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a772d32d-5bed-4959-a7ea-3b703fb06621 | Ursodeoxycholic acid (10-15 mg/kg/day) is the drug of choice in the treatment of intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy. It relieves pruritus, reduces bile salt levels in maternal serum and may reduce the frequency of fetal complications. It improves serum liver test and liver histology in cholestatic disease. Ref: Oxford Textbook of Medicine, 4th Edition, Pages 422 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By DC Dutta, 6th Edition, Page 291 ; Bile Acids and Pregnancy By U. Leuschner, P. A. Berg, J. Holtmeier, 2002, Page 36. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Treatment of choice for Intrahepatic Cholestasis in Pregnancy is:
A. Cholestyramine
B. Ursodiol (Ursodeoxycholic acid)
C. Coicosteroids (Dexamethasone)
D. Antihistaminics
| Ursodiol (Ursodeoxycholic acid) |
51ba8067-6955-4dda-8913-a27c2eda6bdf | C i.e. Overuse Most frequent cause of paial or complete rupture of a muscle or tendon is eccentric overloadQ of the muscle tendon unit. One factor contributing to muscle overload is fatigue (due to over use)Q, which makes the muscle unable to absorb as much as eccentric force before overload. Strains most commonly occur in muscles that cross two joints, muscles that have higher % of type II fast twitch muscle fibers, and weaker muscle of an agonist antagonist muscle group. eg hamstring, gastrocnemius & rectus femoris. Achiles tendon rupture commonly occurs to otherwise healthy men b/w the ages of 30 & 50 years who have no previous injury or problem repoed in affected leg; typically "weekened warrious" who are active intermittently. Most TA tears occurs in left leg in the substance of TA, - 2- 6 cm - the watershed zone - above the caleaned inseion of tendon (d/t right handed more commonly push off with left foot) The most common mechanism of injury include sudden forced plantar flexion of foot unexpected dorsiflesion of foot, & violent dorsiflexion of planter flexed foot. Other mechanism indude direct trauma & less commonly, attrition of the tendon as a result of long standing peritenositis with or without tendinosis that body is unable to repair. | Surgery | null | Ruptured tendon is most commonly seen in
A. Stab injury
B. Soft Tissue tumour
C. Overuse
D. Congenital defect
| Overuse |
a6c7c209-64d7-4129-9160-0b52c65a1b58 | Ans. (b) Growth hormone(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p325.)Excess levels of growth hormone causes Gigantism (before the closure of epiphysis) and Acromegaly (After the closure of epiphysis) | Physiology | Endocrinology and Reproduction | Acromegaly is due to excess of:
A. Somatomedin
B. Growth hormone
C. Somatostation
D. Insulin
| Growth hormone |
8d8b916d-e4fe-4b4d-8964-e641619ad6dd | Once the pneumoencephalum has developed nitrous oxide should not be used for 1 week. | Anaesthesia | null | If pneumocephalus created either by surgery or by performance of a pneumoencephalogram, it is suggested that nitrous oxide be avoided for how many days –
A. 4 days
B. 5 days
C. 6 days
D. 7 days
| 7 days |
a569f8de-a4b1-4e92-b057-159c070100fd | Ans. B: Uveitis Conditions associated with uveitis in which HLA testing is employed: Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of ahritis that mainly affects the spine. This can cause recurrent ahritis. It is mostly associated with HLA B27 Reiter's syndrome is an inflammatory ahritis common in young men - often caused by chlamydia infection. It is mostly associated with HLA B27 Other diseases associated with specific HLA antigens: Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome is an inflammatory condition that involves the eyes and meninges (coverings of the brain). The condition is most common in Asians and American Indians. It often causes uveitis in both eyes and retinal detachments, and can result in serious vision loss and blindness. Behcet's disease is a rare, chronic inflammatory disease. The cause of Behcet's disease is unknown. If often begins when individuals are in their 20s or 30s, although it can happen at any age. Uveitis is very common with people suffering from Behcet's, which can cause acute uveitis that happens soon after onset of Behcet's disease. | Ophthalmology | null | HLA testing aids in the diagnosis of which ocular affection: March 2010
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Uveitis
C. Retinitis
D. Viteous hemorrhage
| Uveitis |
06d74933-95e3-4819-88a8-31564de07144 | Normal PT and APTT exclude option a and c because PT is raised in factor X deficiency and APTT is raised in Von Willebrand disease.
So we are left with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia and Bernard Soulier syndrome.
Both these disorder are platelet function disorders and can result in neonatal bleeding.
Disorders of platelet function produce defects in the formation of a hemostatic plug and thus results in bleeding.
Both are congenital disorders.
There is little to differentiate between these two disorders.
Between these two, Glanzmann's thrombasthenia can present as bleeding since birth.
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia is a rare autosomal recessive disorder.
The disease is characterized by a deficiency of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa which acts as a receptor for fibrinogen.
The disease manifests at birth with increased bleeding from the umbilical cord stump.
a. There is a lifelong mucocutaneous bleeding tendency in the form of epistaxis, ecchymoses and bleeding from the gums.
b. Episodes of G.I. bleeding genitourinary bleeding or post surgery/trauma may occur. However, bleeding episodes decrease with increasing age.
Bernard Soulier syndrome
It is a rare autosomal disorder characterized by mild thrombocytopenia, giant platelets and defective adhesion.
The striking abnormality is giant platelet in peripheral smear.
The membrane abnormality is GPIb-IX-V complex in platelets and megakaryocytes.
Bleeding usually begins at an early age.
There is moderate bleeding in the form of purpuric rash, bruising epistaxis, gingival bleeding and men.
The main lab findings are increased in bleeding time without any coagulation abnormality. | Pathology | null | A newborn baby presented with profuse bleeding from the umbilical stump after birth. Rest of the examination and PT, APTT are within normal limits. Most probable diagnosis is -
A. Factor X deficiency
B. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C. Von willebrand disease
D. Bernard soulier disease
| Glanzmann thrombasthenia |
d075e8c3-bb4c-402a-bbc9-8b4ef7a0e914 | Germ cell tumors of the testis often secrete enzymes or polypeptide hormones, examples of which include a fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). AFP is synthesized by the fetal gut, liver, and yolk sac. It may be secreted by either yolk sac tumors (endodermal sinus tumors) or embryonal carcinomas. AFP may also be secreted by liver cell carcinomas. b-hCG is a glycoprotein that is normally synthesized by placental syncytiotrophoblasts. Markedly elevated serum levels are most often associated with choriocarcinomas, which are characterized histologically by a mixture of malignant cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts. Mildly elevated serum levels of b-hCG may be found in patients with other types of germ cell tumors if they contain syncytiotrophoblast-like giant cells. This is found in about 10% of classic seminomas, which are characterized histologically by large cells with distinct cell membranes and clear cytoplasm. An impoant, distinct variant of seminoma is the spermatocytic seminoma. It is characterized by being found in older individuals and by the fact that it does not metastasize. Histologically, a spermatocytic seminoma is characterized by maturation of the tumor cells, some of which histologically resemble secondary spermatocytes. To summarize: markedly elevated levels of hCG are associated with choriocarcinomas, while elevated levels of AFP are most characteristic of yolk sac tumors and embryonal carcinomas. But there are many areas of overlap between tumors, and many tumors are composed of multiple types of germ cell cancers. The only definitive statement that can be made is that elevated serum levels of AFP cannot be seen in a tumor that is a pure seminoma. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition | Pathology | miscellaneous | A 27-year-old male presents with a testicular mass, which is resected and diagnosed as being a yolk sac tumor. Which one of the listed substances is most likely to be increased in this patient's serum as a result of being secreted from the cells of this tumor?
A. Acid phosphatase
B. a fetoprotein (AFP)
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. b-human chorionic gonadotropin (b-hCG)
| a fetoprotein (AFP) |
4c29006f-e3b9-43ec-aa27-ed568e5a3062 | (Ref: K.D. Tripathi 8th ed. P 131)Atropine 1% ointment is preferred for refractive error test in children below 5 years. It is applied 24 hours and 2 hours before the procedure.The shorter acting agents like homatropine, tropicamide and cyclopentolate does not produce effective cycloplegia in children (ciliary muscle tone of child is high)Ointment is preferred over eye drop as there is increased risk of systemic absorption of eye drop which can cause anticholinergic side effect in child. Example: Hyperthermia, decreased secretion, tachycardia etc.Cycloplegic agent of choice is adult/elderly: Tropicamide. The protein binding of esmolol is 55%.For only fundoscopy/mydriasis, preferred agent is: Phenylephrine (Sympathomimetic) | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | In a 2-year-old child refractive error test is done with:
A. 1% atropine ointment
B. 1% atropine eye drop
C. Tropicamide 0.5%
D. Eucatropine 5%
| 1% atropine ointment |
f1940d2b-ee3e-4daf-8e13-f8a0e2f6787d | Sniffing: Inhaling fumes from the liquid in anopen container.Bagging: Placing the chemical in a bag and thenputting it over the face.Huffing: Applying the chemical to a cloth/rag andthen inhaling it by covering nose and mouth withthe cloth/rag. | Forensic Medicine | Drug Abuse | Inhaling the cloth soaked in drug is
A. Bagging
B. Spraying
C. Huffing
D. Sniffing
| Huffing |
1177731e-9eba-40ef-ac5f-dc50d365c16d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Infiltration anaesthesia o Infiltration anaesthesia is the injection of local anaesthetic directly into tissue without taking into consideration the course of cutaneous nerve. | Pharmacology | null | Local anaesthetic injected directly into the tissue ?
A. Infiltration anaesthesia
B. Nerve block
C. Field block
D. Bier's block
| Infiltration anaesthesia |
58813a07-d607-4bbb-9b13-70a8219eb853 | (D) Second rib# Thoracic outlet syndrome: Scalenus anticus syndrome> "This is a symptom complex resulting from compression of the neurovascular bundle (artery, vein, or nerves) at the superior thoracic outlet as it courses through the neck and shoulder.> Cervical ribs, abnormalities of the scalenus anticus muscle, proximity of the clavicle to the first rib, or abnormal insertion of the pectoralis minor muscle may compress the subclavian artery, subclavian vein (see below), and brachial plexus as these structures pass from the thorax to the arm.> Depending on the structures affected, thoracic outlet compression syndrome may be divided into arterial, venous, and neurogenic forms.> Patients with neurogenic thoracic outlet compression may develop shoulder and arm pain, weakness, and paresthesias.> Patients with arterial compression may experience claudication, Raynaud's phenomenon, and even ischemic tissue loss and gangrene.> Venous compression may cause thrombosis of the subclavian and axillary veins; this is often associated with effort and referred to as Paget-Schroetter syndrome.> Examination of the patient with thoracic outlet compression syndrome is often normal unless provocative maneuvers..." | Anatomy | Misc. | Which doesnot form a part of thoracic outlet?
A. Brachial plexus
B. Subclavian vein
C. Apex of lung
D. Second rib
| Second rib |
d60172b9-0796-4cc9-98b0-25c9f1b4e287 | Most common benign tumor of the liver Mainly seen in women of 45 years Small capillary hemangiomas(no clinical significance), larger cavernous hemangioma Usually single and <5 cm in diameter, occur equally in right and left liver Giant hemangioma: lesion>5cm Pathology Microscopically: Endothelium-lines, blood filled spaces that are seperated by thin, fibrous septa Enlargement of hemangiomas are by ectasia rather than neoplasia Clinical features Most commonly asymptomatic and incidentally found on imaging studies Large compressive masses may cause vague upper abdominal symptoms Kasabach-Merritt syndrome; syndrome of thrombocytopenia and consumptive coagulapathy Rarely seen LFT's and tumor markers are normal Diagnosis Diagnosis is made radiologically CT and MRI are diagnostic if a typical peripheral nodular enhancement pattern is seen Percutaneous biopsy is potentially dangerous and inaccurate not recommended Treatment Observation for asymptomatic cases Enucleation with inflow control is TOC for symptomatic cases Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1456-1457 | Anatomy | G.I.T | CECT with nodular enhancement is suggestive of
A. Hepatic adenoma
B. FNH
C. Hemangioma
D. Cholangiodenoma
| Hemangioma |
2072ec42-9613-4f33-9bd7-b5da9fed198d | Fructose 2, 6-biphosphate has unique role in regulation of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis in liver. | Biochemistry | null | Phospho-dephosphorylation of phosphofructokinase and fructose 1, 6, biphosphatase by fructose 2, 6,biphosphate regulation is seen in
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Adrenal cortex
D. RBC
| Liver |
ecef24f3-51ab-418d-8dd6-0f60326ab766 | Ans. b (Hip) (Ref Maheshwari orthopedics 4th/165)TOM SMITH ARTHRITIS# Septic arthritis of hip joint in infant# Acute onset with rapid abscess formation# Head of femur is cartilaginous at this age and hence rapidly and completely destroyed by the pyogenic process.# Affected limb shorter and hip movements are increasd in all directions# Telescopy test +.# Complete absence of the head and neck of femur and normally developed round acetabulum on X-ray differentiates it from CDH.# Rx:- Arthroscopic wound lavage (minimally invasive Rx). | Orthopaedics | Infection of Bones & Joints | Tom Smith arthritis involves
A. Knee
B. Hip
C. Ankle
D. Wrist
| Hip |
6b7dca06-0169-4695-9dbb-ca4ec5ae2a0d | Type A: Augmented pharmacologic effects - Dose dependent and predictable e.g. hypoglycemia caused by anti-hyperglycemic drugs like sulfonylureas.
Type B: Bizarre effects (or idiosyncratic) - Dose independent and unpredictable e.g. allergic reactions caused by penicllins.
Type C: Chronic effects e.g. peptic ulcer caused by chronic use of NSAIDs.
Type D: Delayed effects e.g. teratogenicity caused by thalidomide.
Type E: End-of-treatment effects e.g. withdrawal response to morphine.
Type F: Failure of therapy. | Pharmacology | null | Hypoglycemia caused by anti-hyperglycemic drugs like sulfonylureas can be classified as (adverse drug reaction):
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
| Type A |
ed0010b2-0b77-4318-b175-c472686a8287 | It is seen in newborn babies breastfed by lithium-ingesting mothers due to disruption of afferent inputs from stretch receptors. Manifesting as hypotonicity, lethargy, and cyanosis (floppy baby syndrome). | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology - 1 | The toxic substance responsible for floppy baby syndrome is
A. Lithium
B. Cadmium
C. Antimony
D. Barium
| Lithium |
710177ef-c2f6-428b-a34f-cd5551e23e0f | Convergent muscle is one where all the fibres converge at the insertion (Fan shaped)
Eg - Temporalis | Anatomy | null | Convergent muscle among the following is
A. Subscapularis
B. Deltoid
C. Temporalis
D. Pectoralis minor
| Temporalis |
92128fc6-e798-4064-9771-7e45042b7f96 | Omeprazole:- It is the prototype member of substituted benzimidazoles which inhibit the final common step in gastric acid secretion. The only significant pharmacological action of omeprazole is dose dependent suppression of gastric acid secretion; without anticholinergic or H2 blocking action. It is a powerful inhibitor of gastric acid: can totally abolish HCl secretion, both resting as well as that stimulated by food or any of the secretagogues, without much effect on pepsin, intrinsic factor, juice volume and gastric motility. Omeprazole is inactive at neutral pH, but at pH < 5 it rearranges to two charged cationic forms (a sulphenic acid and a sulphenamide configurations) that react covalently with SH groups of the H+K+ATPase enzyme and inacti- vate it irreversibly. Acid secretion resumes only when new H+K+ATPase molecules are synthesized (reactivation half time 18 hours). It also inhibits gastric mucosal carbonic anhydrase. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-648,651,652 | Pharmacology | Gastrointestinal tract | Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors
A. Loxatidine
B. Pirenzepine
C. Omeprazole
D. Famotidine
| Omeprazole |
d6866d3e-c901-43ff-95c6-37c0ebfe6609 | Tinea pedis ( Athlete foot ) - Infection of web space between the toes Caused by Epidermophyton floccosum | Microbiology | Mycology | Tinea pedis is caused by which of the following -
A. E. floccosum
B. M. furfur
C. M. canis
D. E. werneckii
| E. floccosum |
e8a4e83f-88e1-4cea-b5cd-573bec010aaf | Ref: Cavorsi A'. Prabhakar P, Kirby C. Acute pyelonephritis. Ultrasound Q 2010;26(2): 103-5 ami Ultrasound: A Practical Approach to Clinical Problems, Edited by Edward I. Bluth, Page 465 and Genitourinary Imaging by Shailendra Chopra, Thieme PublishersExplanation:"The affected kidney is enlarged, areas of relative ischemia develop within the kidney increased intraparenchymal pressure. Perinephric edema maybe present." Ref: Genitourinary ImagingACUTE PYELONEPHRITISDiagnosis of acute pyelonephritis is made with clinical and laboratory findings.Imaging is required only ino Atypical presentationso Complications.o Inadequate response to therapy.Ultrasound is insensitive to the changes of acute pyelonephritis, with most patients having 'normal' scan, and abnormalities only identified in 20-24% of cases, especially in severe cases.Possible Ultrasound Features include Features of Acute PyelonephritisDiffuse renal enlargement.Loss of corticomedullary differentiation.Submucosal edema of renal pelvis/ureter.Calyceal/Pelvic/ureterul dilatation.Particulate matter in the collecting system.Gas bubbles (Emphysematous pyelonephritis).Abnormal echogenicity of the renal parenchyma:o Focal/Segmental hypoechoic/hyperechotc regions.o Diffuse or focal enlargement of the kidney (Rarely 'mass' like lesion)o Wedge or round shaped.Note:Color Doppler typically shows decreased perfusion in the affected parenchyma, which is due to arteriolar vasoconstriction and interstitial edema.CECT is more accurate in detecting changes of pyelonephritis than conventional sonography. | Radiology | CT and MRI of the Kidney | Which of the following is not seen in imaging of acute pyelonephritis?
A. Grossly enlarged kidney
B. Focal areas of hypoechogenicity
C. Perinephric edema
D. Increased vascularity
| Increased vascularity |
aec922d3-7897-4037-a2bd-4e80d2383964 | Ans. c (Generation time) (Ref. Text book of PSM by Park 22nd/96)Generation time: is the time interval between receipt of infection by host and max. infectivity1Median incubation periodTime required for 50% of cases to occur following exposure.2Incubation periodPeriod of entry of organism to appearance of first sign or symptom.3Serial intervalThe gap in onset of primary and secondary case.4Primary caseFirst case in community5Index caseFirst case detected in community (may or may not be primary case) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of Health and Disease | The interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximum infectivity is known as
A. Median incubation period
B. Screening time
C. Generation time
D. Minimum incubation period
| Generation time |
4b5cc976-e3f5-404d-87dc-1e68ef359c67 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thyroid Ophthalmopathy o The most common cause of unilateral proptosis in children is orbital cellulitis.o The most common cause of unilateral proptosis in adults is thyroid ophthalmopathy. | Ophthalmology | Proptosis, Enophthalmos, Developmental Anomalies | Most common cause of proptosis in adults is -
A. Orbital cellulitis
B. Thyroid Ophthalmopathy
C. Carotico - cavernous fistula
D. Trauma
| Thyroid Ophthalmopathy |
d844ee84-474f-45f9-82bf-c4e074171e91 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alanine o Transport of alanine from muscle to liver (glucose-alanine cycle) has two functions :-Providing substrate for giuconeogenesisTransport of ammonia (NH4+) to liver for urea synthesis.o During the first few days of starvation, there is a rapid breakdown of muscle protein, providing aminoacids for giuconeogenesis. The most important gluconeogenic amino acid is alanineQ (through glucose-alanine cycle). Alanine is released due to increased muscle protein breakdownQ and is transported to liver for giuconeogen-esis (glucose alanine cycle). The other important gluconeogenic amino acid in starvation is glutamine,o After some weeks of starvation, the rate of muscle breakdown decreases due to decreased need of glucose as a fuel for brain which has began using ketone bodies as a source of energy'. However, when the triacylglycerol stores are completely exhaused, muscle proteins once again enter in a stage of rapid depletion due to protein breakdown,o Alanine transport from muscle to liver has an important additional role, beside giuconeogenesis. Because muscle is incapable of synthesizing urea, most of the ammonia formed by protein catabolism is transferred to pyruvate to form alanine by transamination. Alanine is transported to liver where amino group of alanine is removed to form urea and the resulting pyruvate is converted to glucose by giuconeogenesis.o Thus, sources of alanine release from muscle are (i) Degradation of protein (ii) Transamination of pyruvate.o Besides alanine, lactate produced in muscles by anerobic use of glucose, also seves as a substrate for giuconeogenesis - cori cycle or lactic acid cycle | Biochemistry | Amino Acids Basics | Glucogenic amino acid transported to the liver most commonly -
A. Alanine
B. Glycine
C. Lysine
D. Leucine
| Alanine |
26c93082-d155-4d7a-8292-212ab8fba98b | Ans DDMSA scan is used to study renal morphology thus out of given options only renal artery stenosis is not a renal morphological defect. Renal artery stenosis is studied by Captopril-DTPA scan | Radiology | Genito Urinary System | Which of the following is not evaluated using 99mm Tc- DMSA scintigraphy?
A. Renal anomalies
B. Renal pseudomass
C. Renal scarring
D. Renal artery stenosis
| Renal artery stenosis |
f02d5b03-7dc1-4011-8742-807506ec2ff6 | DNA fingerprinting was developed by Alec JeffreyQ. Brain finger printing invented by Dr.Lawrence FarrelQ Brain Fingerprinting (Brain Mapping): Brain mapping is a group of neuroscience techniques based on the mapping the activities of the different areas of the brain. The electrical activities of the brain is measured & analysed. Is a computer-based test | Forensic Medicine | Human identification | DNA fingerprinting was first developed by?
A. Alec jeffreys
B. William herschelle
C. Edward hennery
D. Francis galton
| Alec jeffreys |
a7eff991-869d-47d5-b2ee-4423876fa389 | Answer- B. CanaliculiValve of Rosenmuller is a small flap of mucosa in lacrimal canaliculus at its junction with lacrimal sac. | Ophthalmology | null | Valve of Rosenmuller is present in which pa of lacrimal system?
A. Puncta
B. Canaliculi
C. Lacrimal sac
D. Nasolacrimal duct
| Canaliculi |
9dd8e20a-0f91-4796-a7d3-aad496ee33da | -Patient is suffering from otomycosis due to Aspergillus niger. Otomycosis Fungal infection of the external auditary canal C/F: Intense itching Pain in the ear (More with Aspergillus flavus) Watery discharge with a musty odour The fungal mass have wet blotting paper/newspaper appearance Causes - Aspergillus niger Aspergillus fumigatus Candida Appearance - Black headed filamentous growth Green or brown colour growth White & creamy deposit Treatment: Syringing,suctioning or mopping. Antifungals: Clotrimazole and povidine iodine | ENT | Diseases of External Ear | A 22 year old man presents to ENT OPD complaining of itching, earache and discharge from the ear. Discharge is watery in consistency and have musty odour. On examination, doctor found black headed filamentous growth which resembled wet blotting paper. Which of the following is likely diagnosis in this case?
A. Acute Otitis externa
B. Otomycosis by Aspergillus niger
C. Otomycosis by Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Otomycosis by Candida
| Otomycosis by Aspergillus niger |
b1dd8f8a-ab61-4c33-a902-bc777d93d4b4 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3-4 cm The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is a bundle of muscles at the low end of the esophagus, where it meets the stomach.When the LES is closed, it prevents acid and stomach contents from traveling backwards from the stomach.The LES muscles are not under voluntary control.Lower esophageal splincter is at diaphragmatic constriction.Normal abdominal LES length (3.1cm)The basal pressure of the LES is 10-45 mmHg. | Anatomy | null | Length of LES is ?
A. 1-2 cm
B. 3-4 cm
C. 1-2 mm
D. 3-4 mm
| 3-4 cm |
bdd45e8b-7a10-45e2-97b2-14e955664bd7 | Ans. b (HDL). (Ref. Harper, Biochemistry, 25th ed., 268)PROPERTIES OF PLASMA LIPOPROTEINS LipoproteinMajor lipidElectrophoretic mobilityMajor apoproteinsProtein content1ChylomicronTriglycerideNoneB-48, A-I, IV-2Very low density (VLDL)TriglyceridePre-betaB-100, E, C-I, II, III-3intermediateTriglyceride & density (IDL)cholestery! estersBetaB-100, E-4Low density (LDL)Cholesteryl estersBetaB-100-5High density (HDL)Phospholipids & cholesterolAlphaA-I, IIHighest LIPOPROTEINFUNCTIONSChylomicron- Delivers dietary triglycerides to peripheral tissues and dietary cholesterol to liver. (MH 2003) - Secreted by intestinal epithelial cells. - Levels are classically increased in lipoprotein lipase deficiency (AIIMS 99). - Excess causes pancreatitis, lipemia retinalis, and eruptive xanthomas.VLDLDelivers hepatic triglycerides to peripheral tissues. - Secreted by liver. - Excess causes pancreatitis.LDL- Delivers hepatic cholesterol to peripheral tissues. - Formed by lipoprotein lipase modification of VLDL in the peripheral tissue. - Taken up by target cells via receptor-mediated endocytosis. - Classically increased in familial hypercholesterolemia. - Most atherogenic (MH 2003)HDLMediates centripetal transport of cholesterol (reverse cholesterol transport) - Acts as a precursor for apoC and apoE (which are needed for chylomicron and VLDL metabolism). - Secreted from both liver and intestine. - Aptly known as "good cholesterol" | Biochemistry | Lipids | Which of the following contains highest protein content?
A. Triglycerides
B. HDL
C. LDL
D. VLDL
| HDL |
d3dd46c1-b874-4b4d-a853-27b078da2259 | Clinical picture of fearing presentation in public, avoidance, fear of criticism is suggestive of social phobia. It is also known as social anxiety disorder. In Generalised anxiety disorder there is free flowing anxiety at all time. In panic disorder there are recurrent panic attacks with feeling of impending doom. | Psychiatry | Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders | 23-year-old medical student complaint of feeling "worried." He fears failing his clinical exam because he feels nervous about presenting a case and performing physical examination in front of examiners. He would skip bedside teaching when it would be his turn to present a case in front of his classmates and tutors. He worries about criticism from his classmates and tutor. The most likely diagnosis is?
A. Normal shyness
B. Panic disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Social phobia
| Social phobia |
c6a5483b-d9e5-4748-96fd-db67312cb3f7 | (A) Ganglion cell layer # Retina:> Layer of rods & cones: These are the end organs of vision & are also known as photoreceptors> Outer nuclear layer: It consists of nuclei of the rods and cones.> Outer plexiform layer: It consists of connections of rod spherules and cone pedicles with the dendrites of bipolar cells and horizontal cells.> Inner nuclear layer: It mainly consists of cell bodies of bipolar cells.* It also contains cell bodies of horizontal & muller's cells & capillaries of central artery of retina* The bipolar cells constitute the 1 st order neurons> Ganglion cell layer. It mainly contains the cell bodies of ganglion cells (the second order neurons of visual pathway). | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Retinal output is mainly from
A. Ganglion cell layer
B. Layer of rods & cones
C. Outer nuclear layer
D. Outer plexiform layer
| Ganglion cell layer |
a382164d-8b96-4ac4-933d-540b7968ca22 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Khesari Dal Lathvrismo Lathyrism is caused bv lathyrus sativus, commonly known as "Khesari dhal"o The toxin present in lathyrus seeds has been identified as Beta oxalyl aminoalanine (BOAA).o Toxin is water soluble,, this property has been made use of in removing the toxin from the pulse by soaking it in hot wnter and rejecting the soak water.o Blood brain barrier restrict the toxin to enter in the brain - to overcome this barrier the pulse must be eaten in large amounts over a period of time for 2 months or more.o Lathyrism is a paralysing disease of humans and animals,o In humans it affects nervous system - Neurolathyrism.o In animals it affects skeletal system - Osteolathyrism (odoratism).Neurolathyrismo Disease affects young men between 15-45 years,o It is characterized by spastic paralysis of lower limbs.Interventions for prevention and controlo Vitamin C prophylaxiso Banning the cropo Removal of toxin: Steeping method and Parboilingo Educationo Genetic approacho Socio-economic changes | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and Health | Lathryism is due to -
A. Khesari dal
B. Aflatoxins
C. Aspergillus
D. Fluoride
| Khesari dal |
39f4b565-9218-4de0-8aca-f48fcfc406ad | Diaphyseal lesions : - Ewing sarcoma, Lymphomas, Fibrous dysplasia, Adamantinoma, Histiocytosis, Osteoid osteoma, Chondromyxoid fibroma, Fibrosarcoma, Fibrous cortical defect. Non ossifying fibroma | Orthopaedics | null | Bone tumors arising from diaphysis -a) Chondrosarcomab) Ewing's tumorc) Osteoclastomad) Chondroblastoma e) Osteid osteoma
A. ab
B. ad
C. bc
D. be
| be |
bf51a57c-7701-4b35-824d-64d0798e4a94 | Vitamin K dependent clotting factors (VKCF) are clotting factors II (prothrombin), VII (Proconvertin), IX (Christmas factor), X (Stuart Prover Factor), protein C, protein S and protein Z. | Biochemistry | null | Vitamin K dependent clotting factor is
A. VII
B. I
C. XI
D. XII
| VII |
4a269911-3efa-4b4f-aea0-1d096a841670 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 87o Section 87 of the IPC says that a person above 18 years of age can give valid consent and Section 89 of the IPC says that a child under 12 years of age cannot give a valid consent.Other optionso 85 and 86 I PCs are related to drunkenness and criminal responsibility.o 88 IPC: Act not intended to cause death, but can cause death or grievous hurt, done by consent in good faith and for the benefit of that person, e.g., death of a patient caused by surgery done by a surgeon. | Forensic Medicine | Introduction to Forensic Medicine and Medical Jurisprudence | IPC code related to age for valid consent is?
A. 85
B. 86
C. 87
D. 88
| 87 |
ca06d177-cb7e-4b41-be31-1bbb70024a84 | Dopamine is used in the treatment of shock - cardiogenic, hypovolemic, and septic shock. It is especially useful when there is renal dysfunction and low cardiac output because dopamine increases renal blood flow and thereby GFR. Dopamine stimulates the hea - increases FOC, CO, BP. It is also sho acting. Its dose is 2-5 mcg /kg/ min for stimulating the hea (beta-1) least does- renal VD. 1-2 mcg /kg/ min- Dopamine receptor stimulation more than 10mcg /kg/ min not to be used as alpha receptors may get stimulated causing vasoconstriction From medical pharmacology Padmaja 4th edition page 97 | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | The dose of Dopamine used for renal vasodilatation is?
A. 2.5 ug/kg/min
B. 5-10 ug/kg/min
C. 10-20 ug/kg/min
D. 1-2 ug/kg/min
| 1-2 ug/kg/min |
22492e18-1b16-4b47-9535-29e29360ac8a | SMOKELESS gun powder: Single base: Nitrocellulose Double base: Nitrocellulose + Nitro-glycerine Triple base: Nitrocellulose + Nitroglycerine + Nitroguanidine | Forensic Medicine | Ballistics | Smokeless Gun powder contains
A. Nitrocellulose
B. Charcoal
C. Potassium
D. Sulphur
| Nitrocellulose |
50e3bd81-d9f2-4f65-90cb-e2200388cfaf | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 20 jutg o Very low dose OCPs ---> 20 mg ethinyl estradiol. o Conventional OCPs --> 30-50 mg ethinyl estradiol (mostly 30 g) | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | What is the content of ethinyl estradiol in very low dose oral contraceptives ?
A. 30 pig
B. 25 ps
C. 20ug
D. 151.tg
| 20ug |
ad5476c5-846a-4e03-92aa-21de351fe700 | Schizophrenia starts in late adolescence and early adulthood (15-20 years). | Psychiatry | null | Schizophrenia mostly occurs in -
A. Adolescents
B. Children
C. Middle age
D. Old age
| Adolescents |
c5bd1350-d0c4-4af3-af0a-dbb5e1f8ac06 | ECG changes typically occur when serum potassium is < 3 mEq/L, and include ST segment sagging, T wave depression, and U wave elevation. With marked hypokalemia, the T wave becomes progressively smaller and the U wave becomes increasingly larger . Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 370 | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | ECG of a patient with snake bite is shown below. What is the abnormality seen?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Myocarditis
D. Bigemini
| Hyperkalemia |
f200b6b4-21bc-4c16-af08-f0b0d01cf944 | The picture and the description are characteristic features of Pyostomatitis vegetans . It is usually treated by corticosteroids | Pathology | null | The following condition is treated with
A. Systemic antifungal therapy
B. Systemic antiviral therapy
C. Systemic corticosteroids
D. Systemic antibiotics
| Systemic corticosteroids |
493fcd5d-a3d7-42a1-a531-98cd155e1412 | Ans. (d) Osteitis fibrosa cystica.The patient in this question has hyperparathyroidism (elevated PTH) and is showing clinical symptoms for osteitis fibrosa cystica, a disease in which cystic bone spaces are filled with brown fibrous tissue. This disease is associated with hyperparathyroidism because PTH first acts on osteocytes and then on osteoclasts, causing calcium to be resorbed from the bone matrix and available in the blood stream (hypercalcemia). PTH also causes decreased phosphate reabsorption in the nephron, which causes decreased blood phosphate levels (hypophosphatemia). Hypercalciuria is yet another sign of hyperparathyroidism, which leads to the formation of calcium oxalate stones. The figure shows osteosclerosis with greater density at the endplates (rugger jersey spine), which can be seen with hyperparathyroidism.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> | Orthopaedics | Hyperparathyroidism | A 72-year-old woman presents with bone pain and tenderness in her lower extremities and left clavicle. Physical examination reveals tenderness to palpation on her lower legs and left midclavicle. Laboratory studies reveal elevated calcium, decreased phosphate, and elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH). X-ray reveals the following. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
A. Paget disease of the bone
B. Osteomalacia
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
| Osteitis fibrosa cystica |
f7573eda-70b1-4f8e-9ad6-633f7af9df9e | Airway obstruction denotes partial or complete occlusion of the tracheobronchial tree by foreign bodies, secretions, or crush injuries of the upper respiratory tract. Patients may present with symptoms ranging from cough and mild dyspnea to stridor and hypoxic cardiac arrest. An initial effort should be made to digitally clear the airway and to suction visible secretions; in selected, stable patients, fiberoptic endoscopy may be employed to determine the cause of obstruction and to retrieve foreign objects. Unstable patients whose airways cannot be quickly reestablished by clearing the oropharynx must be intubated. An endotracheal intubation may be attempted, but cricothyroidotomy is indicated in the presence of proximal obstruction or severe maxillofacial trauma. | Surgery | Trauma | For the immediately life-threatening injuries of the chest "Laryngeal obstruction", select the proper intervention. (SELECT 1 INTERVENTION)
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Cricothyroidotomy
C. Subxiphoid window
D. Tube thoracostomy
| Cricothyroidotomy |
d26f2b15-ca73-44ed-a7c6-ba1eb8f16c3a | Cushing syndrome is a disorder resulting from increased adrenocoical secretion of coisol, due to any one of several sources: ACTH-dependent adrenocoical hyperplasia or tumor, ectopic ACTH-secreting tumor, or excessive administrations of steroids; characterized by truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, hypeension, decreased carbohydrate tolerance, protein catabolism, psychiatric disturbances, and osteoporosis, amenorrhea, and hirsutism in females; when associated with an ACTH-producing adenoma, called Cushing disease.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-366 | Physiology | Endocrinology | In Cushing syndrome, which of the following are seen -
A. |Aldosterone
B. |Aldosterone
C. |Epinephrine
D. |norEpinephrine
| |Aldosterone |
6ca3d5c3-6a99-4011-a0f5-b3a923f44569 | This pedigree chart has the following two characteristics: -
The disease is manifesting in both males and females.
But, the disease is transmitting to the next generation only by females (mother).
Both these are characteristics of mitochondrial diseases.
Mitochondrial diseases
Mitochondrial DNA is the only non-chromosomal DNA in human cells
DNA in humans may be found either in the Nucleus (Nuclear DNA) or in the Mitochondria (Organelle DNA)
Mitochondrial DNA is always maternally inherited.
Mitochondrial and nuclear DNA is located in different places in the cell. During fertilization, the sperm and egg cell nuclei fuse to form an embryo. The egg cell is very large compared to the sperm, so although the cells' nuclei fuse, the rest of the cell mass in the embryo comes from the egg only. Nuclear DNA is therefore co-inherited but the mitochondrial DNA, which is located outside of the nucleus, is always maternally inherited because all mitochondria in a foetus and later adult are derived from the mitochondria in the mother's egg.
All children from affected mother will inherit the disease but it will not be transmitted from an affected father to his children. - Harrison's 16th /e 374 | Pediatrics | null | Pedigree analysis – Analyze the following pedigree and give the mode of inheritance –
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Mitochondrial inheritance
D. X linked dominant
| Mitochondrial inheritance |
3137698f-4b1f-45f8-9701-97d2969262ca | A i.e. Electrocution Suspended animation (i.e. apparent death) is seen in electrocution & apparently drowned (not drowning)Q | Forensic Medicine | null | Suspended animation may be seen with :
A. Electrocution
B. Strangulation / hanging
C. Drowning
D. Burn
| Electrocution |
ac7debce-c420-47f2-ac55-0fc8398f0f3a | Glomus tumor is a benign soft-tissue extremity tumors, these lesions arise from dermal neuro myo aerial apparatus (glomus bodies). Glomus tumor more commonly affects the hand. In addition to the severe pain, point tenderness and cold sensitivity are associated with these lesions and subungual glomus tumors typically appear as blue, subungual discolorations of 1 to 2 mm. Tumor excision is the treatment of choice. Ref: Cole P., Heller L., Bullocks J., Hollier L.H., Stal S. (2010). Chapter 16. The Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | Surgery | null | A young man underwent surgery for the removal of Glomus tumor. Glomus tumor is seen commonly in:
A. Liver
B. Adrenals
C. Pituitary
D. Finger
| Finger |
4aaa1c7a-f8cb-417b-a4bd-30ad0afb04ba | Ans. is `a' i.e., Reduce by 2/3" the under five moality by year 1990-2015 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is a MDG ?
A. Reduce by 2/3" the tinder five moality by year 1990-2015
B. Halve the prevalence of HIV-AIDS by 2015
C. Reduce maternal moality by 50%
D. Combat PEM & diarrhoea
| Reduce by 2/3" the tinder five moality by year 1990-2015 |
59f63253-8911-4deb-a386-a6bc11fa2488 | Ans. B. Superior mesenteric arteryArterial supply to the gastrointestinal tract:-a. The arterial supply to the gastrointestinal tract is derived from the anterior midline visceral branches of the aorta. There are usually three anterior branches, the coeliac trunk and the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries. Variants in the origin of the arteries are very rare.b. The most common is a joint origin of the upper two branches as either a coeliac mesenteric trunk or a lienohepaticomesenteric trunk with a separate left gastric artery. Accessory or replaced branches to the upper abdominal viscera are more common. Accessory anastomotic vessels between the origin of the coeliac trunk and superior mesenteric artery are rare.c. The inferior mesenteric artery always arises separately, however, replaced, accessory or anastomotic vessels occasionally arise from the proximal superior mesenteric artery or its branches and contribute to the arterial supply to the proximal territory of the inferior mesenteric artery.d. The coeliac trunk and its branches supplies the gastrointestinal tract from the distal third of the oesophagus to the mid part of the duodenum and all derived adenexae (liver, biliary tree, spleen, dorsal pancreas, greater omentum and lesser omentum).e. The superior mesenteric artery supplies the tract from the mid second part of the duodenum to the distal third of the transverse colon (jejunum, ileum, caecum, appendix, ascending colon and ileal mesentery).f. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the tract from the distal transverse colon to the upper anal canal.g. Other than accessory arteries, numerous medium calibre arteries form anastomoses between the vascular territories. The most profuse occurs around the head of the pancreas and the duodenum, where anastomoses form between the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries and the inferior pancreaticoduodenal arteries; the posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery and jejunal arteries; the greater pancreatic artery and jejunal arteries.h. The anastomoses between the territories of the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are less pronounced and more variable: the most reliable is the pericolic marginal artery, which runs along the transverse colon. Additional anastomotic arcades may exist in the colic mesentery between the transverse and descending colon | Anatomy | Blood Vessels of Abdomen and Pelvis | The blood supply of the Jejunum is through the-
A. Inferior mesenteric artery
B. Superior mesenteric artery
C. Pancreatico duodenal artery
D. Ileocolic artery
| Superior mesenteric artery |
5f276bd3-64f5-4c53-ade1-b0b2834ba3cc | Good Prognostic Factors Poor Prognostic Factors (1) Late Onset (1) Younger age of onset (2) Catatonic features (2) Disorganized type (3)Pyknic Built (3) Asthenic built (4) No Family history (4) Family history present (5)Acute onset 5) Chronic type (6) Emotions are preserved (6) Blunting of affect or atypical Feature Present (7)Type I (7) Type II | Psychiatry | null | Good prognosis in schizophrenia is indicated by:
A. Soft neurological signs
B. Affective symptoms
C. Emotional Blunting
D. Insidious onset
| Affective symptoms |
94ebeb17-c3b1-4be2-afd9-d615160485b1 | Rabies is a severe encephalitis, mainly involves.
Rhombencephalon ( rain stem - midbrain and the floor of the fourth ventricle in the medulla).
Basal ganglia
Spinal cord
Dorsal root ganglion. | Pathology | null | In rabies pathological lesions in CNS are -
A. Brainstem encephalitis
B. Cranial nerve arteritis
C. Neuronal loss
D. Neurofibrillary tangles
| Brainstem encephalitis |
1006257b-c0b6-4b98-b4d3-b97dac082fab | Clozapine has been approved for, Patients with schizophrenia who have failed to respond adequately to typical neuroleptic drugs (treatment-resistant schizophrenia) Patients who are intolerant of typical neuroleptic drugs because of EPS or tardive dyskinesia Patients who are at high risk for suicide Ref: Meltzer H.Y., Bobo W.V., Heckers S.H., Fatemi H.S. (2008). Chapter 16. Schizophrenia. In M.H. Ebe, P.T. Loosen, B. Nurcombe, J.F. Leckman (Eds),CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Psychiatry, 2e. | Psychiatry | null | Clozapine was the first antipsychotic drug. Which of the following is an indication for the use of Clozapine?
A. Resistant schizophrenia
B. Akathesia
C. First drug to be used for schizpophrenia
D. Used for schizophrenia with depression
| Resistant schizophrenia |
56206226-b0f9-43f1-9d90-d76b77757a1f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ewing's Sarcoma o MIC 2 (CD 99) is a specific marker for Ewing's sarcoma and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumors. | Pathology | null | MIC-2 is a marker of-
A. Ewing's sarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Dermatofibrous protruberans
D. Alveolar cell sarcoma
| Ewing's sarcoma |
ffc86f0a-271c-4df4-9a30-e0fff74972dd | Nasopharyngeal carcinoma causes denasal speech, i.e. Rhinolalia clausa. | ENT | null | Type of speech seen in nasopharyngeal carcinoma -
A. Rhinolalia clausa
B. Rhinolalia aperta
C. Hot potato voice
D. Hoarse voice
| Rhinolalia clausa |
bea38473-5b3f-4bcb-b990-b86112d3bed2 | Cirsoid aneurysms are rare aeriovenous malformations of the scalp and extremities. Cirsoid aneurysms of the scalp are fed by the superficial temporal aery | Surgery | Cardio thoracic surgery | Cirsoid aneurysms most commonly occur in which of the following vessels?
A. Aoic arch
B. Splenic aery
C. Saphenous vein
D. Superficial temporal aery
| Superficial temporal aery |
10da5a5c-047a-4a45-aa1b-40d9d5781591 | Liver Site of synthesisLiver & intestine A-I ,Liver A-V , B-00, C (C-I, C-11, C-III), EIntestine A-IV, B-48Spleen, brain, testes adrenal --> A- D | Biochemistry | null | ApoE, ApoC is synthesized by ?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Intestine
D. RBCs
| Liver |
871df950-34b1-439c-b451-9a627e646c55 | CLL: Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia (CLL):- Neoplastic proliferation of native B cell; . Transformation to diffuse large B cell Lymphoma is marked by enlarging lymph node or spleen and worsening of symptom. This phenomenon is called Ritcher Transformation. Dx by flow cytometry positive for CD19/20, CD 5/23 Tx: Fludarabine is Drug of choice for management. | Pathology | Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia | A 40 year old woman is on treatment for CLL. Over the past few months she noticed swellings in the neck and axilla which was rapidly increasing in size. She complains of feeling feverish and experiences weight loss. Which of the following is responsible?
A. Richter transformation
B. Progression of CLL
C. Development of secondary infections
D. Immunodeficiency associated hemolytic anemia
| Richter transformation |
da1bcc2f-d0e5-43e4-bc4d-5fb583522a60 | Recurrent oral ulcers with erythematous halos suggest the diagnosis of Aphthous ulcer. | Dental | null | Recurrent oral ulcers with pain and erythematous halo around them, diagnosis is –
A. Apthous ulcer
B. Herpes
C. Chicken pox
D. Measels
| Apthous ulcer |
d55b85d6-b5b0-4049-ac05-239d780a8097 | Biostrophin is a vehicle for gene therapy in Duchenne and Becker's muscular dystrophyPeginesatide is an erythropoietin analog for anemia of chronic kidney diseaseLumacaftor is a CFTR potentiator for cystic fibrosis with F508 mutationIvacaftor is a CFTR potentiator for cystic fibrosis with G551D mutation | Microbiology | All India exam | Which of the following is approved for the treatment of cystic fibrosis with G551D mutation?
A. Biostrophin
B. Peginesatide
C. Lumacaftor
D. Ivacaftor
| Ivacaftor |
1cf2e045-7ce8-4400-935b-4b418ad386fe | A. i.e. (Normal pupillary light reflexes with complete visual loss) (306 - Khurana 4th)CORTICAL BLINDNESS* Most common cause is bilateral occipital lobe infarction* Unilateral infarction leads to contralateral homonymous congruous hemianopiaClinical features* Vision and visual fields are markedly decreased* Sparing of the macula with preservation of central vision due to dual blood supply*** Complete visual loss with no light perception.* Pupillary responses are normal** (Pupillary light reflex)* ANTON- SYNDROME i.e. denial of blindness by the patients who obviously cannot see* Riddoch - phenomenon - i.e. ability to perceive kinetic but not static targets | Ophthalmology | Neuro-Ophthalmology | Cortical blindness
A. Normal pupillary light reflexes with complete visual loss
B. Increased pupillary light reflexes with complete visual loss
C. Normal pupillary light reflex with partial loss of sight
D. Increased pupillary light reflexes with partial loss of sight
| Normal pupillary light reflexes with complete visual loss |
d69eaf10-2504-4ae6-b952-3b8b7feacb4e | Biological amnesia:- Head injury (concussion/brain bruises), drugs (Marijuana, alcohol), brain disease (Korsokoff syndrome, Brain tumors, multiple sclerosis, presenile dementia), temporary disturbances in brain blood supply, and transient global amnesia.
Psychological amnesia :- Childhood amnesia, dream amnesia, defensive amnesia | Psychiatry | null | Biological amnesia is -
A. Lack of interest
B. Presenile dementia
C. Opioid addiction
D. Hypothyroidism
| Presenile dementia |
69c73554-b26f-4569-b236-88493905cccb | The distribution of muscle weakness is characteristic with early involvement of the cranial nerves, especially the lids and extraocular muscles. Women are more frequently affected than men (3:2 ratio), and the age for peak incidence in women is in the third or fourth decade. | Medicine | C.N.S. | A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue and weakness. On examination, there is diplopia, ptosis, weakness, and fatigability of muscles on repeated use. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. myasthenia gravis
B. multiple sclerosis
C. TIAs
D. muscular dystrophy
| myasthenia gravis |
4a5b4e2a-2737-431a-af68-1563f15c589a | (A) (Meniere's disease) (104- Dhingra 6th)Surgical Treatment of Meniere's Disease1. Conservative procedures2. Destructive procedures3. IntermittentA. Decompression of Endolymphatic sacB. Endolymphatic shunt operationC. Sacculotomy (fick's operation)D. Section of vestibular nerveE. Ultrasonic destruction of vestibular labyrinthLabyrinthectomyLow pressure pulse therapy (Meniett device therapy)Meniere's Disease TreatmentA. GENERAL MEASURESB. MANAGEMENT OF ACUTE ATTACK1. Reasurance2. Cessation of smoking3. Low salt diet4. Avoid excessive intake of water5. Avoid over- indulgence in coffee, tea and alcohol6. Avoid stress and bring a change in life cycle7. Avoid activities requiring good body balance1. Reassurance - to allay worry and anxiety2. Bed rest with head supported on pillows3. Vestibular sedatives to relieve vertigo* Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)* Promethazine theoclate (Avomine)* Prochlorperazine (stemetil)* Diazepam given intravenously* Atropine4. VasodilatorsA. Inhalation of carbogen (5% C02 with 95% O2)B. Histamine drip - Histamine diphosphate 2.75 mg dissolved in 500 ml of glucoseC. MANAGEMENT OF CHRONIC PHASE1. Vestibular sedative- prochlorperazine2. Vasodilators- Nicotinic acid, Betahistine3. Diuretics - furosemides4. Propantheline bromide - alone or combination with vasodilators or vestibular sedatives5. Elimination of allergen- food or inhalant allergen6. Hormones - endocrinal disorders such as hypothyroidism- Medical treatment* Intratympanic Gentamicin therapy (chemical Labyrinthectomy)* MICRO WICK - made up of polyvinyl acetate | ENT | Ear | Decompression of endolymphatic sac is the treatment for
A. Menier's disease
B. BPPV
C. Labyrinthitis
D. Otosclerosis
| Menier's disease |
9578f748-1e87-4ad9-be94-ceb7a674a204 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ventral rami of T12 o Ventral rami of upper 11th thoracic spinal nerves are known as intercostal nerves and ventral ramus of T12 is known as subcostal nerve.o Upper six intercostal nerves supply thoracic wall whereas lower five intercostal nerves and subcostal nerve supply thoracic and anterior abdominal walls and hence known as thoracoabdominal nerves.o Upper two intercostal nerves also supply the upper limb. Thus only 3rd to 6th are called typical intercostal nerves. | Anatomy | Thorax | Subcostal nerve is -
A. Ventral rami of T6
B. Dorsalrami of T6
C. Ventralrami of T12
D. Dorsalrami of T 12
| Ventralrami of T12 |
59c75220-9b11-48e3-afb7-684f88ec8d33 | Hormone replacement therapy (H) In nonhysterectomised postmenopausal women estrogen therapy is supplemented with a progestin for 10-12 days each month to counteract the risk of inducing endometrial carcinoma. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-318 | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Progesterone is added to estrogens in H to achieve wof effects
A. Decrease the estrogen action on the breast
B. Decrease the occurrence of endometrial cancers
C. Increase the effectiveness of the estrogens
D. Inhibit bone resorption
| Decrease the occurrence of endometrial cancers |
71284d6b-d978-4521-acc9-bc21413cf691 | At physiological pH basic aminoacid (positive charged a.a) will move slowest towards anode (positively charged electrode).Basic amino acids are: Arginine (Most basic), Lysine and Histidine (Weakly basic) | Biochemistry | null | Which of these amino acids will migrate slowest to the anode end at the physiological pH?
A. Aspaic acid
B. Glycine
C. Lysine
D. Valine
| Lysine |
bccdebf3-a26b-44da-8de3-d2fd3649528e | Autophagy ("self-eating") is the process in which the starved cell eats its own components in an attempt to reduce nutrient demand to match the supply. Some of the cell debris within the autophagic vacuoles may resist digestion and persist in the cytoplasm as membrane-bound residual bodies. An example of residual bodies is lipofuscin granules as shown in above image. Most impoant gene that we associate with autophagy is ATG-3. Autophagy is a process which is also stimulated by protein called BECLIN-1. Most impoant gene responsible for inhibiting Apoptosis is BCL-2. BCL-2 interacts with BECLIN-1 and forms a complex and this complex is responsible for inhibiting AUTOPHAGY. Inhibition of Autophagy increase the risk of malignancy. Marker for Autophagy is a microtubular protein called LC-3 (Microtubule-associated protein light chain 3). LC-3 plays an impoant role in the closure of the autophagosomal membrane and also in elongation step. BAK, BAX, BID are involved with cellular apoptosis. | Pathology | Apoptosis | Which of the following is a useful marker to detect autophagy in cells?
A. BAK
B. BAX
C. LC3
D. BID
| LC3 |
d6d6ce93-fa80-4059-8410-f2f4440170d1 | A i.e. Scaphoid Fracture Fracture head & neck femur, fracture body of talus and fractures through waist of scaphoid most commonly leads to nonunion and avascular necrosis due to poor blood supplyQ | Surgery | null | Non - union is a complication of :
A. Scaphoid
B. Colle's
C. Inter- trochanteric of hip
D. Supra condylor of the humerus
| Scaphoid |
665ac470-bde9-42b7-94ce-d937039c75c4 | Galactosemia: Classic galactosemia is caused by almost total deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase. Severely deficient neonates present with vomiting, jaundice, and hepatomegaly on initiation of lactose-containing feedings. Renal Fanconi syndrome, cataracts of the ocular lens, hepatic cirrhosis, and sepsis occur in untreated children. Delayed, apraxic speech and ovarian failure occur frequently even with treatment. Developmental delay, tremor, and ataxia occur less frequently. Urine gives positive Benedict's and Seliwanoffs tests. Galactose-1-phosphate is elevated in red blood cells. A galactose-free diet should be instituted as soon as the diagnosis is made. Ref: Thomas J.A., Van Hove J.L. (2012). Chapter 36. Inborn Errors of Metabolism. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | Pediatrics | null | A 3-day old baby feeds poorly, vomits on feeding. Urine Benedict's test is +ve. The reducing substance present in the urine is:
A. Glucose
B. Sucrose
C. Fructose
D. Galactose
| Galactose |
e12cd6e4-8b01-47fa-89d7-265c244db3bf | This child has symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity and the most likely diagnosis would be attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Symptoms of ADHD: - Inattention - Hyperactivity - Impulsivity - Other symptoms- Destructive behavior, irritability, and aggression. | Psychiatry | Child Psychiatry | A 9 year old child disturbs other people, is destructive, interferes when two people are talking, does not follow instructions and cannot wait for his turn while playing a game. He is likely to be suffering from:
A. Emotional disorders
B. Behavioral problems
C. No disorder
D. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
| Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder |
6a755468-08ab-4560-a198-7841c60a7c15 | Kiesselbach's area or Little's area, is a region in the anteroinferior pa of the nasal septum, where four aeries anastomose to form a vascular plexus called Kiesselbach's plexus. The aeries which forms the plexus are: ? Anterior ethmoidal aery (from the ophthalmic aery) ? Sphenopalatine aery (from the maxillary aery) ? Greater palatine aery (from the maxillary aery) ? Septal branch of the superior labial aery (from the facial aery) | ENT | null | Which of the following aery is not involved in the formation of Kiesselbach's plexus?
A. Anterior ethmoidal aery
B. Posterior ethmoidal aery
C. Greater palatine aery
D. Sphenopalatine aery
| Posterior ethmoidal aery |
19c1563d-b26b-4948-97d4-39158becef3f | Alpha- tocopherol is most powerful chain breaking anti-oxidants. 2 Classes of antioxidants Chain breaking anti - oxidants : (They interfere with chain propagation) Alpha - tocopherol Beta - carotene Vitamin C Super oxide dismutase (SOD) Uric acid/Urate Polyphenols Preventive antioxidants: (They reduce the rate of chain initiation) Glutathione peroxidase Catalase Ceruloplasmin & transferrin (Chelate metal ions) | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous | Most powerful chain breaking antioxidant:
A. Vitamin C
B. Alpha - tocopherol
C. Catalase
D. Glutathione peroxidase
| Alpha - tocopherol |
d943a92c-d1c3-456b-90eb-78defc33aed7 | Increased R-R interval in ECG Vagus is the parasympathetic supply to the hea. Its stimulation causes: - Decreased hea rate - Decreased force of hea contraction - Decreased cardiac output R-R interval is the time interval between consecutive hea beats in the electrocardiogram. So a decrease in hea rate increases the R-R interval Reverse effects on the hea are noted due to sympathetic stimulation. | Physiology | null | Vagal stimulation of the hea causes:
A. Increased hea rate
B. Increased R-R interval in ECG
C. Increased force of hea contraction
D. Increased cardiac output
| Increased R-R interval in ECG |
031e44a5-b16c-4eb8-b82a-b6beff3efb5f | This is Number 12 surgical blade. It is used for suture removal. | Surgery | null | This surgical blade is used for
A. Minor surgical procedures
B. Suture removal
C. Abscess drainage
D. Abdominal incision
| Suture removal |
4734fb95-2116-4921-a6d9-4d40090ef712 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fat Fat necrosis is seen most frequently in acute pancreatitis due to leakage of lipase. Fat necrosis Fat necrosis may be of two types : ? 1. Enzymatic fat necrosis This is due to action of lipase on adipose tissue. It occurs most frequently in acute pancreatitis due to leakage of lipase. Depending on the severity of acute pancreatitis, fat necrosis may occur in : - a Adipose tissue contiguous to pancrease, retroperitoneal fat. Adipose tissue in anterior mediastinum. Bone marrow Omental and abdominal fat 2. Nonenzymatic or Traumatic fat necrosis Occurs due to trauma Is seen in subcutaneous tissue of breast, thigh, and abdomen. | Pathology | null | Type of necrosis in pancreatitis ?
A. Fibrinoid
B. Coagulative
C. Fat
D. Caseous
| Fat |
ebbebcea-40e5-4371-aea2-063bf5cff0c7 | Ref: Bailey unci Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th EditionExplanation:Postoperative complications of gastrectomyLeakage of the oesophagojejunostomy.Leakage from the duodenal stumpParaduodenal collectionsBiliary peritonitisThe presence of septic collections along with a very radical vascular dissection may lead to catastropic secondary haemorrhage from the exposed or divided blood vessels.Long-term complications of surgeryReduced gastric capacityDumping and diarrhoeaNutritional deficiencies may especially vitamin B12 deficiency (Since Intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cell of stomach is necessary for vitamin B32 absorption)Symptoms of Vitamin B12 deficiencyThe main syndrome of vitamin BI2 deficiency is Biermers disease (pernicious anemia).It is characterized by a triad of symptoms:Anemia with bone marrow promegaioblastosis (Megaloblastic anemia).This is due to the inhibition of DNA synthesis (specifically purines and thymidine)Gastrointestinal symptoms.This may also be due to the autoimmune attack on the parietal cells of the stomach in pernicious anemia.Neurological symptoms:Sensory or motor deficiencies (absent reflexes, diminished vibration or soft touch sensation)Subacute combined degeneration of spinal chordDementiaPsychiatric symptoms may be present. | Surgery | Postgastrectomy Complications | A post partial gastrectomy patient presents with neurological symptoms. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Folic acid deficiency
B. Thiame deficiency
C. Vitamin B12 de fid ency
D. Iron deficiency
| Vitamin B12 de fid ency |
2b0593b3-d3d7-45ea-b605-a6d7e8cf90a5 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Every 2 months Preventive measures in radiation industeriesInhalation, swallowing or direct contact with the skin should be avoided.In case of X-rays, shielding should be used of such thickness and of such material as to reduce the exposure below allowable exposures.The employees should be monitored at intervals not exceeding 6 months by use of the filf badge of pocket electrometer devices.Suitable protective clothing to prevent contact with harmful material should be used.Adequate ventilation of work-place is necessayr to prevent inhalation of harmful gases and dusts.Replacement and periodic examination of workers should be done every 2 months. If harmful effects are found, the employees should be transferred to work not involving exposure to radiation.Pregnant women should not be allowed to work in places where there is continuous exposure. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Replacement & periodic examination in radiation industary is recommended ?
A. Every month
B. Every 2 months
C. Every 6 months
D. Every year
| Every 2 months |
5b9fce8f-b048-4367-8f75-7a6d5e61f423 | Cataracts REF: Harisson's 18`11 ed chapter 169 Hutchinson's triad is named after Sir Jonathan Hutchinson (1828-1913). It is a common pattern of presentation for congenital syphilis, and consists of three phenomena: interstitial keratitis, Hutchinson incisors, and eighth nerve deafness | Pediatrics | null | In Hutchinson's triad in newborn child, what is not seen?
A. Interstitial keratitis
B. Notched incisors
C. Deafness
D. Cataracts
| Cataracts |
6a70538e-84dc-4b2f-ac22-9f3d086912ed | Although evidence of volume contraction cannot confirm prerenal ARF, as this can progress into intrinsic renal failure, it suggests that prerenal factors are contributing. In prerenal ARF, specific gravity is usually > 1.020 and sodium concentration is < 10 mmol/L. The fractional excretion of sodium relates sodium clearance to creatinine clearance and is more sensitive than direct measurements of sodium excretion. In prerenal azotemia, sodium is avidly resorbed from glomerular filtrate, but not in intrinsic renal azotemia because of tubular epithelial cell injury. Creatinine is resorbed less efficiently in both conditions. Therefore, the fractional excretion of sodium is <1% in prerenal azotemia (often much less) whereas it is >1% in intrinsic renal azotemia. Fractional excretion of sodium(%)=UNa/PCrxPNa/UCrx100. | Medicine | Kidney | A 63-year-old man becomes oliguric 2 days following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings would suggest that prerenal ARF is a major factor in the etiology?
A. postural hypotension
B. fractional excretion of sodium is 3%
C. specific gravity is 1.012
D. the urine sodium is 30 mEq/L
| postural hypotension |
6200c3c6-7943-4c38-bc10-a6fea4f305e8 | Grade I - Hemorrhage limited to the germinal matrix
Grade II - Intraventricular hemorrhage
Grade III - Hemorrhage with ventricular dilatation
Grade IV - Parenchymal extension of hemorrhage. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Grade III intraventricular hemorrhage is
A. Intraventricular hemorrhage alone
B. Hemorrhage limited to germinal matrix
C. Hemorrhage with ventricular dilatation
D. Parenchymal extension of hemorrhage
| Hemorrhage with ventricular dilatation |
c47fff66-a500-4de2-b22c-bda36d49ec30 | Ans. is 'd'i.e.. Myosin o The inner hair cells of organ of corti have 50-200 ciliated structure called stereocilia.o The top of each stereocilium is linked to the side of next adjacent higher stereocilium by means of a thin filamentous strucuture called the tip-link.o Mechanically gated ion channels are located at these attachment points on the sides of stereocilia.o Each stereocilium comprises of several actin filaments encased by a plasma membrane.o The opening and closing of the ion channels is accomplished through the binding and unbinding of proteins at terminal ends of the tip links with a group of channel motor proteins (myosin) which move up and down the actin filaments of stereocilia. | Physiology | Special Senses: Hearing and Equilibrium | Motor protein in organ of corti -
A. Kinesin
B. Albumin
C. Dynein
D. Myosin
| Myosin |
db16bb23-bff4-4cb7-bd09-5c6ef652b29e | In this baby: Color: Score 0 Hea rate, < 60 beats/min: score 1 Grimace: score 1 Some flexion of the extremities: score 1 Irregular respiration: Score 1 Thus total score is 4 APGAR SCORING SYSTEM: Appearance 0 points 1 point 2 points Appearance (Skin color) Blue/Pale Pink body, blue extremities Pink Pulse Absent <100 BPM >100 BPM Grimace (reflex irritability) No response Minimal response to stimulation Cough/sneeze when stimualated Activity Floppy Some flexion Well flexed Respiratory effos Absent Slow and irregular Strong cry At 1 minute and 5 minutes after bih of the infant, the 5 objective signs listed here are evaluated and each is given a score of 0,1 or 2 A total score of 10 indicates that the infant is in the best possible condition An infant with a score of 0-3 requires immediate resuscitation Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition pgno: 872 | Pediatrics | New born infants | A baby assessed at 5 minutes after bih is found to be blue with irregular gasping respiration. Hea rate(HR) is 60 beats/min, and a grimace is seen with some flexion of extremities. The Apgar score for this newborn is _______
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
| 4 |
2bedfa2d-89e6-4b68-a66b-0a09e24d0121 | Ig M REF: Jawetz's, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 24TH edition chapter 8. Immunology B-cell Receptor for Antigen: B cells express a form of IgM that is located on the cell surface. Cell surface IgM has the same antigen specificity as the secreted IgM antibody molecule. This is achieved by a differential RNA splicing mechanism. The -chain RNA transcript can include a sequence that encodes about 25 hydrophobic amino acids, which enables the IgM molecule to localize in the cell membrane as a trans membrane receptor. Later in development of the B cell, regulation of RNA processing allows expression of a membrane-bound form of IgD, again with the same antigen-binding specificity. Throughout this process, the same V region segment is being expressed with different C region segments. | Microbiology | null | Which immunoglobulin acts as receptor on B cell?
A. Ig G
B. Ig A
C. Ig M
D. Ig D
| Ig M |
0ea97814-61c9-437d-8b1f-3329f9c3ae64 | NFA occurs in adolescent males.
Nasal obstruction and epistaxis are the most common presenting symptoms.
It arises in the posterior part of nasal cavity near the sphenopalatine foramen.
Treatment of choice is surgery. | ENT | null | Clinical features of nasopharyngeal angiogibroma are -a) 3rd to 4th decadesb) Adolescent malec) Epistaxis and nasal obstruction are the cardinal symptomd) Radiotherapy is the Rx of choicee) Arises from posterior nasal cavity
A. bce
B. bc
C. acd
D. ace
| bce |
abc20001-ea11-4125-9424-fbc2227c1090 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mutations at reverse transcriptase "Resistance to Zidovudine occurs by point mutation which alters reverse transcriptase enzyme. In the past when AZT was used alone, > 50% patients became nonresponsive to AZT within 1-2 years therapy due to growth of resistant mutants" - KDT | Pharmacology | null | Resistance to zidovudine develops due to-
A. Mutations at reverse transcriptase
B. Increased efflux of the drug from inside the cell
C. Increased metabolism of the drug
D. Decreased zidovudine 5 triphosphate formation
| Mutations at reverse transcriptase |
8f2472b9-84d1-4132-8d15-3aa051b8169a | The patient is having atopic asthma.Pulmonary function tests in asthma show an obstructive pattern with reduced FEV1,FEV1/FVC ratio.Reversibility is demonstrated by a >12% and 200 ml increase in FEV1 15 minutes after an inhaled sho acting beta2 agonist or in some patients by a 2 to 4 week trial of oral coicosteroids. Ref:Harrison's medicine-18th edition,page no:2109. | Medicine | Respiratory system | The pulmonary function test done on this patient of asthma would be
A. Non-infarmative
B. Obstructive pattern
C. Restrictive pattern
D. Destructive pattern
| Obstructive pattern |
da8ad635-0037-47a4-a762-fc15e38a3525 | Microglia are scavenger cells that resemble tissue macrophages and remove debris resulting from injury, infection, and disease (eg, multiple sclerosis, AIDS-related dementia, Parkinson disease, and Alzheimer disease). Microglia arise from macrophages outside of the nervous system and are physiologically and embryologically unrelated to other neural cell types. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 23rd edition, Chapter 4. | Physiology | null | Macrophages in nervous system is known as:
A. Schwann cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Astrocytes
D. Microglia
| Microglia |
47978c7d-8176-4c2c-bda2-ae6bbf235841 | Pathology of Primary sclerosing cholangitis Cholangiocytea, epithelial cells that lines the bile duct are target cell of injury in PSC Histologic finding "Onion skin appearance" is pathognomic of PSC, but seen in <10% cases Involvement of large intrahepatic and extrahepatic duct distinguishes PSC from PBC Absence of the smallest intrahepatic ducts leading to a reduction in the branching of biliary tree (giving rise to pruned-tree appearance on direct cholangiography) Histologic changes in the same liver can be markedly varied from segment to segment at any given time Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1508-1509 | Anatomy | G.I.T | "Onion-skin" fibrosis of bile duct is seen in
A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
C. Extrahepatic biliary fibrosis
D. Congenital hepatic fibrosis
| Primary sclerosing cholangitis |
13a7ceee-27d9-46d6-bc59-25bd6089b19f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bluish discolouration in the umbilicus Cullen's sign - Bluish discoloration at the umbilicus Grey Turner's sign - Bluish discoloration at the flanks Ct. Mnemonic: GF (Girl Friend) Cullens --> Umbilicus Grey Turner's --> Flanks | Surgery | null | Cullen's sign -
A. Bluish disclolouration of the flanks
B. Bluish disclolouration of the flanks
C. Migratory thrombophelebitis
D. Subcutaneous fat necrosis
| Bluish disclolouration of the flanks |
87990c46-df6a-4998-bed1-28a13cf45dee | The myofibroblast is the cell responsible for wound contraction as well as the deforming pathologic process termed wound contracture. Myofibroblasts exe their contractile effects by forming syncytia,in this they are bound together by tight junctions. -Fibroblasts (choice B) tend to be solitary cells, surrounded by collagen fibers. -Endothelial cells (choice A) respond to growth factors and form capillaries, which are necessary for the delivery of nutrients and inflammatory cells. -Neither macrophages (choice C) mediate wound contraction. | Pathology | Wound Healing | A 25-year-old woman sustains a deep, open laceration over her right forearm in a motorcycle accident. The wound is cleaned and sutured. Which of the following cell types mediates contraction of the wound to facilitate healing?
A. Endothelial cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Macrophages
D. Myofibroblasts
| Myofibroblasts |
ffd1f9fc-0803-4016-af86-5721e1d0a726 | Ref: KDT 6/e p429 Clozapine and other atypical antipsychotic resulting weight gain. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Which of the following is not a side effect of clozapine:
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Seizures
C. Sialosis
D. Weight loss
| Weight loss |
0115ebc8-295f-4460-a060-7293f15ebe0e | Ans. B Inferior thyroid arteryRef: Gray's, 41sted. pg. 472* Both upper & lower parathyroid glands are supplied by the inferior thyroid arteryVascular Supply and Lymphatic Drainage of Parathyroid Gland* Inferior thyroid arteries provide primary blood supply to posterior aspect of thyroid gland and parathyroid glands (which are situated there in posterior aspect of thyroid gland).* Parathyroid veins drain into thyroid plexus of veins of thyroid gland & trachea.* Lymphatics drain with those of thyroid into deep cervical R lymph nodes & paratracheal lymph nodes.Innervations and Functions* Since the gland is hormonally regulated, the nerve supply is sympathetic vasomotor, vaso constrictor and not secreto motor.* Parathyroid activities regulated by variations in blood calcium level: It is inhibited by a rise in calcium levels and stimulated by a fall in calcium level.Extra Mile* The superior parathyroid glands usually lie at the level of inferior border of cricoids cartilage.* The inferior glands are usually within thyroid fascia 1 cm below the inferior thyroid arteries behind the lower poles.* Color of thyroid gland: deep red color* Color of parathyroid gland: Brownish yellow color | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Which of the following artery supplies parathyroid glands?
A. Superior thyroid artery
B. Inferior thyroid artery
C. Common carotid artery
D. Middle thyroid artery
| Inferior thyroid artery |
f8dafdc2-6aca-44ed-8351-44a86a610492 | Ans. is d i.e. normal or good voice Management Lateralization of cord by arytenoidectomy, endoscopic surgery, thyroplasty type II, cordectomy In emergency cases -Tracheostomy may be required Also know Generally patients with bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy have a recent history of thyroid surgery or rarely an advanced malignant thyroid tumor. Most common presentation-Development of stridor following URI Since the voice of the patient is normal\\it is diagnosed very late. | ENT | null | The voice in a patient with bilateral abductor paralysis of larynx is:
A. Puberuophonia
B. Phonasthenia
C. Dysphonia plicae ventricularis
D. Normal or good voice
| Normal or good voice |
a2019989-5010-458f-821b-b10152ac2ee5 | Ans. is `d' i.e., 1 months If symtoms are for less than 1 months, it is transient psychotic disorder and if there are for more than 1 months, it is persistent psychotic disorder (persistent delusional disorder). Note:- Diagnosic criteria for delusional disorder (Persistent delusion disorder) has different durations in DSM IV and ICD-10 :- According to DSM IV, symptoms (Non bizzare delusion) should be for > 1 months. According to ICD-10, Symptoms should be for > 3 months. | Psychiatry | null | Time interval between acute and persistent psychotic disease is ?
A. 1 week
B. 2 week
C. 3 week
D. 1 months
| 1 months |
8e34ab02-8c87-464e-b558-5da288829166 | Anatomical snuff box: The given picture shows anatomical snuff box which is a depression formed at the posterolateral side of the wrist and metacarpal by the extensor tendons passing into the thumb. Base of the triangle is at the wrist and apex is directed into thumb. It is most apparent when thumb is extended. Boundaries: Lateral: Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons. Medial :Extensor pollicis longus tendon Floor: Scaphoid and trapezium the distal ends of the tendons of the extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis Scaphoid Fracture: The commonest carpal injury is a fracture across the waist of the scaphoid bone . It is uncommon to see other injuries. In approximately 10% of individuals, the scaphoid bone has a sole blood supply from the radial aery, which enters through the distal poion of the bone to supply the proximal poion. When a fracture occurs across the waist of the scaphoid, the proximal poion therefore undergoes avascular necrosis. | Anatomy | FMGE 2019 | An injury to the shown area can lead to fracture of which bone (FMGE June 2019)
A. Lunate
B. Scaphoid
C. Hamate
D. Trapezium
| Scaphoid |
7dc712c5-5269-408a-8ed7-edbb3f8467d5 | Injury to long thoracic nerve causes paralysis of serratus anterior muscle which clinically manifests as winging of scapula. The patient also finds difficulty in overhead abduction and touching the opposite shoulder. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 45 | Anatomy | Upper limb | Injury to long thoracic nerve leads to
A. Winging of scapula
B. Pointing index
C. Claw hand
D. Wrist drop
| Winging of scapula |
2c7a1b1a-35ca-4e02-aae1-df107d9b5ec5 | Ans. (c) DapsoneRef. katzung 11th ed. /1468* Dermatitis herpetiformis is a chronic blistering skin condition, characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid.* DH is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes.* It characterized by intensely itchy, chronic papulovesicular eruptions, usually distributed symmetrically on extensor surfaces (buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin, or face).* Diagnosis is confirmed by a simple blood test for IgA antibodies, and by a skin biopsy in which the pattern of IgA deposits in the dermal papillae, revealed by direct immunofluorescence, distinguishes it from linear IgA bullous dermatosis and other forms of dermatitis.* Treatment: Dapsone is considered as drug of choice for DH.* In case of intolerance to dapsone, other drugs which can be used are: Colchicine, Tetracycline, Sulfapyridine. | Pharmacology | Anti-Leprotic | Drug of choice in dermatitis herpetiformis is:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Colchicine
C. Dapsone
D. Chloroquine
| Dapsone |
cb36929f-032a-4b15-93a2-b1f542dcc0c1 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Breast feeding and isoniazid administration o The best answer would have been --> Breast feeding + INH + BCG vaccination. | Pediatrics | null | A povey-stricken mother suffering from active tuberculosis delivers a baby. Which one of the following advices would be the most appropriate in her case -
A. Breast feeding and BCG immunization
B. Breast feeding and isoniazid administration
C. Expressed breast milk and BCG immunization
D. Stop feeds and isoniazid administration
| Breast feeding and isoniazid administration |
3be6ba1d-a69e-4041-84bd-8765d2fa249a | Amyloidosis of SpleenAmyloid deposition in the spleen, for some unknown reasons, may have one of the following two patterns:1. SAGO SPLEEN. The splenomegaly is not marked and cut surface shows characteristic translucent pale and waxy nodules resembling sago grains and hence the name.Microscopically, the amyloid deposits begin in the walls of the aerioles of the white pulp and may subsequently replace the follicles.2. LARDACEOUS SPLEEN. There is generally moderate to marked splenomegaly (weight up to 1 kg). Cut surface of the spleen shows map-like areas of amyloid (lardaceous-lard-like; lard means fat of pigs)Microscopically, the deposits involve the walls of splenic sinuses and the small aeries and in the connective tissue of the red pulp. Confirmation is by seeing Congophilia in Congo Red staining and demonstration of apple-green birefringence under polarising microscopy in the corresponding positive areas. HARSH MOHAN Textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 90 | Pathology | miscellaneous | The sago spleen and lardaceous spleen are conditions seen in-
A. Congestive splenomegaly
B. Autosplenectomy
C. Secondaries in spleen
D. Amyloidosis of the spleen
| Amyloidosis of the spleen |
783d71a9-fccf-4259-98cb-0e5ed306114f | Ans. C: Angle of mandible In most hanging deaths, the ligature and ligature mark lie above the thyroid prominence, with a point of suspension usually behind one ear. Frontal knots are unusual. The appearance of the ligature mark varies with the type of ligature used and with the physical characteristics of the individual neck. Soft broad ligatures may not leave any recognizable marks. In most cases, the ligature does not completely encii le the neck. | Forensic Medicine | null | In simple hanging, the knot comes to rest at the: September 2009
A. Occiput
B. Chin
C. Angle of mandible
D. Below the cheek
| Angle of mandible |
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