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e4f8c2d8-44f1-41c7-8728-e23673e67a80 | Precursor tRNA is processed to form mature tRNA. Alterations during processing are of three types: nucloelytic reactions, nucleoside modifications, terminal additions of nucleotides. Chemical hydrolysis is not a pa of RNA processing. Poly A tailing and 5'capping occurs in the processing of RNA. Methylation and deamination are known to occur. Introns will be removed after cleavage in the process. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following doesn't occur during the processing of RNA?
A. Terminal addition
B. Nucleoside modification
C. Nucleoside cleavage
D. Chemical hydrolysis
| Chemical hydrolysis |
27e1bf61-14b8-427b-be90-14b1c9ff3a0f | Ans. C Abducens* All the extraocular muscles are supplied by CN III except lateral rectus and superior oblique.* Lateral rectus supplied by--CN VI* Superior oblique supplied by--CN IVRemember- LR6;SO4 | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Which cranial nerve supplies lateral rectus muscle?
A. Trochlear
B. Trigeminal
C. Abducens
D. Glossopharyngeal
| Abducens |
aeb834d8-c8b4-47bc-944c-17281e690401 | Ans. c (RMP + INH + PZM + ETM); (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/pg. 175)Treatment categories and sputum examination schedule in DOTS chemotherapy in IndiaTREATMENT REGIMENSPUTUM EXAMINATIONS FOR PULMONARY TBCategory of treatmentType of patientRegimenPret- reat- ment sputumTest at monthIF: result is-----THEN:New cases Category I Red BoxNew sputum smear-positiveNew sputum smear-negativeNew extra-pulmonary**New others2(HRZEE)3+4(HR)3+2-Start continuation phase, test sputum again at 4 and 6 months +Continue intensive phase for one more monthComplete the treatment in 7 monthsPreviouslyTreatedCategory IIBlue BoxSputum smear positiveRelapse***Sputum smear-positiveFailure***Sputum smear-positive treatment after default others2(HRZES)3+1(HRZE)3+5(HRE)3+3-Start continuation phase, test sputum again at 5 months 6 months, completion of treatment + + Continue intensive phase for one more month, test sputum again at 4 months if sputum is positive send sputum for culture and drug sensitivity as it might be a case of MDR-TB* The number before the laetters refers to the number of months of treatment. The subcript after the letters refers to the number of doses per week. H; Isoniazid (600 mg), R: Rifampi (450 mg), Z: pyrazinamide (1500 mg), E: Ethambutol (1200 mg), S: Streptomycin (750 mg).Patients who weigh more than 60 kg receilve additional Rifampicin 150 mg. Patients more than 50 years old receive streptomycin 500 mg.Patients in categories I and II, who have a positive sputum smear at the end of the initial intensive phase, receive an additional month of intensive phase treatment.** Examples of seriously ill extra-pulmonary TB cases are meningitis, disseminated TB, tuberculous pericarditis, peritonitis, bilateral or extensive pleurisy, spinal TB with neurological complications and intestinal and genito-urinary TB.*** In rare and exceptional cases, patients who are sputum smear-negative or who have extra-pulmonary disease can have relapse or failure. This diagnosis in all such cases should always be made by an MO and should be supported by culture or histological evidence of current, active tuberculosis. In these cases, the patient should be categorized as 'Other' and given Category II treatment. Any patient treated with Category I who has a positsive smear at 5 months of treatment should be considered a failure and started onCategory II treatment, afresh. If category I sputum smear-ve case fails to improve or if patient develops pulmonary signs and positive smear at the end of intensive phase, it is considered treatment failure. Start category II treatment and confirm failure by culture and perform DST. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | Treatment of recently sputum positive case of pulmonary TB is
A. RMP + INH + PZM
B. RMP + INH + PZM + SMC
C. RMP + INH + PZM + ETM
D. RMP + INH + ETM
| RMP + INH + PZM + ETM |
990457bf-05eb-4c82-ba2e-015421f746a9 | Diveicular disease is the most common cause of colovesical fistula, followed by colon cancer and Crohn disease. Diveicular disease and colon cancer are rare in people younger than 40 years. Here this patient is young; hence the most suitable answer is Crohn's disease. Ref: ACP Medicine: Volume 1, 2007, Page 816. | Surgery | null | In a 27 yr old male most common cause of a colo-vesical fistula would be:
A. Crohns disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. TB
D. Cancer colon
| Crohns disease |
5676c39c-f60b-4ccd-9509-91428fa7df61 | Lactose operone or Lac operon The lac operon is a region of DNA in the genome of E. coli that contains following genetic elements ? i) Three structural genes :- These code for 3 proteins that are involved in catabolism of lactose. These genes are 'Z' gene (codes for P-galactosidase), 'Y' gene (codes for galactoside permease), and 'A' gene (codes for thiogalactoside transacetylase). ii) Regulatory gene (lac i) It produces repressor protein. iii) A promotor site (P) :- It is the binding site for RNA polymerase. It contains two specific regions ? a) CAP site (Catabolite activator protein binding site). b) RNA polymerase binding site iv) An operator site (0) :- Repressor binds to this site and blocks transcription. 3 Structural genes are expressed only when '0' site is empty (repressor is not bound) and the CAP site is bound by a complex of cAMP and CAP (catabolite gene activator protein). | Biochemistry | null | Number of structural gene in Lac operon
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
| 3 |
b9e8bc7b-1521-43d6-9890-de7ac80d81c0 | Ans. is 'c' ie Epiphysis Apley's orthopedics writes - "Chondroblastoma is one of the few lesion to appear primarily in the epiphysis" | Orthopaedics | Bone Tumour | Chondroblastoma most commonly occurs in :
A. Metaphysis
B. Diaphysis
C. Epiphysis
D. Medullary cavity
| Epiphysis |
5e40f87b-3d60-45ab-b5dd-63e7df7e6b98 | Laudanosine is metabolic end product of atracurium. | Anaesthesia | null | Laudanosine is metabolic end product of
A. Mivacurium
B. Doxacurium
C. Rocuronium
D. Atracurium
| Atracurium |
63ffc17d-d422-4f81-83b1-45171b0b15d5 | Cephalic index 1.Dolicocephalic ( long headed) 70-75 2.Mesaticephalic(medium headed) 75- 80 3. Brachycephalic( sho headed) 80-85 Present study aimed at working outcephalic index in Indian students. 100 students were taken as subjects and head length, head breadth were measured. Indian males had meancephalic index of 77.92 and they were mesocephalic and females had mean cephalic index of 80.85 and they were brachycephalic. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS PAGE NO 67 | Forensic Medicine | Identification | Cephalic index 75- 80 is seen in
A. Indians
B. Europeans
C. Chinese
D. Mongolians
| Indians |
285006de-c1e2-4c96-82a2-4b18a47099ab | Hot flushes are caused by noradrenaline, which disturbs the thermoregulatory system. Oestrogen deficiency reduces hypothalamic endorphins, which release more norepinephrine and serotonin. This leads to inappropriate heat loss mechanism. Other causes that can be associated with the symptom of hot flushes include: thyroid disease, epilepsy, pheochromocytoma, carcinoid syndromes, autoimmune disorders, mast cell disorders, insulinoma, pancreatic tumours and even leukemias. REF : Shaw book of gynecology | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | Hot flushes are experienced as a result of
A. Increased noradrenaline
B. Decreased estrogen
C. Increased noradrenaline and decreased estrogen
D. Increased noradrenaline and estrogen
| Increased noradrenaline and decreased estrogen |
1ece3df0-5b5c-4487-8bb2-a23c02bff7c4 | Parathyroid glands: The parathyroid glands are small, yellowish-brown, ovoid or lentiform structures, usually lies between the posterior lobar borders of the thyroid gland and its capsule.
They are commonly 6 mm long, 3-4 mm across, and 1-2 mm from back to front, each weighing about 50 mg.
Usually, there are two on each side, superior and inferior. Variations: There may be only three or many minute parathyroid islands scattered in connective tissue near the usual sites.
Normally the inferior parathyroids migrate only to the inferior thyroid poles, but they may descend with the thymus into the thorax or not descend at all, remaining above their normal level near the carotid bifurcation.
To help identification, the anastomotic connection between the superior and inferior thyroid arteries along the posterior border of the thyroid gland usually passes very close to the parathyroids. The inferior pair are more variably situated, and may be within the fascial thyroid sheath, below the inferior thyroid arteries and near the inferior lobar poles; or outside the sheath, immediately above an inferior thyroid artery; or in the thyroid gland near its inferior pole. The superior parathyroids are usually dorsal, the inferior parathyroids ventral, to the recurrent laryngeal nerves. Vasculature:
The parathyroid glands have a rich blood supply from the inferior thyroid arteries or from anastomoses between the superior and inferior vessels.
Approximately one-third of human parathyroid glands have two or more parathyroid arteries.
Lymph vessels are numerous and associated with those of the thyroid and thymus glands.
Nerve supply:The nerve supply is sympathetic, either direct from the superior or middle cervical ganglia or via a plexus in the fascia on the posterior lobar aspects.
Parathyroid activity is controlled by variations in blood calcium level: it is inhibited by a rise and stimulated by a fall.
The nerves are believed to be vasomotor but not secretomotor Histology : Contains two types of cells Active cells or chief cells which produce parathormone.
Chief cells differ ultrastructurally according to their level of activity: active chief cells have large Golgi complexes with numerous vesicles and small membrane-bound granules.
Glycogen granules are most abundant in inactive cells, which appear histologically as ‘clear' cells.
In normal human parathyroid glands, inactive chief cells outnumber active cells in a ratio of 3-5:1 Second cell type, the oxyphil (eosinophil) cell, appears just before puberty and increases in number with age.
Oxyphil cells are larger than chief cells and contain more cytoplasm, which stains deeply with eosin.
Their nuclei are smaller and more darkly staining than those of chief cells, and their cytoplasm is unusually rich in mitochondria.
The functional significance of oxyphil cells and their relationship to chief cells are uncertain | Anatomy | null | How many parathyroid glands do humans have?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
| 4 |
7817419f-7c0e-46a7-8fbe-1e89b3a0715f | Normal adults contain less than 1mg/dL of total bilirubin out of which less than 0.25 mg/dL is conjugated bilirubin. Unconjugated bilirubin is estimated by substracting direct bilirubin value (Harsh mohan page 593) | Medicine | G.I.T | Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia-
A. 85% of the total should be indirect
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Haemoglobin destruction ( bilirubin production)
D. 50% of the total should be indirect
| 85% of the total should be indirect |
958cd7de-be16-4c0f-ade7-5c86c6ba1dba | Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and obsessive compulsive personality disorders a(OCPD)two different types of disorders OCD is classified under anxiety disorders whereas OCPD is classified under personality disorder Patients with OCD have recurrent, irresistible, irrelevant and intrusive thoughts that are EGO DYSTONIC. They will present with repeated doubts wheather they have locked the door and vehicles, repeated contamination thoughts and does acts to counter this obsessions. These acts are called as compulsions. OCPD , a type of cluster C personality which is characterized by Preoccupied with rules Perfectionism that interferes with task completion Inflexibility Devoted to work Stubbornness EGO SYNTONICITY IS THE CHARACTERISTIC FEUTURE Key note. OCD= EGO DYSTONIC OCPD= EGO SYNTONIC Ref. Kaplan and sadock synopsis of psychiatry, 11e, Pg.756. | Psychiatry | Personality disorders | 25 years old gentleman has repeated thoughts that he has not locked his car door properly and frequently checks it while driving. He also repeatedly checks locks in his house. Diagnosis is
A. OCD
B. OPCD
C. Phobia
D. Somatoform disorder
| OCD |
c0a70046-2318-497a-911c-c4a76b0ea390 | Glutamic acid is responsible for umami taste Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 713,714,715 | Physiology | Nervous system | Umami taste is evoked by
A. Glucose
B. Glutamic acid
C. Quinine
D. Sodium chloride
| Glutamic acid |
c86b146c-2c6e-496b-8184-8cf8947cfffa | G-banding (most common) R-banding Q-banding C-banding T-banding G stands for Giemsa R stands for "reverse" Q stands for Quinacrine Fluoroescent dye C stands for Constitutive heterochromatin or Centromere T stands for telomeres to produce a visible karyotype Dark regions are heterochromatin (AT) Light regions are Euchromatin (GC) Dark regions are euchromatin Bright regions are heterochromatin | Biochemistry | Techniques in molecular biology | Banding technique most commonly employed for cytogenetic analysis
A. G banding
B. C banding
C. R banding
D. Q banding
| G banding |
07ae069c-2a0c-4e59-96f5-3f68b68a9cb4 | Reverse transcriptase transcripts a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template. This enzyme is programmed to use a single-stranded RNA template, and to synthesize a complementary DNA (cDNA) strand. Ref: Measuring Gene Expression, Matthew B. Avison, 2007, Page 135 | Biochemistry | null | The enzyme which transcripts a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is:
A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase
C. Reverse transcriptase
D. Phosphokinase
| Reverse transcriptase |
815bd485-1d12-495d-af56-ea0a26d2ead0 | the aim of xenobiotics metabolism is to increase water solubility so that these compounds can be exceed through urine. (Ref-Goodman Gillman 12th/e p124/125) | Anatomy | General anatomy | What is the rationale behind xenobiotic metabolism by CYP enzymes?
A. increases water solubility
B. increases lipid solubility
C. conversion to an active metabolite
D. makes it suitable to evaporate through skin surface
| increases water solubility |
84a464ad-bbed-481f-8357-657edfb655ef | Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed Pg.310 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Incubation period of Nipah virus
A. 4 -14 days
B. 2 - 6 days
C. 3 -8 days
D. 5 - 10 days
| 4 -14 days |
7eaa9d3d-72e1-4211-b783-64d0d0fd214b | Ans. A. NimodipineNimodipine is cerebro selective calcium channel blocker. Given in patients with hemorrhagic stroke. Nicardipine also have similar effects. This drugs reverse the cerebral vasospasm. | Pharmacology | C.V.S | Drug indicated in case of subarachnoid hemorrhage:
A. Nimodipine
B. Amlodipine
C. Diltiazem
D. Verapamil
| Nimodipine |
ae8e864d-3b33-4585-9b33-c315fc9aa66b | Ayushman Bharat is National Health Protection Scheme, which will cover over 10 crore poor and vulnerable families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) providing coverage up to 5 lakh rupees per family per year for secondary and teiary care hospitalization. Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission will subsume the on-going centrally sponsored schemes - Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) and the Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS). | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Ayushman Bharat is
A. Health education program
B. Health protection scheme
C. Health personnel training
D. Health practicing guidelines
| Health protection scheme |
14288a14-ade9-478c-bd38-deb7f28ae565 | Ref. Grainger and Allison's Diagnostic Radiology. Page. 483
Pagets disease of bone affects each person differently . It includes :
1 Bones : Pain in the affected bones is the most common symptom of pagets disease of bone.
Skull in Pagets disease
osteoporosis circumscripta: large, well-defined lytic lesion
cotton wool appearance: mixed lytic and sclerotic lesions of the skull
diploic widening: both inner and outer calvarial tables are involved, with the former usually more extensively affected
Tam o'Shanter sign: frontal bone enlargement, with the appearance of the skull falling over the facial bones, like a Tam o' Shanter hat | Unknown | null | A 56-year old man presented with bony pain. X-ray skull lateral view shows:
A. Pagets disease
B. Hyper osteosis frontalis
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Osteopetrosis
| Hyper osteosis frontalis |
fd1ce6b8-68c7-4bc7-b837-3acecd8fbfa3 | Formerly the term agoraphobia was used to denote phobias of open spaces alone but it is now used in a wider sence, i.e. irrational fear of places and situations from where escape might be difficult. Such places are public places, stores, crowd, travelling alone in bus, train or plane or in lift. | Psychiatry | null | Agoraphobia is -a) Fear of open spacesb) Fear of closed specesc) Fear of heightsd) Fear of crowded places
A. b
B. c
C. ad
D. ab
| ad |
86cfff54-25f9-4a56-ae49-6eff0164bd54 | NEUTROPHILS AND EOSINOPHILS EMPLOY NETS TO ENTRAP PARASITESIn addition to ingesting small microorganisms such as bacteria by phagocytosis, neutrophils and eosinophils can assist in the elimination of larger invaders by trapping them within webs called neutrophil extracellular traps or NETsRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 54 White Blood Cells | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | Trapping parasites using NETs is assisted by
A. Neutrophils and Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils and Monocytes
C. Eosinophils and Monocytes
D. Nk cells
| Neutrophils and Eosinophils |
c29b9c31-c62f-4cde-958c-9c67e1e3ab17 | a-Helix: A peptide chain forms regular helical coils called a-helix. Type of secondary protein structure. These coils are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between carbonyl O of 1st amino and amide N of 4th amino acid residues. Thus in a aa aa-helix intrachain hydrogen bonding is present. The a aa aa-helices can be either right handed or left handed. Left-handed a-helix is less stable than right-handed a helix because of the steric interference between the C = O and the side chains. Only the right-handed a-helix has been found in protein structure. Each amino acid residue advances by 0.15 nm along the helix, and 3.6 amino acid residues are present in one complete turn. The distance between two equivalent points on turn is 0.54 nm and is called a pitch. Small or uncharged amino acid residues such as alanine, leucine, and phenylalanine are often found in a-helix. More polar residues such as arginine, glutamate, and serine may repel and destabilize a-helix. Proline is never found in a-helix. The proteins of hair, nail, skin contain a group of proteins called keratins rich in a -helical structureRef: Textbook of medical biochemistry, MN Chatterji, 8th edition, page no: 89 | Biochemistry | Structure and function of protein | a-helix of protein is
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Teiary structure
D. Quaery structure
| Secondary structure |
37b0c653-34a8-45ff-94db-b306b8deb50d | Ans. is 'c' i.e., -55 mv * The action potential, which is recorded using an intracellular electrode, has following phases : -1) Resting stage:# This is the resting membrane potential before the action potential. At rest, membrane is said to be "polarized" because - 70 mV negative membrane potential (RMP) that is present. Strictly speaking, it is not a part of the action potential.2) Depolarization phase:# The potential shoots up to + 35 mV in less than a millisecond. It is due to opening of "voltage gated" Na+ channels which causes influx of sodium, so inside negative charge becomes positive.# From -70 mV to -55 mV (firing Ivel or threshold point) the voltage gated sodium channles open partially. This portion of AP (-70 mV to -55 mV) is called "prepotential" or "foot ofAP".# Once the threshold level (-55 mV) is reached voltage gated Na+ channels open completely and the potential shoots up suddenly. It is called depolarization, since it represents loss of the original polarity of cell membrane.3) Repolarization phase:# The potential drops to near resting level, i.e., reversal to original polarity (repolarization). At the start of repolarization (end of depolarization), Voltage - gated Na+ channels close and Voltage - gated K+ channels open which cause efflux of K+ out of the cell. So, inside positive charge once again becomes negative due to efflux of positive charge (K+).4) After depolarization:# The repolarization is very fast till 70% of repolarization has been acheived. After that it is slows down. This slower phase of repolarization is called 'after depolarization\5) After-hyperpolarization:# During repolarization phase K+ channels open and there is K+ efflux. The membrane voltage falls back (repolarizes) to resting potential, i.e., -70 mV. At this voltage, K+ channels close, but quite slowly.# Therefore, more K+ ions leak out, causing a brief period in which the voltage falls below -70 mV, i.e. hyperplorization. Then, K+/Na+ pump works to re-establish resting potential by pumping Na+ ions back out and K+ ions back into the cells. | Physiology | General | Threshold level for neuronal action potential-
A. -70 mv
B. +70 mv
C. -55 mv
D. +55 mv
| -55 mv |
24f934e7-8666-4ab6-ac41-af5b4c40ff07 | Ans. a (Hegar's sign). (Ref Dutta, Obstetrics, 6th ed., p 65)SIGNS OF EARLY PREGNANCY1Jacquemier's or Chadwick's sign (eighth week)Dusky hue of vestibule and anterior vaginal wall.2Osiander's sign (eighth week)Increased pulsations felt through lateral fornices.3Goodell's sign (sixth week)Softening of cervix.4Piskacek's signasymmetrical enlargement of uterus if there is lateral implantation.5Hegar's sign (6--10th week)Variation in uterine consistency due to the enlargement of upper part of the body of uterus and soft and empty lower part of the body with cervix being firm.6Palmer's sign (4--8th week)Regular and rhythmic uterine contractions elicited during bimanual examination.7Palpation of fetal parts can be distinctly made by 20th week of gestation.8Fetal heart may not be audible in cases of maternal obesity, polyhydramnios, IUD and OPP.9Placental signCyclic bleeding up to 12th week of pregnancy until decidual space obliterated. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Which of the following includes the classical triad of ' enlarged upper part of uterus, soft lower part of body and firm cervix 'during early pregnancy?
A. Hegar's sign
B. Jacquemier's sign
C. Osiander's sign
D. Goodell's sign
| Hegar's sign |
2a640a66-0b7d-4b21-a3c8-a42a480d005f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., IgM anti HBc Ab . This is controversial question. . Some people (including me) are in our of IgM anti HBc abs, while other think HBs Ag is the correct answer. . With HBs Ag one can make the diagnosis of HBV infection, but to confirm acute infection, IgM anti HBc is required. See following question of AIIMS 2006. "A 30 years old patient presented with history of jaundice for 10 days. His liver function tests showed bilirubin of 10 mg/dl, SGOT/SGPT - 1100/1450, serum alkaline phosphatase - 240 IU. He was positive for Hbs Ag. What should be the confirmatory test to establish acute hepatitis B infection ?" a) Ig M anti-HBc antibody (correct answer) b) Hbe Ag c) HBV DNA by PCR d) Anti - HBc antibody . When examinar himself giving us answer in the question, why should we create controversy ? . For confirmation of acute infection, we have to do Ig M anti HBc. | Microbiology | null | Acute Hepatitis B can be earliest diagnosed by ?
A. IgM anti HBc ab
B. Hbs Ag
C. IgC anti HBc abs
D. Anti HBs Ag ab
| IgM anti HBc ab |
118328f6-22f1-4acf-87f4-621a9d4f962e | Macular edema refers to the collection of fluid in the outer plexiform(Henle's layer) and an inner nuclear layer of the retina, centered around the foveola.EtiologyIt is associated with a number of disorders. A few common causes are as follows:1. As postoperative complication following cataract extraction and penetrating keratoplasty.2. Retinal vascular disorders e.g., diabetic retinopathy and central retinal vein occlusion.3. Intraocular inflammations e.g., pars planitis, posterior uveitis, Behcet disease.4. As a side-effect of drugs e.g., following use of adrenaline eyedrops, especially for aphakic glaucoma.5. Retinal dystrophies e.g., retinitis pigmentosa.Ref: Khurana; 4th edition; Pg.No. 273 | Ophthalmology | Vitreous and retina | The most common cause of Macular edema is
A. Secondary glaucoma
B. Cataract surgery
C. Retinitis pigmentosa
D. Uveitis
| Cataract surgery |
95ef4d6c-6246-43af-913a-109467abf068 | Methylphenidate is the preferred drug for the treatment of attention deficit hyperkinetic disorder (ADHD). Other drugs used for this indication are amphetamines, atomoxetine and pemoline. Pemoline has been withdrawn due to life threatening hepatotoxicity. | Pharmacology | Sympathetic System | Drug of choice for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is:-
A. Haloperidol
B. Imipramine
C. Alprazolam
D. Methylphenidate
| Methylphenidate |
1c08940a-38cf-4615-8775-d996b78e4b63 | Streptococcus pyogenes, or Group A Streptococcus (GAS), produces a number of virulence factors. The M protein (d) is the organism's most important antiphagocytic factor, and it conveys serologic specificity-over 100 serotypes are now known. In the early stages of growth, the bacteria have hyaluronic acid (b) capsules. This capsule (similar to human hyaluronic acid structure) is rapidly destroyed by the organism's own hyaluronidase. Also known as spreading factor, hyaluronidase plays a role in GAS cellulitis. Erythrogenic toxin (a) is a superantigen produced by some strain of GAS lysogenized by a bacteriophage carrying the toxin gene; it causes the rash of scarlet fever. A second superantigen, streptococcal pyrogenic toxin, causes streptococcal toxic shock syndrome. Streptolysin O (e) an oxygen-labile hemolysin is useful for identification of the organism and is antigenic so antistreptolysin antibodies can be used to diagnosis rheumatic fever, a sequelae of GAS infection. Lipoteichoic acid (c) is a component of the cell wall that is involved in binding of the bacterium to host fibronectin. | Microbiology | General | A child attending classes in a preschool is noted by his teacher to have several skin lesions on his arms. The lesions are pustular in appearance and some have broken down and are covered with a yellow crust. Which of the following protects the most likely etiologic agent of this child's infection from phagocytosis and provides serologic specificity?
A. Erythrogenic toxin
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Lipoteichoic acid
D. M protein
| M protein |
f98ad641-b2c8-4db8-966a-5a1342eef5d6 | Ans. (a) Right gastric and right gastroepiploic arteryRef: Shackelford 7th Edition, Pages 518-520* Best conduit for esophagus after esophagectomy is stomach* This is based on the greater curvature part of stomach: So carefully preserve the Right gastro epiploic artery and Right gastric artery shown below. | Surgery | Oesophagus | Conduit in gastric pull up is based on:
A. Right gastric and right gastroepiploic artery
B. Right gastric and left gastroepiploic artery
C. Left gastric and right gastroepiploic artery
D. Left gastric and left gastroepiploic artery
| Right gastric and right gastroepiploic artery |
6080bb58-9d1b-4a57-8448-d39d3b1051a8 | Ans: a (Fetal urine) Ref: Dutta, 6th ed, p. 37After 20 weeks of gestation the main contribution of amniotic fluid is by fetal urine. The fetal daily urine output at term is about 400-1200 ml.Theories on origin of amniotic fliud1. Asa transudate from maternal serum2. As a transudate across umbilical cord or from the fetal circulation in the placenta or secretion from amniotic epithelium3. Transudate of fetal plasma through fetal skin4. Fetal urineVolume50 ml at 12 wks400 ml at 20 wks1000 ml at 36-38 wks800 ml at termAbnormal colors of amniotic fluid1. Green- meconium stained, seen in fetal distress2. Golden colour- Rh incompatibility3. Saffron- post maturity4. Dark colour- concealed accidental hemorrhage5. Dark brown (tobacco j uice)-IUD | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | After 20 weeks of gestation main contribution of amniotic fluid is by:
A. Fetal urine
B. Maternal serum filtered through placenta
C. Transudate of fetal plasma through fetal skin
D. Transudate across umbilical cord
| Fetal urine |
e835a453-c4d4-4f02-a053-d54777261077 | CONDUCT MONEY: It is the fee paid to a witness in civil cases at the time of serving the summons, to meet the expenses for attending a cou. If d fee is not paid, or if he feels that the amount is less, the witness can bring this fact to the notice of the Judge before giving evidence& Jude will decide the amount to be paid. In criminal cases, no conduct money is paid. Ref: The synopsis of forensic medicine and Toxicology by Dr. K.S. Narayan Reddy 28th edition pg no-5. | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | In civil cases, conduct money is decided by -
A. Opposite pay
B. Judge
C. Doctor
D. Witness
| Judge |
e4bd696b-6220-44cb-9ae6-ab8b58a1c878 | At 2 years, a child can make simple sentences and uses pronouns. | Pediatrics | null | A child speaks sentences at the age of ?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 18 months
D. 2 years
| 2 years |
556cbdfb-2ea7-449a-b10b-7d14766f82bf | Mental retardation name DSM V: Intellectual disability ICD 11: Disorder of intellectual development | Psychiatry | Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders | What is the new name for mental retardation in ICD-11?
A. Intellectual disability
B. Disorders of intellectual development
C. Mental instability
D. Intellectual deterioration
| Disorders of intellectual development |
8e7596b8-8017-4b18-81dd-694622de56b4 | Amyloidosis is the extracellular deposition of insoluble protein fibrils.
AL- Primary systemic amyloidosis
AA- Secondary amyloidosis
AF- Familial
Aβ2M- In ESRD
Diagnosed by abdominal fat pad aspiration showing apple green birefringence by polarized light microscopy with Congo red stain
High ESR, High ALP
Serum Immunofixation electrophoresis (SIFE), UIFE-sensitive to detect light chains (Lamda more common)
Kidneys- most common involved. Nephrotic range proteinuria, azotemia seen
Heart- second common organ; restrictive cardiomyopathy, low voltage complexes in ECG, sparkly appearance on ECHO heart
Peripheral sensory neuropathy,carpal tunnel syndrome
Large tongue, raccoon-eye sign-Factor X deficiency^ bleeding)
Treatment- AL- Melphalan. dexamethasone, lenalidomide & bortezomib;
HDM/SCT- Autologous stem cell transplantation after high-dose melphalan
High BNP. pro-BNP, troponin T & I in cardiac involvement, used for prognosis too.
AA Amyloidosis: secondary to chronic infections - tuberculosis, SABE or inflammatory conditions like RA, IBD, Castleman's disease
Treat the primary disease, TNF & IL -1 antagonist.
The new drug - Eprodisate for renal AA
AF Amyloidosis: AD, mutant TTR (transthyretin/prealbumin)
° Peripheral & autonomic neuropathy
° Cardiac conduction defects
Aβ2M/ Amyloidosis: associated with ESRD. on hemodialysis
Carpal tunnel syndrome, joint effusions, cystic bone lesions
Decreases with stopping dialysis | Pathology | null | Dystrophic calcification means-
A. Calcification in destroyed tissue with normal calcium level in blood
B. t level of Ca++ deposits
C. Calcification in normal tissue seen in hyperparathyroidism
D. Calcification in destroyed tissues with hyper calcemia
| Calcification in destroyed tissue with normal calcium level in blood |
1ceeb3d2-cde6-4c3d-89eb-ebeef8dcf2f9 | Ans. (c) 1st polar bodyRef.: D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 21-22, 8th ed. / 21, 7th ed./17,19 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Endocrinology in Relation to Reproduction | Ovulation occurs after the extrusion of:
A. Primary oocyte
B. Female pronucleus
C. lstpolar body
D. 2nd polar body
| lstpolar body |
f6f4e8db-78a0-48eb-8627-e303853c2e3a | Answer is A (Cardiovascular Disease): The most common cause of death in patients on chronic dialysis is Cardiovascular Disease. After cardiovascular disease, infections are the second most common cause of death of patients receiving long-term dialysis. Cardiovascular disease is the most common cause of death among patients with chronic kidney disease (ESRD) Cardiovascular disease is the most common cause of death in patients requiring renal replacement therapy (RR T) Cardiovascular disease is the most common cause of death among patients receiving long-term dialysis Infection is the most common cause of death in patients dialyzed for acute renal failure. | Medicine | null | Most common cause of death in chronic dialysis patient is:
A. Cardiovascular Disease
B. Infection
C. Malignancy
D. Anemia
| Cardiovascular Disease |
9b783c2b-b904-466b-8dea-61be9f057ce3 | Ans. (c) Cryptococcus s(j. journal of ,\\,11crobiology 2013 Nov. 3478-3484 13-D-glucan is the component of fungal cell-wall of all fungus (except cryptococcus, zygomycetes and blastomyces dermatidis) which is detectable in case of invasive infection. Currently Fungitell assay is a FDA approved 13-DG assay which is positive in invasive candidiasis, Aspergillism and pneumocystis jirovecii. False positive reaction may be seen with ceain hemodialysis filters, beta lactam antimicrobials and immunoglobulins | Microbiology | null | 1-3 beta-D-glucanassay for fungi is not used for?
A. Aspergillus species
B. Candida species
C. Cryptococcus species
D. Pneumocystis jirovecii
| Cryptococcus species |
33918936-c56f-494e-a87e-f0de6e6e9617 | Diabetic ketoacidosis is characterized by a serum glucose level greater than 250 mg per dL, a pH less than 7.3, a serum bicarbonate level less than 18 mEq per L, an elevated serum ketone level, and dehydration. Insulin deficiency is the main precipitating factor. Diabetic ketoacidosis can occur in persons of all ages, with 14 percent of cases occurring in persons older than 70 years, 23 percent in persons 51 to 70 years of age, 27 percent in persons 30 to 50 years of age, and 36 percent in persons younger than 30 years. The case fatality rate is 1 to 5 percent . Appropriate treatment includes administering intravenous fluids and insulin, and monitoring glucose and electrolyte levels. Cerebral edema is a rare but severe complication that occurs predominantly in children. Physicians should recognize the signs of diabetic ketoacidosis for prompt diagnosis, and identify early symptoms to prevent it. Ref <a href=" | Medicine | Endocrinology | The drug of choice in an 80-year-old patient presenting with hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis -
A. Oral hypoglycemic drugs
B. Intermediate acting insulin
C. Oral drug with intermediate acting insulin
D. Sho acting insulin
| Sho acting insulin |
f6b70d7c-7ed3-45c3-ba82-9b7e2add4637 | Also remember other structures opening in different meatuses.Superior meatus: Posterior ethmoid cellsMiddle meatus: Frontal sinus, maxillary sinus and anterior group of sinusesEthmoid infundibulum: A part of middle meatus, maxillary and sometimes the frontal sinus opens in itInferior meatus: Nasolacrimal ductSphenoethmoid recess: Sphenoid sinus | ENT | Nose and PNS | Opening of nasolacrimal duct is situated in:
A. Superior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Ethmoid infundibulum
D. inferior meatus
| inferior meatus |
256c1241-9493-49db-addb-1252caca93fe | park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition *synthetic pyrethroids devoloped so far are tetramethrin,resethrin,prothrin and propahin *they are now being devoloped to replace natural pyrethrins some are found to be as much as 10ttimes as effective as naturally occuring pyrethrins . | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Not a pyrethram derivative?
A. Cypermethrin
B. Permithrin
C. DDT
D. Resmethrin
| DDT |
1d79fb6a-2829-4109-a7f9-20c24c7584fe | GRASS ROOT LEVEL WORKERS Anganwadi worker: Works at village level Traditional bih attendant: Works at village level Village health guide: Works at village level ASHA: Works at village level Multipurpose worker: Works at sub-centre (5 villages) level. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Rural & Urban Health Centres, Workers, Norms | Which of the following is NOT a grass-root level worker?
A. Anganwadi worker
B. Traditional bih attendant
C. Village health guide
D. Health administrator
| Health administrator |
d11f35c6-3e91-419d-9186-ff5c740cbe49 | Ans. A: Kidney Cells of proximal and distal tubules secrete hydrogen ions which comes from carbonic acid For each hydrogen ion secreted, one sodium ion and one bicarbonate ion enters the interstitial fluid. | Physiology | null | Hydrogen ion is eliminated by: September 2005
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Stomach
| Kidney |
1fdda8d6-a4ac-489d-bc27-cc9f213efd02 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Delayed gastric emptying After vagotomyo Acid secretion in decreaseso Gastric emptying for solids is delayed and hastened for liquids (due to loss of receptive relaxation of proximal stomach).o Diarrhoea & increase in frequency of stool is seen. | Surgery | Postgastrectomy Complications | When vagus is cut. the undesirable effect is-
A. Decreased gastric acid
B. Increased constipation
C. Delayed gastric emptying
D. Recurrent ulcer
| Delayed gastric emptying |
c3a23218-c603-4fa6-9cf8-9a3b3b936d4b | The hea rate is nearly 125bpm. Notice the predominant T wave inversion in V1-V3. This is seen in myocardial ischemia. Diagnosis of myocardial injury needs elevated cardiac biomarkers. Digoxin leads to ST segment depression Digoxin toxicity leads to Ventricular Bigeminy Causes of T wave inversion Normal in children Myocardial ischemia Bundle branch block Ventricular hyperophy Pulmonary embolism Hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy Raised intracranial pressure | Medicine | Acute coronary syndrome | Which of the following finding is shown in the chest leads?
A. Myocardial ischemia
B. Myocardial injury
C. Digoxin
D. Digoxin toxicity
| Myocardial ischemia |
ec1040ab-83b5-42ad-9c02-beee2b7cbd32 | LITTLE'S AREA (Anterior inferior pa of nasal septum) - Usual site for epistaxis in children. Four Aeries anastomose here and form Kiesselbach's Plexus. Anterior ethmoidal aery(Ophthalmic aery) Sphenopalatine(Maxillary aery) Septal branch of superior labial(Facial aery) Greater palatine aery(Maxillary aery) Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 197. | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Little's area is situated in nasal cavity in:
A. Anteroinferior
B. Anterosuperior
C. Posteroinferior
D. Posteriorsuperior
| Anteroinferior |
78931568-857a-48ec-905a-3f2f37a1cd1c | Neocoex. FUNCTIONAL DIVISION OF CEREBRAL COEX: Divided into 2 areas - Primary coical area Both motor & sensory areas Includes Primary auditory coex, Primary olfactory area, Primary gustatory areas & Primary motor areas Association areas: Higher functions are related to association areas Other functions: First center activated to initiate skilled movements is "Neocoex". | Physiology | null | Which pa of the brain gets activated first to initiate skilled movements?
A. Pons
B. Basal ganglia
C. Neocoex.
D. Cerebellum
| Neocoex. |
16523d06-95db-40a0-8f39-924d846f46f2 | The findings in the question are suggestive of iron deficiency anemia. Among given options, Hookworm infection can cause iron deficiency anemia due to chronic blood loss. Associated with megaloblastic anemia (vitamin B12/folate Deficiency): Phenytoin toxicity, Blind loop syndrome and Fish tapeworm (D. latum) infection. | Pathology | Iron deficiency anemia | 20-year-old female present with features of anemia. Blood tests: Hb-5g/dL, MCV - 52 fL, MCH-22 pg, PCV - 15%. Diagnosis?
A. Phenytoin toxicity
B. Fish tapeworm infection
C. Hookworm infection
D. Blind loop syndrome
| Hookworm infection |
4d0b21dd-8e03-4194-b114-5219e2a88696 | Buprenorphine is a paial mu receptor agonist. Unlike other opiates buprenorphine has a dose ceiling effect to its respiratory depressant dose response curve. Due to this effect, after the ceiling dose is reached additional dose of the drug will not elicit more respiratory depression. Reference: Clinical Anaesthesia edited by Paul, 6e page 490. | Pharmacology | null | Which among the following drugs produces a dose ceiling effect?
A. Morphine
B. Alfentanyl
C. Remifentanyl
D. Buprenorphine
| Buprenorphine |
b08ac780-bbb6-4eb9-94ff-bc8b3d40282b | Ans. (c) 300 mgmRef : D. C Dutta 8th ed.l 387, 721 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Pregnancy in Rh-negative Women | The dose of anti-D immunoglobulin to be given to non- immune Rh D negative women after delivery is:
A. 50 mgm
B. 150 mgm
C. 300 mgm
D. 450 mgm
| 300 mgm |
0bbe21f6-f934-42f6-97a0-666301037c6b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ethambutol Remember the following facts All cell wall synthesis inhibitors are bactericidal. All antibacterial drugs that act on cell membrane are bactericidal. All first line antitubercular drugs are bactericidal except ethambutol that is bacteriostatic. All protein synthesis inhibitors are bacteriostatic except aminoglycosides & streptogramins which are bactericidal. All drugs affect intermediary metabolism are bacteriostatic. Now, it will be very easy to remember the following table | Pharmacology | null | Bacteriostatic anti TB drug ?
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
| Ethambutol |
fdc60e36-ad13-4147-8a37-4839425cb458 | Placing unacceptable impulses in yourself onto someone else, i.e. placing blame for the unwanted event upon other is seen in projection. | Psychiatry | null | Which of the following is the psychological defense mechanism by the virtue of which an individual blames others for his mistake?
A. Rationalization
B. Compensation
C. Projection
D. Regression
| Projection |
8d1a6cb7-1905-45b9-90cf-bc07ab290c0f | DOC for smoking cessation : Varenicline Nicotine patch and gum are also used. Bupropion is also used in smoking cessation. Varenicline: is paial agonist at neuronal nicotinic acetylcholine receptor in CNS. Patient taking varenicline should be monitored for suicidal thoughts, vivid nightmares and mood changes. Acamprosate : agent used in alcohol dependent treatment programs with an as yet poorly understood mechanism of action. Gabapentin: analog of GABA: Does not act at GABA receptor. It's precise mechanism is not known. It is approved as adjunct therapy for focal seizure and treatment of post herpetic neuralgic. Nalmefene :- is opioid antagonist use for opioid poisoning | Pharmacology | NEET 2019 | Which of the following drug is used for smoking cessation?
A. Varenicline
B. Acamprostate
C. Nalmefene
D. Gabapentim
| Varenicline |
f63adfd6-b5fe-41d1-a0c0-0bef096df4d8 | .desmoid tumour is often associated with the familial polyposis colon (FAP), osteomas, odontomes epidermal cysts-- Gardner's syndrome.it is usually due to genetic abnormality involving chromosome 5. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery ,ed 3,pg no 776 | Surgery | G.I.T | Familial polyposis coli is due to
A. Abnormality of chromosomes five
B. Abnormality of chromosomes
C. Intestinal tuberculosis
D. Intussusception
| Abnormality of chromosomes five |
56baa643-0eb4-4dd2-9cbb-a2be4f42e1a4 | (C) Cerebral cortex # Stereognosis:> The ability to identify objects by handling them with out looking at them is called stereognosis.> Ability obviously depends upon relatively intact touch & pressure sensation & is compromised when the dorsal columns are dam- aged.> It also has a large cortical component; impaired cortex & sometimes occurs in the absence of any detectable defect in touch & pressure sensation when there is a lesion in the parietal lobe posterior to the postcentral gyrus. | Physiology | Nervous System | Stereoanesthesia is due to lesion of
A. Nucleus Gracilis
B. Nucleus cuneatus
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Spinothalamic tract
| Cerebral cortex |
56c4db57-05f5-4c33-a9e6-58b54b893d69 | Sutures of the skull, tooth socket and inferior tibiofibular joints are examples of fibrous joints. In fibrous joints bones are joined by fibrous tissue without any cavity. 3 types of fibrous joints are sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses. Sutures occur between bones of the skull. In syndesmoses bones are connected by a ligament or band of fibrous tissue eg: inferior tibiofibular joint. Gomphoses is a peg in socket fibrous joint eg: aiculation of a tooth with its bony socket. | Surgery | null | Which of he following is not a fibrous joint?
A. Sutures of the skull
B. First costochondral joint
C. Tooth socket
D. Inferior tibiofibular joints
| First costochondral joint |
eff72e53-a976-4e2e-a0d3-66810e8b93e1 | Ans. (d) MetoclopramideRef KDT 6/e, p 642 | Pharmacology | Anti-Emetic | Prokinetic drug with extrapyramidal side effect is?
A. Cisapride
B. Domperidone
C. Ondansetron
D. Metoclopramide
| Metoclopramide |
337636ad-ee36-4fd3-b9b9-7ad5e7d90c28 | * Patients with diffuse, rapid skin involvement have the highest risk of developing scleroderma renal crisis. Renal crisis occurs in about 10% of all patients with systemic sclerosis and is indicative of bad prognosis. * Renal crisis presents as accelerated hypeension, oliguria, headache, dyspnea, edema, and rapidly rising serum creatinine levels. * Renal crisis is observed within 4 years of diagnosis in about 75% of patients but may develop as late as 20 years after diagnosis. * Avoid high doses of coicosteroids since this is a significant risk factor for renal crisis. | Medicine | Scleroderma | Indication of poor prognosis of systemic sclerosis is:
A. Calcinosis cutis
B. Renal involvement
C. Alopecia
D. Telangiectasia
| Renal involvement |
c5a9dc2b-3a58-4e8f-a355-a326c917537a | The flocculonodular lobe is phylogenetically the oldest pa of cerebellum has vestibular connections and is concerned with equilibrium and eye movements (vestibulo ocular reflex). Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:257. | Physiology | Nervous system | Vestibulo ocular reflex is concerned with
A. Archicerebellum
B. Flocculonodular lobe
C. Neocerebellum
D. Occipital lobe
| Flocculonodular lobe |
5c82b8ea-2239-4ebe-bc42-f873173a9860 | sigmund Freud was a pioneer in psychiatry he introduced the new school called PSYCHOANALYSIS he introduced the TOPOGRAPHICAL THEORY OF MIND he gave the concept of structural theory of mind he gave the concept of interpretation of dreams Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 447 | Psychiatry | All India exam | The term "id" in the structural model of the mind refers to
A. Emotional pa of mind
B. Rational pa of mind
C. Moral pa of mind
D. Conscience pa of mind
| Emotional pa of mind |
9a964afa-8dc8-416b-a694-0614c1c6ca40 | Lipomas are most common SUBCUTANEOUS LIPOMAS Also known as UNIVERSAL TUMOUR MC site: Trunk BRACKET CALCIFICATION is seen in lipoma of corpus callosum SURGICAL EXCISION is required for removal | Surgery | Plastic Surgery and Skin Lesions | The term universal tumor refers to:
A. Adenoma
B. Papilloma
C. Fibroma
D. Lipoma
| Lipoma |
b4b1e6c6-5853-4cc1-82b4-2ccdfd138c39 | Fibrinoid necrosis is a special form of necrosis, visible by light microscopy , usually in immune reaction in which complexes of antigens and antibodies are deposited in the walls of aeries. The deposited immune complexes together with fibrin that has leaked out of vessels produce a bright pink and amorphous appearance on H & E preparation called fibrinoid. Type 3 hypersensitivity disorder Robbins 9th edition page 111,11 | Pathology | Cardiovascular system | Necrotising aerioritis with fibrinoid necrosis is characteristic of
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cell mediated immunity
C. Ag-Ab complex mediated
D. Cytotoxic mediated
| Ag-Ab complex mediated |
8b1ef2ba-0a15-4869-98bd-53cdf96fca27 | ANSWER: (A) StreptomycinREF: KDT 7th ed p. 743Streptomycin causes nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity | Pharmacology | Anti-Tuberculosis | A person on anti-tubercular drugs complained of deafness and tinnitus in one ear. Drug implicated is?
A. Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Rifampicin
| Streptomycin |
3e4245ed-fbe0-4a43-9dd7-08795b10c8d6 | Answer is C (Assessment of child for presence of Hea disease) NADA's criteria are used for assessment of child for presence of hea disease. The assessment of a child for the presence or absence of hea disease can be done with the help of some guidelines suggested by 'V -I DA. These guidelines are called NAT) criteria. Major Minor * Systolic murmur, grade III or more, especially with a thrill * Systolic murmur < grade III * Diastolic murmur * Abnormal 2nd hea sound * Abnormal ECG * Cyanosis * Abnormal X Ray Presence of one major and two minor criteria are essential for indicating the presence of hea disease. | Medicine | null | NADA's criteria are used for:
A. Assessment of child for degree of dehydration
B. Assessment of child for degree of malnutrition
C. Assessment of child for presence of hea disease
D. Assessment of child for degree of mental
| Assessment of child for presence of hea disease |
894ab6fd-9d2c-4682-9009-3b20c04e6b55 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Peptic ulcer disease o Upper G1 bleed refers to GI bleed refers to GI bleed occuringproximal to the ligament ofTreitz (.Ligament ofTreitz is a fibromuscular band extending from the right crus of diaphragm to the duodeno-jejunal flexure)Causes of upper GI bleed (in descending order)o Peptic ulcery Duodenal ulcersy Gastric ulcerso Oesophageal variceso Gastritis, erosionso Mallory-Wess terso Uncommon causesy Gastric carcinomay Esophagitis y Pancreatitisy Hemobiliay Vascular lesions | Surgery | Benign Gastric Disease | Most common cause of upper GI bleed -
A. Esophageal varices
B. Erosive gastritis
C. Peptic ulcer disease
D. Trauma
| Peptic ulcer disease |
aa3914b3-3d97-422b-b93c-96a2039d35a0 | Ans. (c) PelvicRef: Internet SourcesDifferent positions of appendix will produce some typical symptoms:* Pelvic appendix -- suprapubic pain* Retroileal appendix -- can cause testicular pain due to irritation of spermatic artery or ureter | Surgery | Small & Large Intestine | Which appendix pain is referred to suprapubic region?
A. Preileal
B. Postileal
C. Pelvic
D. Paracolic
| Pelvic |
f5853623-05be-4de1-86fd-cd62096a3307 | Treatment consists of teaching the patient valsalva manoeuvre. If this fails, politzerization or Eustachian tube catheterization is carried out. If fluid is present a myringotomy may be necessary and occasionally in resistant cases, grommet inseion may be required until the middle ear mucosa has returned to normal. | ENT | null | A child presents with barotrauma pain.There is no inflammation of middle ear, management is:
A. Antibiotics
B. Paracetamol
C. Suppurative
D. Grommet tube inseion
| Suppurative |
71586723-4357-4355-a76b-40551970b0ee | Ans: a (Salbutamol) Ref: KDT, 5 ed, p. 217Salbutamol (albuterol) is a highly selective beta 2 agonist.Inhaled salbutamol produces bronchodilation within 5 min and the action lasts for 2-4 hours.Drugs used tor bronchial asthma:Bronchodilators:a. Sympathomimetic-AdrenalineEphedrineIsoprenalinesalbutamolterbutalineb. Methylxanthines-Theophyllineaminophyllinec. Anticholinergics-AtropineIpratropium bromideTiotropium bromideLeukotriene antagonist:MonteleukastzafirleukastMast cell stabilizers:Sodium cromoglycateNedocromil, ketotifenLipoxygenase inhibitors:ZileutonPhosphodiesterase III/ IV inhibitor:PiclamelastCorticosteroids:a. Systemic-HydrocortisonePrednisoloneb. Inhalational-Beclomethesone dipropionateBudesonideFluticasone propionateFlunisolide | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | Which of the following beta adrenergic agonist is used as an aerosol for treatment of bronchial asthma?
A. Salbutamol
B. Ketotifen
C. Fluticasone
D. Monteleukast
| Salbutamol |
f1753687-f74a-48b3-a666-94e4c40d2422 | Onion skin patten is due to Concentric Fibrosis seen in SLE. | Medicine | null | Onion skin spleen is seen in
A. SLE
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
D. Henoch shonlein purpura
| SLE |
7886543f-3256-4162-b134-75874ca9d4d7 | Superficial palmar arch is a direct continuation of the ulnar aery. The curve of the arch lies across the palm, in level with the distal border of the fully extended thumb. The arch is completed by anastomosing with the superficial palmar branch of the radial aery. | Anatomy | null | Superficial Plamar arch is related to the?
A. Distal end of fully extended thumb
B. Distal end of fully flexed thumb
C. Proximal end of the fully flexed thumb
D. Proximal end of fully extended thumb
| Distal end of fully extended thumb |
5fa8e4f1-786d-4b7a-ac5c-c7d463401a08 | Ans. C. 6 drugs for 6 months; 4 drugs for 18 months* Resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid is termed as multiple-drug-resistant TB (MDR-TB). In such a case, 6 drugs are used for 6-9 months in an intensive phase followed by 4 drugs for 18 months in a continuous phase.* The number of drugs used for specific duration in a particular type of TB is given below:Type of TBNumber of Drugs UsedNon-drug resistant - New case4 drugs for 2 months + 3 drugs for 4 monthsNon-drug resistant - Previously treated5 drugs for 2 months + 4 drugs for 1 month + 3 drugs for 5 monthsRifampicin resistance + Isoniazid sensitive7 drugs for 6-9 months + 5 drugs for 18 monthsMDR-TB6 drugs for 6-9 months + 4 drugs for 18 monthsXDR-TB7 drugs for 6-12 months + 6 drugs for 18 months | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | A known case of TB is now resistant to Rifampicin and Isoniazid. Which of the following would be most appropriate in treating this patient?
A. 6 drugs for 4 months; 4 drugs for 12 months
B. 4 drugs for 4 months. 6 drugs for 12 months
C. 6 drugs for 6 months; 4 drugs for 18 months
D. 5 drugs for 2 months; 4 drugs for 1 month; 3 drugs for 5 months
| 6 drugs for 6 months; 4 drugs for 18 months |
8b604a79-e75a-4e80-b78a-41edba668631 | Effect of Heat stress Heat stroke: Body temperature >110degF, Delirium, Convulsions, Absence of sweating Heat hyperpyrexia Heat exhaustion Heat cramps Heat syncope Ref : Park 25th edition Pgno : 784 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Which of the following is not a feature of Heat stress
A. Hyperpyrexia
B. Syncope
C. Cramps
D. Numbness
| Numbness |
b83a2d85-f499-4a91-90d2-df77443654fa | C i.e. Isoflurane - IsofluraneQ is volatile anesthetic agent of choiceQ in patients with liver disease because it has the least effect on hepatic blood flow. - CisatracuriumQ is neuromuscular blocking agent of choiceQ owing to its unique non hepatic metabolism. | Anaesthesia | null | A patient of alcohlic liver faliure requires general anesthesia AOC is
A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Isoflurane
D. Methoxyflurane
| Isoflurane |
c60d1862-e06d-431b-b6ad-5be9b2b7687e | Rickets is a metabolic disorder characterized by deficient mineralization of bone.
Rickets may be due to : -
Vit D deficient → ↓ absorption of calcium (Vit D dependent rickets).
Increased phosphate excretion due to defective reabsorption → Vit D resistant rickets. | Pathology | null | Rickets is due to -a) Loss of calcium in urineb) Increased mobilisation of calcium from bonec) Decreased absorption of calciumd) Loss of phosphate in Urine
A. ab
B. bc
C. bd
D. cd
| cd |
11ceda44-d2ff-47a4-8eaf-0d3a69f168de | Eukaryotic mRNA synthesis results in a pre-mRNA precursor that contains extensive amounts of excess RNA (introns) that must be precisely removed by RNA splicing to generate functional, translatable mRNA composed of exonic coding and 5' and 3' noncoding sequences. # All steps--from changes in DNA template,Ref: Harpers Illustrated Biochemistry, 30th edition, page no: | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | 7-Methyl guanosine cap is present in
A. M-RNA
B. t-RNA
C. r-RNA
D. DNA
| M-RNA |
847ec916-2970-4ff1-abf9-0592b3f78662 | Ans. a (Rhegmatogenous). (Ref Ophthalmology by Basak 4th/ 316; Kanski's 6th/349; Parson's 20th/311).The term rhegmatogenous is derived from the Greek word rhegma, which means a discontinuity or a break. A rhegmatogenous retinal detachment (RRD) occurs when a tear in the retina leads to fluid accumulation with a separation of the neurosensory retina from the underlying RPE; this is the most common type of retinal detachment.Types of Retinal detachments TypeDefinitionCauses1.RhegmatogenousFull thickness defect or hole in the retina with subretinal Fluid accumulation# Trauma (blunt)# Spontaneous# Myopia (high)# ICCE# Aphakia/Pseudophakia# Age-related retinoschisis# Vitreoretinal tufts and Meridional folds# Family history of RD2.Traction detachmentCaused by scar tissue pulling on the retina# Proliferative diabetic retinopathy# ROP# Sickle cell retinopathy ["sea-fan" retina)# Penetrating posterior segment trauma3.Exudative (serous) detachmentAs a result of inflammatory diseases or sometimes hypertension# Choroidal tumor# Exophytic retinoblastoma# Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome# Posterior scleritis# Infectious (syphilis, TB, CMV, Toxoplasmosis)# Subretinal vascularisation# Collagen vascular diseases# Coats disease# Central serous chorioretinopathy# Uveal effusion syndrome# Renal diseases# Severe hypertension/ eclampsia/ preeclampsiaRx of Rhegmatous RD (essentially surgical & immediate)A. Sealing the retinal breaks (cryoretinopexy/diathermy/Laser)B. Scleral bucklingC. Subretinal fluid drainageD. ntravitreal injections (air or Ringer's solution)E. Vitrectomy | Ophthalmology | Retina | Commonest type of Retinal detachment?
A. Rhegmatogenous
B. Choroidal hemorrhage
C. Exudative
D. Tractional
| Rhegmatogenous |
60663ee8-9841-4e90-b231-9d4ad28b893c | The healthy vagina of a woman of child-bearing age is acidic, with a pH normally ranging between 3.8 and 4.5. This is due to the degradation of glycogen to the lactic acid by enzymes secreted by the Doderlein's bacillus. This is a normal commensal of the vagina. The acidity retards the growth of many strains of dangerous microbes. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Vaginal Ph in women of the reproductive age group is within which of the following range?
A. 4-4.5
B. 7-Jun
C. 8-Jul
D. 3-Jan
| 4-4.5 |
d6bbfa64-ffe7-4cbe-b56b-0f97dc78cf50 | Answer- A. Anti-nuclear antibodyANA is the screening method of choice for systemic rheumatic disease such as systemic lupus erythyematous (SLE), mixed connective tissue disease, Sjogren syndrome, scleroderma, CREST syndrome, rheumatoid ahritis, polymyositis, dermatomyositis. | Medicine | null | Screening test for sclerodema
A. Anti-nuclear antibody
B. Ul-Ribonucleoprotein antibody
C. Anti- L.K.M. antibody
D. Anti- topoisomerase antibody
| Anti-nuclear antibody |
b3910578-dfff-41ed-8d70-e02cfff2db58 | Enterobius vermicularis, the pinworm, is a common cause of intestinal infections worldwide, with maximal prevalence in school-age children. Enterobiasis is transmitted person-to-person ingestion of eggs after contact with the hands or perianal region of an infected individual, food or fomites that have been contaminated by an infected individual, or infected bedding or clothing. Auto-infection also occurs. Ref: Rosenthal P.J. (2013). Chapter 35. Protozoal & Helminthic Infections. In M.A. Papadakis, S.J. McPhee, M.W. Rabow, T.G. Berger (Eds), CURRENT Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2014. | Microbiology | null | A child was brought by his mother complaining nocturnal perianal pruritus and presence of adult worms in the stool. Which of the following is the most common intestinal infection in school-age children worldwide?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
| Enterobius vermicularis |
2e221bd1-8592-4f12-8123-11dc83170753 | (C) (5'- nucleotides deficiency) (880-H 18(tm))Lead intoxication is accompanied by an acquired deficiency of erythrocyte pryimidine-specific, 5'-nucleotidase.Genetically determined deficiency of this enzyme is associated with chronic hemolysis, marked basophilic stippling of erythrocytes on stained blood films, and unique intraerythrocytic accumulations of pyrimidine-containing nucleotides.Basophilic stippling aka Punctatebasophilia refers to an observation found when observing a blood smear in which erythrocytes display small dots at the periphery. These dots are the visualization of ribosomes and can often be found in the peripheral blood smear, even in some normal individuals.Pyrimidine 5'- nucleotides (P 5 N) deficiency- P5N is a key enzyme in the catabolism of nucleotides arising from the degradation of nucleic acids that takes place in the final stages of erythroid cell maturation. How exactly its deficiency causes Hemolytic anemia is not well understood; but a highly distinctive features of this condition is a morphologicabnormality of the red cells known as basophilic stipplingHemolytic anemia caused by lead poisoning is characterized by basophilic stippling. It is infact a phenocopy of that seen in P5N deficiency, suggesting it is mediated at least in part by lead inhibiting then enzymeCauses of Basophilic Stippling in blood smear1. Thalassemias2. Hemoglobin s S - disease3. Hemoglobin s C disease4. Hemoglobin s E disease5. Iron deficiency6. Unstable hemoglobin s / Myelodysplasia7. Lead poisoning* Basophilic leucocytoses is seen in CML * | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | Basophilic stippling is due to
A. Ala synthetase deficiency
B. Ferrochelatase deficiency
C. 5' nucleotidase deficiency
D. Ala dehdrogenase deficiency
| 5' nucleotidase deficiency |
c011736e-287d-437e-ba75-97fbed053ece | Answer- A. VaricoceleA varicocele is a varicose (touous) dilatation of the vein draining the testis.C/FOn palpation, testicules may feels like a bag of wormsvaricocele is painless and the only complaint of the patient is swelling. | Surgery | null | Clinical scenario with bag of worms
A. Varicocele
B. Hydrocele
C. Torsion of testis
D. Congenital hernia
| Varicocele |
b5164f42-b322-40b6-afc0-4ff2a8c5adc6 | Ans is 'b' ie Thyroglossal cyst. Midline swelling of neck from above downwardsLudwig's anginaEnlarged submental lymph nodesSublingual dermoidLipoma in submental regionThyroglossal cyst Subhyoid bursitisGoitre Lipoma & enlarged lymph nodes in the suprasternal space of bumsRetrosternal goiterThymic swelling(A dermoid cyst may occur anywhere in the midline) | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Neck) | One of the following is an example of painless midline swelling :
A. Branchial cyst
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Cystic hygroma
D. Carotid body tumour
| Thyroglossal cyst |
b446aa57-c6ca-4a07-836b-7cefbcb696a1 | Crown rump length(CRL) is measured from the top of the head to the bottom of buttocks excluding limbs.CRL between 9 and 11 weeks is the most accurate method of dating.Error is about +/- 5 days.CRL in cm +6.5 gives a rough estimate of gestational age in weeks.Uesful prior to amniocentesis and chorion sampling and to confirm later intrauterine growth restriction. Refer page no 476 of Text book of obstetrics sheila balakrishnan 2 nd edition. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diagnosis in obstetrics | At 9 weeks, approximate CRL in mm of a fetus would be:
A. 8 mm
B. 2.5 mm
C. 9 mm
D. 5 mm
| 2.5 mm |
243eca1a-62cc-4ff3-9afc-d022ad7fbf00 | Low-density lipoprotein/ LDLIt is one of the five major groups of lipoproteins, which in order of size, largest to smallest, are chylomicrons, VLDL, IDL, LDL, and HDL, that enable transpo of multiple different fat molecules, as well as cholesterol, within the water around cells and within the water-based bloodstream.LDL is often informally called bad cholesterol, (as opposed to HDL paicles, which are frequently referred to as good cholesterol or healthy cholesterol). | Biochemistry | null | Cholesterol from the liver is transpoed to the peripheral tissue mainly by:
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. VLDL
D. Chylomicrons
| LDL |
2fcd6367-0133-468f-b0ab-b7e2d1b74920 | Ref-Katzung 10/e p50 After metabolism most of the drugs become inactive and their excreted through the kidney. Lipids soluble drugs wil be reabsprbed whereas water soluble drugs are easily excreted.thus, metabolism of drugs helps in the conversion of liquid soluble drugs to water soluble metabolites | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | Metabolism of a drug primarily results in
A. Activation of the active drug
B. Conversion of prodruv to active metabolite
C. Conversion of lipid soluble drugs to water soluble metabolites
D. Conversion of water soluble drugs to lipid solible metabolites
| Conversion of lipid soluble drugs to water soluble metabolites |
36f7a2e9-88b9-4ddb-bb97-b31926d59856 | Though less potent than Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine has longer duration of action (3 to 6 hrs)
Duration of action of neostigmine is 0.5 to 2 hrs. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following properties make pyridostigmine different from neostigmine ?
A. It is more potent
B. It is longer acting
C. It produces less muscarinic side effects
D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors
| It is longer acting |
155ea118-bec3-410a-a98d-6df17a9769cd | The middle meningeal aery is a branch of the first pa of the maxillary aery, given off in the infratemporal fossa. In infratemporal fossa, the aery runs upwards and medially deep to the lateral pterygoid muscle and superficial to the sphenomandibular ligament. Here it passes through a loop formed by the two roots of the auriculotemporal nerve. It enters the middle cranial fossa through foramen spinosum. Notes: Middle meningeal aery is impoant to the surgeon because this aery is the commonest source of extradural hemorrhage. Ref BDC volume 3,6th edition pg 201 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Middle meningeal aery passes through which foramen?
A. Foramen rotundum
B. Foramen spinosum
C. Foramen ovale
D. Jugular foramen
| Foramen spinosum |
dd2304d5-06e2-4298-ab2d-2467ecf9c6fb | ANSWER: (B) Women in reproductive age group in a given yearREF: Parks textbook 20th edition page419Repeat from December 2008General fertility rate: Number of live births per 1000 women in reproductive age group in a given yearGeneral marital fertility rate: Number of live births per 1000 married women in reproductive age group in a given yearAge specific fertility rate: Number of live births in a year to 1000 women in any specified age groupAge specific marital fertility rate: Number of live births in a year to 1000 married women in any specified age group | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography | Denominator in General fertility rate is?
A. Married women in reproductive age group in a given year
B. Women in reproductive age group in a given year
C. Married women in any specified age group
D. Women in any specified age group
| Women in reproductive age group in a given year |
80f40f82-c1f6-4565-ab80-2ced8d14f0cc | Ans. (A) Atropine(Ref: Modi's Medical jurisprudence and Toxicology. 23rd, 2005/92, 403, 429-430, Goodman and Gilman 12/e p234-235)These are the characteristic features of anti-cholinergic overdose. | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | A patient presented in emergency with tachycardia, hyperthermia, bronchial dilatation and constipation. The person is likely to be suffering from overdose of:
A. Atropine
B. Organophosphorus compound
C. Mushroom
D. Paracetamol
| Atropine |
4dcf2da2-c342-42bc-9dcb-8be033c3796d | Opener (abductor) of glottis is posterior cricoarytenoid. | Anatomy | null | The following muscle is an opener of the glottis -
A. Lateral cricoarytenoid
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid
C. Transverse arytenoid
D. Inter arytenoids
| Posterior cricoarytenoid |
f47ad4d6-ee09-4ca7-96ca-60f3976962e3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Exfoliative toxin Examples of superantigeno Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome toxino Staphylococcal enterotoxinso Staphylococcal exfoliative (erythrogenic) toxino Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxino Certain nonhuman retroviral proteinso Yersinia pseudotuberculosiso Mycoplasma arthritis,o Mouse mammary' tumor virus. | Microbiology | Immunology | Which of the following staphylococcal protein is a superantigen-
A. Exfoliative toxin
B. Cytolytic toxin
C. ProteinA
D. Leucocidin
| Exfoliative toxin |
1cdb7001-bfc1-4dfc-a322-8e07bd095075 | It is a point mutation because only single nucleotide is changed (C by G).
It is a conserved mutation because altered AA has same properties as the original one (Both are acidic). | Biochemistry | null | Base substitution of GAC (Asp) to GAG (Glu) is an example ofa) Point mutationb) Silent mutationc) Non-sense mutationd) Conserved mutatione) Non-conserved mutation
A. b
B. c
C. ad
D. ab
| ad |
299a77da-7720-4505-b353-42de9d8a764d | Innervation of penis : nerves deriving from S2-S4. Sensory & sympathetic innervation: provided by the dorsal nerve of penis (terminal branch of pudendal nerve), which runs lateral to dorsal aery of penis. It Supplies both skin and glans. The sensory endings are more numerous on the glans). Ilioinguinal nerve branches supply skin at the root. Parasympathetic innervation: provided by cavernous nerves that innervate the helicine aeries in the corpora cavernosa (that is why erection is parasympathetically stimulated). Ref - medscape.com | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Nerve supply of Glans penis is
A. Genital branch of genito-femoral nerve
B. Ilio-inguinal nerve
C. Ilio-hypogastric nerve
D. Pudendal nerve
| Pudendal nerve |
e81ee298-4428-4272-88a2-df9dd8e1798d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., > 30% Erythema multiforme It is an acute , often self limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is target lesions (Iris lesions). EM can present with wide spectrum of severity which can be classified into 1. Erythema multiforme minor It is simply referred to as erythema multiforme (i.e. if not specified about other 2 types, erythema multiforme means EM minor). Localized eruption of skin with or without mucosal involvement. 2. Steven- Johnson syndrome (SJS) There are mucosal erosions with pruritic macules. In this epidermal detatchment is 10-30% of the body surface area. 3. Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) When skin detachment is more then 30% of BSA. It is also called Lyell's syndrome. Therefore TEN & SJS are considered as single syndrome i.e. SJS-TEN syndrome (Erythema multiforme major). If area involved is more than 30% it is TEN & if area involved is 10-30%, it is SJS. | Skin | null | Skin involvement in toxic epidermal necrolysis?
A. < 10 %
B. l0 - 20%
C. 20 - 30%
D. > 30%
| > 30% |
f9f165c6-efce-454d-b9d3-fed5d89640eb | Refer kDT 7/e p536 It serves as a metabolic coupler between oxygen consumption andcoronary blood flow. ... Parasympathetic stimulation of the hea (i.e., vagal nerve activation) elicits modest coronary vasodilation(due to the direct effects of released acetylcholine on the coronaries). In some types of blood vessels, there is evidence that adenosine producesvasodilation through increases in cGMP, which leads to inhibition of calcium entry into the cells as well as opening of potassium channels. Incardiac tissue, adenosine binds to type 1 (A1) receptors, which are coupled to Gi-proteins. | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Coronary vasodilatation is caused by
A. Adenosine
B. Bradykinin
C. Histamines
D. Ergotamine
| Adenosine |
454478ac-1663-4038-904d-fbbd897c3607 | Pre - eclampsia Diagnostic criteria
B.P > 140 /90 mmHg after 20 weeks in previously normotensive women
Proteinuria > 300 mg / 24 hours or
Protein : Creatinine ratio > 0.3 or
Dipstick 1 + Persistent.
Platelets < 100,000 / μ L
Creatinine > 1.1 mg / dL
Serum transaminase levels twice normal. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the laboratory test supports the diagnosis of preeclampsia
A. Platelet count 103,000 / μ L.
B. Creatinine 1.14 mg / dL.
C. Alkaline phosphatase 138 IU / L.
D. Total protein of 258 mg in 24 hour urine.
| Platelet count 103,000 / μ L. |
ed83ddcf-cdec-4211-9ecc-fa6daff7f2a2 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Distal radiusMadelung's deformityo Madelung's deformity is a congenital disorder that affects growth of distal radius.o The primary defect is failure of normal growth of medial and palmar halves of the distal radial physis, leading to curvature in an medial (ulnar) and palmar direction,o The ulna is relatively long and becomes prominent dorsally.o The carpus (carpal bones) sinks, along with the medial (ulnar) half of the distal radial articular surface, into the gaps between the two forearm bones. | Orthopaedics | Skeletal Infections | Madelung's deformity involves -
A. Humerus
B. Proximal ulna
C. Distal radius
D. Carpals
| Distal radius |
0cf90f52-70a5-4ea9-9888-321afc9bff82 | OOLANI&;STEST is used to test DDH in infants In this test the baby&;s thighs are held with the thumbs medially and the fingers resting on the greater trochanters; the hips are flexed to 90 degrees and gently abducted. In NORMAL baby, there is smooth abduction to almost 90 degrees. In CONGENITAL DISLOCATION the movement is usually impeded,but if pressue is applied to the greater trochantehere is a soft &;CLUNK&; as the dislocation reduces,and then the hip abducts fully(JERK OF ENTRY) If abduction stops halfway and there is no jerk of entry, there may be an irreducible dislocation. ref:APLEY&;S 9th edition page no.499 | Orthopaedics | Pediatric orthopedics | Oolani&;s test is used in
A. congenital dislocation of knee
B. Obstetric brachial plexus injury
C. Developmental dysplasia of hip
D. Tom Smith's ahritis
| Developmental dysplasia of hip |
e63d1654-b436-409b-97bb-ce86e94001e9 | CXR shows a mass in the right lung apex and there is associated destruction of the right 2nd and 3rd ribs posteriorly. A combination of an apical mass along with the destruction of the rib is characteristic of Pancoast tumor/ Superior Sulcus Tumor. MRI is a more sensitive investigation in identifying the extension of tumor into adjacent soft tissue and bone. | Radiology | Respiratory Radiology | A 75-year-old male presented with chief complaint of pain in the right shoulder. CXR is shown below. Which of the following could be the cause of pain in this patient?
A. Pancoast tumor
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Subclan aery aneurysm
D. Mesothelioma
| Pancoast tumor |
4576d171-ac5f-42c6-84ba-f3e86f79ce79 | The gross features of this dural-based tumor are consistent with meningioma, the most frequent benign intracranial neoplasm. It arises from meningothelial cells and histologically consists of whorls of elongated cells with scattered psammoma bodies. The benign behavior of this tumor is apparent from its "pushing" pattern of growth. The tumor tends to expand downward, compressing the brain, but without invading it. For this reason, this tumor can be easily removed at surgery. An aeriovenous malformation is a vascular aggregate of aeries, veins, and vessels with intermediate characteristics. These lesions are usually intracerebral and manifest with hemorrhage or seizures. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most frequent malignant intracerebral tumor. It arises from neoplastic transformation of astrocytes within the white matter. Grossly, it is characterized by a variegated appearance, with areas of solid tumor alternating with necrosis and hemorrhage. Medulloblastoma develops from the cerebellar vermis, usually in children. It is composed of small, primitive-appearing neoplastic cells. | Pathology | null | A 50-year-old woman undergoes neurosurgery for resection of a well-circumscribed intracranial neoplasm attached to the dura. The tumor compressed the underlying brain parenchyma without infiltration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aeriovenous malformation
B. Glioblastoma multiforme
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Meningioma
| Meningioma |
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