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1f5ccc91-2a52-4574-943e-a1c01714dcd8 | Six major hormones produced by anterior pituitary gland are Prolactin (PRL), Growth hormone (GH), Adrenocoicotropin hormone (ACTH), Luteinizing hormone (LH), Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) & Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).Reference: Harrison 19th edition 401e-1 | Medicine | Endocrinology | The number of major hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland is
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
| 6 |
eb8e4480-f3ca-414b-8158-7a3bcf8a3873 | Angle-closure glaucoma can have the appearance of glaucomflecken. Glaucomflecken are small anterior subcapsular opacities secondary to lens epithelial necrosis resulting from acute angle-closure glaucoma. - Signs of Angle closure glaucoma :Stony hard eye, steamy cornea, Veically oval mid-dilated non reacting pupil - Symptoms: Severe pain, coloured halos, sudden drop in vision. Symptoms occurs in late night - Nd-Yag Laser iridotomy is done for management of Angle closure glaucoma | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | Glaucomflecken are seen in:
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. Uveitis
C. Retinitis pigmentosa
D. Angle closure glaucoma
| Angle closure glaucoma |
abee09f1-e0b1-4205-8884-787a3f8c4599 | The frontal lobe plays a large role in voluntary movement. It houses the primary motor coex. The function of the frontal lobe involves the ability to project future consequences resulting from current actions, the choice between good and bad actions (or better and best) (also known as conscience), the override and suppression of socially unacceptable responses, and the determination of similarities and differences between things or events. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:841,842,843 | Physiology | Nervous system | Frontal lobe function
A. Personality
B. Memory
C. Vision
D. Calculation
| Personality |
62d554fb-d2fe-438d-8a61-184d1511e66d | Chandler Index This is the average number of hookworm eggs per gram of faeces for the entire community (Average number of eggs per gram of stools). (Ref. Park PSM 18thed.195) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health care of community & international health | Chandler Index is 225. What is the interpretation?
A. Potential danger to community
B. No danger
C. Minor public health problem
D. Major public health problem
| Potential danger to community |
aa8e0459-d1a0-409a-83ec-583493eaed8a | Axis of growth increases from Head towards Feet
3rd month IU = Head 50% of Body length
Birth : Head 30% of body length
Adult = Head 12% of that of body length. | Dental | null | According to cephalo caudal gradient of growth axis of growth:
A. Decreases from head towards feet.
B. Increases from head towards feet.
C. Increases from feet towards head .
D. Decreases from feet towards head.
| Increases from head towards feet. |
0745a1a4-6a0f-426c-8f3e-78091d1a1142 | Phentolamine is the drug of choice in CHEESE REACTION It is a rapidly acting alpha blocker with sho duration of action (in minutes). It is non selective alpha blocker therefore blocks both alpha 1 and 2 Non Selective a Blockers Selective a1 Blockers Irreversible - Phenoxybenzamine - Used for pheochromocytoma Reversible - Phentolamine, Tolazoline,ergotamine - DOC for cheese reaction and clonidine withdrawal Prazosin Terazosin Doxazosin Alfuzosin - These drugs are used for BHP and HTN. - Also used for scorpion sting | Pharmacology | Sympathetic System | Drug of choice for cheese reaction is
A. Prazosin
B. Phentolamine
C. Pentazocine
D. Phenoxybenzamine
| Phentolamine |
e3909519-e8c3-416b-afbe-ee13f2985728 | Pain sensation below the pectinate line is carried by inferior rectal nerve, a branch of pudendal nerve. | Anatomy | null | Referred pain in external haemorrhoids is due to -
A. Common pudendal nerve
B. Inferior rectal nerve
C. Splanchnic nerve
D. Sympathetic nerve
| Inferior rectal nerve |
a0239226-9bf4-4aed-ac0c-c7e86e132b30 | Interstitial cell tumours arise from Leydig or Seoli cells. A Leydig cell tumour masculinises; a Seoli cell tumour feminises.Seoli cell tumours typically present as a testicular mass or firmness, and their presence may be accompanied by gynaecomastia (25%)Bailey and Love 26e pg: 1386 | Surgery | Urology | Which testicular tumor produces feminizing symptoms?
A. Seminoma
B. Teratoma
C. Leydig cell tumour
D. Seoli cell tumour
| Seoli cell tumour |
baf71129-d63f-4b17-9a46-fe2fc529965f | Wolman disease is caused by mutations in the lysosomal acid lipase (LIPA) gene and is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
Wolman disease is the most severe expression of LAL deficiency; a milder form of LAL deficiency is known as cholesteryl ester storage disease (CESD). | Pediatrics | null | A child presents with Hepatosplenomegaly, Abdominal distension, Jaundice, Anemia and Adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the Diagnosis?
A. Adrenal hemorrhage
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Wolman's disease
D. Addison's disaease
| Wolman's disease |
a7735b5b-dbb6-4bf5-a096-87906ecd48e4 | Bronchiolitis is most common type of acute lower respiratory tract infections in children and young infants. Most common causative agent is respiratory syncytial virus. It's mostly seen in age group 6months to 3years C/F hyperinflated chest, respiratory distress of varying degree, hypoxia. Rx is mainly suppoive as no role of antibiotics as it's a viral infection. When pco2 is increased results is respiratory acidosis. In order to compensate that body tries to save more bicarbonate. Compensation in primary respiratory disorders For every 10 mm increase in pco2: DISORDER RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS Acute HCO3 increases by 1 HCO3 decreases by 2 Chronic HCO3 increased by 3.5 HCO3 decreases by 4 Compensation in metabolic disorders DISORDER EXPECTED COMPENSATION Metabolic acidosis PCO2 = 1.5 * (HCO3) + 8 +/-2 Metabolic alkalosis pco2 increases by 7 for each 10 mEq/L increases in H From the above picture we see that for every acute process hco3 increases by 1 in respiratory acidosis | Pediatrics | JIPMER 2018 | In exhausted child with severe bronchiolitis, for every 10 mm Hg increase in PCO2, how many milliEq of bicarbonate will increase:-
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 1
| 1 |
d65d5540-642f-4c81-a939-ed47ca68c8a4 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Nodular Schwaz 9/e p415 writes that- "In general, there is no significant difference between different histologic tumor types in terms of prognosis, when matched for tumor thickness, gender, age, or other. Nodular melanomas have the same prognosis as superficial spreading types when lesions are matched for depth of invasion. Lentigo maligna types, however, have a better prognosis even after correcting for thickness, and acral lentiginous lesions have a worse prognosis." | Surgery | null | The most malignant form of malignant melanoma is ?
A. Nodular
B. Hutchinson's melanotic freckle
C. Acral lentiginous type
D. Superficial spreading
| Nodular |
26877369-35b6-441c-b204-42976b67f67c | HMP shunt pathway gives NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate. | Biochemistry | null | Pentose phosphate pathway (HMP shunt pathway) produces -
A. ATP
B. ADP
C. NADH
D. NADPH
| NADPH |
5c39ab91-bcbf-4831-acf2-dfcce1b3c236 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., IgM antibody in fetal blood Laboratory diagnosis o Isolation of virus in cell cultures of throat samples, urine or other secretions. o Normally, maternal rubella antibodies in the form of IgG is transferred to infants and is gradually last over a period of 6 months. Persistent beyond 1 year in an unvaccinated child suggests the diagnosis of congenital rubella. o Presence of Ig M antibodies is diagnostic. o PCR for rubella RNA. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following methods can be used to detect rubella infection in children -
A. T4 cell count
B. Fetal hemoglobin
C. IgM antibody in fetal blood
D. IgA Antibody in fetal blood
| IgM antibody in fetal blood |
791374a4-4072-4060-8f94-c831c435c4be | Ans. (d) CardiacRef: Sabiston 85/19th Edition* Most common cause of death in septic shock - Hypotension* Hypotension is due to decreased cardiac output leading to hypotension | Surgery | Shock | The most important cause of the death in septic shock is:
A. DIC
B. Respiratory failure
C. Renal
D. Cardiac
| Cardiac |
4722553e-4157-4fd3-8184-3e6a55766d87 | This is a case of acquired hemophilia A. Approximately 50 percent of acquired hemophilia A patients have an underlying condition, such as an autoimmune disorder (e.g., rheumatoid ahritis or systemic lupus erythematosus), malignancy, pregnancy, or a history consistent with a drug reaction. Patients with acquired hemophilia A have a prolonged aPTT caused by decreased or absent factor VIII activity in the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation. The diagnosis of acquired hemophilia A is made by the demonstration of a solitary prolonged activated paial thromboplastin time (aPTT) that fails to correct on mixing with equal volumes of normal plasma (50:50 mix). The prothrombin time (PT), thrombin time (TT), and fibrinogen activity are all normal. Specific factor assays then are performed to determine whether a specific coagulation factor inhibitor or a lupus anticoagulant is present. Ref: Lollar P. (2010). Chapter 128. Antibody-Mediated Coagulation Factor Deficiencies. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 26 years old female suffers from PPH on her second postnatal day. Her APTT is prolonged while bleeding time and prothrombin time and platelet count are normal. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Acquired haemophilia A
B. Lupus anticoagulant
C. DIC
D. Inherited congenital hemophilia
| Acquired haemophilia A |
227f73e5-6529-4002-be01-d13f51f1bdff | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ziehl Neelsen stainRef: (Ananthanarayan, 8th/e, p. 393; 9th/e, p. 394; Harrison, 18th/e, p. 1324; Jawetz, 24th/e, p. 182)Nocardia - Partially acid fast, obligate aerobe, habitat is soil and infections occur exogenously.Actinomyces - Nonacid fast, facultative anaerobe, habitat is oral flora so infections occur endogenously. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Nocardia is differentiated from Actinomyces by:
A. Gram stain
B. ZN stain
C. Nocardia causes mycetoma, Actinomyces do not
D. Nocardia is facultative anaerobe
| ZN stain |
ef0a7c0c-b418-406e-8d3c-de476266b293 | Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic used to treat a number of bacterial infections.This includes bone and joint infections, intra abdominal infections, ceain type of infectious diarrhea, respiratory tract infections, skin infections, typhoid fever, and urinary tract infections, among others.For some infections it is used in addition to other antibiotics. It can be taken by mouth, as eye drops, as ear drops, or intravenously Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 580 | Medicine | Oncology | Patient presents with Hb-5 g%, TLC-9000/cc,DLC- Neutrophils-3%, Lymphoblasts-75% and fever for 1 mth. Drug used is -
A. iv Ciprofloxacin
B. Colony stimulating factor
C. Packed cell transfusion
D. Oral Ciprofloxacin
| iv Ciprofloxacin |
d06467ec-a7ef-4ca8-a771-6de4f2ca7772 | Ans. B: Congenital Syphilis Symptoms in newborns with congenital syphilis may include: Failure to gain weight or failure to thrive Fever Irritability No bridge to nose (saddle nose) Early rash -- small blisters on the palms and soles Later rash -- copper-colored, flat or bumpy rash on the face, palms, and soles Rash of the mouth, genitalia, and anus Watery discharge from the nose Congenital rubella predominantly include cochlear (sensori-neural deafness), cardiac (septal defects, PDA), hematologic, ophthalmic (cataracts, retinopathy) and chromosomal abnormalities. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A woman with a history of repeated aboions gave bih to a low bih weight baby. The child is having rashes over palm and rhinitis. The most probable diagnosis is September 2009
A. Congenital HIV
B. Congenital syphilis
C. Congenital rubella
D. Pemphigus
| Congenital syphilis |
23552dfa-cab8-4361-bb60-466d878c6fe8 | Triage - Disaster categorization of victims 1. Red - Immediate Resuscitation 2. Yellow - possible resuscitation 3. Green - Minor injuries (Ambulatory) 4. Black - Dead/ moribund patient | Social & Preventive Medicine | Disaster Management | Ambulatory patients after a Disaster are categorized into ____ colour of Triage:
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Black
| Green |
852429af-25e8-4394-b4cd-408668133fb7 | Key concept:
The foramen ovale transmits the mandibular nerve, the lesser petrosal nerve, the accessory meningeal artery, an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins, and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following transmits mandibular nerve?
A. Foramen lacerum
B. Foramen magnum
C. Foramen ovale
D. Foramen spinosum
| Foramen ovale |
f9f1fa00-f4e6-4a9f-9c67-98f6cfef96ad | (b) Source: (Kasper, p. 2169)This lesion is more frequent in females and may antedate other clinical signs and symptoms of diabetes. The plaques are round, firm, and reddish-brown to yellow in color. They most commonly involve the legs but can also involve the hands, arms, abdomen, and head. | Medicine | Endocrinology | A 28-year-old woman with diabetes presents with lesions on her leg. They are not painful, and have a central depression and raised irregular margin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. eruptive xanthomas
B. necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
C. gangrene
D. staphylococcal infection
| necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum |
1bd29ef7-9c29-4ec1-a63d-a32ca86a2ca5 | Stratified cuboidal epithelium is seen in large ducts of exocrine glands like sweat glands ,pancreas and salivary glands The ovarian surface epithelium, also called the germinal epithelium of Waldeyer, is a layer of simple squamous-to-cuboidal epithelial cells covering the ovary. The upper cervix (endocervix) is lined by a simple columnar epithelium that contains mucous-secreting cells. In contrast, the lower cervix (ectocervix) is lined by a stratified squamous epithelium. The transition point between these two epithelia is known as the external os. Larynx is lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium except vocal cords (lined by stratified squamous epithelium). Inderbir Singh's textbook of Human Histology Seventh edition Pg no;48 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Stratified cuboidal epithelium seen in
A. Ovaries
B. Cervix
C. Sweat glands ducts
D. Larynx
| Sweat glands ducts |
ba7aa394-f0df-457c-9b18-66d0499b0e82 | The given clinical scenario and the peripheral smear showing the Maurer&;s dots are suggestive of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum. Features of Plasmodium falciparum on peripheral smear are Maurer's dots, ring form, accole form, and banana-shaped gametocytes. Reference: Paniker&;s Textbook of Medical Parasitology 8th edition | Microbiology | miscellaneous | A 15-year-old boy presented with fever and chills for the last 3 days. A peripheral blood smear revealed the following. Which of the following is the most probable causative agent?
A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium vivax
| Plasmodium falciparum |
40bf295a-ba02-4696-9261-cc906206cc06 | Ans. (c) Radical Mastectomy(Ref Internet Sources)Halstaed Radical mastectomy is historical.* It involves removal of Entire breast, Nipple and areola with tumor* Also removes all level 1,2,3 nodes* Muscles like Pectoralis major, Serratus Anterior are also removed.* It's a very high morbid procedure and hence not done now a days after the wide usage of chemotherapy and radiotherapy.* Now we commonly do MRM- in which Pectoralis major muscle is preserved. | Surgery | Breast | Halstaed's mastectomy is
A. Simple mastectomy
B. Wide local excision
C. Radical mastectomy
D. Modified radical Mastectomy
| Radical mastectomy |
2fc2e520-52ba-4941-8360-95706f0c1259 | There are four main types of kidney stones Calcium stones are the most common type of kidney stones. They are usually made of calcium and oxalate (a natural chemical found in most foods), but are sometimesmade of calcium and phosphate. Uric acid stones form when your urine is often too acidic. Refer robbins 9/e p951 | Pathology | Urinary tract | Renal calculi are commonly made up of
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. Uric acid
D. Cystine
| Calcium oxalate |
86aa497f-98c5-4ada-a7a8-7c8f18895bf4 | Because the exposure site is likely significantly contaminated from the injury that occurred 24 hours previously, direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide is contraindicated. A calcium hydroxide pulpectomy should not be the automatic procedure accomplished because continued root elongation and closure of the pulp canal will likely not occur. A calcium hydroxide pulpotomy is preferable for a traumatized tooth with an open apex with either a large exposure or a small exposure of several hours or days postinjury. Clinically, the tooth should be anesthetized and, under sterile conditions, and the clinician should open the pulp chamber in search of healthy pulp tissue. It is likely that vital tissue will be present within 24 hours of the injury. | Dental | null | A young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure due to a traumatic injury that occurred 24 hours previously. The best treatment is
A. Place calcium hydroxide on the pinpoint exposure
B. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy
C. Initiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
D. Initiate conventional root canal treatment with gutta-percha
| Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy |
86d7c8d8-b715-492b-9ca4-fe60a6cf6252 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pelvis The pelvis and tibia being the commonest sites, and femur, skull, spine (veebrae) and clavicle the next commonest. | Surgery | null | Most commonly involved bone in Paget's disease?
A. Skull
B. Femur
C. Pelvis
D. Veebrae
| Pelvis |
357fb4a7-6edf-4fde-b52f-bfc9bfb38f96 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Apocrine sweat glands See explanation- I of session- 9 of Skin of All India 2014-15 pattern of this book. | Skin | null | Fox Fordyce's disease is a disease of ?
A. Eccrine sweat glands
B. Apocrine sweat glands
C. Sebaceous glands
D. Pilosebaceous glands
| Apocrine sweat glands |
78aa4688-a299-4752-987c-64c4a104d7c9 | GAD is characterized by free floating anxiety and negative apprehension about day today tril life events. Anxiety about specific situations are more likely to be seen in phobia. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 407 | Psychiatry | All India exam | Generalised anxiety disorder is characterized by
A. Free floating anxiety
B. Worry about tril issues
C. Inability to relax
D. Anxiety about specific situations
| Anxiety about specific situations |
5c8e9f49-c374-4069-93c3-ace2a49a1658 | Raw material used in nylon suture is Polyamide polymer. Suture Types Raw material Tensile strength Absorption rate Silk Braided or twisted multifilament; Coated (with wax or silicone) or uncoated Natural proteinRaw silk from silkworm Loses 20% when wet; 80-100% lostby 6 months Fibrous encapsulation in body at 2-3 weeks ; Absorbed slowly over 1-2 yearQ Catgut Plain Collagen derived from healthy sheep or cattle Lost within 7-10 days Phagocytosis and enzymatic degradation within 7-10 daysQ Catgut Chromic Tanned with chromium salts to improve handling and resist degradation in tissueQ Lost within 21-28 days Phagocytosis and enzymatic degradation within 90 days Polyglactin (Vicryl) Braided multifilament Copolymer of lactide & glycolideQ in a ratio of 90:10, coated with polyglactin & calcium stearate Approx, 60% remains at 2 weeks; 30% remains at 3 weeks Hydrolysis minimal until 5-6 weeks; Complete absorption 60-90 daysQ Polyglyconate Monofilament Dyed or undyed Copolymer of glycolic acid and trimethylene carbonateQ Approx, 70% remains at 2 weeks; 55% remains at 3 weeks Hydrolysis minimal until 8-9 weeks; Complete absorption 180 daysQ Polyglycaprone (Monocryl) Monofilament Coplymer of glycolide & caprolactoneQ 21 days maximum 90-120 daysQ Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) Braided multifilament Dyed or undyed Coated or Uncoated Polymer of polyglycolic acidQ Approx, 40% remains at 1 week; 20% remains at 3 weeks HydrolysisQ minimal at 2 weeks; significant at 4 weeks; Complete absorption 60-90 daysQ Polydioxanone (PDS) Monofilament dyed or undyed Polyester polymerQ Approx, 70% remains at 2 weeks; 50% remains at 4 weeks; 14% remains at 8 weeks Hydrolysis minimal at 90 days; Complete absorption 180 daysQ Nylon Monofilament or braided multifilament Dyed or undyed Polyamide polymer Loses 15-20% per year Degrades at approximately 15-20% per year Polypropylene Monofilament. Dyed or undyed Polymer of propylene Infinite (>1 year) Non-absorbable: remains encapsulated in body tissues | Surgery | Sutures and Anastomoses | Raw material used in nylon suture is:-
A. Polyethylene terephthalate
B. Polyamide polymer
C. Polybutylene terephthalate
D. Polyester polymer
| Polyamide polymer |
f65f1272-ee9c-4930-8263-1e0df5807389 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy "The characteristic radiologicalfinding in patients with pulmonary sarcoidosis is bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy ". | Radiology | Nervous System | Characteristic radiological finding in sarcoidosis-
A. Parenchymal disease
B. Unilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
C. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
D. Miliary shadow
| Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy |
390f44c6-c6b8-400b-908e-1e7e3e7e0fbe | ANSWER: (A) MumpsREF: Nelson's 18th ed p. 1795"Pneumonia is known complication of measles"Viruses commonly causing pneumonia in childrenRSVInfluenzaAdenovirusRhinovirusPara influenza virus | Pediatrics | Viral Infections | Which of the following does not causes pneumonia?
A. Mumps
B. Measles
C. RSV
D. Influenza
| Mumps |
7df4b0c6-4489-4b14-909c-8658a1c48908 | Optic neuritis is an inflammatory, demyelinating condition that causes acute, usually monocular, visual loss. Most cases of acute demyelinating optic neuritis occur in women (two-thirds) and typically develop in patients between the ages of 20 and 40. | Ophthalmology | All India exam | A 25 year-old-male presents with sudden painless loss of vision. The ocular and systemic examination is normal. What is probable diagnosis?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Eale's disease
C. Glaucoma
D. Optic neuritis
| Optic neuritis |
f3fa17ca-f9f8-404a-823b-7353fdb80e07 | Ans. A. 360nMA Wood's lamp generates 360-nm ultraviolet (or "black") light produced by a mercury vapor source passed through a nickel oxide filter that can be used to aid the evaluation of certain skin disorders. | Skin | General | What is the wavelength of UV rays used in Woods lamp?
A. 360 nM
B. 460 nM
C. 660 nM
D. 760 nM
| 360 nM |
487df8e1-5f66-413d-afbf-e72f0d52500c | “Toxoplasma gondii is a coccidian protozoa of worldwide distribution that infects a wide range of animals and birds but does not appear to cause disease in them.
The normal final hosts are strictly the cat and its relatives in the family Felidae, the only hosts in which the oocyst-producing sexual stage of Toxoplasma can develop” | Microbiology | null | Cat acts as a reservoir in which of the following?
A. Rabies
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Streptocerca infection
D. Plague
| Toxoplasma gondii |
3b191641-41d9-442a-a2d9-4388318191e0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dipyridamole o There are two types of vessels in coronary circulaton ? 1. Larger conducting aeries which run epicardially and send perforating branches. 2. Smaller resistance aerioles - These are perforating branches of conducting aeries. These aerioles supply blood to endocardium. o During ischemia, adenosine (a local mediator) causes dilatation of resistance aerioles in ischemic area only, tone of resistance vessels of nonischemic area does not change --> increased flow to ischemic area. o Dipyridamole is a powerful coronary dilator; increases total coronary flow by preventing uptake and degradation of adenosine. o It dilates resistance vessels in nonischemic zone as well ----> Dives the already reduced blood flow away from ischemic zone - Coronary steal phenomenon. o It has no effect on larger conducting vessels (contrast nitrates which dilate larger conducting vessels and cause redistribution of blood towards ischemic zone). o Dipyridamole inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cAMP (by inhibiting phosphodiesterase) which potentiates PGI, and interferes with aggregation. o It is not useful as an antianginal drug (due to coronary steal phenomenon), but can be used for prophylaxis of coronary and cerebral thrombosis in post MI and post stroke patients as well as to prevent thrombosis in patients with prosthetic hea valve. | Pharmacology | null | `Coronory steal phenomenon' is caused by ?
A. Dipyridamole
B. Diltiazem
C. Propanolol
D. Verapamil
| Dipyridamole |
3700fe42-b535-4bfd-87cb-5fe8c51847a0 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diffuse amyloidosis Focal amyloidosis cause sago spleen | Pathology | null | Lordaceous spleen is seen in -
A. Alcoholic hepatitis
B. Chronic active hepatits
C. Focal amyloidosis
D. Diffuse amyloidosis
| Diffuse amyloidosis |
fa1474ff-384c-4f17-a5ab-f37845bd62ec | Baholin's glands (great vestibular glands) are located at the vaginal orifice at the 4 and 8 o'clock positions. Their ducts are lined with transitional epithelium and their obstruction secondary to inflammation may lead to the development of a Baholin's cyst or abscess. Baholin's cysts range in size from 1 to 3 cm. Infections are often polymicrobial; however, sexually transmitted Neisseria gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis are sometimes implicated. Treatment consists of incision and drainage and placement of a Word catheter, a small catheter with a balloon tip, for 2 to 3 weeks to allow for formation and epithelialization of a new duct. Ref: Cain J., ElMasri W.M., Gregory T., Kohn E.C. (2010). Chapter 41. Gynecology. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following is the causative organism for formation of Baholin cyst?
A. Candida
B. Anaerobes
C. Neissea
D. Trichomonas
| Neissea |
a2fb2622-6ef0-4e81-9727-9bd5ee20dd44 | Ans. (c) Cannot abductRef. Apley's System of Orthopaedics & Fractures, 8th ed. 281-82In case of supraspinatus injury, abduction is restricted.Function of Rotator Cuff Muscle* Supraspinatus: Assists deltoid in abduction of arm by fixing head of humerus against the glenoid cavity.* Infraspinatus & Teres minor: Laterally (externally) rotates arm & stabilizes the shoulder joint.* Subscapularis: Internal rotation | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around Shoulder | Supraspinatus injury leads to which of the following:
A. Frozen shoulder
B. Winging of scapula
C. Cannot abduct
D. Cannot adduct
| Cannot abduct |
5d084e42-365f-4dd0-bcfd-d48f53b878a0 | Classification I Reversible inhibitors of MAO-A (RIMAs) Moclobemide, Clorgyline II. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) NA + 5-HT reuptake inhibitors Imipramine, Amitriptyline, Trimipramine, Doxepin, Dothiepin, Clomipramine B. Predominantly NA reuptake inhibitors Desipramine, Noriptyline, Amoxapine, Reboxetine Ill. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRis) Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Seraline, Citalopram, Escitalopram IV. Atypical antidepressants Trazodone, Mianserin, Miazapine, Venlafaxine, Duloxetine, Tianeptine, Amineptine, Bupropion Ref: K D Tripathi 8th edition | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Antidepressant drug is:
A. Pimozide
B. Haloperidol
C. Thioridazine
D. Citalopram
| Citalopram |
315f6772-fe84-421a-9ce7-ed30d6ff1d39 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cytochrome p450 o Biotransformation reactions (metabolism) of drugs can be classified :A. Non-synthetic (phase I) reactions# Metabolism brings about a change in the drug molecule by:1. Oxidation2. Reduction3. Hydrolysis4. Cyclization5. Decyclization# The new metabolite may retain biological activity or it may be an inactive metabolite.# Oxidation is the most important metabolizing reaction.# The most important enzyme for oxidation reaction is cytochrome P450B.Synthetic (phase II or conjugation) reaction# Metabolism involves union of the drug with one of several polar (water-soluble) endogenous molecules that are products of intermediary metabolism, to form a water-soluble conjugate which is readily eliminated by kidney or, if the molecular weight exceeds 300, in the bile.# Phase II metabolism almost invariably terminates biological activity, i.e. metabolites are usually inactive.# Reactions are:-1. Acetylation2. Glucuronide conjugation3. Glycine conjugation4. Glutathione conjugation5. Sulfate conjugation6. Methylation7. Neucleotide synthesis | Pharmacology | Pharmacokinetics | Metabolism of xenobiotics is done by -
A. Cytochrome
B. Cytochrome p450
C. Cytochrome C
D. Cytochrome A
| Cytochrome p450 |
15e4dc9d-e521-4132-baa5-1a423d329ac5 | Ans. (d) E(Ref: Guyton and Hall Physiology Review, 3rd ed/p.14)Active tension produced in the muscle is at point E.In the graph, A is the active tension curve.C is the passive tension curve. | Physiology | Muscle Physiology | In the length tension relationship of skeletal muscle, the length at which active tension is maximum is:
A. A
B. F
C. D
D. E
| E |
47b13e4b-220e-41ef-a14e-44b99045993f | The sub-centre level is the peripheral outpost of the existing health delivery system. Categorization Type A: Provide all recommended services except the facilities for conducting delivery is not available here. Type B (MCH sub-centre): All recommended services including facilities for conducting deliveries are available. | Social & Preventive Medicine | NEET 2019 | Peripheral most unit for planning of Family planning and other services under RCH program is
A. Sub-centre
B. Block/ Taluka
C. PHC
D. District
| Sub-centre |
1243f2c4-7c7b-4370-ac52-019269828554 | ANSWER: (D) Altered sensoriumREF: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry 10th ed chapter-10Repeat Psychiatry 2013 Session 1, June 2010 | Psychiatry | Dementia Due to Metabolic Causes | Delirium & dementia can be differentiated by?
A. Loss of memory
B. Apraxia
C. Delusion
D. Altered sensorium
| Altered sensorium |
74ec2f1b-0fee-4900-8076-57792b5ba2ba | Most common site of rhabdomyosarcoma is HEAD & NECK (orbit among the given options). RHABDOMYOSARCOMA Rhabdomyosarcoma arises from mesenchymal tissues. MC sites of origin: Head & neckQ (parameningealQ)>Extremities >Genitourinary tract >Trunk MC pediatric soft tissue sarcoma: RhabdomyosarcomaQ Associated with: NF, Beckwith-Weidman syndrome, Li-fraumeni and Fetal alcohol syndrome | Surgery | Oncology | Most common site of rhabdomyosarcoma is:
A. Orbit
B. Nasopharynx
C. Extremities
D. Hypopharynx
| Orbit |
509f1dd6-4755-459d-8d9c-ba0e0041a62b | ANSWER: (A) Sertoli cellREF: Ganong's 22nd ed chapter 23See previous question for explanation | Physiology | Sex Hormones | MIS is secreted by?
A. Sertoli cell
B. Leidig cell
C. Supporting cells
D. Semeniferous tubules
| Sertoli cell |
c0fff501-fcc4-4daf-8d9a-37e08df3a9f4 | Ans. is b, i.e. Excessive exerciseThis athlete has BMI =20kg/m2, i.e. she is underweightHer FSH and LH are in low normal rangeAll these findings point towards that either there is a problem in hypothalamus or pituitary.One of the causes of hypothalamic amenorrhea is excessive exercise which is the most probable cause in this case. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Disorders in Menstruation | A 30-year-old athlete complains of amenorrhea for 1 year. Her BMI is 20 kg/m2. LH and FSH are in low normal range. Clinical and USG findings are normal. Most likely cause is:
A. Depression
B. Excessive exercise
C. Premature menopause
D. Anorexia nervosa
| Excessive exercise |
4766b4b5-d7f4-4e48-b7a1-a0f3e2e20a22 | In immediate hypersensitivity (type I hypersensitivity)- the injury is caused by TH2 cells, IgE antibodies, and mast cells and other leukocytes. Mast cells release mediators that act on vessels and smooth muscle and pro-inflammatory cytokines that recruit inflammatory cells. | Pathology | Hypersensitivity | Type I hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by:
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
| IgE |
7fe0629a-79b6-49da-b3f6-98834f2b7475 | trichophyton- hair, skin and nail. microsporum- hair and skin. epidermophyton- skin and nail. REF:Baveja textbook of microbiology 4th edition. | Microbiology | mycology | Which one of the following fungus does NOT infect hair? rpt
A. Epidermophyton
B. Microsporum
C. Trichophyton
D. Trichosporon
| Epidermophyton |
ffcbbee7-42f5-4545-a99a-a97c2f5e04d9 | CAUSES: Mechanical overload of the patellofemoral joint. a) Malcongruence - patellofemoral surfaces b) Malalignment -- extensor mechanism - weakness of vastus medialis ingle injury -- damage to aicular surface CLINICAL FEATURES * Introspective teenage girl or athletic young adult * Flat foot / Knock kneed athletes * Spontaneous Pain in front of knee/ beneath the knew cap * Maybe h/o recurrent displacements/injury * Aggravated by activity/climbing down stairs/standing after prolonged sitting with knees flexed * Both knees * Swelling-give way-catching(not true locking) * Grating/grinding sensation when knee is extended Conservative Rx * Reassurance * Ice Application * Physiotherapy * Avoid stressful activities * Stretching and strengthening medial quadriceps in 15 mins 4 times/day -- Quad sets (bicycling, pool running, swimming flutter kick * Aspirin / Ibuprofen / Naproxen * Suppo for a valgus foot STEROIDS BEST AVOIDED ref : maheswari 9th ed | Orthopaedics | Thigh, Knee,Leg,Foot & Ankle injuries | An athletic teenage girl complains of anterior knee pain on climbing stairs and on getting up after prolonged sitting. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chondramalacia Patellae
B. Plica Syndrome
C. Bipaite Patella
D. Patellofemoral osteoahritis
| Chondramalacia Patellae |
e3f0225e-b157-42ed-bda4-9b090c944f9e | Endemic refers to the constant presence of a disease or infectious agent within a given geographic area or population group without impoation from outside. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 88; Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 18th Edition, Page 86 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | 'Endemic Disease' means that a disease:
A. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
B. Is constantly present in a given population group
C. Exhibits seasonal pattern
D. Is prevalent among animals
| Is constantly present in a given population group |
89fc1b77-c3b6-40a9-8f8f-5db4ac525b7d | Answer is A (Narcotic overdose): Pulmonary edema with normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure suggests a diagnosis of ARDS or non cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Narcotic overdose is the only non cardiogenic cause for pulmonary edema (ARDS) amongst the options provided and hence the answer here. | Medicine | null | A patient comes with sudden respiratory distress, on examination, bilateral basal crepts are present over chest suggestive of pulmonary edema with normal alveolar wedge pressure. The likely cause is
A. Narcotic overdose
B. Congestive hea failure
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Cardiogenic shock
| Narcotic overdose |
4aac20f9-4129-4bff-a54c-24cddf6eecf7 | Penetration of basement membrane is the hallmark of invasive carcinoma. In carcinoma in situ basement membrane is not involved. | Pathology | null | Which is the most important feature to differentiate carcinoma in situ from invasive carcinoma?
A. Metastasis
B. Anaplasia
C. Number of mitotic spindles
D. Breach in basement membrane
| Breach in basement membrane |
7a1f09b8-8597-485a-b205-6a96acdba10d | Fluoridation is the adjustment of water supply to a fluoride content such that reduction of 50 to 70% in dental caries would occur without damage to teeth or other structures.
In 1958, WHO produced the first report by an expert committee on water fluoridation (TRS 146) and concluded that drinking water containing about 1 ppm fluoride had marked caries - preventive action and that controlled fluoridation of drinking water was a practicable and effective public health measure.
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
Soben Peter
5th edition | Dental | null | Cariostatic level of fluoride in drinking water is:
A. 1 ppm
B. 1.5 ppm
C. 2 ppm
D. 2.5 ppm
| 1 ppm |
d8d01a7d-f8aa-4973-85bd-fdb6c71f7cfd | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 120degC for 15 minutes MethodTemperature (degC)Holding time (in minutes)Autoclave12115 12610 1343Hot air oven16045 17018 1807.5 1901.5 | Microbiology | General | Temperature in autoclaving -
A. 160degC for 45 minutes
B. 170deg for 18 minutes
C. 120degC for 15 minutes
D. 126degC for 20 minutes
| 120degC for 15 minutes |
23f81bda-30da-45f3-bf14-5a87aa750ed9 | Token economy: It is a form of behavior modification designed to increase desirable behavior and decrease undesirable behavior with the use of tokens. Individuals receive tokens immediately after displaying desirable behavior. The tokens are collected and later exchanged for a meaningful object or privilege. The primary goal of a token economy is to increase desirable behavior and decrease undesirable behavior. Often token economies are used in institutional settings (such as psychiatric hospitals or correctional facilities) to manage the behavior of individuals who may be aggressive or unpredictable. | Psychiatry | Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders | Token economy is used in the treatment of
A. Schizophrenia
B. Depression
C. Dementia
D. Delirium
| Schizophrenia |
92234148-a3cf-4086-8afd-c995c0c200ec | Rheumatoid ahritis "Inflammation from rheumatoid ahritis results in a higher incidence of tarsal tunnel syndrome."- Current geriatric diagnosis,& treatment By C. Seth Landefeld, Robe Palmer, Mary Anne Johnson p459 "Carpal tunnel syndrome may be the presenting feature of rheumatoid ahritis."- Oxford textbook of rheumatology By David Alan Isenberg, Peter Maddison, Patricia Woo, David Glass, Ferdinand Breedveld 3/e p151 "Thus, compressive neuropathy of the branches of the posterior tibial nerve is a relatively frequent finding in patients with definite or classical RA."- Oxford Journals Medicine Rheumatology Volume 20, Number 3 Pp. 148-150 Tarsal tunnel syndrome Is entrapment neuropathy of the posterior tibial nerve (with or without involvement of the medial calcaneal nerve) within the fibro-osseous tunnel posterior and inferior to the medial malleolus. The tarsal tunnel is bounded superficially by the flexor retinaculum (laciniate ligament). The tibial nerve may be constricted by pressure from without or within this tunnel. Sources of constriction beneath and adjacent to the tarsal tunnel include bone fragments from displaced distal tibial, talar, or calcaneal fractures; tenosynovitis or ganglia of an adjacent tendon sheath; and bone and soft-tissue encroachment in rheumatoid ahritis or ankylosing spondylitis, varicosities, neural tumor (neurilemoma) or perineural fibrosis. Compression of the nerve leads to pain and sensory disturbances over the plantar surface of the foot. The pain may be precipitated by prolonged weight bearing. It is often worse at night and the patient may seek relief by walking around or stamping his or her foot. Paraesthesia and numbness can also be seen. Tinel's percussion test over the posterior tibial nerve may be positive. imaging Studies and Special Tests: Electromyography and nerve conduction studies should be performed but can be normal early in the entrapment. MRI provides excellent visualization of the tarsal tunnel and is indicated if there is suspicion of a space-occupying lesion within the tunnel. Treatment is conservative with ohotic modifications and measures to decrease the inflammation surrounding the involved nerve. A medial arch suppo can be fitted to hold the foot in slight varus. Surgical decompression is performed only in refractory cases | Surgery | null | Tarsal tunnel syndrome is caused with which ahritis:
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Osteoahritis
C. Rheumatoid ahritis
D. Psoriatic ahritis
| Rheumatoid ahritis |
37d371b5-af6c-465d-9177-568f6dcd3932 | A i.e. Thiopentone In head injury, induction is preferably done by thiopental or propofol (both neuroprotective)Q and a rapid onset NMBD (usually rocuronium or mivacurium) following adequate preoxygenation hyperventilation by mask. A barbiturate (thiopentone) - opioid - N20-NMBA technique is commonly used or intraoperative maintenance anesthesia. Ketamine, halothane, succinylcholine can increase ICP and are better avoidedQ, however, Sch can be used in difficult intubation. Glucose containing or hypotonic crystalloid solutions, sedation without airway control and vasodilators (CCB, hydralazine, nitro-glycerine, nitroprusside) and PEEP are also avoided (or used very cautiously) in head injury. | Anaesthesia | null | A case of road traffic accident (A) came with head injury, BP is 90/60, pulse is 150/min. Which anesthetic agent should be used for induction.
A. Thiopentone
B. Ketamine
C. Halothane
D. Succinylcholine
| Thiopentone |
b19ef51d-5fc4-4683-b041-e620855474d3 | Ans) c (Amla) Ref Park 20th ed p 531Vitamin A is seen in most green and yellow fruits and vegetables Retinol equivalent of:* Ripe mango-313* Pappaya - 118* Orange - 25Amala is one of the richest source of Vit C both in fresh as well as in dry condition. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and Health | Which of the following has the lowest Vitamin A
A. Pappaya
B. Mango
C. Amla
D. Orange
| Amla |
50c3d3f3-039b-49bd-8cba-3d10b040640a | In erythrocytes and most other cells ankyrin mediates the interaction between plasma membrane and cytoskeleton. Ankyrin also binds to the 100nm, rod shaped, antiparallel alpha beta heterodimers of spectrin and thus secures the cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane. Other membrane proteins with the same function are Cl-/HCO3- antipoer, sodium ion pumps and voltage dependent sodium ion channels. Ref: Basic Neurochemistry: Molecular, Cellular And Medical Aspects, Volume 1, page 29 | Physiology | null | Plasma membrane of cell is bounded to cytoskeleton by which of the following?
A. Spectrin
B. Ankyrin
C. Tubulin
D. Laminin
| Ankyrin |
6eb01dd5-8876-4f51-a566-aa3a5cef98df | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intramuscular Deltoid Prophalyxis against HBV . Both passive and active immunization are available for HBV infection prophylaxis. . Passive prophylaxis is by hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG). . Active immunization is by recombinant hepatitis B vaccine. . These are two recombinant vaccines : Recombivax - HB Engerix - B Vaccine is given intramuscular into the deltoid or in infants into the anterolateral aspect of thigh. Gluteal injection is not recommended as it may result in poor immune response. . Three doses are given at 0, 1 and 6 months. . For pre exposure prophylaxis only hepatitis B vaccine is given. . For post exposure prophylaxis combination of HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine is recommended. For perinatal exposure single dose of HBIG at bih along with complete course of vaccination is recommended. First dose of vaccine should be given within 12 hours after bih. | Microbiology | null | Best means of giving hepatitis B vaccine is
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intradermal
C. Intramuscular deltoid
D. Intramuscular gluteal
| Intramuscular deltoid |
6ce9762e-504b-4033-bb3f-e9ac49c3110e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glycine Neutral amino acidsAcidic amino acidsBasic amino acidsAlanineAspartic acid (aspartate)ArginineAspargingGlutamic acid (glutamate)HistidineCysteineGlycineGlutaminelsoleucineLeucineMethionineProlinePhenylalanineSerineThreonineTyrosineTryptophanValine Lysine | Biochemistry | Primary Structure of Proteins | Neutral amino acid is -
A. Aspartate
B. Arginine
C. Glycine
D. Histidine
| Glycine |
8fa5ad57-040f-4241-a68a-a12e04706902 | .lithium was the frst agent to be used for mania it has mood stabilizing propey it was introduced by John F Cade it is liver friendly drug it has to be introduced in caution with renal derangements it can cause of hypothyroidim it should be given with caution with ACE inhibitors, NSAIDS, Angiotensin receptor antagonists it has a narrow thereupatic index the optimal level of lithium in blood need for reduction of acute symptoms is 0.8-1.2meq/l when taken in increased amount , it may result in lithium toxicity hemodialysis is the treatment for lithium toxicity | Psychiatry | All India exam | First agent shown to be effective in maniac phase of BPD is
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Lamotrigine
D. Carbamazepine
| Lithium |
6c53aa49-1461-415a-95dd-505e28795a8c | The complete life cycle from egg to adult may take 5 to 6 days during summer in India, but at other times it may take 8 to 20 days. Flies do not generally live longer than 15 days in summer and 25 days during winter Eggs - 8 to 24 hours, Larvae - 2 to 7 days, Pupae - 3 to 6 days, Adults 5-20 says. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Life span of house fly is?
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 1 month
D. 1 year
| 1 month |
51ed6d0c-c3b4-4ce7-91af-d459060c70ec | Ref Robbins 9/e p635 Reticulocytes are stained in living state in-vitro so staining with dyes like brilliant cresyl blue and new methylene blue is preferred road supra vital staining Brilliant cresyl blue is a supravital stain used for counting reticulocytes. It is classified as an oxazine dye | Anatomy | Haematology | Reticulocytes are stained by
A. Methylviolet
B. Brilliant cresyl blue
C. Sudan black
D. Indigo carmine
| Brilliant cresyl blue |
46e4e352-d153-43c9-bf21-5452e1cc87f2 | Metoprolol is a cardioselective (b1 selective) blocker and not b2 selective. Esmolol is the shoest acting b -blocker and is useful for acute treatment. Nadolol is a non-selective b-blocker. It blocks both b1 as well as b2 receptors. Propanolol possesses maximum local anaesthetic activity whereas timolol lacks this propey. | Pharmacology | ANS | An old patient Ram Kishore having asthma and glaucoma is to receive a b blocker. Regarding b blocking drugs:
A. Metoprolol blocks b2 receptors selectively
B. Esmolol's pharmacokinetics are compatible with chronic topical use
C. Nadolol lacks b2 blocking action
D. Timolol lacks the local anaesthetic effects of propanolol
| Timolol lacks the local anaesthetic effects of propanolol |
db17b5ea-bed2-466c-82f8-570204c9719f | Ans. is 'c' i.e., UlnarSite of injuryNerve injuredFracture surgical neck humerusAxillary nerveFracture shaft humerusRadial nerveSupracondylar fractureMedian nerve (anterior interosseous branch)Medial epicondyle fractureUlnar nervePosterior dislocation of HIPSciatic nerveFibular neck fractureCommon peroneal nerve | Orthopaedics | Humerus Fractures | Nerve injured in fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus -
A. Anterior interosseous
B. Median
C. Ulnar
D. Radial
| Ulnar |
825ebdc8-7b2c-4302-81ab-385c2dfac29b | It is a blood volume expander used in treatment of hypovolemia; adjunct in leukapheresis to improve harvesting and increase the yield of granulocytes by centrifugation. Mechanism of Action: Produces plasma volume expansion by viue of its highly colloidal starch structure. Onset of action: Volume expansion: I.V.: Approximately 30 minutes. Contraindications: Renal failure with oliguria or anuria (not related to hypovolemia); any fluid overload condition (eg, pulmonary edema, congestive hea failure); pre-existing coagulation or bleeding disorders. Ref: Wang S. (2012). Chapter 116. Paracentesis. In G.V. Lawry, S.C. McKean, J. Matloff, J.J. Ross, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine. | Pharmacology | null | Hydroxyethyl starch is used as:
A. Plasma expander
B. Inotropic agent
C. Vasodilator
D. Type of dextran
| Plasma expander |
e390c9ee-1682-4281-9a5d-69ef32c51592 | Staphylococcus causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 2-6 hrs after consuming contaminated food (other organisms causing food poisoning within the same time period of 2-6 hrs is Bacillus cereus-Emetic strains). Enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus: It is a preformed toxin that is heat stable (Most of the other exotoxins are heat labile). Site of action: This toxin stimulates the vagus nerve and vomiting center of the brain and also stimulates the intestinal peristaltic activity. Most common type of enterotoxin: Type A. 1-6 hrs incubation period Staphylococcus aureus: Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.source :Ham, poultry, potato, cream pastries, mayonnaise Bacillus cereus: Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and source is Fried rice 8-16 hrs incubation period Clostridium perfringes Abdominal cramps, diarrhea and source:Beef, poultry, legume, gravies Bacillus cereus Abdominal cramps, diarrhea and source: Meats, vegetables, dried beans, cereals >16 hrs incubation period Vibrio cholerae Watery diarrhea Shellfish, and source:water Salmonella species Inflammatory diarrhea and source: Beef, poultry, eggs Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Bacteriology | A 23-year-old male patient presents to the OPD with nausea, vomiting, & four episodes of loose stools. On history taking, he reveals to have consumed food from a restaurant 3 hours back. The most likely etiologic organism is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Salmonella
D. Vibrio cholerae
| Staphylococcus aureus |
aa3866be-aee3-4351-b3fe-53b5fef45745 | (B) Lithium # With Lithium treatment, patients have been shown to present a decreased risk of suicide (especially when treated with Lithium) and a reduction of frequency and severity of their episodes, which in turn moves them toward a stable life and reduces the time they spend ill.> In order to maintain their state of balance, therapy is often continued indefinitely, as around 50% of the patients who dis- continue it relapse quickly and experience either full-blown episodes or sub-syndromal symptoms that bring significant functional impairments.> There is a high rate of suicide among people with untreated bipolar disorder, and studies show that lithium treatment significantly reduces this risk.> Conversely, patients who discontinue lithium treatment are 20 times as likely to commit suicide during the first 6 months following discontinuation. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | Drug that is mostly used to decrease the suicidal tendencies in Manic Bipolar Disorder
A. Fluoxetine
B. Lithium
C. Carbamazepine
D. Risperidone
| Lithium |
53bf2d60-6d9e-4ebc-bead-127208b84915 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid colon The sigmoid colon is the most common site of diveiculosis. | Pathology | null | Most common site for diveiculosis is?
A. Sigmoid colon
B. Ascending colon
C. Transverse colon
D. Spleenic flexure
| Sigmoid colon |
8ef3db7a-6d2f-4ab3-949c-124841f2d408 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hydrogen sulphide o Color of post-mortem staining in various poisoning:POISONCOLORCarbon mono-oxide and hypothermiaCherry redHCN, bumsBright redNitrites, potassium chlorate, potassium bicarbonateChocolate orNitrobenzene, acetanilide, bromates, aniline (causing methaemoglobinuria)Copper brownPhosphorousDark brown or yellowHydrogen sulphideBluish green | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | Green blue postmortem discoloration is seen in which poisoning -
A. Cyanide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Phosphorous
D. Hydrogen sulphide
| Hydrogen sulphide |
902d2bec-86b6-411d-b2fb-c99b5174c6c8 | Secondary injury is caused by person violently falling on ground (road) or on stationary object. | Forensic Medicine | null | Injury caused to the pedestrian in a vehicular accident due to his/her striking onto the object on road is known as -
A. Primary injury
B. Secondary injury
C. Acceleration injury
D. Decceleration injury
| Secondary injury |
1ab5ff17-c5a4-4853-b0c9-2e89ceae29bb | Microscopic pathological study in Retinoblastoma shows various patterns like Homer-wright Flexner wintersteiner Fleurettes Refer khurana 6/e | Anatomy | General anatomy | Pseudorosettes are seen in
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Ophthalmia nodosa
C. Phacolytic glaucoma
D. Trachoma
| Retinoblastoma |
241e47bb-1cc1-4a0f-af10-a9e7877ef2af | 174 CrPC- Procedure for inquest in unnatural death 174 (3) CrPC- Inquest rights for deaths of a married woman within 7 years of her marriage either by suicide or under any other suspicious circumstances. 39 CrPC- Public should intimate the police in case of any crime. 176 CrPC- It gives the procedure of inquest by Magistrate into cause of death. | Forensic Medicine | JIPMER 2018 | Patient died during surgery/under anesthesia, which among here applies for the surgeon?
A. 174 (3) CrPC
B. 174 CrPC
C. 39 CrPC
D. 176 CrPC
| 174 CrPC |
03d5bd64-e292-4459-bc5a-afc2ff4be2df | Ca2+ influx through more slowly opening Ca2+ channels produces the plateau phase The initial depolarization is due to Na+ influx through rapidly opening Na+ channels Repolarization is due to net K+ efflux through multiple types of K+ channels Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:491 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Plateau phase of cardiac muscle is due to
A. East Na + channel opening
B. Opeaning of Ca++Na+ channels
C. Opeaning of Slow Ca++ channels
D. Opeaning of K + channels
| Opeaning of Slow Ca++ channels |
07514480-3862-415c-bf25-f3e783953b8e | During pregnancy recommended allowance of vitamin A is 800mcg . REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 616 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Dose of vitamin A during pregnancy -
A. 600 mg
B. 800 mg
C. 950 mg
D. 350 mg
| 800 mg |
0062094b-0ad3-4f89-b506-8fad48b8e9d8 | PITYRIASIS VERSICOLOR:-Tinea versicolor.Macules with fine scaling.Causative organism: dimorphic fungi.genus Malassezia globosa and M.furfur. Clinical features:- Hypo/hyperpigmented macules with fine ,branny scales. The lesions may coalesce to involve large areas,forming map like structures. Scraping the surface will accentuate the scaling,known as scratch sign or coup d'ongle sign or Besnier sign. Sites involved-upper trunk( mainly). Also affect face and flexural areas. Investigation:- Wood's lamp examination - golden yellow flourescence. Scraping and direct microscopy after adding KOH will demonstrate presence of both yeast and hyphal forms.This appearance is called as "spaghetti and meatball" appearance. Tuberous sclerosis gives a bluish white flourescence with wood's lamp examination.The macules with their long axis longitudinally distributed on the limbs and transversly on the trunk are seen more on wood's lamp examination. Erythrasma- causative organism- corynebacterium minutissimum shows coral red flourescence due to production of coproporphyrin 3. Pseudomonas:Contains pigments pyoverdin or fluorescein giving green flourescence. {Reference: IADVL textbook of dermatology, page 109. | Dental | miscellaneous | Yellow fluorescence on wood&;s lamp is seen in -
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Pseudomonas infection
C. Tinea versicolor
D. Erythrasma
| Tinea versicolor |
7863770a-d822-46da-a63d-99008d54c6c8 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malignant melanoma Markers for melnnonaS-100 - 90% of tumors are positiveHMB-45 - More specific but less sensitive than S-100TA-90Important markersTumoro S-100. HMB-45o TA-90o NMP-22MelanomaMelanoma, colon & breast ca.Urinary bladder ca.Neuroendocrine tumors (small cell ca of lung, carcinoid tumor & neuroblastoma)Ovarian Ca.Ovarian, pancreatic & gastric Ca.Pancreatic & colorectal CaEpithelial ovarian tumorBreast Cancer.o Neuron Specific enalaseoChromouraninAo Lipid associated Sialic acid (LASA-P)o CA 72-4o CA 19-9o CA 125o CA 27.29 &CA 15-3 | Unknown | null | HMB 45 is tumor marker for -
A. Malignant melanoma
B. Mesothelioma
C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
D. Pancreatic carcinoma
| Malignant melanoma |
1d46fb0d-5dde-494f-a837-07bc9634c0d3 | *Distichiasis i.e. an abnormal extra row of cilia taking place of meibomian glands. Ref: Khurana ophthalmology 7th/e p.386 | Ophthalmology | Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus | Distichiasis is-
A. Abnormal inversion of eyelashes
B. Abnormal extra row of cilia
C. Abnormal eversion of eyelashes
D. Misdirected cilia
| Abnormal extra row of cilia |
581c6beb-e42f-4d2c-b1cd-ba060733e953 | The presence of meconium in urine reflects some form of communication between the urinary tract and rectum, and suggests a high type of anorectal malformation. Such patients require a diveing colostomy. The colostomy decompresses the bowel and provides protection during the healing of subsequent repair. Posterior Saggital Anorectoplasty (PSARP) is performed after 4-8 weeks. The presence of meconium in urine and a flat bottom are considered indications of a protective colostomy. | Surgery | Pediatric Surgery | A newborn baby presents with absent anal orifice and meconuria. What is the most appropriate management:
A. Transverse colostomy
B. Conservative management
C. Posterior saggital anorectoplasty
D. Perineal V-Y plasty
| Transverse colostomy |
86f9366c-c8ec-4db7-941e-2039bb0fcc42 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Spontaneous abortion * Among all the cases of choriocarcinoma:# 50% develop following a hydatidiform mole#' 25% develop following an abortion# 20% develop following a full-term pregnancy and 5% develop following an ectopic pregnancy* As vesicular mole is not in the options, abortion is the answer. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Incidence of choriocarcinoma is seen more after:
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Spontaneous abortion
C. Normal delivery
D. Cesarean section
| Spontaneous abortion |
79e99245-a83c-4586-ad85-9503956afc34 | Dexmedetomidine is alpha 2 agonist, more sensitive than clonidine. It is used to produce conscious sedation. | Anaesthesia | null | Dexmedetomidine is
A. Selective alpha 2 blocker
B. Agent of choice for conscious sedation
C. Less sensitive to alpha 2 receptors than clonidine
D. Good analgesic
| Agent of choice for conscious sedation |
f1483896-9b92-44b4-99f5-111c175feffe | Amongst the three Z drugs, zaleplon has the shoest half life of one hours, half life of zolpidem is 2.4 hours whereas that zopiclone is 5 hours. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | Shoest acting non benzodiazepine sedative is:
A. Zolpidem
B. Zaleplon
C. Zopiclone
D. Midazolam
| Zaleplon |
9703cb3f-62b5-47b2-8674-eae8439f4231 | Ans. (a) Life Expectancy* Life Expectancy is a 'Positive mortality indicator'ALSO REMEMBER* DALY is a type of disability rate* Bed turn-over ratio is a type of heath care utilization rate | Social & Preventive Medicine | Indicators of Health | Which of the following is a Mortality Indicator?
A. Life Expectancy
B. Notification Rate
C. DALY
D. Bed turn-over ratio
| Life Expectancy |
6a33a749-4f99-455d-8bd3-7aafbcdd3dec | Refer kDT 7/e p 111 Oximes are in effective in carbamate poisoning. Rathre, this can worsen the poisoning due to weak anticholinesterase activity by its own | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | In oral poisoning with carbamate insecticide_______ may be hazardous
A. Pralidoxime
B. Atropine
C. Magnesium sulfate purgative
D. Gastric lavage with activated charcoal
| Pralidoxime |
665f972a-3ede-4202-b7e4-c56cf9604f8b | Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Intense fear of becoming fat * Restriction of food intake * Restricting type * Binge eating and purging type * Amenorrhea is not needed for diagnosis, previously amenorrhea is considered as a diagnostic criteria for diagnosis, in recent DSM 5 amenorrhea is considered for a diagnosis * Association= * OCD and depression * Decreased interest in sex * Complication * 7-14% moality * ECG changes * Hypokalemic alkalosis because of induced vomiting * Gastric dilation * Drugs * Cypro hepatidine * SSRI * Management * Admit in severe cases * Prevent vomiting by making restroom inaccessible for 2 hours after food intake * Avoid laxatives * Small frequent meals * Avoid refeeding syndrome Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 509 | Anatomy | Sleep disorders and eating disorders | need for thinness inspite of being lean is a feuture of
A. anorexia nervosa
B. bulimia nervosa
C. metabolic syndrome
D. binge eating
| anorexia nervosa |
512983d1-1ded-4985-ba72-98855f97996e | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Short term fluctuation * Point source (single exposure) epidemic is short term fluctuation.* There are three kinds of time trends or fluctuations in disease occurenceA. Short term fluctuations - epidemics.B. Secular trends or long term fluctuations.C. Periodic fluctuation. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Point shource epidemic is -
A. Short term fluctuation
B. Periodic fluctuation
C. Long term fluctuation
D. Secular trend
| Short term fluctuation |
8a49d043-fe46-4f3b-8c74-002e67778573 | Chronic CCF will lead to low GFR. The subsequent activation of RAAS will lead to increased renin and secondary aldosteronism. Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism : Conn syndrome (adrenal adenoma): 60% Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (Micronodular): 60% Cushing syndrome Syndrome of apparent mineralocoicoid excess Adrenocoical carcinoma Congenital adrenal hyperplasia | Medicine | Cushing Syndrome | Which of the following is not a cause of features of primary hyperaldosteronism?
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Adrenal hyperplasia
D. Chronic CCF
| Chronic CCF |
c4cb5c3a-1c87-4595-b67f-3e2239c5907f | Types of monoclonal protein in multiple myeloma include IgG,(55%),IgA(21%), light chain only(22%), others(D,E,non-secretory about 2%).Reference :Davidson's principles & practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 1046. | Medicine | Haematology | Not affected in multiple myeloma -
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
| IgM |
82f6faef-3385-4eef-9ac5-0d2a9f593519 | Sound levels of some noises: Whisper: 20-30db Normal conversation 60-70db Mechanical damage; 150-160db Acceptable noise levels: expressed in db (A), sound pressure levels conforming to weighing curve (A) acceptable noise level < 85dbAuditory fatigue > 90 dbPermanent hearing loss > 100 dbTympanic membrane damage > 160 db. Environment Place Acceptable noise level Db (A) Residential Bed room 25 Living room 40 Commercial Office 30-45 Conference 40-45 Restaurants 40-60 Industries Workshop 40-60 Laboratory 40-50 Education Class room 30-40 Library 35-40 Hospitals Wards 20-35 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Air, Light, Sound, Housing, Radiation, Waste Disposal | Whispering produces a sound of:
A. 20-30db
B. 30-40db
C. 40-50db
D. 50-60db
| 20-30db |
b2edd57b-e014-4684-a96d-50f5ae8fdf67 | Pneumothorax requires urgent needle thoracocentesis and/or Intercostal drainage. Pneumothorax is a known complication of endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation and is certainly not an indication for the same. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?
A. Maintenance of a patent airway
B. To provide positive pressure ventilation
C. Pulmonary toilet
D. Pneumothorax
| Pneumothorax |
107edbc2-a5f7-4783-85b0-d39ea8c30f8f | Ans. 'a' i.e., Length of long bones o Hep Bum Osteometric board is used to accurately measure length of long bones.Hepburn Osteometric Boardo It is ait instrument used to measure length oflong bones.o It has a rectangular base with ruler fixed along one of its long sides,o An upright is fixed at one end of the board and a second one slides along the board.o Bone is placed with one of its ends along the fixed upright and the movable upright is brought upto the other end of the bone. The distance between the uprights is the length of the long bone,o Stature can be calculated from the length of long bones and used for identification. Femur and tibia give more accurate values compared to humerus and radius. | Forensic Medicine | Identification - Medicolegal aspects | Hep Burn Osteometric board is used to measure-
A. Length of long bones
B. Length of flat bones
C. Breadth of long bones
D. Breadth of flat bones
| Length of long bones |
63f1f5be-3082-4248-94a7-97a2dd1e61de | Renal failure patients given repeated doses of pethidine are prone to experience similar effects. All the other drugs are safe in renal failure. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Which among the following drug is contra-indicated in renal failure?
A. Pethidine
B. Morphine
C. Fentanyl
D. Atracurium
| Pethidine |
5ee0e0a5-dc18-4ba9-83b0-17a317e87dc2 | Genotype of embryo is established at feilization. But male and female embryos are phenotypically distinguishbletill week 6. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Male-female differentiation of fetus occurs at
A. 2-4 weeks
B. 10-12 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 24-26 weeks
| 10-12 weeks |
d7356a09-d2d2-4a60-9aa0-4fc56b563190 | The use of broad spectrum antibiotics such as ampicillin and clindamycin has been associated with pseudomembranous colitis. Antibiotic administration results in the proliferation of drug resistant C. difficile that produces Toxin A (a potent enterotoxin with cytotoxic activity) and Toxin B (a potent cytotoxin). This disease is best treated by discontinuing the use of the offending antibiotic and administering oral doses of metronidazole or vancomycin. Administration of antibiotics may also lead to a milder form of diarrhea, called antibiotic associated diarrhea. This form is associated with C. difficile in about 25 percent of the time. | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Which of the following organism causes a life-threatening gastroenteritis as a result of use of a broad spectrum antimicrobial agents
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Clostridium difficile
| Clostridium difficile |
77e93ead-40cb-41f2-b642-bb8a4ce20c7d | Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed pg no:133 botulinum toxin and beta-bungaro toxin inhibits the release of Ach into the synapse | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Botulinum toxin acts by
A. Secretion of Ach
B. Synthesis of ACh
C. Inhibits Ach release
D. Muscle nerve block
| Inhibits Ach release |
009e7a81-382e-4a7a-b8f1-b1a3ee60f8eb | M/C type - Adenocarcinoma Non-specific Tumour Marker - CEA Specific Tumour Marker - CA 19.9 Chemotherapy Regimen - Gemcitabine MC site of metastasis - Liver M/C site for CA pancreas - Head > Body > Tail Neuroendocrine Tumors (NET) of Pancreas- M/C NET of Pancreases - Non-Functional (PPOMA)- M/C functional NET of Pancreas - Insulinoma- M/C functional & Malignant NET of Pancreas - Gastrinoma | Surgery | Pancreas | The commonest pancreatic tumor is:
A. Ductal adenocarcinoma
B. Cystadenoma
C. Insulinoma
D. Non islet cell tumor
| Ductal adenocarcinoma |
4e2c1655-75d3-40f8-ab8e-b4b3d1e887fb | Chronic granulomatous disease is a rare, X-linked deficiency of NADPH oxidase activity which drastically impairs the ability of macrophages and neutrophils to destroy pathogens. Patients are especially vulnerable to mycobacteria, E coli, and staphylococcus since these organisms produces catalase to defend themselves against hydrogen peroxide attack by phagocytes. | Biochemistry | null | NADPH oxidase deficiency causes impaired immunity which of the follwoing process?
A. Chedickhigasi syndrome
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Leucocyte adhesion defect type 1
D. Leucocyte adhesion defect type 2
| Chronic granulomatous disease |
6bf37d4b-282d-46f4-9051-d116a86a3933 | This is a case of cubital tunnel syndrome, which is caused by compression or irritation of the ulnar nerve as it passes under the medial epicondyle before it branches to deep and superficial branches. Symptoms are usually tingling and numbness in the cutaneous distribution of the ulnar nerve. In severe cases, muscle weakness may be apparent, with atrophy of the hypothenar eminence.Also know: Deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies:Hypothenar compamentAdductor pollicisDorsal interosseiPalmar interosseiMedial lumbricalsSuperficial branch of ulnar nerve supplies:Palmaris brevis Surrounding skin of the digit 5 and the medial side of digit 4 | Anatomy | null | A patient presented with numbness of little and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar muscles. The nerve damaged will be?
A. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar
B. Deep branch of ulnar
C. Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches
D. Posterior cord of brachial plexus
| Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches |
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