation into in situ and invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Both HPV and polyomavirus have icosahedral capsids and DNA genomes. JC virus, a polyomavirus, was first isolated from the diseased brain of a patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who was dying of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML). This demyelinating disease occurs usually in immunosuppressed persons and is the result of oligodendrocyte infection by JC virus. JC virus has also been isolated from the urine of patients suffering from demyelinating disease. Cryotherapy and laser treatment are the most popular therapies for warts, although surgery may be indicated in some cases. At the present time, there is no effective antiviral therapy for treatment of infection with polyomavirus or HPV West Nile virus is an arbovirus. While prevalent in Europe, Africa, and the Middle East, it was not seen in the United States until the summer of 1999. It is transmitted by mosquitoes and birds, especially crows; these animals are a reservoir. WNV causes a rather mild encephalitis in humans, the exception being older patients or those who may be immunocompromised. | Microbiology | Virology | Which of the following is the causative agent of a variety of cutaneous warts (plantar, common, and flat) and is associated with cervical neoplasia?
A. Human papillomavirus
B. West Nile virus
C. Tick-borne encephalitis virus
D. Polyomavirus
| Human papillomavirus |
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