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e1ea8dcc-206e-4e9e-9a8f-8e453a6b27ff | The patient is suffering from coronavirus disease 2019. The symmetry of the causative virus is enveloped helical symmetry. Coronaviridae is a family of which have the following propeies: Unsegmented genome of positive-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. They are enveloped viruses. They exhibit helical symmetry. Coronavirus is the causative agent of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS-CoV). Viruses with Helical Symmetry: Mnemonic: ABC FOR PARAmedics Arenavirus Bunyavirus Coronavirus Filovirus Ohomyxovirus Rhabdovirus Paramyxovirus Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Virology | An elderly male accompanied by his son.The son tells his father has fever, cough, shoness of breath since 2 weeks. The patient is a known case of chronic bronchitis and diabetes. Travel history to Wuhan City, China is present. What is the symmetry of the causative virus?
A. Naked helical symmetry
B. complex symmetry
C. Enveloped helical symmetry
D. Icosahedral symmetry
| Enveloped helical symmetry |
b36429ed-4615-4ae7-8215-78589e7ab8ca | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Cranberry Cranberry juice has been traditionally used for the treatment and prophylaxis of urinary tract infection.Recent randomized controlled trials have demonstrated its utility in prophylaxis of UTIs but not for treatment. | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Kidney & Uterus) | Which fruit juice helps in preventing UTI:
A. Grape
B. Raspberry
C. Cranberry
D. Orange
| Cranberry |
bb3fed65-e1d2-4cf0-920e-1ff9af6a91aa | Mite burrows into stratum corneum. These burrow is visible clinically as an irregular gray - brown line. | Dental | null | The Burrows in scabies is in the –
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum granulosum
C. Stratum corneum
D. Dennis
| Stratum corneum |
50f415e5-550c-403b-9173-77d734723012 | Rhabdomyolysis leads to myoglobinuria which leads to blockage of tubules and thereby reduction of urine output. Interstitial nephritis is characterized by tubular damage leading to polyuria. Hypokalemic nephropathy in choice B and ADH insufficiency (diabetes insipidus) in choice C leads to Polyuria. | Medicine | Nephrotic and Nephritic syndrome | Which of the following does not cause Polyuria?
A. Interstitial nephritis
B. Hypokalemia
C. A.D.H insufficiency
D. Rhabdomyolysis
| Rhabdomyolysis |
efe3cf98-fb03-41ea-b4d7-d0e58be799b5 | Posterior and superior mediastinum o Thoracic duct is the main lymphatic channel of the body that drains to the venous system from the body except the: -Right thorax -Right arm -Right head and neck o It begins as a continuation of the cisterna chyli at the level of the T 12 veebras. It passes to the right of the aoa through the aoic hiatus. It then ascends to the right of the oesophagus with the azygous vein on its left. Posteriorly are the right posterior intercostal aeries. o At the level of the fifth thoracic veebra the duct passes superiorly and to the left, posterior to the oesophagus (posterior mediastinum). It then ascends on the left side of the oesophagus into the superior mediastinum. At this point, the aoa lies anteriorly and posteriorly is the anterior longitudinal ligament of the veebral bodies. o Superiorly, within the neck the thoracic duct passes laterally to arch over the dome of the right pleura. It passes laterally and posterior to the carotid sheath and anterior to the veebral aeries. During this final section: o It can divide into 2-3 branches o It is joined by lymphatic trunks from: o The left side of the head - the jugular trunk o The left arm - the left subclan trunk o All the branches merge with the subclan vein, the internal jugular vein or the left brachiocephalic vein near the intersection of all three o On route, the thoracic duct receives lymphatic efferents from: -Intercostal nodes -Anterolateral and -posterior mediastinal nodes -Tracheobronchial nodes | Surgery | null | A patient who has suffered severe chest trauma in an automobile accident is found to have fluid in the right pleural space. A thoracentesis reveals the presence of chylous fluid in the pleural space, suggesting a rupture of the thoracic duct. In which regions of the thorax is the thoracic duct found.
A. Anterior and middle mediastinum
B. Anterior and superior mediastinum
C. Middle and superior mediastinum
D. Posterior and superior mediastinum
| Posterior and superior mediastinum |
4f7a9408-4dbe-468f-9c0a-12b127ec8ae9 | Ans. B: External rotation deformity of less than 45 degree Capsule of the hip joint prevents full external rotation in intra-capsular/ fracture neck of femur. So external rotation will be there but not significant, whereas in case of extra-capsular/inter-trochanteric femoral fractures, leg will be externally rotated to such an extent that lateral surface of foot touches the bed as there is no check by the capsule of hip joint. | Surgery | null | What is the position of the leg in fracture neck of femur: September 2007
A. Internal rotation deformity of less than 45 degree
B. External rotation deformity of less than 45 degree
C. Internal rotation deformity of more than 45 degree
D. External rotation deformity of more than 45 degree
| External rotation deformity of less than 45 degree |
6964cfda-7412-43ec-b4ab-50d342cf1cda | In renal aery stenosis - Hypeension is difficult to control with drugs. Patients often respond to Revascularization procedures like percutaneous renala aery angioplasty . There may be decline in GFR during therapy with ACE -inhibitors or ARB'S. Renal aery stenosis can be unilateral or bilateral, so kidneys may be asymmetrical . Atherosclerosis is the common cause of renal aery stenosis in elderly. Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no 1906 | Medicine | Kidney | Which one of the following is not a feature of renal aery stenosis?
A. Hypeension responds well to drugs
B. Kidneys may be asymmetrical
C. Atherosclerotic plaques are common
D. Serum creatinine may increase with ACE inhibitors
| Hypeension responds well to drugs |
5427f97d-40f6-4a32-b617-db9de0c864d7 | Body mass index (BMI) or Quetelet index:Defined as the body mass divided by the square of the body height, and is expressed in units of kg/m2BMIWeight status< 18.5 Underweight18.5-24.9 Healthy25.0-29.9Overweight>= 30.0Obese30.00-34.99 Obese class I35.00-39.99 Obese class II>= 40 Obese class IIIRef: Harrison's 18/e p608, 622, 630 | Medicine | All India exam | On the basis of BMI obesity is labeled at
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 18
| 30 |
dc5e4fb4-834c-4460-9237-6dc7165e4bc4 | d. Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2760-2780, Ghai 8/e p 541-548)MODY refers to forms of diabetes are associated with monogenic defects in pancreatic b-cell function. | Pediatrics | Endocrinology | Monogenic transmission of diabetes mellitus occurs in:
A. Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)
B. Non-insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
C. Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA)
D. Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
| Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY) |
dd2a73aa-0319-4a3e-9f4b-ea1ab50263de | DEXA scan is the gold standard test for screening of bone density (to rule out asteoporosis). | Radiology | null | Bone Density is best studied by –
A. CT scan
B. DEXA scan
C. MRI scan
D. Bone scan
| DEXA scan |
ed5fff02-34da-43e1-9a29-802f8309a2ec | Investigation of choice for PID at any level is MRI. | Orthopaedics | null | Investigation of choice for lumbar prolapsed disc
A. X-ray
B. CT Scan
C. MRI
D. Myelogram Patt
| MRI |
a476c1f3-c6d5-45d9-b85b-7deb75d088fc | Ans. is c, i.e. SodiumRef. Dutta Obs 7/e, p 148Colostrum is a deep yellow serous fluid secreted from breasts starting from pregnancy and for 2-3 days after delivery.CompositionIt has higher specific gravity and higher protein, Vitamin A, D, E, K, immunoglobulin, sodium and chloride content than mature breast milk.It has lower carbohydrate, fat and potassium than mature milk.AdvantagesAntibodies (IgA, IgG, IgM) and humoral factor (lactoferrin) provide immunological defence to the new born.Laxative action due to fat globules.It is an ideal natural starter food.Extra Edge ProteinFatCarbohydrateWaterColostrum8.62.33.286Breast milk1.23.27.587 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Abnormality of Puerperium | In comparison to breast milk, colostrum has higher content of:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fat
C. Sodium
D. Potassium
| Sodium |
e2bb4723-de60-4356-acdc-b6db3fc7bad7 | Adrenoleukodystrophy- Bone marrow transplant & Lorenzo oil Enzyme replacement therapy for- Gaucher disease- Human recombinant acid b-glucosidase (Imiglucerase) Velaglucerase alfa Taliglucerase alfa Fabry's disease- Agalsidase beta Hurler disease- Aldurazyme | Pediatrics | Lysosomal Storage Diseases | Lorenzo oil used in treatment of:
A. Gaucher disease
B. Adrenoleukodystrophy
C. Fabry's disease
D. Hurler disease
| Adrenoleukodystrophy |
29b143f7-3d93-4840-8cda-75e786c0bd90 | Highly selective vagotomy Procedure of choice for chronic or intractable duodenal ulcers Nerves of Latarjet supplying the antrum are preserved (and hence gastric motility) Drainage procedure is not required Lowest Moality rate and side effects. Minimal chances of dumping Syndrome and gastric atony Relatively high recurrence. Ref: Maingot's 11/e chapter 11 & 12; Schwaz 9/e p913 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Surgery of choice for chronic duodenal ulcer is -
A. Vagotomy + antrectomy
B. Total gastrectomy
C. Truncal vagotomy + pyloroplasty
D. Highly selective vagotomy
| Highly selective vagotomy |
c2105304-8609-4943-b7a4-914cd14b39bd | (b)- The usual outcome of healed tuberculosis in spine is the bony ankylosis and in peripheral joints like Hip and Knee Fibrous ankylosis is seen. | Orthopaedics | TB of the Spine | The most common sequelae of tuberculous spondylitis in an adolescent is:
A. Fibrous ankylosis
B. Bony-ankylosis
C. Pathological dislocation
D. Chronic osteomyelitis
| Bony-ankylosis |
d71d4f1e-d25d-40da-a2b9-9dde819a3a31 | Ans. is `c' i.e., Cretinism Cretinism is due to deficiency of Iodine, which can be preventable. | Pediatrics | null | Preventable cuses of mental retardation are -
A. Downs
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Cretinism
D. Cerebral palsy
| Cretinism |
62d6351a-1416-4399-abcd-479d426de603 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1 per 1000 * Annual Parasite Incidence = (confirmed cases during one year/population under surveillancee) x 1000* Population under surveillance = 100000* Confirmed cases =100API =100------100,000x 1000 = 1* So, API is 1 per 1000 population. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | A population of 100000 is under surveillance during an year. 100 cases were positive for malarial thick smear. What is the annual parasite index -
A. 1 per 1000
B. 2 per 1000
C. 10 per 1000
D. 20 per 1000
| 1 per 1000 |
c37b8fd1-9b4e-48b8-ac80-15a55069657a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Metaphysis Pathophysiology of acute osteomyelitis Organism reach the bone through blood stream from a septic focus elsewhere in the body. Metaphysis of long bone is the earliest and most common site involved because : - i) Metaphysis is highly vascular ii) Commonest site is metaphysis. This is because of the peculiar arrangement of the blood vessels in that area, which leads to relative vascular stasis, ouring bacterial colonization. . iii) Metaphysis has relatively few phagocytic cells than physis or diaphysis. iv) Metaphysis has thin coex. | Surgery | null | Earliest site of bone involvement in hematogenous osteomyelitis is ?
A. Metaphysis
B. Epiphysis
C. Diaphysis
D. Apophysis
| Metaphysis |
1eb2d3f2-1de8-4dac-a2b3-bce27579e7ff | The pathologist saw normal chief cells, which are abundant in the body and fundus of the stomach. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen, which is stored in apical membrane- bound granules. The body and fundus of the stomach contain high concentrations of four other types of cells in the epithelium. The parietal (oxyntic) cells are large, pyramidal, and acidophilic with central nuclei (look like a "fried egg"). They make and secrete HCl. The mucous neck cells secrete mucus and appear clear. The enteroendocrine cells have affinity for silver stains and exhibit a positive chromaffin reaction; these cells synthesize amines, polypeptides, or proteins.The cardiac region is a narrow, circular band at the transition between the esophagus and stomach, consisting of shallow gastric pits and mucous glands. It does not normally contain an abundance of chief cells.The columns of Morgagni are found in the rectum, not in the stomach. These are mucous membrane infoldings in the submucosa of the proximal anal canal. They would not contain chief cells.The greater omentum is a four-layered fold of peritoneum that hangs from the greater curvature of the stomach and attaches to the transverse colon. It would not contain chief cells. | Anatomy | null | A gastric biopsy is taken from a 42 year old man. As the pathologist inspects the specimen, he observes numerous, normal cuboidal-to-columnar cells with apical membrane-bound secretion granules in the gastric glands. From which area of the stomach was the biopsy most likely taken?
A. Cardiac region
B. Columns of Morgagni
C. Fundic region
D. Greater omentum
| Fundic region |
56d6ca5f-9345-411f-8026-a6369143d0a2 | Severe rheumatoid ahritis causes a proliferative synovitis with extensive damage to the synovium of the joint. The synol membrane becomes markedly thickened (pannus formation), with edematous villous projections that extend into the joint space. The intense inflammatory infiltrate that is present is typically composed of plasma cells, lymphocytes, and macrophages. Ref: Bednar M.S., Light T.R. (2006). Chapter 10. Hand Surgery. In H.B. Skinner (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment in Ohopedics, 4e. | Surgery | null | A 40 year old woman has severe, disabling rheumatoid ahritis. Rheumatoid factor is positive. What would a biopsy of the synovium of her knee most likely reveal?
A. A nearly normal synovium with scattered inflammatory cells
B. A non-proliferative synovitis with abscess formation
C. A non-proliferative synovitis with many neutrophils
D. A proliferative synovitis with many lymphocytes, macrophages, and plasma cells
| A proliferative synovitis with many lymphocytes, macrophages, and plasma cells |
d61a04b1-aa58-443c-a0e0-22a3a01b707e | ANSWER: (C) Superior temporal gyrusREF: Gray's anatomy 39th edition, page 415See previous question | Medicine | Aphasia | Wernicke's aphasia is seen due to lesion in?
A. Precentral gyrus
B. Inferior frontal gyrus
C. Superior temporal gyrus
D. Inferior temporal gyrus
| Superior temporal gyrus |
8873e45a-506f-4468-9f30-fa41940504b9 | Ans. (c) PneumoniaRef: Bailey 26th edition, Page 1416* Most common viral infection following kidney transplant is CMV- which presents with Interstitial pneumonia | Surgery | Transplantation | Most common disease caused by CMV in a postrenal transplant patients:
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Meningitis
C. Pneumonia
D. GI ulceration
| Pneumonia |
a550df94-cd27-4745-b699-dcf1669ed036 | 3 – 7 days Findings
Gross examination at border
Softening yellow-tan center Histopathology
(light microscopy)
Beginning of disintegration of dead muscle fibers
Necrosis of neutrophils
Beginning of macrophageremoval of dead cells at border | Unknown | null | In myocardial infarction the infarct acquires hyperemic rim with an yellow centre at
A. 3-7 days
B. 10-20 days
C. 7-14 days
D. 1-2 hours
| 3-7 days |
33118b8a-34f5-41ec-b255-6a5e5ca5de5f | A i.e. Prostratic urethra & Ejaculation duct Board Review series AnatomyMedian lobe which lies between urethra and the ejaculatory duct is prone to benign hyperophy. QPosterior lobe, which lies behind the urethra and below the ejaculatory duct contains glandular tissue and is prone to carcinomatous transformation.Q | Anatomy | null | Middle lobe of prostrate is present in between:
A. Prostratic urethra & Ejaculation duct
B. Prostratic urethra & rectum
C. Ejaculation duct & pubis
D. Pubis and rectum
| Prostratic urethra & Ejaculation duct |
46a2a14e-ddf1-471b-8554-e78d94cd338d | Ans. C. Adipocytes(Ref: Harper 29/e page 158, Harper 30/e page 192)GLUT-4 and InsulinGlucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue is controlled by insulin, which is secreted by the islet cells of the pancreas in response to an increased concentration of glucose in the portal blood.In the fasting state, the glucose transporter of muscle and adipose tissue (GLUT-4) is in intracellular vesicles.An early response to insulin is the migration of these vesicles to the cell surface, where they fuse with the plasma membrane, exposing active glucose transporters.These insulin sensitive tissues only take up glucose from the bloodstream to any significant extent in the presence of the hormone.As insulin secretion falls in the fasting state, so the receptors are internalized again, reducing glucose uptake. | Biochemistry | Carbohydrates | After overnight fasting, levels of glucose transporters reduced in:
A. Brain cells
B. RBCs
C. Adipocyte
D. Hepatocyte
| Adipocyte |
9ef92372-0343-405e-88af-c00100939074 | Ref: Harrisons, 19th ed. pg. 978* Diptheria is a nasopharyngeal and skin infection caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Toxigenic strains of C. diphtheria produce a protein toxin that causes systemic toxicity, myocarditis, and polyneuropathy.* The toxigenic strains cause pharyngeal diphtheria, while the non-toxigenic strains commonly cause cutaneous disease.* Harrisons states: "Respiratory/pharyngeal form of diphtheria is from notiable diseases, while cutaneous diphtheria is NOT"* Most severe form of diphtheria: Laryngeal | Microbiology | Bacteria | Which of the following is the most severe form of Diptheria
A. Nasal
B. Cutaneous
C. Nasopharynx
D. Laryngopharynx
| Laryngopharynx |
e1aadbbf-4d82-4ad2-9a4a-828089f845c5 | Ans. C. MetronidazoleTriple drug regimen given for H. Pylori include- clarithromycin, amoxicillin, tetracycline, metronidazole. Out of all these drugs metronidazole is drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis. | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | Drug given for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is part of anti H. Pylori treatment:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Vancomycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clotrimazole
| Metronidazole |
10faac4c-857d-4945-913d-f3337d9409d8 | Sublimation: Gratification of an impulse whose goal is retained but whose aim or object is changed from a socially objectionable one to a socially valued one. Suppression: Conscious or semiconscious decision to postpone attention to a conscious impulse or conflict. Humour:ove expression of feelings without personal discomfo and without unpleasant effo on others. Anticipation: Realistic anticipation of or planning for future inner discomfo. Ref: Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11e, pg 161. | Psychiatry | Cognitive development and defence mechanism | Postponing paying attention of conscious impulse or conflict is mature defence mechanism known as
A. Sublimation
B. Suppression
C. Humor
D. Anticipation
| Suppression |
c70f4b46-ee02-4efc-b67c-3eb4ad5efb4f | Ans: b (Basement membrane)Ref: Robbin's, 7th ed, p. 105 & 6thed, p. 100 | Pathology | Cellular Pathology | Laminin is present in:(1998)
A. Lens
B. Basement membrane
C. Liver
D. Lungs
| Basement membrane |
05d27a27-9981-451e-8645-d980ba728841 | The diagnosis of vesico ureteric reflux is made using micturition cystourethrogram. Other techniques used in diagnosing vesico ureteric reflux are simple or delayed cystography or voiding cinefluoroscopy. In a case of vesico ureteral reflux, cystogram may show one of the following findings: Persistently dilated lower ureter, areas of dilatation in the ureter, ureter visualized throughout its entire length shows, presence of hydroureteronephrosis with a narrow juxtavesical ureteral segment or changes of healed pyelonephritis. Ref: Smith's General Urology, 17e, Chapter 12 | Radiology | null | Which radiological procedure is used for studying vesico-ureteric reflux?
A. Ascending pyelogram
B. Cystogram
C. Intravenous urogram
D. Micturition cystourethrogram
| Micturition cystourethrogram |
ba19919b-4138-43a1-b69e-68cc15c49d31 | Darkfield / Dark ground microscope in which reflected light is used instead of transmitted light used in the ordinary microscope. Flagella are less than 0.02 um in thickness and hence beyond the limit of resolution of the light microscopes. They may in some instances be seen under dark field / Dark ground illumination. They can be visualized by special staining techniques in which their thickness is increased by mordanting or by electron microscopy. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition; Pg no: 11 | Microbiology | general microbiology | Dark ground microscopy is used to see?
A. Refractile organisms
B. Flagella
C. Capsule
D. Fimbriae
| Flagella |
d9f940d4-2cf7-437f-af11-a1a05e630032 | Hairy cell leukemia review : Presentation is with a triad of : Splenomegaly :often massive. However hepatomegaly is less common while lymphadenopathy is rare. Pancytopenia and thereby, resulting infections. Vasculitis like syndrome :Erythema nodosum and cutaneous nodules due to perivasculitis and PAN. Course : Hairy cell leukemia follows an indolent course. REF: ROBBINS pathology 10th edition | Pathology | All India exam | Hairy cell leukemia&; is a Neoplastic proliferation of :
A. T. cells
B. B. cells
C. Myeloid cells
D. Macrophages
| B. cells |
4ae6daba-8e00-4855-a42b-1927f1b8dbcb | Lipoid proteinosis REF: org/121/ case pre sentations/lipoid2/robati.html, http: //en .wikipedia. org/wiki/Urba chdeg70E2%80%93Wiethe_diseas e "Urbach--Wiethe disease (also known as lipoid proteinosis and hyalinosis cutis et mucosae) is a rare autosomal-recessive disorderwith fewer than 300 repoed cases since its discovery, that presents in early childhood with hoarseness, skin infiltration, and thickening, with beaded papules on eyelid margins, and facial acneiform or pock-like scars" | Ophthalmology | null | Beaded margin of eyelid is seen in?
A. Erythema granuloma annulare
B. Leprosy
C. Granuloma annulare
D. Lipoid proteinosis
| Lipoid proteinosis |
4b66b2f3-321e-4bf1-8179-0fb8e5651d53 | Leukemoid reaction. Circulating levels of leukocytes and their precursors may occasionally reach very high levels (>50,000WBC/mL). Such a situation, referred to as a leukemoid reaction, is sometimes difficult to differentiate from leukemia. In contrast to bacterial infections, viral infections (including infectious mononucleosis) are characterized by lymphocytosis, an absolute increase in the number of circulating lymphocytes. Parasitic infestations and certain allergic reactions cause eosinophilia, an increase in the number of circulating eosinophils. Leukopenia is defined as an absolute decrease in the circulating WBC count. Myloid metaplasia (choice C) and myeloproliferative disease (choice D) are chronic disorders of the hematopoietic system. Although technically correct, neutrophilia (choice E) by itself does not demonstrate immature cells (band forms) and usually refers to lower levels of increased neutrophils.Diagnosis: Pulmonary abscess | Pathology | Inflammation & Repair | A 40-year-old man presents with 5 days of productive cough and fever. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is isolated from a pulmonary abscess. The CBC shows an acute effect characterized by marked leukocytosis (50,000 WBC/mL), and the differential count reveals numerous immature cells (band forms). Which of the following terms best describes these hematologic findings?
A. Leukemoid reaction
B. Leukopenia
C. Myeloid metaplasia
D. Myeloproliferative disease
| Leukemoid reaction |
cab538a9-e414-4761-abf5-4217342c10b5 | Catalase, present in peroxisomes, catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide (2H2O2 - O2 + 2H2O). Glutathione (GSH) peroxidases are a family of enzymes whose major function is to protect cells from oxidative damage 2 GSH (glutathione) + H2O2 - GS-SG + 2 H2O. myeloperoxidase conves H2O2 to a highly reactive compound hypochlorite Superoxide dismutase conves superoxide into H2O2 ref robbins basic pathology 9th ed page 15 | Pathology | General pathology | Hydrogen peroxide is conveed to water and oxygen by enzyme?
A. Superoxide dismutase
B. Catalase
C. Glutathione peroxidase
D. Myeloperoxidase
| Catalase |
0be19b6a-f3e5-400c-b5f2-9b0f8d2d3c52 | Between these two parts of inferior constrictor exists a potential gap called Killian's dehiscence.
It is also called the gateway to tear as perforation can occur at this site during esophagoscopy.
It is also the site for herniation of pharyngeal mucosa in case of the pharyngeal pouch. | ENT | null | Killian's dehiscence is seen in -
A. Oropharynx
B. Nasopharynx
C. Cricopharynx
D. Vocal cords
| Cricopharynx |
7c88db32-7fdf-45fc-b9c3-f81928343ea1 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Myoclonic epilepsy Myoclonic epilepsy may be ? i) Infantile spasm or Infantile myoclonus or west syndrome ii) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy Infantile spasm (Infantile myoclonus or west syndrome) o The onset is usually between 3-8 months of life o It is characterized by triad of ? i) Salaam spells (sudden droping of the head & flexion of arms) ii) Mental retardation iii) Hypsarrhythmic pattern of EEG (diffuse high voltage slow spike and chaotic activity) o The spasm occur in clusters usually on waking. o Prognosis for normal mental development is poor. Treatment of infantile myoclonus o ACTH and coicosteroids are given for 2-12 weeks, depending upon resonse. o Vagabatrin is the DOC Now. | Pediatrics | null | Hypsarrythmia in a child is due to-
A. Grandmal epilepsy
B. Petitmal epilepsy
C. Myoclonic epilepsy
D. Reflex epilepsy
| Myoclonic epilepsy |
a0728f6c-8d2b-4823-9959-788773e6dd66 | According to Chemistry
Chemically, there are four kinds of elastomers:
Polysulfide
Condensation polymerizing silicones
Addition polymerizing silicones
Polyether | Dental | null | Elastomers are
A. Alginate
B. Agar
C. Polyethers
D. Impression compound
| Polyethers |
202d763e-20b8-40ce-b440-5fbc875c8df6 | COTTON FEVER : Fever developing due to injection of a water extract of the cotton remaining after the heroin supply is used in a "bag" | Forensic Medicine | Drug Abuse | Cotton fever is due to the abuse of:
A. Amphetamine
B. Heroin
C. Phencylidine
D. Cocaine
| Heroin |
3291e548-1e25-4fd4-9ae5-4405781ba419 | MALIGNANT TUMOURS Basal-cell carcinoma It is the commonest malignant tumour of the lids (90%) usually seen in elderly people. It is locally malignant and involves most commonly lower lid (50%) followed by medial canthus (25%), upper lid (10-15%) and outer canthus (5-10%). Clinical features: It may present in four forms: Noduloulcerative basal cell carcinoma is the most common presentation. It stas as a small nodule which undergoes central ulceration with pearly rolled margins. The tumour grows by burrowing and destroying the tissues locally like a rodent and hence the name rodent ulcer. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-360 | Ophthalmology | Tumors | The commonest malignant tumour of the lids is
A. Basal-cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Melanocarcinoma
| Basal-cell carcinoma |
09961acd-c3fa-44e2-9e40-fa13b40dae37 | Two important points in the radiotherapy of cancer cervix are | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Point B in the treatment of carcinoma cervix receives the following dose of:
A. 7000 cGy
B. 6000 cGy
C. 5000 cGy
D. 10,000 cGy
| 6000 cGy |
2f7e3f25-db30-4e3a-adf6-526642bfcf93 | Ans. D. AnaerobesOf the organisms listed, only anaerobic infection is likely to cause a necrotizing process Type III pneumococci have been reported to cause cavitary disease, but this is unusual. The location of the infiltrate suggests aspiration, also making anaerobic infection most likely. The superior segment of the right lower lobe is the one most likely to develop an aspiration pneumonia. | Medicine | Respiratory | A 40-year old alcoholic develops cough and fever. Chest X-ray show an air-fluid level in the superior segment of the right lower lobe. The most likely etiologic agent is:
A. Strept. pneumoniae
B. H influenzae
C. Legionella
D. Anaerobes
| Anaerobes |
dd42a7b8-a020-4c0d-bf74-17392546c167 | D i.e. Atropine Amanita muscaria & Amanita phalloides are poisonous mushrooms with parasympathetic (Cholinergic) symptoms. So AtropineQ is used as antidote in severe cases; but avoided in mild case as it excerhates delirium. | Forensic Medicine | null | The antidote of poisoning due to Arninanita muscaria is
A. Physostigmine
B. Amyl nitrate
C. Methylene blue
D. Atropine
| Atropine |
1a05c417-521e-4555-a3b3-d530796ff92f | The suspensory ligament attaches the ovary to the pelvic wall and carries within its folds the main poion of the ovarian vessels and nerves. The ovarian ligament attaches the inferior pole of the ovary to the uterus. The broad ligament is a double-fold of parietal peritoneum, which hangs over the uterus (mesentery of the uterus) and connects lateral margins of the uterus with the side wall of the pelvis. The mesovarium, the posterior extension of the broad ligament, suppos the ovary and becomes continuous with the serosa (or germinal epithelium) of the ovary. The mesosalpinx, which is the superior limit of the broad ligament, suppos the uterine tube. Some branches of the ovarian vessels lie within the mesosalpinx. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 2. Maternal Anatomy. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The main poion of the ovarian aery, vein, and nerves are carried to and from the ovary by way of the:
A. Suspensory ligament
B. Ovarian ligament
C. Broad ligament
D. Mesovarium
| Suspensory ligament |
70cd8e61-97f0-490f-989a-2bc4e93fad26 | ref Robbins 8/e p45,9/ep74 Several mechanisms may contribute to increased vascu- lar permeability in acute inflammatory reactions: * Endothelial cell contraction leading to intercellular gaps in postcapillary venules is the most common cause of increased vascular permeability. Endothelial cell con- traction occurs rapidly after binding of histamine, bra- dykinin, leukotrienes, and many other mediators to specific receptors, and is usually sho-lived (15 to 30 minutes). A slower and more prolonged retraction of endothelial cells, resulting from changes in the cytoskel- eton, may be induced by cytokines such as tumor necro- sis factor (TNF) and interleukin-1 (IL-1). This reaction may take 4 to 6 hours to develop after the initial trigger and persist for 24 hours or more. * Endothelial injury results in vascular leakage by causing endothelial cell necrosis and detachment. Endothelial cells are damaged after severe injury such as with burns and some infections. In most cases, leakage begins immediately after the injury and persists for several hours (or days) until the damaged vessels are throm- bosed or repaired. Venules, capillaries, and aerioles can all be affected, depending on the site of the injury. Direct injury to endothelial cells may also induce a delayed prolonged leakage that begins after a delay of 2 to 12 hours, lasts for several hours or even days, and involves venules and capillaries. Examples are mild to moderate thermal injury, ceain bacterial toxins, and x- or ultraviolet irradiation (i.e., the sunburn that has spoiled many an evening after a day in the sun). Endo- thelial cells may also be damaged as a consequence of leukocyte accumulation along the vessel wall. Activated leukocytes release many toxic mediators, discussed later, that may cause endothelial injury or detachment. | Anatomy | General anatomy | In acute inflammation endothelial retraction leads to
A. Delayed transient increase in permeability
B. Immediate transient increase in permeability
C. Delayed prolonged increase in permeability
D. Immediate transient decrease in permeability
| Delayed prolonged increase in permeability |
5ee69c94-23d1-4c09-95cb-cd003d6c1915 | Ans: A (Mycoses fungoides) Ref: Rook's Dermatology, 8th ed.Explanation:Mycosis Fungoides/Sezary SyndromeMycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome are different manifestations of a tumor of CD4+ helper T cellsClinically, the cutaneous lesions of mycosis fungoides typically progress through three somewhat distinct stages, an inflammatory premycotic phase, a plaque phase, and a tumor phaseHistologically, the epidermis and upper dermis are infiltrated by neoplastic T cells, which often have a cerebriform appearance due to marked infolding of the nuclear membrane.Sezary syndrome is a variant in which skin involvement is manifested as a generalized exfoliative erythroderma.In contrast to mycosis fungoides, the skin lesions rarely proceed to tumefaction, and there is an associated leukemia of "Sezary" cells with characteristic cerebriform nuclei.The tumor cells express the adhesion molecule CLA and the chemokine receptors CCR4 and CCR10Transformation to aggressive T-cell lymphoma occurs occasionally as a terminal event.FUNGAL INFECTIONSNatural defence against fungiFatty acid content of the skinpH of the skin, mucosal surfaces and body fluidsEpidermal turnoverNormal floraPredisposing factorsTropical climate, Manual labour populationLow socioeconomic status. Profuse sweatingFriction with clothes, synthetic innerwearMalnourishment, Immunosuppressed patientsHIV, Congenital Immunodeficiencies, patients on corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs. DiabetesFungal Infections: ClassificationSuperficial cutaneous:Surface infections eg. P.versicolor, Dermato- phytosis. Candidiasis, T.nigra, PiedraSubcutaneous:Mycetoma, Chromoblastomycosis, SporotrichosisSystemic (opportunistic infection)Histoplasmosis, CandidiasisOf these categories, Demiatophvtosis, P.versicolor, Candidiasis are common in daily practicePityriasis versicolorEtiologic agent: Malassezia furfurClinical Features:Multiple, discrete, discoloured, macules.Fawn, brown, grey or hypopigmentedPinhead sized to large sheets of discolourationSeborrheic areas, upper half of body: trunk, arms, neck, abdomen.Scratch sign positiveWood's Lamp examination: Yellow fluoro-scenceKOH preparation: Spaghetti and meatball appearanceCoarse mycelium, fragmented to short filaments 2-5 micron wide and up to 2-5 micron long, together with spherical, thick-walled yeasts 2-8 micron in diameter, arranged in grape like fashion.TreatmentTopical:Ketoconazole. Clotrimazole. Miconazole, Bifonazole, Oxiconazole, Butenafine.Terbinafine. Selenium sulfide. Sodium thiosulphateOral:Fluconamg 4(X)mg single doseKetoconazole 2(X)mg OD x I4daysGriseofulvin is NOT effective.Hypopigmentation will take weeks to fadeScaling will disappear soonPityrosporum folliculitisEtiology: Malassezia furfurAge group: Teenagers or young adult malesClinical features: Itchy papules and pustules, scattered on the shoulders and back.Treatment: Oral Itraconazole, Ketaconazole, Fluconazole or topical Ketoconazole shampoo.Tinea nigra palmarisEtiology: Exophiala werneckiiClinical features: Asymptomatic superficial infection of palms; deeply pigmented, brown or black macular, non-scaly patches, resembling a silver nitrate stain.Treatment: Topical Econazole. Ketoconazole. Benzoic acid compound, Thiabendazole 2% in 90% DMSO or 10% Thiabendazole suspension.Black piedraEtiology: Piedraia hortaeClinical features: Hard, dark, multiple superficial nodules: firmly adherent black, gritty, hard nodules on hairs of scalp, beard, moustache or pubic area, hair may fracture easily.Treatment:Shaving or cutting the hair.Terbinafine, Benzoic acid compound ointment, 1:2000 solution of mercury perchlorideWhite piedraEtiology: Trichosporon beigeliiClinical features:Soft, white, grey or brown superficial nodules on hairs of the beard, moustache, pubic areas. Hair shaft weakened and breaks.Treatment: Shaving or cutting the hair. Responses to topical antifungals, azoles and allvamines have been reported but are unpredictable.DermatophytosisMycology:Three genera:Microsporum, Trichophyton, EpidermophytonThrive on dead, keratinized tissue - within the stratum comeum of the epidermis, within and around the fully keratinized hair shaft, and in the nail plate and keratinized nail bed.Tinea capitisEndothrix and EctothrixMost common - trichophyton violaceumVarieties:Non inflammatoryGray patchBlack dotSeborrheic dermatitisInflammatoryFavusKerion. agminate folliculitisNon inflammatory Tinea capitis:Black dot/Grey patchBreakage of hair gives rise to 'black dots*Patchy alopecia, often circular, numerous broken-off hairs, dull greyWood's lamp examination: green fluorescence (occasional non-flu ore scent cases)Tinea capitis: Kerion, agminate folliculitisInflammatory varietyMicrosporum,Trichophyton verrucosum. Trichophyton mentagrophytesPainful, inflammatory boggy swelling with purulent discharge.Hairs may be matted, easily pluckableLymphadenopathyCo-infection with bacteria is commonMay heal with scarring alopeciaTinea capitis: FavusInflammatory varietyKashmirTrichophyton schonleiniiYellowish, cup-shaped crusts develop around a hair with the hair projecting centrally.Extensive patchy hair loss with cicatricial alopeciaTinea facieiErythematous scaly patches on the faceAnnular or circinate lesions and indurationItching, burning and exacerbation after sun exposureSeen often in immunocompromised adultsTinea barbaeRingworm of the beard and moustache areasInvasion of coarse hairsDisease of the adult maleHighly inflammatory, pustular folliculitisHairs of the beard or moustache are surrounded by inflammatory' papulopustules, usually with oozing or crusting, easily pluckablePersist several monthsTinea corporisLesions of the trunk and limbs, excluding ringworm of the specialized sites such as the scalp, feet and groins etc.The fungus enters the stratum corneum and spreads centrifugally. Central clearing results once the fungi are eliminated.A second wave of centrifugal spread from the original site may occur with the formation of concentric erythematous inflammatory rings.Classical lesion:Annular patch or plaque with erythematous papulovesicles and scaling at the periphery with central clearing resembling the effects of ring worm.Polycyclic appearance in advanced infection due to incomplete fusion of multiple lesionsSites: waist, under breasts, abdomen, thighs etc.Tinea crurisItchingErythematous plaques, curved with well demarcated margins extending from the groin down the thighs.Scaling is variable, and occasionally may mask the inflammatory changes.Vesiculation is rareTinea mannumTwo varieties:Non inflammatory: Dry, scaly, mildly itchyInflammatory: Vesicular, itchy Tinea pedisWearing of shoes and the resultant macerationAdult males commonest, children rarelyPeeling, maceration and fissuring affecting the lateral toe clefts, and sometimes spreading to involve the undersurface of the toes.Varieties:Interdigital typePapulosquammous ('moccasin foot')Vesiculo-bullousTinea UnguiumDirty, dull, dry, pitted, ridged, split, discoloured, thick, uneven, nails with subungual hyperkeratosis Different types described depending on the site of nail involvement and its depth.Distal and lateral onychomycosesProximal subungual onychomycosesWhite superficial onychomycosesTotal dystrophic onychomycosesTreatment: RingwormTopical: Bifonazole. Ketoconazole Oxiconazole, Clotrimazole, Miconazole, Butenafine, Terbinafine.Vehicle: Lotions, creams, powders, gels are available.CANDIDIASISCausative organism:Candida albicans, Candida tropicalis, Candida pseudotropicalisSites of affection:Mucous membraneSkinNailsCandidiasis : MucosalOral thrush:Creamy, curd-like, white pseudomembrane, on ery thematous baseSites:Immunocompetent patient: cheeks, gums or the palate.Immunocompromised patients: affection of tongue with extension to pharynx or oesophagus; ulcerative lesions may occur.Angular cheilitis (angular stomatitis / perleche): Soreness at the angles of the mouthVulvovaginitis (vulvovaginal thrush): Itching and soreness with a thick, creamy white dischargeBalanoposthitis:Tiny papules on the glans penis after intercourse, evolve as white pustules or vesicles and rupture.Radial fissures on glans penis in diabetics. Vulvovaginitis in conjugal partnerCandidiasis - FlexuralIntertrigo: (Flexural candidiasis)Erythema and maceration in the folds; axilla, groins and webspaces.Napkin rash:Pustules, with an irregular border and satellite lesionsCandidiasis: FlailChronic Paronychia:Swelling of the nail fold with pain and discharge of pus.Chronic, recurrent.Superadded bacteria! infectionOnychomycosis:Destruction of nail plate.Treatment of candidiasisTreat predisposing factors like poor hygiene, diabetes, AIDS, conjugal infectionTopical:Clotrimazole, Miconazole, Ketoconazole. Ciclopirox olamineOral:Ketoconazole 200mg, Itraconazole 100-200mg and Fluconazole 150mg | Skin | Cutaneous Manifestations of Microvascular Occlusion Syndromes | Not a fungal infection is:
A. Mycoses fungoides
B. Tinea nigra Palmaris
C. White Piedra
D. Black Piedra
| Mycoses fungoides |
cc7536ef-7adc-4b0f-8e6f-80d224434292 | Cystic medial degeneration . Smooth muscle loss . Fibrosis . Inadequate ECM synthesis . Accumulation of increasing amounts of amorphous proteoglycans Robbins 9 th edition page no. 345 | Pathology | Cardiovascular system | A patient having cystic medial necrosis with necrotising aeritis is suffering from?
A. Kawasaki disease
B. Temporal aeritis
C. Malignant hypeension
D. Aooaeritis
| Aooaeritis |
20a427f7-68e2-40d6-b47c-71638d46f617 | Acquired factor VIII deficiency Muscle and soft tissue bleeds are common. Bleeding into a joint results in severe pain and swelling, as well as loss of function, but is rarely associated with discoloration from bruising around the joint. Life-threatening sites of bleeding include bleeding into the oropharynx, where bleeding can obstruct the airway, into the central nervous system, and into the retroperitoneum. Mixing studies -used to evaluate a prolonged aPTT or PT. -to distinguish between a factor deficiency and an inhibitor. In this assay, normal plasma and patient plasma are mixed in a 1:1 ratio, and the aPTT or PT is determined immediately and after incubation at 37degC for varying times, typically 30, 60, and/or 120 min. -With isolated factor deficiencies, the aPTT will correct with mixing and stay corrected with incubation. With aPTT prolongation due to a lupus anticoagulant, the mixing and incubation will show no correction. -In acquired neutralizing factor antibodies, the initial assay may or may not correct immediately after mixing but will prolong with incubation at 37degC. | Pathology | Clotting factor | A 27 year old female having a family history of autoimmune disease presents with the complaints of a skin rash and recurrent joint pains 3 months after delivering a baby. She is most likely to have which of the following disorders?
A. Megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
B. Amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
C. Functional platelet defect
D. Acquired Factor VIII inhibitors
| Acquired Factor VIII inhibitors |
6e0e399d-5e3d-4f98-9740-4bc8c330e280 | D i.e. Age related Radiation cataract is caused by exposure to almost all types of radiation energy such as infrared or heat (in glass-blowers or glass-workers, and iron-workers), irradiation caused by X-rays, gamma-rays or neutrons (in workers in atomic energy plant, survivors of atomic bomb and in patients inadequately protected during treatment for malignant conditions near eye) and sunlight (especially the ultraviolet A and UV-B components). Microwave radiation has shown to cause cataract in animals. But MRI has no radiation exposure. - Cataract may be caused by chloroquine, coicosteroids, copper metabolism error (Wilson's disease), Calcium decrease (hypocalcemia or hypoparathyroidism or parathyroid tetany), galactosemia, hypo glycemia and diabetes mellitusQ. (Mn- CG=Cataract G) Cataract is the most common cause of blindness in India Q. Senile cataract or age related cataract is the commonest type of acquired cataract Q affecting equally persons of either sex usually above the age of 50 years. Overall incidence of acquired cataract is more than congenital. | Ophthalmology | null | Commonest cause of cataract
A. Hereditary
B. DM
C. Trauma
D. Age related
| Age related |
98a9b606-7f47-470a-a6b1-a59baa8622ac | Ans. a (Ileocolic) (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/pg. 114).ACUTE INTUSSUSCEPTION# Telescoping/invagination of one portion of the gut within an immediately adjacent segment; invariably it is the proximal into distal bowel. An intussusception is composed of three parts: the entering or inner tube; the returning or middle tube; and the sheath or outer tube (intussuscipiens).# most common in children, where it occurs in an idiopathic form with a peak incidence at 3-9 months.# Seventy to 95% of cases are classed as idiopathic. It is believed that hyperplasia of Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum may be the initiating event. This is due to weaning/viral infection.# Ileocolic type is otherwise most common and the colocolic variety is common in adults.# C/F: Intermittent sudden spasmodic abdominal pain, the 'red currant' jelly stool, palpable lump, feeling of emptiness in the right iliac fossa (the sign of Dance) and Empty RIF sign.# Ultrasonography is preferred over Barium enema today.# Ultrasound shows the mass with pseudokidney apperance or a target lesion or a bowel mass-like'doughnut sign.# A barium enema may diagnose by demonstrating signs like the claw sign and the coiled spring appearance.# Hydrostatic reduction is contraindicated in the presence of obstruction, peritonism or a prolonged history (greater than 48 hours) and is unlikely to succeed where a lead point is likely. It is successful in 50% of cases with a recurrence rate 5%.# Surgery is required where hydrostatic reduction has failed or is contraindicated. Reduction is achieved by squeezing the most distal part of the mass in a cephalad direction. Do not pull. In difficult cases the little finger may he gently inserted into the neck of the intussusception to try and separate adhesions (Cope's method).# In the presence of an irreducible or gangrenous intussusception the mass should be excised in situ and an anastomosis or temporary end stoma created. | Surgery | Small & Large Intestine | The most common type of intussusception?
A. Ileocolic
B. Colocolic
C. Ileoileal
D. Retrograde
| Ileocolic |
995ce7c7-5fa1-4397-af58-d8561d45e7ed | Answer- A. TwoHoldswoh,s proposed two column concept of thoracolumbar spine fractureAntetior column : Consists veebral body, annulus fibrous, Anterior and posterior longitudinal ligamentsposterior column: Consists of veebral arch (pedicle, facets, laminae) and posterior ligaments (ligamentum flavum,interspinous and supraspinus ligament) | Surgery | null | Holdswoh classification of thoracolumbar spine fracture is based on how many columns of spine?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Four
| Two |
32c401bd-69c1-4840-99af-b0f4bef76ee4 | The Clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia are mostly due to neuromuscular irritability.
The patients complains of paresthesias which are typically perioral or of the hands and feets
Tetany is the classic manifestation of hypocalcemia, the manifestations are :
Corpopedal Spasm o Laryngospasm o Seizures Latent tetany occurs which can be manifested by
Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign Electrocardiographic manifestations The classic E.C.G.
change with hypocalcemia is prolonged corrected QT interval Other possible E. C. G.
findings are o Prolonged ST interval o Peaked T waves o Arryhtmmias Heart block (hypocalcemia may impair cardiac contractility and decrease blood pressure) GI.
T manifestations o Intestinal cramps and malabsorption NOTE: Corpopedal spasm: o Contraction the muscels of the hand and feet.
The wrists are flexed and fingers extended, with the thumbs adducted over the palms. Chvostek sign:
Tapping the facial nerve anterior to the external auditory meatus elicits a twitch of the upper lip or entire mouth.
This is not a very specific sign because it is positive in about 10% of patients without hypocalcemia. Trousseau sign:
A blood pressure cuff is inflated slightly above the systotic blood pressure for more than 3 minutes.
Corpopedal spasm occurs if hypocalcemia is present as a result of the ischemia of motor nerves. | Medicine | null | Chvostek’s sign is elicited by
A. BP cuff in arm for 5 minutes
B. Facial nerve stimulation by tapping over the parotid
C. Tapping over extensor pollicis brevis
D. Tapping over flexor retinaculum
| Facial nerve stimulation by tapping over the parotid |
da95e43a-b779-4d66-bada-9edf88ad9aa9 | • Locally invasive carcinoma, arises from the basal layer of the epidermis
• MC type of skin cancer
• 90% of BCC are seen in the face, above a line from the corner of mouth to lobule of ear.
• MC site: Nose >Inner canthus of the eye, also known as Tear cancer.
Types of BCC
• Nodular: MC type of BCC, characterized by small slow growing pearly nodules, often with telengiectatic vessels on its surface.
Central depression with umbilication is a classic sign.
• Pigmented: Mimic malignant melanoma
• Cystic
• Superficial | Surgery | null | The commonest clinical pattern of basal cell carcinoma is -
A. Nodular
B. Morpheaform
C. Superficial
D. Keratotic
| Nodular |
9fa5976f-240c-4a6c-9d73-d14cc43a568a | It is rapid slide haemagglutination test for detection of rheumatoid factor. | Microbiology | null | Rose-waaler test is
A. Precipitation test
B. Passive agglutination test
C. Neutralisation test
D. Complement fixation test
| Passive agglutination test |
7567d44d-bd7e-41bb-9ca2-2b829a708499 | Treatment for Intermediate uveitis : Intravitreal or Posterior Subtenon's Steroid injections : Triamcinolone acetonide Steroids may also be given by subconjuntival route or by Subtenon's route | Ophthalmology | Uveitis | Drug of choice for treatment of intermediate uveitis is
A. Cycloplegics
B. Analgesics
C. Steroids
D. Antibiotics
| Steroids |
4aa1e149-e761-4715-9c8a-5a35e526dc94 | Answer A. Intrathoracic localized obstructionAn intrathoracic localized obstruction is demonstrated on spirography. The patient underwent flexible fiberoptic bronchoscopy, which revealed nearly complete (greater than 90%) occlusion of the distal trachea by a vascular mass. The patient recovered after endoscopic laser ablation of the mass. | Medicine | Respiratory | What diagnosis is suggested by these spirography findings?
A. Intrathoracic localized obstruction
B. Fixed inspiratory obstruction
C. Pneumothorax
D. Restrictive lung disease
| Intrathoracic localized obstruction |
b55306cf-4ae2-4f8b-a1ee-b597615514d8 | Ans. B: Candida Yeast like fungi grow paly as yeast and paly as elongated cells resembling hyphae.The latter form a pseudomycelium. Candida albicans is a pathogenic yeast-like fungus. | Microbiology | null | Which is a yeast like fungi: September 2007
A. Cryptococcus
B. Candida
C. Blastomyces
D. Histoplasma
| Candida |
811346e2-3002-4b26-ade9-b659f52e623c | Paracoccidioides brasiliensis causes paracoccidioidomycosis. It is a dimorphic fungus that exists as a mold in soil and as a yeast in tissue. The yeast is thickwalled with multiple buds ("ship's wheel" appearance), in contrast to Blastomyces dermatitides, which has a yeast with a single bud that has a broad base. Histoplasma capsulatum occurs as an oval budding yeast inside macrophages, whereas Coccidioides is a spherule in tissue, with many endospores within the spherule. Sporothrix, a dimorphic fungus from vegetation, is introduced into the skin and forms a local pustule or ulcer with nodules; round or cigar-shaped budding yeasts are seen in tissue specimens. | Unknown | null | Observation of yeast cells with multiple budding in tissue in the form of a “the shape shown in below pictomyograph ” is highly suggestive of
A. Blastomycosis
B. Cccidiodomycosis
C. Paracoccidiodomycosis
D. Histoplasmosis
| Paracoccidiodomycosis |
94b50a87-26ea-4bce-8ec0-088e46c13a4d | Positive reinforcement of promoting desirable behaviours through rewards is the most significant component of the program used to deal with ODD. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | Which of the following is the most significant component of a behavioral program developed to help a mother deal with a child having oppositional defiant disorder?
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Punishment
C. School suspension
D. Strict parenting
| Positive reinforcement |
f20b01a9-bab5-4b41-b7d4-da0af2cac1b2 | The child in the question stem is showing features of Lesch nyhan syndrome caused by deficiency of HGPase. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase is an enzyme responsible for the formation of hypoxanthine to inosoic acid and guanine to guanylic acid. This enzyme deficiency can present in a complete form only in boys and is transmitted through sex linked mode of inheritance. Leschnyhan syndrome is a severe form of this enzyme deficiency resulting in mental retardation, compulsive mutilating behavior and choreoathetosis. In addition to the above, patients exhibit hyperuricemia and hyperuricosuria as well as signs of gouty ahritis and uric acid stone disease. Treatment consist of dietary reduction of purines, increased fluid uptake, alkalinization of urine to pH 6.6 with potassium citrate. Ref: Clinical Pediatric Urology By A. Barry Belman, Page 1231;Inherited Metabolic Diseases: A Guide to 100 Conditions By Steve Hannigan, Page 85; Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapters 359, 361 | Biochemistry | null | A 10 year old child with aggressive, self mutilating behavior and poor concentration is brought with presenting complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Child's presentation is most likely due to the deficiency of which enzyme?
A. HGPase
B. Adenosine Deaminase
C. APase
D. Acid Maltase
| HGPase |
371ac31c-1a40-4504-9606-186ebb9e2820 | The combination of red blood coating the stools and a change in bowel habit and stool caliber spells out cancer of the rectum in someone in this age group. Anal fissure is typically seen in young women who have very painful bowel movements with streaks of blood. Pain is the dominant symptom in this condition. Cancer of the cecum leads to anemia and occult blood in the stools, but the blood is rarely seen. If it is, the entire stool is bloody. Fuhermore, there is no change in bowel habit or stool caliber when the tumor is so proximal in the colon. External hemorrhoids hu and itch, but they rarely bleed. Ref: Chang G.J., Shelton A.A., Welton M.L. (2010). Chapter 30. Large Intestine. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | Surgery | null | A 56 year old man has been having bloody bowel movements on and off for the past several weeks. He repos that the blood is bright red, it coats the outside of the stools, and he can see it in the toilet bowl even before he wipes himself. When he does so, there is also blood on the toilet paper. After fuher questioning, it is asceained that he has been constipated for the past 2 months and that the caliber of the stools has changed. They are now pencil thin, rather the usual diameter of an inch or so that was customary for him. He has no pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anal fissure
B. Cancer of the cecum
C. Cancer of the rectum
D. External hemorrhoids
| Cancer of the rectum |
256c20ed-28b5-49fb-bab2-f18541d823b9 | Direct firm pressure applied over the bleeding area or the involved aery at a site that is proximal to the wound is the best way to control external hemorrhage. A firm pressure dressing is applied and the injured pa is elevated to stop venous and capillary bleeding if possible. If the injured area is an extremity it should be immobilized first. A tourniquet is applied to an extremity only as a last reso when the external hemorrhage cannot be controlled in any other way and immediate surgery is not feasible. The tourniquet should be applied proximal to the wound and tied tightly enough to control aerial blood flow. Ref: Brunner and Suddah's Textbook of Medical-Surgical, Volume I, Page 2162 | Surgery | null | What is the best procedure to control external hemorrhage in an event of accidental injury?
A. Elevation
B. Direct pressure
C. Proximal tourniquet
D. Aery forceps
| Direct pressure |
6f92701a-991d-4d3e-b0e1-a2a48d58561a | Age Min TSB to sta phototherapy 24hrs > 10mg 1dL 48hrs >13mg 1dL 72hrs >15mg1dL 96hrs and beyond >18mg1dL Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | All India exam | 5day baby full term breast fed with bilirubin 14mg Idl weight is 2700g what should be done next ?
A. Normal newborn care
B. Phototherapy
C. Exchange transfusion
D. stop breastfeeding
| Normal newborn care |
7f12afe4-5e5b-4860-821c-7bfe352f1b82 | TRH stimulates the secretion of prolactin as well as TSH,
Normally it does not affect growth hormone secretion but in acromegaly TRH induced growth hormonal stimulation Occurs.
Note:
"In prolactinomas paradoxical response of TRH to prolactin occurs".
In normal individuals,
TRH stimulates prolactin release
Where as in prolactinomas
There is little or no rise in prolactin in response to TRH. | Medicine | null | The paradoxical response of GH release to TRH is seen in -
A. Prolactinoma
B. Acromegaly
C. Malnutrition
D. Pitutary adenoma
| Acromegaly |
402b0151-25ba-4a21-b37d-aa0a617eefc4 | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 171)Intravitreal injection (distance from Limbus)For aphakics-3mmFor pseudophakes-3.5mmFor phakics-4mm | Ophthalmology | Vitreous and retina | How many mm from the limbus is the safest site of intravitreal injection?
A. 1-2 mm
B. 2-3 mm
C. 3-4 mm
D. 4-5 mm
| 3-4 mm |
c328b3cf-abec-4fca-8b6d-ee1efb422f0f | FAD The key enzymatic step of fatty acid syn thesis is the carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to form malonyl-CoA. The carboxyl of biotin is covalently attached to an E-amino acid group of a lysine residue of acetyl-CoA carboxylase. The reaction occurs in two stages. In the first step, a carboxybiotin is formed: HCO3- + biotin-enzyme + ATP CO2 - biotin-enzyme+ ADP + Pi In the second step, the CO2 is transferred to acetyl CoA to produce malonyl CoA: CO2-biotin-enzyme + acetyl CoA malonyl CoA+ biotin-enzyme None of the other cofactors listed are involved in this reaction. | Surgery | null | Which one of the following cofactors must be utilized during the conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyel-CoA?
A. Thiamine pyrophosphate
B. Acyl carrier protein (ACP)
C. Biotin
D. FAD
| FAD |
df7c4ca4-713e-406b-9d1f-d815f807ecb4 | kuru,scrapie,&CJD Are caused by slow virus REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.557 | Microbiology | Virology | Which of the following is not consider to be a slow viruse diseases -
A. Kuru
B. Scrapie
C. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
D. Sarcoidosis
| Sarcoidosis |
097951d4-f171-453c-9c7e-c054e07ddbc1 | Sleep walking (somnambulism) is seen in stage 3 & 4 of NREM sleep. | Psychiatry | null | Sleepwalking occur in which stage of sleep -
A. REM
B. NREM stage
C. NREM stage 3 or 4
D. Can occur in any stage of NREM sleep
| NREM stage 3 or 4 |
49d94986-c502-4c57-aa8e-5602085c54d0 | B i.e. Ventimask Ventimask or venturimasks are high flow or fixed performance (performance not affected by changes in patient's tidal volume and respiratory rate) oxygen delivery devicesQ delivering accurate oxygen concentration | Anaesthesia | null | Which one of the following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy:
A. Nasal Cannula
B. Venturi mask
C. O2 by T-piece
D. SO2
| Venturi mask |
0a977f95-6357-4e8b-9f6f-3001e5b705d7 | Nerve supply General sensory nerves derived from the branches of trigeminal nerve are distributed to whole of the lateral wall: Anterosuperior quadrant is supplied by the anterior ethmoidal nerve branch of ophthalmic nerve. Anteroinferior quadrant is suplied by the anterior superior alveolar nerve branch of infraorbital continuation of maxillary nerve. Posterosuperior quadrant is supplied by the lateral posterior superior nasal branches from the pterygopalatine ganglion. Posteroinferior quadrant is supplied by the anterior palatine branch from the pterygopalatine ganglion REF.BDC VOL.3,FIFTH EDITION | Anatomy | Head and neck | Nerve supply of tip of nose
A. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of
B. Inferior orbital nerve
C. Buccal br of mandibular nerve
D. Orbital of maxillary n
| Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of |
6d74cea1-1536-4127-b0a0-89e46e0e9f6e | The insulinoma might be localized by noninvasive means, using ultrasound, CT scan, or MRI techniques. An indium-111 pentetreotide scan is more sensitive than ultrasound, CT, or MRI for detection of somatostatin receptor positive tumors, but not a good diagnostic tool for insulinomas. An endoscopic ultrasound has a sensitivity of 40-93% (depending on the location of the tumor) for detecting insulinomas. Sometimes, angiography with percutaneous transhepatic pancreatic vein catheterization to sample the blood for insulin levels is required. Calcium can be injected into selected aeries to stimulate insulin release from various pas of the pancreas, which can be measured by sampling blood from their respective veins. The use of calcium stimulation improves the specificity of this test. During surgery to remove an insulinoma, an intraoperative ultrasound can sometimes localize the tumor, which helps guide the surgeon in the operation and has a higher sensitivity than noninvasive imaging tests. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg840 | Medicine | G.I.T | Localization in insulinoma is best with -
A. Contrast computerized tomography
B. Margnetic resonance imaging
C. Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy
D. Selective angiography
| Selective angiography |
f6fc2cdc-f9bc-475f-ab6b-06ed3a54f8c1 | -External hemorrhoids --> present below pectinate line , painful bleeding is present --> pain carried by Inferior Rectal Nerve (branch of pudendal nerve). -Internal haemorrhoids --> present above pectinate line --> painless bleeding is its feature. | Anatomy | Development of GU system and Neuro-vascular supply of pelvis & perineum | The nerve mediating pain of External hemorrhoids is:
A. Hypogastric nerve
B. Inferior rectal nerve
C. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
D. Sympathetic plexus
| Inferior rectal nerve |
f17ffc1c-1ad4-438a-8724-0bb55b7195d7 | Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelination in the CNS. In the PNS, Schwann cells form the myelin sheath. The process of myelination begins before bih and is not complete until a year or more after bih. (Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of neuroanatomy, second edition, pg- 19) | Anatomy | Brain | Myelin sheath in the central nervous system is formed by
A. Schwann cell
B. Microglia
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Protoplasmic astrocytes
| Oligodendrocytes |
e88e60fe-09bf-4f33-8b38-3f6c0982ba42 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., PAS Adverse effects of para-amino salicylic acid (PAS) --> Anorexia, nausea, epigastric pain, rashes, goiter (hypothyroidism), fever, malaise, liver dysfunction, and blood dyscrasias. Adverse effects of ethionamide :Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, hepatitis, optic or peripheral neuritis, metal disturbances and blood dyscrasias. | Pharmacology | null | Hypothyroidism is caused by which of the following anti-tubercular drug -
A. PAS
B. Ethionamide
C. Cycloserine
D. Pyrazinamide
| PAS |
8f33fa27-fc5d-40c7-a7cd-5aaeb247ad89 | Delta bilirubin or biliprotein is the fraction of conjugated bilirubin that is covalently bound to albumin. This is responsible for the lab finding of persistent hyperbilirubinemia even after the disappearance of jaundice in cases of obstructive jaundice. -Chromatographic fractionation of serum bilirubin: a bilirubin unconjugated bilirubin b bilirubin bilirubin monoglucuronide g bilirubin bilirubin diglucuronide d bilirubin albumin bound conjugated bilirubin | Biochemistry | HAEM synth and porphyrias | Delta bilirubin is ______ bilirubin _____ bound to albumin.
A. Conjugated, covalently
B. Unconjugated, non-covalently
C. Conjugated, noncovalently
D. Unconjugated, covalently
| Conjugated, covalently |
fb8cc7bf-df8e-4d84-8ed6-3b7918c8c751 | It is the prevention of the emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Prevention of emergence of risk factor is -
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
| Primordial prevention |
48ee40bb-0929-4af3-aaaa-53b1d688fe7e | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aoa to Pulmonary Aery Blalock Taussig shunt consists of subclan aery (br. of aoa) and pulmonary aery anastamosis. This inturn actually establishes a shunt between the aoa (Via the subclan aery) and the pulmonary aery. Management of T.O.F. Medical Management Limited to management of complications and correction of anemia. Surgical Management o Consists of anastomosing a systemic aery with pulmonary aery to increase the pulmonary blood flow. These shunts are : Blalock - Taussig shunt Subclan aery - Pulmonary Aery anastomosis. Pott's shunt Descending Aoa to Pulmonary Aery Waterston's shunt Ascending Aoa to right pulmonary Aery | Pediatrics | null | Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between -
A. Aoa to pulmonary aery
B. Aoa to pulmonary vein
C. Subclan aery to pulmonary vein
D. Subclan vein to aery
| Aoa to pulmonary aery |
29aaa99a-67f9-4f0b-ba26-e99403633ff9 | Accessory meningeal artery is a branch of 1st part of Maxillary artery.
It enters the cranium by passing through foramen ovale.
It supplies meninges and infratemporal fossa. | Anatomy | null | Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through:
A. Foramen lacerum
B. Foramen rotundum
C. Foramen spinosum
D. Foramen ovale
| Foramen ovale |
8e2418de-2bd0-4503-af33-09d70f425dbb | Serum has essentially the same composition as plasma, except that its fibrinogen and clotting factors II, V, and VIII (Table 32-5). (Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology 23rd Edition page no.530) | Physiology | General physiology | Serum does not contain
A. Fibrinogen
B. Cerruloplasmin
C. Albumin
D. Globulin
| Fibrinogen |
62d1f728-d1cd-427c-a26a-294f077a7d7b | Glycogen storage disease type III is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder and inborn error of metabolism characterized by a deficiency in glycogen debranching enzymes. It is also known as Cori&;s disease in honor of the 1947 Nobel laureates Carl Cori and Gey Cori. Other names include Forbes disease in honor of clinician Gilbe Burnett Forbes (1915-2003), an American Physician who fuher described the features of the disorder, or limit dextrinosis, due to the limit dextrin-like structures in cytosol. Limit dextrin is the remaining polymer produced after hydrolysis of glycogen. Without glycogen debranching enzymes to fuher conve these branched glycogen polymers to glucose, limit dextrinosis abnormally accumulates in the cytoplasm.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 129 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Forbe&;s disease is due to deficiency of
A. Branching enzyme
B. Debranching enzyme
C. Myophosphorylase
D. Hepatic phosphorylase
| Debranching enzyme |
46aababe-a4f0-44f6-8414-54f25ecd02bf | Ref. Textbook of Microbiology and Immunology BY Parija. – Compiled from Various chapters | Unknown | null | Adult worm of Echinococcus is found in:
A. Dog
B. Humans
C. Domestic animals
D. Felines
| Dog |
e5e1da36-d58e-452c-b7de-afa63fd3cfe4 | Ans. (c) SomatostatinRef. KDT 6th ed. / 235SOMATOSTATIN* Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of GH, TSH and prolactin by pituitary, insulin and glucagon by pancreas and most importantly. It inhibits most of G.I secretions gastrin and HC1.* It can be used in controlling esophageal varices and bleeding peptic ulcer.* Drugs like simvastatin, atorvastatin, fluvastatin, lovastatin and rosuvastatin are statins, which are hypolipidemic drugs. They act by inhibiting HMG-CoA Reductase.* Fenofibrate are from fibrates category, which has maximum triglyceride lowering activity.Also know* Statins end with "vastatin"* Maximum LDL lowering activity is by: STATINS* Longest acting statin: ROSUVASTATIN | Pharmacology | Hypolipidemic Drugs | NOT a hypolipidemic drug:
A. Simvastatin
B. Fenofibrate
C. Somatostatin
D. Fluvastatin
| Somatostatin |
5bd0e750-f5ff-4ecd-af21-2dff2a65f597 | Genital wa treatments that can be applied directly to your skin include: Imiquimod (Aldara, Zyclara). This cream appears to boost the immune system's ability to fight genital was. Avoid sexual contact while the cream is on your skin. It may weaken condoms and diaphragms and may irritate. One possible side effect is redness of the skin. Other side effects may include blisters, body aches or pain, cough, rashes, and fatigue. Podophyllin and podofilox (Condylox). Podophyllin is a plant-based resin that destroys genital wa tissue. Podofilox contains the same active compound but can be safely applied. Trichloroacetic acid (TCA). This chemical treatment burns off genital was. TCA must always be applied by a doctor. Side effects can include mild skin irritation, sores or pain. REF KD Tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | Immunomodulators | Topical immunomodulator used for the treatment of genital was is:
A. Imiquimod
B. Podophylline
C. Interferon
D. Acyclovir
| Imiquimod |
2fb42f16-a50e-4397-9ec6-049048876ec1 | Option 1, 3 Increase in cyclic AMP/GMP-accumulation of sodium chloride in the intestinal lumen- Diarrhea. Option 2 Toxin Stimulates the vagus nerve and vomiting center of brain. Acts directly on the autonomic nervous system rather than on gastrointestinal mucosa. Option 4 Cholera toxin: binds to GM1 ganglioside receptors present on the intestinal epithelium | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology Pa 1 (Gram Positive Cocci, Gram Negative Cocci) | Staph. aureus causes vomiting in 2 hours after eating contaminated milk product . The mechanism of action is -
A. Stimulation of C AMP
B. Vagal stimulation
C. Stimulation of C GMP
D. Acts through ganglioside GM receptor
| Vagal stimulation |
ba98b1a1-3e43-41be-aa72-41120c5be8c4 | ANSWER: (C) Aplastic anemiaREF: Harrison's 18th ed Ch: 107It's a straight forward diagnosis of Aplastic anemia since all the three cell lines of blood are reduced. The very basic question tests your knowledge of normal blood counts | Medicine | Anemia and RBC Disorders | A patient presents with Hb of 8 gm% , WBC count of 2000/mm3 and platlet count of 60000/mm3. What is your likely diagnosis?
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Anemia of chronic disease
| Aplastic anemia |
7a7ef69c-8103-43ae-a688-3c7c1ccdbec7 | Holt-Oram syndrome: - Autosomal dominant disorder - Characterized by - skeletal abnormalities of hands and arms like: Hypoplastic/ absent thumbs, radii Triphalangism Phocomelia - Cardiac anomalies ASD 1st degree hea block TRIPHALANGISM phacomelia | Pediatrics | Acyanotic congenital hea diseases | Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by?
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. TGA
D. TAPVC
| ASD |
91d81f2b-fc53-4505-86ac-71ea64cb45f5 | Vulval Lymphatics: Superficial component - drains the anterior two-thirdvulva, to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes Deep drainage system - draining the posterior one-third vulva is to deep inguinal nodes, external iliac, and femoral nodes In Ca Vulva the lymphatic spread is usually to the inguinal lymph nodes, which are located between Camper's fascia and the fascia lata. From these superficial groin nodes, the disease spreads to the deep femoral nodes, which are located medial to the femoral vessels Cloquet's or Rosenmuller's node, situated beneath the inguinal ligament, is the most cephalad of the femoral node group. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Vulvar cancer | Ca Vulvaof the anterior pa will spread primarily to which of the following lymph nodes?
A. Para-aoic
B. Inguinal
C. Obturator
D. Femoral
| Inguinal |
04794897-0e4a-4a72-948a-7952ff0f530b | Disulfide bonds between and within polypeptides stabilize teiary and quaternary structures. However, disulfide bond formation is nonspecific. Under oxidizing conditions, a given cysteine can form a disulfide bond with the --SH of any accessible cysteinyl residue. By catalyzing disulfide exchange, the rupture of an S--S bond and its reformation with a different paner cysteine, protein disulfide isomerase facilitates the formation of disulfide bonds that stabilize a protein&;s native conformationPeptidyl cis-trans isomerase, protein disulphide isomerase and chaperones are involved in protein folding | Biochemistry | All India exam | Protein di sulphide isomerase is involved in
A. Protein synthesis
B. Protein degradation
C. Protein folding
D. Protein quaernary structure formation
| Protein folding |
38331f46-3c4f-4774-babc-326b0f94e5f6 | The lens is thinnest at the posterior pole. The crystalline lens is surrounded by a lens capsule. Lens capsule is a thin transparent elastic membrane secreted by the lens epithelial cells largely composed of type IV collagen. The capsule is 11- 15microm thick at the anterior pole. The posterior capsule thickness decreases to a minimum at the posterior pole to about 4microm. Ref: Adler's Physiology of the Eye: Expe Consult by Leonard A Levin, Page 47 | Ophthalmology | null | Which is the thinnest pa of the lens of eye?
A. Anterior pole
B. Posterior pole
C. Posterior capsule
D. Apex
| Posterior pole |
2536caec-babe-4897-96bf-0053ab46a3dd | Carcinoma of the breast is divided into :
Carcinoma in situ → neoplastic cells is limited to ducts and lobules by the basement membrane.
Invasive carcinoma (infiltrating carcinoma) → cells invade beyond the basement membrane.
Caricnoma in situ :
It is of two types
A. Ductal carcinoma insitu (DCIS, intraductal carinoma )
Most frequently present as manzmographic calcification.
Rarely palpable mass may also occur in comedocarcinoma.
DCTS is of two types -
i. Comedocarcinoma
ii. Noncomedo DCTS → Solid, cribriform, papillary or micropapillary
B. Lubular carcinoma in Situ (LCIS)
Always an incidental finding in a biopsy performed for another reason.
LCIS is not associated with calcification → Therefore, it remains infrequent with or without mammography (in contrast to DCIS)
Frequently multicentric and bilateral
Signet ring cells are common. | Pathology | null | The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is -
A. Apocrine DCIS
B. Neuroendocrine DCIS
C. Well differentiated DCIS
D. Comedo DCIS
| Comedo DCIS |
ed9bae02-c6f4-4303-8d21-856c8d03ef6d | Minocycline is used in acne and for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis.Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed Pg: | Pharmacology | Antibiotics | Which of the following drug is useful in the prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis?
A. Minocycline
B. Doxycycline
C. Cephalexin
D. Rifabutin
| Minocycline |
cb0f755c-b8a8-4d9e-8622-6e902e36580b | → Apart from A< B and O RBC of type O contains large amount of another antigen called H substance.
→ H substance is genetically different from ABO but is a precursor of A and B antigens.
→ An O group individual who inherits A or B genes but fails to inherit H gene from either parent is called Oh phenotype or Bombay blood group. | Pathology | null | A 40 year old female patient presents with excessive bleeding. Patient gives a history of road traffic accident 5 hours ago and had a lacerated wound on lower back region. Blood grouping test reveals presence of Anti A antibody, Anti B antibody, Anti H antibody and Anti Rh D antibody in the serum. The blood group of this patient is?
A. O positive
B. O negative
C. AB positive
D. Bombay blood group
| Bombay blood group |
32f4e671-7e97-4184-8eb5-e1c3e961e5ab | The best test to evaluate the destruction and dilatation of large airways which are filled with pus in Bronchiectasis is HRCT.
Spiral CT is preferred for pulmonary embolism.
Pulmonary angiography is done for lung sequestration and is gold standard for pulmonary embolism. | Medicine | null | IOC for Bronchiectasis -
A. HRCT scan
B. Spiral CT
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Pulmonary angiography
| HRCT scan |
4c875ee2-97cf-493e-9383-6258d5d1289a | Ans. is b, i.e. Clear cell tumorM/C ovarian cancer associated with endometrial cancer: Endometrioid tumorM/C ovarian cancer associated with endometriosis: Clear cell carcinoma | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Carcinoma Ovary | M/C ovarian cancer associated with endometriosis:
A. Endometroid tumor
B. Clear cell tumor
C. Germ cell tumor
D. Brenner tumor
| Clear cell tumor |
9aa4c73a-b90c-417f-a526-2bf5c83eae9a | C i.e. GlucoseFinal products of carbohydrate digestion in intestinal chyme are glucose & fructoseQ.The glucose transpo in intestine is an example of secondary active transpo i.e., the energy of glucose transpo is provided indirectly by active transpo of Na+ out of cell. Because glucose & Na+ share the same cotranspoer (sympo) the sodium dependent glucose transpoer (SGLT, Na+ - glucose cotranspoer, cross cell membrane 12 times), the high concentration of Na+ on mucosal surface of cells facillitate & low concentration inhibit hexose sugar influx into epithelial cells. | Physiology | null | The only Sugar normaly absorbed in the intestine against a concentration gradient is :
A. Xylose
B. Mannose
C. Glucose
D. Ribose
| Glucose |
0301e367-c3b0-450c-b514-24f163f4b979 | CLINICAL FEATURES 1. Age and sex. Tumour is seen almost exclusively in males in the age group of 10-20 years. Rarely, it may be seen in older people and females. 2. Profuse, recurrent and spontaneous epistaxis. This is the most common presentation. The patient may be markedly anaemic due to repeated blood loss. 3. Progressive nasal obstruction and denasal speech. It is due to the mass in the postnasal space. 4. Conductive hearing loss and otitis media with effusion. It occurs due to obstruction of the eustachian tube. 5. Mass in the nasopharynx. Tumour is sessile, lobulated or smooth and obstructs one or both choanae. It is pink or purplish in colour. Consistency is firm but digital palpation should never be done until at the time of operation. 6. Other clinical features like broadening of the nasal bridge, proptosis, swelling of the cheek, infratemporal fossa or involvement of IInd, IIIrd, IVth and VIth cranial nerves will depend on the extent of the tumour (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat, P.L Dhingra, 7th edition, page 279 ) | ENT | Pharynx | A young patient with a headache, epiphora, bilateral nasal obstruction but no fever. Diagnosis is
A. Nasal polyp
B. Juvenile angiofibroma
C. Nasal carcinoma
D. Rhinoscleroma
| Juvenile angiofibroma |
d74815e4-8d9a-49b0-8ac2-28e10234a3fc | The recommended illumination for casual reading is 100 lux, 400 lux for office work, 900 lux for fine assembly and for watch making 2000 - 3000 lux is recommended. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 519. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | What is the recommended illumination for general office work?
A. 100 lux
B. 400 lux
C. 900 lux
D. 1000 lux
| 400 lux |
63bdea0f-f89c-457f-a161-f7b799b7ff27 | Lucio phenomenon seen in leprosy- recurrent crops of large, sharply marginated, ulcerative lesions paicularly on the lower extremities. These are frequently fatal as a result of secondary infection and consequent septic bacteremia. Neither glucocoicoids nor thalidomide is effective against this syndrome. Optimal wound care and therapy for bacteremia are indicated. Ulcers tend to be chronic and heal poorly. In severe cases exchange transfusion is indicated. Extra edge : Lenalidomide (thalidomide derivative) is the drug of choice in MDS patients with 5q deletion, MDS with 5q deletion is lenalidomide responsive. | Medicine | Bacterial infection | Lucio phenomenon is treated with:
A. Steroids
B. Lenalidomide
C. Clofazimine
D. Exchange transfusion
| Exchange transfusion |
f3d17073-af2e-4f37-87a4-430946237c93 | Normal sperm count/ml i.e. sperm concentration is 20 million/ml. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | WHO definition of normal sperm count:
A. 10 million/ml
B. 20 million/ml
C. 40 million/ml
D. 50 million/ml
| 20 million/ml |
314d5db0-1f09-4876-961e-e33886281986 | Uncontrolled tipping:
A single force is applied at the crown, whereby the tooth rotates around a point just apical to the CRes. The crown moves in the direction of the force and the apex of the root moves in the opposite direction. The CRes of the tooth also moves in the direction of the force.
Controlled tipping:
Example of a healthy maxillary
The force but the root apex does not move forward in the opposite direction. The CRes also moves in the direction of the force. This kind of movement may be indicated when retracting excessively proclined maxillary incisors.
Key concept:
Center of rotation of single rooted teeth for tipping is present along the long axis of tooth. | Dental | null | Center of rotation for tipping is present at:
A. Long axis of tooth
B. Between B-L axis of tooth
C. Between M-D axis of tooth
D. Infinity
| Long axis of tooth |
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