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267e7535-dabf-4ff2-9ebf-04da0201aedf | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 22 This syndrome encompasses a spectrum of disorders that result from a small deletion of band q 11.2 on long arm of chromosome 22. Clinical features are considered to represent two different disorders :-1) Di George syndromeThese patients have thymic hypoplasia with resultant T-cell immunodeficiency.Other features include parathyroid hypoplasia (causing hypocalcemia), cardiac malformations & facial anomalies.TBX-1 gene (a T-box transcription factor) is most closely associated with this syndrome.The target of TBX-1 include PAX 9, a gene that controls the development of the palate, parathyroid and thymus.2) Veto cardio facial sndromeThis syndrome is characterized by facial dysmorphism (prominant nose, retrognathia), cleft palate, cardiovascular anomalies, and learning disabilities. | Pathology | null | Defective chromosome associated with De-George syndrome is -
A. 7
B. 15
C. 17
D. 22
| 22 |
fcde14ea-557e-4cb0-b76b-612c6bd8a847 | "central dot" sign: enhancing dots within the dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, representing poal radicles (seen in CT). | Surgery | G.I.T | Central dot sign is seen in
A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
B. Liver Hamaoma
C. Caroli's disease
D. Polycystic liver disease
| Caroli's disease |
0ed1c33b-10bc-4d5a-860d-b6dfdca6f68f | After selection village health guide undergoes a sho training in primary health care.The training is arranged in nearby health center,subcenter or any other suitable place for the duration of 200 hours ,spread over a period of 3 months.During training period they receive a stipend of Rs 200 per month (refer pgno:902 park 23rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health care of community & international health | The period of training for a village health guide is -
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
| 3 months |
bb4074ae-1c8d-4a32-b221-873eaba4900b | above clinical features point towards Vit B12 deficiency due to Pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia -Type II Hypersensitivityin which ABs are formedagainst intrinsic factorthus inhibits the binding of IF+B12. Intrinsic factor deficiency-Malabsorption of vitamin B12 - Megaloblastic anemia /Pernicious anemia | Physiology | NEET Jan 2020 | A 50 year old man presents with paresthesia. Hb = 6.8 gms/dl. Peripheral smear shows macrocytes and neutrophis with hypersegmented nuclei. Endoscopy reveals atroghic gastritis. Which of the following deficiency is more likely?
A. Fotate deficiency
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Riboliavan deficiency
D. Fotate deficiency
| Vitamin B12 deficiency |
dca93437-dd28-4ec2-9299-4b9810a8a3fd | In second trimester the pregnant women feels much better ,the nausea vomiting and bladder frequency is almost gone She slowly stas feeling growing uterus per abdomen Of interest and excitement to her is the very first perception of foetal movement called quickening felt at around 18 weeks in a primigravida and 16 -18 wks in a multigravida (refer pgno:90 Sheila 2 nd edition) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | An expectant mother feels quickening at :
A. 12-14 weeks
B. 16-20 weeks
C. 26 weeks
D. 24-28 weeks
| 16-20 weeks |
60a3c729-6898-4d1f-a086-dcf6a998bc38 | At the point at which systolic pressure in the aery just exceeds the cuff pressure, a spu of blood passes through with each heabeat and, synchronously with each beat, a tapping sound is heard below the cuff.Ref: Ganong&;s Review of Medical Physiology 25th Edition. Page: 577 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | The blood pressure measured by a sphygmomanometer
A. Is lower than the intraaerial pressure
B. Is higher than the intraaerial pressure
C. Is same as the intraaerial pressure
D. Is the same with different cuff sizes
| Is higher than the intraaerial pressure |
77ec9a20-6182-4caf-9b12-a79941858aca | Obesity by definition is an increase in the amount of adipose tissue mass or fat mass. Adipose tissue is relatively ine from a metabolic rate. Basal metabolic rate depends on the amount of metabolically active tissue or the lean body mass. An obese individual has higher propoion of fat relative to lean body mass than a non- obese individual with the same weight, and hence a lower basal metabolic rate. Ref: Understanding Nutrition By Ellie Whitney, Eleanor Noss Whitney, Sharon Rady Rolfes, Page 246; Biochemistry By Debajyoti Das, Page 570. | Physiology | null | A decrease in basal metabolic rate (BMR) is seen in which of the conditions?
A. Obesity
B. Hypehyroidism
C. Feeding
D. Exercise
| Obesity |
86371fc4-0956-4adc-a97c-234f1495b167 | Ans. d. Urrets Zavalia syndrome A fixed dilated pupil following penetrating keratoplasty is a well recognized if rare postoperative complication. The mydriasis following penetrating keratoplasty was first described by Castroviejo but it was Urrets-Zavalia who first published his observations on a series of six cases and suggested an association of fixed dilated pupil, iris atrophy. and secondary glaucoma. The pupil can become abnormally dilated following penetrating keratoplasty for keratoconus, paicularly if dilating drops are used. In addition to the pupil and iris abnormalities, Urrets-Zavalia also described other features__ iris ectropion, pigment dispersion, anterior subcapsular cataract and posterior synechiae. Urrets Zavalia Syndrome Urrets Zavalia Syndrome is characterized by triad of: Secondary glaucoma + Iris atrophy + Fixed dilated pupil') Urrets-Zavalia syndrome (UZS) consists of a fixed dilated pupil associated with iris atrophy. It is a poorly understood complication following penetrating keratoplasty for keratoconus. Posner Shlossman syndrome It is also called as glaucomatocyclitic crisis. Episodic unilateral mild anterior uveitis, photophobia, reduced vision and colored rings around lights (from secondary corneal edema Benedict's Syndrome If red nucleus is involved, tremors and jerky movements occur in contralateral side of the body. This condition combined with ipsilateral 3rd nerve paralysis is called as Benedict's syndrome. McKusick-Kaufmann Syndrome McKusick-Kaufman syndrome: A rare genetic disorder characterized by hydrometrocolpos (fluid buildup in vagina and uterus), extra fingers and congenital hea defects | Ophthalmology | null | Patient with fixed dilated pupil, with iris atrophy and secondary glaucoma after penetrating keratoplasty is suggestive of.
A. Benedict's syndrome
B. Posner-Shlossman syndrome
C. Kaufmann's syndrome
D. Urrets Zavalia syndrome
| Urrets Zavalia syndrome |
2e08902d-7b6f-4bd8-ab0a-179b5e5b18f3 | Emergency contraception should be given within 72 hours of unprotected sex. They interfere with postovulatory events which normally results in pregnancy and therefore known as incentives - As the most common method and drug is - levonorgestrel with success rate of 95 %.the tablets can be offered up to 120 hours. however, sooner the tablets taken after intercourse is more effective and most effective method is IUCD as it is given by the doctor itself to inject the IUCD and the failure rate is 0.1% Mifepristone is a steroid for progesterone receptor. It does not prevent feilization but by blocking the action of progesterone on the endometrium, it causes sloughing and shedding of decidua and prevents implanatation. Danazol is contraceptive drug it is anti - estrogenic in nature but it is not the best drug because of the failure rate chance of this drug and if mother is having female fetus it can cause virilization of unborn female child. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | JIPMER 2018 | Which of the following is not used for emergency contraception?
A. Mifepristone
B. IUCD
C. Levonorgestrel
D. Danazol
| Danazol |
db9f752e-09b8-4311-ba28-987b7206593f | Ans. (b) Yellow feverRef. K. Park 21sted./380* The National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) is implemented for the prevention and control of vector borne diseases such as: Malaria, Filariasis, kala-azar, Japanese encephalitis, Dengue and Chikunguniya.* Yellow fever is NOT a part of NVBDCP. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health Programmes in India | In national vector borne disease control program which disease is not included?
A. Malaria
B. Yellow fever
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. Kala azar
| Yellow fever |
9d5a3303-7e9b-40b1-b60e-c662ab6ea553 | Depolarization occurs from apex to base & endocardium to epicardium; Repolarization occurs from base to apex & epicardium to endocardium Last to depolarize are: Base of LV (epicardium) Pulmonary conus. Upper most pa of interventricular septum. Last to repolarise: Apex endocardium | Physiology | Conducting System of Hea | Last pa of the hea to be repolarised is:
A. Apical epicardium
B. Apical endocardium
C. Epicardium of the base of LV
D. Endocardium of the base of LV
| Apical endocardium |
68780356-f951-4925-ae8e-68f0315520b7 | Hasal's corpuscles/thymic corpuscles are structures found in the medulla of the human thymus, formed from type VI epithelial reticular cells.They are named for Ahur Hill Hassall, who discovered them in 1849. | Anatomy | null | Hassal's corpuscles are seen in:
A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymph node
| Thymus |
e5c89f0e-a5b1-4f61-b46c-f382adfd8be4 | According to law of paial pressures : Pressure exeed by a gas in a mixture is directly propoional to its concentration in the mixture. In inspired gases; 20 % = O2 78% = N2 PH2O = 47 mmHg (air humidified with inspiration) =347 - 47 = 300 mmHg = gaseous component | Physiology | Respiratory System Pa 2 | At the altitude of 6500 meters, the atmospheric pressure is 347 mmHg. What is the inspired PO2.
A. 73 mm Hg
B. 63 mm Hg
C. 53 mm Hg
D. 83 mm Hg
| 63 mm Hg |
22eedb2a-b0c4-4120-8468-97a33b17d9ba | . Treatment consist of relief of raised intracranial pressure,establishment of pathological diagnosis,removal of beningn tumors,decompressive surgeries for malignant tumor,shunt surgeries to drain CSF_ventriculo peritonial shunt or ventriculo atrial shunt,radiotherapy ,chemotherapy-temozolamide (Ref;SRB's Manual of Surgery,5th edition,pg no. 1105) | Surgery | Trauma | Management of medulloblastoma in 1.5 year old. What is not done in curative therapy?
A. Open surgery with leaving the tumour margins
B. Chemotherapy
C. Total cranial spinal irradination
D. VP shunt for the obstructive hydrocephalus
| Open surgery with leaving the tumour margins |
9e3599f3-7dbf-428f-8992-a948c3afe5f8 | A space-occupying lesion of the brain is usually due to malignancy but it can be caused by other pathology such as an abscess or a haematoma. Almost half of intracerebral tumours are primary but the rest have originated outside the CNS and are metastases Features of a headache indicating a high risk of a space-occupying lesion of the brain or idiopathic intracranial hypeension include: A new headache with features suggestive of raised intracranial pressure, including papilloedema, vomiting, posture-related headache, or headache waking the patient from sleep Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | Medicine | C.N.S | A middle aged female repoed with dull diffuse progressive headache of 2 months duration associated with episodes of vomiting and blurred vision at times. Cough increases the headache.Likely patient has
A. Vascular headache
B. Intracranial space occupying lesion
C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
D. Acute pyogenic meningitis
| Intracranial space occupying lesion |
8adad11f-e7f2-409a-a7d3-8bcdd08d3cf8 | The withdrawal symptoms can be managed by one of the following methods: 1. Use of substitution drugs such as methadone 2. Clonidine is a a2 agonist that acts by inhibiting norepinephrine release at presynaptic a2 receptors. 3. Naltrexone with Clonidine: Naltrexone is an orally available narcotic antagonist which, when given to an opioid-dependent individual, causes withdrawal symptoms. These symptoms are managed with the addition of clonidine for 10-14 days after which clonidine is withdrawn and the patient has continued on naltrexone alone. 4. Other Drugs: The other detoxification agents include LAAM ( Levo-alpha-acetyl-Metha dol), propoxyphene, diphenoxylate, buprenorphine (long-acting synthetic paial m-agonist which can be administered sublingually), and lofexidine (a2 agonist, similar to clonidine). In paicular, Buprenorphine has recently been used widely for detoxification as well as for maintenance treatment in many pas of the World. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 44 | Psychiatry | Substance abuse | Which of the following is an alternative to methadone for maintenance treatment of opiate dependence
A. Diazepam
B. Chlordiazepoxide
C. Buprenorphine
D. Dextropropoxyphene
| Buprenorphine |
59d21cbf-5c87-4bf8-aeb7-1c8389af7f22 | Wernicke's hemianopic pupil indicates lesion in the optic tract. In this condition light reflex is absent when light is thrown on temporal half of the retina of the affected side and nasal half of retina of the opposite side. In this condition light reflex is present when light is thrown on nasal half of affected side and temporal half of affected side. This patient also has homonymous hemianopia. Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology edited by Sunita Agarwal, page 304. | Ophthalmology | null | The MOST likely site of lesion in a patient with Wernicke's hemianopic pupil is:
A. Optic nerve
B. Optic tract
C. Optic chiasma
D. Optic radiation
| Optic tract |
620f465e-eb5b-4bdd-98b2-228c42b36d39 | Accessory spleen, in other words supernumerary spleens, splenunculi, or splenules, results from the failure of fusion of the primordial splenic buds in the dorsal mesogastrium during the fifth week of fetal life. Incidence of accessory spleen in the population is 10%-30% of patients in autopsy series and 16% of patients undergoing contrast enhanced abdominal CT. Although the most common location for an accessory spleen is splenic hilum (75%) and pancreatic tail (25%) , it can occur anywhere in the abdomen including gastrosplenic or splenorenal ligaments, wall of stomach or bowel , greater omentum or the mesentery, and even in the pelvis and scrotum. Accessory spleen usually measures 1 cm in diameter, but its size varies from a few milimeters to centimeters. Also the number of accessory spleens can vary from one to six . Accessory spleens are usually incidentally detected and asymptomatic, but in case of unexpected locations, accessory spleen can be of clinical impoance. Ref - radiologyassistant.com | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Most common location of accessory spleen
A. Hilum of spleen
B. Greater omentum
C. Lesser omentum
D. Duodenum
| Hilum of spleen |
667a3f95-ea64-4d3f-994f-e85af726b178 | Ans. d (Criminal negligence). (Ref. Textbook of FMT by Parikh 6th ed. 1.46)Contributory negligencea common law defence to a claim or action. It applies to a situation where a plaintiff claimant has, through their own negligence, caused or contributed to the injury they suffered. For example where a pedestrian crosses a road carelessly and is hit by a driver who is also driving carelessly.Comparative negligencea system of apportioning recovery for a tort based on a comparison of the plaintiff's negligence with the defendant's. It contrasts with the doctrine of contributory negligence, which disallows recovery by a plaintiff whose actions in some way, however small, contributed to the tort.Criminal negligencedefined as careless, inattentive, neglectful, willfully blind, or in the case of gross negligence what would have been reckless in any other defendant. For example, leaving (or forgetting) an instrument or sponge in the abdomen of the patient during a surgery and closing the operation contributes to criminal negligence.Corporate manslaughtera term for an act of homicide committed by a company. In general, a legal person is in the same position as a natural person, and may be convicted for committing virtually all offences, under English criminal law. The Court of Appeal confirmed in one of the cases following the disaster that a company can in principle omit manslaughter, although all defendants in that case were acquitted | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | Leaving (or forgetting) an instrument or sponge in the abdomen of the patient during a surgery and closing operation is:
A. Contributory negligence
B. Civil
C. Corporate negligence
D. Criminal negligence
| Criminal negligence |
abe79175-df99-4942-98bc-9a5532ee3f70 | (B) TachycardiaPAT - Pain Assessment ToolParameters012Posture/tone ExtendedDigits widespreadShoulders raised off bedFlexed and/or tenseFists clenchedTrunk guardingLimbs drawn to midlineHead and shoulder resist posturingCryNo YesWhen disturbedDoesn't settle after handlingLoudWhimperingWhiningSleep patternRelaxed Agirated or withdrawnWakes with startleEasily wokenRestlessSquirmingNo clear sleep/wake patternEye aversion "shut out"Expression FrownShallow furrowsEyes lightly closedGrimaceDeep furrowsEyes tightly closedPupils dilatedColorPink, well perfused Pale/dusky/flushed, Palmar swearingRespirations TachypneaArt restApneaAt rest or with handlingHeart rate TachycardiaAt restFluctuatingSpontaneous or at restOxygen saturationNormal Desaturation with or without handlingBlood pressureNormal Hypo-/hypertension at restNurse's perceptionNo pain perceived by me I think the baby is in painNote: Infants are assessed and scores obtained every 2 to 4 hours. An infant with a score > 5 requires comfort measures; >10 requires analgesia dose adjustment# Pain causes stress. The endocrine system reacts by releasing an excessive amount of hormones, ultimately resulting in carbohydrate, protein, and fat catabolism (destruction); poor glucose use; and other harmful effects. This reaction combined with inflammatory processes can produce weight loss, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, fever, shock, and death. Unrelieved pain prolongs the stress response, adversely affecting the patient's recovery.> Cardiovascular system responds to stress of pain by activating the sympathetic nervous system, which produces a variety of unwanted effects.> In the postoperative period, these include hypercoagulation and increased heart rate, blood pressure, cardiac work load, and oxygen demand.> Aggressive pain control is required to reduce these effects and prevent thromboembolic complications.> Cardiac morbidity is the primary cause of death after anesthesia and surgery | Anaesthesia | Miscellaneous | Pain Assessment Tool is best done by
A. Ask patient
B. Tachycardia
C. Tachypnea
D. Bradypnea
| Tachycardia |
b8b0fbea-955f-4225-805f-107004159f51 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Naeglaria . Amongst the given options Naeglaria and Acanthamoeba cause amoebic encephalitis. " The prognosis of Naeglaria encephalitis is uniformaly poor, most patients die within a week."---Harrison "Acanthamoeba encephalitis follows a more indolent course."----- Harrison . So, amongst the given options Naeglaria causes most fatal amoebic encephalitis . | Microbiology | null | Most fatal amoebic encephalitis is caused by ?
A. E.histolytica
B. Naeglaria
C. E. dispar
D. Acanthamoeba
| Naeglaria |
40e55353-bcf0-4135-a12b-3957f16ea6a4 | The hyoid bone is found at the level of third cervical veebrae in adults. It is situated above the thyroid cailage in the anterior wall of the hypopharynx in relation to the base of the tongue. It is made up of a body, bilateral greater cornua and bilateral lesser cornua. It is a sesamoid bone and is suspended in between the supra hyoid and infra hyoid musculature and is therefore responsible for the concavity between the chin and the anterior neck. The body is convex from side to side. At either end of the body on its upper surface is a small tubercle called lesser cornu. It is the point of attachment of medial end of middle constrictor muscle and stylohyoid ligament. | Unknown | null | In an adult, the hyoid bone is seen at which of the following level of the cervical veebrae?
A. C2
B. C3
C. C4
D. C5
| C3 |
48c5a2e3-2e0c-4a3f-a28f-b90edd413c82 | Effect of inhalational agents on respiratory systemAll inhalational agents are bronchodilators -Halothane cause maximum bronchodilatation. The inhalational agent of choice in asthmatics (intravenous anaesthtic of choice is ketamine).All inhalational agents cause respiratory depression to some extent - Maximum depression of respiration is seen with enflurane, on the other hand, maximum inhibition of ventilator response to increased CO2 and hypoxia is caused by halothaneAll inhalational agents vasodilate pulmonary vascular bed by blunting the hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) response. Halothane has maximum effect: Isoflurane, Enflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane have similar effect.(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no. 167 - 169) | Anaesthesia | All India exam | Most potent bronchodilator among inhalational anesthetic agents is
A. Isoflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Halothane
D. Desflurane
| Halothane |
f14357e0-9c08-4f21-89bb-53ab50f5658b | Ref: KDT 8th ed Miazapine blocks presynaptic [?]2 receptors on NA and 5-HT neurons. This increases the release of both NA and 5-HT. It also inhibits 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors. | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | Compared to the other antidepressant drugs miazapin has the distinct ability to act as an antagonist of:
A. Beta receptors
B. D2 receptors
C. Alpha 2 receptors
D. 5-HT receptors
| Alpha 2 receptors |
4ff4e373-1da7-46d1-a04c-afcdd4a781a2 | Ans. C. 9,10,11 cranial nerve nucleusCells in nucleus ambiguus contain motor neurons associated with three cranial nerves (rostral pole = C.N. IX = glossopharyngeal; middle part = C.N. X = vagus; caudal pole = C.N. XI = spino accessory). Axons arising from nucleus ambiguus pass laterally and slightly ventrally to exit the medulla just dorsal to the inferior olive. These axons then course with the three cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus) and XI (spino accessory) to innervate the striated muscles of the soft palate, pharynx, larynx, and upper part of the esophagus. | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Nucleus ambiguus is composed of:
A. 7,9,10 cranial nerve nucleus
B. 7,9,11 cranial nerve nucleus
C. 9,10,11 cranial nerve nucleus
D. 7,10,11 cranial nerve nucleus
| 9,10,11 cranial nerve nucleus |
0aa7db35-7ac5-420a-80ed-3917a903e922 | ANSWER: (C) 4 yearsREF: Essence of Paediatrics Prof. MR Khan 4th ed page 59, Clinical Pediatrics by D. N. Chatterjee page 18 A simple rough formula for calculation height from 2-14 years is:Height in inches = (2.5 x age in years) + 30* Thus the expected height at 4 year of age = (2.5 x 4) + 30 = 40 inches* As 1 inch = 2.5 cm, 40 inches = 100 cm | Pediatrics | Assessment of Growth | At what age a child's height is expected to be 100 cm?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
| 4 years |
93bee656-c09b-4907-89d5-b6adc81a2aa0 | (Web) (1024-25-LB) (737, 1043-B &L 25th)Plummer-Vinson Syndrome (Brown-Kelly Paterson syndrome or sideropenic dysphagia)* Young women with iron deficiency anaemia and dysphagia referred high in the neck.* The dysphagia was said to be caused by spasm or a web in the post-cricoid area. The patients were said to have an increased tendency to post-cricoid cancer.* Web certainly occurs in the upper oesophagus. More recently it has been noted that there is often a patch of heterotopic gastric mucosa in the upper oesophagus (probably congenital)* Complications - ulceration, stricture and adenocarcinoma | Surgery | Oesophagus | Dysphagia caused by in Plummer Vinson Syndrome is due to
A. Stenosis
B. Web
C. Stricture
D. Ulceration
| Web |
f905dcaa-3f9b-455d-bb86-3a0d9c48991b | Bainbridge reflex: When the hea rate is slow, intravenous infusions of blood or electrolyte solutions usually accelerate the hea. Both atria have receptors that are affected by changes in blood volume and that influence the hea rate. These receptors are located principally in the venoatrial junctions: in the right atrium at its junctions with the venae cavae and in the left atrium at its junctions with the pulmonary veins. Distention of these atrial receptors sends afferent impulses to the brainstem in the vagus nerves. The efferent impulses are carried from the brainstem to the SA node by fibers from both autonomic divisions. Bezold-Jarisch reflex or the coronary chemoreflex: Activation of chemosensitive vagal C fibers in the cardiopulmonary region (eg, juxtacapillary region of alveoli, ventricles, atria, great veins, and pulmonary aery) causes profound bradycardia, hypotension, and a brief period of apnea followed by rapid shallow breathing. It can be elicited by a variety of substances including capsaicin, histamine, serotonin, phenylbiguanide, and veratridine. In human this reflex may be activated: During myocardial ischemia or, reperfusion (thrombolytic therapy) as a result of increased production of oxygen radicals. By agents used as radiocontrast for coronary angiography. It is cardioprotective by producing bradycardia, thus reduce the amount substances get absorbed into the blood Vasovagal syncope has been attributed to activation of the Bezold-Jarisch reflex J reflex or pulmonary chemoreflex: Because the C fiber endings are close to pulmonary vessels, they have been called J (juxtacapillary) receptors. They are stimulated by hyperinflation of the lung, but they respond as well to intravenous or intracardiac administration of chemicals such as capsaicin. The reflex response that is produced is apnea followed by rapid breathing, bradycardia, and hypotension Oculocardiac reflex: Traction on the extraocular muscles (especially the medial rectus), conjunctiva, or orbital structures causes hypotension and a reflex slowing of the HR, as well as arrhythmias Cushing's reflex: Increased CSF pressure (intracranial pressure) - cerebral aery compressed - CNS ischemia that causes hypoxia and hypercapnia in medulla, which directly stimulates the vasomotor centre - increased BP - baroreceptor mechanisms causes reflex Bradycardia. Cushing reflex causes the symptoms of Cushing triad: Bradycardia Hypeension (with widened pulse pressure) Irregular respiration (bradypnea) | Physiology | Cardiovascular System | Which of the following describes the reflex increase in hea rate with on atrial distension?
A. J reflex
B. Bainbridge reflex
C. Cushing reflex
D. Bezold Jarisch reflex
| Bainbridge reflex |
a8dbacc8-9492-422c-83f6-ce3f8fb92fb9 | FLT3-TKD- present in approx. 30% of cases of AML. It is located on long arm of Chromosome 13. AML: Good prognosis t (15;17) t (8;21) inv 16 Poor prognosis t (6;9) inv 3 7 deletion | Medicine | AML & ALL | FLT3-TKD gene is located at?
A. 13q12
B. 11q23
C. 11p13
D. 4q24
| 13q12 |
4bfdd156-79dc-4a63-b90d-a2223aeec859 | smaller incision nd post operative astigmatism. REF:khurana,pg 199 | Ophthalmology | Lens | Recovery in cataract surgery is fastest with which of the following -
A. ICCE
B. ECCE
C. Phacoemulsification
D. ECCE with ICI
| Phacoemulsification |
e89ba6a8-289d-4b58-97e7-557e535d0422 | Mendelian diseases and their inheritance: | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Haemophilia is a genetic disorder of coagulation seen only in males. It is transmitted as
A. X-linked dormant
B. Y-linked dormant
C. X-linked recessive
D. Autosomal recessive
| X-linked recessive |
a5fff229-91ba-439e-812f-1926dfa4ba8f | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Cysteine There are two sulfur containing amino acids :?CysteineMethionineThe side chain of cysteine contains sulfhydryl group that has a pKa of approximately 8.4 for dissociation of its hydrogen sulfhydryl groups of two cystein molecules can form covalent disulfide bond to form cystine.Methionine although it contains sulfur group, does not containt sulfhydryl group and cannot form disulfide bond. | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following amino acid contains free sulphydryl group
A. Cysteine
B. Methionine
C. Serine
D. Glycine
| Cysteine |
30b6b541-b523-4a1a-b241-8eef796868f4 | Ans. B: Hydralazine Intravenous form of hydralazine is useful when treating severe hypeension due to preeclampsia/eclampsia. It has got a long record of safe use during pregnancy, but troublesome adverse effects occur. It decreases systemic resistance through direct vasodilation of aerioles. | Pharmacology | null | Drug not contraindicated in a pregnant lady for Hypeension: March 2009
A. Sodium nitroprusside
B. Hydralazine
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Indapamide
| Hydralazine |
249b20de-584a-4dd5-8f94-4df1bcb68a09 | The active transpo of Na+ into the ECF by Na+-K+ pump is coupled to the transpo of other substances across the cell membrane against their concentration gradient. The energy for the transpo is not directly derived from ATP hydrolysis. Na+ Cotranspo of glucose is an example(Ref: Diseases. Textbook of medical physiology-Geetha) | Physiology | General physiology | Glucose is transpoed in the presence Na+ ions in intestine. This is a type of
A. Secondary Active transpo
B. Primary active transpo
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Simple diffusion
| Secondary Active transpo |
002b10de-a518-4f65-8e2b-9e306be97722 | Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is the risk factor for clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina and cervix in young women with a history of in utero exposure to DES while their mothers were pregnant. | Pathology | Uterus | On routine examination, it is discovered that a 35-year-old woman had been exposed in-utero to Diethylstilbestrol (DES) administered to her mother, who had had a history of recurrent spontaneous aboion. This history suggests that the patient might be at increased risk of which of the following?
A. Adenomyosis
B. Clear cell adenocarcinoma
C. Lichen sclerosus
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
| Clear cell adenocarcinoma |
3f63787d-7816-48fe-a623-b61ba10a3001 | Osteopetrosis
Osteopetrosis is an autosomal recessive heredofamilial disorder in which partly calcified cartilaginous intercellular ground substance is not regularly reabsorbed & replaced by regular osteoid tissue & bone.
Manifested by :
Increased bone density masking the distinction between cortex & medulla, bone within bone appearance (Marble's bone).
Brittle bone & easily fracturability
Fracture healing satisfactory resulting in skeletal deformities.
Myelophthisic anemia
Hepatosplenomegaly & presence of immature leukocytes & normoblasts in the peripheral blood.
Growth retardation,Macrocephaly.
Thickening of cranial foramina & thus causing pressure on optic nerve & optic atrophy.
Deafness & blindness
Dental problems & osteomyelitis of the mandible.
Learning disorder but may have normal intelligence despite hearing & visual loss. | Pediatrics | null | Childhood osteopetrosis is characterized by – a) B/L frontal bossingb) Multiple # (fracture)c) Hepatosplenomegalyd) Cataracte) Mental retardation
A. bc
B. c
C. ac
D. ad
| bc |
689ccf30-8cce-477c-8161-2ff8ec748244 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Protein C deficiency o Warfarin - induced skin necrosis occurs in patients with undiagnosed protein C deficiency. | Pharmacology | null | Warfarin induced skin necrosis is seen in ?
A. Protein C deficiency
B. Protein S deficiency
C. Hemophillia
D. Antithrombin III deficiency
| Protein C deficiency |
d1cd5c04-ce98-45b7-8141-b11f3802e444 | Neoadjuvant chemotherapyNeoadjuvant chemotherapy is the administration of therapeutic agents before the main treatment.Neoadjuvant therapy aims to:Reduce the size or extent of cancer.Makes procedures easier and more likely to succeed.Reduces the consequences of a more extensive treatment.Single agent chemotherapyCombination chemotherapyBleomycin5-fluorouracil (5-FU)CisplatinMitomycinCarboplatinVindesine and vinorelbinePaclitaxelDocetaxelEtoposideCisplatin and 5-FU - Most widely used.Epirubicin/Cisplatin/5-FUPaclitaxel/Cisplatin/5-FUDocetaxel/Cisplatin/5-FUIrinotecan Plus 5-FUOxaliplatin/Capecitabine | Pathology | All India exam | Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy used esophageal carcinoma
A. Doxorubicin
B. Cisplatin
C. 5-Fu-Leucovarin
D. Mitomycin C
| Cisplatin |
5f892117-3e89-4f00-b541-b00b4eefc67c | The treatment technique described here is biofeedback. In this treatment, the patient is being given ongoing physiological information, in this case the muscle tension in the frontalis muscle. With the help of his feedback, she learns to use mental techniques to control the tension and keep her muscles in a relaxed state. | Psychiatry | Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders | A 40-year-old woman who is a known case of anxiety disorder and has prominent symptoms of frontal headache is being treated with a procedure in which the tension in the frontalis muscle is measured regularly. The readings are projected on to a computer screen, which patient can see. She is then taught to use mental techniques to decrease tension in this muscle. Which of the following treatment techniques does this example illustrate?
A. Implosion
B. Biofeedback
C. Aversive conditioning
D. Flooding
| Biofeedback |
14f55294-96c2-4db8-8bf5-e8d23f4d8536 | Goandal development begins at 5th week of intrauterine life and Male sexual differentiation occurs earlier than female."The differentiation of the gonadal ridge into the testis by 43-50 days (7-8 wks) of gestation is a rapid phenomenon that contrasts with the slower and delayed development of the ovary, which will not become apparent until 140 days (20 weeks) of gestation with the .formation of granular cells. Leydig cells are apparent by about 60 days and differentiation of the male external genitals occurs by 65-77 days of gestation. | Anatomy | null | Regarding sexual differentiation of the fetus?
A. Gonadal development begins at 5th week of intrauterine life
B. Y chromosome determines the differentiation of ovaries.
C. Female external genitalia development is completed by 10 weeks.
D. Male sexual differentiation occurs earlier than females
| Male sexual differentiation occurs earlier than females |
55d82ff9-e362-4abd-831a-d4c411fa622e | Chest X-ray finding of hydatid cyst of the lung: Dense homogenous opacity Collapsed laminated membrane produces an irregular projections in a fluid level due to rupture of the cyst- 'Water-lily appearance' Crescentic cap of air, when it communicates into bronchial tree Ref: Srb's Manual of Surgery By Bhat, 2012, Page 1205. | Radiology | null | Water lily appearance in chest X-ray suggestive of the following condition:
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Bronchopleural fistula
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Sequestration cyst of lung
| Hydatid cyst |
5af076ca-87ad-40b2-8b7b-706847483013 | Papillary carcinoma is the most common malignancy of thyroid, accounts to 70-80% of all thyroid malignancies. It has the best prognosis of all thyroid cancers. Source : Sabiston 20th edition pg : 900 | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | Which of the following is the most common cancer of thyroid
A. Anaplastic carcinoma
B. Follicular carcinoma
C. Papillary carcinoma
D. Medullary carcinoma
| Papillary carcinoma |
24d02c3f-3f3f-4ed2-a9c6-ff0ecf163b5c | Ans. a. Coronary artery disease Type D personality has been recently found to be a risk factor for coronary' artery disease."Type A personality (behavior pattern) includes competitiveness, time urgeny, and hostility.""Type D (distressed) personality is not oniy a risk factor for development of ischemic heart disease, it also leads to Horse prognosis following a myocardial infarction." Personality Disorder Type-A PersonalityType-B PersonalityType-D Personality* It is originally characterized by competitiveness, time urgency, hostility and anger3 (last two components are pathogenic).* Ambitiousness, aggressiveness, competitiveness, impatience, muscle tenseness, alertness, rapid and emphatic vocal style, irritation, and cynicism are other features.* Are hard working workaholics who deny emotional or physical vulnerability. Their self esteem is dependent on achievement i.e. they are impatient, achievement oriented people.* These individuals show a greater physiological reactivity (e g. BP. Heart rate) and are more likely to get engaged in unhealthy babbits e g., drinking alcohol, smoking.* And if these individuals smoke they inhale smoke for a longer time.* Associated with significantly high risk of coronary heart disease.* It includes carefree, easy going, relaxed individuals* It includes people with distressed personality who suffer from high degree of emotional distress (negative emotions /affectivity) but they consciously suppress their feelings* Type D personality is both a prognostic and risk factor for IHD.* These persons have worse prognosis after Ml with an - 4 times increased risk of sudden cardiac death, recurrent Mi and mortality.* These persons have an impaired/poor quality of life and are more likely to experience anxiety and depression (mood swings).Risk factor for cardiac disase include major depressive disorder, type D personality and ty pe A personality, (especially anger and hostality). | Psychiatry | Personality Disorders | Type D personality has been recently found to be a risk factor for:
A. Coronary artery disease
B. Depression
C. Personality disorder
D. Schizophrenia
| Coronary artery disease |
c21e9c93-2115-449c-a45f-9a41f926a9bc | (A) Acute glomerulonephritis THE GLOMERULAR SYNDROMEAcute nephritic syndromeHematuria, azotemia, variable proteinuria, oliguria, edema, and hypertensionRapidly progressive glomerulonephritisAcute nephritis, proteinuria, and acute renal failureNephrotic syndrome>3.5 gm proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, lipiduriaChronic renal failureAzotemia uremia progressing for yearsAzotemia uremia progressing for yearsGlomerular hematuria; subnephrotic proteinuria | Pathology | Misc. | RBC cast in the microscopic examination of the urine is an indicator of
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
D. Nephrotic syndrome
| Acute glomerulonephritis |
96340200-ba8a-425c-aeab-c288fc83ab1d | PVCs are characterized by premature and bizarrely shaped QRS complexes that are unusually long (typically >120 msec) and appear wide on the electrocardiogram (ECG). These complexes are not preceded by a P wave, and the T wave is usually large and oriented in a direction opposite the major deflection of the QRS. pvc is followed by a compensatory pause Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1435 | Medicine | C.V.S | EKG finding of ventricular premature beats-
A. Fusion beat
B. Narrow QRS complex
C. AV Dissociation
D. Wide QRS complex
| Wide QRS complex |
11b6929a-7f6b-409c-a98c-59ac3a2b2225 | Ref: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker, 8th ed. pg. 205SKIN AND SOFT TISSUE INFECTION BY STREPTOCOCCUS1. Erysipelas-diffuse infection involving the superficial lymphatics2. Impetigo-superficial infection of skin (pyoderma)3. Cellulitis-cellulitis is caused mainly by hemolytic streptococci. It specifically affects the dermis and subcutaneous fat.4. Lymphangitis* Gangrene-type of ischemic necrosis# Dry gangrene: Arterial obstruction# Wet gangrene: Venous obstruction* Pyoderma is most commonly caused by Staph Aureus | Microbiology | Bacteria | Which of the following is common with Streptococcus infection?
A. Cellulitis
B. Gangrene
C. Pyoderma
D. UTI
| Cellulitis |
eacec070-a402-4eb3-845e-8452e0ee972d | Because of the development of effective oral antibiotics (respiratory fluoroquinolones, extended spectrum macrolides), many patients with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) can be managed as an outpatient as long as compliance and close follow-up are assured. The CURB-65 score is a validated instrument for determining if inpatient admission (either observation or full admission) is indicated. Factors predicting increased severity of infection include confusion, urea above 19 mg/dL, respiratory rate above 30, BP below 90 systolic (or 60 diastolic), and age 65 or above. If more than one of these factors is present, hospitalization should be considered.This patient's presentation (lobar pneumonia, pleuritic pain, purulent sputum) suggests pneumococcal pneumonia. The pneumococcus is the commonest organism isolated from patients with CAP. Fortunately, Spneumoniae is almost always sensitive to oral antibiotics such as clarithromycin/azithromycin and the respiratory fluoroquinolones. A Gram stain suggestive of pneumococci would therefore only confirm the clinical diagnosis. Exposure to influenza is an important historical finding. Patients with influenza often have a prodrome (upper respiratory symptoms, myalgias, prostrating weakness), but influenza would not cause a lobar infiltrate. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia can sometimes follow influenza. Acute lobar pneumonia, even in an HIV-positive patient, is usually due to the pneumococcus and can often be treated as an outpatient. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is usually insidious in onset, causes diffuse parenchymal infiltrates, and does not cause pleurisy or pleural effusion. Physical examination signs of consolidation confirm the CXR finding of a lobar pneumonia (as opposed to a patchy bronchopneumonia) and would simply affirm the importance of coverage for classic bacterial pathogens (i.e., pneumococci, H influenzae). Atypical pneumonias (due to Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, or Legionella) are usually patchy and do not usually cause pleural effusion. Currently recommended treatment regimens for CAP cover both typical and atypical pathogens. | Medicine | Respiratory | A 40-year-old man without a significant medical history comes to the emergency room with a 3-day history of fever and shaking chills, and a 15-minute episode of rigor. He also reports a cough productive of yellow-green sputum, anorexia, and the development of right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Shortness of breath has been present for the past 12 hours. Chest x-ray reveals a consolidated right middle lobe infiltrate, and CBC shows an elevated neutrophil count with many band forms present. Which feature would most strongly support inpatient admission and IV antibiotic treatment for this patient?
A. Recent exposure to a family member with influenza
B. Respiratory rate of 36/min
C. Recent sexual exposure to an HIV-positive patient
D. Purulent sputum with gram-positive diplococci on Gram stain
| Respiratory rate of 36/min |
dd418072-cc4b-4cbf-9612-6c013781d955 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Synthetic amylin analogue NEWER ANTIDIABETIC DRUGS Exenatide Exenatide is a synthetic glucagon-like peptide - 1 (GLP-1) analogue. GLP-1 is an impoant incretin that is released from gut in response to oral glucose. But GLP-1 can not be used clinically as it is degraded rapidly by enzyme dipeptidly peptidase - (DPP-4). Exenatide is resistant to DPP-4. It acts similar to GLP-1 - Enhancement of postprandial insulin release, suppression of glucagon release and appetite as well as slowing of gastric emptying. It is given by subcutaneous route & used in type 2 DM Nausea is most impoant side effect. Sitagliptin This is orally active inhibitor of DPP-4. It prevents degradation of endogenous GLP-1 and other incretins, potentiating their action, resulting in limitation of postprandial hyperglycemia. It is used in type 2 DM. Other DPP-4 inhibitor is vildagliptin Pramlintide This is a synthetic amylin analogue (Amylin is a polypeptide produced by pancreatic (3-cells which reduces glucagon secretion from a-cells and delays gastric emptying). Pramlintide attenuates postprandial hyperglycemia and exes a centrally mediate anorectic action. o It is given by subcutaneous route and is used in both Type 1 and Type 2 DM. Glucomannan This is powdered extract from tuber of konjar. It is promoted as a dietary adjunct for diabetes. It swells in stomach by absorbing water and is claimed to reduce appetite, blood sugar, serum lipids and relieve constipation. Bromocriptine Recently bromocriptine has been approved by FDA, as an adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in type 2 DM. It has been found that dopamine alter insulin resistance by acting on hypothalmus and bromocriptine blocks O2 receptors. | Pharmacology | null | Pramlintide is ?
A. Synthetic amylin analogue
B. Inhibitor of DPP 4
C. GLP 1 analogue
D. PPAR gamma
| Synthetic amylin analogue |
b229e7ff-2046-4e4c-99b7-374e67773db3 | Plication of inferior lid retractors is done to strengthen them. This operation is performed in severe cases of senile entropion or when recurrence occurs after other procedures. It is known as the Jones, Reeh and Wobig operation. | Ophthalmology | null | The operation of plication of inferior lid retractors is indicated in -
A. Senile ectropion
B. Senile entropion
C. Cicatricial entropion
D. Paralytic entropion
| Senile entropion |
4b0df041-afc1-4417-a87a-12f56c6505e6 | * Jacobson=================lobotomy in chimpanzees * Almedia lima+ egaz moniz===PF leukotomy * Subcaudate tractotmy======OCD * Limbic leukotomy=========OCD and depression * Anterior capsulotomy Anterior cingulotomy Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 1065 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | who is the sceintist who got noble prize for his contribution for psychosurgery
A. erik erikson
B. alfred adler
C. manfred bleuler
D. egaz moniz
| egaz moniz |
ede08409-7c4c-4d8e-9826-9ecffaf0d4ae | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Neutrophilia On laboratory evaluation there will be : Mild neutrophilic leukocytosis (neutrophilia) Elevated hematocrit Elevated BUN and creatinine Normal sodium, potassium and chloride levels. Markedly reduced bicorbonate level Elevated anion gap Acidosis (Low pH) | Microbiology | null | In a patient presenting with diarrhoea due to vibrio cholera, which of the following will be present ?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Presence of leukocytes in stool
C. Fever
D. Neutrophilia
| Neutrophilia |
70b5334f-5e21-46c6-9702-60a00883a9be | Features of Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Increased body temperature >38degC (>100.4degF), orConfused or altered consciousnessDiaphoresis "sweat shock"Rigid musclesAutonomic imbalanceLabile hypeension Metabolic acidosis (Refer: Kaplan and Saddock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th edition, pg no: 995) | Pathology | All India exam | Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by
A. Bradycardia
B. Labile hypeension
C. Hypotonia
D. Hypothermia
| Labile hypeension |
89620158-70ac-4154-bd9c-f4067a8d2fc4 | Ans. B: ACTHFree glucocoicoids inhibit ACTH secretion, and the degree of pituitary inhibition is propoionate to the circulating glucocoicoid level. The inhibitory effect is exeed at both the pituitary and the hypothalamic levels. The inhibition is due primarily to an action on DNA, and maximal inhibition takes several hours to develop, although more rapid "fast feedback" also occurs. The ACTH-inhibiting activity of the various steroids parallels their glucocoicoid potency. A drop in resting coicoid levels stimulates ACTH secretion, and in chronic adrenal insufficiency the rate of ACTH synthesis and secretion is markedly increased.Thus, the rate of ACTH secretion is determined by two opposing forces: the sum of the neural and possibly other stimuli converging through the hypothalamus to increase ACTH secretion, and the magnitude of the braking action of glucocoicoids on ACTH secretion, which is propoionate to their level in the circulating blood | Physiology | null | Coicosteroids suppress: September 2009
A. GH
B. ACTH
C. FSH
D. LH
| ACTH |
b3fa9be8-59f2-4dce-8cb3-3d0ddb7bd16d | EICOSANOIDSThey are 20 C compounds (Greek, eikosi = twenty), derived from arachidonic acid. Their names are:1. Prostanoids, containing1-a. Prostaglandins (PGs);1-b. Prostacyclins (PGIs);1-c. Thromboxanes (TXs)2. Leukotrienes (LTs)Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 163 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | Eicosanoids are derived from
A. Oleoc acid
B. Linoleic acid
C. Linolenic acid
D. Archidonic acid
| Archidonic acid |
440a4785-047d-466a-bd81-6c094e8728be | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Metaphase o To produce a karyotype, one must obtain cells capable of growth and division as karyotyping is done by arresting mitosis in dividing cells in metaphase.o Karyotyping is the study of chromosomes and is used in cytogenetics to study the chromosomal abnormalities,o After arresting the cells in metaphase the chromosomes are examined to see for:i) Numbers - to detect abnormalities in chromosome numbers such as aneuploidy (trisomy, tetrasomy), polyploidy,ii) Structure - to detect structural chromosomal anomalies such as translocations, deletions, inversions.Karyotypingo It is the study of chromosomes,o It is used in cytogenetics to study the chromosomal abnormalities.o A karyotype is a standard arrangement of a photographed or imaged stained metaphase spread in which chromosome pairs are arranged in order of decreasing length.o To produce a karyotype, one must obtain cells capable of growth and division as karyotyping is done by arresting mitosis in dividing cells in metaphase,o Samples used are : -Amniotic fluids (cells from amnion, skin, urogenital system, respiratory system and GI system).# Chorionic vill.# Bone marrow# Skin fibroblasts# Peripheral blood lymphocytes# Fetal umblical blood.# Lymph node tissue# Solid tumor sample | Pathology | Cytogenetic Disorders | Kary otyping is done in which phase of cell cycle-
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. S phase
| Metaphase |
9fa97b8c-d9d3-4693-895c-e9b6afeb31b7 | Diagnostic test for thalassemia is Hb electrophoresis. NESTROFT Test - Naked Eye Single Tube Red Cell Osmotic Fragility Test - used for screening for Thalassemia HbA1c - Used to assess long term glycemic control in diabetics (blood sugar control over past 3 months) Target cells - A feature of thalassemia, but not diagnostic Reference : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:342 | Pediatrics | Hematology | Diagnosis of beta Thalassemia is established by
A. NESTROFT Test
B. Hb A1c estimation
C. Hb electrophoresis
D. Target cells in peripheral smear
| Hb electrophoresis |
c8bcda87-63f5-4e44-8614-fe090f9ecabb | Answer is C (TSH) : The enhanced sensitivity and specificity of TSH assays have greatly improved laboratory assessment of thyroid function - Harrison With rare exceptions a normal TSH level excludes a primary abnormality of thyroid function.- Harrison Approach to thyroid testing: Because TSH change dramatically in response to alteration of free T4 and T3, a logical approach to thyroid testing is to determine first whether TSH is suppressed, normal or elevated - Harrison | Medicine | null | The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorder is
A. T3
B. T4
C. TSH
D. Thyroglobulin
| TSH |
97f6ee3d-dbee-446c-809d-c482e31fd2a3 | Ans. B. Knee* Most common joint involved in thalassemia is Knee joint.* Most common orthopedic symptom in thalassemia is leg pain. | Orthopaedics | Arthritis | Which is the most common joint involved in thalassemia?
A. Hip
B. Knee
C. Shoulder
D. Ankle
| Knee |
c33d940c-8646-490c-b27d-b5c74e6718dd | From the options listed in the question erythromycin is the drug used in the treatment of chlamydial infections in pregnancy. Erythromycin should be given for 7-10days. According to the latest recommendation Azithromycin 1gm as a single dose is the drug of choice in Chlamydia infection during pregnancy. As a prophylaxis to ophthalmia neonatorum 1% erythromycin ointment is applied to the infant's eye soon following bih. Neonatal infection is treated with erythromycin for 14-21days. Ref: Williams Obstetrics, 23rd Edition, Page 1241 ; Practical Gynecology, 2nd Edition, Page 200 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By DC Dutta, 6th Edition, Page 294-5 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | The drug of choice to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy is:
A. Tetracycline
B. Doxycycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin
| Erythromycin |
86d28be8-e596-467b-ad3b-f9fd9a4d4496 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Succinylcholine + halothane | Anaesthesia | null | Malignant hypehermia is caused by
A. Succinylcholine + halothane
B. Propranolol
C. Lidocaine
D. Bupivacaine
| Succinylcholine + halothane |
ae089b5b-42c2-4fd8-92eb-6dfbd02faaa0 | Anterior division of internal iliac aeryA pa of Umbilical aery persists as superior vesical aery and remaining aery becomes obliterated forming medial umbilical ligament. | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Umbilical aery is a branch of
A. Coeliac aery
B. Superior mesenteric aery
C. Anterior division of internal iliac aery
D. Posterior division of internal iliac aery
| Anterior division of internal iliac aery |
56abe362-8b87-48c7-9f9b-743a3e54394a | (D) Nuchal edemaINCIDENCE OF MAJOR & MINOR DEFECTS/MA Trisomy 21NormalLikelihood ratio for isolated marker* Nuchal Fold33.5%0.6%9.8* Short humerus33.4%1.5%4.1* Short femur41.4%5.2%1.6* Hydronephrosis17.6%2.6%1.0* Echogenic focus in heart28.2%4.4%1.1* Echogenic bowel13.3%0.6%3.0* Major defect21.4%0.65%5.2 | Radiology | Miscellaneous | Which one of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus
A. Echogenic foci in heart
B. Hyperechogenic bowel
C. Choroid plexus cysts
D. Nuchal edema
| Nuchal edema |
d31c893b-c738-43b3-8b25-7322204bf152 | Ans: B i.e. Flexion of the neck and extension of the atlanto-occipital joint Optimal head and neck positioning while intubation is obtained by flexion of the neck and extension of the atlanto-occipital joint | Anaesthesia | null | Proper technique of endotracheal intubation involves: March 2012
A. Flexion of neck
B. Flexion of the neck and extension of the atlantooccipital joint
C. Extension of the neck
D. Extension of the neck and flexion of the atlantooccipital joint
| Flexion of the neck and extension of the atlantooccipital joint |
985e5759-85f7-4159-a88e-b34cf58d1bff | CD1-cryptococcus D strain-infected mice were examined for survival and fungal loads in either brain or lung during the course of infection. Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 565 | Microbiology | mycology | Which animal is used to test pathogenicity in Cryptococcus neoformans?
A. Mice
B. Guinea pig
C. Rabbit
D. Monkey
| Mice |
29d127c6-12f3-41e1-9f33-e9181c476ed3 | In case of threatened aboion ,patient presents with amenorrhoea followed by painless vaginal bleeding,but may sonetimes accompained by mild abdominal cramps and backache. Treatment modalities include hormobe therapy with natural progesterone is sometimes given on an empirical basis,anti D is given ,if patient is Rh negative,follow up with ultrasound is essential to detect progression to missed aboion. mefipristone is used in the other given options. Refet page 145 of Text book of obstetrics,sheila balakrishnan 2 nd edition. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | Mifepristone is not used in:
A. Threatened aboion
B. Fibroid
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Molar pregnancy
| Threatened aboion |
0981a1f5-c8ec-433e-a8c0-5ab90e5af6b2 | Ochronosis is the bluish black discoloration of ceain tissues, such as the ear cailage and the ocular tissue, seen with alkaptonuria. Alkaptonuria is a rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder caused by deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase. This deficiency results in accumulation and deposition of homogentisic acid (HGA) in cailage, causing the characteristic diffuse bluish black pigmentation. These affected connective tissue become weak and brittle with time, leading to chronic inflammation, degeneration, and osteoahritis. Ref: Textbook of Ohopaedics and Trauma By GS Kulkarni, 2009, Page 197; Clinical Paediatric Dermatology By Thappa, 2009, Page 156; Differential Diagnosis in Internal Medicine: From Symptom to Diagnosis, 2007, Page 347 | Biochemistry | null | Accumulation of homogentisic acid causes which of the tissue changes?
A. Ochronosis
B. Tyrosinemia
C. Albinism
D. Tyrosinosis
| Ochronosis |
ac6de9dc-ff07-4ad0-a80d-2f9c07e18922 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nerve of pterygoid canal * Greater petrosal nerve joins the deep petrosal nerve to form vidian nerve (nerve to pterygoid canal) and carries secretomotor fibres to the lacrimal gland, nasal gland, Palate gland and pharyngeal gland after relaying in pterygopalatine ganglion. | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Vidian nerve is-
A. Mandibular nerve
B. Deep petrosal nerve
C. Nerve of pterygoid canal
D. Lesser petrosal nerve
| Nerve of pterygoid canal |
4429d82c-a733-4050-b1ad-2f06acb3da94 | Ans. (d) Mento verticalRef : D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 94-97DIAMETERS OF SKULL* The antero-posterior diameters of the head which may engage are:DiametersMeasurment (In Cm)PresentationSuboccipito-bregmatic9.5 cmVertexSuboccipito-frontal10 cmVertexOccipito - frontal11.5 cmVertexMento-vertical: extend from mid-point of chin to the highest point on the saggital suture14 cmBrowSubmento-vertical11.5 cmFaceSubmento-bregmatic9.5 cmFace * The transverse diameters which are concerned in the mechanism of labor are# Biparietal diameter - 9.5 cm: extends between two parietal eminences.# Super-subparietal - 8.5 cm# Bitemporal diameter: 8 cm# Bimastoid diameter - 7.5 cm | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis | Longest diameter of fetal skull is?
A. Occipito frontal
B. Submentobregmatic
C. Suboccipito frontal
D. Mento vertical
| Mento vertical |
5372f5ff-529c-4573-8a6f-bdc17382ca4d | Refer Katzung 10/e p774 KDT 6/e p 742 Ethambutol causes retobulbar neuritis It can result in red green colour blindness | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Ethambutol causes
A. Retro bulbar neuritis
B. Deafness
C. Red urine
D. Peripheral neuritis
| Retro bulbar neuritis |
acd00099-3c84-4338-b38f-0c4c38df9810 | AntiseraIs a material prepared in animalsPassive immunization was achieved by the administration of antisera or antitoxins prepared from horsesAdministration of antisera give rise to serum sickness and anaphylactic shock(Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th edition, pg no:112) | Pathology | All India exam | Antisera are prepared from
A. Guinea pig
B. Rabbit
C. Rat
D. Horse
| Horse |
a0856131-6e08-429a-93e8-dcb92030f20f | Ans. D: Cervical pap smear checking The levels of prevention: Primordial prevention is prevention of the emergence/development of the risk factors in countries/population in which they have not yet appeared. e.g. obesity and hypeension prevention Primary prevention methods are used before the person gets the disease. Primary prevention aims to prevent the disease from occurring. So primary prevention reduces both the incidence and prevalence of a disease. Encouraging people to protect themselves from the sun's ultraviolet rays is an example of primary prevention of skin cancer. Secondary prevention is used after the disease has occurred, but before the person notices that anything is wrong. A doctor checking for suspicious skin growths is an example of secondary prevention of skin cancer. The goal of secondary prevention is to find and treat disease early. In many cases, the disease can be cured. Secondary prevention can be defined as action which halts the progress of a disease at its incipient stage and prevents complications. The specific interventions are early diagnosis (e.g. screening tests, case finding programmes) and adequate treatment. Teiary prevention targets the person who already has symptoms of the disease The goals of teiary prevention are: Prevent damage and pain from the disease - Slow down the disease - Prevent the disease from causing other problems (These are called "complications.") - Give better care to people with the disease - Make people with the disease healthy again and able to do what they used to do Developing better treatments for melanoma is an example of teiary prevention. Examples include better surgeries, new medicines, etc. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is secondary level of prevention: March 2005
A. Prophylactic drug administaion
B. Admitting disabled child in special schools
C. Vaccination
D. Cervical pap smear checking
| Cervical pap smear checking |
93cf086e-88f0-4787-a348-79c1b868f7f0 | Perfusion pressure is arterial pressure minus venous pressure. | Physiology | null | Perfusion pressure is
A. Arterial pressure
B. Venous pressure
C. Arterial–venous pressure difference
D. Pressure in left ventricle
| Arterial–venous pressure difference |
935efc93-2251-4ee0-b71a-bd7e2c447c19 | Ans. a. Neuropsychology (Ref: www.wikipedia.org/Neuropsychology)A study comparing the behavioral and developmental changes in a normal brain with a damaged brain is Neuropsychology.'Clinical neuropsychology is the application of neuropsychological knowledge to the assessment, management, rehabilitation of the people who have suffered illness or injury (particularly to the brain), which has caused neurocognitive problems.'NeuropsychologyNeuropsychology studies the structure and function of the brain as they relate to specific psychological processes and behaviours.The term neuropsychology has been applied to lesion studies of brain in humans.Clinical neuropsychology is the application of neuropsychological knowledge to the assessment, management, rehabilitation of the people who have suffered illness or injury (particularly to the brain), which has caused neurocognitive problems. | Psychiatry | Cognitive Development | A study comparing the behavioral and developmental changes in a normal brain with a damaged brain is:
A. Neuropsychology
B. Neurodevelopmental psychology
C. Child psychology
D. Criminal psychology
| Neuropsychology |
b10e65c8-8ab8-4df7-9836-2b565266775b | Bleeding peptic ulcer MC indication for operation and principal cause of death in PUD patients The most significant hemorrhage occurs when duodenal or gastric ulcers penetrate into branches of the gastroduodenal aery or left gastric aery, respectively Incidence of peptic ulcer bleeding decreased over past decade, but Moality was stable for both gastric and duodenal ulcer bleeding, higher in patients of advanced age Cause of death: Multiple system organ failure (not the exanguinating hemorrhage) Treatment Irrigation with room temperature saline to lyse red cells in an effo to return clear fluid and to allow for the performance of endoscopy Figure of eight suture to Ligate the gastroduodenal aery. A 'U' stich is placed in the base to occlude pancreatic branches of the gastroduodenal aery Truncal vagotomy and pyroplasty is the most frequently used operation for bleeding duodenal ulcer Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1202-1203 | Surgery | G.I.T | Bleeding from peptic ulcer most commonly involve
A. Gastroduodenal aery
B. Left gastric aery
C. Splenic aery
D. Sho gastric aery
| Gastroduodenal aery |
371f286d-8379-498b-87ea-2ee56f2a3df0 | Answer is B (Chloasma): Patient has a characteristic 'brown' macule on cheek, with no history suggestive of any systemic involvement, with positive history of delivery of a baby suggesting pregnancy. | Medicine | null | A female developed brown macule on the cheek, forehead and nose after exposure to light following delivery of a baby, the diagnosis is
A. SLE
B. Chloasma
C. Photodermatitis
D. Acne rosacea
| Chloasma |
9be3cf83-0f3e-4d9b-b6d3-d0a21c94de49 | Fibrates: maximum capacity to lower serum triglyceride levels. Statins: Max. LDL lowering capacity ANTI-DYSLIPIDEMIC AGENTS Group Mechanism Drugs Special points Statins HMG CoA reductase inhibition Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin Max LDL lowering capacity Fibrates Stimulation of PPAR-alpha Clofibrate Fenofibrate Gemfibrozil Max TG lowering capacity Bile acid sequestrants Binds bile acids in GIT Cholestyramine Colestipol Cholesevalam Safe in pregnancy and children Ezetimibe Inhibit intestinal cholesterol absorption Ezetimibe Given with statins Nicotinic acid Inhibit lipase Niacin Max HDL increasing capacity | Pharmacology | Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia | Which of the following drugs have maximum capacity to lower serum triglyceride levels?
A. Fibrates
B. Statins
C. Niacin
D. Ezetimibe
| Fibrates |
e756791f-bb97-4080-a14a-e44151dfb28b | Perlecan is a large multidomine proteolycan that binds to and cross links many ECM components and cell surface molecules Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:8,9,10 | Physiology | General physiology | Which of the following is not a Sarcolemmal P proteins?
A. Sarcoglycan
B. Dystrophin
C. Dystroglycan
D. Perlecan
| Perlecan |
bb8a3ac8-133b-4d43-960c-bafbf985797e | Hydrocution or Immersion syndrome or Submersion inhibition: Death results from cardiac arrest due to vagal inhibition as a result of, Cold water stimulating the nerve endings of the surface of the body Water striking the epigastrium Cold water entering eardrums, nasal passages, and the pharynx and larynx which cause stimulation of nerve endings of the mucosa Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 27th edition, Page 324. | Forensic Medicine | null | An alcoholic was found to be dead by cardiac arrest due to hydrocution. Hydrocution is:
A. Electrocution in water
B. Dry drowning
C. Drowning in cold water
D. Postmoem immersion
| Drowning in cold water |
06516a95-23a9-4b53-bd31-4eea6e9ef274 | To flush the obliquely place screw head with the rest of the proximal cortex, countersink is made that acts as a receptacle for engaging the end of screw head. | Surgery | null | In lag screw technique, what is the function of counter-sink?
A. Assures appropriate receptacle for screw head
B. It is the hole made in the distal fragment that engages the screw threads
C. It is the hole made in the proximal segment that does not engage the screw threads
D. It is non functional
| Assures appropriate receptacle for screw head |
667f41c0-9c18-4576-82d9-3469aacaa066 | Volvulus refers to torsion of the bowel. It most commonly occurs in the sigmoid colon or caecum of constipated elderly adults who have redundant loops of colon on a long mesentery and are therefore at risk of the colon twisting around its mesenteric axis. Coffee bean sign is a radiologic feature of sigmoid volvulus which occur when two grossly distended loops of bowel are closely apposed their compressed medial walls forms a central cleft resembling o coffee bean. Other abdominal X ray features of volvulus are: Grossly distended inveed U shaped loop of sigmoid colon extending from the pelvis to the diaphragm with a curved inner colonic wall. RUQ pointing loop suggests sigmoid volvulus and LUQ pointing loop suggests cecal volvulus. Loss of haustral folds due to distention. Ref: Radiology at a Glance By Rajat Chowdhury, page 43. | Radiology | null | Coffee bean sign is a radiologic finding in which of the following abdominal condition?
A. Ileocaecal TB
B. Sigmoid volvulus
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Crohn's disease
| Sigmoid volvulus |
7de409bf-cd0a-429d-bd32-cc73478b5fe4 | Jejunum has long and sparse vasa recta as compared to ileum. Jejunum are thick walled and peritoneal windows are transparent as compared to ileum. Peyer patches are present in ileum which are absent in jejunum. Jejunum have 1 or 2 rows of aerial arcades whereas ileum have 4 to 5 aerial arcades Ileum have sho club shaped villi. Ileum have more fat in mesentry. | Anatomy | Small and Large intestine | WRONG about ileum as compared with jejunum is
A. Sho club shaped Villi
B. Long vasa recta
C. More lymphoid nodules
D. More fat in mesentery
| Long vasa recta |
0c9047e5-b926-442d-b636-60c2f4852de8 | Clathrin mediated endocytosis is responsible for the internalization of many receptors and the ligands bound to them--including, for example, nerve growth factor(NGF). Rafts and caveolae,are involved in cholesterol regulation and transcytosis. Ref:- Ganong, pg num:-46, 47 | Physiology | General physiology | Which of the following is involved in transpo of large molecules from cytoplasm to the cell nucleus?(2018)
A. Calthrin
B. Caveolin
C. Flotillin
D. Impoins
| Calthrin |
2c2fac42-cd92-43b1-b6aa-7ed8c9e3cdee | Purine overproduction and hyperuricemia in von Gierke disease (glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency) occurs secondary to enhanced generation of PRPP precursor, i.e. ribose-5-phosphate (a pentose).
In glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency, glucose-6-phosphate cannot be converted to glucose. Accumulated glucose-6-phosphate is then metabolized via HMP shunt, which in turn generates large amounts of ribose-5-phosphate, a precursor of PRPP. The increased synthesis of PRPP then enhances de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides. | Biochemistry | null | The cause of hyperuricemia and gout in glucose-6- phosphatase deficiency is
A. More formation of pentose
B. Decreased availability of glucose to tissues
C. Increased accumulation of sorbitol
D. Impaired degradation of free radicals
| More formation of pentose |
6b781930-2bde-424b-9658-fa0b73086482 | The Heimlich valve(flutter valve)is a small one-way valve used for chest drainage that empties into a flexible collection device & prevents return of gases or fluids into the pleural space.The heimlich valve is less than 13 cm long and facilitates patient ambulation. Reference:SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:1116. | Surgery | Cardio thoracic surgery | Heimlich valve is used for drainage of
A. Pneumothorax
B. Hemothorax
C. Emphyema
D. Malignant plural effusion
| Pneumothorax |
2e5ef67d-2a49-4c8a-ac19-ce68f946f3dc | The patient most likely has acute pancreatitis, which is commonly caused by either alcoholism or impaction of a small gallstone in the common bile duct. Acute pancreatitis causes the release of many digestive enzyme precursors, which are then conveed to the active form in the damaged tissues. These enzymes degrade the adipose tissue around the pancreatic lobules, producing enzymatic fat necrosis. As pa of this process, many free fatty acids are produced that can bind as soaps with extracellular calcium in chemical equilibrium with serum calcium. This will often cause a significant decrease in serum calcium levels. Caseous necrosis is seen in granulomata produced by infection with M. tuberculosis. Coagulative necrosis preserves the outlines of cells in affected tissue. This common type of necrosis is seen in the hea following an infarct. Gangrenous necrosis is massive necrosis associated with loss of vascular supply, and is generally accompanied by bacterial infection. Ref: Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 1. Cellular Pathology. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | Pathology | null | A 47 year old alcoholic presents with acute upper left abdominal pain with pain on palpation. The pain is referred to his back. Lab results reveal a low serum calcium level. His hypocalcemia probably reflects which of the following?
A. Caseous necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Enzymatic fat necrosis
D. Gangrenous necrosis
| Enzymatic fat necrosis |
e0c1998a-cf88-429b-bc8d-7561b4f6e7b6 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 103-106 bacilli In human volunteer experiments, the infective dose was found to be 103-106 bacilli. | Microbiology | null | Infective dose of salmonella typhi ?
A. 10 bacilli
B. 1000 bacilli
C. 103-106 bacilli
D. 1010 - 1012 bacilli
| 103-106 bacilli |
35bb356a-20a4-4965-a56b-e20cde619f47 | Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia can present with progressive dyspnoea,dry cough & fever.Chest X ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrate spreading out from hilar region.High resolution CT is more sensitive,showing typical 'ground-glass 'interstitial infiltrates.Pneumatocoeles can occur and may rupture,resulting in a pneumothorax.Treatment is with high dose co-trimoxazole,together with adjunctive steroids. Reference:Davidson's Medicine-22nd edition,page no:400. | Medicine | Respiratory system | Pneumactocele is commnly found in case of-
A. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
B. Staphylococal pneumonia
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. Pseudomonas pneumonia
| Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia |
a2c4aaef-8988-49d7-9982-5002c2d1bcc5 | The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor if it involves the extremity. Extremity rhabdomyosarcomas in adolescents and young adults usually have alveolar histologic characteristics and carry a worse prognosis. Other poor prognostic factors associated with it includes age less than 1 and more than 10 years, alveolar histology, unorable primary size, size greater than 5cm and higher clinical group. Ref: CURRENT Diagnosis and Treatment: Surgery, 13th Edition, Chapter 43; Radiation Oncology: Management Decisions By K. S. Clifford Chao, 3rd Edition, Page 755; Kelley's Essentials of Internal Medicine By H. David Humes, 2nd Edition, Page 445. | Surgery | null | The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor if the site of the tumour is:
A. Orbit
B. Extremity
C. Para testicular
D. Urinary bladder
| Extremity |
96658620-7945-4614-9dfb-8478fa34f5ed | Methotrexate. This drug is a well-established cause of hepatic fibrosis and cirrhosis. These complications are best recognized following long-term use of the agent in inflammatory disorders such as psoriasis and rheumatoid ahritis, although cases have also followed administration for neoplastic diseases. The risk of liver damage depends largely on the dose, duration, and timing of therapy. In prospective studies, up to 25% of patients receiving a cumulative dose of 1.5 to 2 grams over five years have developed fibrosis or cirrhosis. The risk appears to be lessened by weekly, as opposed to daily, administration of the drug, and exacerbated by concomitant obesity or alcohol abuse. Methotrexate-induced hepatotoxicity is often clinically silent and, even in advanced disease, can exhibit an indolent clinical course. Evidence of poal hypeension or liver failure can nonetheless develop in some cirrhotic cases and may lead to death or the necessity for liver transplantation. | Pathology | G.I.T | Peripoal fibrosis is caused by?
A. Methotrexate
B. Phenytoin
C. Thorotrast
D. Halothane
| Methotrexate |
03f3b3af-5600-4b63-bb89-ebb37f3c670b | Ans. B 2nd branchial archRef: Gray's Anatomy, 41st ed. pg. 449* The stylohyoid ligament is a fibrous cord extending from the tip of the styloid process to the lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. It gives attachment to the highest fibres of the middle pharyngeal constrictor and is intimately related to the lateral wall of the oropharynx. Below, it is overlapped by hyoglossus.* The ligament is derived from the cartilage of the second branchial arch and may be partially calcified. | Anatomy | Embryology | Stylohyoid ligament is derived from:
A. 1st branchial arch
B. 2nd branchial arch
C. 1st branchial pouch
D. 2nd branchial pouch
| 2nd branchial arch |
78b04e1c-2849-4607-af83-b843adfd8051 | Mucoepidermoid carcinomas are composed of variable mixtures of squamous cells, mucus-secreting cells, and intermediate cells.
"The low-grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma is composed of largely mucin-secreting cells, whereas in high-grade tumors, the epidermoid cells predominate."- Schwartz
They are the most common malignant tumors of the salivary glands.
Treatment
The primary t/t of all salivary malignancy is surgical excision:
for parotid malignancies-
Superficial parotidectomy with preservation of CN VII.
Total parotidectomy with nerve preservation if deep lobe is involved.
for other salivary gland -
Enbloc removal of the involved gland
Neck dissection for lymph nodes is done
clinically palpable nodes
for high grade malignancies
Radiation therapy is used postoperatively for specific indications
high grade histology
presence of extraglandular disease
perineural invasion
direct invasion of regional structure
regional metastasis | Surgery | null | Mucoepidermoid carcinoma arises form -
A. Myothelium
B. Epithelium
C. Acinus
D. Mucin secreting and epidermal cells
| Mucin secreting and epidermal cells |
4ad285a4-8a34-4664-87a0-582231d25207 | Fouchet's test : This test is also employed for the detection of bile pigments. Bile pigments are adsorbed on barium sulfate. Fouchet's reagents (containing ferric chloride in trichloroacetic acid) oxidizes bilirubin to biliverdin (green) and bilicyanin (blue).
Satyanarayana, Ed 3, Pg No 767 | Biochemistry | null | Positive Fouchet's test gives which color?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Violet
D. Yellow
| Green |
aa8c1910-0c90-4b86-a28d-5de352d73522 | As histidine titrates in the physiological pH range it remains stable. | Biochemistry | null | Most stable amino acid at the physiological pH is
A. Histidine
B. Lysine
C. Arginine
D. Glycine
| Histidine |
85009dea-7c23-479c-be32-30d77c7b7261 | Trolly track sign : The Central radiodense line on frontal radiographs is related to ossification of supraspinous and interspinous ligaments. In addition, there are two more lateral veical linear lines, which represent ossification of the apophyseal joint capsules. The three veical ossified lines together make up the trolley-track sign. Radiological features of Ankylosis spondylitis are : Sacroiliitis Enthesopathy Romanus lesions Bamboo spine Rugger Jersy spine Interveebral disc calcification Dagger sign Trolley track sign Squarring of veebrae. | Radiology | Skeletal system | Trolly tract sign is seen in -
A. Achondroplasia
B. Psoriatic ahritis
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis
| Ankylosing spondylitis |
a220597b-9872-4ad1-854e-072dec256907 | . Ans. a. TR Hepatomegaly with systolic pulsations (of the liver} and ascites are typically seen in tricuspid regurgitation.Tricuspid Regurgitation (TR)* The clinical features of TR result primarily from systemic venous congestion and reduction in cardiac output.Typical Physical Examination Findings in Tricuspid Regurgitation* Gross fluid retention:* Significant peripheral edema* Ascites* Pieural effusion* Hepatomegaly with a pulsatile liver (enlarged tender liver with systolic pulsations)* Positive hepatojugular reflux* Dilated jugular veins with prominent 'v' waves and rapid 'y' decent* Blowing holosystolic murmur along lower left sternal margin that increases with inspiration* Prominent RV pulsations (Parasternal heaves) over left parasternal region. | Medicine | Liver | Pulsatile liver and ascites is found in:
A. TR
B. Critical pulmonary stenosis
C. MR
D. MS
| TR |
1c02c6ee-c748-46eb-8150-0d3b4c45dc4d | Treatment includes- Antibiotics to treat infection Marsupialization of cystic swelling Adequate removal of its lining membrane Ref: Textbook of ENT, Dhingra; 6th edition; Pg no: 245 ref img | ENT | Miscellaneous ENT | Thornwaldt's abscess treatment does not include
A. Antibiotics
B. Marsupialization
C. Removal of lining
D. Antihistaminics
| Antihistaminics |
9aca4478-ac34-44db-9b55-0d9684eee925 | Ans. C i.e. Severe pneumonia In children below 2 months of age, presence of any of the following indicates severe disease: Fever (38 degree C or more) Convulsions Abnormally sleepy or difficult to wake Not feeding Tachypnea Altered sensorium etc. | Pediatrics | null | A 2 month old child has a respiratory rate of 45/ minute. He is not accepting feeds from last 4 days and shows sign of dehydration. Which type of pneumonia is this: March 2013 (c)
A. No pneumonia
B. Pneumonia
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Very severe pneumonia
| Severe pneumonia |
3da2257d-b5b4-4944-b05e-81b11d88f31f | Retinoblastoma is a neuroectodermal malignancy arising from embryonic retinal cells. It is the most common intraocular tumor in pediatric patients and causes 5% of cases of childhood blindness. Retinoblastoma is the prototype of hereditary cancers due to a mutation in the retinoblastoma gene (RB1), which is located on the long arm of chromosome 13 (13q14). Approximately 40% of retinoblastoma are inherited. Ref: Graham D.K., Quinones R.R., Keating A.K., Maloney K., Foreman N.K., Giller R.H., Greffe B.S. (2012). Chapter 31. Neoplastic Disease. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | Pediatrics | null | Most common inherited childhood tumor is:
A. Leukemia
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Wilms tumor
| Retinoblastoma |
c2f2617c-2ff4-4801-81e6-c58410398769 | Answer is B (8 - 14 translocation) Presence oft (8; 14) or one of its variants t (2; 8) or t (8; 22) can be confirmatory - Harrison 16th/ 652. Impoant translocation to be remembered | Medicine | null | In Burkitts lymphoma, translocation seen is chromosome
A. 12 - 14 translocation
B. 8 - 14 translocation
C. 4 - 8 translocation
D. 12 - 18 translocation
| 8 - 14 translocation |
1e82cc13-0a03-49b3-9c5e-065da0361363 | Ans. d. 85 (Ref: Reddy 33/e p290-297, 400-401, 411-414 28/e p423-426; Textbook on the Indian Penal Code by Krishna Deo Gaur 4/e p594; the-indian-penal-code-pdf-d74214920)The legal responsibilities of an intoxicated person are given under section 85 of IPC.Section 193 in the Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for giving false evidence.Section 193 Indian Penal CodeWhoever intentionally gives false evidence in any stage of a judicial proceeding, or fabricates false evidence for the purpose of being used in any stage of a judicial proceeding, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine, and whoever intentionally gives or fabricates false evidence in any other case, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.Important Criminal Procedure Codes (CrPC)CrPCDescription39Doctor is duty bound to provide information about enlisted offences to the policeQ53Examination of accused by medical practitioner at request of policeQ53AExamination of accused of rapeQ54Examination of arrested person by medical officer at request of arrested personQ61Format of summonsQ62Summons how servedQ70Form of warrant of arrest and durationQ174Police inquestQ176Magistrates inquestQ238-265Magistrates trialQ293Exception to oral evidenceQ327Open trial-closed room. In camera trial-rape casesQ416Postponement of capital sentence pregnant womanQImportant Indian Evidence Acts (IEA)IEADescription114ADoctrine of adverse inferenceQ (presume absence of consent)137Recording of evidenceQ139Cross-examination of a person called to produce a documentQ141Leading questionsQ152Question intending to insult or annoyQ159Refreshing memoryQ162Production of documentsQ SectionDeals with44 IPCDefinition of injury (any harm caused to a person in body, mind, reputation or property)53 IPCAn accused can be examined by a medical practitioner at the request of police, even without his consent and by use of forceQ84 IPCInsanity & criminal responsibilityQ85 IPCCriminal responsibility of a person incapable of judgment by reasons intoxication caused against his will191 IPCDefines perjury or hostile witnessQ193 IPCPunishment for perjuryQ197 IPCPunishment for doctors for submitting false medical certificates202 IPCIntentional omission to give information of offence by person bound to inform228A IPCDisclosure of identity of victim of certain offences under section 376 (rape) Q269 IPCNegligent act likely to spread infection or disease dangerous to lifeSectionDeals with270 IPCMalignant act likely to spread infection or disease dangerous to life299 IPCCulpable homicideQ300 IPCDefinition of murderQ302 IPCPunishment for murderQ304A IPCCausing death by negligence, punishment up to 2 years (medical negligence)304B IPCDowry deathQ, punishment 7 years to life imprisonment306 IPCAbetment of suicideQ307 IPCAttempt to murderQ306 IPCAbetment to commit culpable homicideQ312 IPCCausing illegal miscarriage with woman's consentQ313 IPCCausing illegal miscarriage without woman's consentQ314 IPCDeath of mother caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriageQ315 IPCAct done with intent to prevent child being born alive or to cause it to die after birthQ316 IPCCausing death of quick unborn child by act amounting to culpable homicideQ317 IPCExposure & abandonment of child under 12 years318 IPCConcealment of birth by secret disposal of dead body319 IPCDefinition of Hurt (whoever causes bodily pain, disease, or infirmity to any person is said to cause hurt)320 IPCGrevious hurtQ definition321 IPCVoluntarily causing hurtQ322 IPCVoluntarily causing Grevious hurtQ323 IPCPunishment for voluntarily causing hurt324 IPCVoluntarily causing hurt by dangerous weapons or means325 IPCPunishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt326 IPCVoluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means330 IPCVoluntarily causing hurt to extort confession or to compel restoration of property331 IPCVoluntarily causing grievous hurt to extort confession or to compel restoration of property351 IPCDeals with assaultQ354 IPCAssault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty375 IPCDefines rapeQ376 IPCPunishment of rapeQ377 IPCUnnatural sexual offencesQ497 IPCAdultery | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | The legal responsibilities of an intoxicated person is given under Section______ of IPC:
A. 82
B. 83
C. 84
D. 85
| 85 |
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