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df743e95-6d5a-4074-bd20-3de5f7b3f2da | ANSWER: (C) Dense adhesion in lower uterine segmentREF: William's obs 22nd e p- 5987Classical caesarean section is not done these days f however its done in cases where the lower segment is not approachable. Uterine incision is made on upper segment above the reflection of uterovesical fold of peritoneum.Indications of classical caesarean sectionI Where lower segment approach is difficultDense adhesion due to previous operationsSeverely contracted pelvis ( osteomalcic or rachitic)Where lower segment approach is riskyBig fibroid in lower segmentCa cervixRepair is difficult and high vesico vaginal fistulaSevere degree of placenta previa with engorged vesselsPost mortem contemplating to have a live baby | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Caesarean Section | Which is the commonest indication of classical cesarean section?
A. Transverse lie
B. Cord prolapse
C. Dense adhesion in lower uterine segment
D. Placenta praevia
| Dense adhesion in lower uterine segment |
ba2e4638-bbf9-49ae-8b50-94754cee792e | Features of congenital CMV infection are: petechial rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly, periventricular calcification, deafness, chorioretinitis,IUGR. congenital rubella syndrome: triad of cardiac defects, cataract and conductive hearing loss neonatal herpes presents as skin lesions with eye involvement, encephalitis, disseminated disease. fetal varicella syndrome: cicatrizing/ scarring skin lesions, chorioretenitis, hypoplastic limbs, LBW, CNS defects- due to cerebral atrophy. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Virology | A mother presents to the neonatology OPD with her baby because of yellow extremities. On examination, there is petechial rash over the body, hepatosplenomagaly, microcephaly. What is the causative organism?
A. CMV
B. Rubella
C. HSV
D. Varicella
| CMV |
fafbad81-7ace-48ca-8cd1-8f7c56ecd112 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nitrocellulose Smoke producing powder :- Black powder (black gun powder), Pyrodex. Smokeless powder :- Black powder plus nitrocellulose/nitrocellulose + nitroglycerine/nitroglycerine + nitrocellulose nitroguanidine. Semismokeless powder :- 80% black powder plus 20% smokeless powder. | Forensic Medicine | null | Smokeless gun powder is composed of ?
A. KMnO4
B. HCN
C. Nitrocellulose
D. Sulphur
| Nitrocellulose |
9c48faba-2728-434e-9a9d-2b2deca3ed57 | Ans. is 'A' i.e., Rheumatoid ahritis Repeat from previous sessions. See explanation-3 of session-3. | Surgery | null | Soap bubble appearance on Xray is seen in which bone tumor ?
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Giant cell tumor
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Chondroblastoma
| Osteogenic sarcoma |
8032284b-83c7-456d-afd8-063ac949ba68 | Chronic Burrowing ulcer is also known as Meleney's ulcer. This type of ulcer is caused by a hemolytic microaerophilic Streptococci, and usually develops after surgery on the intestinal or genital tract. Ref: A Manual On Clinical Surgery, By, S.Das,Page, 52, 53; Oxford Textbook Of Surgery, 2000, 2nd Edition, Page 105; Textbook of Surgery By Gupta, 2nd edition page 66. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is the organism causing chronic burrowing ulcer?
A. Peptostreptococcus
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Microaerophilic streptococci
| Microaerophilic streptococci |
05e499dd-a3f0-44c4-96ec-36bcb3903871 | Coical areas for sensation from trunk and back are small, whereas large areas are concerned with impulses from hand and pas of mouth. And from the figure 11-4 it is evident that area for hand is more than face. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:175 | Physiology | Nervous system | Somatosensory area I largest representation is for
A. Arm
B. Leg
C. Back
D. Head
| Arm |
aa3a44ca-cb09-4cff-9509-9489656b2710 | (Greenish discharge) (125-Smaw's 13th) (107-S14th)* Trichomoniasis - 70% show typical discharge, which is profuse, thin creamy or slightly green in colour irriting and frothy discharge (almost self diagnostic)Multiple small punctate strawberry spots on the vaginal vault and portio-vaginalis of the cervix {strawberry vagina)* Candidiasis (Monilliasis) - Profuse curdly discharge and intensere pruritis.* Gardnerella - (Bacterial vaginosis) - white milky, nonviscous discharge adherent to the vaginal wall, fishy odour, when mixed with 10% KOH, Presence of clue cells. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | In trichomonas - vaginalis:
A. Greenish discharge
B. White curdy discharge
C. Blood stained discharge
D. Milky discharge
| Greenish discharge |
5f9b1731-0ff2-4829-8422-02239380bbde | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased glycolysis o Increased BMR is associated with hyper metabolic state which is characterized by :-Carbohydrate metabolismi) | Glycolysis| Gluconeogenesis| Glvcogenesis| GlyeogenolysisLipid metablism| Lipogenesis| Lipolysis| Cholesterol Synthesis| Triacylglycerol Synthesis| Lipoprotein degradation| KetogenesisProtein metablismIncreased protein degradationDecreased protein biosynthesis | Physiology | Endocrinology metabolism | Increased BMR is associated with -
A. Increased body fat store
B. Increased glvcognenesis
C. Increased glycolysis
D. Increased lipogenesis
| Increased glycolysis |
e119d536-dfe4-42de-bcc0-19dc904c2d06 | Histone acetylation and deacetylation are the processes by which the lysine residues within the N-terminal tail protruding from the histone core of the nucleosome are acetylated and deacetylated as pa of gene regulation. Histone acetylation and deacetylation are essential pas of gene regulation. These reactions are typically catalysed by enzymes with "histone acetyltransferase" (HAT) or "histone deacetylase" (HDAC) activity. Acetylation is the process where an acetyl functional group is transferred from one molecule (in this case, Acetyl-Coenzyme A) to another. Deacetylation is simply the reverse reaction where an acetyl group is removed from a molecule. Acetylated histones, octameric proteins that organize chromatin into nucleosomes and ultimately higher order structures, represent a type of epigenetic marker within chromatin. Acetylation removes the positive charge on the histones, thereby decreasing the interaction of the N termini of histones with the negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA. As a consequence, the condensed chromatin is transformed into a more relaxed structure that is associated with greater levels of gene transcription. This relaxation can be reversed by HDAC activity. Relaxed, transcriptionally active DNA is referred to as euchromatin. More condensed (tightly packed) DNA is referred to as heterochromatin. Condensation can be brought about by processes including deacetylation and methylation; the action of methylation is indirect and has no effect upon charge. | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Histone acetylation causes
A. Increased Heterochromatin formation
B. Increase Euchromatin formation
C. Methylation of cystine
D. DNA replication
| Increase Euchromatin formation |
f7662a77-5cde-4d1a-b20a-7ab41ddbc252 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Vomiting [Ref: CSDT 13th/ep.444 & 11th/e p. 490; Schwartz 9th/ep.874 & 8th/e, p. 906; Bailey & Love 25th/e p.1014 & 24th/ep.996}* Boerhaave's syndrome is spontaneous perforation of the esophagus, occuring usually due tosevere barotrauma when a person vomits against a closed glottis. The pressure in the esophagus rapidly increases and the esophagus bursts at its weakest point, sending a stream of material into the mediastinum and often the pleural cavity as well.* Most common location of perforation is in the left posterolateral aspect 3-5 cm above the gastroesophageal junction. Second most common site of perforation is at the midthoracic esophagus on the right side.* Most cases follow a bout of heavy eating and drinking.* The principal early manifestation is pain felt in the chest and upper abdomen. | Surgery | Oesophagus | Boorheave syndrome involves perforation of esophagus after
A. Burns
B. Acid ingestion
C. Stress
D. Vomiting
| Vomiting |
33680ea3-80aa-489b-8303-8c1f24847266 | Glucagon is used to treat Overdose of β - blockers
Fomepizole is used to Ethylene Glycol poisoning. | Pharmacology | null | β - blocker toxicity is treated by
A. Atropine
B. Insulin
C. Fomepizole
D. Glucagon
| Glucagon |
4254bc4f-f865-4cf4-ab70-9270f4c1cc58 | C i.e. 99 - Tc - DMSA DTPA (Renogram) DMSA (Isotope Scanning) - DTPA is freely filtered at glomerulus with no - Tc.99 DMSA is used for renal morphological tubular reabsorption or excretion (i.e. GFR = (anatomic) imagine Excretory function) - This compound gets fixed in renal tubules & images - DTPA is useful for evaluating perfusion and may be obtained after 1-2 hours of injection. Lesions excretory function of each kidneyQ such as tumors & benign lesions as cysts show filling - Indications: defectQ 1. Measurement of relative renal - Used to assess coical function of KidneyQ and detect functionQ in each kidney. renal scarringQ. 2. Urinary tract obstructionQ 3. Diagnosis of Renovascular cause of hypeensionQ 4. Investigation of Renal transplantQ | Radiology | null | Investigation of choice for studying Renal Coical mass
A. 99 Tc DTPA
B. 53 Cr Study
C. 99 Tc DMSA
D. 99 Tc Pyrophosphate
| 99 Tc DMSA |
7e7c24a7-d1f5-4176-98f9-4ad600b4b853 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., E. histolytica(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1685; D.R. Arora, 2nd/e, p. 26, 27)* Fecal finding in amoebiasis are:I. Charcot-Leyden crystals.II. Positive test for heme.III. Paucity (lack) of neutrophils (pus cells). | Microbiology | Parasitology | Stain with parasite having Charcot-Layden crystals but no pus cells:
A. Giardia
B. Taenia
C. E. histolytica
D. Trichomonas
| E. histolytica |
063541e0-be6a-40c1-9ecc-c77edff6fa72 | Galactose 1-Phosphatase Uridyltransferase (GALT) the rate-limiting enzyme of galactose metabolism is deficient in galactosemia. Galactose undergoes an exchange reaction with UDP-glucose to produce glucose 1-phosphate and UDP-galactose, using the rate-limiting enzyme galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT). Galactose metabolism: Galactose and its derivatives play a central role in the biosynthesis of complex carbohydrates, glycoproteins and glycolipids. In many organisms galactose also can serve as an impoant source of energy. No direct catabolic pathways exist for galactose metabolism. Galactose is therefore preferentially conveed into Glucose-1Phosphate, which may be shunted into glycolysis or into UDP galactose which can be used in synthetic pathways, including synthesis of lactose, glycoproteins, glycolipids, and glycosaminoglycans. Leloir pathway for Galactose metabolism: Galactose metabolism involves conversion of Galactose into Glucose-1-Phoshate, which may be shunted into Glycolysisor into UDP Galactose which can be used in synthetic pathways, including synthesis of Lactose, glycoproteins, glycolipids and glycosaminoglycans. This is carried out by the three principal enzymes in a mechanism known as Leloir pathways. Three major Enzymes of Galactose Metabolism and the metabolic consequence of result of their Deficiency: GALT: Galactose-1-Phosphate-Uridyl-Transferase (Classical Galactosemia; Most common: rate limiting Step) GALK: Galactokinase (Non classical Galactosemia; Less common) GALE: UDP-Galactose-4-Epimerase (Rare) These are diseases associated with deficiencies of each of these three enzymes the Leloir pathway Type 1 Type 2 Type 3 GALT GALK1 GALE Classic Galactosemia Galactokinase Deficient Galactosemia Galactose Epimerase Deficient Galactosemia Ref: Harper | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Classic Galactosemia is due to deficiency of:
A. Hexosaminidase
B. Glucocerebroside
C. Sphingomyelinase
D. Galactose-1-Phosphate-Uridyl-Transferase
| Galactose-1-Phosphate-Uridyl-Transferase |
685c0e6e-7573-4d01-b851-209ace716bdb | Ans. (B) General anesthesia with intravenous ketamine(Ref: Williams Obstetrics 24th/e p518; Morgan 4th/197-199)The patient is presenting with shock, so spinal anesthesia cannot be used. Among the general anesthetics, ketamine is drug of choice for induction in patients with low blood pressure. | Pharmacology | Anaesthesia | A female presents with placenta previa with active bleeding and blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and pulse rate of 140 bpm. The choice of anaesthesia for emergency cesarean section in this female is?
A. General anesthesia with intravenous propofol
B. General anesthesia with intravenous ketamine
C. Spinal anesthesia
D. Epidural anesthesia
| General anesthesia with intravenous ketamine |
47b518a6-ae5a-41f5-844c-f8600566a119 | 1. All the three complement activation pathways(classical , alternate , lectin) lead to activation of C3, resulting in the production of C3b. Hence, C3b is considered as the central molecule in the activation of the complement cascade. 2. The C3b has two impoant functions to perform First, it combines with other components of the complement system to produce C5 convease, the enzyme that leads to the production of membrane attack complex(MAC) Second, it opsonizes bacteria due to the presence of receptors for C3b on the surface of the phagocytes. Biological Effects of Complement C5a: C5a is a chemotactic molecule specifically recognized by polymorphonuclear leukocytes or phagocytic cells. This substance causes leukocytes to migrate to a tissue in which an antigen-antibody reaction is taking place. At that site, a phagocytic cell recognizes opsonized paicles and ingests them. | Microbiology | Immunology Pa 2 ( Hybridoma Technology, Complement Pathways, Interferon, Structure and Functions of Immune Cells ) | Opsonization takes place through-
A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C5b
| C3b |
8f93655c-7854-4f09-8e6d-6a7c069934c7 | Following image shows a defect in the orbital floor and the 'tear drop' sign in the antrum characteristic of blow out fractures of orbit. WATER'S view on X-RAY is helpful in eliciting orbital blow out fracture | Ophthalmology | NEET 2019 | What is your diagnosis:-
A. Orbital blow out fracture
B. Orbital roof fracture
C. Oculomotor nerve paralysis
D. Retrobulbar hemorrhage
| Orbital blow out fracture |
0ba63640-144c-4bf2-8b75-abf5d58e6260 | Ans. is'a'i.e., Neck mass(Ref: Dhingra Sn/e p. 265)Neck mass is the most common presentation (60-90%) due to cervical lymphadenopathy. | ENT | null | Most common presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is?
A. Neck mass
B. Trotter's triad
C. Ophtalmoplegia
D. Glue ear
| Neck mass |
fae2e6b5-dc74-41c8-bfb1-bec207d42898 | Sixth cranial nerve which supplies the lateral rectus muscle of the eyeball. one nerve fibre supplies approximately six muscles fibers. Abducent nucleus is situated in the upper pa of the floor of fouh ventricle in the lower pons, beneath the facial colliculus.ventromedially it is closely related to the medial longitudinal bundle. Ref;BDC volume 3;6th edition. | Anatomy | Head and neck | Sixth cranial nerve lies at?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cerebellum
| Pons |
2de776e2-b80b-436f-8d38-1e94de429857 | Ans-D i.e., Intracavity brachytherapy followed by external beam radiotherapy Stage 1IA * Invasion limited to the measured stromal invasion with the maximum depth of 5mm and not wider than 7 mm IA1 * Invasion of stroma not greater than 3 mm in depth and no wider than 7mmIA2 * Measured invasion of stroma greater than 3mm but not greater than 5mm and not wider than 7 mm At this stage, the cancer is micro-invasiveMicroinvasive cervical cancer carries a minor risk of lymph node involvement and excellent prognosis following t/t.Therefore conservative t/t i.e., "conization" may also be considered many in these patients.Management of Stage IA1These are associated with the lowest risk of lymph node involvementThe risk increases only when there is lymphovascular space invasionThe t/t also varies according to the lymphovascular space invasion Lymphovascular space - Fertilities to be preserved invasion absent - Cervical Conization Do not wish to retain fertilities - Total infra fascial hysterectomy Lymphovascular - Modified radical hysterectomy and space invasion present pelvic lymphadenectomyManagement of State IA2These patients have 7% risk of lymph node metastasis and a greater than 4% risk of disease recurrence.Conservative management cannot be done for this degree of micro-invasion.These patients require "modified radical hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomyIf fertility is to be preserved - Radical trachelectomy and lymphadenectomyPatients with micro-invasive cancers (Stages IA1and IA2) can also be treated with intracavitary brachytherapy aloneThis is usually done in older women who do not wish to preserve ovarian or sexual function stage IB* Clinical lesions confined to the cervix or preclinical lesions greater than IAIB,* Clinical lesions <=4 cm in sizeib2* Clinical lesions >=4 cm in sizeSTAGE II* Carcinoma extends beyond the cervix but has not extended to the pelvic wall, involves vagina, but not lower thirdHa* No obvious parametrial involvement but do extend vaginally at far as proximal thirdHb* Invades vagina to a similar extent as well as invade the parametriumManagement of stage IB to IIa TumoursBoth Radiotherapy and surgery are viable options in these patientsThe current practice is: IB1 ib2Radical hysterectomyManaged primarily with chemoradiation similar to advanced staged cancers* In general radical hysterectomy for stage IB through IIA tumors is usually selected for younger women with low BMI's who wish to preserve ovarian function and have concerns about sexual function following radiotherapy. STAGE IIICarcinoma has extended to the pelvic wall on pelvic examination there is no cancer-free space between the tumor and the pelvic wallTumor involves a lower third of the vaginaAll cases with hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney should be includedIIIAIIIbInvolvement of lower third of vagina but no extension to the pelvic wallExtension to the pelvic wall, or hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney due to the tumor.STAGE IV* Carcinoma has extended beyond the true pelvis or has clinically involved mucosa of bladder or rectumIVa* Spread of growth the adjacent organsIVB* Spread to distant organsManagement of stage IIB through IVa These are advanced stage cervical cancers, they extend past the confines of the cervix and often involve adjacent organs and retroperitoneal lymph nodesMost of the advanced stage tumors have a poor prognosis and their survival rate is less than 50%Two treatment modalities are available for these patientsRadiation therapyChemoradiation"Radiation therapy" was the cornerstone of advanced stage cervical cancer managementBut current evidence indicates that concurrent chemotherapy significantly improved overall and disease-free survival of women with advanced cervical cancerThus most patients with stage IIB through IVA cervical cancer are best treated with "chemoradiation" - Cisplatin containing regimens are associated with best survival rates since chemoradiation is not given in the option, radiotherapy is the answer.Management of stage IVBThey have poor prognosis and are treated with a goal of palliationThey are administeredPelvic radiation - To control vaginal bleeding and painSystemic chemotherapy - To palliate symptoms | Unknown | null | Treatment of Ca Cervix IIIB include -
A. Wertheims hysterectomy
B. Schauta ' s hysterectomy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Intracavity brachytherapy followed by external beam radiotherapy
| Intracavity brachytherapy followed by external beam radiotherapy |
ed341a70-2030-4fd9-8202-cf1783f2ffef | Ans. b (Halothane). (Ref. Lee's synopsis of Anesthesia 12th ed. 163)Ether may cause a transient depression of liver function but does not cause significant damage.HALOTHANE# Dose: 0.5% (MAC 0.75%)# Actions: analgesic, anaesthetic# Advantages:- Potent and effective,- Allows for high FI02 delivery,- Bronchodilatation,- Low irritant,- Nice smell; can be used for induction# Disadvantages:- CVS depression,- Cerebral Vasodilatation- | ICP,- Respiratory depression, Airway irritation,- "halothane hepatitis",- Arrhythmias,- Myocardial depression,- Incidence of malignant hyperpyrexiaISOFLURANE# An isomer of enflurane.# It is a stable agent, so, no need of preservative.# It does not depress myocardium, so good for cardiac surgery.# Sensitizes heart to catecholamines, but not nephro/hepatotoxic.# Commonly used in neurosurgery.# Can cause coronary-steal syndrome.ENFLURANE# Nonirritating and noninflammable Liquid# Stimulates salivary and respiratory secretions slightly# Heart rate decreases little and reduction of cardiac output is less marked.# Does not sensitize the heart to adrenaline, arrhythmias are rare.# Bronchodilatation is similar to halothane.# It is a better skeletal muscle relaxant.# Contraindicated in epilepsy.METHOXYFLURANE# It has highest amount of fluoride content.# It can be converted into oxalate in the liver and can cause oxalate renal stone formation.# It is nephrotoxic and causes high out put renal failure.# Not used commonly.SEVOFLURANE# Induction and emergence from anaesthetic are fast and rapid changes in depth can be achieved.# Acceptability is good by pediatric patients.# Sevoflurane does not cause sympathetic stimulation and airway irritation even during rapid induction. Amount of fluoride liberated is safe for kidney and liver.# It is degraded by soda lime - not recommended for use in closed circuit.# Sevoflurane has rapid induction (1-2 min) and also emergence from anesthesia is more rapid than Isoflurane, and is comparable with than seen after continuous Propofol anesthesia. This makes it suitable for day -stay surgery.DESFLURANE# Anaesthetic for out patient surgery.# Induction and recovery are very fast.# Postanaesthetic cognitive and motor impairment is short-lived.# Desflurane is less potent than isoflurane; may induce coughing, breath holding and laryngospasm.# Desflurane can serve as a good alternative to isoflurane for routine surgery. | Anaesthesia | General Anesthesia | Which of the following inhalational anesthetic agent is contraindicated in liver disease?
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Halothane
C. Ether
D. Isoflurane
| Halothane |
681c0cca-aa29-4b61-8012-ae40901ba66b | Mutation of COL4A5 gene ⇒ X - linked inheritence
Mutation of COL4A3 ,COL4A4 gene ⇒ Autosomal inheritence | Physiology | null | X - linked inheritance of alport's syndrome is due to mutation of _________
A. COL4A5 gene
B. COL4B6 gene
C. COL3A5 gene
D. COL4A3 gene
| COL4A5 gene |
fb4ca388-2f12-49e0-8ebc-071e1a420f5a | The test described is the Ames test, which measures damage to DNA and correlates well with carcinogenicity in vitro. It is relatively inexpensive to perform, compared to other tests of carcinogenicity, and is frequently used as a screening test for potential carcinogens. The nitroblue tetrazolium test is used to examine the ability of neutrophils to undergo a respiratory burst, and is used in the diagnosis of hereditary immunodeficiencies. The Watson-Schwaz test detects porphobilinogen in urine, and is used in the diagnosis of porphyrias. The Widal test is used to diagnose typhoid fever. Ref: Lichtman M.A., Tefferi A. (2010). Chapter 91. Primary Myelofibrosis. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e. | Medicine | null | A chemical is tested for carcinogenicity by examining its mutagenic effects on bacterial cells in culture. Which of the following tests is used to make this determination?
A. Ames test
B. Nitroblue tetrazolium test
C. Watson-Schwaz test
D. Widal test
| Ames test |
c4a6018e-a1ce-4ac7-9805-834983d40f15 | Acquired renal scarring results from an episode or repeated episodes of acute pyelonephritis caused by infected urine in the presence of VUR. Infection activates a cascade of mediators, which leads to renal epithelial cells damage. Treatment with antibiotics during the first week after infection appears to limit inflammation, and consequently, scar formation. Only fine linear scars extending through the coex and small dimpling of the renal surface are evident if appropriate antibiotic therapy is instituted during the early inflammatory phase. Ref: Nguyen H.T., Tanagho E.A. (2009). Chapter 39. Reflux Nephropathy. In E.V. Lerma, J.S. Berns, A.R. Nissenson (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Nephrology & Hypeension. | Surgery | null | Treatment of choice for a patient with acquired vesicoureteric reflux with UTI?
A. Cotrimoxazole
B. Bilateral reimplantation of ureter
C. Injection of Collagen in the ureter
D. Endoscopic resection of ureter
| Cotrimoxazole |
c50a663a-53e8-41a5-99a6-04ab818d3ad0 | Ans. B Radial arteryRef: BDC, 6th ed. vol. I pg. 122; Gray's 41st ed. pg. 790* The anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of extensor polloicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus.* It has the radial artery running in the floor of the snuffbox, and the radial nerve passing to the dorsum of the hand.* Boundaries of snuff box:# Postero-medial border is the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus.# Antero-lateral border is a pair of parallel and intimate tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and the abductor pollicis longus.# The proximal border is formed by the styloid process of the radius.# The distal border is formed by the approximate apex of the schematic snuffbox isosceles. | Anatomy | Hand | Which structure is present in the anatomical snuff box?
A. Ulnar artery
B. Radial artery
C. Median nerve
D. Radial nerve
| Radial artery |
c9bd5a27-98ad-47e1-8ad2-a3fa927325ea | Agoraphobia: An irrational fear of open spaces or places where reaching a secure or safe base is difficult Commonest phobia encountered in clinical practice More common in women than men Panic disorder is commonly associated with agoraphobia Can cause significant dysfunctionality The individuals suffering from agoraphobia might become overly dependent on their phobic companion(s) - handful of people whom they trust. | Psychiatry | Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders | Agoraphobia is commonly associated with:-
A. Schizophrenia
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. OCD
| Panic disorder |
0ee9366e-3b4a-4b87-b1e9-b148d7f9d468 | Ans. C. Introduction of sulphur in methionine.Methionine is an essential amino acid, so it cannot be synthesized from Cysteine.But Sulphur of cysteine is donated by sulphur of methionine.This is called transulfuration reaction.PLP is the coenzyme of transulfuration.The reaction is catalysed by Cystathionine beta Synthase and Cystathionase enzyme. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Sulphur of cysteine are not used/utilised in the body for the following process/product:
A. Help in the conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
B. Thiosulphate formation
C. Introduction of sulphur in methionine
D. Disulphide bond formation between two adjacent peptide
| Introduction of sulphur in methionine |
ecb16c97-08e3-404e-8590-e331367db1f7 | Metastatic spread, which is more common in children older than 1 yr of age at diagnosis, occurs local invasion or distant hematogenous or lymphatic routes. The most common sites of metastasis are the regional or distant lymph nodes, long bones and skull, bone marrow, liver, and skin. Lung and brain metastases are rare, occurring in >3% of cases. Reference: Nelson; Neuroblastoma; Page no: 2461 | Pediatrics | Childhood tumors | The most common site of metastasis in neuroblastoma?
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Lymph nodes
D. Veebrae
| Lymph nodes |
e9756f7b-0bae-4823-9860-0c73c6670d08 | Total osmolarity is 245 mmol/litre. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:224. <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Which of the about the composition of new ORS is wrong?
A. NaCl-2.6 grams\/litre
B. KCI - 1.5grams \/litre
C. Glucose - 13.5 grams\/litre
D. Total osmolarity - 300 mmol\/1
| Total osmolarity - 300 mmol\/1 |
4f1fcd2d-bba0-49c0-83fb-82ecd5525673 | Root value of Femoral nerve: Dorsal divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4 segments of spinal cord.Ref: Chaurasia; Volume 2; 6th edition; Page no: 62 | Anatomy | Lower limb | Root value of femoral nerve?
A. Dorsal divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4
B. Ventral divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4
C. Ventral divisions of dorsal primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4
D. Dorsal divisions of dorsal primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4
| Dorsal divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4 |
a822906a-35c1-4869-a209-fe731d11aa32 | Anti-endomysial antibody The clinical features are suggestive of celiac sprue0. The typical symptoms of celiac sprue are weight loss, chronic diarrhoea, abdominal distension, growth retardation anemia. Raised liver enzymes is not mentioned in many text books including Harrison. But according to C.M.D.T. 'Mild elevation of aminotransferases are seen in upto 40% of patientsdeg " Impoant points about the diagnosis of celiac sprue Small intestinal biopsy in celiac sprue demonstrates characteristic features but it is not specific for the diagnosis of celiac sprue. It can be seen in tropical sprue also. Serological tests helpful in the diagnosis of celiac sprue are - Anti endomysial antibody (Anti EMA) - Anti tissue (t) transglutaminase antibody Anti (t) TGA A negative test excludes the diagnosis of celiac sprueQ The diagnosis of celiac sprue still rests upon - Clinical demonstration of malabsotptioni2 - Demonstration of intestinal lesion by small bowel biopsyo - Unequivocal improvement in both symptoms and mensal histology on gluten with drawl from the diets'. Antimitochondrial antibody Antimitochondrial antibody testing is done for primary biliary cirrhosis. The points against the diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis. - It typically presents in middle aged females. - initial clinical manifestations of the disease are - Pruritus -Fatigue - Characteristic elevation of alkaline phosphatase Antismooth muscle antibody Antismooth muscle antibody testing is done for autoiminune hepatitis Antoimmune hepatitis is common in young women. The usual presentation is an acute attack of hepatitis. | Surgery | null | 30 year male with chronic diarrhoea, anemia, raised liver enzymes. Most likely associated with
A. Antimitochondrial antibody
B. Anti-endomysial antibody
C. Anti-smooth muscle antibody
D. Antinuclear antibody
| Anti-endomysial antibody |
66e4edc0-b678-4e1a-b0dc-f8269a6b7992 | Parasitic cysts such as subconjuctival cyst is seen in Cysticercosis . Hydatid cyst and filarial cust are not infrequent in development countries. Common cystic lesions of conjunctiva are : Congenital cystic lesions Lymphatic cysts of conjunctiva Retention cysts Epithelial implantation cyst (traumatic cyst) Aqueous cyst Pigmented epithelial cyst Parasitic cysts Ref;A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no: 92 | Ophthalmology | Conjunctiva | Subconjunctival cyst is seen in QUESTION REPEATED
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cysticercosis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Chagas disease
| Cysticercosis |
58154b06-bd9a-4ed7-9a93-e1cf06d68a81 | Hemiazygos vein crosses from left to right at the level of T8, after piercing the left crus of diaphragm while ascending. | Anatomy | null | Hemiazygous vein crosses left to right at the level
A. T8
B. T10
C. T12
D. T6
| T8 |
2a2e3811-4ea2-4c38-80e9-35422df68a49 | Answer is A (SLE): Antibodies against double stranded DNA (Anti, ds DNA) and Sm antigen (Anti Sm) are highly specific and viual!;' diagnostic of SLE - Robbins | Medicine | null | Deposition of Anti ds DNA Ab in kidney, skin, choroid plexus and joints is seen in:
A. SLE
B. Good pasture
C. Scleroderma
D. Raynauds disease
| SLE |
e336226b-1657-490c-b691-354961a21794 | Minimal alveolar concentrationIt is the lowest concentration of the anaesthetic in pulmonary alveoli needed to produce immobility in response to a painful stimulus (surgical incision) in 50% individualsIt is the measure of potency of inhalation Gas.(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no. 162 - 163) | Anaesthesia | All India exam | Index of potency of general anesthesia
A. Minimum alveolar concentration
B. Diffusion coefficient
C. Dead space concentration
D. Alveolar blood concentration
| Minimum alveolar concentration |
20d865bb-413d-43c7-8cb2-73e4ef76e1f1 | As discussed earlier absolute bone conduction test is a tuning fork test in which bone conduction of the patient is compared with BC of the examiner after occluding the external auditory meatus of both patient and examiner
Bone conduction is a measure of cochlear function.
Hence, ABC test is used to detect damage to cochlea.
Rinne’s test
— Measure air conduction
Weber’s test
Caloric test – assesses vestibular function | ENT | null | Test of detecting damage to cochlea -
A. Caloric test
B. Weber test
C. Rinne's test
D. ABC test
| ABC test |
7e0a8fcb-233f-425f-82fa-25630399e124 | Intravenous Adrenaline REF: Harrison's Internal Medicinel7th ed> Chapter 311. Allergies, Anaphylaxis, and Systemic M astocytosis Anaphylaxis: Treatment Mild symptoms such as pruritus and uicaria can be controlled by administration of 0.3 to 0.5 mL of 1:1000 (1.0 mg/mL) epinephrine SC or IM, with repeated doses as required at 5- to 20-min intervals for a severe reaction An IV infusion should be initiated to provide a route for administration of 2.5 mL epinephrine, diluted 1:10,000, at 5- to 10-min intervals, volume expanders such as normal saline, and vasopressor agents such as dopamine if intractable hypotension occurs. When epinephrine fails to control the anaphylactic reaction, hypoxia due to airway obstruction or related to a cardiac arrhythmia, or both, must be considered Oxygen alone a nasal catheter or with nebulized albuterol may be helpful, but either endotracheal intubation or a tracheostomy is mandatory for oxygen delivery if progressive hypoxia develops. Ancillary agents such as the antihistamine diphenhydramine, 50 to 100 mgIM or IV, and aminophylline , 0.25 to 0.5 g IV, are appropriate for uicaria-angioedema and bronchospasm, respectively. Intravenous glucocoicoids, 0.5-1.0 mg/kg of medrol, are not effective for the acute event but may allete later recurrence of bronchospasm, hypotension, or uicaria. | Surgery | null | Drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is?
A. Subcutaneous Adrenalin
B. Intravenous Adrenaline
C. Steroids
D. Atropine
| Intravenous Adrenaline |
4d660d0a-4287-4e67-819d-aca58c3af292 | In patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, endocarditis is the most striking cardiac lesion, termed Libman-Sacks endocarditis. Nonbacterial vegetations are seen on the undersurface of the mitral valve close to the origin of the leaflets from the valve ring (Libman-Sacks endocarditis). There is fibrinoid necrosis of small vessels with focal degeneration of interstitial tissue. Rheumatic fever (choice E) is not commonly associated with ANAs seen in this case.Diagnosis: Systemic lupus erythematosis | Pathology | C.V.S | A 30-year-old woman presents with a heart murmur. There is a history of recurrent episodes of arthritis, skin rash, and glomerulonephritis. Blood cultures are negative. Laboratory tests for antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA are positive. Which of the following is the most likely cause of heart murmur in this patient?
A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis
B. Mitral valve prolapse
C. Myocardial infarct
D. Mitral valve prolapse
| Libman-Sacks endocarditis |
d0b7b43c-3568-48d0-9154-4d448ad66789 | In acute suppurative otitis media, 85% of cases show a small perforation in antero-inferior quadrant of pars tensa. Perforations in this location were associated with smooth margins, good drainage of pus, and a orable clinical course. Hence this area is termed as "perforation zone". Only 15% of perforations occurred in other locations, most typically the posterior-superior quadrant. | ENT | null | Most common site of perforation of tympanic membrane in acute suppurative otitis media is:
A. Anterior superior quadrant
B. Anterior inferior quadrant
C. Posterior superior quadrant
D. Posterior inferior quadrant
| Anterior inferior quadrant |
91ff342c-da25-4cb6-a845-a424819eef1a | Betaxolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker which can be used for the treatment of glaucoma. | Pharmacology | null | Among the following longest acting ocular beta-blocker is:
A. Betaxolol.
B. Timolol.
C. Cartiolol.
D. Metoprolol.
| Betaxolol. |
a03362d1-4d2d-40d5-b09c-ea44fa8e4099 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Molar pregnancy * "Snow storm appearance" or "bunch of grapes appearance" is characteristic of H. mole. | Radiology | Obstetrics And Gynaecology | Snowstorm appearance on ultrasonography is seen in-
A. Hydatid cyst
B. Pyogenic liver abscess
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Molar pregnancy
| Molar pregnancy |
c9ae6998-ab3f-4868-9f5d-bf45d8f8b1df | Rheumatoid ahritis principally involves atlantoaxial joint of cervical spine. Atlantoaxial involvement of the cervical spine result in compressive myelopathy and neurologic dysfunction. Rheumatoid ahritis does not affect thoracic and lumbar spine except in unusual circumstances. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18e chapter 321. | Medicine | null | Which of the following region of spine is most commonly affected in rheumatoid ahritis?
A. Cervical spine
B. Thoracic spine
C. Lumbar spine
D. Sacral spine
| Cervical spine |
e458f7de-4a60-4d5b-9393-4cec7750e852 | Ans. is 'b1 i.e., 4 weeks Basic principle of immunezationMinimum 4 week interval recommended between 2 live vaccine adminstration except OPVand oral thyphoid.Two or more killed vaccine may be administrated simultaneously or at any given internalA live and killed vaccine given simultaneously but at different site.If immunisation status unknown, give age appropriate vaccineMixing of vaccine in same syringe not recommendedLive vaccine should be avoided in AIDS, | Pediatrics | Preventive Measures | Minimum interval between 2 live vaccine immunization -
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 week
D. 8 weeks
| 4 weeks |
5ba819f6-2242-4bcb-86cc-09aaad347566 | Detection of hCG in maternal blood and urine is the basis for endocrine assays of pregnancy. Syncytiotrophoblasts produce hCG in amounts that increase exponentially during the first trimester following implantation. With a sensitive test, the hormone can be detected in maternal serum or urine by 8 to 9 days after ovulation. The doubling time of serum hCG concentration is 1.4 to 2.0 days. (Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | With a sensitive test, hCG can be detected in maternal serum or urine by ------ after ovulation?
A. 3 to 4 days
B. 8 to 9 days
C. 12 to 14 days
D. 20 to 21 days
| 8 to 9 days |
54c6a634-8f38-4073-be46-b8604d020d35 | Ans. (a) Tidal Volume X Respiratory RateRef: Ganong 25th ed. 1629RMV: Respiratory minute volume: 500ml X 12 breaths/ min= 6L | Physiology | Mechanics of Respiration | Normal respiratory minute volume is?
A. Tidal volume X Respiratory Rate
B. Tidal volume/ Respiratory Rate
C. TLC/ Respiratory Rate
D. FRC/ Respiratory Rate
| Tidal volume X Respiratory Rate |
df268a80-d2bd-485d-b300-44402ea14358 | The discovery of the tumor suppressor protein known as p53, and the process of uneahing its functions came about as a result the effos of thousands of scientists around the globe. In p53: The Gene that Cracked the Cancer Code, science writer Sue Armstrong takes a fresh look at the exciting breakthroughs and disappointing setbacks that characterized this endeavor. The result, according to reviewers Anna Mandinova and Sam W. Lee, is a brilliant narrative that captures the enthusiasm and excitement of scientific discovery, as well as the daily struggles and challenges faced by cancer researchers. | Pathology | General pathology | Which of the following is known as the "guardian of the genome"-
A. p53
B. Mdm2
C. p14
D. ATM
| p53 |
540c4efb-7e68-4c70-a6c8-08f010ce5384 | Features of Vogt Kayanagi Harada Syndrome include Mental retardation. | Ophthalmology | null | Not a feature of Vogt Kayanagi Harada Syndrome is
A. Sensorineural hearing loss
B. Norma IQ
C. Vitiligo
D. Hyperpigmentation
| Norma IQ |
aef65d29-b71c-44cf-beca-5d3c0979343c | .CARCINOID TUMOUR It commonly occurs in appendix (65%), ileum (25%), other pas of GIT and rarely bronchus, testis, ovary. In the small intestine, carcinoids are most often seen within the terminal 2 feet of the ileum. * They arise from the enterochromaffin cells (Kulchitsky cells) found in the crypts of Lieberkuhn. * These cells are capable of APUD (Amine precursor uptake and Decarboxylation) and can secrete vasoactive peptides. * Carcinoid syndrome is seen in 40% of patients. * Carcinoid in appendix is usually single. But commonly it causes luminal obstruction and so presents with features of appendicitis. Common site is at tip/distal 2/3. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery ,ed 3,pg no 812 | Surgery | G.I.T | Most common site for carcinoid tumor in the abdomen
A. Appendix
B. Liver
C. Intestines
D. Pancreas
| Appendix |
ab94cdbd-bc8a-46c7-b31c-ca7dde667157 | NSAID'S Inhibit COX enzyme reversibly, Except Aspirin which is an irreversible inhibitor of this enzyme . Alprostadil -PGE1 and prednisolone do not inhibit cox enzyme . | Pharmacology | Hematology | Which of the following drugs inhibit platelet cyclooxygenase reversibly?
A. Alprostadil
B. Aspirin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Prednisolone
| Ibuprofen |
603728a8-eccd-49fd-bb3a-58448a1d5bd7 | Ans. is 'c' ie. Soyabean Vit B12 is present in foods of animal origin and is not present in foods of vegetable sources. | Biochemistry | Nutrition & Digestion | Not a dietary source of vit. B12-
A. Fish
B. Meat
C. Soya bean
D. Liver
| Soya bean |
8970609a-1e5d-4156-a297-d2eb1155be02 | Ref: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th Edition Chapter 66 Intestinal Obstruction Pages 1191-12 & Donald A, Antonio!i, " Gastrointestinal Autonomic Nerve Tumors, expanding the spectrum of gastrointestinal stromal tumors," Arch Pathol Lab Med: 1989: 113: 831-833.Explanation:IntussusceptionInvagination of an intestinal segment (the intussusception) into the next distal part of the intestine forms a sheath around it (the intussuscipiens) producing a form of intestinal obstruction called 'intussusception'.The most common cause is hypertrophy of the Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum from an antecedent viral infection.The hypertrophied lymphatic patch becomes drawn into the lumen of the terminal ileum and is moved progressively into the ascending and transverse colon.Other predisposing factors includePolypsMeckel's diverticulumBenign tumors like lipomaLeiomyomaMalignant tumors such as lymphoma which may act as lead points for intussusception.GI lipomas, most common in the ileum, are single intramural lesion, submucosal in location and usually small.One portion of the gut becomes invaginated within an immediately adjacent segment: almost invariably, it is the proximal into the distal.The condition is encountered most commonly in children, with a peak incidence between 5 and 10 months of age.About 90% of cases are idiopathic but an associated upper respiratory tract infection or gastroenteritis may precede the condition.It is believed that hyperplasia of Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum.Weaning, loss of passively acquired maternal immunity and common viral pathogens have all been implicated in the pathogenesis of intussusception in infancy.Children Pathological lead pointsMeckel's diverticulumPolypduplication,Henoch-Schonlein purpuraAppendixAdult cases lead pointA polyp (e.g. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome)A submucosal lipomaother tumoursPathologyAn intussusception is composed of three parts:The entering or inner tube (intussusceptum)The returning or middle tube:The sheath or outer tube (intussuscipiens).The part that advances is the apex, the mass is the intussusception and the neck is the junction of the entering layer with the mass.An intussusception is an example of a strangulating obstruction as the blood supply of the inner layer is usually impaired.The degree of ischaemia is dependent on the tightness of the invagination, which is usually greatest as it passes through the ileocaecal valve.Intussusception may be anatomically defined according to the site and extent of invagination.In most children, the intussusception is ileocolicIn adults, colocolic intussusception is commonIntussusceptionMost common in childrenPrimary or secondary to intestinal pathology, e.g. polypMeckel's diverticulumIleocolic is the commonest varietyCan lead to an ischaemic segmentRadiological reduction is indicated in most casesThe remainder require surgery | Surgery | Intestinal Obstruction | Intussusception is associated with:
A. Submucous lipoma
B. Subserosal lipoma
C. Intramural lipoma
D. Serosal lipoma
| Submucous lipoma |
40ea7a51-9d34-42b2-b7f1-acc85adf4164 | Shrinking lung syndrome (SLS) is a rare complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) characterized by unexplained dyspnea, a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests, and an elevated hemidiaphragm.. This disorder is seen primarily during the later stages of SLE Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 533 | Medicine | Miscellaneous | 'Shrinking lung' is a feature of
A. Rheumatoid ahritis
B. SLE
C. Systemic scleoris
D. Polymyosities
| SLE |
91671c38-393d-4f1d-a002-7f40960dbf0a | Irritability is the most common cannabis withdrawal syndrome Withdrawal symptoms- Irritability Depressed mood Sleep disturbances Headache | Psychiatry | Substance Related and Addictive Disorders | A 40 years old patient who has been consuming cannabis regularly for last 20 years comes to you in withdrawal. What is the most frequently seen withdrawal symptom?
A. Yawning
B. Seizures
C. Irritability
D. Tremors
| Irritability |
d7ec1307-7179-47c0-b398-82a286b6eee3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antitoxin Treatment of diphtheria . Administration of diphtherial antitoxin is the most impoant element in the treatment of respiratory diphtheria. . The primary goal of antibiotic therapy is to eradicate C. diphtheriae. Drugs currently used are erythromycin or procaine penicillin G. alternatives are rifampicin or clindamycin. Prophylaxis of diphtheria . Diphtheria can be controlled by immunisation. The objective of immunisation is to increase protective level of antitoxin in circulation. Three methods of immunisation are available : 1) Active immunisation By administration of toxoid, either formal toxoid or adsorbed toxoid. It is the best method for prevention. . Usually intramuscular injection is given. . Provide herd immunity. . Primary immunization consists of 3 doses at four weeks interval. 2) Passive immunisation . By subcutaneous injection of antitoxin (antidiphtheric serum (ADS)). . This is an emergency measure to be employed when susceptibles are exposed to infection. 3) Combined immunization . Ideally, all cases that receive ADS prophylactically should receive combined immunisation. . This consists of administration of toxoid in one arm and antitoxin in the other. | Microbiology | null | Most impoant element in treatment of diphtheria ?
A. Antitoxin
B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin
| Antitoxin |
d9339321-fa74-47df-ac54-74534194171e | Ans. (A) Organophosphate poisoning(Ref: Katzung 12/e p110)These are characteristic features of anti-cholinestearse (organophosphate and carbamate) poisoning.Features of Organophosphate poisoning:* Muscarinic symptoms: Pin point pupil, salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal distress, vomiting, bronchospasm, bradycardia* Nicotinic symptoms: Fasciculations and fibrillations of muscle, tachycardia, tachypnea* CNS symptoms: Temors, giddiness, ataxia, coma* Red tears: Due to accumulation of porphyrin in the lacrimal glands | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | A patient presents to emergency with pinpoint pupil, salivation, lacrimation, tremors and red tears. Plasma cholinesterase level was 30% of normal. Most probable Diagnosis is:
A. Organophosphate poisoning
B. Datura poisoning
C. Opioid poisoning
D. Pontine hemorrhage
| Organophosphate poisoning |
9296ef51-d6c4-4fb5-b5d6-f3612b0a07a0 | The HMP shunt pathway has oxidative and non-oxidative phases. During the oxidative phase, glucose-6-phosphate is oxidized with the generation of 2 molecules of NADPH, and one molecule of pentose phosphate, with the liberation of one molecule of CO2. During the non-oxidative phase, the pentose phosphates are converted to intermediates of glycolysis. | Physiology | null | Two important byproducts of HMP shunt are
A. NADH and pentose sugars
B. NADPH and pentose sugars
C. Pentose sugars and 4 membered sugars
D. Pentose sugars and sedoheptulose
| NADPH and pentose sugars |
9e3b7483-ae13-4a58-aae7-f21c7d3d9830 | Vasa Pre in a term gestation is managed by immediate LSCS. Management of vasa pre: Confirmed vasa pre not bleeding: Admit at 28-32 weeks, plan elective CS depending on fetal lung maturity Bleeding vasa pre: Delivery should be done by category 1 Emergency CS. (Categories based on urgency such as emergency, urgency, scheduled, elective) Neonatal blood transfusion may be needed. Vagos method: It is a management technique used in Umbilical cord prolapse, where Foley catheter is placed and the bladder provides upward pressure on the fetus, thus alleting the compression on the cord. Ref: DC Dutta&;s Textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Pgno: 301 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | Vasa pre in a term gestation is managed by __________
A. Rapid induction and delivery by vaccum
B. Rapid induction and delivery by forceps
C. Immediate LSCS
D. Adopt vagos method and rapid vaginal delivery
| Immediate LSCS |
992946ea-259c-44d9-9489-8a39e59d9a93 | Pleomorphic Adenoma : Epithelial Components Tubular and cord-like arrangements Cells contain a moderate amount of cytoplasm Mitoses are rare Stromal or "mesenchymal" Components Can be quite variable Attributable to the myoepithelial cells Most tumors show chondroid (cailaginous) differentiation Osseous metaplasia not uncommon Relatively hypocellular and composed of pale blue to slightly eosinophilic tissue. ref : bailey and love 27th ed | Surgery | All India exam | most coomon benign tumor of parotid gland?
A. pleomrophic adenoma
B. wahins tumor
C. mucoepidermoid tumor
D. adenoid cystic tumor
| pleomrophic adenoma |
b97a828f-5748-45a5-8c7a-06b8a4f4dffd | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Manual strangulation Six penny bruiseThese are discoid shaped bruises of about 1 cm in diameter resulted from fingeip pressure usually seen in neck region because of manual strangulation. These are called six penny bruise because of resemblance with six penny. | Forensic Medicine | null | Six penny bruise is seen in ?
A. Manual strangulation
B. Hanging
C. Pedestrian injury
D. Head injury
| Manual strangulation |
90a3b503-6496-473e-9b1b-10a8c52679a4 | Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT): Small numbers of lymphocytes may be present almost anywhere in the body, but signifi cant aggregations are seen in relation to the mucosa of the respiratory, alimentary and urogenital tracts. These aggregations are referred to as MALT. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue in the respiratory system: In the respiratory system the aggregations are relatively small and are present in the walls of the trachea and large bronchi. The term bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT) is applied to these aggregations. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue in the alimentary system: This is also called gutassociated lymphoid tissue (GALT) and includes Peyer's patches of ilium, adenoids (located in the roof of pharynx), lingual tonsils in posterior 1/3rd of tongue, palatine tonsils and lymphoid nodules in vermiform appendix. REF : Inderbir Singh's Textbook of Human Histology, Seventh edition, pg.no., 127, 128. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following is not a Deep Lymphoid tissue
A. MALT
B. GALT
C. BALT
D. DLT
| DLT |
ce225449-debd-4b32-9a01-4c35008c96d8 | Cyclooxygenase is a "Suicide Enzyme""Switching off " of prostaglandin activity is paly achieved by a remarkable propey of cyclooxygenase--that of self-catalyzed destruction; that is, it is a "suicide enzyme." Fuhermore, the inactivation of prostaglandins by 15-hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase is rapid. Blocking the action of this enzyme with sulfasalazine or indomethacin can prolong the half-life of prostaglandins in the body.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 23; Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids & Eicosanoids | Biochemistry | Structure and function of protein | Which of the following is a suicidal enzyme
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Lipooxygenase
C. 5-nucleotidase
D. Thrombaxane synthase
| Cyclooxygenase |
4d46cb0c-1d31-49d1-b848-de8f182c93c4 | Answer is D (Episodic Hypeension): The predominant manifestation of Pheochromocytoma is Hypeension which classically presents as Episodic Hypeension (Sustained Hypeension and Ohostatic Hypotension may also be seen). 'The dominant sign is Hypeension. Classically patients have episodic hypeension, but sustained hypeension is also common' - Harrison | Medicine | null | The predominant symptom/sign of pheochromocytoma is:
A. Sweating
B. Weight loss
C. Ohostatic hypotension
D. Episodic hypeension
| Episodic hypeension |
9c86a7af-7807-48bb-8b72-18a341986548 | B cells display immunoglobulin molecules on their surface. These immunoglobulins serve as receptors for a specific antigen, so that each B cell can respond to only one antigen or a closely related group of antigens. All immature B cells carry Ig M immunoglobulins on their surface and most also early Ig D.
Combination of cell membrane bound Ig M or Ig D with the corresponding antigen leads to specific stimulation of the B cells - either activation and cloning to produce antibody, or suppression.
B cells also have surface receptors for the Fe portion of inununogloblins and for several complement components. | Microbiology | null | Which one of the following immunoglobulins constitutes the antigen binding component of B-cell receptor -a) IgAb) IgDc) IgMd) lgG
A. a
B. bc
C. ac
D. ad
| bc |
2d4d2e32-ad98-4703-b468-b56c36558cc8 | Molecular analysis of the rearrangement in T cell population can distinguish polyclonal lymphocyte proliferations from monoclonal expansions. Reference :Robbins basic pathology 9th edition pg no 100: | Pathology | General pathology | The following marker is used to assess the monoclonality in T-cells -
A. Kappa and Lambda chain
B. TCR gene rearrangement
C. CD
D. CD34
| TCR gene rearrangement |
d017027e-d202-4e88-ba44-a62c0011fec2 | OSA-obstructive sleep apnea #Pathophysiology of OSA Tissue laxity and redundant mucosa Normal Anatomic abnormalities * Decreased muscle tone with REM sleep """&;"&;n * Airway collars, * Desaturation ( 02 ) * Arousal with restoration of airway * Sleep Fragmentation leading to Hypersomnoien, * Clinical features of Obstructive Sleep Apnea: #Excessive daytime sleepiness #Morning headache #Cardiopulmonary dysfunction -- hypeension -- cardiac arrhythmias -- hea failure #Impaired memory and concentration #Reduced intellectual ability #Disturbed personality and mood . *The dominant symptoms of OSA are excessive sleepiness, impaired concentration and snoring. Pharmacologic therapy * Modafinil is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in patients who have residual daytime sleepiness despite optimal use of CRAP. * Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor agents such as paroxetine (Paxil) and fluoxetine (Prozac) have been shownto increase genioglossal muscle activity and decrease REM sleep (apneas are more common in REM), although this has not translated to a reduction in AHI in apnea patients ref : kd tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | All India exam | a patient of age 65 years , who is obesity of bmi >40 , known diabetic and hypeensive .patient complaints of breathlessness , excessive sleeping during morning time with headache and with mood swings, what is drug that helps in resolving the symptoms ?
A. salbutamol
B. amoxitine
C. phenylephrine
D. modafinil
| modafinil |
8f55dcfd-28b4-4a8f-809e-04d720965fd6 | Ans: C (Ability to read and write) Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, K Park. 22nd edition. page no 44 7Explanation:Census is conducted once in 10 years in India.Literacy rate is assessed those above 7 years ageIn census it was first used in 1991 censusA person who can read and write with understanding in any language is considered as literateA person who can merely read but cannot write is not considered literate | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography | in census literacy rate is assessed by:
A. Attended literacy classes for one year
B. Ability to write signature
C. Ability to read and write
D. Attended schooling
| Ability to read and write |
a587aa62-0e1a-442d-a0c5-531d6c387ac3 | Influenza virus jad ss RNA , it is segmented& exists ad right piece REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.497 | Microbiology | Virology | Influenza virus has?
A. 5 segments of SS RNA
B. 8 segments of ds DNA
C. 8 segments of ds DNA
D. 8 segments of ssRNA
| 8 segments of ssRNA |
24f96597-0877-4605-bd62-65edbe119df0 | A vacuum is applied (usually 0.2 kg/cm2 for vacuum extraction of a baby).
The scalp is sucked into the cup and an artificial caput is produced. This chignon usually disappears in a few hours. | Unknown | null | Chignon is:
A. Cephal hematoma
B. Artificial caput
C. Scalp laceration
D. Excessive moulding
| Artificial caput |
908465f6-66c2-4a96-b3d2-456e3aae25cb | A collection of lymphoid tissue is present in the nasopharynx, behind the tubal opening. It is called the tubal tonsil, also known as Gerlach tonsil. It is continuous with the lateral pa of the pharyngeal tonsil. In Waldeyer's lymphatic ring, the most impoant aggregations are the right and left palatine tonsils. Posteriorly and above there is the pharyngeal tonsil; laterally and above there are the tubal tonsils, and inferiorly there is the lingual tonsil over the posterior pa of the dorsum of the tongue. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. | Anatomy | Head and neck | Gerlach tonsil is
A. Palatine tonsil
B. Lingual tonsil
C. Tubal tonsil
D. Nasopharyngeal tonsil
| Tubal tonsil |
8b575402-dd62-4075-8a4e-bafb9dcf577a | Ans. is b' i.e., Cephalic veinDeltopectoral groove is a groove between deltoid muscle and pectoralis major muscle. It is traversed by cephalic vein | Anatomy | null | Structure related to deltopectoral groove ?
A. Axillary aery
B. Cephalic vein
C. Baselic vein
D. Radial nerve
| Cephalic vein |
5e57ed8d-d38b-40d0-8de1-6577d29b0167 | The patient presents with hyperextension deformity of the knee. | Orthopaedics | null | Commonest presentation of congenital dislocation of the knee is -
A. Varus
B. Valgus
C. Flexion
D. Hyperextens ion
| Hyperextens ion |
ad2c9dd2-584f-423b-b1f7-685b4e47d68b | Putscher's retinopathy is a disease where pa of the eye (retina) is damaged. Usually associated with severe head injuries, it may also occur with other types of trauma, such as long bone fractures, or with several non-traumatic systemic diseases. However, the exact cause of the disease is not well understood. There are no treatments specific for Puscher's retinopathy, and the prognosis varies. The disease can threaten vision, sometimes causing temporary or permanent blindness. | Ophthalmology | Vitreous and retina | Puscher retinopathy is seen in patients with -
A. Complication of chronic pancreatitis
B. Occlusion of anterior retinal aery
C. Head trauma
D. Diabetes mellitus
| Head trauma |
b158129e-1915-4d65-bcab-5019c7822bb0 | Marfan's syndrome is caused by recurrent de novo missense mutation in the fibrillin-1 gene. Fibrillin1 is a large glycoprotein that is a structural component of microfibrils. Fibrillin 1 is found in the zonular fibers of the lens, in the periosteum and elastin fibers of aoa. Defect in fibrillin gene accounts for the manifestations of marfans syndrome such as ectopia lentis, arachnodactyly and cardiovascular problems. Mutation of fibrillin 2 gene on chromosome 5 lead to causation of congenital contractural arachnodactyly. | Pathology | null | Mutation in which of the following gene is found in Marfan's syndrome?
A. Collagen I
B. Collagen IV
C. Fibrillin I
D. Fibrillin II
| Fibrillin I |
9876bc1f-30d3-451e-8bea-50bdd80086f9 | Autoimmune gastritis refers to chronic, diffuse inflammatory disease of the stomach that is restricted to the body and fundus and is associated with other autoimmune phenomena. This disorder typically features diffuse atrophic gastritis, antibodies to parietal cells and the intrinsic factor, and increased serum gastrin due to G-cell hyperplasia. Immunologic destruction of parietal cells and antibody targeting of intrinsic factor interfere with intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 . As a result, all lineages of bone marrow precursors show asynchronous maturation between the nucleus and cytoplasm (megaloblastic cells), and the peripheral blood displays megaloblastic anemia. Megaloblastic anemia that is caused by malabsorption of vitamin B12 , occasioned by a deficiency of the intrinsic factor, is referred to as "pernicious anemia." The other choices are not causes of pernicious anemia.Diagnosis: Autoimmune atrophic gastritis, pernicious anemia | Pathology | G.I.T. | A 34-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of weakness and fatigue. There is no history of drug or alcohol abuse. A CBC shows megaloblastic anemia and a normal reticulocyte count. Further laboratory studies reveal vitamin B12 deficiency Anemia in this patient is most likely caused by which of the following?
A. Acute erosive gastritis
B. Autoimmune gastritis
C. Helicobacter pylori gastritis
D. Menetrier disease
| Autoimmune gastritis |
52585a42-70e8-4f18-8d9a-bcbc85b23a62 | Pulled up conical caecum is the finding seen in ileocaecal TB in Barium study X ray (enteroclysis followed by barium enema or barium meal follow through X ray) Reference : page 584 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | Surgery | Urology | Pulled up cecum is seen in
A. CA colon
B. Carcinoid
C. Ileocaecal tuberculosis
D. Crohn's disease
| Ileocaecal tuberculosis |
0813f52f-e5da-4fd7-be3c-88baa4bab2ad | Clinical feature of Sturge-weber's syndrome
Unilateral facial nerves (port-wine stain) on upper face and eye lid.
Cavernous hemangioma
Seizures --> Focal tonic-clonic and contralateral to the site of nerves.
Hemiparessis
Transient stroke like episodes
Visual defects
Buphthalmos and glaucoma -k Same side.
Mental retardation
Pheochromocytoma | Pediatrics | null | Sturge weber syndrome is associated with –a) Port wine stainb) Cavernous hemangiomac) Lymphangiomad) hemangiosarcoma
A. ab
B. a
C. ad
D. bc
| ab |
758b1f91-68ad-4a80-b460-c08ab6b39007 | Splenunculi- single or multiple accessory spleens MC site: near the hilum of the spleen > behind the tail of the pancreas The remainder are located in the mesocolon, greater omentum or the splenic ligaments. Significance- failure to identify and remove these at the time of splenectomy may give rise to persistent disease | Surgery | Spleen | What is the most common site of an accessory spleen?
A. Greater curvature of the stomach
B. Gastrocolic ligament
C. Splenocolic ligament
D. Splenic hilum
| Splenic hilum |
cf81b5d7-9215-4a09-8f60-51df75121ace | Linitis plastica
Involvement of a broad region of the gastric wall or entire stomach by diffuse stomach cancer cause linitis plastica.
It is also known as Brinton's disease.
The appearance of stomach is like leather bottle.
The other cause of linitis plastica are :
Lye ingestion
Sarcoidosis
Metastatic infiltration of stomach
Non -hodgkin lymphoma of stomach
Syphilis | Pathology | null | Linitis plastica is a feature of -a) Hiatus herniab) Chronic gastric ulcerc) Lymphoma of stomachd) Diffuse carcinoma stomach
A. ab
B. bc
C. bd
D. cd
| cd |
7a5f8b6d-f30a-4cc5-a794-70c745fa9382 | Following ovulation, the corpus luteum develops from the remains of the dominant or Graafian follicle in a process referred to as luteinization. The human corpus luteum is a transient endocrine organ that, in the absence of pregnancy, will rapidly regress 9 to 11 days after ovulation. Luteolysis results from decreased levels of circulating LH in the late luteal phase and decreased LH sensitivity of luteal cells. Luteolysis is characterized by a loss of luteal cells by apoptotic cell death. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 3. Implantation, Embryogenesis, and Placental Development. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The time duration for functioning of corpus luteum after ovulation in a nonpregnant female is:
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
| 10 days |
f9073a62-0b75-4c01-81bc-820077c48b39 | Ans. (b) 9%Ref: Appendix-115 for "METHODS OF CONTRACEPTION" | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Non-Hormonal - Barrier Methods | Today vaginal sponge failure rate is?
A. 5%
B. 9%
C. 16%
D. 20%
| 9% |
ce403c7e-3974-43db-975b-4c65e7c018bc | Ans. (a) Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breastRef: OP Ghai 8th ed./153* A problem that may beset a bottlefed baby in which it forgets how to nurse on mother' nipple* Breastfeeding requires far more vigorous mouth and tongue motions and greater muscle coordination than bottlefeeding.* On bottle nipples or even pacifiers, a newborn can forget how to nurse properly.* This confusion can lead to diminished or discontinued nursing. Nipple confusion is usually not a concern after the early weeks, once the baby is nursing well. | Pediatrics | Newborn Infant - Parent-Infant Bonding | Nipple confusion means?
A. Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breast
B. Baby not able to suckle with bottle
C. Baby not able to feed with spoon
D. Baby not able to feed with paladin
| Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breast |
cde502eb-c45b-48ae-ae52-2557bd0c44ac | Transketolase reactions require thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP).Coenzyme can be classified according to the group whose transfer they facilitate.a) For transfer groups other than hydrogen :- Sugar phosphate, CoA-SH, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), Pyridoxal phosphate, Folate, Biotin.b) For transfer of hydrogen : - NAD+, NADP+, FMN, FAP, Lipoic acid,Coenzyme Q. | Biochemistry | null | Enzyme Transketolase requires ?
A. FAD
B. TPP
C. PLP
D. FMN
| TPP |
2202281e-136d-4e12-9213-75e16160dda2 | Yolk sac is the first anatomic structure seen within gestational sac. By TVS, it can be seen as early as 5.5week By TAS, it is seen by 7 weeks. Ref:Datta Obs 9e pg 601. | Anatomy | General obstetrics | What is seen earliest in USG?
A. Yolk sac
B. Fetal hea
C. Chorion
D. Placenta
| Yolk sac |
a486fa29-9373-4089-b386-29fc81ae001a | Rhabdomyosarcoma An adjectival description for a relatively elongated cell, lesion, structure or radiological density that is globose at one end and elongated at the other, alike to the device used in game of tennis. Tennis racquet cell: A tennis-racquet-shaped variant of rhabdomyoblast seen in sarcoma botryoides, a form of rhabdomyosarcoma affecting children. The key cell to recognize by routine microscopy is the rhabdomyoblast, a cell with an eccentric round nucleus and variable amounts of brightly eosinophilic cytoplasm. 'Tennis racquet' appearance: A descriptive term for the ping-pong paddle-like thickening of the mesangium in glomeruli affected by Kimmelstiel Wilson disease. Tennis racquet granule: Birbeck granule; Langerhans' granule. A subcellular paicle with a pentilaminar 'handle' and bulbous terminal dilation of unceain significance that is seen by electron microscopy in the antigen-presenting Langerhans cell and in histiocytes. 'Tennis racquet sign (radiology): The description for a finding in a 'blighted ovum' in which the ultrasonically empty gestational sac is compressed (the racquet's 'handle') and adjacent to a surrounding decidual reaction (the 'paddle'); aka Tadpole sign. 'Tennis racquet' spore (microbiology): A descriptive term for the morphology of the subterminal spores in the gram positive Clostridium tetani, as well as in C. diphtheriae. | Surgery | null | Tennis Racquet cells
A. Rhabdomyoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Histiocytoma
D. Eosinophilic granuloma
| Rhabdomyosarcoma |
1bbd28c0-3f7b-454d-bb10-a0ca6d10bb22 | Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It is used for Increased intracranial or intraocular tension (acute congestive glaucoma, head injury, stroke, etc.): by osmotic action, it encourages the movement of water from brain parenchyma, CSF and aqueous humor; The dose is 1-1.5 g/kg is infused over 1 hour as 20% solution to transiently raise plasma osmolarity. It is also used before and after ocular /brain surgery to prevent the acute rise in intraocular/intracranial pressure. osmotic diuretics are excreted unchanged in the urine ( Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6th edition, page 572 ) eding | Pharmacology | Kidney | Patient with head injuries with rapidly increasing intracranial tension without hematoma, the drug of choice for initial management would be:
A. Furosemide
B. Steroids
C. 20% Mannitol
D. Glycine
| 20% Mannitol |
6793137d-ceb8-425d-a05b-4ab34fc440f7 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral arcuate ligament o Thoracolumbar fascia covers the deep muscles of back of the trunk, o It is composed of three fascial layers -i) Anterior layer# It is the thinnest layer# Medially it is attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebrae.# Laterally it fuses with fascia transversalis and aponeurosis of transversus abdominis# Inferiorly it is attached to iliolumbar ligament and iliac crest.# Superiorly it is attached to 12th rib and extends to transverse process of Lj forming the lateral arcuate ligament of diaphragm.ii) Middle layer# Medially it is attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebrae.# Inferiorly it is attached to iliac rest.# Superiorly it is attached to 12th ribiii) Posterior layer# It is the thickest layer and attached to spines of lumbar verterae.o Quadratus lomborum is enclosed between anterior and middle layers. Erector spinae (paraspinal muscle) is enclosed between middle and posterior layer. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | Which is derived from thoracolumbar fascia -
A. Medial arcuate ligament
B. Lateral arcuate ligament
C. Lacunar ligament
D. Cruciate ligament
| Lateral arcuate ligament |
fb9e1456-bf45-4e00-9ce5-93ada545bbbf | dennie morgan fold-accentuated grooves or lines below the lower eyelid margins. seen in atopic dermatitis. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2534 | Dental | Dermatitis | Dennie-Morgan fold is seen in -
A. Dermotomyositis
B. SLE
C. Psoriasis vulgaris
D. Atopic dermatitis
| Atopic dermatitis |
701710e5-217f-42c3-8bb4-2494f74a4094 | Anxiety, with an increase in hea rate or decreasing venous return to the hea (standing), causes the click and murmur to occur earlier in systole (closer to S1). Lying down, squatting, sustained hand grip exercise, or passive leg lifting in the supine position increase venous return and cause the click and murmur to occur later in systole (less gravity and more venous return). The diagnosis is best made by echocardiography. -adrenergic blocking agents are frequently used for treatment of supraventricular tachycardias. Calcium channel blockers are also used in symptomatic cases. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 1821,1697 | Medicine | C.V.S | In MVP, you would expect the ejection click to be more accentuated and the murmur to move closer the first hea sound in a patient
A. With marked anxiety
B. Who is pregnant
C. Who is passive leg lifting in the supine position
D. On a beta blocker
| With marked anxiety |
4ded324d-e5ef-4cb1-9eb8-9c8a5e142517 | Laboratory diagnosis of typhoid : 'BASU' mnemonic Test of diagnosis Time of diagnosis Remarks Blood culture 1st week Mainstay of diagnosis Antibodies (widal test) 2nd week Moderate sensitivity & specificity Stool culture 3rd week Useful for carries Urine test 4th week Useful for carries | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli) | Typhoid in first week of illness is best diagnosed by:-
A. Serum widal test
B. Stool culture
C. Urine test
D. Blood culture
| Blood culture |
d2a518ce-7947-4f64-848e-2b71d057e8c7 | Ans. A. Foreign bodyImmediate symptoms of foreign body inhalation include choking, coughing, increasing respiratory distress or difficulty in speaking. | Pediatrics | Respiratory System | Acute onset of cough, stridor and respiratory distress in the absence of fever is suggestive of:
A. Foreign body
B. Acute asthma
C. Aspiration Pneumonia
D. Primary complex
| Foreign body |
bce6f8d3-50ae-4f4f-8b28-6c31bae6fc82 | Interstitial cells in paritubular capillaries releoses erythroportin in responce to hypoxia. | Physiology | null | Erythropoietin in kidney is secreted by
A. Juxtaglomerular cells
B. PCT cells
C. Interstitial cells in peritubular capillaries
D. Capillaries of glomerulus
| Interstitial cells in peritubular capillaries |
ec795fd6-9a36-4fe9-9858-3aae7c9d46e2 | Ans. (b) Due to Inadequate Preparation of PatientRef: Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition 229* It is a condition of hyperthyroidism accompanied by fever, central nervous system agitation or depression, cardiovascular dysfunction that may be precipitated by infection, surgery or trauma and occasionally by amiodarone administration.* It is common in inadequately prepared patient for surgery, accompanied by excess thyroid hormone release. | Surgery | Thyroid Gland | What is the reason for Thyroid Storm after Total Thyroidectomy?
A. Due to Rough handling during Surgery.
B. Due to Inadequate preparation of patient
C. Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Injury
D. Parathyroid Damage
| Due to Inadequate preparation of patient |
fc473f40-f128-4b31-9049-0747643a6cca | The information in this question are: - 1) Sudden (abrupt) onset, 2) Palpitation, 3) Apprehension, 4) Sweating, 5) Sense of impending doom, 6) Symptoms lasts for few minutes (10 minutes).
These are the features of panic disorder. | Psychiatry | null | Baby 20 year old female complains of sudden onset palpitation and apprehension. She is sweating for last 10 minutes and fears of impending death. Diagnosis is -
A. Hysteria
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Panic attack
| Panic attack |
ea815bbf-747d-434a-a009-da13cf6d2d39 | Ans: a (Alzheimer's disease) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 215Alzheimer's disease is not caused by over expression of a trinucleotide repeat. The rest 3 options are examples of trinucleotide repeat diseases where as Alzheimer's is primarly a degenerative disease (Basal ganglia) resulting in movement disorder.Some examples of trinucleotide repeat diseases:-Huntington's disease -- CAGSpinocerebellar ataxia --CAG(Type 1, 2, 3, 63)Fragile X syndrome -- CGGMyotonic dystrophy -- CTGFrederich's ataxia -- GAA | Pathology | Genetics | Which of the following is not caused by over expression of a trinucleotide repeat?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Fragile X
C. Huntington disease
D. Spinocerebellar ataxia Type 2
| Alzheimer's disease |
0a71bf5b-67ae-4403-91d7-acf91ec138cd | Vascular dementia is a cause of progressive dementia due to impaired blood supply to the brain. | Pathology | null | Irreversible dementia is caused due to:
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Wilson's disease
C. Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)
D. Vascular dementia
| Vascular dementia |
596275d2-892d-4b34-8ad2-0a611d279f36 | Endemic Is the constant presence of a disease agent in a defined geographical area ; refers to 'usual or expected frequency' of a disease in a population. For instance, common cold is endemic because somebody always has one. Endemic diseases in India are : Measles, mumps, rubella, chicken pox, peussis, TB, HIV, Cancers, diabetes, hypeension etc. Epidemics can arise from uncontrolled endemics also. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Time Distribution, Epidemics | Endemicity of a disease means:
A. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
B. Is constantly present in a population
C. Exhibits seasonal pattern
D. Is prevalent among animals
| Is constantly present in a population |
41f65994-4b88-4d54-a3c3-667259ef92ad | Ans. C: Ulcerative Colitis The mainstay of drug therapy for mild and moderate ulcerative colitis is sulfasalazine and other aminosalicylic acid (ASA) compounds and coicosteroids Sulfasalazine It is a sulfa drug, a derivative of mesalazine (also called 5-aminosalicylic acid, or 5-ASA) Sulfasalazine is used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease, including ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. It is also indicated for use in rheumatoid ahritis and used in other types of inflammatory ahritis (e.g. psoriatic ahritis) where it has a beneficial affect. It is often well tolerated compared to other DMARDS. It is usually not given to children under 2 years of age. It yields the metabolite sulfapyridine which gives rise to side-effects such as agranulocytosis and hypospermia. The other metabolite of sulfasalazine, 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) is attributed to the drug's therapeutic effect. Therefore, 5-ASA and other derivatives of 5-ASA, are now usually preferred and given alone (as mesalazine), despite their increased cost, due to their more ourable side-effect profile. Sulfasalazine, and its metabolite 5-ASA, are poorly absorbed from the gut. | Pharmacology | null | Sulfasalzine is used in: March 2011
A. Gout
B. Irritable bowel disease
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Idiopathic osteoahritis
| Ulcerative colitis |
3e5a2e35-214d-4fdb-9bee-5ca14bcc6f3e | ref Robbins 9/e p173 Matetnal disomy is associated with disorders like prader Willi syndrome, angelman syndrome. | Anatomy | General anatomy | One of the following disorders is due to maternal disomy
A. Prader Willi syndrome
B. Angelman syndrome
C. Hydatidi form mole
D. Klinefelter syndrome
| Prader Willi syndrome |
969aa1a2-101d-4a98-a773-03a391ef7ae8 | Looser's zone or pseudofracture is pathognomonic for osteomalacia, However, it may occur rarely also in Paget's disease, Fibrous dysplasia, Hyperparathyroidism, Renal osteodystrophy, Hyperphosphatasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta. | Radiology | null | Looser's zones is seen in – a) Osteoporosis b) Hyperparathyrodismc) Osteomalacia d) Renal osteodystrophye) Paget's disease
A. bcde
B. abd
C. abcd
D. acde
| bcde |
ef9e727f-25db-49f1-9246-0f4434d1dd01 | Ans. D: Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of meningitis in adults of age over twenty years, accounting for nearly half of the cases. N. meningitidis accounts for nearly 25% of the cases. Staph.aureus and coagulase negative staphylococci are impoant causes of meningitis that occurs following neurosurgical procedures. | Medicine | null | Most common cause for meningitis in adults: September 2009
A. H.Influenzae
B. N.meningitidis
C. Staph.aureus
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
| Streptococcus pneumoniae |
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