id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
80a90539-0106-47e9-ba11-ea762544e24e | <p>DERMATITIS HERPETIFORMIS Chronic intensely pruritic vesiculobullous disorder. Site- extremities and trunk Clinical features:- Intense episodic pruritus. Skin lesions- erythematous papules which rapidly turn into tiny firm grouped vesicles Vesicle rupture and crusted excoriated lesions seen. Disease worsens on dietary intake of gluten namely wheat barley and rye. Gluten sensitive enteropathy occurs in almost DH Cases. Usually it is asymptomatic, some show symptoms of malabsorption. So Gluten free diet is essential for DH Patients. {Reference: IADVL textbook of dermatology, vishalakshi Vishwanath pg no.285}</p> | Dental | Vestibulobullous disorders | Gluten free diet is beneficial in -
A. Psoriasis
B. Exfoliative dermatitis
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
D. Pemphigoid
| Dermatitis herpetiformis |
71898ce8-8d79-41c6-a7a2-0ee20e954744 | The dark zone
This lies adjacent and superficial to the translucent zone. It has been referred to as the ‘positive zone’ because it is usually present. This zone is formed as a result of demineralization and appears dark brown in ground sections examined by transmitted light after imbibition with quinolone. | Pathology | null | Positive zone of enamel caries is the:
A. Translucent zone
B. Dark zone
C. Body of the lesion
D. Surface zone
| Dark zone |
e24c14a9-8ccc-433c-a75e-6137accfc9b9 | The Jacobson nerve, tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) directly innervates the ear but also has pharyngeal, lingual, and tonsillar branches to supply the posterior one-third poion of the tongue, tonsillar fossa, pharynx, eustachian tube, and parapharyngeal and retropharyngeal spaces. So any pathology involving those areas can lead to referred otalgia. Must know: Referred Otalgia: the source of the pain does not reside within the ear but, rather it originates from a source distant from the ear hence it is called as "referred otalgia". Any pathology residing within the sensory net of cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X and upper cervical nerves C2 and C3 can potentially cause referred otalgia. | Anatomy | null | Referred otalgia from base of tongue or oropharynx is carried by nerve?
A. Cranial nerve V
B. Cranial nerve VII
C. Cranial nerve IX
D. Cranial nerve X
| Cranial nerve IX |
8e529e14-0d39-4b0f-a852-b7ea8051f42d | All intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve except palatoglossus which is supplied by cranial accessory nerve. | Anatomy | null | Palatoglossus is supplied by:
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Cranial accessory nerve
D. Mandibular nerve
| Cranial accessory nerve |
267c2917-6ae6-4833-bd21-00bf62b9821d | Dietary glucose is the major source of carbon for synthesizing fatty acids in humans. In a high-carbohydrate diet, excess carbohydrates are converted to fat (fatty acids and glycerol) in the liver, packaged as VLDL, and sent into the circulation for storage in the fat cells. The new diet has reduced dietary lipids, which lower chylomicron levels, but the excess carbohydrate in the diet is leading to increased VLDL synthesis and elevated triglyceride levels. Dietary amino acids are usually incorporated into proteins, particularly in a low-protein diet. | Biochemistry | Lipids | An individual has been determined to have hypertriglyceridemia, with a triglyceride level of 350 mg/dL (normal is <150 mg/dL). The patient decides to reduce this level by keeping his caloric intake the same, but switching to a low-fat, low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. Three months later, after sticking faithfully to his diet, his triglyceride level was 375 mg/dL. This increase in lipid content is being caused by which component of his new diet?
A. Phospholipids
B. Triglycerides
C. Amino acids
D. Carbohydrates
| Carbohydrates |
82681966-9c0f-4ac1-be68-c4c4d2926f21 | 200 mg REF: Textbook Of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology: Principles and Practice by Vij page 695 Fatal dose of cyanide: HCN gas - 100-200 ppm in air HCN liquid- 50-60 mg KCN, NaCN- 150-300 mg (200 mg as per Parikh) | Forensic Medicine | null | Fatal close of potassium cyanide is?
A. 5 mg
B. 10 mg
C. 20 mg
D. 200 mg
| 200 mg |
79e75dc7-5762-4840-8820-ec4efad4ac45 | Unicornuate uterus is seen in 1% cases; Due to failure of development of one mullerian duct or failure of migration to proper location Most commonly associated with abnormality of urinary tract anomaly usually of kidney It is diagnosed by absence of round ligament and fallopian tube on the opposite side Associated with Endometriosis, Early spontaneous aboions, Ectopic pregnancy, Preterm labour and Fetal growth resriction SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,PG NO:99,15th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Congenital malformations | Most common uterine malformation associated with renal anomalies
A. Bicornuate
B. Unicornuate
C. Septate
D. Didelphys
| Unicornuate |
545c4712-e2ad-4373-8478-3f262744a31a | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hereditary spherocytosis Hereditary spherocytosis is an autosomal dominant disorder. o Other three disorders (given in question) are autosomal recessive. | Pathology | null | Following is transmitted as autosomal dominant disorder-
A. Albinism
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. Glycogen storage disease
| Hereditary spherocytosis |
36d42cd9-f435-481b-9b1b-95b242100816 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increase in cell size Hyperophy o Hyperophy refers to an increase in the size of cells without increase in the number, resulting in an increase in the size of tissue. o Hyperophy involves cell enlargement without cell division. o So, hyperophied organ has just larger cells, but no new cells (by contrast, in hyperplasia there is increase in number of new cells without increase in size). o Nuclei in hyperophied cells have a higher DNA content than in normal cells because the cells arrest in the cell cycle without undergoing mitosis. o Myocardium (hea muscle) and skeletal muscle undergo hyperophy. o The most common stimulus for hyperophy is increased workload. Mechanism of hyperophy o The increase in cell size is due to synthesis of more structural proteins. o The genes that are induced during hyperophy include those encoding transcription factors (C-fos, C-jun), growth factors (TGF-(3, TGF- 1, FGF); and vasoactive agents (a-agonists, endothelin-1, angiotensin II). o There may also be a switch of contractile proteins from adult to fetal or neonatal forms, e.g., during myocardial hyperophy, the a-myosin heavy chain is replaced by 13-form of the myosin heavy chain, which leads to decrease myosine ATPase activity and a slower, more energetically economical contraction. o In addition, some genes that are expressed only in embryonic life are re-expressed in hyperophied myocardium, e.g., in the embryonic hea, the gene for Atrial natriuratic peptide (ANP) is expressed in both atrium and ventricle. After bih, ventricular regulation of the gene is down regulated. Myocardial hyperophy is associated with reinduction of ANF gene expression. ANP induces salt excretion by kidney L blood volume & pressure, decrease work load. Why do these changes occur ? o As already explained, the most common stimulus for myocardial hyperophy is increased workload. o All the above morphological changes that occur in hyperophy either increase muscle activity (to handle the increased workload) or decrease the workload to hea. | Pathology | null | Hyperophy is -
A. Increase in cell number
B. Increase in cell size
C. Decrease in cell number
D. Decrease in cell size
| Decrease in cell number |
5c529861-7adb-496d-83dd-6187bb2369a2 | Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita: Direct immunofluorescence shows, linear IgG, Ig A, Ig M at the basement-membrane zone with diagnostic U-serrated pattern. Patients' skin split through the lamina lucida with 1 mol/L salt demonstrates the IgG antibodies to be bound to the dermal aspect of the blister. N serrated pattern is seen in bullous pemphigoid. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, 8th edition, Pg 40.53. | Skin | null | U-serrated pattern in direct immunofluorescence is seen in:
A. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Linear IgA disease
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
| Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita |
5fe906fe-b644-439c-8113-28470ccbe593 | Maturation Disorders: The presence of anemia with an inappropriately low reticulocyte production index, macro- or microcytosis on smear, and abnormal red cell indices suggests a maturation disorder. Maturation disorders are divided into two categories: nuclear maturation defects, associated with macrocytosis, and cytoplasmic maturation defects, associated with microcytosis and hypochromia usually from defects in hemoglobin synthesis.Nuclear maturation defects result from vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency, drug damage, or myelodysplasia. Cytoplasmic maturation defects result from a severe iron deficiency or abnormalities in globin or heme synthesis.Acquired abnormalities are usually associated with myelodysplasia, may lead to either a macro- or microcytic anemia, and are frequently associated with mitochondrial iron loading. In these cases, iron is taken up by the mitochondria of the developing erythroid cell but not incorporated into heme. The iron-encrusted mitochondria surround the nucleus of the erythroid cell, forming a ring. Based on the distinctive finding of so-called ringed sideroblasts on the marrow iron stain, patients are diagnosed as having a sideroblastic anemia--almost always reflecting myelodysplasia.Ceain medications, such as isoniazid, L-dopa, penicillamine, and cycloserine, interact with PLP due to a reaction with carbonyl groups. Pyridoxine should be given concurrently with isoniazid to avoid neuropathy. Vitamin B6 dependency syndromes that require pharmacologic doses of vitamin B6 arerare; they include cystathionine b-synthase deficiency, pyridoxine-responsive (primarily sideroblastic) anemias, and gyrate atrophy with chorioretinal degeneration due to decreased activity of the mitochondrial enzyme ornithine aminotransferase. In these situations, 100-200 mg/d of oral vitamin B6 is required for treatment.Ref: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 77 Anemia and Polycythemia; Page no: 398 | Medicine | C.V.S | Which of the following does not cause sideroblastic anemia?
A. INH
B. L-DOPA
C. Myelodysplastic anemia
D. Mercury
| Mercury |
4d230a88-42cb-498f-bae2-1699a666e077 | Middle meatus: Uncinate process is a hook-like structure running in from anterosuperior to the posteroinferior direction in the middle meatus. It&;s postero superior border is sharp and runs parallel to the anterior border of bulla ethmoidalis. This gap between the two is called hiatus semilunaris .it is two-dimensional space of 1-2 mm width. (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat and head and neck surgery, Dhingra 7th edition, Pg no. 150) | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Hiatus semilunaris is present in
A. superior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Inferior meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
| Middle meatus |
1b80901d-e414-4d7b-9994-ba7f897d57ea | Loss of central vision with a normal ERG and EOG is consistent with a diagnosis of Stargardt's disease. Stargardt's disease is an autosomal recessive disorder and hence a negative family history is not uncommon. | Ophthalmology | null | A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. There is no obvious family history. ERG and EOG were observed to be normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Stargardt's disease
B. Best's Vitelliform Dystrophy
C. Retinitis Pigmentosa
D. Cone- Rod Dystrophy
| Stargardt's disease |
ba0c40ce-8b17-44a4-ac1d-deaec180a2d1 | Schiotz tonometer is commonly used to measure IOP, it measures the depth of corneal indentation by the plunger while tonometer is loaded with a given weight. Before placing the plunger barrel of a tonometer on the cornea, 4% xylocaine is used to anaesthetise the cornea. Tonometry is the method of estimation of intraocular pressure. Applanation tonometry records the force necessary to flatten the cornea. It is based on the principle which states that the flattening of a sphere made by counter pressure is equal to hydraulic pressure inside the eyeball. Ref: Comprehensive Manual of Ophthalmology By Ahmed E page 116. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following strength of xylocaine is used as topical anaesthetic for tonometry?
A. 4% xylocaine
B. 3% xylocaine
C. 2% xylocaine
D. 1% xylocaine
| 4% xylocaine |
9db71381-35df-4364-a53a-0f5c862e59c1 | Cupping and fraying of metaphysis of long bones does not occur in lead poisoning. In lead poisoning bone changes become radiologically evident 3 months after chronic lead poisoning. Changes include dense metaphyseal bands exceeding coical density of same bone, found in growing skeleton. Interference with normal modeling may result in splaying of the metaphysis resulting in Erlenmeyer flask deformity. Ref: Bone and Joint Disorders By Francis A. Burgener, Mati Kormano, Tomi Pudas, 2nd Edition, Pages 316, 332; Radiology Review Manual By Wolfgang Dahne, 7th Edition, Page 159; Pediatric Endocrine Disorders By Desai, Meena P, Page 73. | Radiology | null | Which one of the following condition is not associated with cupping and fraying of metaphyses of long bones in children?
A. Rickets
B. Lead poisoning
C. Metaphyseal dysplasia
D. Hypophosphatasia
| Lead poisoning |
6620af95-9069-463d-8c51-a6222946a1bf | Three general classes of hormone exist : ?1) Proteins and polypentideMost of hormones in the body are polypeptides and proteins. In general, polypeptides with 100 or more aminoacids are called proteins, and those with fewer than 100 amino acids are referred to as peptides.Proteins and peptide hormones are synthesized on the rough ER. They are usually synthesized first as larger proteins (precursors) that are not biologically active (preprohormone) and cleaved in the ER to form smaller prohormones. These are then transferred to the Golgi apparatus for packing into secretory vesicles. In this process, enzymes in the vesicles cleave the prohormones to produce smaller, biologically active hormones and inactive fragments. Vesicles are stored into cytoplasm and secretion of the hormones occur by exocytosis.The peptide/protein hormones are :?Hypothalamus :- Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), coicotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), Growth-hormone releasing hormone (GHRh), Growth hormone inhibitory hormone (GHIn), i.e., somatostatin, Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).Anterior pituitary :- Growth hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone (THS) or thyrotropin, adrenocoicotropin hormone (ACTH), prolactin, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), leutinizing hormone (LH).Posterior pituitary : - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)/vasopressin, oxytocin.Thyroid gland : - CalcitoninPancreas : - Insulin, glucagon.Parathyroid : - ParathormonePlacenta : - Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), Human somatomammotropin.Kidney : - Renin, erythropoietinHea : - Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)Stomach : - GastrinSmall intestine : - Secretin, Cholecystokinin (CCK)Adipocytes : - LeptinAngiotensin IISome of these peptide hormones are glycoproteins, i.e., they have sugar associated with proteins. Glycoprotein hormones are FSH, LH, TSH, human chorionic gonadotropin, erythropoietin.2) Steroid hormonesThese hormones are synthesized from cholesterol. Once they are synthesized, they are simply diffuse across the cell membrane (because they are lipid soluble) and enter the interstitial fluid and then the blood. Thus, they are not stored.Steroid hormones are : ?Adrenal coex : - Coisol (Glucocoicoids), Aldosterone (mineralocoicoids).Gonads : - Testosterone, estrogen, progesterone.Kidney : - 1, 25 - Dihydroxycholecalciferol3) Amine hormonesThese hormones are derivatives of amino acid tyrosine. These hormones are :Thyroid gland : - Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3).Adrenal medulla : - Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline), Epinephrine (adrenaline)Hypothalamus : - Dopamine or Prolactin inhibiting factor (PIF) | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following is an amine hormone?
A. TSH
B. T4
C. Insulin
D. FSH
| T4 |
00705a91-8040-4fd4-8d6a-245aca1611c8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Macrophages o Heart failure cells are Hemosiderin laden alveolar macrophages.o Heart failure cells are a manifestation of pulmonary congestion and edema (as seen in heart failure)o Pulmonary edema & pulmonary infarction can be differentiated by the presence of heart failure cells in pulmonary edema. | Pathology | C.V.S | Heart failure cells are?
A. Neutrophills
B. Macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
D. Lymphocytes
| Macrophages |
56dd3e3f-9f5d-4669-8000-e0ba5537ae68 | Only branch arises from medial side of ECA is ascending pharyngeal artery. | Anatomy | null | The only medial branch of external carotid artery is -,
A. Lingual
B. Maxillary
C. Superior thyroid
D. Ascending pharyngeal
| Ascending pharyngeal |
5093537c-dcbf-43c4-ada4-1c4191e4b800 | Glucose-mediated insulin release occurs through ATP sensitive K+ channels. Increased blood glucose concentration is the primary controller of insulin secretion. Inside the beta cells, glucose is conveed to glucose-6-phosphate and later ATP is generated. This ATP closes ATP sensitive potassium channels, leading to rise in K+ and depolarisation. This in turn causes opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels and influx of Ca+. This ultimately leads to secretion of insulin exocytosis. Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 990 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Through which of the following does glucose mediated insulin release occur?
A. ATP sensitive K+ channels
B. cAMP
C. Carrier mediated
D. Receptor phosphorylation
| ATP sensitive K+ channels |
051344ca-e236-476e-a129-77e4e9ef4cb8 | Ans. is 'b i.e., E. multilocularis The chief character of E. multilocularis cyst is its tendency to proliferate, thereby resembling a neoplasm. | Microbiology | null | The following infection resembles malignancy ?
A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. E. multilocularis
C. E.vogeli
D. E. oligahus
| E. multilocularis |
56e2c7c0-ff2e-4304-acc9-ef64b0545c72 | The flight range of different mosquitoes: Anopheles - 3 to 5 km Culex - 11 km Aedes - 100 m REFERENCE: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 831 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Aedes agypti can fly -
A. 100 m
B. 200 m
C. 1000 m
D. 3-5 km
| 100 m |
9f0f6c02-8e8b-472b-a901-e26e41325374 | A i.e. Ocular sarcoidosis - Bechet's syndrome and HLA B27 associated uveitis are ruled out as both are non granulomatous. Sarcoidosis may cause granulomatous pan-uveitis, periphlebitis (causing candle wax drippingsQ or en taches de bougie), pulmonary lesions (Vt progressive dyspnea, pulmonary HTN & cor pulmonary), skin lesions (erythema nodosum, lupus perniaQ granulomatous deposits), neuropathy, ahritis/ ahralgiaQ (typically symmetrical, involving both large & small joints), bone cysts & renal /liver / lymph node disease. | Ophthalmology | null | A 30 year old male patient presented with anterior granulomatous uveitis, ahralgia and respiratory difficulties. Probable diagnosis is
A. Ocular sarcoidosis
B. TB
C. Behcet's syndrome
D. HLA B27 Uveitis
| Ocular sarcoidosis |
294248b5-9a39-4827-ba10-747b6fd3ccb0 | A i.e. dTC + Pancuronium As d-TC & Panduronium, both are non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, so neostigmine is used to reverse the drugs. | Anaesthesia | null | Neostigmine is used for reversing the adverse effect of:
A. dTC + pancuronium
B. d TC only
C. Alcuronium only
D. Ketamine complication
| dTC + pancuronium |
30ec7899-eda9-489e-a1b3-33420bfd38b1 | Clinically patients with Alpos syndrome develop hematuria, thinning and splitting of GBM's,mild proteinuria (<1-2g/24hrs) which appears late in the course followed by chronic glomerulosclerosis leading to renal failure associated with sensorineural deafness. There r four forms of alpos syndrome Type 1 classic As -x linked disorder with Hematuria,sensorineural deafness ,lenticonus Type 2-x linked form associated with diffuse leiomymomatosis T3 -autosomal recessive ,T4autosomal dominant -both forms can cause renal disease without deafness or lenticonus. Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no 2146,2977 | Medicine | Kidney | Sensory neural deafness associated with hereditary nephritis is seen in
A. Fanconi syndrome
B. Berger's disease
C. Albright syndrome
D. Alpo's syndrome
| Alpo's syndrome |
1006e103-eab6-4d8e-8902-2ddeb7fd7f92 | Harakari practiced in Japan is suicidal stab injury.
It is a form of ritual suicide by disembowelment. | Forensic Medicine | null | Harakari practiced in Japan is
A. Homicidal stab injury
B. Suicidal stab injury
C. Judicial hanging method
D. Suicidal hanging
| Suicidal stab injury |
907a1ee5-10f6-4abf-9a50-cc746adaa423 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Median nerve f Ref: Basics of orthopaedics 2nd/e p. 718]Carpal tunnel syndromeo Carpal tunnel syndrome is the most common and widely known entrapment neuropathy in which the body's peripheral nerve is compressed or traumatized. Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed in the carpal tunnel below flexor retinaculum. The carpal tunnel is a narrow rigid passage way of ligament and bones at the base of hand, in front of distal part of wrist. Carpal tunnel houses the median nerve and 9 tendons (4 FDS, 4 FDP & FPL).Causes of carpal tunnel syndromeo There are many causes of carpal tunnel syndrome : -Idiopathic : - This is the most common cause.Pregnancy and menopauseMetabolic : - Gout, Diabetes mellitus4} Endocrine : - Hypothyroidism, Myxedema, Acromegaly, Hyperparathyroidism.Deposition disorder Amyloidosis, Sarcoidosis, Rheumatid arthritis, Leukemia, CRF, Nlucopoly saccharoidosis.AlcoholismLocal causes : - Malunited colie's fracture, osteo-arthritis of the carpal bones, synovitits of flexor tendon sheath, hematoma.Clinical features of carpal tunnel syndromeo Carpal tunnel syndrome is more common in women and occurs between 35-50years.o Symptoms usually start gradually, writh frequent burning, tingling,paresthesia and numbness in the distribution of median nerve, i.e., lateral three & half of fingers and lateral 2/3rd of palm,o The symptoms often first appear during night, since many people sleep with flexed wrists. (Flexion decreases the space in carpal tunnel which results in increased pressure over median nerve),o Sensory symptoms can often be reproduced by percussing over median nerve (Tinel's sign) or by holding the wrist fully flexed for a minute (Pltalen's test).o As the disease progresses, clumsiness of hand and impairment of digital function develop,o Later in the disease, there is sensory loss in median nerve distribution and obvious wasting of thenar eminence.Clinical Tests for Carpal tunnel syndromeo There are some provocative tests which act as important screening methods : -Wrist flexion (Phalen's test) : - The patient is asked to actively place the wrist in complete flexion. If tingling and numbness develop in the distribution of median nerve, the test is positive. This is the most sensitive provocative testTourniquet test : - A pneumatic BP cuff is applied proximal to the elbow' and inflated higher than the patient's systolic BP. The test is positive if there is paresthesia or numbness in the region of median nerve distribution in hand.Median nerve percussion test (Ttnel's sign) : - The median nerv e is gently tapped at the wrist. The test is positive if there is tingling sensation.;Median nerve compression test: - Direct pressure is exerted equally over both wrists by the examiner. If symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome appear, the test is positive. | Orthopaedics | Peripheral Nerve Injuries | Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome -
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Axillary nerve
| Median nerve |
5ed4981e-0509-44b4-9fa6-6556c3bfa93d | Ans. A. lichen scrofulosorumHistopathology of Lichen scrofulosorum shows hair follicle infiltrated with mononuclear cells and occasional epithelioid cells, and upper dermal granuloma formed by mononuclear cells and epithelioid cells. Ziehl-Neelsen may demonstrate AFB. | Skin | Bacterial Infection of Skin | Which of the following tuberculoides is characterized by involvement of sweat glands & hair follicle with non caseating epithelioid granuloma?
A. Lichen scrofulosorum
B. Miliary tuberculosis
C. Papulonecrotic tuberculide
D. Lupus vulgaris
| Lichen scrofulosorum |
5b1ea2c7-d78d-41ce-ba09-5b3390e2c5c1 | H. Ducreyi causes soft chancre/ chancroid. It doesn't cause urethritis in males. Infectious cause of urethritis- Neisseria gonorrhea Chlamydia trachomatis Trichomonas vaginalis Mycoplasma genitalum HSV Adenovirus Ureaplasma urealyticum | Dental | NEET Jan 2020 | Which of the following doesn't cause urethritis in males?
A. H. Ducreyi
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. N. Gonorrhoea
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
| H. Ducreyi |
d83075bd-cc79-419a-8344-e3dce9b2f083 | Ans. c)Succinate dehydrogenase is the only 1 FAD-linked dehydrogenase in TCA cycle | Biochemistry | TCA Cycle | Which of the following is the FAD-linked dehydrogenase of TCA cycle?
A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Succinate dehydrogenase
D. a ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
| Succinate dehydrogenase |
2fc04c9e-2836-454b-92e3-56a662f0cded | Ans. B. One polypeptide chain and two intra chaindisulphide bondGrowth hormone or somatotrophin consists of a single polypeptide with a molecular weight of about 21500. It consists of 191 amino acids. There are two disulfide bridges between the adjacent cysteine residues. GH brings about positive nitrogen balance by retaining nitrogen. | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | Human growth hormone has:
A. One polypeptide chain and one intra chaindisulphide bond
B. One polypeptide chain and two intra chaindisulphide bond
C. Two polypeptide chains joined by onedisulphide bond
D. Two polypeptide chains joined by twodisulphide bond
| One polypeptide chain and two intra chaindisulphide bond |
4404dd1e-7b37-484e-b439-7e00d09bd832 | Skull base fractures Anteruor cranial fossa Subconjunctival hematoma CSF Rhinorrhea Carotico-cavernous fistula Periorbital hematoma or "Raccoon eyes" Middle cranial fossa fracture CSF otorrhea Hemotympanum Ossicular disruption Battle sign : Bruising behind the ear 7th and 8th cranial nerve palsies Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 333 | Surgery | Trauma | Hinge fracture is seen in
A. Vault
B. Ant cranial fossa
C. Middle cranial fossa
D. Posterior cranial fossa
| Middle cranial fossa |
f679cf27-eafc-4051-b9f8-7259b64ac8e8 | Drugs used in day care surgery Dr Desflurane Manmohan Midazolam Singh Sevoflurane Is Isoflurane A Alfentanyl Prime Propofol- mc drug used in day care surgery Minister Mivacurium Ketamine causes dissociative anesthesia Thiopentone is shoest acting due to redistrubution Etomidate causes adrenal supression | Pharmacology | FMGE 2019 | Which of the following is used for day care surgery?
A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate Drugs used in day care surgery
| Propofol |
326d4d56-a54a-4f92-b1e2-5a4713c3e459 | Desloratidine, metabolite of loratadine is the most potent 2nd generation antihistamine. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is the most potent 2nd generation antihistamine?
A. Astemizole
B. Desloratadine
C. Promethozine
D. Fexofenadine
| Desloratadine |
a91f5e09-0811-4845-87cd-d766ab11195f | Diagnostic criteria for Peripaum cardiomyopathy - A) Development of cardiac failure in the last month of pregnancy or within 5 months after delivery. B) Absence of an identifiable cause for the cardiac failure. C) Absence of recognizable hea disease prior to the last month pf pregnancy D) Left ventricular systolic dysfunction demonstrated by classic echocardiographic criteria, such as depressed ejection fraction along with a dilated left ventricle | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | NEET 2018 | In Peripaum cardiomyopathy, cardiac failure occurs at:-
A. Within 7 days after delivery.
B. Within 6 weeks after delivery.
C. Within 24 months after delivery.
D. Within 5 months after delivery.
| Within 5 months after delivery. |
e6a60e80-c50a-4d69-8a40-d7cb73604caf | Reversal of d tubocuraine was done by neostigmine. | Anaesthesia | Muscle relaxants | Drug used for d-TC reversal is
A. Atropine
B. Atracurium
C. Diazepam
D. Neostigmine
| Neostigmine |
588b3f85-babe-4dd3-910f-902d38cf9efb | Focal necrotizing granuloma in this question suggests that it may be a case of ocular toxoplasmosis. | Ophthalmology | null | A young adult presented with diminished vision. On examination he has anterior uveitis, vitritis, focal necrotizing granuloma, macular spot. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Proteus syndrome
B. White dot syndrome
C. Multifocal choroiditis
D. Ocular toxoplasmosis
| Ocular toxoplasmosis |
a5f14e18-3470-49df-bf06-9aa54cf40abd | Ans. C. Bipolar disorderBipolar disorder involves extremes of both high and low moods and a range of other symptoms. In rapid cycling, moods change quickly, with at least 4 distinct mood episodes per year. | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | Rapid cycling is associated with which illness:
A. Substance abuse
B. Schizophrenia
C. Bipolar Disorder
D. Panic disorder
| Bipolar Disorder |
302d1538-f9f9-4e63-81e1-0b985e1609c3 | For calculating the minimum amount of fluid per day, a formula based on body weight is recommended: 1500 ml is the minimum water intake with 15ml fluid per kg to be added for the actual weight minus 20kg. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Fluid and electrolytes | Daily water requirement in child weighing 30 kgs, height 123 m and BSA of 1 m2 is
A. 1300 ml
B. 1700 ml
C. 2000 ml
D. 2500 ml
| 1700 ml |
b211a7fe-1a8f-48a5-9951-b2558963e2c6 | Ans. (a) Vernal conjunctivitisRef: Parson's 21/e, p. 178Age 10 years (Male child), with Itching, foreign body sensation, Ropy discharge (characteristic of spring catarrh) and exacerbation during summer (characteristic of spring catarrh) is diagnostic for VKC. | Ophthalmology | Conjuctiva | Ramu age 10 years, present with itching in his eye, foreign body sensation and ropy discharge since several months. These symptoms are more prominent in summer. Most probable diagnosis is -
A. Vernal conjunctivitis
B. Fungal keratoconjunctivitis
C. Viral conjunctivitis
D. Trachoma
| Vernal conjunctivitis |
4e5a58f6-5a3c-49da-a0eb-d87b902422ce | Bone is kept shoer than soft tissue in flap method of amputation to facilitate closure of amputation stump. Also know: In guillotine amputation, limb is transected at one level through skin, muscle and bone. Ref: Campbell's operative Ohopaedics 10/e, page 544. | Surgery | null | In flap method of amputation, which structure is kept shoer than the level of amputation?
A. Bone
B. Muscles
C. Nerves
D. Vessels
| Bone |
8c589a5a-76e7-44c7-bae3-68a033c98090 | TREATMENT OF PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM Initial correction of hypercalcemia (Rapid IV normal saline followed by Forced diuresis with furosemide) Neck exploration is done and treatment is done accordingly A single parathyroid adenoma (85%) Resection Two adenomas (5%) Resection Hyperplasia of all four glands (10-15%) Resection of 3 1/2 glands or Resection of all four glands With Parathyroid auto transplantation - into Brachioradialis of non-dominant arm PARATHYROID AUTO TRANSPLANTATION Whenever multiple parathyroids are resected, it is preferable to cryopreserve tissue, so that it may be autotransplanted Approx. 12-14 pieces of 1 mm are transplanted into the nondominant forearm in belly of brachioradialis muscle | Surgery | Parathyroid and adrenal glands | Treatment of parathyroid hyperplasia is:
A. Phosphate binders
B. Calcitonin
C. Removal of 3 1/2 glands
D. Enlarged glands to be removed
| Removal of 3 1/2 glands |
c30099a5-8741-49f3-b9e6-4e7ef5bee3be | (A) Inferior frontal gyrus[?]BROCA'S AREA (Motor Speech Area) is a section of the human brain that is involved in language processing, speech or sign production & comprehensionBroca's area is located in the opercular and triangular sections of the Inferior Frontal Gyrus of the Frontal lobe of the Cortex.Broca's & Wernicke's areas are found unilaterally in the brain (left hemisphere) dominant hemisphere.Broca's area comprises Brodmann area 44 and (according to some authorities) Brodmann area 45.Broca's Area is connected to Wernicke's area by a neural pathway called the arcuate fasciculus.Inability to speak after injury to the posterior-inferior frontal gyrus of the brain.Pierre Paul Brocahe identified this region, known as Broca's area.Difficulty in language production as Broca's aphasia, also called expressive aphasia.Broca's area is now typically defined in terms of the pars opercularis & pars triangularis of the inferior frontal gyrus.Present in left hemisphere in 90% of right handed & 70% of left handed people.Present in right hemisphere only in any of left handed peopleCEREBRAL CORTEX & CORTICAL AREAS AT A GLANCEAREALOCATIONFUNCTION* Motor area (Area 4)Precentral gyrus & anterior part of para-central lobuleVoluntary movements* Premotor area (Area 6)Posterior parts of frontal gyriVoluntary movements* Frontal eye field (8) Includes Areas 6 & 9Anterior to premotor area in posterior part of middle frontal gyrusConjugate deviation of eyes to opposite side.* Broca's speech area (Areas 44,45)Posterior part of inferior frontal gyms of dominant hemisphereControls motor element of speech.* Prefrontal cortexAnterior part of frontal gyri, orbital gyri, most of medial frontal gyms, & anterior part of cingulate gyms.Intellectual activity* Sensory Cortex (Areas 3,1,2)Post central gyms & adjoining parts of post central gyms & posterior part of para-central lobuleAppreciation of somatic sensations* Areas 39,40Inferior parietal lobule, supra marginal & angular gyri.Recognition of somatic sensory stimuli & their integration steriognosis* Primary visual area (17) Visual cortex or striate cortex (Visual-Sensory Cortex)Surrounds post calcarine sulcus.Primary visual function* Visual association cortex (18,19) (peristriate & parastriate areas) (Visual-Psychic)Occipital lobe adjacent to striate areaRecognition & integration of visual stimuli* Primary acoustic area (41) or 1st acoustic area (Al)Anterior transverse temporal gyms extending to superior temporal gymsPrimary auditory function* Auditory association area (Area 42)Posterior transverse temporal gymsIntegration of auditory stimuli with other sensory modalities.* Area 24Anterior part of cingulate gymsPulse, Respiration & B.P. control* Limbic systemHippocampus, alveus, fimbria, fornix & its termination into mamillary bodies are grouped under this systemMaintenance of normal homeostasis of body along with hypothalamus.* Second speech area of WernickeOccupies parietal area extending into temporal lobe round the posterior extremity of lateral sulcus.Second motor speech area. | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Broca's area is situated in
A. Inferior frontal gyrus
B. Superior temporal gyrus
C. Inferior temporal gyrus
D. Parietal gyrus
| Inferior frontal gyrus |
8f6ecfae-518f-4da8-bd2d-1c9fbf15b0a7 | - Given clinical features suggests the diagnosis of PNH - Despite its name, the disorder is nocturnal in only a minority of cases. - PNH is a clonal stem cell disorder characterized by episodic intravascular hemolytic anemia; secondary to increased sensitivity of erythrocytes to complement-mediated lysis. - It is d/t somatic mutation of phosphatidylinositol glycan-class A (PIG-A) gene. - Most useful diagnostic test is flow cytofluorometry. - other tests used are: Sucrose hemolysis test Acidified serum (Ham test) - Choices B and C are hemolytic conditions, do not show increased lysis in described laboratory studies. | Pathology | Hemolytic Anemias: Basic concepts and classification | A 39-year-old man repos seeing red-colored urine in the morning. The CBC reveals anemia, low serum iron, and an elevated reticulocyte count. Laboratory studies show increased lysis of erythrocytes when incubated with either sucrose or acidified serum. Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis
A. Anemia of chronic renal failure
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
| Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria |
607ccc98-4671-410c-8aae-7d5e22c155af | A HIDA scan will show excretion of the radiolabeled isotope into the biliary tree, but there will be no flow into the duodenum, indicating that the biliary-enteric anastomosis is occluded. If an upper GI study with barium is performed, visualization of the common bile duct would indicate patency of the choledochoduodenal anastomosis. | Surgery | Pancreas | A 70-year-old male underwent a choledochoduodenostomy for multiple common duct stones. The patient now presents with RUQ abdominal pain. What should be the initial test (least invasive with the best yield) to determine patency of the choledochoduodenostomy?
A. ERCP
B. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram (PTC)
C. HIDA scan
D. CT scan of the abdomen
| HIDA scan |
84f25871-7ef4-44d1-bc4f-5d4a2b03ec32 | Ans. a. MPGN Type I MPGN is c.ommonly associated with persistent hepatitis C infections, autoimmune diseases like lupus or cryoglobulinemia, or neoplastic diseases."- Harrison 18/e p2344 So, in the above mentioned patient with Hepatitis C, exhibits hypo-complimentemia with 2 gm/day proteinuria and hematuria. The most probable diagnosis is MPGN Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis MPGN is sometimes called mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis or lobar glomerulonephritis. It is an immune-mediated glomerulonephritis characterized by thickening of the GBM with mesangioproliferative changes; 70% of patients have hypocomplementemiaQ. MPGN is subdivided pathologically into type I, type II, and type III disease. Type I MPGN is commonly associated with persistent hepatitis C. infectionsQ, autoimmune diseases like lupus or cryoglobulinemiaQ, or neoplastic diseases Types II and HI MPGN are usually idiopathic`, except in patients with complement factor H deficiency, in presence of C3 nephritic factor and/or in paial lipodystrophy producing type II disease, or complement receptor deficiency in type III disease. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis Type I MPGN (Most Common) Idiopathic SABEQ SLEQ Hepatitis CQ +- cryoglobulinemia Mixed cryoglobulinemia Hepatitis bQ Cancer: Lung, breast and ovary (germinal) Type li MPGN(Dense Deposit Disease) Idiopathic C3, nephritic factorassociatedQ Type Ill MPGN Idiopathic Complement receptor deficiencyQ | Medicine | null | A patient with Hepatitis C, exhibits hypo-complimentemia with 2 gm/day protein uria and hematuria. The most probable diagnosis is
A. MPGN
B. Cryoglobulinemia
C. Membranous glomerulopathy
D. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
| MPGN |
1bb283bb-b236-4cfe-bd84-e2676bec6369 | PHOSPHORUS(P4) There are two varieties: (1) White or crystalline. (2) Red or amorphous Postmoem Appearances:- In acute poisoning, the body usually shows signs of jaundice. The gastric and intestinal contents may smell of garlic and be luminous. The mucous membranes of the stomach and intestine are yellowish or greyish-white in colour, and are softened, thickened, inflamed and corroded or destroyed in patches. Multiple smaller or larger haemorrhages are seen in the skin, subcutaneous tissues, muscles, and serosal and mucosal membranes of gastrointestinal and respiratory tract, under endocardium, pericardium, epicardium, peritoneum, in lungs, brain, leptomeninges and uterus. The liver becomes swollen, yellow, soft, fatty and is easily ruptured. Small haemorrhages may be seen on the surface and in the substance. The kidenys are large, greasy, yellow and show haemorrhages on the surface. The hea is flabby, pale and shows fatty degeneration. Fat emboli may be found in the pulmonary aerioles and capillaries. The blood may appear tarry and its coagulability is diminished. Ref:- k s narayan reddy; pg num:-551 | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | A body is brought for autopsy. On postmoem, there is dark brown postmoem staining and garlic odor in stomach. The poisoning is most likely due to
A. Aniline dye
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydrocyanic acid
D. Phosphorus
| Phosphorus |
fa962efe-7a98-4af3-aab9-77a271699bda | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Zero order kinetics o The drugs whose kinetics changes from first order to zero order at therapeutic concentration are said to follow pseudo - zero order kinetics or mixed order kinetics or saturation kinetics.o Drugs showing zero/pseudo-zero order kinetics :# Phenytoin# Theophylline# Alcohol# Tolbutamide# Warfarin# Salicylates (Aspirin)# Propanolol (ref- Pharmocolgy recap) First Order KineticsZero Order Kinetics (Non linear Kinetics)1. Constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time2. Rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration3. Clearance remains constant4. Half life remains constant5. Most of the drugs follow first order kinetics1. Constant amount of the drug is eliminated per unit time.2. Rate of elimination is independent of plasma concentration3. Clearance is more at low concentrations and less at high concentrations4. Half life is less at low concentrations and more at high concentrations5. Very few drugs follow pure zero order kinetics e.g. alcohol6. Any drug at high concentration (when metabolic or elimination pathway is saturated) may show zero order kinetics | Pharmacology | Pharmacokinetics | In the metabolism of alcohol, high doses of aspirin & phenytoin, mechanism is -
A. First pass kinetics
B. First order kinetics
C. Zero order kinetics
D. Second order kinetics
| Zero order kinetics |
f6369973-a4e8-4a9f-8e60-48c782f6f93a | Anhedonia- lack of pleasure in a previously pleasurable activity Negative symptoms in Schizophrenia are: Apathy- Lack of concern Avolition- Loss of drive for goal directed activities Asociality- Lack of social interaction Affective flattening or blunting Alogia- Lack of speech output Anhedonia- Lack of pleasure in previously pleasurable activities. The more the negative symptoms in an individual with Schizophrenia, the worse is the prognosis. | Psychiatry | Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders | Which of the following is a negative symptom of Schizophrenia?
A. Ambivalence
B. Automatic obedience
C. Anhedonia
D. Delusion
| Anhedonia |
4b4fb4e9-4255-4af3-b416-87652f1ee03b | Group A beta streptococcus produces pyogenic infections with a tendency to spread locally, along lymphatics and through the bloodstream. The growth of Str. pyogenes on agar plates in the laboratory is inhibited by the antibiotic bacitracin, an impoant diagnostic criterion. Sensitivity to bacitracin is a convenient method for differentiating Group A streptococcus from other hemolytic streptococci. Laboratory tests for group A beta streptococcus: Bacitracin sensitive PYR (pyrrolidonyl naphthylamide) test positive Ribose not fermented Ref: Ananthanarayan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology By Ananthanarayan And Paniker, 7th edition, Page 205. | Microbiology | null | A child had pustular lesion on leg. On gram staining gram positive cocci are seen. To establish the diagnosis of Group A beta streptococcal pyoderma, the test used is:
A. Bile solubility test
B. Catalase test
C. Optochin sensitivity
D. Bacitracin sensitivity
| Bacitracin sensitivity |
820221d3-220c-41ca-9015-d75a06df5046 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Furosemide Treatment for hypercalcemia depends upono The underlying disease.o The severity of hypercalcemia.o The serum inorganic phosphate level ando The renal hepatic and bone marrow function. o Mild hvpercalcemias< 3 mmol/l (12 mg/dl)-Managed by hydration aloneo More severe hvoercalcemia3.2 to 3.7 mmol/l (13 to 15 mg/dl)-Requires rapid correction measures other than hydration.It requires combination of approaches.o Life threatening hypercalcemia>3.7 mmol/L (15 mg/dL)-Requires emergency measures TreatementOnset of ActionDuration of ActionAdvantagesDisadvantagesMost Useful Therapies Hydration with salineHoursDuring infusionRehydration invariably neededVolume overloadForced diuresis; saline plus loop diureticHoursDuring treatmentRapid actionVolume overload, cardiac decompensation, intesive monitoring, eletrolyte disturbance, inconvenienceBisphosphonates Pamidronate1-2 days10-14 days to weeksHigh potency, intermediate onset of actionFever in 20%, hypophosphatemia, hypocalcemia rarely jaw necrosisZolendronate1-2 days> 3 weeksSame as for pamidronate (may last longer)Same as pamidronate aboveCalcitoninHours1-2 daysRapid onset of action; useful as adjunct in severe hypercalcemiaRapid tachyphylaxisSpecial Use therapies PhosphateOral24 hDuring useChronic management (with hypophosphatemia); low toxicity if P< 4 mg/dLLimited use except as adjuvant or chronic therapyGlucocorticoidsDaysDays, weeksOral therapy, antitumor agentActive only in certain malignancies vitamin D excess and sarcoidosis; glucocorticoid side effectsDialysisHoursDuring use and 24-48 afterwardUseful in renal failure; onset of effect in hours; can immediately reverse life-theratening hypercalcemiaComplex procedure, reserved for extreme or special circumstances | Medicine | Fluid & Electrolyte | Not useful for acute Hypercalcemia?
A. Normal saline
B. Calcitonin
C. Furosemide
D. Bisphosphonates
| Furosemide |
7c394da1-379a-4ab8-85b2-1983d534aac0 | Hybrid DNA molecules can be constructed in cloning vectors typically using bacterial plasmids, phages, or cosmids. A clone is a large population of identical molecules, bacteria, or cells that arise from a common ancestor. Molecular cloning allows for the production of a large number of identical DNA molecules, which can then be characterized or used for other purposes. Cloning capacities of vectors Plasmid 0.01-10 kb Lambda phage 10-20 kb Cosmids 35-50 kb Bacterial aificial chromosome 50-250 kb Yeast aificial chromosome 500-3000 kb | Biochemistry | Techniques in molecular biology | Larger DNA segments can be cloned in
A. Plasmids
B. Bacteriophage
C. Cosmids
D. Bacterial Aificial Chromosomes
| Bacterial Aificial Chromosomes |
8034c9b2-48dc-4687-a72e-96f00b9628be | Ans. (c) Orthotopic liver transplantation* Child A and B can be managed with Conservative methods/Shunt surgeries etc.* Child C is an indication for Liver Transplant* Other Major surgeries can be done only for Child A* Minor surgeries only can be done in Child B* No other surgery other than Transplant is advised in Child C | Surgery | Liver | According to Pugh's classification moderate to severe hepatic insufficiency is managed by:
A. Sclerotherapy
B. Conservative
C. Orthotopic liver transplantation
D. Shunt surgery
| Orthotopic liver transplantation |
72a67203-e5d9-4ea8-9946-f25d93630a93 | Ans is b' i.e. B-cell B cells recognize antigen the B-cell antigen receptor complex.Ig M and Ig D, present on the surface of all naive B cells, constitute the antigen binding component of B-cell receptor complex.After antigenic stimulation, B cells form plasma cells that secret immunoglobulin. | Pathology | null | Surface Immunoglobulin is found in which cell ?
A. T-cell
B. B-cell
C. NK cell
D. Plasma cells
| B-cell |
2fc8ef15-0f97-45d0-bb4c-19ed1c86a062 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Filaria The microfilariae of W. bancrofti and B. malayi occuring in India display a nocturnal periodicity, i.e., they appear in large number at night and retreat from the blood stream during the day. This is a biological adaptation to the nocturnal biting habits of vector mosquitoes. The maximum density of microfilariae in blood is repoed between 10 pm and 2am. When the sleeping habits of the host are altered, a reversal in periodicity has been observed | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Night blood survey is done in ?
A. Filaria
B. Typhoid
C. Malaria
D. Kala-azar
| Filaria |
b39377c2-e8a7-47ed-b462-eba630e740fb | Squamous epithelium lines theinside of the hea ,where it is called endothelium INDERBIR SINGH&;S TEXT BOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY-REFERENCE page no:41 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Simple squamous epithelium is seen in
A. Blood vessels
B. Thyroid follicle
C. Esophagus
D. Hard palate
| Blood vessels |
7a0367db-ba88-49b9-9dc2-a52da553dbec | MULTIPLE CARBOXLASE DEFICIENCY - BIOTIN is coenzyme in carboxylase reaction. Defects in the ability to add or remove biotin from carboxylases result in multiple carboxylase deficiency. It is autosomal recessive Developmental delay Treatment is biotin supplement Tomcat Urine odour | Biochemistry | Classification and metabolism of amino acids | Tomcat urine odor is seen in:
A. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Hawkinuria
D. Maple syrup disease
| Multiple carboxylase deficiency |
bf7c0271-03c3-4504-bc98-8a995fe7b583 | Ans. c. 4th -- 6th ribs Reasonable conclusions to be drawn from the literature in relation to rib fractures in adults Rib fractures following CPR in adults are quite common - 30 to 60% of prospective post-moem studies. Post-CPR rib fractures are often bilateral. The site of rib fracture is dependent on: the position of the hands; force used; and method of chest compression (manual or device-assisted). The vast majority (90%+) offractures occur in ribs 2 to 7; fractures in the bony pas of rib numbers 1 and 8 to 10 are possible but probably very rare; it is difficult to see how fractures can occur in rib numbers 11 and 12 following standard manual CPR. The vast majority of fractures (90%+) occur in the anterior third of the bony pa of the rib, some occur in the middle third but - following standard manual CPR - none in the posterior third of the bony pa of the rib. Posterior rib fractures occur following automated band-type CPR. Lateral fractures i.e. those occurring between the anterior and posterior axillary lines, do occur after standard CPR. If a fracture is noted in rib numbers 10 to 12 or in the posterior third of the bony pa of a rib, then non-resuscitation trauma should be suspected. Chest x-ray is unreliable as a diagnostic tool for detecting rib fractures. CT is better than x-ray and may complement the post-moem detection of rib fractures. Fractures are more common On the left side of the chest With increasing age of the patient In females With increasing length of time of resuscitation attempts Following the involvement of untrained persons With the use of ACD-CPR | Surgery | null | During resuscitation, fractured ribs most commonly involve:
A. 2nd -4th ribs
B. 3rd -5th ribs
C. 4th -6th ribs
D. 5th -7th ribs
| 4th -6th ribs |
f7eac2ec-ae38-4bd5-b41c-2c5f1f989d18 | Ref: Goodman & Gillman 13th ed. P 1045; Harrison 20th edition, Page 1112* Streptomycin is highly ototoxic (vestibulotoxic >> Cochleotoxic) and nephrotoxic drug.* It is strictly contraindicated throughout the pregnancy.Drugs during pregnancy Drugs safe in pregnancyDrugs contraindicated in pregnancy (Safety uncertain)* Anti-tubercularIsoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, EthambutolStreptomycin* AntiamoebicDiloxanide furoate, paromomycinMetronidazole, Tinidazole, Quiniodochlor* AntimalarialChloroquine, Mefloquine, Proguanil, Quinine (only in 1st trimester)Primaquine* AntifungalTopical:Clotrimazole, Nystatin, TolnaftaneAmphotericin B, Fluconazole, Itraconazole, Ketoconazole, Griseofulvin* Anti allergiesChlorpheniramine,PromethazineCetirizine, Loratadine, Fexofenadine* Anti bacterialsPenicillin G,Ampicillin,Amoxicillin- clavulanate,cloxacillin,Piperacillin,Cephalosporins,ErythromycinCotrimoxazole,Fluoroquinolones,Tetracycline,Doxycycline,Chloramphenicol,Kanamycin,Tobramycin,Clarithromycin,Vancomycin* Antiviral-Ganciclovir, Foscarnet, Amantadine, Vidarabine, a-interferon* Anti-retroviralZidovudine, Lamivudine, tenofovir, Nelfinavir, Nevirapine, Saquinavir, EfavirenzDidanosine, Abacavir, Indinavir, Ritonavir* Anti-diabeticInsulin (preferably human insulin)Sulfonylureas, metformin, Acarbose, pioglitazone, Repaglinide* Thyroid drugsPropylthiouracilCarbimazole, Radioactive iodine (X), Iodide | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | In a pregnant female which drug is strictly contraindicated?
A. Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Cephalosporins
D. Penicillin
| Streptomycin |
9c51fc8d-b66b-45b1-b11d-90564c5e1283 | Ans. A: Apical lung cavityThe primary complex generally exists singly and only occasionally in multiple units.In overwhelming majority of cases primary complex occurs in the lungs and only in about 5% cases they are distributed among the intestines, Oropharynx, the skin and other rarer sites. The primary focus in the lungs is called as Ghon focus. It generally occurs in the subpleural region of midline and lower lung zones. Mostly hilar and inter-pleural lymph nodes are involved to form the primary complex.Secondary TB is usually localized to apical and posterior segment of upper lobes. | Pathology | null | Which of the following is not a feature of primary tuberculosis: September 2010
A. Apical lung cavity
B. Ghon's focus
C. Paratracheal lymphadenopathy
D. Heal spontaneously by fibrosis
| Apical lung cavity |
6283a1c7-e154-4a74-8063-cbb8d71b4d09 | Rumination disorder: Effoless and painless regurgitation of paially digested food into the mouth soon after a meal, which iseither swallowed or spit out According to DSM-5, the disordermust be present for at least 1 month after a period of normal functioning, and not better accounted for by gastrointestinal illness, or psychiatric or medical conditions. Can be observed in normal infants It's a functional gastrointestinal disorder Occurs between 3 months and 12 months of age. | Psychiatry | Eating Disorders | Repeated involuntary regurgitation of food is associated with which of the following disorders?
A. Binge eating disorder
B. Rumination disorder
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Anorexia nervosa
| Rumination disorder |
f45d4e97-b043-4ea1-ab1a-d4eaa19a081f | (d) Spheno-ethmoidal recess(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 659)The Sphenoid sinus opens into the spheno-ethmoidal recess just above the superior turbinate. | ENT | Congenital Lesions and Stridor | Sphenoidal sinus opens into:
A. Superior meatus
B. Inferior meatus
C. Middle meatus
D. Spheno-ethmoidal recess
| Spheno-ethmoidal recess |
ff38bdb0-fdf4-41cd-838b-fb9bc8261d2f | A normal PaCO2 value is 35 to 45 mm Hg. CO2 has vasodilating properties; therefore, lowering PaCO2 through hyperventilation will lower ICP caused by dilated cerebral vessels.
Option B: Oxygenation is evaluated through PaO2 and oxygen saturation.
Option D: Alveolar hypoventilation would be reflected in an increased PaCO2. | Medicine | null | When evaluating an ABG from a client with a subdural hematoma, the nurse notes the PaCO2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following responses best describes this result?
A. Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP).
B. Emergent; the client is poorly oxygenated.
C. Normal
D. Significant; the client has alveolar hypoventilation.
| Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP). |
f4ce859c-2d05-4d15-a695-6127f9cd5e1d | (B) Consciousness # Clinical Abnormalities in Uremiaa> Neuromuscular disturbances Fatigue Sleep disorders Headache Impaired mentation Lethargy Asterixis Muscular irritability Peripheral neuropathy Restless legs syndrome Paralysis Myoclonus Seizures Coma Muscle cramps Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome Myopathy | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Acute uraemic syndrome causes disturbance in
A. Affect
B. Consciousness
C. Thought
D. Memory
| Consciousness |
0ee3f7c7-d1bc-4176-b957-9ff55348790a | ANSWER: (A) SarcoidosisREF: Chest radiology: the essentials By Jannette Collins, Eric J. Stern, page 165, http://medical- dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/potato+node* Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease characterized by non-caseating granulomas in multiple organs.* In 90% of cases, Symmetrical massive bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy clear or the cardiac border ("potato nodes") or lung involvement is present and can be revealed by chest x-ray or Trans-bronchial biopsy.* The eye and skin are the next most commonly affected organs, so that both Conjunctival and skin biopsies are clinical possibilities.* Sarcoidosis is not caused by any known organism. Therefore, before the diagnosis of Sarcoidosis can be made, cultures must be taken from affected tissues, and there must be no growth of any organism that may produce granulomas. In patients with Sarcoidosis, blood levels of angiotensin-converting enzyme are increased, and this may also be used as a clinical test.* In the past, the Kveim skin test was used to assist in the diagnosis of Sarcoidosis, but since it involves injecting into patients extracts of material from humans, it is no longer used.Note: Don't get confuse with 'cut potato appearance'of lymphoma | Surgery | Miscellaneous | Potato nodes are feature of?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Carcinoid
D. Lymphoma
| Sarcoidosis |
cf4ca71d-373b-4e97-a5d1-758bf63b2ed1 | Maximum concentration delivered by ventimask (venturimask) is 60%. | Anaesthesia | null | In venturi mask maximum O2 concentration attained is
A. 90%
B. 100%
C. 60%
D. 80%
| 60% |
ef4c4401-c538-4aa7-b5d2-11fd15548b25 | Hydrogenation of ergot alkaloids decrease their vasoconstrictor action and increase the α-blocking activity. | Pharmacology | null | Dihydroergotamine differs from ergotamine in the following respect :
A. It is a more potent oxytocic
B. It has antiemetic property
C. It has high oral bioavailability
D. It is more potent α-adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor
| It is more potent α-adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor |
5c52d59f-320b-4261-85d5-5085e92fd2e9 | Acidification occurs in collecting duct and DCT, but collecting duct is more important. Hence, answer is D>A. | Physiology | null | The principal site of acidification of urine is:
A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
| Collecting duct |
645b902a-d797-4ac6-ae7f-fac614ac91e0 | by 3 years the child can know it&;s full name and gender,copies circle,build bridge with blocks. The child can pronounce I,u and me by 2 yrs Ref : OP GHAI - ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS - 8 TH edition page no..52 and 53</p > | Pediatrics | Growth and development | 3 years old child can do ?
A. Make bridge of 3 cubes
B. Copy square
C. Identify left and right
D. Use pronounce like I, you & me
| Make bridge of 3 cubes |
2b044139-ce46-42a0-96b6-5b4954697702 | Classification of liver injury (Moore) Grade Types Operative or CT Scan findings I Hematoma Laceration Subcapsular, <10% of surface area Capsular tear, < 1 cm in parenchymal death II Hematoma laceration Subcapsular, 10-50% of surface area Intraparenchymal, <10 cm in diameter 1-3 cm in parenchymal depth, <10 cm in length III Hematoma laceration Subcapsular, >50% of surface area or expanding; rupture subcapsular or parenchymal hematoma Intraparenchymal, hematoma > 10 cm or expanding > 3 cm in parenchymal depth IV Laceration Parenchymal disruption involving 25-75% of the hepatic lobe or 1-3 couinauds segments in a single lobe V Laceration vascular Parenchymal disruption involving >75% of the hepatic lobe or > 3 Coulnauds segments in a single lobe Juxta hepatic venous injuries, i.e retro hepatic vena cava / central major hepatic veins VI Vascular Hepatic avulsion | Surgery | Trauma | A 17-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after a road traffic accident. Per abdomen examination is normal. After adequate resuscitation, his pulse rate is 80/min and BP is 110/70 mm Hg. Abdominal CT reveals 1 cm deep laceration in the left lobe of the liver extending from the done more than half way through the parenchyma. Appropriate management at this time would be:
A. Conservative treatment
B. Abdominal exploration and packing of hepatic wounds
C. Abdominal exploration and ligation of left hepatic aery
D. Left hepatectomy
| Conservative treatment |
ee165a64-f75d-4e63-abc2-319b963dc8af | been changed as per "THE REGISTRATION OF BIHS AND DEATHS(AMENDMENT) BILL, 2012 A BILL fuher to amend the Registration of Bihs and Deaths Act, 1969" Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 779 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | As per the Central Bih and Death Registration act, a bih should be registered within:
A. 7 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days
| 21 days |
5647a8b3-1437-4180-a885-8610c5e16e55 | A i.e. Pancreatic Head Growth On barium meal, the loop of duodenum is widenedQ also k/a Pad Sign in cases of carcinoma head of pancreas. | Radiology | null | Widening of C loop of duodenum is a feature of:
A. Pancreatic head growth
B. Carcinoma stomach
C. Splenic involvement
D. Involvement of upper renal pole
| Pancreatic head growth |
7c011c0d-c4b8-4ee5-be16-9888c55d6c54 | Action of Anconeus
- Helps triceps in extension of elbow joint.
- Resists abduction of ulna on pronation of forearm.
- Screwing movement
- Elbow joint capsule tensor. | Anatomy | null | The action of the anconeus muscle is -
A. Screwing movements
B. Elbow flexion
C. Forearm supination
D. Adduction
| Screwing movements |
70f871bc-fe07-448a-89cb-0cb27544626d | Teletherapy REF: therapy, "External radiation therapy (also known as Teletherapy) is the most common kind of radiation therapy" | Radiology | null | Most common method of radiation dose delivery is:
A. Teletherapy
B. Electron beam
C. Brachytherapy
D. Radio immunotherapy
| Teletherapy |
5e8470e0-1461-4767-8baf-affca7c72b35 | Tributaries of Azygos vein
Right superior intercostal vein
Right posterior intercostal veins (5 to 11)
Hemiazygos vein
Accessory hemiazygos vein
Right bronchial vein
Esophageal, mediastinal and pericardial veins. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following is not a tributary of azygos vein?
A. Right posterior intercostal
B. Right superior intercostal
C. Left superior intercostal
D. Accessory hemiazygos
| Left superior intercostal |
5d2bb1a6-0320-4ebb-8fde-fd0ad59eccec | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antrumo The location of gastric carcinomas within the stomach is as fallows ;Pylorus and antrum 50 - 60%Cardia --> 25%Body and fundus --> Remaindero The lesser curvature is involved in about 40%and the greater curvature in 12%. o Thus, a ored location is the lesser curvature of the antropyloric region. | Pathology | null | Most Common site for carcinoma stomch ?
A. Antrum
B. Fundus
C. Lesser curvature
D. Greater curvature
| Antrum |
83d82fa5-5a56-46f8-ac07-10c52e34089b | Nux vomica seeds contain strychine, brucine and loganin. | Forensic Medicine | null | Nux vomica seeds contain 2 alkaloids, strychine and-
A. Hyoscine
B. Hyoscyamine
C. Brucine
D. Atropine
| Brucine |
5768d7d3-a3f0-4e4c-92ea-fe3a3234ed23 | Ans: C (Nucleotide excision repair) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition, Pg: 275 & Frosiius G Commentary: DNA base excision repair defects in human pathologies Free Radic Res. 2004 Oct:38(10): 1037-54.Explanation:Types of defects in DNA-repair systems and conditions associatedDNA Repair MechanismsDiseases associatedMismatch repair* Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer Syndrome* Muir-Torre SyndromeNucleotide excision repair* Xeroderma pigmentosum* Cockayne's syndrome* T richothiodystrophyBase excision repair* Gross defects - Not compatible with life* Partial defects -Colorectal cancer & LungRecombinational repairCancers* Ataxia Telangiectasia (ATM gene, genome instability syndrome)* Bloom syndrome (RecQ DNA helicase; BLM gene)* Fancont anemia (BRCA-2)* Werner syndrome (WRNp protein- RecQ DNA helicase)Direct Repair-- DNA damaging agent X-raysoxygen radicals (internal/external) alkylating agents spontaneousUV-light oxygen radicals (internal/external)X-raysoxygen radicals (internal/external) UV-lightanti-tumor agentsreplicationerrorsnon-enzymatic methylation of DNA by cellular S-adenosyl- methionine||Lesions|||Uracilabasic site 8-oxoguanme single-strand break6-4 photoproduct bulky adducts cyclobutane pyrimidine dimerdouble-strandbreakinterstrand-crosslinkA-G mismatchT-C mismatch insertiondeletionO-6-methyl-guanine||Repairprocess|||Base excision repair (BER)Nucleotide excision repair (NER)Recombinational repair (HR/NHEJ)Mismatch repair (MMR)Direct reversal (DR) | Pathology | Nature of Gene Abnormalities | Defect in xeroderma pigmentosum (Repeat)
A. Mismatch repair
B. Base excision repair
C. Nucleotide excision repair
D. Double strand break repair
| Nucleotide excision repair |
8f198dd9-3079-426e-834e-9a28246704ed | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Metastases * Brain metastases are the most common intracranial tumors in adults and account for more than one half of the brain tumors.* The most common mechanism is by hematogenous route.* The most common site is at the junction of grey and white matter. | Surgery | Nervous System | Most common intracranial tumor in adults is -
A. Astrocytoma
B. Metastases
C. Meningioma
D. Oligodendroglioma
| Metastases |
2a8822f2-3ad8-4602-b5e6-38ec91ab2ba3 | Most common site for undescended testis is inguinal canal | Surgery | null | Which is the most common site for ectopic testis
A. Iliac fossa
B. Inguinal canal
C. Abdomen
D. Lumbar
| Inguinal canal |
e2aa6dd6-d384-4388-bfb9-a24a43b32e1e | Polycythemia rubra vera It is an indolent disorder and thrombosis is the most significant complication. Maintenance of the hemoglobin level at 140 g/L (14 g/dL; hematocrit Phlebotomy : serves to help this aim. Phlebotomy reduce hyperviscosity by bringing the red cell mass into the normal range. Periodic phlebotomies maintain the red cell mass within the normal range. Periodic phlebotomy is usually required at 3-month intervals Ref: Harrison, E-18,P-904. | Medicine | null | The recommended hemoglobin level in male patients with polycythemia rubravera to avoid thrombotic episodes is:
A. 14 g/dl
B. 12 g/dl
C. 10g/dl
D. 8g/dl
| 14 g/dl |
7ce88ecf-4669-4de8-81c6-4ba662e1ffa4 | Nitric oxide, known as the 'endothelium-derived relaxing factor', or 'EDRF'. Endothelial cells contain the constitutive form of nitric oxide synthase, which produces moderate amounts of nitric oxide by metabolizing L-arginine. The endothelium of blood vessels uses nitric oxide to signal the surrounding smooth muscle to relax, thus resulting in vasodilation and increasing blood flow. Functions: Endothelium-derived nitric oxide inhibits contraction and proliferation of the underlying vascular smooth muscle, adhesion of blood cells and platelets, and platelet aggregation. Ref: Hypeension Primer: The Essentials of High Blood Pressure By Joseph L Izzo, Jr, Henry R Black, M.D., Theodore L. Goodfriend, 2003, Page 44; Guyton's physiology, 22nd edition, Page 199 | Physiology | null | Nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator. Where is it produced from?
A. Endothelium
B. RBC
C. Platelets
D. Lymphocytes
| Endothelium |
88b294b5-e0bb-45c0-8582-495a2868c4e6 | Common findings in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) include Prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT) and/or Prolonged Paial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), thrombocytopenia, presence of schistocytes and increased levels of fibrin degradation products (FDP). Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 729; Harrison 16th 7 683 ; Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 20th Edition, Chapter 24, Page 1060. | Medicine | null | The following set of findings is seen in Disseminated Intravasular Coagulation (DIC):
A. Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombinIII, increased thrombin-antithrombin III complexes
B. Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
C. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
D. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced Platelets
| Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced Platelets |
2532d806-70f9-4268-b334-4f7fc8614702 | (C) Ascending loop # Loop diuretics: are diuretics that act on the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney.> They are primarily used in medicine to treat hypertension and edema often due to congestive heart failure or renal insufficiency.# Mechanism of action:> Loop diuretics act on the Na+-K+-2CI' symporter (cotransporter) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle to inhibit sodium & chloride reabsorption. This is achieved by competing for the Cl' binding site.> Because magnesium and calcium reabsorption in the thick ascending limb is dependent on sodium and chloride concentrations, loop diuretics also inhibit their reabsorption> By disrupting the reabsorption of these ions, loop diuretics prevent the urine from becoming concentrated and disrupt the generation of a hypertonic renal medulla | Pharmacology | Miscellaneous (Pharmacology) | The Loop diuretic acts at
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Ascending loop
D. Descending loop
| Ascending loop |
9c01d5d9-32c0-47d5-930c-4a66cab39afc | Vascular injury leading to endothelial cell loss or dysfunction stimulates smooth muscle cell growth and associated matrix synthesis. Healing of injured vessels involves the migration of smooth muscle cells or smooth muscle cell precursor cells into the intima. Here these cells proliferate, and synthesize ECM in much the same way that fibroblasts fill in a wound, forming a neointima that typically is covered by an intact endothelial cell layer. This neointimal response occurs with any form of vascular damage or dysfunction, including infection, inflammation, immune injury, physical trauma (e.g., from a balloon catheter or hypeension), or toxic exposure (e.g. oxidized lipids or cigarette smoke). Thus, intimal thickening is a stereotypical response of the vessel wall to any insult ( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9 th edition, page 334 ) | Pathology | Cardiovascular system | Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hyperophy of
A. Endothelial cells
B. Collagen fibers
C. Smooth muscle cells
D. Elastic fibers
| Smooth muscle cells |
04fdda71-03fe-4220-a3c1-849ba4e2fd66 | Ans. C: Primary hyperparathyroidism The most common cause of high calcium levels (hypercalcemia) is an overproduction of parathyroid hormone, or hyperparathyroidism. Hyperparathyroidism tends to be more common in women, and occurs in 25 out of every 100,000 individuals. Hyperparathyroidism can be the result of all four parathyroid glands producing an excessive amount of parathyroid hyperplasia (PTH), or the result of just one gland specifically producing an excessive amount of PTH (usually the result of a parathyroid adenoma or benign tumor). Other conditions associated with hypercalcemia include: Cancers, paicularly multiple myeloma, breast cancer and lung cancer; Excessive levels of vitamin D from vitamins, excessive dietary calcium, or from diseases that may result in excess vitamin D production; Immobilization over a long period of time; Kidney failure; Overactive thyroid (hypehyroidism) or excessive thyroid hormone intake; and Use of ceain medications such as thiazide diuretics. Endocrine disorders like adrenal insufficiency, pheochromocytoma Calcitonin is a hypocalcemic hormone. | Medicine | null | Increased plasma concentration of calcium is associated with: March 2009
A. Rickets
B. Osteomalacia
C. Primary hyperparathyroidism
D. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
| Primary hyperparathyroidism |
4088c200-1f92-43aa-bd79-95be7bf011d6 | Serum alkaline phosphatase is a consistent marker and is raised in all types of rickets. | Orthopaedics | null | Which of the following is a persistant biochemical marker of rickets -
A. S.Ca++
B. S Alkaline phosphatase
C. S. Acid phosphate
D. S. phosphate
| S Alkaline phosphatase |
6ba158c7-60fb-4434-978f-025b4dfe554b | Ans. c (District magistrate) (Ref. Parikh FMT 6th ed., p 2.90)EXHUMATION# By exhumation is meant the lawful disinterment or digging out of buried body from the grave.# It is sometimes necessary for -- Identification- Determination of cause of death (foul play suspected)# As the Hindus who form majority cremate their dead bodies within a few hrs, exhumation in India is quite rare.# Only a magistrate or coroner can order it.# In India, there is no time limit for exhumation. | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | Exhumation can be ordered by
A. Doctor
B. Civil surgeon
C. District magistrate
D. Police commissioner
| District magistrate |
75fd3bd6-96ac-4988-9134-eb5fec5d6722 | Basic electrical rhythm (BER) is initiated by the interstitial cells of Cajal, stellate mesenchymal pacemaker cells. The rate of the BER is about 4/min in the stomach. It is about 12/min in the duodenum and falls to about 8/min in the distal ileum. In the colon, the BER rate rises from about 2/min at the cecum to about 6/min at the sigmoid. The function of the BER is to coordinate peristaltic and other motor activity, such as setting the rhythm of segmentation; contractions can occur only during the depolarizing pa of the waves. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 27. Gastrointestinal Motility. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | Physiology | null | Which of the following pa of the colon has maximum basic electrical rhythm (BER)?
A. Ascending colon
B. Descending colon
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Transverse colon
| Sigmoid colon |
9a189c08-0c4f-44a5-9493-42a3fe5f69dc | Epidemiological criteria for assessing severity of IDD. Total goitre Rate (TGR) : Grade I + Grade II Median urinary iodine excretion. Thyroid volume (Ultrasound). Salt iodine content Criteria for sustainable elimination of IDD. Median Urinary Iodine Excretion 100 mcg/L Level of iodization: 1) 30ppm at production level 2) 15 ppm at consumer level Total goitre Rate (TGR) :<5% Ref: Assessment of IDD and monitoring their elimination, WHO 3rd edition | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | As per the World Health Organisation guidelines, iodine deficiency disorders are endemic in a community if the prevalence of goiter in school age children in more than -
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
| 10% |
837e0afb-c3ec-4aa4-93ad-25acf3acfcc8 | METHOD Sterlization control Hot air oven Autoclave Filtration Ionizing radiation (cold sterilization) Ethylene oxide Plasma sterilization Clostridium tetani non toxigenic strain, B.subtilis sub sp. niger B.Stearothermophillus Brivundimonas dimunata B. Pumilus B.Globigi B.Stearothermophillus | Microbiology | General Microbiology Pa-2 and Pa-3 (Sterilization and Bacterial Genetics) | The biological indicator used in various autoclave machines for quality check is-
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Bacillus stereothermophilus
C. Bacillus pumilus
D. Bacillus subtilis
| Bacillus stereothermophilus |
76da772d-b1fa-4e52-a37d-62988939b96f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Outer hair cells of basal turn o Aminoglycosides affect exclusively outer hair cells, paicularly of basal coil of cochlea. | Pharmacology | null | Aminoglycoside class of drugs causes hearing loss by damaging?
A. Inner hair cells of basal turn
B. Outer hair cells of basal turn
C. Inner hair cells of apical turn
D. Outer hair cells of apical turn
| Outer hair cells of basal turn |
7d435cfd-c3c1-47eb-9db5-6ea56f801628 | Ans. b (2:1) (Ref. Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 16th ed., 2019)CD4/CD8 Ratio# The ratio of 2:1 found in normal tissues.# In HIV infection the CD4 count is often decreased and the CD8 count increased so the ratio might 'invert', that is become less than 1.AIDS Diagnosis:* < 200 CD4 count,* HIV Positive with Aids indicator conditions (E.g., PCP),or* CD4/CD8 ratio < 1.5.# Lymphopenia predominantly due to selective loss of the CD4+ helper-inducer T-cell subset; inversion of CD4:CD8 ratio.CD4 Cell# Also known as "T4" or "helper T cell," the CD4 cell is the primary target of HIV.# It performs critical functions such as signaling other parts of the immune system to respond to an infection.# There are two main types of T-cells.- T4 cells, also called CD4+, are "helper" cells.* They lead the attack against infections.- T8 cells (CD8+) are "suppressor" cells that end the immune response.* CD8+ cells can also be "killer" cells that kill cancer cells and cells infected with a virus.# Treatment decisions are often based on viral load and CD4 count.# Normal counts range from 500 to 1500. | Pathology | Immunity | Normal CD4:CD8 ratio is
A. 3:01
B. 2:01
C. 1:02
D. 1:03
| 2:01 |
2a769350-8300-4499-ae2e-9dc723aa6715 | Option 1, 2, 3 Heat tolerance test (60oC) is negative for Group A, B, C Streptococci. Option 4 Enterococcus is heat resistant. Enterococcus grows in presence of 6.5% NaCl, pH 9.6 and temperature >55oC which differentiate it from Group D streptococci. | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology Pa 1 (Gram Positive Cocci, Gram Negative Cocci) | Which group of streptococcus grow at > 60degC -
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| D |
81f1689f-eddf-4365-96fa-863bb23a1ae7 | Internal oblique forms cremasteric muscle. Internal oblique and transversus abdominis form the conjoint tendon. Poupart's ligament, lacunar ligament, pectineal ligament, superficial inguinal ring, and external spermatic fascia are all formed by external oblique muscle. | Anatomy | null | Which of following are associated with external oblique muscle -a) Pouparts ligamentb) Lacunar ligamentc) Superficial inguinal ringd) Conjoint tendone) Cremaster muscle
A. ab
B. abc
C. acd
D. bcd
| abc |
c49daf84-fbda-40da-b8f0-c972e0a61b01 | IgE is synthesised by plasma cells. Monomers of IgE consist of two heavy chains (e chain) and two light chains, with the e chain containing 4 Ig-like constant domains Reff: Ananthanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:136 | Microbiology | Immunology | IgE is secreted by -
A. Mast cell
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Plasma cells
| Plasma cells |
7f775dbd-b0e1-4901-b30b-3692df793fac | The lamina propria may attach to the periosteum of the alveolar bone , or it may overlay the submucosa. | Dental | null | The lamina propria, a layer of dense connective tissue is:
A. Thicker in anterior than posterior part of the palate.
B. Thicker in posterior than anterior part of the palate.
C. Not found in the posterior part of the palate.
D. Not found in the anterior part of the palate.
| Thicker in anterior than posterior part of the palate. |
60956c24-8b5c-4a54-82df-9fadf05a9573 | Hyoscine or scopolamine and thiopentone sodium are the drugs used in lie detection .they are considered as truth serum .under CNS depression it is implied that the patient usually tells the truth Ref: Goodman Gillman 11th ed pg 231-232 | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Drug which is used in lie detection (truth serum)
A. Glycopyrrolate
B. Solifenacin
C. Hyoscine
D. Acetylcholine
| Hyoscine |
dbb6a4db-35a1-42d7-85a5-cb8246dcb910 | Cytochrome c is a component of the electron transpo chain in mitochondria. ... Cytochrome c is also involved in initiation of apoptosis. Upon release ofcytochrome c to the cytoplasm, the protein bindsapoptotic protease activating factor-1 (Apaf-1).which is very impoant for cellular apoptosis Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e pg 40 | Physiology | General physiology | In apoptosis which is/are involved
A. Apaf-1
B. Bcl2
C. Caspases
D. Programeed cell death
| Apaf-1 |
66c6c3eb-83bd-499a-952a-5528d96ca0c5 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ventricular ejection During ventricular ejection phase, when the steeply rising left ventricular pressure exceeds the aoic pressure (120 mm Hg), it is able to push open the aoic valve and eject the blad into the aoa, making the onset of ventricular ejection. PHASE OF CARDIAC CYCLE A cardiac cycle refers to the interval between onset of one heabeat to the onset of the next hea beat. It has two main phases : Ventricular systole and ventricular diastole. Ventricular systole (or simply systole) The systolic phase is divided into : - i) Isovolumetric contraction : As the ventricular contraction stas, the intraventricular pressure begins to rise, leading to an abrupt closure of AV valves (mitral and tricuspid valves). The closure of AV valves produces first hea sound (S1). the pressure is not enough to push open the semilunar valves (aoic and pulmonary) but causes the closed AV valve to bulge into the atrium, causing a small but sharp rise in atrial pressure called the 'C' wave on jugular venous pulse (JVP). Because both the valves (AV valves an semilunar valves) are closed, there is no change in volume, i.e., there is isovolumetric (isometric) contraction. Isovolumetric contraction ends with opening of semilunar (aoic and pulmonary) valves. ii) Ventricular ejection : When the steeply rising ventricular pressure exceeds the pressure in aoa and pulmonary aery, the semilunar valves open and ventricular ejection begins. The ejection of blood is rapid at first (rapid ejection phase), but slows down during later pa of systole (slow ejection phase). During rapid ejection phase, when the ventricles contract, the fibrous paition separating the ventricles from the atria (the AV ring) is pulled down. As a result, the atrial muscles get stretched and the atria dilate which causes a sharp fall in atrial pressure and the X-descent in JVP. iii) Protodiastole : In this very sho phase, ventricles sta relaxing and ventricular pressure begins to fall very sharply but the semilunar valves are still open. As a result, the column of blood in aoa (or pulmonary aery for right ventricle) tries to fall into the ventricle, hitting on its way the semilunar (aoic or pulmonary) valves. This causes closure of the aoic/pulmonary valves which produces 2" hea sound (S2). The venous blood flow continues to flow in the atria from great veins (SVC and ICC) and there is relaxation of fibrous AV ring due to ventricular relaxation; both of which cause a rise in atrial pressure and production of `V' wave in JVP. Ventricular diastole (or simply diastole) The diastole phase is divided into : - i) Isovolumetric relaxation : - This phase is the period between the closure of semilunar valve and opening of the AV valve. The ventricles continue relaxing and there pressure continues to fall. However, as both valves (AV valves and semilunar valves) are closed, there is no change in volume, i.e., isovolumetric relaxation. Relaxation phase ends with opening of AV valve. ii) Rapid ventricular filling : - When the ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure, AV valves open and the accumulated blood in the atria rushes into the ventricle very rapidly. This passive filling contributes to 70% of ventricular filling, normally. This results in a sharp fall in atrial pressure which produces Y descent in JVP. iii) Diastasis : - After the initial rapid ventricular filling, blood flows slowly and smoothly from the SVC and IVC through the right atrium into the right ventricle without any turbulence anywhere along the path. Similarly, blood from the pulmonary veins flows into the left ventricle without any turbulence. This phase of nonturbulent ventricular filling is called diastasis. The atrial pressure remains slightly greater than the ventricular pressure because inflow to atrium exceeds the outflow the atrium. iv) Last rapid filling phase (atrial systole) : - The atria contract and pump blood rapidly into the ventricles.Atrial systole is associated with sharp rise in atrial pressure which produces a-wave in JVP. | Physiology | null | Maximum pressure in left ventricle is seen in which phase of cardiac cycle ?
A. Isovolumetric contraction
B. Ventricular ejection
C. Protodiastole
D. Rapid ventricular filling
| Ventricular ejection |
0c7e2ba7-3604-4673-9c7d-d9fd32781c14 | child abuse have certain characteristic features :
Inflicted fractures of the shaft are more likely to be spiral rather than transverse.
A classic finding is a chip fracture in which a corner of the metaphysis of a long bone is torn off with damage to epiphysis and periosteum.
Bruises, Petechiae and Ecchymosis... all provide further clues to the diagnosis of child abuse.
In the given patient presence of spiral fracture femur, along with varying degrees of ecchymosis is highly suggestive of Battered baby syndrome. | Orthopaedics | null | A 4-year-old female brought to the casualty department with multiple fractured ribs, and inconspicuous history from parents. On examination show multiple bruises and healed fractures. The probable diagnosis is -
A. Polytrauma for evaluation
B. Flail chest
C. Munchausen syndrome
D. Battered baby syndrome
| Battered baby syndrome |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.