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85747b45-37cb-42cf-8dde-d14df8cd05bc | The investigation of choice in an unstable patient with suspected intraabdominal injury is ultrasound. Focused abdominal sonar for trauma(FAST) is a technique whereby ultrasound(sonar) imaging is used to assess the torso for the presence of free fluid, either in the abdominal cavity, and is extended into the thoracic cavities and pericardium(eFAST). eFAST is accurate at detecting <100ml of free blood. CT is the gold standard for the intr-abdominal diagnosis of injury in the stable patient. Reference: Bailey & love, 27th Edition, page no = 372. | Surgery | Trauma | Investigation of choice in an unstable patient with suspected intraabdominal injury is
A. DPL
B. USG
C. CT scan
D. X-ray abdomen
| USG |
070523c7-b112-4d14-975a-72e43d5c1f7b | In lepromatous leprosy the single drug is continued to one year. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 297 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | In lepromatous leprosy the single drug dapsone is continue for -
A. 9 days
B. 90 days
C. 1 years
D. 10 years
| 1 years |
d4811d5e-1940-421f-b2cd-fe0d2b467ac4 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Put the dressing material directly in an appropriate bag and send for incineration o This waste category lies in category No. 6 o No.6 category of solid wastes consists of : Items contaminated with blood and fluid containing u Cotton dressings Soiled plaster casts o Linen o Beddings Other materials contaminated with blood o Treatment and disposal of this category of wastes o Incineration (There will be no chemical pretreatment prior to incineration) Autoclaving/microwaving | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A knownHIV positive patient is admitted in anisolation ward after an abdominal surgery followingan accident. The resident docter who changed hisdressing the next day found it to be soaked in blood hich of the following would be the right method ofchoice of descarding the dressing -
A. Pour 1% hypochloric on the dressing materialand send it for incineration in a appropriate bag
B. Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing materialand send it for incineration in a appropriate bag
C. Put the dressing material directly in anappropriate bag and send for incineration
D. Pour2% Lysol on the dressing material and sendit for incineration in a appropriate bag
| Put the dressing material directly in anappropriate bag and send for incineration |
45ec9520-a66c-4b02-8fb0-01de35c35ae7 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Liver Congenital tuberculosis Although it is rare as mother having tuberculosis primarily present with infeility. Tuberculous bacilli sometimes pass throgh umblical vein and may develop focus in liver (hepatic complex). When neonate aspirate amniotic fluid containing bacilli then develop GI tuberculosis or lung infection. Neonate usually present as respiratory distress, hepatosplenomegaly lymphadenopathy. Overall liver is most commonly involved in congenital tuberculosis | Pediatrics | null | Most common organ involved in congenital Tb is?
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Kidney
D. Lung
| Liver |
8504b620-d907-4564-9388-b1ea0ad4e934 | VERNAL KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS (VKC) OR SPRING CATARRHIt is a recurrent, bilateral, interstitial, self-limiting, allergic inflammation of the conjunctiva having a periodic seasonal incidence.Signs of vernal keratoconjunctivitis can be described in following three clinical forms:1. Palpebral form: Usually upper tarsal conjunctiva of both eyes is involved. The typical lesion is characterized by the presence of hard, flat-topped, papillae arranged in a &;cobble-stone&; or &;pavement stone&;, fashion. In severe cases, papillae may hyperophy to produce cauliflower like excrescences of &;giant papillae&;. Conjunctival changes are associated with white ropy discharge.2. Bulbar form: It is characterized by (i) dusky red triangular congestion of bulbar conjunctiva in the palpebral area; (ii) gelatinous thickened accumulation of tissue around the limbus; and (iii) presence of discrete whitish raised dots along the limbus (Tranta&;s spots).3. Mixed form. It shows combined features of both palpebral and bulbar forms.Ref. Khurana; 4th edition; Pg no. 74 | Ophthalmology | Conjunctiva | Trantas spots are seen in
A. Vernal conjunctivitis
B. Eczematous conjunctivitis
C. Ophthalmia nodosa
D. Tularaemia
| Vernal conjunctivitis |
1f2fbb5b-80d2-4437-a44e-c794a8681a78 | Metabolic byproduct of halothane can cause autoimmune hepatitis. Halothane hepatitisis rare with an incidence of 1 per 35,000 cases but very fatal, with amoality of 50-75%. It is an immune mediated due to antibodies against highly reactive trifluoroacetyl chloride which is a metabolite of halothane. Risk factors for halothane hepatitis: Multiple exposures to halothane at sho intervals middle-aged obese women - because halothane undergo extensive metabolism in obese patients familial predisposition to halothane Another theory for halothane hepatitis is that it is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction associated with oxidative metabolism of halothane. The liver in halothane hepatitis shows centrilobular necrosis. In a patient with prior history of halothane hepatitis, inhalational induction agent of choice is Sevoflurane. Other points related to effect of halothane on hepatic system : Disrupts dual blood supply of liver ( Among all volatile anesthetic agent , it cause max decrease in hepatic flow) Contraindicated in Pre-existing liver days function C/I in hepatic surgery | Anaesthesia | Inhalational Anesthetic Agents | Hepatitis can be a complication of ......
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Enflurane
| Halothane |
471e1ab0-159d-4ea7-b686-92baffeb01c7 | Tinea versicolor is caused by Pityrosporum orbiculare (also called Malassezia furfur). | Physiology | All India exam | Tinea versicolor is seen with
A. Pityrosporum orbiculare
B. Candida infection
C. Epidermophyton
D. Trichophyton
| Pityrosporum orbiculare |
558228c8-d8c6-4604-9b5d-713b96687025 | Pain and temperature are carried by the spinothalamic tract (STT) towards the VPL (ventro-postero-lateral) nucleus of thalamus.
Pain is carried by the lateral STT whereas anterior STT carries the crude touch sensations.
Spinothalamic tracts carry sensations contra-laterally hence the area of sensation loss is to the opposite side of the lesion (Brown-Séquard syndrome).
Spinocerebellar tracts carry the unconscious proprioception, mainly from the lower limbs, towards the cerebellum and from the mossy fibers. They contribute archi-cerebellar fibers to the cerebellum.
Dorsal spinocerebellar fibers carry the information ipsilaterally and enter the inferior cerebellar peduncle to reach the cerebellum.
Ventral spinocerebellar tract carries the information contra-laterally and enters the cerebellum via superior cerebellar peducle.
Unconscious proprioception of upper limb is carried by the cuneocerebellar tract.
Conscious proprioception is carried by the dorsal columns (Fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus).
Pyramidal tract is a motor tract and is concerned with control of fine and skilled voluntary motor activity. | Unknown | null | In the cross section of brain in the below pic, the tracts have been labeled, which of them are concerned with pain and temperature.
A. B
B. C
C. A
D. S and T of C
| A |
d03eeee7-fa63-43ca-8464-af633b625102 | The thiazide diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, benzthiazide) promote diuresis by inhibiting reabsorption of NaCl, primarily in the early distal tubule. Ethacrynic acid and furosemide are both loop diuretics. They act by inhibiting electrolyte reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of Henle. Note that even if you didn't know where these agents act, if you knew that they both belonged to the same class of diuretics, you could have eliminated them both as possibilities since there can't be more than one correct answer choice. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It is freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed. Its primary action occurs at the proximal tubule. Ref: Michel T., Hoffman B.B. (2011). Chapter 27. Treatment of Myocardial Ischemia and Hypeension. In B.C. Knollmann (Ed), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following diuretics acts at the nephron's distal tubule?
A. Ethacrynic acid
B. Furosemide
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Mannitol
| Hydrochlorothiazide |
aed1ac8b-85c6-4402-9341-c3239433dc03 | Inorganic paicles may become coated with iron containing proteinaceous material, these bodies are called ferruginous bodies. They mimic asbestos bodies and can be seen in patient with asbestosis but is not specific hence asbestosis is the best answer. Ferruginous bodies are most commonly seen in Asbestosis. Ref: Robbin's Illustrated Pathology, 7th Edition, Page 736 ; Concise Pathology By Chandrasoma P, Taylor C, 3rd Edition, Page 541 | Pathology | null | Ferruginous bodies are commonly seen in:
A. Silicosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Bagassosis
D. Byssinosis
| Asbestosis |
bb54ff71-a10c-4601-ba88-76eab3b65d0f | - Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated as the difference between the systemic mean aerial pressure (MAP) and the intracranial pressure (ICP) - The normal range of CPP is thought to be approximately 50 to 150 mm Hg in healthy adults, and 40 to 60 mm Hg, in children. Normal CPP (mm Hg) 2-6 yrs - 50 mm of Hg 7-10 yrs - 55 mm of Hg 11-16 yrs - 65 mm of Hg | Pediatrics | Raised intracranial tension | Cerebral perfusion pressure in children is:
A. 11-15 mm Hg
B. 16-20 mm Hg
C. 20-40 mm Hg
D. 40-60 mm Hg
| 40-60 mm Hg |
4ecb25c9-00a4-44cd-b18d-9dfd41d68e2f | Right gastric aery originates from the hepatic aery just distal to the origin of gastroduodenal aery. It turns to the left and runs upwards along the the lesser curvature of the stomach and ends by anastomosing with the left gastric aery which is a branch of the coeliac trunk. Coeliac trunk: Arises at the level of interveebral disc between T12 and L1 veebrae. It is an unpaired branch of the abdominal aoa that arises from its ventral/anterior aspect (front) just below the aoic opening of diagphragm. Branches: Left Gastric aery (Smallest branch) Common Hepatic aery Splenic Aery (Largest branch of trunk) Ends by anastomosing with right gastric aery (Right Gastric aery is a branch of the hepatic aery) Common hepatic aery is a direct branch of the celiac trunk till the origin of gastroduodenal aery. The pa distal to this origin is termed proper hepatic aery Sho gastric aeries (5-7) Left gastroepiploic aery Numerous pancreatic branches Aeria pancreaticamagna Aeria cauda pancreatic Splenic hila branches Common Hepatic aery gives off a branch called Gastroduodenal aery and continues as the Hepatic aery proper. Right gastric aery originates from the hepatic aery just distal to the origin of gastroduodenal aery. Thus the right gastric aery may be termed as a branch of the hepatic aery proper rather than the common hepatic aery. Hepatic aery Branches: Gastro-duodenal aery Right gastric Aery Hepatic Aery proper Right gastroepiploic aery Superior pancreaticoduodenal aery Right gastric aery (ends by anastomosing with the left gastric aery) Hepatic aery proper ends by dividing into left and right hepatic aeries Right hepatic aery Left hepatic aery (cystic aery) is a branch of the right hepatic aery Ref: Vishram Singh 2nd edition Pgno: 120 | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Right Gastric Aery is a branch of :
A. Coelic Trunk
B. Hepatic aery
C. Gastroduodenal aery
D. Splenic aery
| Hepatic aery |
39aff31f-e0c4-4f9c-b242-27199b5a217b | Pruritus is the most common side effect with neuraxial opioids. It may be generalized but is more likely to be localized to the face, neck or upper thorax. Treatment 1. naloxone 2. antihistaminic. 3. propofol | Anaesthesia | Central Neuraxial Blockade | The most common side effect of neuraxial opioid is:
A. Nausea & vomiting
B. Pruritus
C. Urinary retention
D. Sedation
| Pruritus |
3d4d4ae1-288d-4d23-84fa-8bda98c5c073 | Answer is C (Rectal biopsy): Rectal biopsy is single best answer amongst the options provided. The systemic amyloidosis offer a choice of biopsy sites. Abdominal fat aspirates or renal or rectal biopsies are often preferred'. - Harrison | Medicine | null | What is the best method for confirming amyloidosis :-
A. Colonoscopy
B. Sigmoidoscopy
C. Rectal biopsy
D. Tongue biopsy
| Rectal biopsy |
facd6783-f69b-4fcd-9555-79c687437c9c | Right coronary aery is smaller than the left coronary aery. It arises from the anterior aoic sinus. Left coronary aery is larger than the right coronary aery. It arises from the left posterior aoic sinus. REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. FIG REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. ( fig 18.22a and b ). | Anatomy | Head and neck | The right coronary aery arises from ?
A. anterior aoic sinus
B. left posterior aoic sinus
C. right posterior aoic sinus
D. inter aoic sinus
| anterior aoic sinus |
b2a32662-dffa-4207-92ad-c3cf56944a8f | Postmortem staining get fixed in 6-12 hours. | Forensic Medicine | null | Post mortem staining gets fixed after -
A. 2-3 hrs.
B. 3-4 hrs.
C. 5-6 hrs.
D. 6-7 hrs.
| 6-7 hrs. |
13bf3aff-1e4b-44c5-84a3-042f8e4732a1 | 1. Muscles which abduct the vocal cords: only posterior cricoarytenoids( safety muscles of larynx) 2. Muscles which adduct the vocal cords: * lateral cricoarytenoids * transverse aenoid * cricothyroid *thyroarytenoids 3. Muscles which tense the vocal cords: cricothyroid 4.muscles which relax the vocal cords: * thyroarytenoids * vocalis 4. Muscles which close the inlet of the larynx * oblique arytenoids * aryepiglottic 5.muscles which open the inlet of larynx : Thyroepiglotticus Ref BDC volume 3; 6th edition pg 258 | Anatomy | Head and neck | The following muscle is an opener of the glottis
A. Lateral cricoarytenoid
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid
C. Transverse arytenoid
D. Inter arytenoids
| Posterior cricoarytenoid |
0ad66707-63e9-43d7-8426-048859ca33e5 | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Osteochondral defect of the femurRef. Various internet sites (www.orthopedics.hss.edu, www.kneeguru.co.uk)Microfracture is an arthroscopic procedure used to treat osteochondral defects (damaged areas of articular cartilage of the knee) | Unknown | null | The operative procedure is known as "microfracture" is done for the
A. Delayed union of femur.
B. Non union of tibia
C. Loose bodies of ankle joint
D. Osteochondral defect of femur
| Osteochondral defect of femur |
1ca34ba9-7701-447b-9db8-43c6463582b9 | Prokinetic drugs. - These are drugs which promote gastrointestinal transit and speed gastric emptying by propulsive motility.D2blocker example Domperidone. 5HT4 agonistexample cisapride. Metoclopramide. Macrolidesacts on motilin receptor. Hence, Diphenoxymethane is the answer. | Pharmacology | NEET Jan 2020 | Which of the following is not a prokinetic?
A. 5HT4 agonist
B. D2 blocker
C. Macrolides
D. Diphenoxymethane
| Diphenoxymethane |
dee6ef5f-b9ac-476c-bff1-2c103c005d9e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Promyelocytic Tumor cells in acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3) release procoagulant and fibrinolytic factors that cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). | Pathology | null | DIC is common in which AML -
A. Nonocytic (M5)
B. Promyelo cytic (M3)
C. Erythrocytic (M6)
D. Megakaryocytic (M7)
| Promyelo cytic (M3) |
5b03b4d6-0b0b-4901-8d4f-8a61bfd236e5 | Bohr effect is closely related to the fact that deoxygenated hemoglobin (deoxyhemoglobin) binds H+ more actively than does oxygenated hemoglobin (oxyhemoglobin). The pH of blood falls as its CO2 content increases, so that when the PCO2 rises, the curve shifts to the righ A rise in temperature or a fall in pH shifts the curve to the right HbO2 + 2,3-BPG - - Hb - 2,3-BPG + O2 In this equilibrium, an increase in the concentration of 2,3BPG shifts the reaction to the rightRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:611 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Which of these is not a cause of rightward shift of Oxygen - Hemoglobin dissociation curve?
A. Increased hydrogen ions
B. Decreased CO2
C. Increased temperature
D. Increased BPG
| Decreased CO2 |
bd30fbb2-9c06-4e44-88d9-e80bc5ed1515 | Placenta weighs 500 gm, the propoion to the weight of the baby being roughly 1:6 at term and occupies about 30% of the uterine wall. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What is the ratio of placental weight to fetal weight at term ?
A. 1:04
B. 1:05
C. 1:06
D. 1:07
| 1:06 |
e5368279-45f6-4599-a92d-86c2967bfc52 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adrenaline o First adrenaline should be given im to raise the blood pressure and to dilate the bronchi. o If the treatment is delayed and shock has developed, adrenaline should be given i.v. by slow injection. | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock ?
A. Adrenaline
B. Antihistaminic
C. Glucocoicoids
D. Epinephrine
| Adrenaline |
49204ba5-9999-4f6c-83fc-c4648f20624c | AlprostadilQ contains naturally occurring prostaglandin E and, hence has vasodilator action. It can be injected into corpora cavernosa or administered intraurethrally. The firm erection is produced within 2 to 3 minutes and may last for 1 hour. Other injectable medications for erectile dysfunction include: Papaverine Phentolamine | Psychiatry | Sexual Disorders | Which drug is used in intracavernous injection for erectile dysfunction?
A. Epoprostrenol
B. Alprostadil
C. Sildenafil
D. Tadalafil
| Alprostadil |
be8ce694-d297-4ee8-8015-8207316cedc4 | Dicloxacillin:- Anti - staphylococcal penicillin :- B lactamase resistant penicillin. Their use is restricted to the treatment of infection cause by penicillinase producing staphylococci including MSSA. Other drug of this class:- Methicillin Oxacillin Methicillin because of its toxicity (interstitial Nephritis), Methicillin is not used. Ampicillin/Amoxicillin:-Extended- Spectrum penicillin. More effective against gram -ve bacilli. Ampicillin is a drug of choice for gram positive bacilli : listeria monocytogenes Ceftazidime:-3rd gen cephalosporin, has activity against P. aeruginosa Ciprofloxacin: of the fluoroquinolone it has best activity against P. Aeruginosa and is commonly used in cystic fibrosis patient. | Pharmacology | Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors | A nursing mother presented with fever and breast tenderness after two weeks postpaum. Which oral antibiotics is ideal for her condition?
A. Ampicillin
B. Dicloxacillin
C. Ceftazidime
D. Ciprofloxacin
| Dicloxacillin |
4b4f2b6f-4d6b-4d07-a2d5-302d0d3bc2a9 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proton pump inhibitors * PPI are the DOC for peptic ulcer (gastric or duodenal), GERD, ZE syndrome, prevention of aspiratory pneumonia and NSAID induced gastric / duodenal ulcers. Note - PGE1 analogue (Misoprostol) is specific drug for prevention and treatment of NSAID induced ulcer, but DOC is PPL | Pharmacology | G.I.T | Drug of choice for prevention of NSAID induced peptic ulcer disease is
A. H2 receptor blockers
B. Proton pump inhibitors
C. Macrolide antibiotic
D. Sucralfate
| Proton pump inhibitors |
8675e8ab-587f-4240-ae4d-b9bf3356ece3 | Group A beta hemolytic streptococci is the M/C bacteria causing acute tonsillitis. other causes are: staph aureus pnuemococci H. Influenza Ref Dhingra 5/e,p 341,6/e,p 288. | Anatomy | Pharynx | The most common organism causing acute tonsillitis is:
A. Staph aureus
B. Anaerobes
C. Hemolytic streptococci
D. Pneumococcus
| Hemolytic streptococci |
6dbe8288-1993-4a39-8dcd-7d66d7735769 | The best long bone for identification is femur. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29 th edition Chapter 4 page,43,45. | Forensic Medicine | Identification | Commonly used long bone for identification -
A. Femur
B. Radius
C. Ulna
D. Humerus
| Femur |
6c1a86d2-ca3a-4b9d-a7df-287568606f70 | Ans. (A). Therapeutic misadventure(Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 33rd edition 2010. Pg: 38)Civil negligenceSimple absence of skill & careCriminal negligenceGross absence of skill & careContributory NegligenceBoth doctor and patient are negligentCorporate NegligenceFailure in part of hospital management to provide adequate facilitiesDoctrine of Res Ipsa LoquitarThe things or facts speaks for itself. E.g. Amputation of a wrong limbDoctrine of calculated riskEvery medical procedure had Inherent riskNovus Actus InterveniensUnrelated Action InterveningTherapeutic misadventureMischance or disaster.A person dies due to some unintentional act of doctor or hospitalDoctrine of Respondent Superior(Vicarious Liability)Let the master answerProduct's liabilityManufacturer is responsible for quality of drug & medical equipment. | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Psychiatry | Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by a doctor, staff or hospital is:
A. Therapeutic misadventure
B. Vicarious liability
C. Therapeutic privilege
D. Diminished liability
| Therapeutic misadventure |
472bbc99-348f-42b1-ae2f-95a670ef97e9 | Glutamate dehydrogenase breaks down glutamate to form ammonia and ct-ketoglutarate. Aspaate aminotransferase transfers the amino group from glutamate to oxaloacetate to form aspaate. Ammonia and aspaate both feed into the urea cycle to supply the nitrogen used to synthesize urea. Argininosuceinate synthase, argininosuccinate lyase, and arginase are enzymes that catalyze other steps of the urea cycle. | Biochemistry | null | Ammonia for the urea cycle is supplied by the action of the following enzymes?
A. Aspaate aminotransferase
B. Glutamate dehydrogenase
C. Argininosuccinate synthase
D. Argininosuccinate lyase
| Glutamate dehydrogenase |
684a677d-d60d-49be-9ed6-cc24ce47cd8d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., T-cellsNote - Osteoclast is a type of macrophage. | Pathology | null | Which of the following cells do not act as antigen presenting cells. ?
A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Macrophages
D. Osteoclasts
| T-cells |
212c7c85-58af-4056-bc34-c84ed7493af9 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 6th decade Phyllodes tumors, like fibroadenomas, arise from intralobular stroma of breast, but are much less common. Although they can occur at any age, most present in the sixth decade, 10 to 20 years later than the peak age for fibroadenomas. | Pathology | null | Phyllodes tumor most commonly presents in ?
A. 2nd decade
B. 3rd decade
C. 4th decade
D. 6th decade
| 6th decade |
8bf3376c-495d-4d7e-8712-bdd9c9ad5be9 | Caseous necrosis is found in the centre of foci of tuberculous infections.(Ref: Textbook of Pathology HARSH MOHAN 6th Edition page no.45) | Physiology | General physiology | Caseous necrosis in granuloma not found in
A. Tuberculosis
B. Leprosy
C. CMV
D. Wegener's granulomatosis
| Tuberculosis |
735d7ee5-b92b-45a2-90b2-8f3f195dca42 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Isoenzyme pattern Zymodene There are distinct invasive and noninvasive strains of E. histolytica. These strains vary according to their isoenzyme patterns (zymodemes). E. histolytica strains have 22 zymodemes of these 10 zymodemes are invasive and 12 are noninvasive. Zymodemes of E. histolytica are identified according to the electrophoretic mobility of 4 enzymes. L-malate : NADP+ Oxidoreductase Phosphoglucomutase (PGM)-------- most impoant Glucose-phosphate isomerase Hexokinase Electrophoresis of PGM can show one or more of the 4 bands : a, 13, y and 5. Strains of E. histolytica showing, an absence of a-band together with the presence of 13 band are virulent i.e., invasive. | Microbiology | null | The pathogenecity of Entamoeba histolytica is indicated by ?
A. Isoenzyme pattern
B. Size
C. Nuclear pattern
D. ELISA test
| Isoenzyme pattern |
3df57e33-4373-48ae-8b55-b71a64db101c | Functions maternal and child health Family planning Medical termination of pregnancy Nutrition Dai training Communicable diseases Vital events Record keeping Treatment of minor ailments Team activities (refer pgno:910 park 23rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health care of community & international health | Function of Health worker female -
A. Perform 50% of deliveries
B. Trains dais
C. Enlist dais of the subcentre
D. Chlorination of water
| Trains dais |
6393e62e-1d09-4dd1-a1c7-8c983942038d | Mandibular fractures are typically the result of trauma. This can include a fall onto the chin or a hit from the side. Rarely they may be due to osteonecrosis or tumors in the bone. The most common area of fracture is at the condyle (36%), body (21%), angle (20%) and symphysis (14%). | ENT | null | Most common site of mandibular fracture is
A. Angle of mandible
B. Condylar process
C. Coronoid process
D. Ramus
| Condylar process |
89b113cc-6f09-4bdb-b07b-09731c115e58 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acetyl CoA o Substrates for gluconeogenesis are lactate (lactic acid), pyruvate, glycerol, glucogenic amino acids (alt amino acids except leucine and lycine), propionate and intermediates of citric acid cycle.. | Biochemistry | Gluconeogenesis | Not gluconeogenic-
A. Acetyl CoA
B. Lactate
C. Glycerol
D. Alanine
| Acetyl CoA |
f64b4c99-7cf5-4694-8624-fa3b947b4cbd | Pathognomonic cytologic change in all infarcts is coagulative (ischaemic) necrosis of the affected area of tissue or organ.
In cerebral infarcts, however, there is characteristic liquefactive necrosis.
Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 112 | Pathology | null | The dominant histologic feature of infarction is:
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Chronic inflammation
D. Scar tissue
| Coagulative necrosis |
d6fb4d0d-95cf-4acc-b4e5-8221e6fe66ab | Answer is C (Gait disorder, Urinary incontinence & Dementia): Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH) is a communicating hydrocephalus with a patent aqueduct of sylvius, caused by obstruction to normal flow of CSF over the cerebral convexities and delayed absorption into the venous system. Clinical triad Abnormal gait Q Dementia Q Urinary incontinence Q Neuroimaging Enlarged lateral ventricles Q (Hydrocephalus) Q with little or No Coical-Atrophy Q CSF picture Pressure : High normal range (Hence called NPH) Q Protein : Normal Q Sugar : Normal Q Cell count : Normal Q | Medicine | null | Triad of normal-pressure hydrocephalus includes :
A. Tremor, aphasia dementia
B. Ataxia, aphasia, gait disorder
C. Gait disorder, urinary incontinence, dementia
D. Gait disorder, urinary incontinence, lower cranial nerve palsy
| Gait disorder, urinary incontinence, dementia |
7bf620ec-e8ad-456d-a14b-7a1171f3df0a | Ans: C i.e. Declare patient as normal Diagnosis of DM Random plasma glucose levels of more than 200 mg/dl along with symptoms suggesting diabetes, confirms the diagnosis Random plasma glucose ranging between 140-198 mg/dl is an indication to perform oral glucose tolerance test The use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes is unceain. HbAlc is used to monitor glycemic control. The recommended target HbA1c is 7% or less, to minimise the risk of vascular complications So analyzing the options given, RBS values of 110 mg/dl and 113 mg/dl falls in normal range | Medicine | null | A patient is having random plasma glucose levels of 110 mg/ dl and 113 mg/ dl on two separate occasions. What you will advise him: March 2012
A. Declare him as having Diabetes mellitus
B. Proceed for oral glucose tolerance test
C. Declare patient as normal
D. Check for Glycosylated hemoglobin and if it is raised, declare him as having DM
| Declare patient as normal |
deac3c8b-eae0-4f26-bbd1-460f3e6a2408 | Histopathology of Schwannoma shows Antoni A pattern Antoni B pattern and verrocay bodies/ ref : robbins 10th ed | Pathology | All India exam | A 20yr old patient with swelling in waist joint Histopathology shows spindle cells and verrocay bodies Most likely diagnosis
A. schwannoma
B. Neurofibroma
C. Neuroma
D. Lipoma
| schwannoma |
e1fe6bc6-e1bd-41ef-ad4d-eb9a10f98d15 | Buffers consist of solutions of acid-base conjugate pairs, such as acetic acid and acetate.a. Near its pK, a buffer maintains the pH of a solution, resisting changes due to addition of acids or bases. For a weak acid, the pK is often designated as pKa .b. At the pKa , and are equal, and the buffer has its maximal capacity.The pH and pK are related as follows: pH=pK+log(/). Thus, when the concentrations of a weak acid and its conjugate base are equal, the pH equals the pK. The pK is defined as the pH at which = | Biochemistry | Enzymes | A solution contains 2x10-3 mol/L of a weak acid (pK=3.5) and 2x10-3 mol/L of its conjugate base. Its pH is best approximated by which one of the following?
A. 4.1
B. 3.9
C. 3.5
D. 3.1
| 3.5 |
8a786244-9d85-4ea7-8ace-db8c6521ae21 | Ans. b. Increasing drug interaction with non-target proteins | Pharmacology | null | In new drug designing. problern arises in
A. Decreasing interaction of drug with target proteins
B. Increasing drug interaction with non-target proteins
C. Decreasing potency of drugs
D. Decreasing potency of drugs
| Increasing drug interaction with non-target proteins |
3684ea48-d4c7-405d-afca-a85169e7090b | In asymmetric IUGR, brain growth (head circumference) - spared | Pediatrics | IUGR and Feeding of Preterm Neonate | In asymmetrical IUGR which organ is not affected?
A. Subcutaneous fat
B. Muscle
C. Liver
D. Brain
| Brain |
87fcad5f-db1e-4c3f-99e0-3e3b8495c8c3 | refer : AK KHURANA COMPREHENSIVE OPHTHALMOLOGY 6TH EDITION pg 100
Mode of infection of Acanthamoeba
Contact lens wearers using home-made saline (from contaminated tap water and saline tablets)
is the commonest situation recognised for acanthamoeba infection in western countries.
Other situations include mild trauma associated with contaminated vegetable matter, salt water
diving, wind blown contaminant and hot tub use. Trauma with organic matter and exposure to muddy water are the major predisposing factors in developing countries.
Opportunistic infection. Acanthamoeba keratitis can also occur as opportunistic infection in patients with herpetic keratitis, bacterial keratitis, bullous keratopathy and neuroparalytic keratitis. | Unknown | null | Organism commonly associated with wearing of soft lens:
A. Acanthamoeba
B. Aspergillus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Psedomonas aeruginosa
| Acanthamoeba |
8d89c9bf-ce31-43aa-9cdc-455227362fc4 | Endoscopy with multiple biopsies and brush cytology is the investigation of choice for gastric cancer. | Surgery | null | For early diagnosis of ca stomach which method is used -
A. Endoscopy
B. Staining with endoscopic biopsy
C. Physical examination
D. Ultrasound abdomen
| Staining with endoscopic biopsy |
7af2b471-52c5-4d3f-b3ec-80d0567ef76a | Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder affecting children, which is characterized by (1) chronic pulmonary disease, (2) deficient exocrine pancreatic function, and (3) other complications of inspissated mucus in a number of organs, including the small intestine, the liver, and the reproductive tract. The diagnosis of CF is most reliably made by the demonstration of increased concentrations of electrolytes in the sweat. The decreased chloride conductance characteristic of CF results in a failure of chloride reabsorption by the cells of the sweat gland ducts and, hence, to the accumulation of sodium chloride in the sweat. All of the pathologic consequences of CF can be attributed to the presence of abnormally thick mucus. Lack of pancreatic enzyme secretion in patients with CF causes malabsorption and foul-smelling fatty stools (steatorrhea). The other choices do not address the underlying cause of malabsorption in patients with CF.Diagnosis: Cystic fibrosis | Pathology | Genetics | A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and respiratory distress. The nurses report that the child's bowel movements are greasy and have a pungent odor. A sweat-chloride test is positive. Which of the following mechanisms of disease is the most likely cause of steatorrhea in this child?
A. Abnormal dietary intake
B. Bacterial overgrowth
C. Hyperbilirubinemia with kernicterus
D. Lack of pancreatic enzyme secretion
| Lack of pancreatic enzyme secretion |
6ea492c3-e0b3-4994-8d11-59497918e9fe | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1.5% * Growth rate = Crude birth rate - Crude death rate.* Thus, growth rate = 25-10=15 per 1000 or 1.5% | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and Family Planning | A country has crude birth rate 25 per 1000 and crude death rate 10 per 1000. What is the growth rate of that country -
A. 2.50%
B. 5.00%
C. 15%
D. 1.50%
| 1.50% |
6a21e743-41d0-4668-907c-49db50e5c8a2 | Xanthurenic acid is formed in the side reaction of kynurenine. Kynurenine which is a intermediate of tryptophan metabolism requires vitamin B6 dependent enzyme kynureinase for its normal metabolism. In pyridoxine(Vit B6) deficiency kynurenine is metabolized to xanthurenic acid which is excreted unchanged in urine. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry DM Vasudevan, 5th Ed, page 208 | Biochemistry | null | Xanthurenic acid in the urine is suggestive of deficiency of which vitamin?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Thiamine
| Vitamin B6 |
7523a4f6-53d6-4edf-a86d-60b4640b907b | Pathophysiology AP is the final result of abnormal pancreatic enzyme activation inside acinar cells Colocalization hypothesis: Cathepsin B-mediated intra acinar cell activation of the digestive enzymes leads to acinar cell injury and triggers an Inflammatory response Digestive enzymes are released which consists of trypsin and lipase which is responsible for the digestion of fat in acute pancreatitis Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1524-1528 | Anatomy | G.I.T | Destruction of fat in acute pancreatitis is due to
A. Lipase and trypsin
B. Secretion
C. Lipase and elastase
D. Cholecystokinin and trypsin
| Lipase and trypsin |
5f553572-bc84-4089-ae40-90eac8bfff34 | Progesterone is responsible for decidualization of endometrium. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Decidualization of endometrium is due to
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Inhibin
D. FSH
| Progesterone |
1bf553d2-263d-46e7-9374-8cb278003dfd | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Phenobarbitone Drugs that induce microsomal enzymes* Phenobarbitone* Carbamezepine* Phenytoin* Omeprazole* Rifampin* Clofibrate* Glucocorticoids* Meprobamate* Isoniazid* Ritonavir* Chloral hydrate* Glutethimide* Phenylbutazone* Chronic alcohol intake* Griseofulvin* Cigarette smoking* DDT* Cyclophosphamide Drugs that inhibit drug metabolizing enzymes* Allopurinol* Diltiazem* Omeprazole* Amiodarone* Erythromycin* Propoxyphene* Clarithromycin* Isoniazid* Chloramphenicol* Cimetidine* Phenylbutazone* Quinidine* Ketoconazole* Metronidazole* Itraconazole* Disulfiram* Ciprofloxacin* Verapamil* Sulfonamides* MAO inhibitors | Pharmacology | General Pharmacology | Drug not causing enzyme inhibition is
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Omeprazole
C. Disulfiram
D. Diltiazem
| Phenobarbitone |
368caae4-4944-4d3f-94e6-1824501fc608 | The characteristic finding is of ovoid cells in nests with a single 'palisading' layer. It is only the outer layer of cells that actively divide, explaining why tumour growth rates are slower than their cell cycle speed would suggest.Ref: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 605 | Surgery | General surgery | Characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is
A. Keratin pearls
B. Foam cells
C. Nuclear palisading
D. Psammoma bodies
| Nuclear palisading |
a058320e-0e7d-4681-80ca-e7032d5b1936 | Ans-B i.e., 46XX "In general, complete moles have a 46XX karyotype (85%), the molar chromosomes are derived entirely from father. Infrequently, the chromosomal pattern may be 46, XY or 45, Y". | Unknown | null | Complete mole is -
A. 46XY
B. 46XX
C. 45XY
D. 45 XX
| 46XX |
b640c89e-d5ae-43cc-9b91-2f028e49f378 | Measures that minimize hypothalamic - pituitary - adrenal axis suppression -
Use shorter acting steroids
Use lowest possible dose
Use for shortest period
Give entire daily dose at a time
Switch to alternate - day therapy | Pediatrics | null | The major advantage of alternate day prednisone therapy for conditions such as asthma –
A. There is less adrenal suppression
B. More effective
C. More convenient
D. Less expensive
| There is less adrenal suppression |
377befc8-9656-4708-8227-bf437d2871b5 | Basal suture: the basiocciput fuses with basisphenoid by about 18- 22 years in females and 19- 24 years in males. Metopic suture: closes from 2-8 years. In some cases, the metopic suture will not close and may be associated with other congenital anomalies like hydrocephalus and meningocele with asymmetry of fingers which is called Metopic syndrome. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr. PC IGNATIUS PAGE NO: 86 | Forensic Medicine | Identification | In a female,basi-occiput fuses with basi-sphenoid at the age of
A. 20 years
B. 23 years
C. 27 years
D. 17 years
| 20 years |
0f392a0d-69c2-4309-a3f9-21fc18ed7b3b | Swine infkuenza, a new H1N1 Virus causes swin flue<\p> REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.503 | Microbiology | Virology | Swine flu is ca used by ?
A. H1N1
B. H5N1
C. H3N1
D. H3N3
| H1N1 |
ea8acf0d-f59a-4095-97fb-85531a4a77b9 | Evaluation of iron status in the body can be done by: Serum ferritin: 'Most sensitive tool for evaluation of iron status' , especially in populations with low prevalence of anemia. Hemoglobin concentration: A relatively insensitive index of nutrient depletion. Serum iron concentration: Normal range is 0.80 - 1.80 mg/L. Serum transferrin saturation: Normal value is 30%. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Vitamins and Nutritional Deficiencies | Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is:
A. Serum transferrin
B. Serum ferritin
C. Serum iron
D. Hemoglobin
| Serum ferritin |
b88807dd-e588-44bf-9195-f0d599cc734f | (B) (Rhinosporidium) (558- C.P. Baveja 4th)* Rhinosoridium seeberi fungus has not been cultured.* Diagnosis depends on the demonstration of sporangia.* Many fungi develop relatively slowly and cultures should be retained for at least 2-3 weeks (in some cases up to 6 weeks before discarded. Yeasts usually grown within 1-5 days.* Rhinosporidiosis is a chronic granulomatous disease characterised by formation of friable polyps, usually confined to the nose, mouth or eye.* Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of reticuloendothelial system. It is caused by Histoplasma - capsulatum mycelial growth containing thick, walled spherical spores with tubercles or finger like projections is a characteristic feature.* Cryptococcosis is caused by crypto neoformans a capsulated yeast. The fungus is a soil saprophyte and is particularly abundant in the faeces of pigeons. Cryptococcal meningitis is a important feature.Usually seen in immunocompromised host. C. neoformans has ability to grow at 37degC**, hydrolyse urea, produce brown colonies on nigar seed agar and produce disease in mice (Animal inoculation test positive)*** Mucor, Rhizopus and Absidia are associated with Zymomycosis.* Absence of rhizoids is a characteristic feature of MUCOR.* Examination of scales in 1% KOH, shows short hyphae and round spores (Sphagetti, and meat ball appearance) and Wood's lamp shows Aple green fluorescence (blue-green fluorescence) in Pityriasis versicolor**** Renauld-Braud phenomenon is seen in Candida albicans.* CandidsL-albicans is the most common cause of mucosal candidiasis.High Yeild Points1."Pseudo-buboes'VPseudolymphadenopathy is caused by Donovanosis (Calymmatobacterium- grcmulomatis)2.Darling's disease or Cave's disease or Caver's disease is caused by dimorphic fungus. Histoplasma capsulatum3.Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by corona virus type - 44.i.Tumbling motility - Listeria ii.Darting motility - V. cholera iii.Stately motility - Clostridium iv.Lashing motility - Borrelia V.Cork-screw motility - T. pallidium vi.Gliding motility - Mycoplasma vii.Swarming motility - Proteus mirabilis. P. vulgaris, B. cereus, Cl. tetani5.*Warthin - Finkldey bodies - Measles *Herpes, Yellow fever - Granular Cowdry type A *Guamieri bodies - Vaccinia *Adeno, Polio virus - Circumscribed Cowdry Type B *Sclerotic bodies - Chromoblastomycosis6.i.Polar flagella are seen in - Vibria, Pseudomonas, H. pylori, Campylobacter, Spirochetes, Legionella ii.Peritrichous flagella - E. coli, Proteus, L. monocytogenes, All Clostridia except Cl. perfringens and Cl. tetani. Bacillus except B. anthrax. Salmonella except S. gallinarum- pollorum.7.i.Hepatitis A - Enterovirus (Picoma virus) - non - enveloped RNA virus - Enterovirus 72 ii.Hepatitis B - Hepadana virus DNA virus iii.Hepatitis C - Flaviviris, enveloped RNA virus iv.Hepatitis D - Defective RNA virus resembling viroids8.Prozone phenomenon is seen with antibody excess to antigen 9."Fish tank granuloma" or "Swimming pool granuloma" is caused by M. marinum 10.A. Post splenectomy - susceptible to bacterial infectionsi. Strep to pneumoniaeii. H. influenzaeiii. Gram negative enteric organism, N. meningitidesB. Splenectomized patients are more susceptible to parasitic disease - Babesiosis, paludism11.Cryptococcus neoformans is best demonstrated in CSF by direct microscopy. The capsule is seen as a clear halo around the yeast cells in unstained wet preparations of CSF mixed with a drop of India - ink or nigrosine. Methamine silver stain would be the best choice for tissue sample.12.Reactive arthritis in tuberculosis is known as Poncets disease (Tubercular rheumatism)13.i. Largest protozoa is - Balantidium coliii. Fasciolopsis- buski - is the largest trematode parasitizing maniii. Largest Nematode- Ascaris, Smallest nematode - Trichinella14.Water house - friderichsen syndrome or Purpura fulminans caused by N. meningitides causes septic shock, prominence of hemorrhagic skin lesion (petechiae, purpura) and the consistent development of DIC15.Obligate intracellular organisms are - Rickettsiae, Chlamydiae, Viruses, M. leprae, pathogenic treponemes (syphilis) | Microbiology | Mycology | Which of the following fungi has not been cultured -
A. Sporothrix
B. Rhinosporidium
C. Acremonium
D. Blastomyces
| Rhinosporidium |
05b52ff8-93ac-4acf-8b55-ebaeb59a8536 | FISH (Fluorescent in situ hybridisation) and PCR (polymerase chain reaction) like RT-PCR and QF PCR tests can detect specific aneuploidy.
Whereas, microarray-based CGH (comparative genomic hybridization) test can be used as high-resolution whole-genome scan for the detection or screening of unknown (non-specific) abnormalities, mutation or genomic imbalance including deletions, duplication and aneuploidies. Microarray-based CGH cannot detect balanced translocations or inversions.
So FISH and PCR can detect specific (known) chromosomal abnormalities whereas microarray-based CGH is better suited for screening unknown (non-specific) chromosomal abnormalities. | Biochemistry | null | Which of following techniques tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy -
A. FISH
B. RT-PCR
C. QF-PCR
D. Microarray
| Microarray |
321d48d6-af59-4220-82bd-c988042b81b3 | Na+- Glucose co-transport. Glucose is reabsorbed 100% in Proximal Tubule | Physiology | null | Which of the following occurs along with glucose transport into a cell
A. Sodium symport
B. Sodium anteport
C. Potassium transport
D. Amino acid transport
| Sodium symport |
e7a8cccd-cff5-421c-91ad-7bd424df4d85 | Frei's test is not a heterophile reaction Frie's test is used in the diagnosis of LGV. Antigen made from sterile pus aspirated from previously unruptured LGV abscesses, produces a reaction in patients with lymphogranuloma inguinale when injected intradermally. Heterophile reactiion Similar antigens on dissimilar organisms are called heterophile antigens Antibodies reacting with such antigens are called heterophile antibodies. Serologic tests employing such antigens are called heterophile tests. Heterophile agglutination tests include- Sheep RBCs agglutinate in the presence of heterophile antibodies and are the basis for the Paul-Bunnell test in Infectious mononucleosus. Agglutination of horse RBCs on exposure to heterophile antibodies is the basis of the Monospot test in Infectious mononucleosus. Patients suffering from some rickettsial diseases develop agglutinins against ceain nonmotile strains of Proteus. This is the basis of Weil Felix test. Patients suffering from some Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection develop agglutinins against human blood group O RBC's. This is the basis of cold agglutination test. Patients suffering from some Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection develop agglutinins against Group F Streptococcus. This is the basis of Streptococcus MG test | Microbiology | Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders) | Which of the following is not a 'heterophile reaction':
A. Weil Felix test
B. Paul Bunnell test
C. Frei's test
D. Cold agglutinin test
| Frei's test |
e84edf90-7402-47ba-9525-76f3573639e5 | Phlyctenular conjunctivitis used to be most common manifestation of tuberculosis, but now it is causes by staphylococcus Eales' disease (periphlebitis retinae ) occur in tuberculosis but it is not very common. Acute retinal necrosis occurs in Herpes simplex and varicella infection not in tuberculosis. Choroiditis is by far the most common manifestation of tuberculosis. | Ophthalmology | Investigation in ophthalmology and miscellaneous topics | Which is the commonest ocular manifestation of Tuberculosis?
A. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
B. Choroiditis
C. Eales' disease
D. Acute Retinal necrosis
| Choroiditis |
30905204-3fd4-4029-881d-993b59d683e0 | Unourable prognostic factors in neuroblastoma: Stage 3, 4 Age >18 months Absence of evidence of schwannian stroma and gangliocytic differentiation High Mitosis-karyorrhexis index (>200/5000 cells) Near-diploid (segmental chromosome losses; chromothripsis) MYCN Amplified Chromosome 1p loss Chromosome 11q loss Absent TRKA expression Presence of TRKB expression Mutations of neuritogenesis genes | Pathology | Organ Transplant / Graft | Which of the following is not a poor prognostic factor in neuroblastoma?
A. MYCN amplification
B. High mitosis-karyorrhexis index
C. Evidence of gangliocytic differentiation
D. Mutations of neuritogenesis genes
| Evidence of gangliocytic differentiation |
847449e5-8f57-4df5-b87a-0bcc11cea7e6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. 327 CrPC S. 327 CrPC (2) -The inquiry into and trial of rape or an offence under sec.376 IPC shall be conducted in camera and it is not lawful for any person to print or publish any matter in relation to such proceedings except with the permission of cou. | Forensic Medicine | null | In camera trial of a rape case hearing is done under ?
A. 376 IPC
B. 327 CrPC
C. 53 CrPC
D. 375 IPC
| 327 CrPC |
94274124-dca1-407f-b2cc-678532c23bfd | The 'water-wheel' or 'mill-wheel' murmur is classically associated with large intracardiac air emboli and described as a "characteristic splashing auscultatory sound due to the presence of gas in the cardiac chambers." . Most venous air (gas) emboli are iatrogenic . Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 620 | Medicine | Respiratory system | A mill-wheel type of murmur during laparoscopy suggests
A. Tension pneumothorax
B. intra-abdominal bleeding
C. Gas embolism
D. pre-existing valvular disease
| Gas embolism |
63987759-9b52-4e78-8bba-8ced5549c431 | Typhoid and paratyphoid (enteric) fevers Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, which are transmitted by the faecal-oral route, are impoant causes of fever in the Indian subcontinent, sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America. Elsewhere, they are relatively rare. Enteric fevers are caused by infection with Salmonella Typhi and Salmonella Paratyphi A and B. After a few days of bacteraemia, the bacilli localise, mainly in the lymphoid tissue of the small intestine, resulting in typical lesions in the Peyer's patches and follicles. These swell at first, then ulcerate and usually heal. After clinical recovery, about 5% of patients become chronic carriers (i.e. continue to excrete the bacteria after 1 year); the bacilli may live in the gallbladder for months or years and pass intermittently in the stool and, less commonly, in the urine. Clinical features Typhoid fever The incubation period is typically about 10-14 days but can be longer, and the onset may be insidious. The temperature rises in a stepladder fashion for 4 or 5 days with malaise, increasing headache, drowsiness and aching in the limbs. Constipation may be caused by swelling of lymphoid tissue around the ileocaecal junction, although in children diarrhoea and vomiting may be prominent early in the illness. The pulse is often slower than would be expected from the height of the temperature, i.e. a relative bradycardia. At the end of the first week, a rash may appear on the upper abdomen and on the back as sparse, slightly raised, rose-red spots, which fade on pressure. It is usually visible only on white skin. Cough and epistaxis occur. Around the 7th-10thday, the spleen becomes palpable. Constipation is followed by diarrhoea and abdominal distension with tenderness. Bronchitis and delirium may develop. If untreated, by the end of the second week the patient may be profoundly ill. Salmonella enterica is a facultative anaerobe and is a gram negative, motile ... For enteric fever, the infectious dose is about 105 bacilli by ingestion Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1079 | Medicine | Infection | Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective dose of S. typhi is -
A. One bacillus
B. 1 08-1 01deg bacilli
C. 102-105 bacilli
D. 1-10 bacilli
| 102-105 bacilli |
2a0beded-7f49-4b60-9150-5cde0f297495 | The CEAP (Clinical - Etiology - Anatomy - Pathophysiology)classifi cation for chronic venous disorders is widely utilised.Clinical classification* C0: no signs of venous disease* C1: telangectasia or reticular veins* C2: varicose veins* C3: oedema* C4a: pigmentation or eczema* C4b: lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche* C5: healed venous ulcer* C6: active venous ulcer | Surgery | All India exam | In CEAP clinical classification what does C-4b indicate
A. Edema
B. Pigmentation or eczema
C. Healed venous ulcer
D. Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche
| Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche |
e7b4a60d-44fc-4ca5-a6a0-fd6d1001deda | Toddler fractures occur in young ambulatory children (from 9 months to 3 years). A toddler&;s fracture is a spiral or oblique undisplaced fracture of the distal shaft of the tibia with an intact fibula. The periosteum remains intact and the bone is stable. These fractures occur as a result of a twisting injury. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Musculoskeletal disorders | Which of the following features defines toddler fracture
A. Subluxation of the radial head
B. Salter Harris type 3 fracture of the distal fibular epiphysis
C. Fracture of the distal radius
D. Spiral fracture of the tibia
| Spiral fracture of the tibia |
42e2d1f8-63c5-4e1f-ac37-256aaa3a7b66 | In 1946 the constitution was drafted by "Technical Preparatory Committee " under the chairmanship of Rene Sand and was approved in the same year by an International Health Conference of 51 nations in New york. The constitution came in to force on 7 th April 1948 which is celebrated every year as "World Health Day "(refer pgno:919 park 23rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health care of community & international health | The world health organisation day is -
A. 7th April
B. 21st May
C. 2nd August
D. 31st December
| 7th April |
c9fca7cf-cb3a-41be-a22d-eb77b0831a40 | The chorda tympani arises in the veical pa of the facial canal about 6 mm above the stylomastoid foramen. It runs upwards and forwards in a bony canal. It enters the middle ear and runs forwards in close relation to the tympanic membrane. It leaves the middle ear by passing through the petrotympanic fissure. It then passes medial to the spine of the sphenoid and enters the infratemporal fossa. Here it joins the lingual nerve through which it is distributed Ref BDC volume3,6th edition pg 140 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Chorda tympani leaves skull through?
A. Stylomastoid foramen
B. Petrotympanic fissure
C. Internal acoustic meatus
D. Foramen ovale
| Petrotympanic fissure |
ee15aced-c557-40e7-b04e-9d881ee31b75 | harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *klinefelter'syndrome is an example of sex chromosome trisomy 47,XXX karyotype | Pathology | General pathology | Klinefelter syndrome karyotype is-
A. 47XXX
B. 45X0
C. 47XXY
D. 46XX\/145X0
| 47XXY |
940b4a93-e9e1-4fdb-aa49-a30a0d3700cb | rota virus cause diarrheal disease in childrens REF:<\p> MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.561 | Microbiology | Virology | The viruses causing diarrheal diseasesin infants are -
A. Rotavirus
B. Norwalk virus
C. Adenovirus
D. Hepatadenovirus
| Rotavirus |
f3d9608a-9883-4bbe-aea3-a899a7f077f0 | PLAN A : Age Amount of ORS given after each stool amount of ORS to provide for use at home Less than 24 months 50-100ml 500ml/day 2-10 years 100-200 ml 1000ml/day 10 year or more asmuch as wants 2000 ml/day Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI,PG NO:264, 7TH EDITION | Pediatrics | Gastrointestinal tract | A 5yr old child with diarrahoea, how much ORS is to be given according to plan A after each stool
A. 50 ml
B. 100 ml
C. 200 ml
D. According to thirst
| 100 ml |
6d627740-ed95-406c-ba44-db7522adaa09 | Cells that are rapidly growing and dividing are radiosensitive.
G2M phase is most radiosensitive. | Radiology | null | Ionoising radiation most sensitive in – a) Hypoxiab) S phagec) G2M phased) Activating cell
A. ac
B. cd
C. ad
D. bc
| cd |
4539e187-de12-4251-95ce-ae5b2d275e93 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sample Registration System | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In which system, continuous enumeration of bihs and deaths by enumerator and an independent survey by investigator supervisor is done ?
A. Decadal Census Enumeration
B. Sample Registration System
C. Model Registration System
D. National Family Health Survey
| Sample Registration System |
6f76b1df-3b3e-4785-a4eb-b8a66ceae429 | The following are the side effects of succinyl choline: Cardiovascular effects: Sinus bradycardia Junctional rhythms Ventricular dysrhythmias Hyperkalemia Myalgia Masseter spasm- Succinyl choline can trigger malignant hypehermia Increased intracranial pressure: Succinylcholine may lead to an activation of the EEG and slight increases in CBF and ICP in some patients. Increased intraocular pressure Increased intragastric pressure | Anaesthesia | Neuromuscular Blocker | Which of the following is not a complication of succinylcholine:-
A. increased IOP
B. increased ICP
C. increased BP
D. decreased hea rate
| increased BP |
59938726-e479-485f-9cef-1757de76ee66 | "Pumping action" is characteristic clinical feature. If tooth in the region of tumour is pushed into the tumor, it will rebound back to the original. | Radiology | null | Which of the following lesion has radiographic Soap bubble appearance, with a characteristic feature of 'Pumping action'
A. CGCG.
B. Central hemangioma.
C. Ameloblastoma.
D. OKC.
| Central hemangioma. |
2fffea16-7ba6-432b-a7b2-88e12e0e0dff | Ferric chloride test is a quantitative test for the detection of phenylketonuria; the addition of ferric chloride to urine give rise to a blue green colour in the presence of phenylketonuria. This colour is due to phenylpyruvate. | Biochemistry | null | Phenylpyruvic acids in the urine is detected by:
A. Guthrie's test
B. VMA in urine
C. Gerhas test
D. Ferric chloride test
| Ferric chloride test |
3f032a06-87ca-444e-8207-dee59edc29ed | - Urinary vanillylmandelic acid & metanephrines - metabolites of epinephrine & norepinephrine - markedly elevated in pheochromocytoma. - Serum C-peptide is elevated in insulinoma. - Serum calcitonin is sometimes used to screen for medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. | Pathology | Adrenal Gland | A 26-year-old woman has episodic hypeension with headache, diaphoresis, and palpitation. Which of the following diagnostic procedures would be most useful in evaluating the possibility that pheochromocytoma might be the cause of these findings?
A. Serum C-peptide
B. Serum calcitonin
C. Urinary vanillylmandelic acid
D. Urinary aldosterone
| Urinary vanillylmandelic acid |
b66c08b1-4e2b-4003-8f7e-7e3b13248644 | Ans. is b, i.e. 3 monthlyRef: Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p812; Dutta Obs 6th/ed, p548; Park 20th/ed, p433-434; Leon Speroff 7th/ed, p962-963DMPA i.e. depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (depot provera) and Net en are progesterone only injectable contraceptives | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraceptives | To avoid contraception, DMPA is given:
A. Monthly
B. 3 Monthly
C. 6 Monthly
D. Yearly
| 3 Monthly |
e6988830-0ee9-4f8f-8010-0635b14e6067 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Herpes Intrauterine rubella infection, and maternal use of alcohol and tetracycline can cause IUGR. Herpes simplex can cause intrauterine infection, but it does not cause IUGR. | Pediatrics | null | Which one is not unourable for fetal development-
A. Herpes
B. Rubella
C. Alcohol
D. Tetracycline
| Herpes |
f99d0cfc-5e57-484d-b46b-e9d10fca18ff | The repeating disaccharide heparin contains glucosamine (GlcN) and either of the two uronic acids (Figure 50-11). Most of the amino groups of the GlcN residues are N-sulfated, but a few are acetylated. The GlcN also carries a sulfate attached to carbon 6.Heparin is found in the granules of mast cells and also in liver, lung, and skin.It is an impoant anticoagulant. It binds with factors IX and XI, but its most impoant interaction is with plasma antithrombin(discussed in Chapter 55).Heparin can also bind specifically to lipoprotein lipase present in capillary walls, causing a release of this enzyme into the circulation.Reference: Harper biochemistry, 30th edition, page no 637 | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | Heparin helps in the release of the enzyme
A. Hyluronidase
B. Lipoprotein lipase
C. Amylase
D. Invease
| Lipoprotein lipase |
1c09388c-eea9-441a-b135-00e0b36f3172 | Sarin, Soman, and Tabun are organophosphate nerve agents while Pyrolan is a carbamate. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | The following is not a Nerve gas -
A. Sarin
B. Tabun
C. Soman
D. Pyrolan
| Pyrolan |
1935e4c0-1499-4b8e-b868-5f083cdfe4cf | Answer- A. Psoas majorIn children with abdominal pain, who hold their right hip in a flexed position to obtain relief from the pain, one should suspect retrocaecal appendicitis causing irritation ofthe psoas muscle. | Surgery | null | Which muscle is irritated by inflamed retrocaecal appendix
A. Psoas major
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Quadratus femoris
D. Obturator internus
| Psoas major |
06a552f0-da6f-4066-80fc-0c3145f38af5 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 20 % hepatic artery, 80 % portal vein Blood supply of livero The liver has dual blood supply20% of blood supply is through the hepatic artery.80% of blood supply is through the portal vein.o Before entering the liver, both the hepatic artery and the portal vein divide into right and left branches and further subdivide to form segmental vessels within the liver.o The hepatic arterial blood mixes with portal venous blood in the sinusoids.o There are no anostomoses between adjoining hepatic arterial territories and hence each branch is an end artery.Other important abdominal organs an their blood supplyOrganBlood SupplyEsophagusInferior thyroid (branch of thyrocervical trunk)Branches from descending aortaLeft gastric artery' (branch of coeliac trunk)Bronchial arteryLeft inferior phrenic arteryStomachLeft gastric artery (branch of coeliac trunk)Right gastric artery' (branch of hepatic artery)Right gastroepiploic artery (branch of gastroduodenal artery)Left gastroepiploic artery' (branch of splenic artery)Short gastric artery (branch of splenic artery)DuodenumProximal to entry of bile ductSuperior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of gastroduodenal artery)Right gastric arteryRetroduodenal artery (branch of gastroduodenal artery)Right gastroepiploic artery (branch of gastroduodenal artery)Supraduodenal artery of wilkie (inconsistant supply)Distal to entry of bile ductInferior pancreatico-duodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery)PancreasPancreatic branches of Splenic artery (major supply)The superior pancreaticoduodenal arteryThe inferior pancreaticoduodenal arterySpleenSplenic artery (largest branch of coeliac trank)KidneyRenal artery' (branch of the abdominal aorta)Suprarenal gland (Adrenal gland)Superior suprarenal artery- (branch of inferior phrenic artery)Middle suprarenal artery (branch of abdominal aorta)Inferior suprarenal artery (branch of renal artery) | Anatomy | Thorax | Blood supply of liver -
A. 80% hepatic artery, 20% portal vein
B. 20% hepatic artery, 80% portal vein
C. 50% hepatic artery, 50% portal vein
D. 100% hepatic artery
| 20% hepatic artery, 80% portal vein |
1ea19cdd-f398-49d9-867b-1f742feffac0 | Rigler's sign - bowel wall outlined by intraluminal and free peritoneal gas. | Surgery | All India exam | X-ray sign of pneumoperitoneum
A. Steeple sign
B. Rigler's sign
C. Golden 'S' sign
D. 'Bird of prey' sign
| Rigler's sign |
e5b121a0-3de4-460f-a5c5-6ccbb891e970 | (Refer: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th edition, pg no: 265) | Anatomy | All India exam | The amino acid that acts as a precursor in the production of urea is
A. Arginine
B. Aspaic acid
C. Ornithine
D. Glutamate
| Arginine |
86498971-86b3-4ca5-94a6-c5a7fc8b777d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Plantar fascia Arches of the foot* The arches of the foot are well known features of the foot. There are two longitudinal arches, i.e. medial longitudinal arch and lateral longitudinal arch.* In addition there are two transverse arches, i.e. posterior transverse arch and an anterior transverse arch.* The medial longitudinal arch is the most important and is primarily affected in pes planus and pes cavus.# This arch is formed by the calcaneus, talus, navicular, three cuneiforms and medial three metatarsals.# Flattening of the arch is common and is assessed clinically.# The medial arch is supported byi) Spring ligament which supports the head of the talus.ii) Plantar fascia: Both these act as a tie beam.iii) Abductor hallucis and flexor digitorum brevis which act as spring ties.iv) Tibialis anterior which lifts the centre of the arch. This muscle also forms a stirrup like support with the help of peroneus longus muscle.v) Tibialis posterior adducts the mid-tarsal joint and supports the spring ligament.vi) Flexor hallucis longus extending between the anterior and posterior ends also supports the head of talus.vii) Flexor hallucis longus* The lateral longitudinal arch is formed by calcaneum, cuboid, 4th and 5th metatarsals. It is rather shallow and gets flattened on weight bearing.# This arch is supported by long plantar ligament, short plantar ligament. Plantar fascia acts as a tie beam.# Flexor digitorum brevis, flexor digiti minimi and abductor digiti minimi act as tie beam.# Peroneus longus, peroneus brevis and peroneus tertius support this arch.* Posterior transverse arch is formed by three cuneiforms and cuboid. This arch extends across the sole in a coronal plane. It is only a half arch, the other half gets completed by the other foot. This arch is supported by the ligaments binding the bones. It gets specific support form the tendon of peroneus longus as it extends form the lateral side to the medial side of the sole.* Anteior transverse arch also lies in coronal plane. It is formed by the heads of five metatarsals. During weight bearing, the metatarsal heads flatten out.# This arch is supported by intermetatarsal ligaments and the intrinsic muscles of the sole. The transverse head of adductor hallucis holds the heads of metatarsals together. | Anatomy | Lower Extremity | Medial longitudinal arch is supported by-
A. Plantar fascia
B. Sustentaculum tali
C. Peroneus longus
D. Peroneus brevis
| Plantar fascia |
d1e4f345-cd9e-4a3f-8b37-3cfd44c75c43 | Nutrient aery to fibula:- The peroneal aery gives off nutrient aery to fibula.Enters the bone on its posterior surface.Nutrient foramen directed downwards. {Reference: BDC 6E} | Anatomy | Lower limb | Nutrient aery to fibula arises from
A. Peroneal aery
B. Anterior- tibial aery
C. Posterior tibial aery
D. Popliteal aery
| Peroneal aery |
2a76f65d-a560-4d49-aa86-474ccb1ad558 | Scalp, face, palm and soles are characteristically spared in adult, whereas these areas are involved in infants and young children. | Dental | null | Scabies in adults differs from that in children by –
A. Not involving face
B. Non involving genitals
C. Not involves areola
D. Involves whole body
| Not involving face |
49bde9a5-088c-4ea8-aab4-06658f5f0ea2 | MOA* Inhibition of NF-KB Activation* Inhibition of PG synthesis* Scavenging of Free radicals 5-ASA compounds exe its local anti-inflammatory effect by inhibiting leukotriene production (PG synthesis) by inhibition of 5-lipooxygenase activity; also inhibits the production of IL-1 and TNF. Commonly Used 5-ASA Formulations in IBD Sulfasalazine Oral mesalamine agents Azo compounds: Balsalazide, Olsalazine | Surgery | Inflammatory bowel disease | Sulfasalazine exes its primary action in ulcerative colitis by :
A. Folic acid synthesis
B. Formation of prostaglandins (PG)
C. Inhibition of NF-KB Activation
D. Formation of interleukins
| Inhibition of NF-KB Activation |
edf31927-1056-4bbd-83dc-9d6550f7ccd9 | Ans: A (Dopamine) Ref: Pal GK, Pituitary Gland: The Anterior Pituitary. In: Textbook of Medical Physiology, Abuja Publishing House, 2007: 44:332Explanation:Regulation of Prolactin SecretionProlaction Increased by:PRFSleep, stress, breast feedingAlso released by TRH and hormones in the glucagon family (secretin, glucagon, VIP and gastric inhibitory polypeptide )AT-IIOxytocinDopamine antagonist (phenothiazine)Adrenergic blockersSerotonin agonistsProlactin Decreased by:DopamineSomatostatinProlactinGABA | Physiology | Pituitary | Inhibition of prolactin is caused by: (Repeat)
A. Dopamine
B. Dobutamine
C. TRH
D. AT-II
| Dopamine |
ec45fcb4-f964-4e27-af9c-6f88de25d6b9 | Investigation of choice for acute SAH is non-contrast CT scan. | Radiology | null | The first investigation of choice in a patient with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage should be -
A. Non-contrast computed tomography
B. CSF examination
C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography
| Non-contrast computed tomography |
1f0a5f77-f592-412a-a10c-391a784d832d | Triple bond is present between cytosine and guanosine. Ref: Harper's Biochemistry, 24th Edition, Page 403, 25th Edition, Page 404 ; Textbook of Biochemistry By DM Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 332, 344 | Biochemistry | null | Triple bonds are found between which base pairs:
A. A-T
B. C-G
C. A-G
D. C-T
| C-G |
961ff179-5a50-4f2f-9f5b-8811d9b52224 | Test for visual acuity in an infant is Electro retinography. | Ophthalmology | null | Test for visual acuity in a baby of age <1 year is
A. Electro retinography
B. Electro oculography
C. Snellen's chart
D. Optical Coherence tomography
| Electro retinography |
5ccaf367-a594-4445-8cfb-431757e9f3ac | Refer Goodman Gilman 12/e p 528 Term balanced anaesthesia was introduced by Lundy in 1926 | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | The term balanced anesthesia has been given by
A. Simpson
B. Fischer
C. Lundy
D. Moan
| Lundy |
713ee7dd-834b-4254-9e92-02b735561d96 | Mouth breathing with recurrent UI suggest adenoid hyperplasia, treatment is adenoidectomy. Hearing impairment and the option of myringotomy and grommet inseion suggests the patient is also suffering from serious otitis media (glue ear/secretory otitis media), which is one of the complications of adenoid hyperplasia. Treatment of glue ear requires myringotomy and grommet inseion. Ref: Textbook of disease of ENT, PL Dhingra,7th edition; pg no: 70 | ENT | Ear | Treatment of a 6-year-old child with recurrent UI, mouth breathing, failure to grow with high arched palate and impaired hearing is
A. Tonsillectomy
B. Grommet inseion
C. Myringotomy with grommet inseion
D. Adenoidectomy with grommet inseion
| Adenoidectomy with grommet inseion |
2962719d-df34-454b-8f8f-c1ae515b6054 | C i.e., 3.6 K Pa P50 is the P02 at which hemoglobin is half P50 is the index of affinity of hemoglobin for 02. Higher the P50, the lower the affinity of hemoglobin for 02. Under normal condition when: - Hb is normal - PaCO2 is 110 mm Hg - Temperature is 37degC - 2,3 DPG is 15 jtmol/gm of Hb. The value of P50 is 25 mm Hg - 3.6 KPaQ. (1 mm Hg = 0.14 KPa) | Physiology | null | The normal value of P50 on the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve in an adult is:
A. 1.8 kPa
B. 2.7 kPa
C. 3.6 kPa
D. 4.5 kPa
| 3.6 kPa |
e5eacb0a-0ae8-4d50-8c6a-64638542c62b | McArdle disease (also known as glycogen storage disease type V) is a disorder affecting muscle metabolism. The condition is caused by the lack of an enzyme called muscle phosphorylase. This results in an inability to break down glycogen 'fuel' stores. McArdle disease leads to pain and fatigue with strenuous exercise. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 153 | Medicine | Genetics | MCardle's syndrome is due to
A. Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Absence of muscle phosphorylase
C. Deficiency of liver phosphorylase
D. Deficiency of liver phosphorylase kinase
| Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase |
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