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aa2fd386-12d2-418c-ac28-5e2998be4ae9 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vagal inhibition Types of drowning Drowning is classified as (1) typical and (2) atypical. 1. Typical drowning (wet drowning) Typical drowning refers to obstruction of air passages and lungs by inhalation of water or other fluid. Therefore it is also called wet drowning and findings offluid and froth are present in PM examination. Typical drowning may be :- Fresh water drowning : In fresh water drowning large quantities of water cross the alveolar membrane into circulation causing hypervolaemia and hemodilution. RBCs imbibe water and burst (hemolysis) with liberation of potossium. Therefore, hea is exposed to volume overload, potassium excess, sodium deficit (hyponatremia), and anoxia. Anoxia and hyperkalemia cause ventricular fibrillation and death in 4-5 minutes. Salt water drowning : Hypeonicity of inhaled water causes loss of fluid from circulation into the lungs giving rise fulminating pulmonary edema with progressive hypovolaemia, circulatary shock, and eventually cardiac standstill (asystole) with death in 8-12 minutes. 2. Atypical drowning It refers to drowning in which even after submersion of body in water, little or no water anters respiratory passages and lungs. Hence typical findings of wet drowning in the form of froth and oedema aquosum of lungs are not found. Atypical drowning may be :- Dry drowning : On contact with water, especially cold water, there results intense laryngospasm, so that water does not enter the lungs. Death is due to asphyxia because of laryngospasm. Immersion syndrome (hydrocution/submersion inhibition/vagal inhibition) : Sudden death occurs due to vagal inhibition as a result of (a) sudden impact with cold water, (b) duck diving (falling in water with feet first), and (c) horizontal entry in water with impact on epigastrium. Submersion of unconscious : If person is unconscious since before submersion in water, little or no water enters respiratory passages. It may occur in MI, cerebrovascular accident, hypeension, epilepsy, cerebral aneurysm and in drunk state. Near drowning (secondary drowning syndrome/post immersion syndrome) : In this drowning is survived and death occurs at a later stage after removal from water. Either the person himself comes out of water or he is recovered alive, but due to complications of submersion, he dies at a later stage. It is due to hypoxic encephalopathy and fibrosing alveolitis. The death occurs due to combined effect of cerebral hypoxia, pulmonary edema, aspiration pneumonitis, electrolyte disturbances and metabolic acidosis. | Forensic Medicine | null | Immersion syndrome occurs due to ?
A. Vagal inhibition
B. Vagal Stimulation
C. Sympathetic stimulation
D. Sympathetic inhibition
| Vagal inhibition |
54250735-15ee-4889-8770-690f35667ed0 | Best parameter to assess gestational age- First trimester - CRL (Crown Rump Length) Second trimester - BPD (Biparietal Diameter) Third trimester - BPD (Biparietal Diameter) Best Overall - CRL (Crown Rump Length) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Obstetrics | Single best parameter to assess gestational age in first trimester?
A. CRL (Crown Rump Length)
B. BPD (Biparietal diameter)
C. HC (Head Circumference)
D. FL (Femur Length)
| CRL (Crown Rump Length) |
bbb9039f-619b-4731-8b3c-333ad5a37f50 | Ans. (A) IV fluids(Ref: Harrison 19th/610; KDt 8/e p370)Management of hypercalcemia of malignancyDrug of choiceBisphosphonatesImmediate treatmentIV fluids with furosemideFastest calcium lowering drugCalcitonin | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Immediate treatment of hypercalcemia of malignancy is:
A. IV fluids
B. Bisphosphonates
C. Calcitonin
D. Glucocorticoids
| IV fluids |
6330085e-40a2-4fd8-8fc0-663e6ccb3ff1 | Hilus cell tumor: Rare virilizing tumor Arises from cells in the ovarian hilum Presence of Reinke crystals in the cells is the distinguishing feature of leydig or interstitial cells of testis Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17e pg 449. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological oncology | Reinke crystals are found in
A. Arrhenoblastoma
B. Granulosa cell tumor
C. Dysgerminoma
D. Hilus cell tumor
| Hilus cell tumor |
7298a0f2-058e-4d40-86cc-1577c87f129f | Diagnosis done in
1st week - Blood culture
2nd week - Widal / Antibodies level
2rd week - Stool culture
4th week - Urine culture | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A 32 year old person comes to the hospital after 2 weeks of the onset of diarrhoea. Diagnosis of typhoid can be confirmed with
A. Urine culture
B. Stool culture
C. Blood culture
D. Widal test
| Widal test |
5d561833-e9b9-420e-9e9d-30d58b9cd52f | The septal nasal cailage, (cailage of the septum or quadrangular cailage) is composed of hyaline cailage. It is somewhat quadrilateral in form, thicker at its margins than at its center, and completes the separation between the nasal cavities in front. | ENT | null | The shape of septal cailage is:
A. Triangular
B. Quadrilateral
C. Oval
D. Hexagonal
| Quadrilateral |
b78ed62e-3e27-4b6f-b81e-88e577a35f70 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Brain stem Duret hemorrhage is small areas of bleeding in the ventral and paramedian pas of the upper brain stem. Causes include acute trauma, edema following trauma, abscess or tumor | Forensic Medicine | null | Duret hemorrhage is seen in?
A. Brain
B. Brain stem
C. Eye
D. Medulla
| Brain stem |
7031f6ce-21a1-4843-b050-de9d5de5b369 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Induction of labour Bishop score, also Bishop's score, also known as cervix score is a pre-labor scoring system to assist in predicting whether induction of labor will be required. The total score is achieved by assessing the following five components on vaginal examination: Cervical dilation Cervical effacement Cervical consistency Cervical position Fetal station If the Bishop score is 8 or greater the chances of having a vaginal delivery are good and the cervix is said to be orable or "ripe" for induction. If the Bishop score is 6 or less the chances of having a vaginal delivery are low and the cervix is said to be unorable or "unripe" for induction. | Pediatrics | null | Bishop scoring is done for ?
A. Exchange transfusion in newborn
B. Induction of labour
C. Ventilation of Newborn
D. Gestation of Newborn
| Induction of labour |
9f0780b8-052e-4c1d-9d5a-3d8fbeba9efc | Respiratory Quotient (RQ) Calculation of RQ of Glucose (carbohydrates): Oxidation of glucose in body: C6H1206 + 602 - 6C02 + 6H20 So, RQ = 6/6 = 1 RQ VALUES for different food components: Carbohydrates - 1 Proteins - 0.8 Fats - 0.74 Mixed diet - 0.85 Brain - 0.97 - 0.99 RQ TELLS US Type of macromolecules used in the body Conversion of one macromolecule to another FASTING / STARVATION - RQ decreases RQ in Diabetics - RQ decreases On giving insulin - RQ Increases | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous | In Diabetes, What happens to RQ:
A. RQ always increases in Diabetes
B. RQ increases & on giving Insulin it again decreases
C. RQ always decreases in Diabetes
D. RQ decreases & on giving Insulin it again increases
| RQ decreases & on giving Insulin it again increases |
3dd88978-a99b-4ee4-a51f-0712e9221cbb | Alzheimer's disease (AD), also referred to simply as Alzheimer's, is a chronic neurodegenerative disease that usually stas slowly and gradually worsens over time.It is the cause of 60-70% of cases of dementia.The most common early symptom is difficulty in remembering recent events.As the disease advances, symptoms can include problems with language, disorientation (including easily getting lost), mood swings, loss of motivation, not managing self-care, and behavioural issues.As a person's condition declines, they often withdraw from family and society.Gradually, bodily functions are lost, ultimately leading to death.Although the speed of progression can vary, the typical life expectancy following diagnosis is three to nine years.coical atrophy of temporal and parietal lobes Stages of Alzheimer's disease Effects of ageing on memory but not AD Forgetting things occasionally Misplacing items sometimes Minor sho-term memory loss Not remembering exact details Early stage Alzheimer's Not remembering episodes of forgetfulness Forgets names of family or friends Changes may only be noticed by close friends or relatives Some confusion in situations outside the familiar Middle stage Alzheimer's Greater difficulty remembering recently learned information Deepening confusion in many circumstances Problems with sleep Trouble determining their location Late stage Alzheimer's Poor ability to think Problems speaking Repeats same conversations More abusive, anxious, or paranoid Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345 | Medicine | C.N.S | Alzheimer's disease, which is involved?
A. Frontal coex
B. Coical atrophy of temporoparietal coex
C. Frontal and parietal coex
D. Occipital coex
| Coical atrophy of temporoparietal coex |
22b83e29-5406-4fb5-ad9c-175334db9419 | Dupuytren's contracture refers to localised thickening of palmar aponeurosis and later formation of nodules with severe permanent changes in metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. It is often associated with the following conditions : * Plantar fasciitis 5%-Ledderhose's disease * Mediastinal and retroperitoneal fibrosis * Peyronie's disease of penis 3% * Nodules in the face and ear * Pellegrini-Stieda's disease. Reference : page 163 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | Surgery | Urology | Dupuytren's contracture is seen in
A. Peyronie's disease
B. Hypospadias
C. Epispadias
D. Exostrophy
| Peyronie's disease |
901e7990-ff69-4885-99b6-fc045c5244a1 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 8-12 mm Hg * The optimal intrabdominal pressure for laproscopy in children has been established to be between 8-12 mm Hg, with neonates tolerating lower pressures than elders. | Surgery | Gall Bladder & Bile Ducts | Laparoscopy - pressure in the abdomen of children -
A. 2-6 mm Hg
B. 8-12 mm Hg
C. 14 - 18 mm Hg
D. 20 - 24 mm Hg
| 8-12 mm Hg |
b153eaf7-cf1a-46db-8dbb-434a15eeeafe | b. Wilson's disease(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1939-1940, Ghai 8/e p 320-321)KF ring in Wilson disease is due to deposition of Copper in the Descemet membrane layer of cornea. | Pediatrics | Inborn Errors of Metabolism | A 12-year-old girl with the mood and emotional liability has a golden brown discoloration in descemet membrane. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Fabry's disease
B. Wilson's disease
C. Glycogen storage disease
D. Acute rheumatic fever
| Wilson's disease |
7e206312-ea15-4a7d-ab6d-8c5b5b5885a5 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Myocardial oxygen demand Effect of digitalis on hearto Main mechanism of action of digitalis is to increase in force of contraction of heart - a positive inotropic action.o Amongst given options, option d is the best choice - heart rate is decreased by digitalis and there is increase myocardial contractility without a propartionate increase in O2 consumption.How does digitalis decrease heart rate?# Heart rate is decreased by digitalis mainly in patients with CHF.# In CHF there is sympathetic overactivity and i vagal tone because of | CO2# Digitalis increases myocardial contractility (major action) - | CO and better emptying of ventricle - improvement in circulation - restoration of diminished vagal tone and abolish sympathetic overactivity - | Heart rate. Beside above main mechanism digitalis slows the heart rate by -A) Increased vagal tonei) Reflexly through nodosa ganglion.ii) Direct stimulation of vagal centre.iii) Sensitization of SA nodes to Ach.B) Extravagal - Direct depressant action on SA and AV nodes."The vagal action manifests early and can be blocked by atropine, whereas extravagal action becomes prominent later and cannot be reversed by atropine | Pharmacology | Digitalis | Digitalis does not increase which parameter of heart-
A. Force of contraction
B. Myocordial contractility
C. Myocardial oxygen demand
D. Cardiac output
| Myocardial oxygen demand |
560e0a53-c3d6-4110-9817-c108adeade8a | Papillomas are benign, outward-growing lumps that may cause problems in some locations. Papillomas do not spread. They are not aggressive or cancerous.
It is important to get any lump or skin lesion seen by a doctor, though. This is to be sure that it is benign and not something to worry about. If a lump turns out to be a more worrying problem, it is important to have had it diagnosed and treated.
Another reason for getting medical attention is that papillomas can cause problems and may need treating, even though they are not cancer.
While papillomas are not cancerous, some are linked with a higher risk of cancer. Women who have been treated for multiple breast papilloma, for example, may be monitored just in case cancer also occurs. | Pathology | null | a benign epithelial cell neoplasm derived from non-glandular surfaces is referred to as:
A. papilloma
B. sarcoma
C. adenoma
D. hamartoma
| papilloma |
16b1a08b-0008-4dd4-98a5-89530919dd42 | Egg is ideal protein because it has high biological efficiency and NPU :
NPU for egg : 100 Fish : 77 Wheat : 51
NPU for meat : 80 Rice : 65 Pulses : 45-50
NPU for milk : 75 Soyabean : 55 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Egg is ideal protein because it has –
A. High cholesterol
B. High protein per 100 gm
C. High biological efficiency and NPU
D. No limiting amino acid
| High biological efficiency and NPU |
722e9f73-024d-4670-8a9e-0d0d3481c90e | Hemangioma Most common benign tumor of the liver Mainly seen in women of 45 years Small capillary hemangiomas(no clinical significance), larger cavernous hemangioma Usually single and <5 cm in diameter, occur equally in right and left liver Giant hemangioma: lesion>5cm Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1456-1457 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Most common nodule found in the liver is
A. Hepatoma
B. Haraoma
C. Hemangioma
D. Cholangiodenoma
| Hemangioma |
f43c6055-32a8-49f1-a874-5b7f8eec11ab | * Most of the side effects of steroids are mainly hoarseness, orophyrangeal candidiasis, decreased growth in children with adrenal suppression.* The plausible explanation is that since these drugs are inhaled, they avoid the first pass metabolism that orally administered steroids undergo and hence have preponderance to cause the usual manifestations of steroid toxicity. | Pharmacology | G.I.T | Which is most common side effect of inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate?
A. Pneumonia
B. Oropharyngeal candidiasis
C. Atrophic rhinitis
D. Pituitary adrenal suppression
| Oropharyngeal candidiasis |
c9beb961-c5db-40f3-89b6-1b3d31507dc4 | Ans. (d) 21 daysRef: Langmanris embryology 10th ed ch:5 | Anatomy | Fertilization and Development of Embryo | Three layers of embryo are formed at what age?
A. 8 days
B. 12 days
C. 16 days
D. 21 days
| 21 days |
1f39033d-a8c5-449a-a7aa-9637a8256dc6 | Isotretinoin iseffective for treating severe acne but it is is category X drug in pregnancy. It is recommended that a woman should wait at least 1 month after stopping Isotretinoin before trying to became pregnant but the desirable time is 3 months. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Drugs in Pregnancy | Isotretinoin to be stopped before pregnancy
A. 3 days
B. 2 week
C. 3 month
D. 3 years
| 3 month |
977b9ff7-3065-4e30-808c-e5f4a36d00a4 | Ans-C Doctrine of res ipsa loquituro It means "the thing or fact speaks for itself".o In a case of professional negligence of a physician, the patient need not prove negligence.o It is applied when the following conditions are fulfilled :That is the absence of negligence the injury would not have occurred ordinarily.That the doctor had exclusive control over the injury-producing instrument or treatment.That the patient was not guilty of contributory negligence. | Unknown | null | The doctrine of resipsa loquitur means -
A. Common knowledge
B. Medical maloccurance
C. Fact speaks for itself
D. Oral evidence
| Fact speaks for itself |
3d49af2c-75fa-404d-a0ad-c4aac0930a45 | Ans. C. 7-10 days after menses. (Ref Textbook of Gynaecology by D C Dutta 5th/pg. 538).Textbook of Gynaecology by D C Dutta 5th/pg. 53S....under the heading "Breast self examination":"Breast self examination should be made into a habit, certainly by the age of 20. The examination should be made on a monthly basis following the menses as the breasts become less tender and less engorged/'Breast self examination# Inpsection should be done standing in front of a mirror in a well lit-room. The patient should palpate her breasts with the opposite hand both in sitting and lying supine with a pillow beneath her back.# Axillary and supraclavicular areas to be palpated.# The nipples should be compressed for any discharge.# She is instructed to contact physician whenever there is any abnormal finding. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Self breast examination by females is advisable to be done at which of the following time?
A. Premenstrual period
B. During menses
C. 7-10 days after menses
D. Ovulatory period
| 7-10 days after menses |
72691d12-02b7-4ab6-9a63-a593169bfa68 | Ans. D: Mycoplasma Mycoplasma are devoid of cell walls The cells are bounded by a soft trilaminar unit membrane containing sterols | Microbiology | null | Which of the following are bounded by membrane containing sterols: March 2011
A. Klebsiella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Mycobacteria
D. Mycoplasma
| Mycoplasma |
40a90c82-8d87-4249-b01d-24d90d79f6d5 | Management plan for panic disorder Psychological treatment Self-help books, computerized cognitive behavioral therapy Cognitive behavioral therapy Pharmacotherapy Antidepressants Social interventions | Psychiatry | Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders | Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for panic disorder?
A. Buspirone plus benzodiazepines
B. Benzodiazepines plus suppoive therapy
C. Sho - term benzodiazepine plus SSRI plus CBT
D. Long - term benzodiazepine plus venlafaxine
| Sho - term benzodiazepine plus SSRI plus CBT |
8ca24a19-4277-4b09-94d0-82861ade74ff | The weakness of voice is the earliest symptom followed by hoarseness of voice. Ulceration of larynx produces severe pain, which may radiate to ears. Pain during swallowing is seen in later stages. On examination, hyperemia of the vocal cord in its whole extent or confined to posterior pa with impairment of adduction is the first sign. Note the hyperaemia Ref : www.ncbi.nlm.gov | ENT | Larynx | The earliest sign of tuberculosis of vocal cords is
A. Mouse nibbled appearance
B. Hyperemia of the free margin
C. Turban epiglotitis
D. Ulceration of vocal cord
| Hyperemia of the free margin |
af8fdafd-adbc-4a9f-bba1-6a185314558e | Ans. (b) Halibut liver oilRef: Harper's Biochemistry 27/e, chapter 44, Textbook of medical biochemistry S. Ramakrishnan 3/e, p 393 | Biochemistry | Vitamins | Richest source of retinoids is?
A. Cod liver oil
B. Halibut liver oil
C. Butter
D. Margarine
| Halibut liver oil |
a1788ea7-2f01-438e-bfea-58ce508c9e9d | .in crohn&;s disease,Fibrosis, stricture formation, deep ulcers, oedema of mucosa between ulcer areas which looks like 'cobble stone', skipped normal areas in between, serosal opacity, mesen-teric fat stranding, enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes, abscesses in the mesentery, fistula are the pathology. Small mucosal aphthous ulcers are earliest gross feature. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 800 | Surgery | G.I.T | "Cobblestone" appearance seen on colonoscope is cheracteristic of the following disease
A. Crohn's disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. TB colitis
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
| Crohn's disease |
3247a85c-fd3e-4d91-9c86-f495debe311c | Sofosbuvir is used orally for Hep C. Orally given once daily in combination with ledipasvir or ribavirin or PEG-interferon for 24 weeks. It is a Hep C NS5B polymerase inhibitor. Ref: HL.Sharma 3rd ed. Pg 800 | Pharmacology | Gastrointestinal tract | The mechanism of action of Sofosbuvir?
A. Inhibits RNA dependent RNA polymerase of HCV
B. Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase of HCV
C. Inhibits RNA dependent RNA polymerase of HBV
D. Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase of HBV
| Inhibits RNA dependent RNA polymerase of HCV |
a3ac08de-99c3-45e6-b834-4be41802a926 | Stercobilin is a tetrapyrrolic bile pigment and is one end-product of heme catabolism. It is the chemical responsible for the brown color of human feces and was originally isolated from feces in 1932Urobilinogen is a colourless by-product of bilirubin reduction.Heme or haem is a cofactor consisting of a Fe2+ (ferrous) ion contained in the centre of a large heterocyclic organic ring called a porphyrin | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Which of the following is porphyrines gives stools their characteristics brown color?
A. Biliverdin
B. Urobilinogen
C. Heme
D. Stercobilin
| Stercobilin |
7d801b26-a860-443c-9ceb-25462732c409 | Young males most common organism is chlamydia
Age > 40 most common organism is E Coli | Surgery | null | Most common cause of acute epididymitis in young males
A. Chlamydia
B. E Coli
C. N. Gonorrhoea
D. Proteus
| Chlamydia |
63c28766-4743-4aa0-aef4-5d8942d328d0 | Vanilloid receptors are VR 1 and VRL 1 for painful temperature. | Physiology | null | Vanilloid receptors are activated by
A. Pain
B. Vibration
C. Touch
D. Pressure
| Pain |
b8203e4e-7a2e-459e-966e-6bb8613f54b6 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glucose* RBCs don't have mitochondria* RBC membrane integrity is maintained by Na+K+ATPase. This pump pumps out 3 sodium ions and reciprocally pumps in 2 potassium ions. In other words, this pump helps in maintaining low sodium concentration within RBCs. Sodium accumulation is avoided, as sodium attracts water, cells swell and rupture. This pump needs ATP.* The required ATP is to be provided by anaerobic metabolism* The only pathway that provides ATP even in anaerobic conditions is glycolysis.* The only fuel which can be utilized in glycolysis is glucose.* Hence RBCs utilize glucose as their fuel through glycolysis.* This is principally why glycolytic enzyme defects present with hemolytic anemia. | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | Source of ATP in RBCs is -
A. Glucose
B. Fatty acid
C. Aminoacid
D. Ketone body
| Glucose |
dfbdd295-1b1a-41ea-8780-c8f284b033ce | Opening of nasolacrimal ductNasolacrimal duct opens into inferior meatus and is closed by a mucosal flap called Hasner's valve | Anatomy | null | Location Hasner's of valve?
A. Opening of nasolacrimal duct
B. Sphenoidal sinus opening
C. Frontal sinus opening
D. Ethmoidal sinus opening
| Opening of nasolacrimal duct |
0cf8dfa9-6959-46f9-b9f4-94f3c98eb138 | Addison’s Disease:
Addison’s disease results from an inability of the adrenal cortices to produce sufficient adrenocortical hormones.
In Addison’s disease, either glucocorticoid or mineralocorticoid deficiency may come first, but eventually all patients fail to secrete both classes of corticosteroid. | Physiology | null | Deficiency of cortisol causes:
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Graves disease
C. Addison disease
D. Acromegaly
| Addison disease |
15e3af82-bdde-43a8-8dc9-79cb9efd8968 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., ATP o There are three energy systems to provide energy for muscular activities.Immediate energy system : Energy is provided by stored ATP and creatine phosphate.Anaerobic glycolytic system (lactic acid system) : Energy is generated by utilization of glucose or glycogen by anaerobic glycolysis. This energy is also generated early.Aerobic or oxidative system : Energy is generated by utilization of glucose/glycogen, and fatty acids through oxidative pathways, e.g. TCA cycle.o These three energy systems operate as a continuum: each system is always functioning, even at rest,o What varies is the relative contribution each system makes to total ATP production at any given time. Immediate energy systemAnerobic gly colytic systemOxidative (aerobic) sy stemSubstratesATP, creatine phosphateGlucose or glycogenGlucose or glycogen, fatty acidsEnergy productionVery fastFastSlowPeak at0-30 sec.20-180 sec.>3 minLimiting factorDepletion of CrP, ATPLactic acid accumulationGlycogen depletionActivity examplePowerlifting & weight lifting, short sprints Jumping, throwingLonger sprints Middle distance team sports Ball games (Soccer, rugby)Endurance events Team sports Bail games (Soccer, field hockey) | Biochemistry | Respiratory Chain | Immediate source of energy is -
A. Corps cycle
B. HMP
C. ATP
D. TCA cycle
| ATP |
1f51383b-c303-4673-8a18-8c3613bc4cba | Cranberry juice Mechanism of prevention of UTI: Proanthocyanidis in cranberry juice prevent bacterial fimbriae from attaching to wall of Urinary Bladder and urinary tract Ref: How cranberry juice can prevent Urinary tract Infections, Science daily, July 21,2008) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Regular drinking of which of the following can help prevent Urinary Tract infection (UTI)
A. Grape juice
B. Orange juice
C. Cranberry juice
D. Raspberry juice
| Cranberry juice |
bad67c28-274e-486b-8c14-bbaec8374ca9 | The cobalamin-lF complex travels through the gut. The complex binds to specific receptors on the surface of the mucosal cells of the ileum. The binding of the complex and entry of B12 into the mucosal cells is mediated by Ca2+ ions. In the mucosal cells, B12 is converted to methyf cobalamin. lt is then transported in the circulation in a bound form to proteins namely transcobalamins. | Biochemistry | null | Vit B 12 is absorbed in
A. Stomach
B. Deudenum
C. Ileum
D. Colon
| Ileum |
f4573f56-b66a-42cf-8527-e2eeb255dca0 | Childbirth trauma causes damage of the pelvic floor and pubocervical fascia leading to urinary incontinence. The injury is more common in gynecoid and least in android pevis. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Childbirth trauma leading to Urinary incontinence is seen least in females with:
A. Android pelvis
B. Anthropoid pelvis
C. Gynecoid pelvis
D. Platypelloid pelvis
| Android pelvis |
5384dff9-e736-4a83-8ef9-cf018e116e30 | Fibrocystic disease (chronic cystic mastitis) is a common disorder of the adult female breast. It is rare after cessation of ovarian function, either natural or induced. Its association with estrogens is inferential. In postmenopausal women it only occurs when replacement estrogen therapy is in use. Its main clinical significance relates to the need to differentiate irregular breast tissue from cancer. Patients afflicted with this disorder are often frustrated by the repeated biopsies that may be recommended. | Surgery | Breast | Fibrocystic disease of the breast has been associated with elevated blood levels of
A. Testosterone
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. Luteinizing hormone
| Estrogen |
84b9a379-4f63-47b3-81ef-adbcc526e38c | Scl-70 antibodies are associated with more severe scleroderma disease. Anti-topoisomerase antibodies can be classified according to their immunoglobulin class (IgM, IgG or IgA). IgG-ATA is found most frequently in scleroderma, with IgA being quite common but IgM very infrequent. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 230 | Medicine | Genetics | DNA topoisomerase 1 autoantibody is specific for?
A. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
B. Mixed connective tissue disease
C. Diffuse scleroderma
D. SLE
| Diffuse scleroderma |
252aeef6-e637-4fb0-bd9f-409a34b3dce9 | Electric Bulb/Light Bulb Appearance on Shoulder Radiograph Is suggestive of posterior Dislocation of Shoulder. | Radiology | Musculoskeletal Radiology | What is the abnormality shown in this shoulder Radiograph?
A. Anterior Dislocation Of Shoulder
B. Posterior Dislocation Of Shoulder
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. Simple Bone cyst
| Posterior Dislocation Of Shoulder |
1dfc394e-ee21-4767-97eb-b8b48d35752d | UPDATE- Most common vasculitis in children Kawasaki Disease. | Pediatrics | null | Most common vasculitis in children
A. Henoch Schonlein purpura
B. Kawasaki disease
C. Wegener's granulomatosis
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
| Kawasaki disease |
35f6374b-1fe1-48cb-adb9-072551da44a2 | Foraminal brain herniation leads to compression of the medulla leading to respiratory arrest. Third nerve palsy causing ipsilateral pupillary dilatation and ipsilateral hemiplegia occurs in uncal (midbrain) herniation Locked in state occurs due to a lesion of ventral pons. | Medicine | Raised ICP and Brain death | Foraminal brain herniation leads to?
A. Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation
B. Locked in state
C. Respiratory arrest
D. Ipsilateral hemiplegia
| Respiratory arrest |
4a6db1e3-55f1-4538-b127-c50a7c166d0c | Quota sampling is a method for selecting survey paicipants that is a non-probabilistic version of stratified sampling. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 913 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Random sampling is not done in?
A. Cluster sampling
B. Quota sampling
C. Stratified sampling
D. Simple random
| Quota sampling |
3e36bedc-de23-4fa7-ac07-efb922e4dee8 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, pa of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc | Surgery | null | The commando operation is -
A. Abdomino-perineal resection of the rectum for carcinoma
B. Disaiculation of the hip for gas gangrene of the leg
C. Extended radical mastectomy
D. Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, pa of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc
| Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, pa of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc |
cab6184f-04d5-401b-b2a3-b47e92c9a995 | Anencephaly is a lethal defect characterized by absence of the brain and cranium above the base of the skull and orbits. In the first half of pregnancy, the diagnosis made by elevated alpha-feto protein in amniotic fluid and confirmed by sonography. Inability to obtain a view of the biparietal diameter should raise suspicion. Hydramnios from impaired fetal swallowing is common in the third trimester. Ref: Leveno K.J., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 13. Prenatal Diagnosis and Fetal Therapy. In K.J. Leveno, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A multigravida came for routine antenatal check up. She had a history of medical termination of pregnancy due to fetus with anencephaly. Anencephaly is best diagnosed in the present pregnancy by using:
A. Maternal Alpha fetoprotein
B. Amniotic fluid beta hCG
C. USG
D. X-ray
| USG |
cc94d485-4bbf-4219-ada2-90cb15d81216 | (7th nerve): Ref: 225-LT (91-D 4th)STAPEDIUS MUSCLE - after emerging from the pyramid, is inserted into the neck of the stapes* It has an action of damping the movement of the stapes by tilting outwards the anterior end of the foot plate.* Supplied by facial nerveTENSOR TYMPANI MUSCLE - arise from the cartilaginous part of the auditory tube from the adjacent part of the greater wing of the sphenoid and from the bony canal* Its action is to tense the tympanic membrane by drawing it medially* Supplied by motor division of the trigeminal nerve, through the otic ganglion* Tympanic plexus is formed by the ramification of the tympanic nerve (Jacobson's nerve) which is a branch of the glassoparyngeal nerve. | ENT | Ear | Stapedius muscle is supplied by:
A. 5th nerve
B. 6th nerve
C. 7th nerve
D. 8th nerve
| 7th nerve |
d22e7dcd-7b02-42f6-aa64-220e31a3a9f1 | Substance P is found in neurons within the hypothalamus and spinal cord. It is released from small A delta and C fibers that relay information from nociceptors to neurons within the substantia gelatinosa of the spinal cord. Endorphins and other opioid neurotransmitters may paially inhibit the perception of pain by presynaptically inhibiting the release of substance P from nociceptor afferent fibers. | Surgery | null | Synaptic transmission between pain fibers from the skin and spinal cord neurons is mediated by:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Substance P
C. Endorphins
D. Somatostatin
| Substance P |
af557dbf-a3ef-4873-891b-1fa2b2a7d997 | Age below 18years early age of onset, poor compliance to medications, poor insight, poor knowledge, attitude and practice among family members, expressed emotions among family members , male gender, insidious onset of illness , simple and hebephrenic type of schizophrenia are usually bad prognostic factors for schizophrenia Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg: 370 | Psychiatry | Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders | The bad prognostic factors of schizophrenia include
A. Age 18 yrs
B. Age 40 yrs
C. Sudden onset
D. Female
| Age 18 yrs |
eff7f46b-6784-48ca-a7af-217be3aad462 | A schizotypal personality disorder is classified in cluster 'A' in DSM-IV-TR classification. In ICD- 10 classification schizotypal disorder is classified with schizophrenia and related disorder. | Psychiatry | null | Which personality disorder of DSM-IV is not classified as PD & is placed with schizophrenia in ICD 10 -
A. Schizoid
B. Paranoid
C. Narcissistic
D. Schizotypal
| Schizotypal |
4a5bec2a-9a2e-495d-a684-b4f54e2b6c5b | Ans. (c) Succinyl CoARef: Harpers Biochemistry 30th Ed; Page No- 325Steps of Synthesis of Heme* To produce 1 molecule of heme, 8 molecules each of glycine and succinyl-CoA are required.* It is divided into1. Synthesis of Porphobilinogen (Monopyrrole)2. Synthesis of Uroporphyrinogen (Tetrapyrrole)3. Conversion of Uroporphyrinogen to Protoporphyrin4. Formation of Heme by incorporation iron.1. Synthesis of Porphobilinogen (Monopyrrole)ALA Synthase (ALAS)* Catalyse condensation reaction between succinyl-CoA and glycine to form a-amino-ketoadipic acid, which is rapidly decarboxylated to form S-aminolevulinate (ALA).* Synthesis of ALA occurs in mitochondria.* Two isoforms of ALAS# ALAS-I the Hepatic Form is the Key regulatory enzyme # ALAS-11 is the Erythropoietic formALA Dehydratase* Two molecules of ALA are condensed by the enzyme ALA dehydratase to form two molecules of water and one of porphobilinogen (PBG)* Takes place in the cytosol.* ALA dehydratase is a zinc-containing enzyme* This enzyme is sensitive to inhibition by lead, as can occur in lead poisoning.* Thus the first precursor pyrrole is formed.2. Synthesis of Uroporphyrinogen (Tetrapyrrole)* The formation of a cyclic tetrapyrrole-i.e. a porphyrin- occurs by condensation of four molecules of PBG.Uroporphyrinogen -I Synthase or HMB Synthase or PBG Deaminase* Four molecules of PBG condense in a head-to-tail manner to form a linear tetrapyrrole, hydroxymethylbilane (HMB).* 4 moles of NH3 , is released* Takes place in the cytosol.* The reaction is catalyzed by uroporphyrinogen I synthase, also named PBG deaminase or HMB synthase.Uroporphyrinogen III synthase* HMB is converted to Uroporphyrinogen III by Uroporphyrinogen III synthase.* Uroporphyrinogen is thus the first porphyrin precursor formed.* Under normal conditions, the uroporphyrinogen formed is almost exclusively the III isomer.But HMB cyclizes in certain porphyrias, spontaneously to form uroporphyrinogen I.3. Conversion of Uroporphyrinogen to Protoporphyrin* Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase# Uroporphyrinogen II is converted to coproporphyrinogen III by decarboxylation of all of the acetate (A) groups, which changes them to methyl (M) substituents.# The reaction is catalyzed by uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase.# This is also capable of converting uroporphyrinogen I to coproporphyrinogen I# This also takes place in the cytosol# Coproporphyrinogen III then enters the mitochondria, where it is converted to protoporphyrinogen III.# The mitochondrial enzyme coproporphyrinogen Oxidase catalyzes the decarboxylation and oxidation of two propionic side chains to form protoporphyrinogen.# This enzyme is able to act only on type-III coproporphyrinogen, which would explain why type I protoporphyrins do not generally occur in nature.* Protoporphyrinogen Oxidase# The oxidation of protoporphyrinogen to protoporphyrin is catalyzed by another mitochondrial enzyme, protoporphyrinogen oxidase.4. Formation of Heme by incorporation of Iron* This is the final step in heme synthesis.* It involves the incorporation of ferrous iron into protoporphyrin in a reaction.* This step is catalyzed by ferrochelatase (heme synthase).* Takes place in mitochondria. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Which of the following TCA cycle intermediate is a part of heme metabolism?
A. Alpha ketoglutarate
B. Fumarate
C. Succinyl CoA
D. Malate
| Succinyl CoA |
43230226-a96b-4340-bc41-b0b81193e710 | Aicular erosions on X-ray Always remember this impoant point about SLE "Erosions on joint X-ray are rare, their presence suggests a non lupus inflammatory ahropathy such as rheumatoid ahritis". This fact has been asked so many times in various exams as : ? "Non erosive ahritis is a. feature of which of the following" On the other hand erosion is a characteristic X-ray feature of Rheumatoid ahritis. The pirmnary value of radiography in patients with Rheumatoid ahritis is to determine the extent of bone erosion and cailage destruction. The radiological hallmark of rheumatoid ahritis is : Juxtaaicular osteopeniaQ - Bone erosions? - Narrowing of joint space .from loss of aicular cailage?. Proximal interphalangeal joint can be involved in both Rheumatoid ahritis and SLE. The characteristic feature of Rheumatoid ahritis is sparing of the distal interphalangeal joint. . E.S.R. can be elevated in both Rheumatoid ahritis and SLE. Some SLE cases are even positive for Rheumatoid factor. According to current Rheumatology diagnosis and treatment "SLE may he confused with other connective tissue diseases especially Rheumatoid ahritis. SLE patients may even have positive Rheumatoid factor. The usual presentation of lupus ahritis is identical to that of Rheumatoid ahritis, but SLE ahritis is rarely erosive". | Surgery | null | Amiddle aged female presents with polyahritis with elevated rheumatoid factor and A.N.A. levels, which among the following will help you to differentiate rheumatoid ahritis from SLE?
A. Soft tissue swelling at the proximal inter phalangial joint
B. Juxta aicular osteoporosis on X-ray
C. Aicularerosions on X-ray
D. Elevated ESR
| Aicularerosions on X-ray |
ac00affe-beec-46f7-96e8-6a041ece14a2 | Prostate cancers account for 43% of all cancers diagnosed in American men. It is estimated that in 1996, 317,000 new cases of prostate cancer were diagnosed and 41,000 men died of the disease. The challenge of treating prostate cancer lies in accurately distinguishing those histologically-localized cancers which will complete metastatic progression from those that will remain indolent. At this time, we lack appropriate histological markers to make such distinctions, therefore, it is often difficult to accurately predict the clinical course of an individual patient's disease. There is growing evidence that a critical event in the progression of a tumor cell from a non-metastatic to metastatic phenotype is the loss of function of metastasis-suppressor genes. These genes specifically suppress the ability of a cell to metastasize. Work from several groups has demonstrated that human chromosomes 8, 10, 11 and 17 encode prostate cancer metastasis suppressor activities. As a result of these effos the first prostate cancer metastasis-suppressor gene, KAI1, was identified and mapped to the p11-2 region of chromosome 11. In subsequent studies, an additional gene encoded by the same region, CD44 was also determined to have metastasis-suppressor activity. Recent studies have shown a correlation between decreased expression of KAI1 and CD44 and an increased malignant potential of prostate cancers. It is anticipated that the identification of other metastasis suppressor genes may allow for the development of diagnostic markers useful in the clinical substaging of individual tumors. This manuscript is intended to present our perspective on the impoance of these genes in the understanding of prostate cancer progression. More impoantly, we present new findings from our laboratory's effo to identify the metastasis-suppressor genes encoded by human chromosome 17. Specifically we repo the strategy currently being used to evaluate a series of candidate genes and the approach being utilized to pinpoint the metastasis-suppressor region on human chromosome 17. | Pathology | General pathology | Which of the following is a metastasis suppressor gene in relation to prostate cancer
A. KAI - 1
B. NM 23
C. KISS
D. p53
| KAI - 1 |
ad1097d8-f219-494d-90be-54a04a7c4d40 | Hydatid disease:
Echinococcus granulosus: Causes Hydatid disease—Hepatomegaly (60—70% of cases), then lungs
E. multilocularis: Causes Alveolar Hydatid disease (90%-liver involvement)
E. oligarthrus and E.vogeli: Causes Polycystic Hydatid disease. | Microbiology | null | Hydatid disease of liver is caused by -a) Strongloidesb) Echinococcus granulosusc) Taenia soliumd) Trichinella spiralise) Echinococcus multilocularis
A. ab
B. be
C. bc
D. ce
| be |
bc7fc262-eb83-49c2-9249-334967827dad | d. Chronic asthmatic child receiving low dose inhaled steroid for 10 months(Ref: Ghai 8/e p 142)Low dose steroids are not a contraindication to live vaccines. | Pediatrics | Immunization | A child is receiving corticosteroids for medical therapy. The following is not a contraindication in this child for receiving a live viral vaccine:
A. When child is receiving 2 mg/kg of prednisolone for at least 2 weeks at present
B. When child has received 2 mg/kg of prednisolone for at least 2 weeks in the past one month
C. Child receiving 4 mg/kg of prednisolone for 4 weeks, prior to 2 weeks
D. Chronic asthmatic child receiving low dose inhaled steroid for 10 months
| Chronic asthmatic child receiving low dose inhaled steroid for 10 months |
782b1cba-3ca2-4392-8cd3-5a1de1e79e2d | Disruptive, Impulse-Control & Conduct Disorder: include intermittent explosive disorder, pyromania, kleptomania, conduct disorder*, antisocial personality disorder* , oppositional defiant disorder*. (* - usually described as a type of personality disorders) Feature Of Impulse-Control Disorders failure to resist an impulse /drive temptation to perform the act of tension or arousal before the act Pleasure/relief after the act Regret/guilt following the act compulsive drive to reduce dysphoria Intermittent Explosive Disorder (1) repeated aggressive acts resulting in the destruction of propey, (2) the dispropoionate response to the stimulus that preceded the aggression. Kleptomania - the Pathological compulsion to steal Pyromania -a pattern of behavior, with more than one occasion of purposeful fire setting. it is not done for monetary or other gains. Pathological Gambling- Gambling with increasing amounts of money needed to achieve the same level of excitement (tolerance) and restlessness and irritability when attempting to stop or cut back on gambling (withdrawal) Impulse control disorders and obsessive compulsive disorders involves doing repeated motor acts. In impulse control disorders, there is an urge and the person is not able to control the temptation and he does the act and finally by finishing the act there is a pleasure that is experienced. in obsessive compulsive disorder there is a obsession that is denoted by recurrent, irrelevant, intrusive thought and this thought is stressful To overcome that thought the person has to do some motor acts that are called as compulsions by doing these compulsions there is no pleasure but, there is a sense of releif of tension. b Reference: Page No.925 chap 7.3 Signs and Symptoms in Psychiatry(Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Edition) DSM-5 section II Disruptive, Impulse-Control & Conduct Disorder P-461 | Psychiatry | All India exam | Kleptomania means
A. Irresistible desire to set fire
B. Irresistible desire to steal things
C. Compulsive hair pulling
D. Pathological gambling
| Irresistible desire to steal things |
7843db8c-7967-4c20-8c73-5c065b8a3c96 | Paltauff's haemorrhages: Usually seen in the lower lobes of the lungs in drowning. They may be seen on the anterior surface and interlobar surfaces of lungs. They are red or grey patches. They may be seen on the surface due to interstitial emphysema. They may however be absent. This condition of the lung is called 'Emphysema aquosum' and 'trockenes oedema'. This drowning lung is fairly characteristic but not pathognomic. Reff: The synopsis of forensic medicine & Toxicology 28th edition pg: 193 | Forensic Medicine | Asphyxia | Paltauf's hemorrhages are seen in -
A. Hanging
B. Strangulation
C. Drowning
D. Thermal injury
| Drowning |
d4c78e47-36f2-415f-a535-23ec5791c977 | Contributory Negligence: Negligence of both patient and doctors. For e.g Doctor puts tight plaster on patient (Doctor Negligent). The patient develops numbness but does not inform doctor and suffers injury (patient negligent). It is a defence only in civil negligence and has no place in criminal negligence. Other rules related to Contributory Negligence Last clear chance doctrine--Both doctor and patient are negligent but doctor had the last chance to avoid injury but he did not use this chance. Doctor will have to pay damages Avoidable consequences rule: Negligence of patient occurs after he has sued the doctor for negligence. The doctor will not be responsible for the fuher damaged caused by negligence of patient. Patient should have taken appropriate steps to reduce the fuher consequences of injury | Forensic Medicine | Medical Jurisprudence | Contributory negligence is related with:
A. Eggshell skull rule
B. Master servant rule
C. Avoidable consequences rule
D. Common knowledge rule
| Avoidable consequences rule |
6b72957e-b0c1-4877-a884-3fdf6e309306 | Ans. A. hCG and PAPP-ARef: William's 24th/ed, p289Table 2: Selected Down syndrome screening strategies and their detection rateStrategyAnalytesDetection Rate3 (%)First-trimester screenNT, PAPP-A, and hCG or free p-hCG79-87NTNT alone64-70Triple testMSAFP hCG OR free p-hCG, uE361-70Quadruple (Quad) testMSAFP, hCG or free p-hCG, uE3, inh74-81Integrated screenFirst-trimester screen and Quad test; results withheld until Quad test completed94-96Stepwise sequentialFirst-trimester screen and Quad test 1% offered diagnostic test after first-trimester screen 99% proceed to Quad test, results withheld until Quad test completed90-95Contingent sequential screenFirst-trimester screen and Quad test 1 % offered diagnostic test after first-trimester screen 15% proceed to Quad test; results withheld until Quad test completed84% have no additional test after first trimester screen88-94Cell-free fetal DNA testing (high-risk pregnancies)No analytes--massively parallel genomic sequencing98aBased on a 5% positive screen rate.Free b-hCG = free b-subunit hCG; hCG = human chorionic gonadotropin, inh = dimeric inhibin a;MSAFP = maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein; NT = nuchal translucency; PAPP-A = pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A; uE3 = unconjugated estriol. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis in Obstetrics | Detection of aneuploidy in 1st trimester:
A. hCG and PAPP-A
B. hCG and AFP
C. hCG, PAPP-A and AFP
D. AFP and estriol
| hCG and PAPP-A |
a3affcdb-af66-482e-8aed-43b22820ba4f | ANSWER: (A) BenignREF: Textbook of Surgery by Roshan Lai Gupta 2nd ed Page 471EPULISEpulis represents a family of benign tumors of gingiva. The classification includes:Granulomatous epulis, pyogenic granulomaGiant cell epulis (Myeloid epulis)Fibrous epulis (Most common) | Surgery | Oral Cavity | Epulis is?
A. Benign
B. Malignant
C. Reactive process
D. Precancerous
| Benign |
3285c82d-de0f-4df1-9a52-7cc5a328ce4a | As on march 31st 2014 ,5363 community health centers were established by upgrading the primary health care covering a population of 80,000 to 1.20 lakh with 30 beds and specialist in surgery,medicine,obstetrics,gynaecology and paediatrics with x- ray and laboratory facilities (refer pgno:907 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health care of community & international health | Community health centres covering a population of -
A. 40-60,000
B. 60-80,000
C. 80-1,20,000
D. More than 1,20,000
| 80-1,20,000 |
e7a7a018-197b-4f0e-b4ef-434e0542b8c1 | Ans. b. Folic acid and vitamin B12 Pemetrexed Toxicity Pemetrexed toxicity mirrors that of methotrexate, with the additional feature of a prominent erythematous and pruritic rash in 40% of patientsQ. Dexamethasone, 4 mg twice daily on days -1, 0 and +1, markedly diminishes this toxicity. Unpredictably, severe myelosuppression with pemetrexed, seen especially in patients with pre-existing homocysteinemia and possibly reflecting folate deficiency, is largely eliminated by concurrent administration of low dosages of folic acid, 350-1000 mg/day, beginning 1-2 weeks prior to pemetrexed and continuing while the drug is administered. Patients should receive intramuscular vitamin B12 (1 mg) with the first dose of pemetrexed to correct possible B12 deficiency. These small doses of folate and B12 do not compromise the therapeutic effects. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following medications essential for ameliorating the toxicity of pemetrexed:
A. Folinic acid and vitamin B6
B. Folic acid and vitamin B12
C. Vitamin 136 and Vitamin B1,
D. Folic acid and dexamethasone
| Folinic acid and vitamin B6 |
f67a683b-d2e9-482e-b021-8b769e67d8e8 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Homocystinuria Inborn error of metabolism and Treatment Alkaptonuria Vitamin C, Folic acid Homocystinuria Pyridoxine + Folic acid Cystinuria Alkalization of urine + d-Penicillamine, Captopril Hanup disease Nicotinamide Multiple carboxylase eficiency Biotin Methyl malonic academia Vitamin B 12 Hyperoxaluria Pyridoxine Tyrosinemia NTBC, Liver Transplantation | Biochemistry | null | Pyridoxine is used in treatment of ?
A. Galactosemia
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Propionic acidemia
D. Homocystinuria
| Homocystinuria |
c3fd5ac5-3571-48f8-b91e-3bfba02db34d | Ans. is'b'i.e., Median nerveBenediction deformity of hand (Benedict hand) and positive Benediction test are seen in median nerve injury. | Anatomy | null | Benedict's hand is due to injury to -
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Radial nerve
| Median nerve |
86337f8d-ff23-4804-81e4-6d67afa9f116 | Regardless of the cause, the classical histological picture of RPGN is characterized by the presence of crescents in most of the glomeruli.
So, RPGN is also known as crescentic glomerulonephritis.
Crescent formation
Despite the wide variety of diseases that causes RPGN, all types of RPGN are characterized by glomerular injury and the formation of crescents.
Severe injury and GBM rupture lead to the leakage of plasma proteins through the GBM.
Of these proteins, fibrin is thought to contribute most strongly to the crescent formation.
Parietal epithelial cells lining the bowman capsule respond to the leaked fibrin and proliferate.
Infiltrating white blood cells such as monocytes and macrophages also proliferate.
These proliferating cells surround and compress the glomerulus, forming a crescent-shaped scar that is readily visible on light microscopy of a renal biopsy. | Pathology | null | The crescent formation is characteristic of the following glomerular disease -
A. Minimal change disease
B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
C. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis
D. Rapidly non progressive glomerulonephritis
| Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis |
94d2b9fa-6d71-4b88-87f1-665c134a61a2 | Most spinal cord infarctions are detected by MRI. After a few days, there are obvious lesions on the T2 sequences, presumably reflecting edema that extends over several levels. There may be slight enhancement after infusion of gadolinium. MRI taken in the first hours or day is often normal. In the chronic stages, the infarcted region collapses and has an attenuated signal on MRI. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 44. Diseases of the Spinal Cord. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e. | Radiology | null | Which among the following appears as spinal cord edema in MRI scan?
A. Myelodysplasia
B. Spinal cord infarctions
C. Myeloschisis
D. Cord tumors
| Spinal cord infarctions |
3cfcc255-6dc0-4392-89ca-cc06ed4872ef | Ans. is 'b' i.e., USG o FAST stands for focused assessment with sonography for trauma,o FAST is the preferred triage method for determining the presence of hemoperitoneum in blunt trauma patients or cardiac tamponade in blunt and penetrating trauma patients,o The four areas scanned in FASTSubxiphoid areaRt. upper quadrantIt upper quadrantPelvis | Surgery | Initial Assessment | FAST -
A. CT
B. USG
C. MRI
D. X-ray
| USG |
f112a4ea-ae86-4346-a5ad-e70d0b237f63 | ANTI-DYSLIPIDEMIC AGENTS Group Mechanism Drugs Special points Statins HMG CoA reductase inhibition Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin Max LDL lowering capacity Fibrates Stimulation of PPAR-alpha Clofibrate Fenofibrate Gemfibrozil Max TG lowering capacity Bile acid sequestrants Binds bile acids in GIT Cholestyramine, Colestipol, Cholesevalam Safe in pregnancy and children Ezetimibe Inhibit intestinal cholesterol absorption Ezetimibe Given with statins Nicotinic acid Inhibit lipase Niacin Max HDL increasing capacity | Pharmacology | Hematology and CVS | Which of the following vitamins can be used for treatment of hypercholesterolemia?
A. Thiamine
B. Biotin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Nicotinic acid
| Nicotinic acid |
c39803d4-d603-4cc3-9278-dc84abcc514e | Refer Goodman Gilman 12th/1851 Carbetocin is along acting Oxytocin that us useful to prevent post pay hemorrhage given intramuscularly or intravenously in a dose of 100 microorgam | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Dose of Carbetocin for post paum hemorrhage
A. 100 microgram intramuscular
B. 50 microorgam Inravenous
C. 150 microgram intravenous
D. 200 microgram intramuscular
| 100 microgram intramuscular |
fd138f34-a7e3-4ba2-9b5d-c7b705398cb8 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Squamocolumnar junction in esophagus Schatzki's ringo It occurs at the junction of squamous and columnar epithelium at the lower end of oesophagus and has also been called lower oesophageal ring.o Usually seen in patients above 50 years of age.o Cause is unknown.o Symptomatic patients complain of intermittent dysphagia and some may even present with bolus obstructiono It may be associated with hiatus herniao Treatment is oesophageal dilatation. | ENT | Oesophagus | Schatzki's ring is present in -
A. Upper end of esophagus
B. Mid-esophagus
C. Squamocolumnar junction in esophagus
D. Fundus of stomach
| Squamocolumnar junction in esophagus |
8fa90ddc-90fa-4d26-ad9f-97b49c021f58 | A i.e. IV diazepam Status epilepticus is said to occur when seizures lasts beyond 30 minutes or seizures are repetitive, prolonged & the patient remains unconscious in between the seizures. The drug of choice is /V Lorazepam (Benzodiazipine)Q 0.1 mg/kg at rate of 2 mg/min. Pharmacologic treatment of generalized tonic-clonic status epilepticus in adults. IV, intravenous, PE, phenytoin equivalents. The horizontal bars indicate the approximate duration of drug infusion. | Anaesthesia | null | In status epilepticus, drug of choice is:
A. I/V diazepam
B. I/M diazepam
C. Oral clonazepam
D. I/M phenytoin
| I/V diazepam |
719db82c-ebb3-4933-aa2f-2caf3a7a3546 | When norepinephrine binds to a beta-adrenergic receptor, it activates a G protein (i.e., a guanosine triphosphate (GTP) binding protein), which, in turn, activates adenylate cyclase. Adenylate cyclase catalyzes the formation of cyclic adenosine 3',5'-monophosphate (cAMP), which activates a variety of kinases. One of these kinases (protein kinase A) phosphorylates phospholamban, which reduces the inhibition of the sarcoplasmic reticular Ca2+ pump, increasing sequestration of Ca2+ from the cytoplasm. Ref: Biaggioni I., Robeson D. (2012). Chapter 9. Adrenoceptor Agonists & Sympathomimetic Drugs. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds),Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e. | Pharmacology | null | When activated by b-adrenergic receptors, the G protein:
A. Activates phospholipase C
B. Activates adenylate cyclase
C. Activates protein kinase C
D. Conves guanosine diphosphate (GDP) to guanosine triphosphate (GTP)
| Activates adenylate cyclase |
a4c14d59-53a9-417d-a451-433bf93a0a64 | The first poion of the axon is called the initial segment. The Initial segment in spinal motor neurons, the initial node of Ranvier in cutaneous sensory neurons is a site where propagated action potentials are generated.(Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition) | Physiology | Nervous system | Generator area in a nerve cell is
A. Cell body
B. Initial segment
C. Axon
D. Dendrites
| Initial segment |
1ae6a79f-961c-4a17-9331-cf34308bf201 | ANSWER: (D) I so volumetric relaxationREF: Ganongs 22nd ed page 621CORONARY BLOOD FLOW:Coronary blood flow, like blood flow in other vessels, is dependent on a pressure gradient, principally driven by mean arterial pressure. However, because aortic pressure can vary widely and because the heart beats continuously, the pressure gradient and, hence coronary blood flow fluctuate depending on the state of contraction. During systole, especially on the left side of the heart, the pressure within the coronary artery secondary to extravascular compression from the squeezing effect of the contracting myocardium virtually eliminates antegrade coronary blood flow. The coronary blood flow" goes to zero just prior to ventricular ejection, corresponding to isovolumic contraction and increased extravascular compression. Conversely, coronary blood flow through the left side is maximal during blood flow through the right side, however, is maximal during peak systole, because developed pressure and consequently extravascular compression within the RV are considerably less than in the LV, thus allowing for antegrade flow during both systole and diastole | Physiology | Circulation: Coronary Circulation and Ischemic Heart Disease | Coronary blood flow is maximum during?
A. Isovolumetric contraction
B. Rapid ejection
C. Slow ejection
D. Isovolumetric relaxation
| Isovolumetric relaxation |
4d97be90-aaf4-4eec-b626-117d8514e954 | Before marriage Repair of vaginal agenesis (seen in testicular feminizaton syndrome and Rokitansky-Kuster Hauser syndrome) is done by vaginoplasty. Vaginoplasty should only be performed when the girl is just married or about to be married. Techniques : 1. Frank dilatation (Non surgical method). 2. Construction of aificial vagina by Mc lndoe operation. 3. Williams vaginoplasty - creates a pouch out of labia majora dissection. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Ideal age for repair of vaginal agenesis is :
A. 6 months
B. 3 years
C. At pubey
D. Before marriage
| Before marriage |
c3234b3f-3633-4778-8acb-798beaf900d8 | Class II articulator:
Articulator which permit horizontal and vertical motion but they do not orient the movement to TMJ with a facebow.
Three types. | Dental | null | Which type of articulators permit horizontal as well as vertical motion, but do not orient the motion to the TMJ via facebow transfer?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
| Class II |
6879ce4b-a870-4c52-bdcc-36ca2991b87e | Ans. C: Cystic fibrosis X-linked diseases usually occur in males. Males have only one X chromosome. A single recessive gene on that X chromosome will cause the disease. The Y chromosome is the other half of the XY gene pair in the male. However, the Y chromosome doesn't contain most of the genes of the X chromosome. It therefore doesn't protect the male. This is seen in diseases such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Autosomal dominant: Examples of this type of disorder are Huntington's disease, Neurofibromatosis 1, Marfan Syndrome, Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer, and Hereditary multiple exostoses, which is a highly penetrant autosomal dominant disorder. Autosomal recessive Examples of this type of disorder are cystic fibrosis, sickle-cell disease, Tay-Sachs disease, Niemann-Pick disease, spinal muscular atrophy etc. 3X-linked dominant X-linked hvpophosphatemic rickets, Rett syndrome, Incontinentia Pigmenti type 2 and Aicardi Syndrome X-linked recessive X-linked recessive conditions include the serious diseases Hemophilia A, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, G-6-PD deficiency and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome as well as common and less serious conditions such as male pattern baldness and red-green color blindness. Y-linked disorders Examples are Male Infeility and hyperichosis pinnae. | Pathology | null | Which is the following is not inherited as X-linked recessive: March 2005, September 2012, March 2013
A. G-6-PD deficiency
B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Hemophilia
| Cystic fibrosis |
44dd5d46-5799-4119-bb66-2179604c29f0 | Wounds do not begin to gain tensile strength from collagen until 5 - 7 days. Wound achieves around 20 % by 3 weeks, and around 60 % by four months. Scar tissue continues to remodel for at least 6 - 12 months after an injury. | Anatomy | G.I.T | The tensile strength of the wound stas and increases after
A. Immediately after suturing
B. 3-4 days
C. 7-10 days
D. 1 month
| 3-4 days |
31ceebd6-97f7-4158-8ebd-bc86663b7bed | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Wilms' tumour Ref: C.P.D.T 16th/e page 807-809, 811 Schwartz Surgery page 1748, 1749, 1747Prognosis depends most importantly upon staging but there are multiple factors affecting the prognosisAfter going through the survival rates of these tumours and confirming our answer with a paediatric oncologist we found the Wilms' tumor to have the best prognosis among the given options.If you have time go through the below given tables for your own satisfaction and conclusions.Wilms' tumour: CSDT 11th/e p 1345Stage4 year Survival % Favorable histologyUnfavorable histologyLimited to kidney9789Extends beyond kidney9468Residual tumor confined to abdomen8868Distant metastasis8255Bilateral renal involvement8416* Prognosis of Rhabdomyosarcoma: CPDT 15th/e p 812Site3 year disease free survivalPredominant Pathologic subtypeHead & Neck EmbryonalOrbit93% Parameningeal71% Other69% Genitourinary Embryonal (botryoid variant in bladder and vagina)Bladder and prostate64-80% Vagina and uterus60-80% Paratesticular60-80% Extremities56%Alveolar (50%) undifferentiatedTrunk57%Alveolar undifferentiated* Neuroblastoma: CSDT 11th/e p 1343Staging and survival of NeuroblastomaSurvivalI. Tumor confined to site of origin100%Ila. Unilateral tumour completely excised. Nodes Negative80%lIb. Unilateral tumour; complete or incomplete excision nodes positive70%.III. Tumor infiltrating across the midline, or a unilateral tumor with contralateral40%nodes positive IV. Remote disease in bone, soft tissue, distant nodes15%V. Infants with stage I or stage II primary and spread to Liver skin or bone marrow.85%Primitive neuroectodermal tumours -PETs includeMedulloepitheliomaMedulloblastoma (known as PET-MB)Primary cerebral neuroblastomaPineoblastomaEpendymoblastomaPrognosis: 5 year survival rate is near about 75% after total tumor removal. | Surgery | Renal Tumors | Which of the following malignant disease of children has the best prognosis?
A. Wilm's tumor
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
| Wilm's tumor |
e7941e6a-c6c8-4539-ac37-c6932a9b1d59 | Porphyrin are excited by visible light with a wavelength between 400 and 410 nm and emit an intense red fluorescence. The released energy reacts with oxygen to produce free radicals and singlet oxygen that damages tissues Mc porphyria - porphyria cutaneatarda (if- Red urine - D/D - myoglobinuria ) | Dental | JIPMER 2018 | Patients with porphyria are highly sensitive to which wavelength :
A. 290-320 nm
B. 400-420 nm
C. 320-400 nm
D. 250-290 nm
| 400-420 nm |
869a79f4-a9b6-4f4c-9ea6-4b9789db8ac3 | Ans. C Cricopharynx Ref. Scott Brown's lth/ed Vol 2 Chapter 155 p 2045; Dhingra 5th/ed p 253, 6th/ed p 238 Killian's Dehiscence (Fig. 8.6) it is an area of weakness between the two pas of inferior constrictor muscle-sub thyropharyngeus and cricopha-ryngeus A pulsion diveiculum of pharyngeal mucosa can emerge posteriorly through the Killian's dehiscence called as Zenker's diveiculum or pharyngeal pouch. Since it is an area of weakness it is one of the sites of esophageal perforation during instrumentation and scopy-hence also called 'Gateway of Tears | ENT | null | Killian's dehisence is seen in:
A. Oropharynx
B. Nasophrynx
C. Cricopharynx
D. Vocal cords
| Cricopharynx |
48f8b172-a374-4d0d-ab0c-f902e7d33e8d | Chromosomes involved in bipolar disorder are chromosome 18, 21, and 22. | Psychiatry | null | Chromosome-associated with bipolar disease -
A. Chromosome 16
B. Chromosome 13
C. Chromosome 18
D. Chromosome 11
| Chromosome 18 |
1c23e1f1-760e-48cc-93f7-1f717f894a0c | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Autoimmune hemolytic anemia | Microbiology | null | The prototype of type-H hypersensitivity reaction is?
A. Ahus reaction
B. SLE
C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D. Contact dermatitis
| Autoimmune hemolytic anemia |
526dc19c-99d2-4acc-994c-c1ae24eaf947 | Ans. d (Right atrium). (Ref. Grey, Anatomy, 36th ed., 644)Torus aorticusAnterosuperior part of septal wall of right atrium bulges to some degree into the atrial cavity as torus aorticus. It is caused by proximity of right posterior aortic sinus and cusp.Torus auditoryThe postero-inferior wall of external meatus occasionally presents a smooth to roughened longitudinal elevation, known as auditory torus.Torus mandibularisAbove myelohyoid line, the bone medial to roots of molar teeth is sometimes developed into a rounded ridge called torus mandibularis.Torus palatineIntermaxillary sutures are sometimes raised forming a longitudinal midline ridge.Torus maxillarisIt is occasionally present on the alveolar process spanning the palatal aspect of subcervical roots of upper molar teeth. | Anatomy | Thorax | Torus aorticus involves:
A. Left atrium
B. Arch of aorta
C. Ascending aorta
D. Right atrium
| Right atrium |
258609c2-6dfd-45f0-852f-d25665a6c0ec | Test for alcohol :
Cavett test
Kozelka and thine test
Alcohol dehydrogenase test
Gas chromatography (Most specific) | Forensic Medicine | null | Cavett test is used for detection of
A. Opiates
B. Alcohol
C. Barbiturates
D. Cocaine
| Alcohol |
c4116d9c-9904-48a5-a95a-fa6b7958c547 | Ans. (c) InfectionRef: Bailey 26th edition, Page 1416* Bacterial infection is most common in 1st month and is most common in those who are critically ill before and after transplant.* Viral infection is most common in 6 months--Most common is CMV > HSV* BK virus is universal in childhood causes urinary infection* Pneumocystis Jiroveci (Previously known as Pneumocystis carnii) is one important fungal infection. | Surgery | Transplantation | The most common complication of immunosuppression is:
A. Malignancy
B. Graft rejection
C. Infection
D. Thrombocytopenia
| Infection |
ee52024a-4e71-4e0b-b1eb-ad1adb17cccd | Time-out- behavioral modification that involves temporarily separating child from an environment where an unacceptable behavior has occurred. The goal is to remove that child from an enriched, enjoyable environment- lead to extinction of the offending behavior. Distraction and 'time-out' strategies are useful in treatment of Temper Tantrums. | Pediatrics | Behavioral Disorders in Children | 'Time out' is useful in the treatment of:
A. Temper Tantrums
B. Pica
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. Nocturnal enuresis
| Temper Tantrums |
9f47ff08-59fc-4221-bfae-9a9fb12516ba | Japanese encephalitis vaccine is a killed vaccine Killed vaccines are produced by growing virus or bacteria in a culture media and then inactivating them with heat or chemicals They are usually safe but less efficacious than live attenuated vaccines. Measles, yellow fever and influenza vaccines are live attenuated vaccines Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Which among the following is a killed vaccine
A. Japanese encephalitis
B. Measles
C. Influenza vaccine
D. Yellow fever
| Japanese encephalitis |
8d23007b-3fb6-4d6b-9869-5179c1f82765 | Transvaginal ultrasonography (TVUS) has the advantage of earlier and better localization of the pregnancy, with less pelvic discomfo because the bladder is not painfully distended. The double-ring sign and the yolk sac must be identified to ensure that the pregnancy is intrauterine. When an intrauterine pregnancy is not visualized on TVUS and the hCG level exceeds 1000-2000 mIU/mL, suspicion for an ectopic pregnancy should be high. Ref: Hill M.J., DeCherney A.H. (2013). Chapter 36. Imaging in Gynecology. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Undiagnosed or undetected ectopic pregnancy is a common cause of maternal death during the first trimester. Most valuable diagnostic test in a case of suspected ectopic pregnancy is:
A. Serial (3-hCG levels)
B. Transvaginal USG
C. Progesterone measurement
D. Culdocentesis
| Transvaginal USG |
a2ff4e81-b9d0-46ae-b1ed-b4f0ca013165 | Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) - -Uric acid, phosphate and potassium are released in large quantities from death of tumour cells. -Hyperuricemia can lead to impairment of renal function, which fuher exacerbates the metabolic abnormalities. -Hypocalcaemia is a consequence of acute hyperphosphatemia with subsequent precipitation of calcium phosphate in soft tissues. 'TLS can occur before therapy in patients with a large tumour burden (e.g., Burkitt lymphoma, Hyperleukocytosis) It is usually seen within 12-48 hr of initiating chemotherapy. | Pediatrics | JIPMER 2017 | A 6 - year - old boy with lymphoreticular malignancy has come for a cycle of chemotherapy. Which of the following investigatins need to be done for next 4 hours to diagnose tumour lysis syndrome?
A. Urea, creatinine, chloride, Ca2+ and K+
B. Urea, creatinine, phosphate, Ca2+ and K+
C. Urea, creatinine, magnesium, Ca2+ and K+
D. Urea, creatinine, sodium and phosphate
| Urea, creatinine, phosphate, Ca2+ and K+ |
d1de0eb0-b99c-4e9b-9a45-37a999df00c1 | The ejection fraction, the percent of the end-diastolic ventricular volume that is ejected with each stroke, is about 65%. The ejection fraction is a valuable index of ventricular function. | Physiology | null | Ejection fraction is about
A. 25%
B. 45%
C. 55%
D. 65%
| 65% |
162825db-9bcc-4840-87f2-d66730a6dd5a | Ans. (c) CoracobrachialisRef : Gray's 41st ed./819-821* The coracobrachialis is an elongated muscle in the superomedial part of the arm. The coracobrachialis helps flex and adduct the arm and stabilize the glenohumeral joint.* With the deltoid and long head of the triceps, it serves as a shunt muscle, resisting downward dislocation of the head of the humerus, as when carrying a heavy suitcase.* The median nerve and/or the brachial artery may run deep to the coracobrachialis and be compressed by it.* Nerve supply - Musculo-cutaneous nerve. | Anatomy | Back, Deltoid, and Scapular Region | In a man lifting up a suitcase, posterior dislocation of glenohumeral joint is prevented by:
A. Deltoid
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Coracobrachialis
D. Supra spinatous
| Coracobrachialis |
739a6c60-0f20-4638-a2a5-abafeaeb4197 | Slow digitalization: Here maintenance dose of Digoxin (average 0.25 mg/day) is given from the beginning. Full response takes 5-7 days to develop, but the procedure is much safer. In case an adequate response is not seen after I week, increase the dose to 0.375 and then to 0.5 mg after another week.Rapid oral digitalization: Here Digoxin 0.5 - 1.0 mg stat dose given followed by 0.25 mg every 6 hours with careful monitoring and watch for toxicity till response occurs - generally takes 6-24 hours (total dose 0.75 - 1.5 mg). This is seldom practised now.Emergency digitalization: It is practised rarely now, only as a desperate measure in CHF or in atrial fibrillation. Digoxin 0.25 mg followed 0.1 mg hourly is given by slow IV. Injection with close ECG, BP and CVP monitoring till response occurs (2-6 hours, total dose 0.5 - 1.0 mg) | Microbiology | All India exam | The maintenance dose of digoxin
A. 0.25 mg/day
B. 2.5 mg/day
C. 25 mg/day
D. 250 mg/day
| 0.25 mg/day |
d8e2ace6-84a4-462e-a7b5-6e6dd4d347f2 | Essential Pentosuria i. It is one of the members of the Garrod&;s tetrad. The incidence is 1 in 2,500 bihs. ii.It is an inborn error of metabolism, due to defect in glucuronic acid pathway of glucose. In the pathway, L-xylulose is conveed to D-xylulose by two enzymes, xylitol dehydrogenase and xylulose reductase absence of any of this enzyme lead to pentosuria.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 134 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Pentosuria is due to defect in which pathway?
A. Glycolysis
B. Polyol pathway
C. Uronic acid pathway
D. Kreb's cycel
| Uronic acid pathway |
ced643ca-14d5-495c-97f6-64feea76b3a9 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Riding a tricycle Milestones seen at 36 monthso Rides tricycleo Stands momentarily on one footo Draws a circle.o Can dress or undress himself completely and succesfully buckles his shoeso Builds tower of 10 cubeso Knows his gender and ageo Repeats a sentence of 6 syllableso Has a vocabulary of 250 wordso Counts 3 objects correctlyo Can withhold and postpone bowel movemento Handedness is established | Pediatrics | Developmental-Behavioral Screening and Surveillance | Which of the following milestone is achieved at 36 months -
A. Drawing a rectangle
B. Building a tower of 20 cubes
C. Riding a tricycle
D. Skipping
| Riding a tricycle |
c41c21ed-f5b9-4a62-ac53-e6ae55e8dc4a | Ans. is c, i.e. Dermoid cystRef. Novak 14/e, p 510; Dutta Obs. 6/e, p 310"Incidence of dermoid cyst increases two times in pregnancy and it becomes the most commonly diagnosed ovarian tumour during pregnancy." --Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 310"A benign cystic teratoma is the most common neoplasm to undergo torsion." --Novak 14/e, p 510Note: Benign cystic teratoma is another name for dermoid cyst.From the above two lines it is clear that dermoid cyst is the most common ovarian tumour to undergo torsion during pregnancy.For more details on dermoid cyst and other ovarian tumours kindly see "Self Assessment and Review Gynaecology" by the same author. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological Disorders in Obs. | Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
A. Serous cystadenoma
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Theca lutein cyst
| Dermoid cyst |
7db5693e-a3c3-445d-b52c-de6681717f5f | Ionizing radiation acts by two methods: Direct and IndirectDirect action is radiation directly causing DNA damage; example: neutrons and alpha paiclesIndirect action is radiation causing free radical production which acts on DNA; example: photons and gamma raysReference: Khan Physics of Radiation therapy; 5th edition | Radiology | Radiotherapy | Direct action of radiation is the dominant process for
A. X-rays
B. Neutrons and alpha paicles
C. Electrons
D. Gamma rays
| Neutrons and alpha paicles |
686e564a-130d-4069-ac90-c202fae223c2 | VVF Chassar Moir technique is used for repair of vesico vaginal fistula. Few named surgical procedures In Few named surgical procedures In Procedure Indication Marshall -- Marchetti Krant surgery Marshall and Bonneys test Boari operation Manchester operation Fothergill operation Strassmam Metroplasty Jones Metroplasty Thompkins Metroplasty Mc Indoe technique Stress incontinence Stress incontinence Uretric transition, Bladder flap procedure Prolapse uterus Prolapse uterus Bicornuate uterus Septate uterus Septate uterus | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Chesser Moir technique is used in :
A. VVF
B. Stress incontinence
C. Urethrocoete
D. Enterocoele
| VVF |
6e398623-3cce-45a5-9c55-ea82300323cd | Ans. D. Hormone sensitive lipase(Ref: Harper 31/e page 244)Pancreatic lipase to hydrolyse dietary TGsLipoprotein lipase to hydrolyse TGs in lipoprotein in the bloodLysosomal hydrolase to act on TGs in lysosomes | Biochemistry | Lipids | The storage triacylglycerol are hydrolysed by:
A. Pancreatic lipase
B. Lipoprotein lipase
C. Lysosomal lipase
D. Hormone sensitive lipase
| Hormone sensitive lipase |
a74001e4-a3c7-4938-bb01-de60474c782c | Platelets are stored in plasma or in additive solution up to 5-7 days at 20-24degC and under permanent motion. | Medicine | Platelet & Coagulation disorders | Shelf life of platelets in blood bank is?
A. 5 days
B. 8 days
C. 10 days
D. 21 days
| 5 days |
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