id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
0f277307-23ec-4f1b-aca5-eac0765a3fa5 | HHV 6B is the cause of mild but common childhood illness exanthem subitum. In older age groups ,it has been associated with infectious mononucleosis syndrome,focal encephalitis and in the immunodeficient,with pneumonia and disseminated disease. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 8TH EDITION PAGE NO:477 | Microbiology | Virology | HHV-6B causes -
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Carcinoma endometrium
C. Clear cell carcinoma
D. Focal encephalitis
| Focal encephalitis |
c82ed37e-c89d-416e-8cbc-6c57c8fe1968 | Endometrial biopsy Early secretory Subnuclear vacuolation (Ist HPE evidence of progesterone secretion) Seen on D16 of cycle Nuclei of glands gone up Stromal edema Late secretory Toous/ coiled glands All secretions in lumen of gland Cork screw glands( on D20 of cycle) Max stromal edema seen around D22of cycle) HPE of Proliferative endometrium Pseudostratification Long tubular glands Spinnbarkeit effect: ovulation mucus has the propey of great elasticity and will withstand stretching up to 10 cm. This phenomenon is called spinnbarkeit or the thread test for oestrogen activity. During the secretory phase, the cervical mucus becomes tenacious and its viscosity increases under the influence of progesterone so that it loses the propey of spinnbarkeit and fractures when put under tension. This propey is called tack. THIS LOSS OF SPINNBARKEIT EFFECT IS USED TO DIAGNOSE OVULATION RETROSPECTIVELY. Ultrasound: shows sudden reduction of follicle size (on serial USGs) and free fluid in Pouch of douglas. Endometrial thickness varies as follows early proliferative: thin bright echogenic stripe late proliferative: trilaminar appearance secretory phase: thick and uniformly echogenic | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Tests of Ovulation | Which of the following findings is suggestive that ovulation has taken place?
A. Pseudostratification in endometrium
B. Presence of Spinnbarkeit Phenomenon in cervical mucous
C. Sudden reduction in size of follicle and free fluid in Pouch of Douglas on USG
D. Trilamilar endometrium on USG
| Sudden reduction in size of follicle and free fluid in Pouch of Douglas on USG |
b47511f8-1071-4c03-bb03-ad8f1ddbe67a | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Zolpidem Among the given options, three are sedative-hypnotic with GABA facilitatory action - Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) - But it also has anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant propey. it) Phenobarbitone - But it has anticonvulsant propey. Zolpidem Has no anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant propey and have no effect on sleep architecture. Zolpidem Zolpidem is a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic. Minimal suppressive effect on REM sleep architecture is not disturbed. | Pharmacology | null | Sedative with GABA facilitating action but without anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant propeies and no effect on sleep ?
A. Diazepam
B. Zolpidem
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Buspirone
| Zolpidem |
ed92f823-56fd-4381-b2a3-a061921084ac | Ans. C. Greater petrosal nerveFacial nerve is the 7th cranial nerve. It is a mixed (i.e., motor and sensory) nerve, but predominantly it is motor. It is named facial nerve because it supplies the muscles of facial expression.Branchesa. Greater petrosal nerve--arises from the geniculate ganglion. It is the first branch of facial nerveb. Nerve to stapedius--arises from the vertical part of the facial nerve opposite the pyramidal eminence, runs forward through a short canal within it to reach the stapedius muscle to supply it.c. Chorda tympani nerve--arises from the vertical part of the facial nerve about 6 mm above the stylomastoid foramen.d. Posterior auricular nerve--supplies the occipital belly of occipitofrontal is.e. Nerve to the posterior belly of digastric--supplies the concerned muscle.f. Nerve to stylohyoid--supplies the concerned muscle.g. Five terminal branches (temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal, mandibular, and cervical)--supply the muscles of facial expression. | Anatomy | Head & Neck | First branch of Facial nerve is:
A. Nerve to stapedius
B. Chorda tympani nerve
C. Greater petrosal nerve
D. Lesser petrosal nerve
| Greater petrosal nerve |
3b7b57b8-3c7d-4020-ac31-7020d9bc40e3 | (C) 60%[?]Couple protection rate (CPR)oCouple protection rate (CPR) is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community.oIt is defined as the per cent of eligible couples effectively protected against childbirth by one or the other approved methods of family planning, viz. sterilization, IUD, condom or oral pills.oSterilization accounts for over 60 per cent of effectively protected couples.oCouple protection rate is based on the observation that 50 to 60 per cent of births in a year are of birth order 3 or more.oThus attaining a 60 per cent CPR will be equivalent to cutting off almost all third or higher order births, leaving 2 or less surviving children per couple.oTherefore, the previous National Population Policy was to attain a CPR of 42 per cent by 1990 (end of Seventh Five Year Plan), and 60 per cent by the year 2000.oHowever about 60 per cent eligible couples are still unprotected against conception.oA state-wise break-up of the figures reported indicates that while some states notably Punjab, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Haryana and Tamil Nadu etc. are forging ahead to cover more than half of their fertility level population by contraception.oDifferent Family Planning methods used for Acceptors of Couple Protection Rate include:-Sterilization-Vasectomy-Tubectomy-IUD insertion-Condom users-Oral Contraceptive Pill UsersoNRR = 1 can be achieved only if the CPR >60%[?]Net Reproduction Rate (NRR)oNet Reproduction Rate (NRR) is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates.oNRR is a demographic indicator. NRR of 1 is equivalent to attaining approximately the 2-child norm.oIt is 'the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates'.oIt is a demographic indicator.oNRR of 1 is equivalent to attaining approximately the 2-child norm. If the NRR is less than 1, then the reproductive performance of the population is said to be below replacement level.oThe average number of Daughters a women would bear in her life if she experiences the age-specific fertility (fro daughters) prevailing at the study period, & if her daughters experienced the prevailing rates of mortality.oIf the age schedules of both fertility & mortality remain constant, the Net Reproduction Rate would be a measure of generational Replacement.oE.g.-NRR =1.1 - Next generation will be 10% larger than the present generation (growth)-NRR =1.0 - Next generation will be the same as the present generation (replacement level)-NPR =0.9 - next generation will be 10% smaller than the present generation (depopulation)[?]Net Reproduction Rate, Pros & Cons.oPros-Taking into account both fertility & survival in getting one indicator of reproductivity of a PopulationoCons-Requires detailed data on fertility & survival of women, up to age 50 years-Does not take into account that women born in different years may have different fertility & survival. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and Family Planning | The demographic goal of Net Reproduction Rate is equal to one (NPR=1) can be achieved only if the Couple Protection Rate exceeds
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%
| 60% |
79a81298-e728-4081-b2b5-be965d210d7d | Michaelis-Menten Theory (Enzyme-Substrate Complex Theory)
Enzyme combines with a substrate to form a transient Enzyme-Substrate Complex which immediately break into Enzyme and products. | Biochemistry | null | Michaelis Menten Hypothesis states that
A. Rate of enzymatic reaction is independent of substrate concentration
B. Rate of non enzymatic reaction is proportional to substrate concentration
C. Km is the enzyme substrate complex association constant
D. Enzyme substrate complex formation is essential in enzymatic reaction.
| Enzyme substrate complex formation is essential in enzymatic reaction. |
77db5401-a696-42c9-bbf6-136649ebe489 | Inhibitors of Glycolysis: Inhibitors of Glycolysis Enzyme Inhibited Iodoacetate Glyceraldehyde - 3 - P Dehydrogenase Arsenate Glyceraldehye - 3 - P Dehydrogenase Sodium fluoride Enolase Oxamate Lactate Dehydrogenase | Biochemistry | Glycolysis | Glycolytic enzymes(s) inhibited by Fluoride:
A. Hexokinase
B. Aldolase
C. Enolase
D. Pyruvate kinase
| Enolase |
ffc2ba0a-f6c2-43fa-8000-cdc6ba408267 | Cardiac index is the cardiac output corrected for the individual's size. For example, the cardiac output of a 50-kg woman will be significantly lower than that of a 90-kg man. It has been found, however, that cardiac output correlates better with body surface area than with body weight. Therefore, it is common to express the cardiac output per square meter of surface area. Under resting conditions, the cardiac index is normally approximately 3 L/min per m2. Ref: Mohrman D.E., Heller L.J. (2010). Chapter 4. Measurements of Cardiac Function. In D.E. Mohrman, L.J. Heller (Eds), Cardiovascular Physiology, 7e | Physiology | null | Cardiac index is the ratio of?
A. Cardiac output and body weight
B. Cardiac output and surface area
C. Cardiac output and work of hea
D. Surface volume and surface area
| Cardiac output and surface area |
4f4ac24a-6f3a-4adc-a347-2fde996cae72 | Roth spots Round retinal hemorrhages with white centers Seen in : Infective endocarditis SLE Serum sickness Polyaeritis nodosa Severe anemia Leukemia Prolonged anesthesia | Medicine | Rheumatic Hea disease & infective endocarditis | Not a cause of Roth spots?
A. Leukemia
B. Severe anemia
C. SLE
D. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
| Hypersensitivity pneumonitis |
fce245e5-d5db-4965-8c3c-cb0f4141ffe3 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Dental caries o No National programme for oral health is under implementation. About other options o There is Pilot Programme for prevention & control of DM. CVD and deafness. o The National Programme for control of blindness includes screening for refractive errors. o Cervical cancer screening programme is working in India. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following conditions does not have a National Screening/Control Programme?
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Dental caries
C. Refractive errors
D. Carcinoma cervix
| Dental caries |
faf871b0-801d-4561-84c8-0a20b3aeac7e | Ans: b (Insulin) Ref: Harper, 25th ed, p. 347,115Insulin is a polypeptide consisting of two chains linked by two inter chain di sulphide bridges.Amino acids required for special products:> Creatine - glycine + arginine+ methionine> Glutathione - glycine + cysteine + glutamate> Purine - glycine + aspartate + glutamine + serine> Pyramidine - aspartate + glutamine (glycine not present)> Keratin - formed by histidine, arginine, lysine. Also note - keratin is rich in cysteine.> Histone - rich in arginine and histidine.> Camosine - P alanine, histidine.> Choline - glycine, serine, methionine (Vit B6 - lipotrophic factor) | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Which of the following contains sulphur?
A. Creatine
B. Insulin
C. Inulin
D. Creatinine
| Insulin |
2c8b4eb9-743d-4d34-afa8-bac38347065d | Ans. is c i.e. 50% Friends, we have dealt with hemodynamic changes during pregnancy in detail earlier but here lets quickly revise a few changes asked quite often. Most impoant physiological changes during pregnancy (for 11th hour revision) Net weight gain in pregnancy is 11 kg (24 lb).deg Blood volume T's by 40-50%.deg Blood volume reaches maximum at 30-32 weeks.deg Plasma volume T's by 50%.deg RBC volume T's by 20-30%.deg TLC is increased, specifically Neutrophilic leucocytosis occurs.deg Total plasma proteins increase.deg Plasma protein concentration decreases.deg Albumin level decreases, globulin levels (specially IgA) slightly increase.deg Fibrinogen levels increase by 50%.deg ESR is increased.deg All clotting factors except XI and XIII increase.deg Platelet count decreases (Gestational Thrombocytopenia).deg Cardiac output (stroke volume) increases to 40-50% by 30-34 weeks.deg Peripheral vascular resistance decrease.deg Diastolic BP decreases.deg Uterine blood flow increases near term.deg Plasma insulin levels increase.deg S. Prolactin levels increase.deg Vital capacity and respiratory rate remain constant.deg Renal plasma flow and GFR increase.deg All LFT'S remain unchanged, with exception of alkaline phosphatase which increases (specially heat stable alkaline phosphatase produced by placenta).deg | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | During pregnancy the maternal blood volume increases by nearly :
A. 5 - 10%
B. 15 -- 20%
C. 50%
D. 70%
| 50% |
6ea437a5-7dd2-4909-85f8-c94745c3c296 | Complications : Pulmonary edema Anuria Hea failure Hyperpyrexia Psychosis Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 222. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy | Side effect of MgSo4 used in the treatment of eclampsia is
A. Hypotension
B. Polyuria
C. Coma
D. Pulmonary edema
| Pulmonary edema |
512ce60e-6c09-417d-91b3-e1d2f0d539b6 | The person has had recurrent episodes of abdominal angina as shown by the pain after food intake. He also has a history of MI which also suggests that he has atherosclerosis. The bloody diarrhoea is again suggestive of mesenteric vascular occlusion in this patient. Ref: Manipal Millennium Edition, Page 429; S.Das, Edition 5, Page 354 | Surgery | null | A patient presents in the causality with history of abdominal pain. On examination the person is in shock, with severe abdominal tenderness and guarding. There was also one episode of bloody diarrhoea. He gives a history of recurrent abdominal pain soon after taking food which persists for about 3 hours after food. He also has a history of MI about 5 years back. What is your diagnosis?
A. Acute thrombotic mesenteric vascular occlusion
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute duodenal ulcer perforation
D. Acute appendicitis
| Acute thrombotic mesenteric vascular occlusion |
ea048cfb-76c4-4754-a0c7-9aedc52664c2 | Prolonged jaundice, constipation, Umbilical hernia are all seen in congenital hypothyroidism. | Pediatrics | null | A boy presented with prolonged jaundice, constipation and umbilical hernia. what is the probable diagnosis?
A. Growth hormone deficiency
B. Kernicterus
C. Congenital hypothyroidism
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
| Congenital hypothyroidism |
5a2a4115-f381-4d10-a3ab-9ca6da93e27f | Classic triad: Headache + Diaphoresis+ Palpitation | Physiology | All India exam | Episodic hypeension is a feature of
A. Carcinoid tumor
B. Insulinoma
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
| Pheochromocytoma |
81fbc82a-d070-4b72-a17a-a87b947c848a | Ans. (b) Separation of keratinocytesRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 370* Keratinocytes are connected to one another by intracellular desmosomal bridges.* If there is loss of these desmosomal bridges, it will lead to separation of keratinocytes and the condition is known as acantholysis.* If separation continues, there will be intracellular edema, and the condition is known as Ballooning.Also Know* Degeneration of stratum basale is seen in: Lichen planus* Acanthosis: thickening of stratum spinosum* Hypergranulosis: Thickening of stratum granulosum* Hyperkeratosis: Thickening of stratum corneum* Parakeratosis: persistence of nucleus in stratum corneum layer | Skin | General | Acantholysis is:
A. Lysis of basale cell layer
B. Separation of keratinocytes
C. Thickening of granular layer
D. Thickening of corneum layer
| Separation of keratinocytes |
565bc834-8a9d-497d-b30b-a72798a5265d | Answer is option3, complex hyperplasia with atypia Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia is the least common type of hyperplasia, but is the type most likely to progress to type 1 endometrial carcinoma (1-3) which accounts for 97% of uterine cancers, whereas simple hyperplasia rarely progresses to carcinoma. > | Pathology | General pathology | High risk of malignancy is seen in?
A. Simple hyperplasia with atypia
B. Simple hyperplasia without atypia
C. Complex hyperplasia with atypia
D. Complex hyperplasia without atypia
| Complex hyperplasia with atypia |
ddf0d9e7-c8d4-4500-89ce-b1ef7e0ff3e7 | Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor and can cause hyperiglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. All protease inhibitors are metabolized by liver and all can cause metabolic abnormalities including hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance and altered fat istribution (lipodystrophy). Atazanavir is devoid of this adverse effect. Tesamorelin is a synthetic analogue of growth hormone releasing factor indicated to reduce excess abdominal fat in HIV-infected patients with lipodystrophy. | Pharmacology | Anti-HIV Drugs | A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hyperiglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is
A. Ritonavir
B. Raltegravir
C. Tenofovir
D. Eirenz
| Ritonavir |
c4caf996-8488-4544-8b77-cb583fb76e2e | Ans. (A) Parkinson's disease(Ref: KDT 8/e p457)Ropinirole is a non-ergot dopamine agonist useful for Parkinsonism. It is also used these days for restless leg syndrome. | Pharmacology | C.N.S | Ropinirole is most useful for the treatment of:
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Wilson's disease
C. Hoffmann syndrome
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
| Parkinson's disease |
e8ab8c32-a9b6-4c3d-8ef1-012831dea02d | Trichuris humans acquire the infection by eating foods contaminated with infective eggs. Once eggs are swallowed, the larvae hatch in the small intestine, where they mature and migrate to the colon. Trichuris infections with a low worm burden are usually asymptomatic, but infections of moderate to heavy worm loads present with lower abdominal pain, distention, and diarrhea. Severe infection may lead to profuse bloody diarrhea, cramps, tenesmus, urgency, and rectal prolapse. Occasionally worms migrate to the appendix, causing appendicitis. Jawetz microbiology 27e 724. | Microbiology | All India exam | Which of the following helminths primarily produces gastrointestinal symptoms, without lung involvement, during the course of its infection?
A. Dirofilaria immitis
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
| Trichuris trichiura |
cb5d35ed-508b-48e1-934d-580e070e7330 | Comatose patients with blood glucose level of 750 mg/dl suggests the possibility of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state . Lab abnormality in this is marked hyperglycemia, hyperosmolarity, prerenal azotemia. Comatose patients with hyperglycemia is also seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Thus blood ph ( to detect acidosis) and serum creatinine for azotemia are most impoant investigations. | Medicine | Endocrinology | Two most impoant tests to be done in a comatose patient with blood glucose of 750 mg/dl will be -
A. Sr. creatinine
B. Sr. sodium
C. CSF examination
D. Blood pH
| Sr. creatinine |
79fa4140-1f33-4167-a30b-7d6b1496c217 | Divergence and convergence are two evolutionary processes by which organisms become adapted to their environments.
Convergence has been defined as the acquisition of morphologically similar traits between distinctly unrelated
organisms.
Convergence occurs at every level of biological organization.
Functional Convergence
This refers to molecules that serve the same function but have no sequence or structural similarity and carry out their function by entirely different mechanisms.
Mechanistic convergence
Mechanistic convergence occurs when the sequence and structure of molecules are very different but the mechanisms by which they act are similar.
Structural Convergence
This refers to molecules with very different amino acid sequences that can assume similar structural motifs, which may carry out similar functions.
Sequence Convergence
In sequence convergence, one or more critical amino acids or an amino acid sequence of two proteins come to resemble each other due to natural selection. (In protein evolution, sequence divergence, rather than sequence convergence is the rule.) | Biochemistry | null | A different sequence of amino acids having a similar structure of proteins is an example of
A. Divergence
B. Convergence
C. Opportunistic
D. Incidental
| Convergence |
f36fe1fd-bdae-4329-9ff2-8b96d7c92949 | Shelf life of Platelets is < 5 days Cryoprecipitate is 2 years. | Medicine | null | Shelf life of Platelets is
A. < 5 days
B. < 3 weeks
C. < 5 weeks
D. < 2 years
| < 5 days |
f73c5da1-ab29-4ca8-b670-268e8a9f2645 | Scopolamine is used as truth serum. Drugs commonly used in narcoanalysis are 1. Thiopentone sodium (Sodium pentothal) 2. Scopolamine hydrobromide 3. Sodium secnol 4. Benzodiazepines REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | Which of the following drugs is used for narcoanalysis -
A. Atropine
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Scopolamine
D. Pethidine
| Scopolamine |
ebd2773c-d81f-488e-b1d6-b8d4e5ba2ad3 | • Most UTIs are caused by a single bacterial species.
• At least 80% of the uncomplicated cystitis and pyelonephritis are due to E. coli, with most of pathogenic strains belonging to the O serogroups.
• Other less common uropathogens include Klebsiella, Proteus, and Enterobacter spp. and enterococci.
• In hospital acquired UTIs, a wider variety of causative organisms is found, including Pseudomonas and Staphylococcus spp.
• UTIs caused by S. aureus often result from hematogenous dissemination.
• Group B beta-hemolytic streptococci can cause UTIs in pregnant women.
• In children, Klebsiella and Enterobacter spp. are common causes of UTI.
• Anaerobic bacteria, lactobacilli, corynebacteria, streptococci (not including enterococci) and S. epidermidis are found in normal periurethral flora. They do not commonly cause UTIs in healthy individuals and are considered common urinary contaminants. | Surgery | null | Commonest organism giving rise to urinary tract infection -
A. E. coli
B. Proteus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
| E. coli |
13002cb8-942b-42bd-98b0-a85886c94c07 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Inhibits PDE 5 * Sildenafil (Viagra) acts to increase cGMP by inhibiting its breakdown by phosphodiesterase isoform 5 (PDE-5). | Pharmacology | Miscellaneous (Pharmacology) | Mechanism of action of sildenafil is
A. Inhibits PDE 2
B. Inhibits PDE 4
C. Inhibits PDE 5
D. Inhibits PDE 3
| Inhibits PDE 5 |
f4b84482-f856-4ea3-b60f-8a121ff1a49d | Disadvantages of female condoms: 1. Intercourse is noisy, and slippage occurs in about one in 5-10 uses; however, female condom rarely breaks. 2. Occasionally the penis is introduced, by mistake, outside the female condom, which may lead to pregnancy and STDs including HIV. 3. It is an expensive method. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraceptives | Intercourse can be cumbersome, annoying & also 'Noisy' with the use of which of the following :
A. Male condom
B. Female condom
C. IUCD
D. Vaginal ring
| Female condom |
3ab18fa0-d119-46e1-a38d-7888f854b14c | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Measles Many viruses can be transmitted to the fetus and cause infection and tissure damage. Five viruses are known to be teratogenic in humans: cytomegalovirus, rubella, herpes simplex, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, and varicella viruses. | Microbiology | null | Which virus given below is not a teratogenic virus ?
A. Rubella
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Herpes simplex
D. Measles
| Measles |
dc0cd454-82f0-4b0d-82a2-70190cc41ea1 | T.cruzi passes its life cycle I two host Definitive host- humans Intermediate host-triatomine bugs Humans become infectious when reduviid bug bites and the infected faecal matter is discharged near bite wound (refer pgno:49 baveja 3 rd edition) | Microbiology | parasitology | Vector for T.cruzi is -
A. Reduvid bug
B. Tsetse fly
C. Sand fly
D. Hard tick
| Reduvid bug |
d08aa898-c9f8-421e-96cc-cd3272a9b5b9 | Answer is C (Post-capillary venules): Post-capillary venules are most commonly involved in Hypersensitivity vasculitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis refers to small vessel vasculitis that is restricted to the skin and not associated with any other form of primary or secondary vasculitis. Implicit in the definition is that this condition is not associated with medium or large vessel disease at other sites, nor with small vessel disease in other organs (only skin) Microscopic polyangitis affects the skin and also internal organs and hence is not considered pa of hypersensitivity vasculitis The typical histopathological feature of cutaneous vasculitis is the presence of leukocytoclastic vasculitis of small vessels. Vasculitis is charachterized by Leukocytoclasis -- Harrison's Synonyms for Hypersensitivity vasculitis include: cutaneous small vessels vasculitis, leucocytoclastic vasculitis, cutaneous leucocytoclastic angitis etc. 'Post-capillary venules are the most commonly involved vessels. Capillaries and aerioles may be involved less frequently' -- Harrison American College of Rheumatology 1990 Criteria for the Classification of Hypersensitivity Vasculitis Laboratory and Radiographic Work-up of Patients with Possible Hypersensitivity Vasculitis Age at disease onset > 16 years Medication at disease onset Palpable purpura Maculopapular rash Biopsy including aeriole and venule, showing granulocytes in a perivascular or extravascular location For purposes of classification, hypersensitivity vasculitis may be diagnosed if the patient meets at least three of these five criteria. | Medicine | null | Which of the following is most commonly involved in Hypersensitivity vasculitis:
A. Capillaries
B. Aerioles
C. Post-capillary venules
D. Medium sized aeries
| Post-capillary venules |
30f2f606-5278-45a2-9cf9-686ce1585e72 | Ans: A (Epoophoron) Ref: Grays Anatomy 40th EdExplanation:Embryology of Reproductive SystemGonadMALES (Testis)FEMALES (Ovary)Gubernacular cord Mesonephros (Wolffian body)Gubernaculum testisOvarian and round ligamentsAppendix of epididymis (?)Appendices vesiculosae (?)Efferent ductulesEooophoronLobules of epididymis ParadidymisParoophoronAberrant ductules Mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct)Duct of epididymisDuct of epoopboron (Gartner's duct)Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Part of the bladder and prcstatic urethraPart erf bladder and urethraParamesonephricDuct (Mullerian)Appendix of testsUterine tube UterusProstatic ulricteVaginaAllantoic ductUrachusUrachusCloaca: Dorsal partRectum and upper part of anal canalRectum and upper part of anal canalVentral partMost of bladderMost of bladder and urethra Part of the prostatic urethra Urogenital sinusProstatic urethra distal to the utricle Bulbo-urethral glandsGreater vestibular glandsRest of urethra to qlansVestibuleGenital foldsVentral penisLabia minoraGenital tuberclePenisClitorisUrethra in clans Genital ridgeTestisOvaryGenital swellingScrotumLabia majora | Unknown | null | Cranial end of Wolffian duct forms:
A. Epoophoron
B. Paraepoophoron
C. Gartner cyst
D. Bartholin cyst
| Epoophoron |
68c63050-83c0-4669-8c29-9637d4061726 | Interstitial Lung Disease UIP (Usual interstitial pneumonia) NSIP (Non - specific interstitial pneumonia) Reticular opacities Traction bronchiectasis Subpleural honeycombing Subpleural sparing | Radiology | Radiology Q Bank | 40 years old male patient came with complaint of dry cough and dyspnoea. On lung function tests, restrictive pattern of decreases lung function is seen. Chest x-ray showed few reticular opacities in bilateral lung. HRCT of lung was performed which shows GGO in bilateral lung fields sparing sub-pleural region. Most probable diagnosis is
A. UIP
B. NSIP
C. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
D. Respiratory bronchiolitis
| NSIP |
6105a32b-f642-4b65-bf6c-4847310d065b | It is a measure of the strength of association between risk factor and outcome.
The derivation of the Odds ratio is based on three assumptions:
a) The disease being investigated must be relatively rare. In fact, the majority of chronic diseases have a low incidence in the general population.
b) The cases must be representative of those with the disease.
c) The controls must be representative of those without the disease.
For example, the odds ratio is estimated at 8.1. This implies that the risk of oral cancer was 8.1 times greater in individuals who chewed tobacco than in those who did not chew tobacco.
Soben Peter
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
4th edition | Dental | null | The measure of strength of association between risk factor and outcome is:
A. Odds ratio
B. Attributable risk
C. Relative risk
D. Poisson's ratio
| Odds ratio |
327a02c7-48b3-476d-99a2-628840d5d751 | Aggrecan is a proteoglycan, also known as cailage-specific proteoglycan core protein (CSPCP) or chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 1. It is encoded by the ACAN gene. Aggrecan is an integral pa of the extracellular matrix (ECM) in cailagenous tissue and it withstands compression in cailage. | Physiology | Concepts in physiology | Aggrecan is:
A. A receptor over platelets
B. A molecule present in osteoid tissue
C. Granules in leukocytes
D. Impoant component of cailage
| Impoant component of cailage |
3a17848e-5035-41d7-b828-bd717f08c03d | As explained in the previous question maternal hyperglycaemia leads to fetal hyperglycaemia, which in turn causes polyuria and thus causes polyhydramnios.
Polyhydramnios leads to preterm delivery and not post datism.
Excessive uterine enlargement because of polyhydramnios and macrosomia causes increased incidence of atonic PPH.
Diabetes leads to increased incidence of congenital defects in fetus.
Maternal hyperglycemia → to fetal hyperglycemia → hyperinsulinemia → to neonatal hypoglycemia at birth. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Feature of diabetes mellitus in pregnancy:a) Postdatismb) Hydramniosc) Neonatal hyperglycemiad) ↑congenital defecte) PPH
A. bde
B. ade
C. ace
D. bce
| bde |
1ed4e42b-0cd6-4aa0-8429-59a2fe0c5edf | Ans. C: Anti-mitochondrial Primary biliary cirrhosis is strongly associated with the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA), which are diagnostic PBC: Associated with CREST syndrome, sicca syndrome, auto-immune thyroiditis, type I DM and IgA deficiency IgG AMA is detected in more than 90% of patients with PBC 90% of women are between 35 - 60 years Earliest symptom is pruritis Eventually hepatocellular failure and poal hypeension develops Lab findings: - Increased serum alkaline phosphatase - Increased serum 5-nucleotidase activity - Increased gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase - Serum bilirubin is usually normal - Aminotransferase levels minimally increased - Treatment: Ursodiol | Medicine | null | Specific antibody associated with primary biliary cirrhosis is:
A. Anti-myosin
B. Anti-nuclear
C. Anti-mitochondrial
D. Anti-endomysial
| Anti-mitochondrial |
69c8235c-e810-46f2-8a9f-23d5430f8940 | ANSWER: (A) Insulin glargineREF: Pharmacology ReCap 2.0 for Bachelor of Dentistry Students by Dr. J. G. Buch page 304, Harrison s 18m ed chapter 344INSULINS:Highly purifiedmono-componentinsulinPorcine Actrapid- RegularShort actingPorcine Monotard- LenteIntermediate actingPorcine Insulatard- NPH Porcine Mixtard30% regular, 70% IsophaneHuman insulinHuman Actrapid- RegularShort actingHuman Monotard- LenteIntermediate actingHuman Insulatard- NPH Human Mixtard30% regular, 70% IsophaneInsulin analoguesInsulin Lispro Insulin aspart Insulin glulisineUltra short actingInsulin glargineLong acting | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Long acting insulin is?
A. Insulin glargine
B. Insulin Lispro
C. Insulin aspart
D. Insulin glulisine
| Insulin glargine |
0e7a0c23-2b0e-4137-a985-bcd54b43f464 | Nodular lymphomas of all types are derived from the B-cell line. The translocation t(14, 18), with bcl-2 activation, is associated with these lymphomas. Must know: An abl-bcr hybrid and t(9, 22) translocation are associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). c-myc activation and t(8, 14) are associated with Burkitt's lymphoma. Ref: Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed, page 20-21;198-199 | Pathology | null | A patient presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. Biopsy demonstrates a nodular lymphoma with follicle formation. This lesion would most likely be associated with which of the following?
A. bcr-abl hybrid
B. bcl-2 activation
C. c-myc activation
D. t(8, 14)
| bcl-2 activation |
4145bc69-f09b-44b0-a586-939f44d620a3 | - the ESI act passed in 1948 is an impoant measure of social security and health insurance in the country. - it provides for ceain cash and medical benefits to industrial employees in case of sickness, maternity and employment injury. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no: 815 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health | ESI act was made in -
A. 1946
B. 1948
C. 1952
D. 1954
| 1948 |
4f0d57d3-1ead-4648-b574-1a52247a4b25 | b. Leukemia(Ref: Nelson 20/e p 2416)Most frequent childhood cancers are: (in order of decreasing frequency)Leukemia (Most common is ALL)Brain TumorsNeuroblastomaWilms tumor | Pediatrics | C.V.S. | MC malignancy in children is:
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Leukemia
C. Wilms tumor
D. Neuroblastoma
| Leukemia |
5cb29ecf-479a-4d05-a96d-7ab9b09e3e44 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., C7 Scheme to show the location arsd subdivisions of the thyroid gland including the false capsule | Anatomy | Thyroid Gland | Isthmus of thyroid gland lies at which level -
A. C2
B. C4
C. C5
D. C7
| C7 |
12019185-33e2-4f7d-a34a-840a28c49628 | Etomidate a intravenous anaesthetic agent is Milky white in colour , imidazolone derivative, causes pain on iv injection. Major advantages over other intravenous agents is cardiovascular stability thus use cardiac compromised patients Routinely not in clinical use since it is adrenal suppressant. Other side effects myoclonus and increased nausea and vomiting. | Anaesthesia | Intravenous Anesthetic Agents | Which of the following side effects are seen with etomidate-
A. Myoclonus, Adrenal suppression, Haemodynomic imbalance(HI)
B. Myoclonus, adrenal suppression, pain on IV injection
C. Pain on IV injection, Adrenal suppression, HI
D. Pain on IV injection, HI ,Myoclonus.
| Myoclonus, adrenal suppression, pain on IV injection |
46477482-c4d2-4f7f-84a5-951bdb858606 | Carrier pump Na-K-2Cl transpoer. REABSORPTION IN THICK ASCENDING LIMB: Sodium, Potassium & Chloride reabsorption: By "Secondary active transpo" - Through Na2+-K+-2Cl-- carrier transpoer. Transpos one Na2+, one K+, & two Cl-. Active sodium absorption occurs. 30% filtered Na2+ reabsorbed. Ref: Guyton 12th Ed. | Physiology | All India exam | Which carrier pump is transpoing solutes in thick ascending limb of Henle loop?
A. Carrier pump Na-K-2Cl transpoer.
B. NaCl- cotranspoer
C. Na2+-H+ exchanger
D. Na2+-K+ exchanger
| Carrier pump Na-K-2Cl transpoer. |
29d06fef-7501-4acc-97fb-319d93785589 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Increased insulin secretion o Incretins are GI hormones which are secreted by enteroendocrine cells in response to meals.o The most important action of incretins is to stimulate insulin secretion after a meal.o Two important GI incretins are.i) Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1).ii) Glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide (GIP).o GLP-1 is more insulinotropic hormone. | Physiology | Pancreas | Function of incretin is -
A. Increased heart rate
B. Increased insulin secretion
C. Increased respiratory rate
D. Stimulate erythropoiesis
| Increased insulin secretion |
0744f560-f170-40b8-a9fb-4931ed0f1371 | Obturator nerve is the largest nerve formed from the anterior divisions of lumbar plexus (L2,L3,L4).The roots unite within the posterior pa of psoas, and then descends through psoas and runs downward over sacral ala into lesser pelvis, lying lateral to ureter and internal iliac vessels. They enter the upper pa of the obturator foramen and then subsequently divides into anterior and posterior branches. Anterior Division:Muscular branches: To the following muscles;GracilisAdductor brevisAdductor longusPectineus (variable)Aicular branches: To hip jointSensory branches: To medial aspect of thigh Posterior Division:Muscular branches: To the following muscles;Obturator externusAdductor pa of adductor magnusAdductor brevis (variable)Aicular branch: To knee joint Must know:Adductor magnus has double nerve supply. Its adductor pa is supplied by the obturator nerve, while its hamstring pa is supplied by the tibial pa of the sciatic nerve. The pectineus also has a double innervation; its anterior fibres are supplied by the femoral nerve and the posterior fibres by the obturator nerve. | Anatomy | null | A patient presented with defective adduction of the hip joint with pain in the knee and hip joint, the nerve involved is?
A. Obturator nerve
B. Tibial nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Saphenous nerve
| Obturator nerve |
f3284c27-b880-49a7-8e57-b9867e7e64be | Paograph In paogram, first time of the initial markings are marked on the ale line. The subsequent plotting is done from this point. Till the graph stays on the left if the ale line, the progress can be considered satisfactory. If the graph moves towards the right of the ale line, caution is required and when the graph crosses to the right of action line, it warrants intervention. NOTE: There are new recommendations regarding the dilatation at which sta of active labour should be plotted on the paograph, which is now said to be 6 cm. However due to lack of consensus, it is still in consideration and till any confirmed guideline on this is available to us we shall go by the old norm of 4 cm. till | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Obstetrics | In paogram, first time of the initial markings are made in:
A. Left side of the action line
B. On the action line
C. On the ale line
D. Right side of the ale line
| On the ale line |
63350a10-8aa9-42c8-a742-5366dce5eaa9 | Corpulence index= actual weight/ desirable weight A value above 1.2 indicates obesity Ref: Park 21st edition, page 178. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Corpulence index is a measure of:
A. Copper level in the serum
B. Iron loss in faeces
C. Obesity
D. Income inequality
| Obesity |
a07e013c-6183-4ba5-ab13-a88afb035e73 | Ref: KDT 6th ed. pg. 64 * G6PD is an enzyme present on RBC membrane provides strength to RBC which can counteract free radicals and oxidizing stress of drugs.* In absence of G6PD enzyme, these cells cant bear the stress and results in Hemolysis.* Drugs causing Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency patients are:# Anti malarials (Primaquine, chloroquine)# Antibiotic (Nitrofurantoin)# Anti emetic (Furazolidone)# Sulfonamide (dapsone)# Fava beans* Ciprofloxacin is one of the quinolones, effective against G+ and G- including pseudomonas.* It is contraindicated in pregnancy and children below 18 years of age because it effects growing bone and tendons.* Ciprofloxacin is considered as oral DOC for enteric fever.* DOC for enteric fever: Ceftriaxone | Pharmacology | Hematology | Which of the following drug will cause hemolysis in G6PD patients:
A. Cephalosporins
B. Ampicillin
C. Chloroquine
D. Erythromycin
| Chloroquine |
4db5c0a7-5cdf-429c-9683-1afb70f3e99b | Memory and language problems after temporal lobectomy. Temporary double vision after temporal lobectomy. Increased number of seizures after corpus callosotomy, but the seizures should be less severe. Reduced visual field after a hemispherectomy. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:835,836,837 | Physiology | Nervous system | Patient is able to recognize voice but not face
A. Temporal lobe
B. Occipital
C. Frontal lobe
D. Parietal lobe
| Temporal lobe |
6e9212c5-02be-49bc-8ff7-d231c84403ef | Morphine is a very effective analgesic for the pain associated with STEMI.However, it may reduce sympathetically mediated aeriolar and venous constriction, and the resulting venous pooling may reduce cardiac output and aerial pressure. These hemodynamic disturbances usually respond promptly to elevation of the legs, but in some patients, volume expansion with intravenous saline is required. These side effects usually respond to atropine (0.5 mg intravenously). Morphine is routinely administered by repetitive (every 5 min) intravenous injection of small doses (2-4 mg), rather than by the subcutaneous administration of a larger quantity, because absorption may be unpredictable by the latter route.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1603 | Medicine | C.V.S | Analgesic used for pain associated with STEMI
A. Morphine
B. Diclofenac
C. Paracetamol
D. Dicyclomine
| Morphine |
1e65e0ae-5e93-49fd-9fec-fa9015ba3c60 | Ans. (b) BCGRef : OP Ghai 8th ed./191BCG* Although BCG vaccination often causes local reactions, serious or long-term complications are rare. Reactions that can be expected after vaccination include moderate axillary or cervical lymphadenopathy and induration and subsequent pustule formation at the injection site; these reactions can persist for as long as 3 months after vaccination.* Most serious complication of BCG vaccination is disseminated BCG infection.* The most frequent disseminated infection is BCG osteomyelitis | Pediatrics | Immunization | Otitis and osteomyelitis is seen in?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. BCG
C. Measles vaccine
D. IPV
| BCG |
2c547be7-5c76-4a7a-8772-e73cb206fa8c | Bater's syndrome - There is loss of transpo function of Thick ascending loop of henle(TALH) Segment of nephron which results in hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis classic BS- typically suffer from polyuria and polydypsia due to reduction in renal concentrating ability . Increase in urinary calcium excretion 20% are hypomagnesemic. Marked activation of RAAS. Antenatal BS- They suffer from severe systemic disorder characterized by marked electrolyte wasting, polyhydramnios ,hypercalciuria with nephrocalcinosis . Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no 306. | Medicine | Kidney | In Bater's Syndrome, which of the following is not seen-
A. Metabolic Alkalosis
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Decrease in urinary calcium
| Decrease in urinary calcium |
fdc80bf1-2905-446b-afc2-af0d0f7aaac2 | This is LLETZ: Diathermy wire loop is used to remove a portion of Cervix that includes transformation zone with area of CIN. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The procedure shown below is
A. Radical trachelectomy
B. Partial hysterectomy
C. Large loop excision of transformation zone
D. Dilatation and curettage
| Large loop excision of transformation zone |
0966150b-ab42-4089-8aa5-0d8df00c4b36 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Isoniazid + Rifampicin * Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) are by definition infected with strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis resistant to isoniazid and rifampin.* Extremely drug resistant TB (XDR-TB) due to MDR strains that are resistant to all fluoroquinolones and to at least one of three second-line injectable agents (amikacin, kanamycin, and capreomycin).* Following are definitions of drug resistant tuberculosis :Definitions of drug-resistant tuberculosis51* Drug-resistant tuberculosis: tuberculosis caused by an isolate of mycobacterium tuberculosis that is resistant to least 1 of the first-line antituberculosis drugs: isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, or streptomycin* Monoresistance: resistance to 1 antituberculosis medication.* Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis: tuberculosis caused by an isolate of M tuberculosis that is resistant to the 2 most effective first-line drugs-isoniazid and rifampin-and possibly other antituberculosis drugs.* Extensively drug- resistant tuberculosis: multidrug-resistant tuberculosis that is also resistant to the most effective second-line drugs, fluoro-quinolones, and at least 1 of the 3 injectable second-line drugs used to treat tuberculosis (amikacin, kanamycin, or capreomycin) and, possibly, to other antituberculosis drugs. | Medicine | Infection | MDR tuberculosis is defined when M. tuberculosis shows resistance to -
A. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide
C. Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampicin + Ethambutol
| Isoniazid + Rifampicin |
96aecd5f-d167-481f-9b42-b884051f969d | (Dermatitis, glossitis, Alopecia) (407-H) (314-Basic pathology 8th)(Biotin deficiency) - clinical features -Adult = Mental changes (depression, hallucination), paresthesia, anorexia, nausea, A scaling, seborrheic and erythematous rash may occur around the eye, nose, mouth, as well as extremities (407-H)Infant = hypotonia, lethargy, apathy, alopecia and a characteristic rash that includes the ears.Symptoms of biotin deficiency includes - Anaemia, loss of apepite dermatitis, glossitis (150- U. Satyanarayan) Symptoms of biotin deficiency - Dermatitis "spectacle eyed" appearance due to circumocular alopecia, pallor of skin & membrane, depression, Lassitude, somnolence, anemia and hypercholesterolaemia - (173-Rana Shinde 6th) | Pathology | Environment & Nutritional Pathology | Triad of biotin deficiency is
A. Dermatitis, glossitis, Steatorrhea
B. Dermatitis, glossitis, Alopecia (314-Basic 8th)
C. Mental changes, diarrhoea, Alopecia
D. Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhoea
| Dermatitis, glossitis, Alopecia (314-Basic 8th) |
65f0ae92-f497-4d74-aa29-7ebba65bf209 | The liver phosphorylase-b is the inactive form. It becomes active on phosphorylation. The active form is phosphorylase-a.Glycogen synthase exists in two distinct forms that can be interconveed by the action of specific enzymes; active dephosphorylated glycogen synthase(glucose-6-p-independent) and less active, phosphorylated glycogen synthase D(glucose-6-p-dependent.Ref: DM Vasudevan, page no: 127 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Enzymes not used in glycogen metabolism
A. Glycogen phosphorylase B
B. Glycogen synthase I
C. Glycogen synthase C
D. Glycogen synthase D
| Glycogen synthase C |
d89a9cfa-d2c5-457d-ad53-e71230dd19c0 | The most frequent causes of acute retention Male * Bladder outlet obstruction (the most common cause) * Urethral stricture * Acute urethritis or prostatitis * Phimosis Female * Retroveed gravid uterus * Bladder neck obstruction (rare) Both (Male and female) * Blood clot * Urethral calculus * Rupture of the urethra * Neurogenic (injury or disease of the spinal cord) * Smooth muscle cell dysfunction associated with ageing * Faecal impaction * Anal pain (haemorrhoidectomy) * Intensive postoperative analgesic treatment * Some drugs * Spinal anaesthesia Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1426 | Surgery | Urology | Urinary catheterisation indicated in case of acute retention of urine in following conditions
A. Stricture
B. Rupture
C. Postoperative
D. Carcinoma prostate
| Postoperative |
65fa4e00-4b90-4d7c-83d9-43261e62c761 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., DysgerminomaOvarian mass in 25 year old female suggests the diagnosis.Although dysgerminomas are relatively uncommon among all ovarian neoplasms (only accounting for only about 2%) they account for about 32.8% of malignant ovarian germ cell neoplasms.Majority of cases arise in adolescent and young adults in whom they account for one third of all ovarian neoplasm.The growth of dysgerminomas is usually rapid as a result patients often presents with abdominal enlargement and pain due to rupture with hemoperitoneum or torsion.Tumour markers associated with dysgerminoma.Dysgerminomas can contain syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells that produce placental alkaline phosphatase and lactate dehydrogenase.Alpha fetoproteinIn general dysgerminomas do not produce alpha fetoprotein (AFP) although borderline elevation are described. hCGhCG is associated with only 3.5% of dysgerminomas.Endodermal sinus (Yolk sac Tumour)Endodermal sinus tumour also called yolk sac tumour makes upi4-20% of all malignant ovarian germ cell neoplasms.These neoplasms usually occur in young girl and women.The median age of presentation is 23 years and one third of patients are premenarchal.Histologically they are associated with schiller duval bodies.Patients with endodermal sinus tumour often presents with abdominal pain and pelvic mass, similar to dysgerminomas - Turnover growth can be very rapid and aggressive.Serum AFP levels are elevated in a significant number of patients.Malignant teratomaImmature teratoma are also called malignant teratomas.They comprise less than l% of ovarian teratomas and are most common in first two decades of life.These neoplasms are typically composed of tissue from three germ layers i.e., ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm arranged in haphazard manner.The clinical presentation is similar to that of other ovarian germ cell neoplasms (incidentally discovered adrenal mass abdominal enlargement of pain).AFP or LDH are elevated in some cases.Serous mucinous cystadenomaSerous and mucinous cystadenomas are among the most common benign ovarian neoplasm.Cystadenomas will not present as solid mass on ultrasound. It would be a cystic mass.They are thin walled, uni-or multiocular and range in size from 5 to over 20 cm.Ovarian epithelial tumours usually present with elevation in CA-125.Markers secreted by germ cell and sex cord-stromal tumors of the ovary AFPhCGLDHE2InhibinTestostAndroDHEAGerm cell tumors Dysgerminoma-+-++-----Embryonal+-++-+-----Immature teratoma+--+-+----+-Choriocarcinoma-++------Endodermal sinus+-+--- -Gonadoblastoma---+-+-+-+-+-Polyembryoma+-+------Mixed germ cell+-+-+------Sex cord-stromal tumors Thecoma-fibroma--------Granulosa cell---+-++- -Sertoli-Leydig+---+-+-+-+-+-AFP: alpha-fetoprotein hCG: human chorionic gonadotrophinLDH: lactate dehydrogenaseE2: estradiolTestost: testosteroneAndro: androstenedioneDHEA: dihydroepiandrostenedione | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Ovary | 17 years old girl with ovarian tumor, USG showed predominant solid component, CA-125-ve, AFP- ve, ALP raised -
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. Malignant teratoma
D. Mucinous cystadenoma
| Dysgerminoma |
f7c281c5-13ba-4c7a-a2f6-bd0d959f1637 | Metacarpophalangeal joint of the ring finger is flexed by the lumbrical, palmar, and dorsal interosseous muscles, which are innervated by the ulnar nerve. Extensor digitorum, innervated by the radial nerve, extends this joint. Musculocutaneous and axillary nerves do not supply muscles of the hand. Median nerve supplies the lateral two lumbricals, which can flex metacarpophalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers. | Anatomy | Nerve supply, Nerve Lesions | A 23-year-old woman who receives a deep cut to her ring finger by a kitchen knife is unable to move the metacarpophalangeal joint. Which of the following pairs of nerves was damaged?
A. Median and ulnar
B. Radial and median
C. Musculocutaneous and ulnar
D. Ulnar and radial
| Ulnar and radial |
45d3545d-603a-4883-827c-cde9b36a4615 | Composition in 1 Litre of Ringer's lactate: Sodium 130 mEq/L Potassium 4 mEq/L Calcium 3.5 mEq/L Chloride 110 mEq/L Lactate 27 mEq/L Ref: Oski's Pediatrics: Principles And Practice By Julia A. McMillan, Ralph David Feigin, 4th edition, Page 64. | Pediatrics | null | A child was given Ringer's lactate due to severe blood loss by a road accident. What is the potassium content of Ringers' lactate in mEq/L?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
| 4 |
19c4c3a4-027b-412f-acd7-67d21a702b07 | Ans: b (Lt. renal vein)Venous drainage of the suprarenals:Left suprarenal vein drains into the Lt. renal veinRt. suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cavaArterial supply.Each gland is supplied by:1) Superior suprarenal artery- Br. of inferior phrenic artery2) Middle suprarenal artery- Br. of abdominal aorta3) Inferior suprarenal artery- Br, of renal artery | Anatomy | Blood Vessels of Abdomen and Pelvis | The left suprarenal vein drains into:
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Lt. renal vein
C. Rt. renal vein
D. Portal vein
| Lt. renal vein |
19ffc703-91e8-4d6e-a401-53dd62c1f112 | Commonest congenital tumour of the conjunctiva - Epibulbar dermoid | Ophthalmology | null | Most common congenital tumour of conjunctiva is
A. Papilloma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Epibulbar dermoid
D. Melanoma
| Epibulbar dermoid |
77dd4439-041f-469b-9561-36b182b31a03 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fluvastatino All statins can be absorbed orally (maximum fluvastatin). Food increases absorption of all drugs except pravastatin. Lovastatin and simvastatin undergo extensive first pass metabolism and are administered as prodrugs.Remembero Statins are the most effective and best tolerated hypolipidemic drugs,o All Statins, except rosuvastatin and pravastatin are metabolized.o Food increases absorption of all statins except pravastatin.o Lovastatin and simvastatin are prodrugs, while pravastatin, fluvastatin, ator\>astatin and rosuvastatin are administered in active form.o Rosuvastatin is the longest acting and most potent statin,o Rosuvastatin causes greater rise in HDL - cholesterol than other statins,o Pravastatin decreases plasma fibrinogen level,o Atorvastatin has additional antioxidant property.o Because HMG-CoA reductase activity is maximum at midnight, all statins are administered at bed time to obtain maximum effectiveness. However, this is not necessary? for atorvastatin and rosuvastatin, which have long plasma t 1/2 .o Statins also have pleotropic effects (antioxidant, antiinflammatory and antiproliferative properties) which are responsible for lowering the risk of athrosclerosis.o Statins are the first choice drugs for primary hyperlipidemias with raised LDL and total CH (Type IIa, lIb, V) as well as for secondary hypercholesterolaemia. | Pharmacology | Hypolipidemic | Maximum oral bioavailability among statins is of which drug -
A. Fluvastatin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Pravastatin
D. Simvastatin
| Fluvastatin |
c7f07a0d-fb59-4cf3-b859-552f020ce5d4 | Ans. A. MorphineManifestations of morphine withdrawalLacrimationAnxiety & fearSweatingRestlessness rYawningGooseflash (Piloerection). | Psychiatry | null | Withdrawal of which of the following causes piloerecton?
A. Morphine
B. Cannabis
C. Smoking
D. Alcohol
| Morphine |
a2c1e82b-6615-42b5-8c9a-da5c952a5f3e | Each semicircular canals has an enlargement at one of its ends called the ampulla, and the ducts and ampulla are filled with a fluid called endolymph. Flow of the fluid through one of the ducts and through its ampulla excites the sensory organs of the ampulla. In each ampulla a small crest called crista ampullaris is present. On top of crista is cupula. Into the cupula are projected hundreds of cilia from hair cells where bending of cupula in one direction causes repolarization of the hair cells, whereas bending it in the opposite direction hyperpolarises the hair cells. Then from the hair cells, appropriate signals are sent by way from the vestibular nerve to apprise the central nervous system of a change in rotation of head and rate of change in each of the three planes of space. REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GUYTON AND HALL, 12e Page no 790, 791. | Physiology | Nervous system | Semi-circular canals are associated with
A. Linear acceleration
B. Angular acceleration
C. Static equlibirium
D. Hearing
| Angular acceleration |
195d05d4-c95f-42af-952c-8336ec85fc1f | Ans: A (|PT); B {Hyperbilirubinemia} & C (| Acute phase reactants) 411]Liver Function Test - Harrison 17th/ 1918"The most commonly used liver ''function" testsQ are measurements of serum bilirubin, albumin, and prothrombin timeQ. The serum bilirubin level is a measure of hepatic conjugation and excretion, and the serum albumin level and prothrombin time are measures of protein synthesis. Abnormalities of bilirubin, albumin, and prothrombin time are typical of hepatic dysfunctionQ"The aminotransferases (transaminases) are sensitive indicators of liver cell injury and are most helpful in recognizing acute hepatocellular diseases such as hepatitis. They include the aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and the alanine aminotransferase (ALT)-.Serum prothrombin time, collectively measures factors II, V, VII, and XQKupffer cells usually lie within the sinusoidal vascular space and represent the largest group of fixed macrophages'3 in the bodLiver abnormalities are diagnosed by assessing prothrombin time (PT *), direct & total serum bilirubin (hyperbilirubinemia), albumin, and levels of acute phase reactants (serum alanine & aspartate aminotransferase = ALT & AST)(r)Principal Function of Liver Ganona 22nd / 501Formation and secretion of bileQNutrient and vitamin metabolismQGlucose and other sugarsQAmino acidsLipids: Fatty acids, cholesterol, LipoproteinsFat soluble vitaminsWater soluble vitaminsInactivitation of various substancesToxinsQSteroidsOther hormonsesSynthesis of plasma proteins:Acute phase reactantsQAlbuminQClotting factors (e.g. II, VII, IX, X)QImmunity : Kupffer cells(r) | Physiology | Liver and Gall Bladder | Abnormalities in synthetic function of liver results in: (PGI Dec 2006)
A. |PT
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. |Acute phase reactant
D. Disturbance in Kupffer cells
| |PT |
93d4dd2f-3598-4c55-9d21-0cd40429e833 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Against concentration gradient* Transport across a cell membrane is divided into passive or active, based on whether it is along the concentration gradient or against the concentration gradient.1) Passive transport# It is in the direction of concentration gradient i.e., "Downhill movement"# Does not require energy expenditure# Example are : -i) Without carriers : - Simple diffusion, osmosisii) Through carrier: - Facilitated diffusion2) Active transport# It is against the direction of concentration gradient, i.e., "Uphill movement".# Energy (e.g., ATP) is required# Carrier protein is required# Examples are primary active transport and secondary active transport. | Physiology | General | Active method of transport is-
A. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Along concentration gradient
D. Against concentration gradient
| Against concentration gradient |
845fd308-5ff8-4d4b-a61e-b6b081a9756d | Functional dissection is modified radical neck dissection (MRND Type III ) Modified radical neck dissection is done only selected cases where tumor is very well differentiated and less aggressive like in papillary carcinoma of thyroid with lymph node secondaries . Structures preserved here are sternomastoid muscle , internal jugular vein and spinal accessory nerve . Ref - Srb's manual of surgery 5/e p450 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Structures preserved in functional radical dissection of the neck -a) Int. jugular veinb) Sternomastoidc) Lymph nodesd) Accessory nerve
A. abc
B. bcd
C. abd
D. acd
| abd |
94c3e97b-c88c-4c4b-8941-e0cf47d25ea2 | Traction epiphysis are usually present at the end if bones and develop due to traction by the attached muscle (and are therefore extracapsular), eg Greater (and lesser) tubercle in humerus and greater ( and lesser) trochanter in femur Ref: Gray's39e/p185-210 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Traction epiphysis is are
A. Head of humerus
B. Lesser tubercle
C. Deltoid tuberosity
D. Ciracoid process
| Lesser tubercle |
aa1e5ee8-1bbd-40ba-8f78-d30088285f20 | In the average young adult male, 18% of the body weight is protein and related substances, 7% is mineral, and 15% is fat. The remaining 60% is water.(REF: GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY 23rd EDITION page no.2) | Physiology | General physiology | Total body water is
A. 40% of body weight
B. 20% of body weight
C. 10% of body weight
D. 60% of body weight
| 60% of body weight |
28f48704-8184-4283-bcf2-a0f8bc58f411 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Peripheral blood CD4 + Tcell counts with Plasma levels of HIV RNA Laboratory monitoring in HIV infection* The epidemic of HIV infection and AIDS has provided the clinician with new challenges for integrating clinical and laboratory data to effect optimal patient management.* The close relationship between clinical manifestations of HIV infection and CD4+ T cell count has made measurement of CD4+ T cell numbers a routine part of the evaluation of HIV-infected individuals.* The discovery of HIV as the cause of AIDS led to the development of sensitive tests that allow one to monitor the levels of HIV in the blood.* Determinations of peripheral blood CD4+ T cell counts and measurements of the plasma levels of HIV RNA plasma provide a powerful set of tools for determining prognosis and monitoring response to therapy. | Medicine | Infection | Best parameter for monitoring HIV disease progression is -
A. Peripheral blood CD4 + Tcell counts
B. Plasma levels of HIV RNA
C. Peripheral blood CD4 + Tcell counts with Plasma levels of HIV RNA
D. Peripheral blood CD4 + T cell counts or Plasma levels of HIV RNA
| Peripheral blood CD4 + Tcell counts with Plasma levels of HIV RNA |
45d22f08-bc46-4f15-b85a-34147cf674bd | - Among the given options, only diclofenac sodium is acidic and remains unionized in the acidic medium of the stomach. Other drugs are basic in nature. So diclofenac has higher chances of getting absorbed from gastric mucosa. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs has maximum chances of absorption from gastric mucosa ?
A. Morphine sulfate
B. Diclofenac sodium
C. Hyoscine hydrobromide
D. Quinine dihydrochloride
| Diclofenac sodium |
d9137c27-502e-4c77-bbe7-05b59358d32d | Warfarin is an anticoagulant drug.
Action : Interferes with the synthesis of the vitamin K dependent factors like II, VII, IX and X.
Side effects:
Hemorrhage
It leads to:
– Contradi’s syndrome : skeletal and facial anomalies in the fetus
– Chondrodysplasia punctata in the fetus.
Miscarriage, IUGR and stillbirths accentuates neonatal hypothrombinemia. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A pregnant mother is treated with oral anticoagulant.The likely congenital malformation that may result in the fetus is:
A. Long bones limb defect
B. Cranial malformation
C. Cardiovascular malformation
D. Chondrodysplasia Punctata
| Chondrodysplasia Punctata |
c4281d72-8bbd-485d-af93-08602ecfa4f1 | Pain is the second major side effect leading to IUCD removal WHO estimates that 15-40 percent of the IUCD removal appears to be for pain only Pain may be experienced during the inseion and for a few days thereafter and during menstruation Reference: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, Page no: 498 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | The most common side effect of IUCD which requires its removal
A. Bleeding
B. Pain
C. Pelvic infection
D. Ectopic pregnancy
| Pain |
3ab7240a-cab6-4113-882f-2c10e1c4d79c | Lysosomes are spherical vesicles enveloped by a single membrane.
Lysosomes are regarded as the digestive tract of the cell, since they are actively involved in digestion of cellular substances-namely proteins, lipids, carbohydrates and nucleic acids.
Lysosomal enzymes are categorized as hydrolases.
The lysosomal enzymes are responsible for maintaining the cellular compounds in a dynamic state, by their degradation and recycling.
The degraded products leave the lysosomes usually by diffusion, for reutilization by the cell.
Sometimes, however, certain residual products, rich in lipids and proteins, collectively known as Iipofuscin accumulate in the cell.
Lipofuscin is the age pigment or wear and tear pigment which has been implicated in aging process.
Key Concept:
Lysosomes are regarded as the digestive tract of the cell, since they are actively involved in digestion of cellular substances-namely proteins, lipids, carbohydrates and nucleic acids.
Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry, Satyanarayana | Biochemistry | null | Which of these organelles functions as the digestive system of the cell?
A. Mitochondria
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosomes
| Lysosomes |
bf51daea-1ea4-4089-8ff3-249806e9a60b | Workers of the furniture industry( woodworkers) develop a demo carcinoma of the ethmoids and the nasal cavity, while those engaged in nickel refining get squamous cell anaplastic carcinoma. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 231) | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Adenocarcinoma of ethmoid sinus occurs commonly in?
A. Fire workers
B. Chimney workers
C. Watch markers
D. Wood workers
| Wood workers |
0fbcc627-0d7e-4768-a266-99e0f337062f | ref Robbins 9/e p97-78 a granuloma is an organized collection of macrophages. In medical practice, doctors occasionally use the term "granuloma" in its more literal meaning: "a small nodule". Since a small nodule can represent anything from a harmless nevus to a malignant tumor, this usage of the term is not very specific. Examples of this use of the term granuloma are the lesions known as vocal cord granuloma (known as contact granuloma), pyogenic granuloma and intubation granuloma, all of which are examples of granulation tissue, not granulomas. "Pulmonary hyalinizing granuloma" is a lesion characterized by keloid-like fibrosis in the lung, and is not granulomatous. Similarly, radiologists often use the term granuloma when they see a calcified nodule on X-ray or CT scan of the chest. They make this assumption since granulomas usually contain calcium, although the cells that form a granuloma are too tiny to be seen by a radiologist. The most accurate use of the term "granuloma" requires a pathologist to examine surgically removed and specially colored (stained) tissue under a microscope. Histiocytes (specifically macrophages) are the cells that define a granuloma. They often, but not invariably, fuse to form multinucleated giant cells (Langhans giant cell). The macrophages in granulomas are often referred to as "epithelioid". This term refers to the vague resemblance of these macrophages to epithelial cells. Epithelioid macrophages differ from ordinary macrophages in that they have elongated nuclei that often resemble the sole of a slipper or shoe. They also have larger nuclei than ordinary macrophages and their cytoplasm is typically more pink when stained with eosin. These changes are thought to be a consequence of "activation" of the macrophage by the offending antigen. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following is most characteristics of granuloma
A. Epitheliod cell
B. Giant cells
C. Fibroblast
D. Endothelial cells
| Epitheliod cell |
c4360457-00d9-49ec-8b76-c2e608bf91d4 | Deciduous teeth, commonly known as milk teeth, baby teeth, temporary teeth, and primary teeth, are the first set of teeth in the growth development of humans and other diphyodont mammals. They develop during the embryonic stage of development and erupt--that is, they become visible in the mouth--during infancy. they are 20 in number . Babies&; teeth begin to develop before they are born, but in most cases don&;t come through until they&;re between 6 and 12 months old. Most children have a full set of 20 milk or baby teethby the time they&;re 3 years old. When they reach 5 or 6, these teeth will sta to fall out, making way for adult teeth. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th | Pediatrics | Growth and development | Milk teeth - Total no. in human being __________
A. 20
B. 28
C. 32
D. 24
| 20 |
68400187-3eda-4f3e-8bf1-0ecebfcf57bb | Ans: a (Rota vims) Ref: Nelson, 18th ed, p. 1399; 17th ed, p. 1081; OP Ghai, 6th ed, p. 270In early childhood, the single most important cause of severe dehydrating diarrhoea is rota virus infection.Important pathogens of human viral gastroenteritis* Rota vims\* Adenovirus* Astro vims* Calci vims such as Norwalk agentSerotyping of rota virus depends on the outer capsid glycoproteins VP7 and VP4Most important adverse event of rota virus vaccine is intussusception among the recipients of the vaccine usually occurring during the 1st week after immunization and usually after lst dose, due to this the use of this vaccine is banned. (PGI 2007 december) | Pediatrics | Infection | Organism commonly causing diarrhoea in young children is:
A. Rotavirus
B. Calci virus
C. E. coli
D. Staphylococcus
| Rotavirus |
719daae5-31ca-4dda-8346-966e8f698650 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Brachiradialis Cubital fossaLateral boundryBrachioradialisMedial boundryPronater teresBaseLine joining the two epicondyles of humerusApexPoint joining lateral and medial boundriesFloorBrachialis, supinatorRoofSkin, superficial fascia (containing medial cubital vein, lateral and medial cutaneous nerve of forearm), deep facia, bicipital aponeourosisCONTENTS* Median nerve* Brachial artery termination and begining of radial and ulnar arteries.* Biceps tendon* Radial nerve and* Radial collateral artery | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | Lateral border of the cubital fossa is -
A. Brachiradialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Flexor Carpi Radialis
D. Triceps
| Brachiradialis |
8ee4f02b-6692-40dc-8e30-f789d351771c | Microscopic polyangiitis involves small vessels, typically capillaries. Kidneys and lungs are commonly involved, but many organs can be affected. There may be an underlying immune disease, chronic infection, or drug reaction. Giant cell arteritis typically involves arterial branches of the external carotid, most often the temporal artery. Micro abscesses may be present with an infectious process, or with thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease), which typically involves lower extremities. Mycotic aneurysms occur when a focus of infection, often from a septic embolus, weakens an arterial wall so that it bulges out. Perivascular eosinophilic infiltrates may be seen with Churg-Strauss syndrome, which typically involves the lungs. | Pathology | Blood Vessels | A 50-year-old man with muscle pain and fever for a month now notes darker colored urine for the past 2 weeks. On physical examination, he has palpable purpuric lesions of his skin. Urinalysis shows hematuria and proteinuria. Serum laboratory findings include mixed cryoglobulinemia with a polyclonal increase in IgG, as well as a high titer of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies, mainly antimyeloperoxidase (MPO-ANCA, or P-ANCA. A skin biopsy is performed. What pathologic finding is most likely to be observed in this biopsy?
A. Giant cells and macrophages
B. Medial fibrinoid necrosis
C. Micro abscesses
D. Mycotic aneurysms
| Medial fibrinoid necrosis |
36531a23-c4c7-4451-a594-eb2658196f9d | Ans. B Thyroida. Iodine Trapping (Iodine pump)b. Iodide uptake is a critical first step in the thyroid hormone synthesis by the thyroid.c. Iodide uptake from circulation, is mediated by Na+/I- symporter (NIS), which is expressed at the basolateral membrane of the thyroid follicular cells. It is an example of secondary active transport.d. The rate of iodide trapping by the thyroid is influenced by several factors, the most important being the cone of TSH (i.e. TSH stimuliltes iodide uptake)e. Low Level of NIS are also present in the salivary glands, lactating breast and placenta.f. "The salivary glands, the gastric mucosa, the placenta, the ciliary body of the eye, the choroid plexus. And the mammary glands also transport iodide against a concentration gradient but their uptake is notg. affected by TSH. Diiodotyrosine is formed in mammary tissues but T4 and T3 are not".h. Low Iodine levels increase the amount of NSI and stimulate uptake, whereas high iodine levels suppress NIS expression and uptake.i. Excess iodide transiently inhibits thyroid iodide organification, a phenomenon known as theWOLFF-CHAIKOFF-EFFECT.Another iodide transporter, PENDRIN, is located on the apical surface of thyroid cells and mediates iodine EFFLUX into the lumen. Mutation of the PENDRIN gene causes Pendred syndrome , a disorder C/B a. defective organification of iodide b. goiter, and c. SN deafness. | Physiology | Thyroid | Iodine uptake is seen in the following organs
A. Ovary
B. Thyroid
C. Parathyroid
D. Adrenal gland
| Thyroid |
4ceab553-5d8d-4938-9c22-b2cd639b973a | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clofazimine Acquired ichthyosis (Ichthyosis acouista)o Acquired ichthyosis is seen in : -Deficiency:- Protein, Vitamin A, Kwashiorkor, Marasmus.Infection:- Leprosy, AIDSSenile ichthyosis: -ElderlySystemic diseases: -SLE, DM, hypothyroidism, Sarcoidosis, liver & kidney diseases.Malignancy, especially: -Hodgkin's lymphoma.Drugs Clofazimine, :-Statins, triparanol. | Unknown | null | Anti leprosy drug causing ichthyoses is -
A. Dapsone
B. Clofazimine
C. Rifampicin
D. Clarithromycin
| Clofazimine |
e36c2f5c-d8ce-4d31-b396-0e1dc6cceae1 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Enlargement of testes In girls, the first visible sign of pubey is the appearance of breast buds (Thelarche), between 8-12 years of age. In boys the first visible sign of pubey is testicular enlargement, beginning as early as 91/2 yr. | Pediatrics | null | Sign of pubey in boys ?
A. Enlargement of penis
B. Enlargement of testes
C. Appearance of pubic hair
D. Appearance of axillary hair
| Enlargement of testes |
e2ddb92d-26ca-469a-884d-b11c5642876e | Ans: B. Volume 1.5 mL, count 15 million, morphology 4% progressive motility 32% (Ref Dutta 6/e p222)According to 2010 WHO criteria:Characteristics of normal semen analysis:Semen CharacteristicsWHO 1999WHO 2010Volume (ml)Greater or equal to 2 mlGreater or equal to 1.5 mlSperm countGreater or equal to 20 Greater or equal to 15 million/mlTotal sperm countGreater or equal to 40 million per ejaculateGreater or equal to 39 million per ejaculateTotal motilityGreater or equal to 50%Greater or equal to 40%Progressive motilityGreater or equal to 25%Greater or equal to 32%VitalityGreater or equal to 75%Greater or equal to 58%Morphology (Normal form)14%Greater or equal to 4%Leukocyte count (104/m1)<1<1 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | According to the 2010 WHO criteria what are the characteristics of normal semen analysis?
A. Volume 2.0 mL, count 20 million, morphology 4% progressive motility 32%
B. Volume 1.5 mL, count 15 million, morphology 4% progressive motility 32%
C. Volume 2.0 mL, count 15 million, morphology 40% progressive motility 32%
D. Volume 1.5 mL. count 20 million, morphology 4% progressive motility 32%
| Volume 1.5 mL, count 15 million, morphology 4% progressive motility 32% |
08b0d350-bf40-4796-9163-9400c7cfba31 | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1573-1574 Cardiac tamponade should be suspected in any patient who has a rapid down hill course and exhibits the features of rising venous pressure and falling aerial pressure following blunt trauma to the chest. | Medicine | C.V.S | A patient with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 and pulse rate of 100 following blunt trauma to the chest . Diagnosis of
A. Pneumothorax
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Hemothorax
| Cardiac tamponade |
d03e79f5-229e-4838-be0c-9fbbd4b466c6 | Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization - Specific protection Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP (post polio residual paralysis) - Rehabilitation Resting affected limbs in neutral position - Disability limitation Providing calipers for walking - Rehabilitation Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive medicine | Social & Preventive Medicine | All India exam | Which of the following is an example of disability limitation
A. Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
B. Resting affected limbs in neutral position
C. Providing calipers for walking
D. Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP (post polio residual paralysis)
| Resting affected limbs in neutral position |
0caca1fd-8eda-4e98-ba1c-da9c9ef23a22 | MR-Angiography of the neck (carotid and veebral aeries):1,Brachiocephalic trunk (or innominate aery).2,Right subclan aery.3,Right veebral aery.4,Right common carotid aery.5,Right internal carotid aery.6,Left veebral aery.7,Left internal carotid aery.8,Left external carotid aery.9,Left common carotid aery.10,Left subclan aery.11,Aoa. Condition above described is characteristic of WALLENBERG SYNDROME which occur due to involvement of intracranial segment of veebral aery. | Radiology | Angiography | A 54 Old man diabetic hypeensive was brought to NIMHANS OPD with history of loss of sensation on left side of upper body, loss of facial sensation on right side. O/E there was constricted pupil, paial ptosis, anhydrosis , gait ataxia nystagmus was present on right side. which is the common aery involvement can lead to this condition?
A. 9
B. 3
C. 11
D. 12
| 3 |
ba40d64a-536e-461f-912b-4a4e6bba2011 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Propranolol o Methyldopa is useful in the treatment of mild to moderately severe hypeension. It lowers blood pressure chiefly by reducing peripheral vascular resistance, with a variable reduction in hea rate and cardiac output. o Prazosin and nitroprusside are vasodilators and produce reflex tachycardia instead of causing bradycardia. o Propranolol is a non selective beta blocker and acts mainly by decreasing hea rate. | Pharmacology | null | Reduces blood pressure primarily by directly decreasing hea rate alone -
A. Propranolol
B. Prazosin
C. Alpha methyl dopa
D. Nitroprusside sodium
| Propranolol |
f9d95fe1-86f5-4bb4-ba55-f16176001c7d | Oxacillin is classified as a penicillinase-resistant penicillin that is relatively acid-stable and, therefore, is useful for oral administration. Major adverse reactions include penicillin hypersensitivity and interstitial nephritis. With the exception of methicillin, which is 35% bound to serum proteins, all penicillinase-resistant penicillins are highly bound to plasma proteins. Oxacillin has a very narrow spectrum and is used primarily as an antistaphylococcal agent. | Surgery | null | A 65-year-old male from bihar with a pneumonia has a sputum culture that is positive for a staphylococcal strain that is b-lactamase- positive. Which is the best choice of penicillin therapy in this patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Oxacillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Penicillin G
| Oxacillin |
92e77e09-9050-4828-9c00-1698589ec643 | Ans. B: Magistrate Sec 304-B IPC (Dowry death): where the death of the woman is accused by any burn/bodily injury or occurs otherwise than under normal circumstances within seven years of her marriage and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to cruelty by her husband/relative in connection with demand of dowry shall be considered as dowry death In dowry deaths inquest should be carried out by a magistrate or police officer not below the rank of deputy superintendent of police. | Forensic Medicine | null | Inquest of Dowry death is done by: September 2009
A. Police
B. Magistrate
C. Coroner
D. Medical examiner
| Magistrate |
cbb0511a-dc46-415d-bfb9-d076f4a45fd3 | In Freud's structural theory, the mind is divided into the Id, Ego, and Superego The id operates completely on an unconscious level, and is the most primitive pa .It works on pleasure principle While the ego and superego operate paly on an unconscious and paly on preconscious and conscious levels. Ego is based on reality principle and super ego is based on moral principle. | Psychiatry | Psychoanalysis | Which of the following structures of the mind work on an unconscious level?
A. The id only
B. The id and the ego only
C. The id, ego, and superego
D. The ego and superego only
| The id, ego, and superego |
7887f8ef-daa4-4a2b-97e9-b2d6280fd0e7 | Actinic Keratosis & Bowen's disease are premalignant lesions of squamous cell carcinoma. | Dental | null | Which of the following is a premalignant lesion of squamous cell carcinoma?
A. Dermatofibroma
B. Granuloma annulare
C. Actinic keratosis
D. Behcet's disease
| Actinic keratosis |
d9fa6f07-9545-418e-9ca3-298503bee865 | Michaelis-Gutmann bodies (M-G bodies) M-G bodies are concentrically layered basophilic inclusions found in the urinary tract. They are 2 to 10 mm in diameter, and are thought to represent remnants of phagosomes mineralized by iron and calcium deposits. M-G bodies are a pathognomonic feature of malakoplakia, a distinctive chronic inflammatory reaction that affects the genitourinary tract. | Pathology | Miscellaneous | Michaelis-Gutmann bodiesare found in:
A. Malakoplakia
B. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
C. Nail patella syndrome
D. APKD
| Malakoplakia |
49a05ad5-f43b-4d82-b796-79b0eea384a3 | Answer: b) Effect of treatment and early detection( style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">)Tumor markers* Just an adjunct to diagnosis, and establishing a diagnosis on the basis of tumor markers alone (especially a single result) is associated with pitfalls because of the problem of non-specificity.* Clinical uses can be broadly classified into 4 groups: screening and early detection, diagnostic confirmation, prognosis and prediction of therapeutic response and monitoring disease and recurrence.* Serum levels, in certain situations, can be used in staging, prognostication or prediction of response to therapy.* Monitoring disease is, perhaps, the most common clinical use of serum tumor markers.* Rising trend in serum levels may detect recurrence of disease well before any clinical or radiological evidence of disease is apparent ("biochemical recurrence"). | Pathology | Neoplasia | Most successful application of tumor markers
A. Screening in asymptomatic periodicity
B. Effect of treatment and early detection
C. Differentiating benign from malignant
D. Staging the extent of disease
| Effect of treatment and early detection |
d2f15913-5875-44df-8e1c-4e4d9b96c969 | Ans. D. Borderline personality disorderMentalization-based treatment: psychotherapy for borderline personality disorder is called mentalization-based therapy (MBT). Mentalization is a social construct that allows a person to be attentive to the mental states of oneself and of others; it comes from a person's awareness of mental processes and subjective states that arise in interpersonal interactions. MBT is based on a theory that borderline personality symptoms, such as difficulty regulating emotions and managing impulsivity, are a result of patients' reduced capacities to mentalize. Thus, it is believed that recovery of mentalization helps patients build relationship skills as they learn to better regulate their thoughts and feelings. MBT was found to be effective for borderline personality disorder in several randomized, controlled research trials. | Psychiatry | Personality Disorders | In which of the following Mentalisation based therapy is used?
A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Obsessive compulsive personality disorder
C. Avoidant personality disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder
| Borderline personality disorder |
ae6a8d72-5242-437f-94d2-a45acb1dd296 | The above given history is suggestive of molar pregnancy as: women have uterine growth that is more rapid than expected.(uterine size>POG) excessive nausea and vomiting are significant. on USG, snowstorm /honeycomb appearance is seen in molar pregnancy Gestational hypeension is characterized by hypeension after 20 weeks of pregnancy. Poly Hydramnios does not present at 12 weeks APH is Bleeding in the genital tract after 28 weeks | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Obstetrics | A 35-year old lady G4 P3 presents to the emergency dept. with amenorrhea of 12 weeks with excessive vomiting and bleeding per vaginum. On examination her pulse is 90/min., BP is 150/110 mm Hg, on PA examination uterus is of 20 wks size. Your most possible diagnosis is:-
A. Gestational hypeension
B. Molar pregnancy
C. Poly-Hydramnios
D. Antepaum hemorrhage
| Molar pregnancy |
6c36cef4-fde7-41c9-8412-c9ad468514a7 | Ans. (d) ThalassemiaSevere transfusion requiring anemia and Jaundice with smear showing Anisopoikilocytosis and targets on smear suggests Thalassemia. | Pathology | Misc. (R.B.C) | 5-year old male child presented to AIIMS pediatrics OPD with severe transfusion requiring anemia and Jaundice. On examination Liver and spleen were palpable 5 cm below the costal margin. Peripheral smear analysis showed the following? What is your diagnosis?
A. Nutritional anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D. Thalassemia
| Thalassemia |
94fac3b2-4abf-470f-b241-45020ac5bda3 | Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted into the alveolar space by epithelial type II cells. The main function of surfactant is to lower the surface tension at the air/liquid interface within the alveoli of the lung. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 317,318,319 | Physiology | Respiratory system | Alveoli are kept dry because of
A. Surfactants
B. Glycorprotiens
C. Buffers Bohr's
D. Effect
| Surfactants |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.