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aefdead6-93f1-4b03-9a6e-b3f83650e659 | Ans. is'a'i.e., Hofbauer cellHofbauer cells (HBCs) are placental macrophages that are present in the core of villus.Major cell type in placenta include syncytiotrophoblasts which line intervillous space and are in direct contact of maternal blood.Underlying stromal cells adjacent to fetal capillaries largely consisting off bro blasts and Hofbauer cells (fetal tissue macrophages) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Cells seen at the function between two layers ofplacenta are?
A. Hofbauer cell
B. Hofmann cells
C. Amniogenic cells
D. Uterine natural killer cells (UNK)
| Hofbauer cell |
bf6b9832-8c15-4a34-a58a-3b00f8e487e5 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Kidney [Ref: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 8pt 8px; text-indent: 0; text-align: left">o Cyclophosphomide is primarily metabolized (80%) and metabolites are excerted in urine.o 10 to 20% is excreted unchanged in urine and 4% is excreted in bile. | Pharmacology | Anti-Neoplastic Agents | Mode of excretion of cyclophosphamide is -
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Skin
| Kidney |
9b1b7698-0bc5-4606-9a1c-2c71aba0fcc8 | c Varicella zoster virusSimultaneous presence of various types of skin lesions including macules, papules & vesicles are suggestive of Chicken Pox', caused by Varicella zoster virus | Pediatrics | General Considerations - Infectious Diseases | Infection by which virus gives rise to the following skin lesions?
A. Herpesvirus
B. Measles virus
C. Varicella zoster virus
D. Parvovirus
| Varicella zoster virus |
9ef8c88a-4de3-4b89-b2a9-28586dd05628 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 24 hrs Breast milk o Can be stored at room temperature --> For 8-10 hours o In a refrigerator --> For 24 hours o In a freezer --> -20degc for 3 months | Pediatrics | null | Breast milk storage in a refrigerator is upto ?
A. 4 hrs
B. 8 hrs
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hrs
| 24 hrs |
d6db73bc-a8a2-4442-8aca-d34f2b52d3c1 | Currarino triadorASP triad: - Anorectal malformation or congenital anorectal stenosis - Sacrococcygeal osseous defect (always present) - Classically, hemisacrum with intact first sacral veebra ("sickle-shaped sacrum") - Mild (hypoplasia) to severe (agenesis) of sacrum and coccyx - Presacral mass (various types) - Anterior sacral meningocele - Tumor, e.g. mature teratoma - Dermoid/epidermoid cyst | Surgery | Oncology | Currarino triad includes:
A. Pre-sacral meningocele + Sacral defect + Tethered cord
B. Ectopia vesicae + Anorectal malformation + Sacrococcygeal osseous defect
C. Anorectal malformations + Sacrococcygeal osseous defect + Presacral mass
D. Tethered cord + Anorectal malformations + Ectopia vesicae
| Anorectal malformations + Sacrococcygeal osseous defect + Presacral mass |
3e98d532-5ed4-4224-b483-f243beaf16fd | Ans. is'b'i.e., External oblique(Ref: BDC &/e Vol. II p. 212, 213; Ramesh Babu p. 219)Examinar is asking about superficial inguinal ring which is triangular defect in external oblique aponeurosis.Superficial inguinal ring is an anatomical structure in the anterior abdominal wall. It is a triangular shaped defect in the aponeurosis of external oblique muscle | Anatomy | null | At the superficial inguinal canal increased abdominal pressure leads to closure by approximation of crura in the opening. This defect is seen in an aponeurosis formed by which of the following muscles?
A. Fascia tranversalis
B. External oblique
C. Internal oblique
D. Erector spinae
| External oblique |
8d4bec16-cfa0-4df9-a4ea-c822526ec76b | Ans. C: Achalasia cardia Achalasia is associated with loss of ganglion cells in the esophageal myenteric plexus. These impoant inhibitory neurons induce LES relaxation and coordinate proximal-to-distal peristaltic contraction of the esophagus Achalasia is an esophageal motor disorder characterized by increased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, diminished-to-absent peristalsis in the distal poion of the esophagus composed of smooth muscle, and lack of a coordinated LES relaxation in response to swallowing. Barium radiology may show 'bird's beak' appearance. Esophageal (Heller) myotomy is a surgical procedure that is performed with minimally invasive techniques. The laparoscopic approach appears to be most appropriate. | Surgery | null | Heller's myotomy is done for: September 2007, 2009, 2010
A. Esophageal carcinoma
B. Pyloric hyperophy
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Inguinal hernia
| Achalasia cardia |
24926ac8-e575-44a8-b426-b22e99e527a5 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Papillary 'Papillary carcinoma accounts for 80% of all thyroid malignancies in iodine-sufficient areas and is the predominant thyroid cancer in children and individuals exposed to external radiation." - SchwartzIncidence of primary malignant tumors of thyroid gland (Harrison 17/e)Type of thyroid carcinomaApproximate PrevalencePapillary Carcinoma80-90%Follicular Carcinoma5-10%Medullary Carcinoma10%Anaplastic CarcinomaRareLymphomas1-2%* Also rememberThyroid carcinoma is the most common malignancy of the endocrine system (Ref: Harrison, 17/e, p 2243) | Surgery | Thyroid Malignancies | Which of the following is the commonest tumour of thyroid -
A. Anaplastic carcinoma
B. Follicular carcinoma
C. Papillary carcinoma
D. Medullary carcinoma
| Papillary carcinoma |
e5b691d7-fd28-489b-9a45-6150ed49612e | If the superior or inferior vena cava is obstructed, the venous blood causes distention of the veins running from the anterior chest wall to the thigh.The lateral thoracic vein anastomoses with the superficial epigastric vein, a tributary of the great saphenous vein of the leg. In these circumstances, a touous varicose vein may extend from the axilla to the lower abdomenThe most common cause of superior vena cava syndrome is cancer.Primary or metastatic cancer in the upper lobe of the right lung can compress the superior vena cava.Lymphoma or other tumors located in the mediastinum can also cause compression of the superior vena cava.Less often, the superior vena cava can become blocked with a blood clot from within.Invasive medical procedures (Blood clot (thrombus) formation that causes superior vena cava syndrome is a complication of pacemaker wires, dialysis, and other intravenous catheters that are threaded into the superior vena cava)Infection (syphilis and tuberculosis) is another cause of superior vena cava syndrome. Sarcoidosis (a disease that results in masses of inflamed tissue) may also cause this syndrome. | Anatomy | null | SVC syndrome is most commonly associated with:
A. Mediastinal fibrosis
B. Lymphoma
C. Lung cancer
D. TB mediastinitis
| Lung cancer |
9e038a3c-f6b8-47bb-ac4d-8455955ab6d0 | Stage 1Non-blanchable erythema without a breach in theepidermisStage 2Paial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermisStage 3Full-thickness skin loss extending into the subcutaneous tissue but not through underlying fasciaStage 4Full-thickness skin loss through fascia with extensive tissue destruction, maybe involving muscle, bone, tendon or joint Bailey and Love 27e pg: 29 | Surgery | General surgery | There is a pressure sore extending into the subcutaneous tissue but underlying structures are not involved. Stage of the pressure sore is
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
| Stage 3 |
c5a90bfb-c634-455e-a6d8-c1f330bd857c | Cholesterol maintains the fluidity of the membrane. Cholesterol acts as a buffer to modify the fluidity of membranes. A lipid bilayer made up of only one type of phospholipid changes from a liquid state to a rigid crystalline state (gel state) at a characteristic freezing point. This change in state is known as a phase transition, and the temperature at which it occurs is called the phase transition temperature (Tm). The Tm is higher (fluidity is low) when the constituent fatty acid chains are long and mostly saturated (without double bonds). Long chains have greater interactions among themselves, making the membrane stiffer. Saturated fatty acids have straight tails, whereas unsaturated fatty acids have kinked tails. As more kinks are inseed in the tails, the membrane becomes less tightly packed, and therefore its fluidity increases. . | Physiology | General physiology | The fluidity of the plasma membrane is increased by
A. Arachidonic acid
B. Cholesterol
C. Palmitic acid
D. Stearic acid
| Arachidonic acid |
a0437225-5c70-4bd7-87b3-050872f3dcc8 | Transverse lie The long axes of the fetal and maternal ovoid are approximately at right angles to each other and the shoulder is presenting at pelvic inlet.The baby may be directly across the mother&;s abdomen,when it is a transverse lie,or obliquely across with the head or breech in one iliac fossa ,when it is an oblique lie (refer pgno:383 sheila textbook of obstetrics 2 nd edition) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Abnormal labor | In transverse lie, the presentation is:
A. Veex
B. Breech
C. Brow
D. Shoulder
| Shoulder |
0dfddde1-0368-421b-b97e-f42b21013b26 | The scala tympani is closed by a secondary tympanic membrane. It is also connected with subarachnoid space through aqueduct of cochlea Reference: Dhingra 6th edition. | ENT | Ear | Infection of CNS spreads to inner ear through
A. Cochlear aqueduct
B. Endolymphatic sac
C. Vestibular aqueduct
D. Hyle fissure
| Cochlear aqueduct |
80e6faab-60ec-42f1-9ab2-09a339cad8f5 | In neurons, the resting membrane potential is usually about - 70mV, which is close to the equilibrium potential for K+. Because there are more open K+channels than Na+ channels at rest Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology;25th edition; pg: 90 | Physiology | Nervous system | Resting membrane potential of a neuron is
A. -9mV
B. -50mV
C. -70mV
D. -100mV
| -70mV |
4606b481-62b4-4441-bafa-2ba5bac58e5d | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1536 booming "pistol-shot" sound can be heard over the femoral aeries (Traube's sign), and a to-and-fro murmur (Duroziez's sign) is audible if the femoral aery is lightly compressed with a stethoscope. | Medicine | C.V.S | Duroziez's sign is seen in
A. Aoic regurgitation
B. Tricuspid regurgitation
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Carcinoid syndrome
| Aoic regurgitation |
226bf456-c696-41d0-91ae-076710b27aab | Rings of Trauma: Hidden signs of Blunt trauma 1.Central Iris: Sphincter Tear 2.Peripheral Iris: Iridodialysis 3.Anterior Ciliary body: Angle recession 4.Separation of ciliary body from scleral spur: Cyclodialysis 5.Trabecular Meshwork: Trabecular Meshwork tear 6.Zonule/ lens: Zonular tear with possible lens subluxation 7.Retinal Dialysis: Separation of Retina with Ora Serrata | Ophthalmology | Trauma | Not a sign of blunt trauma?
A. Sphincter tear
B. angle recession
C. Corneal perforation
D. Retinal dialysis
| Corneal perforation |
4532efdd-cb38-4516-bbd7-dc6554b07502 | Ganglion
A ganglion is a small cyst located near a joint capsule or tendon sheath. A common location is around the joints of the wrist where it appears as a firm, fluctuant, pea-sized, translucent nodule. It arises as a result of cystic or myxoid degeneration of connective tissue; hence the cyst wall lacks a true cell lining. The fluid in the cyst is similar to the synovial fluid; However, there is no communication with the joint space. | Pathology | null | Ganglion of tendons is an example of -
A. Neoplastic process
B. Malformation
C. Amyloid deposition
D. Myxomatous degeneration
| Myxomatous degeneration |
6c899ce7-3619-4446-abd4-0c6c12be59a0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., ARDS ARDS Criteria 1. Acute, meaning onset over 1 week or less. 2. Bilateral opacities consistent with pulmonary edema must be present and may be detected on CT or chest radiograph. 3. PF ratio < 300 mmHg with a minimum of 5 cmH20 PEEP (or CPAP). 4. C VP < 18 mmHg. X-Ray showing bilateral infiltrates: | Surgery | Pathophysiology - Acute Pancreatitis | A 57 year old male suffering from acute pancreatitis develops sudden onset breathlessness with a CVP< 18mmHg. The chest xray shows bilateral infiltrates. The possible diagnosis is -
A. ARDS
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Congestive left heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolism
| ARDS |
4c6e43c0-1894-4858-b91c-0f78d0c5f813 | (A) Sodium Influx # Action potential is due to opening of Na+ channels causing "Na+ influx"> As the membrane potential is increased, sodium ion channels open, allowing the entry of sodium ions into the cell. This is followed by the opening of potassium ion channels that permit the exit of potassium ions from the cell.> Inward flow of sodium ions increases the concentration of positively-charged cations in the cell and causes depolarization, where the potential of the cell is higher than the cell's resting potential.> Sodium channels close at the peak of the action potential, while potassium continues to leave the cell.> Efflux of potassium ions decreases the membrane potential or hyperpolarizes the cell.> For small voltage increases from rest, the potassium current exceeds the sodium current and the voltage returns to its normal resting value, typically -70 mV.> However, if the voltage increases past a critical threshold, typically 15 mV higher than the resting value, the sodium current dominates.> This results in a runaway condition whereby the positive feedback from the sodium current activates even more sodium channels. Thus, the cell "fires," producing an action potential | Physiology | Misc. | Action potential is produce by
A. Sodium Influx
B. Sodium Efflux
C. Potassium Influx
D. Potassium Efflux
| Sodium Influx |
b0c1e7c9-b9e8-474b-8606-0b4c0f4c7034 | Binswanger's disease, also known as subcoical leukoencephalopathy and subcoical aeriosclerotic encephalopathy (SAE), is a form of small vessel vascular dementia caused by damage to the white brain matter. White matter atrophy can be caused by many circumstances including chronic hypeension as well as old age. | Pathology | Nervous system | Binswanger&;s disease is a form of
A. Hypeensive retinopathy
B. Hypeensive nephropathy
C. Hypeensive encephalopathy
D. Subcoical leukoencephalopathy
| Subcoical leukoencephalopathy |
f4b317cd-a4fe-49d0-acc3-1922fcfd789f | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 10 mg/liter Crippling fluorosis This occurs at fluoride level > 10 mg/litre (PPM). Patient is crippled and bed ridden. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Crippling fluorosis occurs at what level ?
A. 0.5-0.8 mg/litre
B. 1.5 mg/litre
C. 3-6 mg/litre
D. > 10 mg/litre
| > 10 mg/litre |
827f4fab-9803-4075-8f03-3784ea8a031b | CD 3 is considered as lineage specific for Tcells. | Pathology | null | Lineage specific T Cell marker is
A. CD 1
B. CD 19
C. CD 3
D. CD 4
| CD 3 |
c1953066-fd7d-4d3a-98c6-4efc0293e812 | Ans. (d) Achalasia CardiaRef Bailey and Love 26th edition Page 1015* Manometry is the investigation to study the physiology of the functions of esophagus.* It is the investigation of choice to detect the motility disorders like achalasia cardia, DES, nut cracker esophagus.* Barrett IOC: Endoscopic biopsy* Cancer Esophagus IOC: Endoscopic biopsy* Zenker IOC: Barium swallow | Surgery | Oesophagus | Oesophageal manometry is used in:
A. Cancer esophagus
B. Barrett esophagus
C. Schatzki ring
D. Achalasia cardia
| Achalasia cardia |
6c316e83-e64c-4c9d-bcaf-6b08de309883 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thiopentone Anesthetics in porphyriaSafeUnsafe (should not be used)* Propofol* Benzodiazepines* Opioids (other than pentazocine)- morphine, codeine, pethidine, fentanyl, alfentanyl, naloxone* Lidocaine, Bupivacaine* Muscle relaxants* Neostagmine, atropine, glycopyrrolate* Aspirin, indomethacin, naproxen* Halothane, N2O, isoflurane* Barbiturate (thiopentone)* Etomidate* Pentazocine* Ropivacaine | Anaesthesia | Complications Of Anaesthesia | Anesthetic agent contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria is?
A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Propofol
D. Thiopentone
| Thiopentone |
35f0dcd8-6720-4eb5-9f01-a3959028e0a4 | Ans. is'b'i.e., Gresinger sign (Ref Dhingra 5th/e p. 95) Griesinger's sign: - Edema over the posterior pa of mastoid due to thrombosis of mastoid emissary veins. | ENT | null | Which sign is seen due to thrombosis of mastoid emissary veins?
A. Battle sign
B. Gresinger sign
C. Irwin Moore Sign
D. Hennebe's sign
| Gresinger sign |
52bd2eec-f439-4db3-80d5-de2eaeb844da | The observed incidence of emergence delirium after ketamine ranges from 5% to 30 %. | Anaesthesia | Intravenous Anesthetic Agents | What is incidence of emergence delirium after ketamine anaesthesia-
A. 5% to 30 %
B. 30 % to 55 %
C. 55 % to 70 %
D. 100%
| 5% to 30 % |
1aab304f-c04f-42c9-9db4-66ac2d1f26f4 | Ans. is'a' i.e., Severe epistaxisManagement of intractable spontaneous epistaxis.TESPAL - transnasal endoscopic sphenopalatine aery ligationIndication:Epistaxis not responding to conventional conservative management.Posterior epistaxis | ENT | null | TESPAL done in -
A. Severe epistaxis
B. Rhinophyma
C. CA Maxillary Sinus
D. Multiple Antrochoanal polyps
| Severe epistaxis |
502cc028-3dc8-4aef-8aa0-7b08a05b0cd4 | S.E = S/[?]n S = Standard detion = 0.25 n = sample size = 25 S.E. = 0.25/[?] 25 = 0.25/5 = 0.05 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostats | The mean of the 25 patients' plasma volumes is 12.5 litres. Standard detion is 0.25. Calculate standard error
A. 0.05
B. 0.5
C. 0.01
D. 0.1
| 0.05 |
f94a5d87-676f-4f09-bd41-5113fb2ee0bc | CO2 CO, is the gas used to create pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopy. Other option is - N20 : But it is expensive, less soluble in blood and suppos combustion. Also know : Instrument used for creating pneumoperitoneum is veress needle. Flow Rate of CO, for creating pneumoperitoneum 200 - 2000 ml/min & pressure between 15 - 25 mm of Hg. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Best gas used for creating pneumoperitonium at laparoscopy is :
A. N2
B. 2
C. CO2
D. N20 Goniometer is used
| CO2 |
9eae3cf5-29f0-4797-8a08-038964dd1081 | Ans. B: Tubocurare Drugs contra-indicated in myasthenia gravis Absolute contraindication: - Curare - D-penicillamine Botulinum toxin - Interferon alpha Contraindicated -- Antibiotics -- aminoglycosides (gentamycin, kanamycin, neomycin, streptomycin, tobramycine); macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin, telithromycin,) Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, norfloxacin, levofloxacin); -- Quinine, quinidine, procainamide, -- Magnesium salts, iv magnesium replacement. Caution- may exacerbate weakness in some myasthenics - Calcium channel blockers - Beta blockers - Lithium - Statins Iodinated contrast agents | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drug is contraindicated in a patient of myasthenia gravis: September 2008
A. Succinylcholine
B. Tubocurare
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Halothane
| Tubocurare |
380fe628-43c3-42d9-8c15-3f03afd88f11 | Phosphatidylinositol derivatives play several distinct roles in the cell membrane, one of which is that they anchor several cell surface proteins. Cell surface proteins bound to phosphatidylinositol are also found in several parasitic protozoa. By altering these proteins, these protozoa can change their antigenic properties and avoid immunosurveillance. Being attached via a telatively long chain to the membrane via phosphatidylinositol, rather than being a part of the membrane itself, allows these proteins lateral movement on the cell surface. The proteins can be cleaved from the membrane by the action of phospholipase C. The other compounds listed are also phospholipids, but they do not anchor proteins in the membrane. | Unknown | null | Specific cell surface proteins, such as alkaline phosphatase, and lipoprotein lipase, are anchored to the cell membrane. This anchoring is accomplished by covalent binding through an oligosaccharide bridge to component of the cell membrane. This component is
A. Sphingomyelin
B. Phospphatidic acid
C. Phosphatidylserine
D. Phosphatidylinositol
| Phosphatidylinositol |
9bd2a5ee-4bbe-4368-a0f1-5cc00a7316c0 | Answer is A (Hypeension) The most common cause of Left Ventricular Hyperophy is Systemic Hypeension Left Ventricular Hyperophy may be produced as a result of all of the above conditions but systemic hypeension remains the single most common cause. Left Ventricular Hyperophy (LVH) Pressure overload states: Hypeension (most common cause of LVH). Aoic stenosis Coarctation of Aoa Volume overload states: Aoic or mitral regurgitation Hyperophic cardiomvopathy (HCM): A group of genetic diseases of the cardiac sarcomere characterized by hyperophy of the left ventricle. The most common cause of Left Axis Detion of ECG is Left Anterior Hemiblock | Medicine | null | The most common cause of Left Ventricular Hyperophy is:
A. Hypeension
B. Aoic Stenosis
C. Aoic Regurgitation
D. HOCM
| Hypeension |
dfd015cf-b529-4b53-a6c6-ebb0038c8de0 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., DiphtheriaVaccines recommended in disasters -* Following vaccines are recommended1) Children < 10years:- DPT, inactivated polio (IPV), H.influenzae type b (Hib), hepatitis B, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV), measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), varicella vaccine, influenza, hepatitis A and rotavirus.2) Children and adolescents (11-18 years):- Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis, meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MCV), Influenza.3) Adults (>18 years):- Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis, pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23), and influenza.* Vaccination against typhoid and cholera is not recommended. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste, disaster management and occupational health | Which vaccine is recommended in disasters -
A. Typhoid
B. Cholera
C. BCG
D. Diphtheria
| Diphtheria |
dd614810-d6b1-42e1-a3f5-4cff4ddc9a4e | The glomus cells (type I) are specialized glandular-like cells, mainly located in the carotid bodies and aoic bodies, that control the respiratory activity.The glomus cells have a high metabolic rate and good blood perfusion and synapses directly or indirectly with nerve endings. Thus are sensitive to changes in aerial blood gas (specially to low pO2)(Ref: Guyton & hall, pg- 367) | Anatomy | Brain | Glomus cells are found in
A. Bladder
B. Brain
C. Chemoreceptors
D. Kidney
| Chemoreceptors |
cb9bdee7-69d8-4448-84aa-aa9c965029a7 | Ans. A: Gamma globulinThe hepatocyte manufactures serum albumin, fibrinogen, and the prothrombin group of clotting factors (except for Factor 3,4)It is the main site for the synthesis of lipoproteins, ceruloplasmin, transferrin, complement, and glycoproteinsThe liver forms fatty acids from carbohydrates and synthesizes triglycerides from fatty acids and glycerol. Hepatocytes also synthesize apoproteinsIt also synthesizes cholesterol from acetate and fuher synthesizes bile salts. The liver is the sole site of bile salts formationRemember the only major class of plasma proteins not synthesized by the liver are the immunoglobulins | Physiology | null | Which of the following is not produced by hepatocytes:September 2006, September 2012
A. Gamma globulin
B. Albumin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Prothrombin
| Gamma globulin |
ffa635c4-cfb0-46c8-861c-e87f12e0ab22 | Ataxia telangiectasia (AT) Present in the first decade of life with progressive telangiectatic lesions associated with deficits in cerebellar function and nystagmus. There is a high incidence of recurrent pulmonary infections (bronchiectasisQ) and neoplasms of the lymphatic and reticuloendothelial system. It is caused due to defect in DNA repair genes Thymic hypoplasia with cellular and humoral (IgAQ and IgG2) immunodeficiencies, premature aging and endocrine disorders such as insulin resistance or type-I DM The most striking neuropathologic changes include loss of Purkinje, granule and basket cells in the cerebellar coex as well as of neurons in the deep cerebellar nuclei. A poorly developed or absent thymus gland is the most consistent defect of the lymphoid system. | Pathology | Immunodeficiency Disorders | Which of the following immunoglobulin is absent in Ataxia telangiectasia:
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
| IgA |
f2d1b59e-78ae-4249-95c5-0ae6d6631fd2 | Angiogenesis Tumour angiogenesis plays a very significant role in the metastasis since the new vessel formed as a pa of growing tumour are more vulnerable to invasion because these evolving cells are in direct contact with cancer cells. According to Harrison "Cancer research studying the conditions necessary for cancer metastasis have discovered that one of the critical events required is the, growth of a new network of blood vessels called tumour angiogenesis". Angiogenesis in tumours :? Tumour stimulates the growth of host blood vessels. Which is essential for supplying nutrients to the tumour. Tumours cannot enlarge beyond 1-2 mm in diameter or thickness unless they are vascularized because the 12 mm zone represents the maximal distance across which oxygen and nutrients can diffuse from blood vessels. Angiogenesis of tumour impas two benefits A) Growth of tumour By supplying oxygen and nutrient to tumour cells. Endothelial cells of new blood vessels secrete growth factors which stimulate the growth of adjacent tumour cells. B) Distant metastasis Without access to the vasculature, the tumour cells cannot rapidly spread to distant sites. Tumour associated angiogenic factors :? Tumours secrete ceain factors which induce neovascularization Two most impoant are ? i) Vascular endothelial derived growth factor (VEGF) ii) Basic fibroblast growth factor (BFGF) Steps in the spread of cancer ? Aggressive clonal proliferation and angiogenesis The first step in the spread of cancer cells is the development of rapidly proliferating clone of cancer cells. Detachment of tumour cells Normal cells remain glued to each other due to presence of cell adhesion molecules (CAM) i.e. E cadherin. Normal function of E cadherin is dependent on catenins that helps in linkage of cytoskeleton to E cadherin. Down regulation of expression of either E cadherins or catenins results in loosening of cells that helps in metastasis. Tumour cell and extracellular matrix interaction Loosened cancer cells attach to ECM proteins mainly Laminin and fibronectin through a special protein integrin. Degradation of ECM Tumour cells overexpress proteases and matrix degrading enzymes i.e., metalloproteinases that includes collagenase and gelatinase. Another protease cathepsin D is also increased in ceain cancers. These enzymes bring about dissolution of extracellular matrix - Firstly basement membrane of tumour itself; is dissolved then it make way for the tumour cells through the interstitial matrix and.finally the basement membrane of the vessel wall is dissolved. Entry of tumour cells into capillary lumen :? Tumour cells after degrading the basement membrane are ready to migrate into lumen of capillaries or venules for which the following mechanisms play a role. i) Autocrine motility factor (AMF) is a cytokine derived from tumour cells and stimulate receptor mediated motility of tumour cells. ii) Cleavage product of matrix components. Which are formed following degradation of ECM have propeies of tumour cell chemotcuis, growth promotion and angiogenesis in cancer. After the malignant cells have migrated through the breached basement membrane, these cells enter the lumen of lymphatic and capillary channels. Thrombus formation The tumour cells protruding in the lumen of the capillary are now covered with constituents of the circulating blood and form the thrombus. Thrombus provides nourishment to the tumour cells and also prevent them from immune attack. Extravasation of tumour cells Tumour cells in the circulation may mechanically block these vascular channels and attach to vascular end. In this way, the sequence similar to local invasion is repeated and the basement membrane is exposed. | Pathology | null | Essential for tumour metastasis is ?
A. Angiogenesis
B. Tumorogenesis
C. Apoptosis
D. Inhibition of tyrosine kinase activity
| Angiogenesis |
7e17f476-dc9b-4225-8fec-32ea1546f763 | Todd's paralysis, or Todd's palsy. Specialty. Neurology. Todd's paresis (or postictal paresis/paralysis, "after seizure") is focal weakness in a pa or all of the body after a seizure. This weakness typically affects appendages and is localized to either the left or right side of the body. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | Medicine | C.N.S | Todd's palsy can occur after episode of
A. Generalised tonic clonic seizures
B. Paial motor seizures
C. Atonic seizures
D. Myoclonic seizures
| Paial motor seizures |
d26ccee5-d063-4250-a917-6b9613940bdc | Ans. A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroidMEN 2a: Sipple syndromeMEN 2ba. Thyroid; Medullary thyroid carcinomaa. Thyroid: Medullary thyroid carcinomab. Pheochromocytomab. Pheochromocytomac. Parathyroid hyperplasiac. Mucosal neuromas and Marfanoid appearance | Medicine | Endocrinology | Pheochromocytoma may be associated with:
A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
B. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
C. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid
D. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid
| Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid |
acefb136-1def-48e8-82fb-5995abbf6e0d | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 50% * The term literacy rate is used for the population relating to seven years age & above.* In the given question, population 7 years 8c above is 8000. Out of which 4000 are literate thus literacy rate is 50%. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and Family Planning | In a population of 10,000, literate people are 4000. In same population 2000 are 0-6 years old. What is the literacy rate of that population -
A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
| 50% |
58e94502-1590-4e40-a976-f2fa2a28dfe0 | All RNA viruses are single stranded except Reo virus. | Microbiology | null | Which one of the following virus is double stranded RNA virus?
A. Hepatitis -A
B. Hepatitis-E
C. Reo virus
D. Corona virus
| Reo virus |
2de3bca4-56b6-4ff2-ac27-bd830e80d147 | Ans. a (S. hematobium) (Ref. H - 18th/ ch. 219)SCHISTOSOMIASIS (BILHARZIA)Distribution and important species of Schistosoma are:# S. japonica is found in Central and Eastern China, and the Philippines and nearby islands; and primarily affects the liver and intestines.# 5. mansoni is found in Africa, the Eastern Mediterranean, the Caribbean, and South America and primarily affects the liver and intestines.# S. haematobium is found in Africa, the Middle East, and Eastern Mediterranean and primarily affects the urinary tract.# S. mekongi is found in Southeast Asia and primarily affects the liver and intestines.Incubation:# Symptoms of acute schistosomiasis begin about a month after infection.Signs and Symptoms# Acute schistosomiasis ->>Katayama fever.Q# The last (chronic) stage varies according to species, i.e., S. japonica, 5. mansoni, and S. mekongi primarily affect liver and intestines; while S. haematobium primarily affects the urinary tract.# In general, patients with chronic schistosomiasis tend to present in developed countries with lethargy, colicky abdominal pain, mucoid/bloody diarrhea, or dysuria and hematuria.# Chronic hepatosplenic schistosomiasis is a consequence of eggs retained in tissue and prolonged infection - usually of > 10 years duration.# Fibrosis may cause portal hypertension, splenomegaly, or esophageal or gastric varices.Q# Chronic genitourinary schistosomiasis is associated with chronic 5. haematobium infection.# Hematuria and dysuria are common from the acute through chronic stages. Bladder cancer rates are increased in endemic areas. Salmonella infection concurrent with schistosomiasis is common and is resistant to treatment unless the schistosomiasis is also treated.Diagnosis# Diagnosis of S. japonicum and S. mansoni is by the presence of ova in feces or tissue. Diagnosis of S. haematobium is by the presence of ova in urine or tissue. However, ova loads are not always sufficient for diagnosis, especially in long-standing chronic illness. Immunofluorescent antibody tests and antigen detection assays are increasingly used.# "Fetal head" bladder calcification may be shown in X-rays in chronic S. haematobium infection. QTreatment# For S. haematobium and S. mansoni, praziquantel 20/kg po bid for one day; for S. japonica and S. mekongi, praziquantel 20/kg po tid for one day are the treatments of choice.# S. mansoni may also be treated with oxamniquine in a single po dose (with food) of 15 mg/kg. S. haematobium in North and East Africa may be treated with metrifonate 7.5-10 mg/kg every other week for a total of 3 doses.Also Know:# The second most common urologic cancer and the most frequent malignant tumor of the urinary tract is bladder cancer. Usually a transitional cell carcinoma. Most prevalent in men during the sixth and seventh decades. Risk factors include smoking, diets rich in meat and fat, schistosomiasis, chronic treatment with cyclophosphamide, and exposure to aniline dye (a benzene derivative).# Causes of portal hypertesnion are as follows: 1. Presinusoidal: Splenic or portal vein thrombosis, schistosomiasis. granulomatous disease. 2. Sinusoidal: Cirrhosis, granulomatous disease. 3. Postsinusoidal: Right heart failure, constrictive pericarditis, hepatic vein thrombosis. | Microbiology | Parasitology | Urine sample examinations is a useful investigation in infestation of
A. S. haematobium
B. S. japonicum
C. S. mansoni
D. E.vermicularis
| S. haematobium |
ec1f1814-923b-4ba0-933c-7050718eb16d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Gram negative diplococci o The genus Neisseria consists of Gram negative aerobic nonsporulating, non motile oxidase positive cocci typically arranged in pairs (diplococci).o Two important pathogens are -N. meningitidisN. gonorrhoeae | Microbiology | Bacteria | Genus neisseria is -
A. Gram positive diplococci
B. Gram negative diplococci
C. Gram negative coccobacilli
D. Gram positive bacilli
| Gram negative diplococci |
37d0ba6d-d4c0-47e3-9a6f-5d0596aba822 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa Carbidopa is combined with levodopa to inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa and make more levodopa available to cross the blood brain barrier to reach its site of action. | Pharmacology | null | L-Dopa is combined with carbidopa in the treatment of parkinsonism to -
A. Decrease the efficacy of levodopa
B. Decrease the efficacy of levodopa
C. Increase the dose of levodopa required
D. Inhibit conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the CNS
| Decrease the efficacy of levodopa |
9b7cceee-02f8-47b4-9a8c-e716704b7e7f | Most common cause of congestive cardiac failure in infants is congenital hea disease. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition ,p.no:397 | Pediatrics | C.V.S | Commonest cause of hea failure in infancy is ________
A. Myocarditis
B. Rheumatic fever
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Congenital hea disease
| Congenital hea disease |
124f34d5-a898-4fc4-9d88-2ca022a6277a | Detection of beta-2 transferrin is considered pa of standard evaluation when CSF leak is suspected. Nasal and ear fluids are tested for detection of the beta-2 transferrin band by immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE) or Western blot analysis as a diagnostic tool for the presence of CSF or perilymph. This test is helpful in the differential diagnosis for CSF otorrhoea or CSF rhinorrhoea. The beta-2 transferrin band has not been detected in multiple fluids including serum, ear fluid, nasal secretions, saliva, tears or endolymph, indicating the specificity of the slower beta-2 transferrin isoform for CSF. | Unknown | null | Which of the following tests are used in the evaluation of a suspected CSF leak?
A. Beta 2 microglobulin
B. Beta 2 transferrin
C. Tyroglobulin
D. Transthyretin
| Beta 2 transferrin |
4b2de5ed-2a66-4c75-81bc-f6dcaec06ff3 | The physical lengths of the actin and myosin filaments do not change during contraction. Therefore, the A band, which is composed of myosin filaments, does not change either. The distance between Z disks decreases, but the Z disks themselves do not change. Only the I band decreases in length as the muscle contracts. | Physiology | Muscle | Which of the following decreases in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber?
A. A band of the sarcomere
B. I band of the sarcomere
C. Thick filaments
D. Thin filaments
| I band of the sarcomere |
b99a2f4c-758b-4a99-addb-0ba246a0ded3 | Myogenic autoregulation - through opening of Calcium channels Tubuloglomerular feedback - through release of adenosine Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 678 | Physiology | Renal physiology | According to myogenic theory of renal autoregulation, the afferent aerioles contract in response to stretch induced by
A. NO
B. Noradrenalin
C. Opening of Ca2+ channels
D. Adenosine release
| Opening of Ca2+ channels |
84048e94-d814-442a-808a-879d0445a416 | Branches of external carotid aery Anterior Superior thyroid Lingual Facial Posterior Occipital Posterior auricular Medial Ascending pharyngeal Terminal Maxillary Superficial temporal Ref BDC volume 3 ;sixth edition pg 101 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Maxillary aery is
A. Branch of facial aery
B. Branch of internal carotid aery
C. Branch of common carotid
D. Terminal branch of external carotid
| Terminal branch of external carotid |
b8d45715-98f8-4758-985c-22d2cd87b2ff | Ans. (a) 498 ARef.: The Essentials ofFSM by K.S. Narayan Reddy 31st ed. / 272-73* Cruel behavior towards wife by husband or his relatives punished by IPC 498 A.* IPC section 498 A states that whosoever being husband or relative subject women to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment of upto 3 years with or without fine. | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | Cruel behavior towards wife by husband, family members or his relatives comes under which IPC section:
A. 498 A
B. 304
C. 304 A
D. 304 B
| 498 A |
19f834b3-c27f-4da2-8e65-974917b544eb | Ans. aRef.: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 30th edn.Option aTrueYes, due to its pyrolidone ring is stable at neutral pH (pH 7)Option bFalseNo, glycine is simplest amino acid and not affected by pHOption cFalseNo, it is steric hinderance is there due to branched chain amino acidOption dFalseNo, false, it is not affected by pH due to guanidino groupOption eFalseNo, not affected due to aromaticityAt physiological pH (around 7.4) the carboxyl group of the amino acid is unprotonated and the amino group is protonated. Thus an amino acid with no ionizable R-group would be electrically neutral at this pH. This species is termed a zwitterion.Histidine is a unique amino acid as pKa of its imidazole group permits it at pH 7 to function either as a base or as an acid. A minor change in pH changes the ionization charge on histidine to buffer pH change. Therefore it can serve as a buffer and is most stable at physiological pH.However, when histidine is incorporated into a protein, its side chain can be either positively charged or neutral, depending on the ionic environment provided by the polypeptide chains of the protein.This is an important property of histidine that contributes to the role it plays in the functioning of proteins such as hemoglobin.Extra edge: A tetrahydral carbon atom with four distinct parts is known as chiral. Only GLYCINE does not show chirality.Amino Acid ClassificationNon-polar Amino Acids.Aliphatic: glycine, alanine, valine, isoleucine, leucine.Aromatic: phenylalanine, tryptophan.Cyclic: Proline..Polar Amino Acids.Sulfur-containing: cysteine, methionine..Hydroxyl-containing: serine, threonine.Aromatic: tyrosine.Acidic Amide: asparagine, glutamine.Charged Amino Acids (at physiological pH).Acidic: aspartic acid, glutamic acid.Basic: histidine, lysine, arginine. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Which of the following amino acid is active at neutral pH?
A. Histidine
B. Glycine
C. Leucine
D. Arginine
| Histidine |
6794d3d4-0930-46be-a02e-ee2019ec02b8 | Bicipital groove of inteubercular sulcus of humerus: The groove lies between greater and lesser tuberosities of humerus. Bilaminar tendon of the pectoralis major is inseed into the lateral lip of the groove. Teres major is inseed into the medial lip of the groove. Tendon of the latissimus dorsi is inseed into the floor of the groove.Contents of groove:Tendon of the long head of triceps and its synol sheathAscending branch of the anterior circumflex humeral aery | Anatomy | null | Which of the following is a content of bicipital groove?
A. Synol membrane of shoulder joint
B. Ascending branch of anterior circumflex aery
C. Ascending branch of posterior circumflex aery
D. Radial aery
| Ascending branch of anterior circumflex aery |
7617db68-4875-4f8f-9198-ab4ae1dfd24e | Composition of reduced osmolarity ORS: Components Amount in mmol/ litre Sodium 75 Chloride 65 Glucose, anhydrous 75 Potassium 20 Citrate 10 Total osmolarity 245 Ref: Park 21st edition, page 202. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | What is the total osmolarity of low osmolarity ORS?
A. 311 mmol/ litre
B. 300 mmol/ litre
C. 245 mmol/ litre
D. 250 mmol/ litre
| 245 mmol/ litre |
baacd431-3ccb-4c63-a2a6-c869c5bc24cd | Ans. (c) Thrice per weekRef : Harrison 19th ed. /1823For the majority of patients with ESRD, between 9 and 12 h of dialysis are required each week, usually divided into three equal sessions.Current Targets of Hemodialysis* Urea reduction ratio (the fractional reduction in blood urea nitrogen per hemodialysis session) of >65-70%.* Body water-indexed clearance x time product (KT/V) above 1.2 or 1.05.REMEMBERHypotension is the most common acute complication of hemodialysis. Since the introduction of bicarbonate- containing dialysate, dialysis-associated hypotension has become less common. The management of hypotension during dialysis consists of discontinuing ultrafiltration, the administration of 100-250 mL of isotonic saline or 10 mL of 23% saturated hypertonic saline, or administration of salt-poor albumin. | Medicine | Dialysis | Chronic hemodialysis in ESRD patient is done
A. Once per week
B. Twice per week
C. Thrice per week
D. Daily
| Thrice per week |
5647f3de-c7dc-45f7-a700-208933d88e65 | (A) Astrocytes and endothelial cells # "Blood Brain Barrier" (BBB) results from the selectivity of the tight junctions between endothelial cells in CNS vessels that restricts the passage of solutes.> At the interface between blood and the brain, endothelial cells are stitched together by these tight junctions, which are composed of smaller subunits, frequently biochemical dimers, that are transmembrane proteins such as occludin, claudins, junctional adhesion molecule (JAM), or ESAM, for example.> Each of these transmembrane proteins is anchored into the endothelial cells by another protein complex that includes zo-1 and associated proteins.> Blood-brain barrier is composed of high-density cells restricting passage of substances from the bloodstream much more than endothelial cells in capillaries elsewhere in the body.> Astrocyte cell projections called astrocytic feet ("glia limitans") surround the endothelial cells of the BBB, providing biochemical support to those cells.> BBB is distinct from the quite similar blood-cerebrospinal-fluid barrier, which is a function of the choroidal cells of the choroid plexus, and from the blood-retinal barrier, which can be considered a part of the whole realm of such barriers. | Anatomy | Misc. | Which one of the following form Blood Brain Barrier?
A. Astrocytes and endothelial cells
B. Choroidal cells
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Endothelial cells exclusively
| Astrocytes and endothelial cells |
3afea785-3cae-40c0-b566-52f38010c446 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Macular edema o The DCCT demonstrated that improvement of glvcemia controly Reduced nonproliferative and proliferative retinopathy (47% reduction).y Microalbuminuria (39% reduction).y Clinical nephropathy (54% reduction).y Neuropathy (60% reduction).y Improved glycemic control also slowed the progression of early diabetic complication.y There vras a nonsignificant trend in reduction of macrovascular events during the trial.o The UKPDS demonstrated that each percentage point reduction in AIC was associated with a 35% reduction in microvascular complications. | Medicine | Diabites & Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone | The complication of diabetes which cannot be prevented by strict control of blood sugar is -
A. Amyotrophy
B. Nerve conductivity
C. Macular edema
D. Microalbuminuria
| Macular edema |
57b250f6-2c04-4fcb-91aa-240cc61a6c54 | Ans. (c) ColonoscopyRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition, Page 1262* Investigation of choice for cancer colon is colonoscopy as we can take biopsy and confirm the lesion.* Risk of perforation is 1:1000.* Helps to detect synchronous lesions also. | Surgery | Small & Large Intestine | In cancer colon investigation of choice is:
A. CT scan
B. Barium enema
C. Colonoscopy
D. X-ray
| Colonoscopy |
e6c0b5f8-8aa7-40f4-b936-b9f6317cc568 | Histidine plays a key role in making hemoglobin an excellent buffer in red blood cells. | Biochemistry | null | Which is the only amino acid with good buffering capacity at physiological pH?
A. Arginine
B. Glutamic acid
C. Histidine
D. Valine
| Histidine |
62eb368d-0730-4a2d-8b5c-09cef7f6f144 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1200 ml(Ref: Ganong 24n/e p.629)Inspiratory reserve volume - 3000 mlExpiratory reserve voulume -1200 ml | Physiology | null | Normal expiratory reserve volume of adult?
A. 500 ml
B. 3000 ml
C. 1200 ml
D. 4500 ml
| 1200 ml |
928adc66-24a4-4d07-9887-5c36a9761e2d | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Inferior thyroid arteryRef: B.D. C 2nd/e Vol III page 137 & 138, Repeat Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of the thyrocervical trunk. During its course it passes behind the carotid sheath and the middle cervical sympathetic ganglion and its terminal part is related to the recurrent laryngeal nerve.More Questions about arterial supply of the thyroid glandThe thyroid gland in supplied by the following arteriesSuperior thyroid artery a branch of the external carotid arterylies in close association with the external laryngeal nerve.Inferior thyroid artery a branch of the thyrocervical trunk (which arises from the subclavian artery)- its terminal part is intimately related to the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Accessory thyroid arteriesarise from tracheal and esophageal arteriesThyroidea ima artery (or the lowest thyroid artery)found in only about 3% of individualsarises from the brachicephalic trunk or directly from the arch of aorta.During thyroidectomy the superior thyroid artery is ligated near to gland (to save the external laryngeal nerve); and the inferior or thyroid artery is ligated away from the gland (to save the recurrent laryngeal nerve)Questions on venous drainage of thyroid glandThe thyroid gland is drained by the following veinsSuperior thyroid vein.Drains in the internal jugular vein orthe common facial veinMiddle thyroid veinAlso drains in the internal jugular veinInferior thyroid veinDrains into the left brachiocephalic veinA fourth thyroid vein (of Kocher), may emerge between middle and inferior veins and drains into the internal jugular vein | Surgery | Surgical Approaches to the Thyroid | Recurrent laryngeal nerve is in close association with:
A. Superior thyroid artery
B. Inferior thyroid artery
C. Middle thyroid vein
D. Superior thyroid vein
| Inferior thyroid artery |
638da813-7930-423d-8edf-5d99478f4aff | External otitis or swimmer's ear is an inflammation of the outer ear and the ear canal. In the virulent form of the disease-malignant external otitis, which occurs in people with diabetes, damage to the cranial nerves and bone may occur. External otitis is caused by either bacterial or fungal pathogens. Bacterial pathogens include Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, and Enterococcus faecalis. Fungal pathogens include Candida albicans and Aspergillus spp. The majority of bacterial external otitis is caused by P. aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa produces pyocyanin, which is a blue pigment that catalyzes the production of superoxide and hydrogen peroxide. Pyocyanin also stimulates the release of IL-8 (CXCL8 in humans). P. aeruginosa also produces exotoxin A, which ADP-ribosylates EF-2 in the eukaryotic cell leading to the cessation of protein synthesis and cell death. Neither pyocyanin nor exotoxin A is produced by the other pathogens listed (S. aureus, S. epidermidis, E. faecalis, and C. albicans). | Microbiology | Bacteria | A 70-year-old man with a history of diabetes presents with severe pain in his right ear. The patient was diagnosed with external otitis. Further tests suggested that the patient suffered bone and nerve damage. Clinical laboratory analysis showed that the isolated microorganism produced a distinct blue pigment as well as an ADP-ribosylation toxin. What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Enterococcus faecalis
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
6cec4865-7fe6-4aea-97e5-45be384e41d0 | - propaganda is one in which knowledge is instilled in the minds of people. - prevents or discourage thinking by ready made slogans. - knowledge is spoon fed and passively received. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:859 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | Propaganda is defined as -
A. Forcing of knowledge into mind
B. Active aquiring of knowledge
C. Requiring knowledge after thinking
D. Training people to use judgement before thinking
| Forcing of knowledge into mind |
6feeda40-db11-4dbc-8b23-5ee83daf72e0 | Secretomotor fibres for lacrimal gland arise from the facial nerve at geniculate ganglion, travel in greater petrosal nerve and join the sphenopalatine ganglion as vidian nerve. After relay in the ganglion, they are distributed to lacrimal gland. | ENT | Nose and PNS | Which of the following ganglion is associated with lacrimation?
A. Otic
B. Ciliary
C. Sphenopalatine
D. Gasserian
| Sphenopalatine |
34bbd81c-429e-4cef-a144-d98190bc587b | Soft tissues of the joint (articular disk) can be imagined with MRI or Arthrography. MRI produces superb images of the soft tissues in internal derangement of the disk. Arthrography is invasive and has the risk of infection and allergic reaction due to the contrast agent. | Radiology | null | Best way to evaluate discrepancy in articular disc of TMJ is:
A. Transpharyngeal projection
B. MRI
C. Arthrography
D. Arthroplasty
| MRI |
529f2819-f6a0-45f7-abf2-309a19a8f9ed | <p> Newer vaccines for influenza are Split virus vaccine Neuraminidase specific vaccine Recombinant vaccine. Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:155. <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Newer Influenza vaccine-
A. Split - virus vaccine
B. Conjugate vaccine
C. Live attennuated vaccine
D. Killed vaccine
| Split - virus vaccine |
256afddf-a243-4722-8b17-5674a19be31a | Ans. is 'b'. Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine * Under the recent 'National anti-Malaria Programme.' the drug policy for malaria treatment is as follows-Any fever in endemic areas during transmission season without any other obvious cause may be considered as malaria and investigated/treated accordingly.Drug resistance foci are prevalent in the country but chloroquine is still the safe, effective and cheap antimalarial drug and is simple to be administered.The best approach in malaria treatment is diagnosis and treatment on the same day.b(Plasmodium falciparum predominant and drug resistance areas)Presumptive treatment of all suspected/clinical malaria cases :Day 1 Tab. Chloroquine - 10 mg/kg body weight (600 mg adult dose)+Tab. Primaquine - 0.75 mg/kg body weight (45 mg adult dose)Day 2 Tab. Chloroquine - 10 mg/kg body weight (600 mg adult dose)Day 3 Tab. Chloroquine - 5 mg/kg body weight (300 mg adult dose)Radical treatment after microscopic confirmation of species :P vivax - Tab. Primaquine 0.25 mg/kg body wt. (15 mg adult does) daily for 5 days.P. falciparum - No further treatment required.In chloroquine resistant p. falciparum cases/areaSingle dose of 25 mg / kg bw tab. Sulfalene / Sulfadoxine and 1.25 gg/ kg body wt. Pyrimethamine combination (3 tabs, adult does) thereafter tab. Primaquine 0.75 mg/kg body wt. These drugs should be given cautiously and not on the same day as both are known to precipitate haemolytic crisis in sensitive cases with G6PD deficiency.In low risk areasPresumptive treatmentDay 1 - Tab. Chloroquine 10mg / kg body weight (600 mg adult does)Radical Treatment after confirmation of speciesP. Vivax - Tab. Chloroquine 10 mg/ kg body wt. single dose and tab. Primaquine 0.25 mg/kg body wt. daily for 5 days.R falciparum - Tab. Chloroquine 10 mg/ kg body wt. plus tab. Primaquine 0.75 mg / kg body wt. single dose.Severe and Complicated malaria - cases are to be hospitalized for treatment.Choice of antimalarial is quinine injection preferably, 10 mg/ kg body wt. I/V drip in5% dextrose saline to be run over 4 hours, 8 hourly. Switch over to oral dose as early as possible and total duration of treatment should be 7 days including both parenteral and oral doses.Injectable form of Artemisinin derivative may be used for severe and complicated malaria only. The recommended injectable dosages are as follows :Artemisinin - 10mg./kg body wt. once a day for 5 days with a double divided does on first day.Artesunate - 1 mg/kg body wt. IM or IV two doses at an internal of 4-6 hours on the first day followed by once a day for 5 daysArtemether - 1.6 mg/kg body wt. IM, two doses at an interval of 4-6 hours on the first day followed by once daily for 5 days.Artether - 150 mg daily IM for 3 days for adults onlyTab. Mefloquine is to be used only in Pf. cases having proven resistance to chloroquine.Primaquine is not to be given to pregnant women*, infants* and glucose 6 phosphatase deficient persons*. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | Treatment of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria is :
A. Mefloquine
B. Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine
C. Primaquine + Chloroquine
D. Chloroquine + Pyrimethamine
| Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine |
a77a0f56-af91-43d1-9722-c176738153f9 | Zolpidem, zaleplon and zopiclone are agonists at BZD receptors.
These are hypnotic drugs that lack muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant actions.
These have negligible effect on REM sleep and do not affect sleep architecture. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following hypnotic drugs facilitates the inhibitory actions of GABA but lacks anticonvulsant or muscle relaxing properties and has minimal effect on sleep architecture
A. Buspirone
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Zaleplon
| Zaleplon |
9c564b05-c791-4a2a-b607-28d70fa4e146 | * Therapeutic drug monitoring is adjustment of dose of the drug according to its plasma concentration. It is required for A Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin) Drug Digitalis Possessing Phenytoin (anti-epileptics) Low Lithium Therapeutic Tricyclic antidepressants Index Immunomodulators (e.g. cyclosporine) | Pharmacology | Pharmacodynamics | Which of the following drugs require therapeutic drug monitoring?
A. Metformin
B. Propranolol
C. Warfarin
D. Phenytoin
| Phenytoin |
360af71e-fd3a-448e-b730-5de14c2292f9 | Major Functions of ImmunoglobulinsImmunoglobulinMajor FunctionsIgGMain antibody in the secondary response. Opsonizes bacteria, making them easier to phagocytose. Fixes complement, whichenhances bacterial killing. Neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses. Crosses the placenta.IgASecretory IgA prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes. Does not fix complement.IgMProduced in the primary response to an antigen. Fixes complement. Does not cross the placenta. Antigen receptor on the surfaceof B cells.IgDFound on the surfaces of B cells where it acts as a receptor for antigenIgEMediates immediate hypersensitivity by causing the release of mediators from mast cells and basophils upon exposure to antigen(allergen). Defends against worm infections by causing the release of enzymes from eosinophils. Does not fix complement. Mainhost defense against helminthic infections.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; Chapter 52; Plasma Proteins & Immunoglobulins; Table: 52-9 | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | Which of the following Immunoglobulin acts as a receptor for antigens
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
| IgD |
2daaa20b-6965-4fd2-adb3-121155ad7f76 | Nerve supply of hip joint
- Femoral nerve- by nerve to rectus femoris
- Obturator nerve- by anterior division
- Nerve to quadratus femoris
- Superior gluteal nerve | Anatomy | null | By which nerve is the hip joint supplied ?
A. Deep peroneal
B. Femoral
C. Sciatic
D. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
| Femoral |
85f61add-d2c1-4ea1-9787-e880cb058ff3 | (Occurs in 3-4 months after absorption): Ref: 682-R (438- Basic pathology 8th)Vitamin B12 deficiency* Macrocytic megalablastic anaemia is the cardinal features* Usually pernicious (Addisonian) anaemiaDiagnostic features include:1. A moderate to severe megaloblastic anaemia2. Leukopenia with hypersegmented granulocytes3. Mild to moderate thrombocytopenia4. Mild jaundice due to ineffective erythropoisis and peripheral hemolysis of red cells5. Neurologic changes related to involvement of the posterolateral spinal tracts6. Achlorhydria even after histamine stimulation7. Inability to absorb an oral dose of cobalamin (assessed by urinary excretion of radio labeled cyanocobalamin given orally, called the shilling test)8. Low serum levels of vitamin Bj2 (less than 100 pg/ml)9. Elevated levels of homocysteine and methylmalonic acid in the serum (This is more sensitive than serum levels of vitamin B!2)10. A striking reticulocytic response and improvements in hematocrit levels beginning about 5 days after IV administration of vitamin B12. Serum antibodies to intrinsic factor are highly specific for pernicious anemia. Their presence attests to the cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, rather than the presence or absence of cobalamine deficiency.Polvcvthaemia - Vitamin B12 levels are strikingly elevated because of increased levels of transcobalamin III (501- CMDT-06)* Deficiency of vitamin B12 takes at least 2 years to develop when the body stores are totally depleted. (380-HM) | Pathology | Blood | Maturation failure in poor absorption of the vitamin B12 causes:
A. Microcytic hypochromic
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Occurs in 3-4 months after the absorption
D. Causes polycythaemia
| Occurs in 3-4 months after the absorption |
d2b33719-b16b-4e2b-8311-19e2a680db7a | (Ref: Katzung, 10th ed. Ch 7)* Rivastigmine is a parasympathomimetic drug used for the treatment of mild to moderate dementia of the Alzheimer's type and dementia due to Parkinson's disease* DOC for Alzheimer's disorder-Donepezil* DOC for OCD: Fluoxetine* DOC for parkinsonism: Levodpa + Carbidopa* DOC for drug induced parkinsonism: Benzhexol (centrally acting anticholinergic) | Pharmacology | C.N.S | Rivastigmine is given in:
A. Depression
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. Schizophrenia
D. OCD
| Alzheimer's disease |
2c3174e4-043e-476e-9ca8-17aab104377c | Ans. (d) UltrasoundRef: SRB Manual of Surgery 4th ed. 1877* Ultrasound abdomen is the investigation of choice for diagnosing hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.* It is reliable, highly sensitive, highly specific, and easily performed.* The mandatory measurements include pyloric muscle thickness and pyloric channel length.* Muscle wall thickness 3 mm or greater and pyloric channel length 14 mm or greater are considered abnormal in infants younger than 30 days. | Radiology | Abdominal Radiography | IOC for neonatal hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
A. X Ray
B. CT scan
C. MRI
D. Ultrasound
| Ultrasound |
fb7347a0-1f01-462e-965d-5d8cb34eafed | HSP a small vessel vasculitis is commonly seen in young males characterized by palpable purpura of dependent areas. It is associated with ahritis, gut vasculitis and glomerulonephritis. Page 309. Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology | Dental | Autoimmune skin disorders | A 42 yearold female has palpable purpura with rash over buttocks, pain in abdomen, and ahropathy diagnosis is -
A. Sweet syndrome
B. HSP
C. Purpura fulminans
D. Meningococcernia
| HSP |
5f6d00eb-9dd7-497e-b5f5-5cc596c4ddd2 | NEUROGENIC SHOCK -,* Interruption of sympathetic vasomotor input after a high cervical spinal cord injury, *inadveent cephalad migration of spinal anesthesia, or * devastating head injury may result in neurogenic shock. In addition to aeriolar dilation, venodilation causes pooling in the venous system, which DECREASES VENOUS RETURN AND CARDIAC OUTPUT.. The extremities are often warm, in contrast to the usual sympathetic vasoconstriction-induced coolness in hypovolemic or cardiogenic shock. Treatment involves a simultaneous approach to the relative hypovolemia and to the loss of vasomotor tone. Excessive volumes of fluid may be required to restore normal hemodynamics if given alone. Once hemorrhage has been ruled out, norepinephrine or a pure a-adrenergic agent (phenylephrine) may be necessary to AUGMENT VASCULAR RESISTANCE. and maintain an adequate mean aerial pressure. ref:harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 2639 | Medicine | C.V.S | Features of neurogenic shock are -
A. | Peripheral resistance | cardiac output
B. |Venous return | cardiac output
C. |Peripheral resistence | cardiac output
D. Venoconstriction | cardiac output
| |Peripheral resistence | cardiac output |
e0f43655-df98-48c9-81fa-9dd54f6190a3 | Precipitation is a method for detecting an antigen-antibody reaction. When antigen and antibody combine in the proper propoions, a visible precipitate is formed. Optimum antigen-antibody ratios can be produced by allowing one to diffuse into the other, most commonly through an agar matrix (immunodiffusion). Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE) is a type of precipitation reaction where immunodiffusion carried out in an electrophoretic field. Both the speed and the sensitivity of immunodiffusion are improved by CIE. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 4. Principles of Laboratory Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is an example of precipitation reaction?
A. Widal Test
B. Coomb's Test
C. Counter Current immunoelectrophoresis
D. Weil-Felix Test
| Counter Current immunoelectrophoresis |
6977737d-8eee-4d0e-ba77-195875ab70ef | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Uretero pelvic junction stenosis o UPJ stenosis is most common abnormality in childhood and is more frequent in male children, characterised by narrowing usually on left side.o Overall, position & shape of kidney being most common one.o Horse shoe kidney is the most common and most frequently found renal abnormality among men. | Pediatrics | Nephropathy | Most common anomaly of upper urogenital tract is -
A. Uretero pelvic junction stenosis
B. Ectopic uretheral opening
C. Ureterocele
D. Ectopic ureter
| Uretero pelvic junction stenosis |
55a91596-924c-4110-8598-3df55624a477 | Ans. D: Prominent optic disc margin Signs of papilledema: Early and mild Papilledema - Subtle gray peripapillary halo - Normal radial optic nerve head disrupted and nerve fibers accentuated by grayish opacity - Concentric folds of the retinochoroid Moderate Papilledema - Borders of optic disc become obscure - Disc margins are progressively elevated - Nerve head diameter increases - Major blood vessels leaving the disc are obscured Severe Papilledema - Optic Nerve head protrudes - Peripapillary halo demarcated Optic cup is obliterated Associated findings Loss of spontaneous retinal vein pulsations - Pulsations disappear at CSF Pressure > 250 mm water, Many normal patients lack venous pulsations (Unreliable sign) - Hyperemia - Retinal vessel touosity - Retinal hemorrhages - Retinal exudates - The radiating, oedematous folds around the macula take on the appearance of a macular star, usually incomplete and fan-shaped on the side towards the disc, while pluffy patches (cotton wool spots due to Nerve fiber infarctions) appear scattered throughout the posterior half of the fundus. - Optic Nerve pallor Papilledema shows a distended Optic Nerve sheath. | Ophthalmology | null | Which of the following is not seen in papilledema: March 2009
A. Marked venous engorgement
B. Elevation of optic disc
C. Cotton wool spots
D. Prominent optic disc margins
| Prominent optic disc margins |
11e83a84-7980-409e-9b8a-fbe807af35c8 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Jeryl lynn VaccineStrainso RubellaRA27/3o MeaslesEdomonston Zagreb strain (most common) Schwarts strain Mortaten straino MumpsJeryll Lynn straino Chicken poxOKA strainoBCGDanish 1331o JENakavam strain (MC), Beizing P3 strain, SA 14-14-2o Yellow fever17 Do MalariaSPf.66,Pf25o HIVmvA (modified vaccinia ankara) rAAV (recombinant adeno associated viral) AIDSVAX Subunit vaccine strain | Social & Preventive Medicine | Principles of Immunization and Vaccination | Name of mumps vaccine is -
A. Jeryl Lynn
B. Edmonshon zagreb
C. Schw'atz
D. Moraten
| Jeryl Lynn |
173e9c95-3647-4436-9f2d-ff7bdbe64bd6 | Conversion of succinyl CoA to succinate is an example of substrate level phosphorylation in which a high energy phosphate is generated from the energy trapped in the thioester bond of succinyl CoA. Enzyme succinic thiokinase catalyses this step. In this reaction a molecule of GDP is phosphorylated into GTP and succinate is formed. GTP so formed is conveed into ATP by reacting with an ADP molecule. Ref: Lippincott's Biochemistry, 2nd Edition, Page 109; Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 75-77, 194, 204 | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following biochemical reaction is associated with substrate level phosphorylation?
A. Fumarate to malate
B. Succinate to fumarate
C. Succinyl CoA to Succinate
D. Acetoacetate to a-ketoglutarate
| Succinyl CoA to Succinate |
e0c41b18-03a7-46fc-903f-fd3996dc247a | <p> Hemoptysis Sputum examination under TB programme is done when patient presents with -cough more than 2 weeks. -fever with an evening rise. -hemoptysis. -unexplained weight loss. -reduced appetite. Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,21st edition,page no:392, 22nd edition,page no:396. <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | The sputum examination under DTP is done when the patient present with -
A. Cough of 1-2 weeks duration
B. Persistent cough of 1-2 weeks duration
C. Hemoptysis
D. Chest pain
| Hemoptysis |
1fad4ee6-7929-41f5-9b11-c136bcd25a6a | Anterior inferior cerebellar aery is a branch of Basilar aery | Anatomy | All India exam | Largest branch of veebral aery is
A. Anterior spinal
B. Posterior spinal
C. Anterior inferior cerebellar
D. Posterior inferior cerebellar
| Posterior inferior cerebellar |
a3dae7e5-8e85-4f5d-a4eb-42183b44ef59 | Beta-Carotene (provitamin A):
This is found in plant foods. lt is cleaved in the intestine to produce two moles of retinal.
ln humans, this conversion is inefficient, hence beta-carotene possesses about one-sixth vitamin A activity compared to that of retinol.
Reference: Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-119 | Biochemistry | null | The Vitamin A activity of beta-carotene compared to that of retinol is?
A. 2-Jan
B. 4-Jan
C. 6-Jan
D. 8-Jan
| 6-Jan |
843ec470-bf55-43cb-a0f3-ffc1cb36a7a4 | The hallmarks of toxic megacolon (toxic colitis), a potentially lethal condition, are nonobstructive colonic dilatation larger than 6cm and signs of systemic toxicity. The impoant etiologies of toxic megacolon include the following inflammatory causes: Ulcerative colitis Crohn colitis Pseudomembranous colitis The complication of toxic megacolon is perforation, even in the absence of colonic dilatation. | Surgery | null | Which of the following can cause toxic megacolon in 36 year old lady?
A. Amoebic colitis
B. IBS
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Viral diarrhea
| Ulcerative colitis |
4a18c6c4-b130-4c86-a39e-084215939d57 | ANSWER: (C) 20 %REF: Bailey and love 25th ed page 779See details of thyroid nodules in Surgery June 2011About 80% of discrete swellings are cold. The risk of malignancy is higher in "cold" lesions (20%) compared to "hot" or "warm" lesions (<5%). | Surgery | Evaluation of a Thyroid Nodule | Percentage of cold nodules that becomes malignant are?
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 40%
| 20% |
dd3fa834-1605-4610-9287-fe4ac868594c | Ans. C. IndacaterolRef: Katzung's Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 13th/ed, p340ExplanationAns. c. Indacaterol Ref: Katzung's Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 13th/ed, p340Explanationb agonistFeatures* Albuterol (salbutamol)* Terbutaline* Metaproterenol* Pirbuterol* Metered-dose inhalers* Bronchodilation is maximal within 15-30 minutes and persists for 3-4 hours.Frequent administrations required based on clinical status.* Can be given by nebulizer if using metered dose is not possible.* Albuterol and terbutaline are also available in tablet form (2 to 3 times daily) (option d), no added advantage therefore prescribed rarely. * Only terbutaline is available for subcutaneous injection; useful in severe asthma requiring emergency treatment when aerosolized therapy is not available or has been ineffective; CAUTION: Due to its longer duration of action cumulative effects may be seen after repeated injections.Bambuterol* It is prodrug of terbutaline.* Slowly hydorlyzed by pseudocholinesterase to release the active drug over a period of 24 hours.* Available in tablet form and given once daily.Long acting: Salme-Terol* Formoterol* Arformoterol* Carmoterol* Salmeterol a partial agonist and formoterol a full agonist.* Duration of action: 12 hours or more; used 2 times daily (options a,b,e).* In asthma should not be used as monotherapy; interact with inhaled corticosteroids to improve asthma control.Indacaterol* Ultra long acting p2 agonist; used once daily (Answer)* Approved for once daily long-term treatment of COPD and not for asthma and not for acute exacerbations of COPD. | Pharmacology | Asthma | Long acting beta agonist used once a day:
A. Salmeterol
B. Formoterol
C. Indacaterol
D. Terbutaline
| Indacaterol |
c1649806-fcfe-4eb8-b3f4-55482141fcdf | Angiogenesis is the mechanism of formation of new blood vessels. It is very critical in establishing the metastasis at the new area. Basic Pathology, Robbins. Page no.: 194 | Pathology | General pathology | Essential for tumor metastasis is-
A. Angiogenesis
B. Tumorogenesis
C. Apoptosis
D. Inhibition of Tyrosine kinase activity
| Angiogenesis |
68ffc131-c9b4-4bf2-93a7-5f3eb14f9ec6 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., It chelates with metal ions of the enzyme o EDTA is a chelating agent and it has already been explained that chelating agent has legands (reactive groups) for metal binding. o These ligands of chelating agent bind to metal ions and cause chelation. o EDTA binds to zinc ion of carbonic anhydrase and this results in formation of ternary complex involving the enzyme, chelating agent and metal ions. The formation of ternary complex results in inactivation of enzyme. | Pharmacology | null | Large dose of EDTA are used in carbonic anhydrase enzyme inactivation. The mechanism by which EDTA act is -
A. It chelates with the metal ions of the enzyme
B. It combines with the substrate and reacts with the enzyme
C. Combines with the substrate and doesn't react with the enzyme
D. Enzyme-EDTA complex can not be attached to substrate
| It chelates with the metal ions of the enzyme |
fe0a81e2-0291-4993-8ee7-1573bb3298cf | Bile acid binding resins like cholestyramine causes increase in triglycerides and are thus contraindicated in patients with hyperiglyceridemia due to risk of development of pancreatitis. Statins - decrease LDL and increase HDL Niacin - decrease LDL and triglyceride, maximum increase in HDL Fibrates - decrease triglyceride, decrease LDL. | Pharmacology | Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia | Drug contraindicated in hyperiglyceridemia
A. Fibrates
B. Simvastatin
C. Niacin
D. Cholestyramine
| Cholestyramine |
90d63165-ee18-4018-bd10-607595e2ab21 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Buffered glycorol salineOrganismTransport mediaStreptococcus pyogenesPike's mediumNeisseriaStuart's medium, Amies mediumFor stool specimenBuffered glycerol saline, Carly-Blair, Stuart mediumSalmonella, ShigellaSach's buffered glycerol salineV choleraeVR medium, Cary-Blair medium, Autoclaved sea waterBordetellaModified Stuart's, Mischulow's charcol agar | Microbiology | Enterobecteriaceae | Culture media for transport of stools in suspected case of shigellosis -
A. Deoxycholate medium
B. Blood agar
C. Nutrient broth
D. Buffered glycerol saline
| Buffered glycerol saline |
17b2a788-0342-4b41-b506-ae1957474ad2 | Cavernous hemangioma Cavernous hemangioma is the most common benign, intraconal tumor in adults. Hemangiopericytoma is also retro bulbar intraconal lesion. found in adults but is a rare tumor. Moreover owing to its tendency to invade the adjacent tissues, its margins are less distinct than cavernous hemangioma. Rest 2 options i.e. Dermoid and Capillary hemangiomas are primarily extraconal lesions. Cavernous hemangioma Cavernous hemangioma is the most common orbital vascular tumor in adults. Patients are typically middle aged (2nd to 4th decade) Present with slowly progressive painless proptosis Mostly its intraconal (>80%) but may also be extraconal. Cavernous hetnangiomas possess a distinct fibrous pseudo capsule and therefore on CT and MR appear well defined masses. Cavernous hemangioma is easily resectable as it is: - well encapsulated - does not have a prominent aerial supply (in contrast to capillary hemangioma) Capillary hemangioma Capillary hemangiomas occur primarily in infants. The tumor often increases in size for 6 to 10 months and then gradually involutes. Mostly extraconal, commonly occur in superior nasal quadrant. Capillary hemangiomas in and around the orbit may have an aerial supply from either the external carotid or internal carotid aeries. These tumors are capable of profuse bleeding. On CT and MR these lesions appear fairly well marginated to poorly marginated. Hemangiopericytomas Hemangiopericytomas are rare, slow growing vascular neoplasms that arise from the pericytes of Zimmermann, which normally envelop capillaries. About 50% cases are malignant. On CT and MR the orbital hemangiopericytoma, in contrast to cavernous hemangioma, appear less distint owing to its tendency to invade the surrounding tissues. Angiography may differentiate the tumors from cavernous hemangioma, meningioma, and schwannoma. - Hemangiopericytomas usually have an early florid blush - Cavernous hemangiomas show late minor pooling of contrast, or often appear as avascular masses - Meningiomas may show multiple tumor vessels and a late blush - Schwannomas may show no tumor blush. Dermoid Dermoid and epidermoids are the most frequent development cysts of the orbit. They result from the inclusion of ectodermal elements during closure of the neural tube. The dermoid contains one or more dermal adnexal structures such as sebaceous glands and hair folliclels. Dermoids are extraconal lesions. mostly located at the superior temporal quadrant of the orbit. On CT or MR demonstration offat within the lesion is almost diagnostic of dermoid. | Ophthalmology | null | An orbital tumor has the following characteristics: Retrobulbar location within the muscle cone, well defined capsule, presents with slowly progressive proptosis, easily resectable, occurs most commonly in the 2" to 4th decade. The diagnosis is:
A. Hemangiopericytoma
B. Dermoid
C. Capillary hemangioma
D. Cavernous hemangioma
| Cavernous hemangioma |
01b8f62c-b829-4619-8bca-15f8c32936df | Cilia can transport radiolabeled particles an average of 6mm/min, with a range of 1-20mm/min. Thus this transport can clear inhaled particles from nasal cavity in 10-20 min. | Surgery | null | Cillia can transport radiolabelled particle in antrum with:
A. 1-20dm/min
B. 20-30mm/sec
C. 1-20mm/ min.
D. 20-30mm/min
| 1-20mm/ min. |
49bd2bf5-0c06-4867-b960-eac795885840 | Ans. (b) NCCTRef Appendix-81 for "Traumatic intracranial hemotomas | Radiology | Brain Imaging: Anatomy, Trauma, and Tumors | Investigation of choice for subdural hemorrhage is?
A. Angiography
B. NCCT
C. CECT
D. MRI
| NCCT |
5e859f3d-34ba-4bef-aee9-f1f6e4916c08 | The larval stage is present in the animals including man,giving rise to hydatid cyst.Sheep ,pigs,cattle ,horse ,goat and man may act as intermediate host. Hydatid cyst involve liver , lung,brain,hea,kidney,spleen,bone,musclesetc. Liver is the commonest site and right lobe is frequently involved.The disease remains symptomless for many years.Chronic abdominal discomfo may be present in case of liver cyst.Cyst in the lungs are asympotomatic but may cause cough , breathlessness or chest pain (refer pgno:107 baveja 3 rd edition,panikers textbook of Medical parasitology 8th edition page 131) | Microbiology | parasitology | Hydatid disease of liver is caused by -
A. Strongyloides
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Taenia solium
D. Trichinella spiralis
| Echinococcus granulosus |
44efcde8-dadc-4ad5-9072-142f27d84768 | This patient developed enteritis-associated arthritis affecting the lumbar and sacroiliac joints several weeks after Shigella dysentery. He subsequently developed conjunctivitis and, most likely, uveitis. This symptom complex is a classic representation of a cluster of related disorders called seronegative spondyloarthropathies. This cluster includes ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and enteropathic arthritis (as in this case). A common feature is a very strong association with the HLA-B27 genotype. Despite some similarities with rheumatoid arthritis, these patients invariably have a negative test result for rheumatoid factor. Urethritis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis can trigger reactive arthritis, another form of seronegative spondyloarthropathy. Such infection precedes the onset of arthritis, however. There is no relationship between infection with Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease, and reactive arthritis in individuals testing positive for HLA-B27. Similarly, Epstein-Barr virus infection is not a trigger for these disorders. | Pathology | Osteology | A 30-year-old man has had cramping abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea for the past 4 days. On physical examination, there is diffuse tenderness on palpation of the abdomen. Bowel sounds are present. There are no masses and no organomegaly. A stool culture is positive for Shigella flexneri. The episode resolves spontaneously within 1 week after onset. Six weeks later, he has increasingly severe lower back pain. Physical examination now shows stiffness of the lumbar spine and tenderness of the sacroiliac joints. He is treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents. Two months later, the back pain recurs, and he complains of redness of the right eye and blurred vision. Serologic testing for which of the following is most likely to be positive in this patient?
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. HLA-B27
| HLA-B27 |
5d9c1eff-11e3-4085-a87d-ff4cb6fd3c76 | Immunoglobulin (Ig),is a large, Y-shaped protein produced mainly by plasma cells that is used by the immune systema Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:94 | Microbiology | Immunology | Immunoglobulins are produced by -
A. Macrophages
B. B-cells
C. T-cells
D. NK-cells
| B-cells |
44414268-895e-45c1-8ac2-d042a296ba11 | Ans: (a) Increased nuchal translucencyRef: Current Progress in Obstetrics and Gynecology, John Stud, Volume Page 17Ultrasound markers of fetal aneuploidy:Nuchal translucency is the single most powerful tool. More than 3 mm needs evaluationAbsence of nasal boneAbsence or reversal of flow in the ductus venosus on DopplerTricuspid regurgitationIncrease in frontomaxillary angle more than 85 deg | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Physiology & Histology | Single most important feature to diagnose fetal aneuploidy:
A. Increased nuchal translucency
B. Absent nasal bone
C. Cystic hygroma
D. Abnormal ductus venosus flow
| Increased nuchal translucency |
911974d3-9ff4-4b66-a4df-39f59bd8c7dc | Subligamental cordectomy is classified as Type II Excision of vocal cord after splitting the larynx (cordectomy laryngofissure) Ref: PL Dhingra; Textbook of EAR, NOSE and THROAT; edition 6; page no 310 | ENT | Larynx | According to European laryngeal Society, Subligamental cordectomy is classified as
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
| Type II |
0746a56e-758f-4953-9b11-e620a1b44e31 | Ans. Not conceiving after 1 year of unprotected intercourse | Forensic Medicine | null | Infeility can be defined as: UP 11; KCET 13
A. Not conceiving after 3 years of marriage
B. Not conceiving after 2 years of unprotected intercourse
C. Not conceiving after 1 year of unprotected intercourse
D. Not conceiving after 1 year of marriage
| Not conceiving after 1 year of unprotected intercourse |
e928c226-c5f8-4814-9e12-2c967322d0b5 | A i.e. 21- hydroxylase deficiencyClassic 21 - hydroxylase deficiency is most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in new born (virilization) and primary amenorrheaQ. i.e. Pseudohermaphroditism of female childPrimary amenorrhea with VirilizationQ in females is in:- 21 - hydroxylase deficiency- 11 - Hydroxylase deficiencyTypesMain function ofenzymeMineralococoid(M)Glucocoicoid(G)AndrogenFeatures21- OH-deficiencyGlucocoicoid &Mineralocoicoidproduction U"l'* HypotensionQ(salt losing virilization)* VirilizationQ in females* Precocious pubey in femalesQ.11 hydroxylase-deficiencyGlucocoicoidproductionT.1.1,T* HypeensionQ* VirilizationQ in females* Precocious pubey in femalesQ.17- hydroxylasedeficiencyGlucocoicoid &Androgen production'1'.1,14* Male hermaphroditeQ* Primary atnenorrhea infemalesQ.* HypeensionQ3 - p-hydroxylasedeficiencyMineralcoicoid &glucocoicoidproduction..1,.1,T* Male hermaphrodite. | Physiology | null | The commonest cause of primary amenorrhea with ambiguous genitalia in a female with 46XX chromosome :
A. 21 hydroxylase def.
B. 17 hydroxylase def.
C. 11 hydroxylase def.
D. Desmolase hydrolase def
| 21 hydroxylase def. |
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