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d611f107-561b-46c6-b8a3-ea26dbf94c89 | Ans. A. C. tetani.Since, there is no further human to human transmission, tetanus is a dead end infection.Dead end infections in humans-Tetanus, Legionnaire's disease, Leptospirosis, Lyme's diseaseRabies, JE, West Nile fever, Equine encephalitis, KFDCysticercosis, Hydatid disease, Trichinellosis, Babesiosis | Microbiology | Bacteria | Which of the following causes a dead end infection?
A. C. tetani
B. V. cholerae
C. S. aureus
D. Hemophilus
| C. tetani |
1e279b6c-588d-4bc9-95b6-1f8d309e0389 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., White Phosphorus o Phossy jaw is caused by phosphorus poisoning. All phosphorus poisoning are caused by white (yellow) phosphorus (Red phosphorus is nontoxic).Phosphorus poisoningo Phosphorus is a protoplasmic poison affecting cellular oxidation and causing anoxic necorbiosis, classically affecting liver. It increases fat deposition and inhibits glycogen deposition in liver. It is used in fire works (Diwali poisoning) and as rat poison. Lethal dose is 60-120 mg.o Phosphorus occurs in two formsWhite/yellow phosphorus: It is white, and becomes yellow on exposure to air. It is translucent, waxy, luminous and crystalline cylinders. It has garlic like odor. It is insoluble in water and luminous in dark. Its fumes show phosphorescence.Red phosphorus : It is reddish brown, inert, odourless and tasteless. It is nontoxic (thus poisoning occurs only due to white phosphorus). It is put on the sides (striking surface) of match box (along with powdered galss).Acute poisoningo It has following stages :1st Stage <GI irritation): There is nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and garlic odor. This stage lasts for 8 hours to 3 days.2nd Stage (Asymptomatic): This stage lasts for 3 days.3rd Stage : There is liver and kidney damage due to absorbed phosphorus. Initially liver is enlarged due to acute fatty infiltration. Later liver shruks due to necrosis, i.e. acute yellow atrophy.Chronic poisoningo Toothache is the first symptom which is associated with loosening of teeth, necrosis of gums and osteomyelitis of jaw. Therefore chronic phosphorus poisoning is also know as phossy jaw (or glass jaw).Postmortem appearanceo There is garlic odor. Viscera and stool glow in dark (due to luminosity).o To preserve luminosity, viscera are preserved in saturated saline solution. Rectified spirit is not used as it causes loss ofluminosity. | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | Phossy jaw is caused by-
A. White phosphorus
B. Red Phosphorus
C. Arsenic
D. Antimony
| White phosphorus |
1dc227ae-ac70-4359-8d4b-5916ab9b5eb1 | Commonest stone seen in in kidney - Calcium oxalate Other types of kidney stones : Triple phosphate - Ca, NH4+ ,MgP04 Uric acid Cysteine stones | Pathology | Kidney disorders | The kidney stone whose development is seen most commonly is:-
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Triple phosphate
C. Uric acid
D. Cysteine
| Calcium oxalate |
c969a7ef-dec0-4f9a-afd9-77b69cdeeb8c | Familial combined hyperlipidemia has an incidence of 1/100. It is an autosomal dominant disorder and different affected family members may display different dyslipidemic phenotypes. Familial hypercholesterolemia (1/500) and familial defective Apo B (1/1000) are also common. The other two disorders (Apo C-II deficiency and lipoprotein lipase deficiency) are extremely rare. | Medicine | Endocrinology | A 25-year-old man requests cholesterol screening because of a family history of premature coronary artery disease (CAD). His lipid levels reveal an elevated total and LDL cholesterol. The high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and triglyceride values are normal. His physical examination is completely normal. Which of the following is the most common cause of genetic dyslipidemia?
A. familial combined hyperlipidemia
B. familial hypercholesterolemia
C. familial defective Apo B
D. Apo C-II deficiency
| familial combined hyperlipidemia |
a843da51-7ae7-464f-9c2b-3bb7efe762b0 | Labetalol is a commonly used a 1 and non-selective b-adrenergic blockerDose: 200-2400mg/day, orally in two to three divided dosesIn an emergency: 20mg IV, followed by 20-80mg every 20min to a maximum of 220mg. Avoid in patients with Asthma, congestive cardiac failure, Liver failure(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | Labetalol is an
A. Alpha 1 blocker
B. Alpha 2 blocker
C. Alpha 1 and selective beta 1 blocker
D. Alpha 1 and non-selective beta blocker
| Alpha 1 and non-selective beta blocker |
c866dee1-d931-48a6-8749-d3884e68fb72 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mylohyoid Submandibular glando This walnut sized gland lies belowr the mandible in the anterior part of digastric triangle. It is J-shaped and consists of a large superficial and a small deep parts, separated by mylohyoid muscle and continuous with each other around the posterior border of mylohyoid muscle.Superficial parto It is situated in the anterior part of digastric triangle. The gland is partially closed in a capsule formed by two layers of deep cervical fascia. It has three surfaces: (i) inferior, (ii) lateral, and (iii) medial.Inferior surface is covered by skin, platysma, cervical branch of facial nerve, deep fascia, facial vein and submandibular lymph nodes.Lateral surface is related to submandibular fossa (on mandible), medial pterygoid (insertion) and facial artery.Medial surface is related to mylohyoid, hyoglossus and styloglossus muscles.Deep parto It lies on the hyoglossus muscle deep to mylohoid. It is related above to lingual nerve and submandibular ganglion; and below to hypoglossal nerve. | Anatomy | Salivary Glands | Submandibular gland is divided into superficial and deep parts by -
A. Digastric
B. Geniohyoid
C. Mylohyoid
D. Stylohyoid
| Mylohyoid |
6aa5d556-3305-41bf-b989-db4563d4a91f | During pregnancy, electrocoagulation, cryotherapy, or CO2 laser therapy should be administered at approximately 32 weeks to avoid, on one hand, post-treatment necrosis, which may last as long as 4-6 weeks, and to prevent, on the other hand, recurrence if treated too early. Podophyllin, podofilox, and imiquimod should not be used during pregnancy. Also know: Treatment of Condyloma Acuminata: Applied by health care provider Bichloracetic acid or trichloroacetic acid, 50-80% solution Podophyllin 10-25% in tincture of benzoin Cryosurgery, electrosurgery, simple surgical excision, laser vaporization Applied by patient Podofilox 0.5% solution or gel Imiquimod 5% cream (topically active immune enhancer that stimulates production of interferon and other cytokines) Ref: Bornstein J. (2013). Chapter 39. Benign Disorders of the Vulva & Vagina. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Treatment of choice for genital was in pregnancy is:
A. Salicylic acid with lactic acid solution
B. Imiquimod
C. Podophyllotoxin
D. Cryotherapy
| Cryotherapy |
dcaa2d7b-0c25-4e12-b372-a40f48f351ec | Answer is A (Amiodarone) Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent jiff resuscitation in a patient with cardiac arrest. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent for resuscitation, In patients with VF/VT that does not respond to CPR, defibrillation, and vasopressor therapy. Amiodarone is the first-line antiarrhythmic agent given during cardiac arrest because it has been clinically demonstrated to improve the rate of ROSC (Return of Spontaneous Circulation) and hospital admission in adults with refractory VF/pulseless VT. Amiodarone should be considered when VF/VT is unresponsive to CPR, defibrillation, and vasopressor therapy. If Amiodarone is unavailable, Lidocaine may be considered, but in clinical studies Lidocaine has not been demonstrated to improve rates of ROSC and hospital admission compared with Amiodarone. Procainamide may be used for stable wide QRS Tachycardia but not for pulseless cardiac arrest and must be avoided in Torsades De Pointes. Magnesium sulphate should be considered only for Torsades de pointes associated with a long QT interval | Medicine | null | Which of the following is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent in a patient with cardiac arrest:
A. Amiadorone
B. Lidocaine
C. Procainamide
D. Atropine
| Amiadorone |
c0a15c33-0d57-467f-9c65-766a5fdc9317 | Hydrostatic test/ Raygat's test: Principle: Specific gravity of lung before respiration is 1.04-1.05 and it becomes 0.94-0.95 after respiration. This makes the respired lung to float. Procedure: Dissect out the fetal lungs & Put into a trough of water and observe. Liver is used as control Inference: If they sink--unrespired lung. If they float--remove them from water, cut into small pieces and then squeeze or compress firmly between sponges, and again put into water. If they sink--unrespired lung. If they float--respired lung. Explanation: Floatation observed for second time is because of residual air that remains in the lungs which cannot be squeezed out by pressing, if the fetus has breathed after bih. | Forensic Medicine | Infant deaths & child abuse | Raygat's test is based on:
A. Weight of lung
B. Specific gravity of lung
C. Consistency of lung
D. Volume of lungs
| Specific gravity of lung |
2c02e114-541a-4ec5-a4b5-3d14e042736b | Endothelial cell loss is a known phenomenon of endothelial keratoplasty (including DSAEK).
I am not sure about the answer as various studies have given different values at a different time (post-operatively).
First read following statements which are supporting my answer:-
"Current modifications of EK such as DSAEK have shown a significantly higher cell loss at just 6-12 months after DSAEK surgery".
–Corneal endothelial transplant
"Reports of endothelial cell loss have been very variable from as high as 50% at 6 months to 26% after 2 years in the Busin series. Other reports suggest that there is no difference between cell loss with a 40% loss at 1 year for both PLK and PK and a recent study comparing endothelial cell loss in historic PK Vs DSAEK or other PLK techniques showed no measurable difference".
–Cornea & External eye disease
"The 12-month cell loss for 2 diagnoses (Pseudophakic/aphakic corneal edema and Fush's dystrophy) was comparable, i.e. 41% and 37%.
–Internet
"One-year endothelial cell loss after DSAEK is 15 - 40% (average 27%)".
—XXIV Annual Meeting European Eye Bank Association
"There have been several publications showing endothelial cell loss to be in the range of 24-50% at 12-24 months post DSAEK".
Now read the statements, which have different values at different post-operative period:
"The 1, 3, and 5-year endothelial cell losses derived from the models after DSAEK were 56%, 66%, and 73%, respectively and after THPK were 24%, 50% and 64% respectively".
"The 5-year endothelial cell loss after DSEK compared favourably with that measured after penetrating Keratoplasty in the cornea donor study (53% Vs 70%)".
"At 1-year post DSAEK, Bahar et al. published 36% cell loss, Busin et al. reported 24% cell loss; Covert and Koening published 57% and Gorovoy et al. 40%. At 2 years, the rate of endothelial cell loss is between 41% (Price & Price) and 36% (Terry et al).
However, amongst the given options, option 'c' fits best in all the data mentioned above. | Ophthalmology | null | What is a percentage of endothelial cell loss during Descemet's stripping automated endothelial keratoplasty –
A. 0 – 5%
B. 10 – 20%
C. 30 – 40%
D. 50 – 60%
| 30 – 40% |
062fef8a-aafa-46ed-9dc5-4a4ab8392943 | NO is also called as Endothelium Derived Relaxing Factor (EDRF). NO (nitric oxide) is synthesized from arginine by enzyme NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) in the endothelial cells. It requires 5 cofactors:- NADPH FAD FMN Heme and Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4). The vasodilator - nitroglycerin also enters smooth muscle cells, where its metabolism also leads to the formation of NO. NO synthase :-There are three isoforms of NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) 1. nNOS - neuronal 2. iNOS- inducible 3. eNOS- endothelial EC no. 1 (oxido-reductase) Mono oxygenase (one oxygen is added in substrate) Usually belongs to EC no 4 but NO synthase is an exception. | Biochemistry | Classification and metabolism of amino acids | Nitric oxide is synthesized from which amino acid:
A. Arginine
B. Serine
C. Threonine
D. Lysine
| Arginine |
43af16ba-8587-45f1-a166-bc772e57066d | Lignocaine is used as 5% (heavy) for spinal anaesthesia. | Microbiology | All India exam | For spinal anesthesia, lignocaine is used as
A. 0.5 % solution
B. 1 % solution
C. 2 % solution
D. 5% solution
| 5% solution |
13b2ef45-5d34-434f-b222-e917e1921288 | B i.e. Adduction , internal rotation and flexion | Surgery | null | Post dislocation of hip leads to which attitude of the lower leg:
A. Adduction, external rotation and flexion
B. Adduction, internal rotation and flexion
C. Abduction, external rotation and flexion
D. Abduction, internal rotation and flexion
| Adduction, internal rotation and flexion |
2c41fd2e-8f64-46b3-9bb8-a33ee60b4a85 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ranitidine is 5 times more potent than cimetidine o Ranitidine has several desirable features compared to cimetidine:5 times more potent than cimetidine.No antiandrogenic action, does not increase prolactin secretion or spare estradiol from hepatic metabolism - no effect on male sexual function or gynaecomastia.Lesser permeability into brain.Less marked inhibition of hepatic metabolism of other drugs.Overall incidence of side - effects is lower. | Pharmacology | G.I.T | Difference between rantidine & cimetidine is -
A. Ranitidine is 5 times more potent than cimetidine
B. Cimetidine is 5 times more potent than ranitidine.
C. Ranitidine has androgenic action
D. Ranitidine more markedly inhibits hepatic metabolism
| Ranitidine is 5 times more potent than cimetidine |
85331ecd-bbaa-4892-8c55-74cd64e10b90 | Above image is of Multiload-375 -- Device is available in a sterilized sealed packet with an applicator. There is no introducer and no plunger. It has 375 mm2 surface area of copper wire wound around its veical stem. Replacement is every 5 years. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraceptives | Name the intrauterine contraceptive device:
A. CuT 200
B. Multiload 375
C. CuT 380A
D. LNG-IUS
| Multiload 375 |
37fe1e93-be97-41aa-837e-392ad0809b2d | Passive aggression is an immature defense mechanism where a person indirectly expresses anger towards others. | Psychiatry | null | A father forced his relictant son to bring a glass of water and the child dropped the glass on the way. This is an example of
A. Reaction formation
B. Denial
C. Passive aggression
D. Acting out
| Passive aggression |
d77edfcc-8984-42cc-97f2-682507eeb943 | (A) Exophthalmos # HORNER'S SYNDROME:> Enophthalmos, Ptosis, Miosis, & Ipsilateral loss of sweating (Anhydrosis)> Malignant pleural effusion often leads to dyspnea.> Pancoast's (or superior sulcus tumor) syndrome results from local extension of a tumor growing in the apex of the lung with involvement of the eighth cervical and first and second thoracic nerves, with shoulder pain that characteristically radiates in the ulnar distribution of the arm, often with radiologic destruction of the first and second ribs.> Often Horner's syndrome & Pancoast's syndrome coexist. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | NOT a feature of Horner's syndrome
A. Exophthalmos
B. Ptosis of upper eyelid
C. Miosis
D. Anhydrosis
| Exophthalmos |
1debc3e3-2d02-4055-b2e1-a49d8ea312b5 | Femoral vein lies lateral to sheath of femoral hernia.Femoral sheath - funnel shaped sleeve of fascia enclosing upper 3-4 cm of femoral vessels. The sheath is divided into three compaments by septa- Lateral compament - femoral aery and femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve Intermediate compament- femoral vein Medial compament - Also known as Femoral canal - Contains lymph node of Cloquet Femoral hernia - The femoral canal is an area of potential weakness in the abdominal wall through which abdominal contents may bulge out forming a femoral hernia. It is more common in females. So lateral to femoral canal lies femoral vein. | Anatomy | Lower limb 1 | Which of the following lies lateral to sheath of femoral hernia?
A. Femoral aery
B. lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
C. Femoral vein
D. Femoral nerve
| Femoral vein |
ab70d7e7-dac3-4527-be68-8eaff74a6fd7 | Ans. (b) 100mg iron + 500mcg folic acidRef: D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 241* Adult iron+folic acid tablet given in pregnancy: 1 tab/ day x 100 days* Kids iron+folic acid tablet given: 1 tab/day x 100 days per year- 0 to 5 years of age.Iron and Folic acid tablet content IronFolic acidAdult tab100mg500mcgKids tab (l/5th)20mg100mcg | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Diet in Pregnancy | Iron and folic acid supplement during pregnancy:
A. 500 mg iron +100 meg folic acid
B. 100 mg iron + 500 mcg folic acid
C. 100 mg iron +100 meg folic acid
D. 20 mg iron +100 meg folic acid
| 100 mg iron + 500 mcg folic acid |
fa625f89-2e09-42f4-80e4-bfbeb951fd70 | Under the Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme, amount of monthly pension is Rs. 200 for BPL persons aged between 18 to 59 years with multiple disabilities. Ref: Health policies and programmes in India, D.K. Taneja 11th edition page: 393 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Under the Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme, amount of monthly pension is:
A. Rs. 200
B. Rs. 450
C. Rs. 500
D. Rs. 600
| Rs. 200 |
d8c67c14-63a4-4fb2-b360-b301b0e803ab | Septate uterus is most common It causes about 25% of spontaneous first trimester aboions 6% second trimester aboions Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 72. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Congenital malformations | Recurrent aboion occurs in a woman, USG abdomen shows a non-echoic region in the central pa of the uterus. What is the probable diagnosis
A. Arcuate uterus
B. Septate uterus
C. Bicornuate uterus
D. Unicornuate uterus
| Septate uterus |
056c803e-5f6e-49c9-b17f-392735994496 | Ref: KD Tripathi, 7th ed. pg. 767* Rifampicin is considered as effective as isoniazid. This agent is active against slow and intermittently dividing bacterium (spurters).* If someone develops resistance to INH, they are most likely to develop resistance to rifampicin as well.* In MDR-TB, there is resistance to INH and rifampicin. | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | If somebody develops resistance to INH, patient will develop simultaneously resistance to which drug?
A. Streptomycin
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
| Rifampicin |
ac8446c1-742b-4dcd-ac1d-026bb92a2538 | Answer- A. Third nerve palsyCauses and associations ofexotropia (Divegent squint)Third nerve palsyCongenitalPrevious strabismus surgeryThyroidophthalmopathyIatrogenic trauma following retinal detachment surgery | Ophthalmology | null | Exotropia occurs due to
A. Third nerve palsy
B. Optic neuritis
C. Abducens injury
D. Papilloedema
| Third nerve palsy |
96621723-f722-4e8d-93a1-e62e0a39fed4 | Hemophilus ducreyi causes soft sore/chancroid. Chocolate agar withIsoVitale Xis used for its culture. Infectious causes of urethritis- Neisseria gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis Trichomonas vaginalis Mycoplasma genitalium Herpes simplex virus Adenovirus | Microbiology | NEET Jan 2020 | Urethritis in males is not caused by:
A. H. ducreyi
B. Trichomonas
C. Chlamydia
D. Gonococcus
| H. ducreyi |
94eb2c5c-47e3-498b-b844-6d662014c143 | ANSWER: (D) Synovial chondromatosisREF: The Journal of bone and joint surgery: British volume: Volume 71, Pages 549-912, http:// www.springerlink.com/content/17m54n357304205m/Snowstorm knee:Seen in Synovial chondromatosisTraumatic etiologyJoint effusionNumerous brilliant white rice-grain size free bodies in arthroscopy (not radiographically) | Orthopaedics | Synovial Chondromatosis | Snowstorm appearance of knee joint with multiple loose bodies is seen in?
A. chondromalacia patellae
B. Ewings sarcoma of knee joint
C. Fracture involving articular surface
D. Synovial chondromatosis
| Synovial chondromatosis |
24c528bb-2715-43d4-aa2c-e723e13eefe1 | Treatment of choice for metastasis is chemotherapy. | Ophthalmology | null | Treatment of metastatic disease in retinoblastoma is –
A. Chemotherapy
B. Enucleation
C. Radiotherapy
D. Cryo
| Chemotherapy |
52960709-acbb-403b-a468-8c74bfede83b | There are no absolute contraindications for ECT. Earlier, raised intracranial tension and space occupying lesions were considered as absolute contraindications, hence the best answer here is brain tumor. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | Absolute contraindication to ECT is:
A. Glaucoma
B. Brain tumor
C. Aoic aneurism
D. MI
| Brain tumor |
fbb3deb9-d186-4fca-a2f6-c683691a77b6 | Nitric acid is a powerful oxidising agent and reacts with organic matter to produce trinitrophenol, liberating nitrogen monoxide (xanthoproteic reaction). | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology - 1 | Xanthoproteic reaction is due to the formation of
A. Trinitrophenol
B. Mononitrophenol
C. Nitric acid
D. Pyrocathechol
| Trinitrophenol |
336d6710-2c3b-464c-b745-316ef660b7d4 | Paial pressure of CO2 in expired air (PE CO2) - 32 mm Hg Carbon-di-oxide: Paial pressure of CO2 in inspired air (Pi CO2) 0.3 mm Hg Paial pressure of CO2 in alveolar blood (PA CO2) 40 mm Hg Paial pressure of CO2 in expired air (PE CO2) 32 mm Hg. | Physiology | null | What is the paial pressure for carbon-di-oxide in the expired air?
A. 0.3 mm Hg
B. 158 mm Hg
C. 40 mm Hg
D. 32 mm Hg
| 32 mm Hg |
b00b9bcf-ea36-4896-b68a-43c968c0a12a | WOOD'S LAMP Hand held device used to diagnose various dermatological conditions. It is a mercury vapour long wave,ultraviolet lamp with an inbuilt wood's filter made of barium silicate with 9% nickel oxide. Opaque to all wavelengths except those between 320 nm and 400 nm with a peak at 365 nm.Flourescence occurs when wood's light is absorbed and radiation of longer wavelengths is emitted.Examination done in dark room. Tinea capitis-greenish fluorescence extent of pigmentation. Epidermal/dermal bacterial infection- pseudomonas infection yellowish-greeen fluorescence diagnosis of prophyria- reddish fluorescence in urine iadvl textbook of dermatology page 109 | Dental | miscellaneous | Wood&;s lamp is made up of -
A. 9% nickel oxide with 6% BuSO4
B. 9% nickel oxide with 9% BuSO4
C. % nickel oxide with 6% BuSO4
D. 9% nickel oxide with barium silicate
| 9% nickel oxide with barium silicate |
560baa5c-aee5-47ee-b496-e73dbf07061c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ziehl Neelsen Acid fast stainingo After staining with aniline dye, acid fast organisms resist decolourisation with acids,o Method most commonly used is modified Ziehl Neelsen.Smear stained by carbolfuschin|Decolourization by 20% sulphuric acid|Counterstaining by methylene blueAcid fast organismsNon acid fast organismsRetain fiischin (red colour)Take colour of methylene blue (blue colour)Acid fastness depends uponMycolic acid Integrity of cell wall | Microbiology | Culture media and method | Method used for acid fast staining -
A. Robertson's method
B. Ziehl Neelsen
C. Silver imprignation method
D. Dark ground illumination
| Ziehl Neelsen |
865e224d-6ed4-466d-a3f1-3782175cb1d7 | Angiogenesis
o Blood vessels formation in adults is known as angiogenesis or neovascularization. It can occur by two ways:-
1. Angiogenesis from pre-existing blood vessels
The major steps in this process are
i. Vasodilatation by NO, and VEGF-induced increased permeability of the pre-existing vessel.
ii. Proteolytic degradation of the basement membrane by metalloproteinases (MMPs) and disruption of cell-to-cell contact between endothelial cells by plasminogen activator.
iii. Migration of endothelial cells towards angiogenic stimulus.
iv. Proliferation of endothelial cells, just behind the leading front of migrating cells.
v. Maturation of endothelial cells.
vi. Recruitment of periendothelial cells (pericytes and vascular smooth muscle cells) to form the mature cells.
2. Angiogenesis from endothelial precursor cells (EPCs)
EPCs can be recruited from the bone marrow into tissues to initiate angiogenesis. Growth factors involved in the process of angiogenesis
o VEGF is the most important growth factor in adult tissues undergoing angiogenesis.
o The most important receptor for VEGF is VEGFR-2, a tyrosine kinase receptor.
o VEGF induces the migration of EPCs in the bone marrow, and enhances the proliferation and differentiation of these cells at sites of angiogenesis.
o FGF 2 can also stimulate endothelial cell proliferation, differentiation and migration.
o Newly formed vessels are fragile and need to become stabilized, which requires the recruitment
of pericytes and smooth muscle cells (peri-endothelial cells). Angiopoietin 1 and 2 (Ang 1 & 2), PDGF and TGF-fl participate in stabilization process.
Remember
o VEGF transcription is regulated by the transcription factor HIF, which is induced by hypoxia. | Pathology | null | During angiogenesis recruitment of pericytes and peri-endothelial cells is due to -
A. VEGF&PDGF
B. TGF, VEFG& PDGF
C. VEGF, IL-2, IL-6
D. Angiopoietins, TGF & PDGF
| Angiopoietins, TGF & PDGF |
582e2447-317b-4a3d-b1fb-d78b8996026c | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 384)*Basal cell carcinoma is the commonest malignant tumor to the lids (90%) usually seen in elderly people *It is locally malignant and involves most commonly lower lid (50%) followed by medial canthus (25%), upper lid (10-15%) and outer canthus"Basal cell carcinoma is seen in the lower lid near the inner canthus usually | Ophthalmology | Ocular motility and squint | Basal cell carcinoma is seen in most commonly in which pa of the eyelid?
A. Upper medial
B. Upper lateral
C. Lower medial
D. Lower lateral
| Lower medial |
1ea9eb09-a49d-4b71-8574-b62ffc2c7d2e | - Field instrument to measure bih weight is Salter's Spring balance (kind of sling balance on which child is hung) - Average bih weight = 2.8kg - According to WHO, Low bih weight = < 2.5kg Very Low bih weight = < 1.5 Kg Extremely Low bih weight = < 1 Kg - Bih weight Doubles by 5 months Triples by 12 months Quadruples by 2yrs | Social & Preventive Medicine | Paediatric Care in RCH: BW, BL, PEM, Breast Feeding | Field instrument used to measure bih weight:-
A. Salter's spring balance
B. Electronic weighing scale
C. Mass produced balance scale
D. Roberval balance
| Salter's spring balance |
5be2b87e-b926-442e-849c-61f186610c4a | Leptospirosis
Leptospira organisms are found in damp environments and affect people working there, like
Stagnant water (sewer workers)
Wet soil (agricultural workers)
Mine workers
Infected person can develop mild febrile illness, headache to jaundice and renal failure. Human acts as an end host of these organisms. | Microbiology | null | In a drive for swachta abhiyaan, few group of young social activist markers cleaned sewers, after that they complain of fever, headaches. On examination, a non-catalase, non-glucose fermenting organism is isolated.
Which of the following is most likely responsible:
A. Pseudomonas
B. Leptospira
C. Chlamydia
D. Actinomyces
| Leptospira |
1acbff0e-52ea-4563-976a-f34b6e7bcd7e | 90% of couple who are cohabiting for at least one year with out contraception will have a conception. This is on monthly conception rates of 20 - 25 % in normal young couples attempting pregnancy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Infeility (Eggs'plantation!) | In the perspective of the busy life schedule in the modern society, the accepted minimum period of sexual cohabitation resulting in no offspring for a couple to be declared infeile is:
A. One year
B. One and a half-year
C. Two years
D. Three year
| One year |
c3e6d311-90e8-417d-86c1-34c36879ca92 | Immunoglobulins constitute 20 to 25% of total serum proteins. Based on physiochemical and antigenic differences, five classes of immunoglobulins have been recognized: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE.(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p93) | Anatomy | All India exam | What is the percentage of immunoglobulins present in proteins?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
| 20% |
c9ed49a3-a6a1-4b0a-a9c6-817ec562ac34 | Signs and Symptoms Most children with hookworm infections have no signs or symptoms. However, especially when the infection is long term, it can cause iron deficiency and anemia (low red blood cells) because of bleeding from the bowel wall where the worm is attached. Other symptoms include mild diarrhea and stomach cramps. An itchy, red skin rash (ground itch) can appear on the feet where the larvae entered the body. Lung inflammation with cough, wheezing, and fever rarely occur while the larvae migrate through the lungs. Several weeks after exposure to this hookworm, a loss of appetite and weight loss may occur. Chronic infections can lead to poor nutrition. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Genetic and genetic disorders | A child with 3 years age presents with weakness with Hb level <5 gm/100 ml. History of joint swelling and bleeding spot were present. What would be causative organism?
A. Hook worm
B. Round worm
C. Whip worm
D. Pin worm
| Hook worm |
4130a05e-eb37-434b-bedb-93fdbe6d68d1 | Tricyclic antidepressants and SSRIs are both effective treatments for depression, but their side-effect profiles are different. Tricyclics can promote weight gain while weight loss is more common with SSRIs. | Medicine | Drugs | For the following side effects, select the most likely medication to cause them.Disinterest in food with protein/calorie malnutrition.
A. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B. mineral oil
C. diuretics
D. INH
| selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) |
829b3331-e0cb-4fdd-b2a1-a37c2bcdb44b | (A) (Where aortic arch Crosses) (282-BDC-16(tm))CONSTRICTIONSNormally the oesophagus shows 4 constrictions at the following levels1. At its beginning 15 cm/6 inch form the incisor teeth where it is crossed by cricopharyngeus muscles2. Where it is crossed by the aortic arch, 22,5cm /19 inch from the incisor teeth3. Where it is crossed by the left bronchus, 27.5cm /11 inch from the incisor teeth4. Where it pierces the diaphragm 37.5 cm/15 inch from the incisor teethOESOPHAGUS* About 25 cm long (10 inch)* The pharyngo-oesophageal junction is the commoned part of the alimentary canal except for the vermiform appendix* It passes through the diaphragm at the level of the 10th thoracic vertebra to join the stomachImportant features of esophagus* Epithelium is stralified squamous non * keratinized epithelium* Muscularis mucosa contains only longitudinal layer and no circular layer* Mucosa is the toughest and strongest layer *** Serosa is absent* Muscmaris extern is made up skeletal muscle fibre only in the upper ihird, smooth muscle only in the lower third and both types of muscle fibres in middle third. At uppen end the longitudinal coat split into two bundles and the triangular interval between them is called Laimer's triangle which is filled with circular muscle fibers* Extent of esophagus is -C6 -T i j* Trachea bifurcates at carina, at the level of lower border of T4 or T4-T5 disc spaces* Oesophageal opening transmits1. Oesophagus2. Gastric or vagus nerve3. Oesophageal branches of the left gastric artery. With some oesophageal veins* Arterial supply- Upper third -inferior thyroid artery **- Middle third - Oesophageal branches of the ** descending thoracic aorta- Lower third - Left gastric artery ** | Anatomy | Thorax | Second constriction of oesophagus lies at the level of
A. Where aortic arch crosses
B. Bronchi
C. Pharynx
D. Where esophagus pierces the diaphragm
| Where aortic arch crosses |
7b2dfe85-f51c-48c2-b03d-da9e2d0402df | Maximum magnitude is determined by equilibrium potential of Na+ ion. | Physiology | null | Magnitude of action potential is determined by:
A. Na+
B. Mg++
C. K++
D. Ca++
| Na+ |
8eb47f53-07d8-4291-a3d3-8cda69a612af | Newly secreted or "nascent" chylomicrons and ApoB-48 apolipoprotein. HDL acts as a reservoir of lipoproteins and provide ApoE and ApoC to nascent chylomicrons to form mature chylomicrons. | Biochemistry | Lipoproteins | The source of apo-E and apo C-II for the chylomicrons is:
A. VLDL
B. IDL
C. LDL
D. HDL
| HDL |
e18bd66d-8c4d-4358-89b0-00301f0a700e | Answer- D. 25 timesThe gravity of this problem is highlighted by the finding that individual with DM are 25 times more likely to become legally blind than individuals without DM. | Medicine | null | Chances of blindness in diabetic patient as compared to non-diabetic patient is ?
A. 5 times
B. 10 times
C. 15 times
D. 25 times
| 25 times |
929b389f-e394-4d2f-9d48-91db03b96b06 | Functions of the Thalamus:
The main functions of the thalamus are as follows:
It is a sensory integration and relay station of all the sensory pathways except for the olfactory pathway which is projected directly to the cerebral cortex without being relayed in the thalamus.
The impulses from taste buds of tongue reach the cerebral cortex via this relay station.
It is capable of recognition, though poorly, of pain, thermal and some tactile sensations at its own level | Anatomy | null | Impulses generated in the taste buds of the tongue reach the cerebral cortex via the:
A. Thalamus
B. Internal capsule
C. Cervical spinal nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve
| Thalamus |
fc439d5e-6a9b-462d-8527-232aec8fcbc5 | The commonest sinus involved was ethmoidal in children and mixed sinus pathology in adults. The majority of patients responded to medical treatment. CONCLUSION: Orbital complications of sinusitis are commoner in children than adults and have orable prognosis. | ENT | null | Sinusitis in children is commoner in which sinus:
A. Frontal
B. Maxillary
C. Ethmoid
D. Sphenoid
| Ethmoid |
b8a1b4f3-ca06-47fa-b855-c85bae70ea96 | when virus infect a cell viral RNA is transcribed by enzyme first into ssDNA then to dsDNA REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.571 | Microbiology | Virology | What is the sequence which a retrovirus follows on entering a host cell -
A. RNA-DNA-RNA
B. RNA-DNA
C. DNA-RNA
D. DNA-RNA-DNA
| RNA-DNA-RNA |
3f55b982-8941-49d5-bd19-ef0fd3cc1f91 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oral deferiprone Desferrioxamine is poorly absorbed from GIT and hence not recommended for oral administration, although it continues to be the chelating agent of choice for parentral administration. o Deferiprone is a recently introduced orally active iron chelating agent meant to be used as an alternative to injected desferrioxamine. o Oral Deferiprone is prefered over oral desferrioxamine. Remember o For acute iron poisoning desferioxamine is the DOC. o For chronic iron overload, e.g. thalassemia, oral deferipone is the DOC. | Pharmacology | null | The most appropriate drug used for chelation therapy in beta thalassemia major is -
A. Oral desderrioxamine
B. Oral deferiprone
C. Intramuscular EDTA
D. Oral Succimer
| Oral deferiprone |
db01c4bb-8f25-44df-ba91-db4327751497 | Zinc supplementation with ORS therapy reduce Duration of diarrhea Severity of acute and persistent diarrhea Volume of diarrhea | Social & Preventive Medicine | Miscellaneous | ORS plus Zinc
A. Reduces infection
B. Antispasmodic
C. Reduces duration of diarrhea
D. Enhance sodium absorption
| Reduces duration of diarrhea |
63d27494-2c11-4570-8d16-ec5141691843 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Spiramycin * Classic congenital toxoplasmosis is characterized by the tetrad described by Sabin in 1942: chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcification and convulsion.Signs such as intracranial calcification, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, and severe intrauterine growth restriction strongly suggest in utero infection in the presence of documented maternal infection.* Maternal-fetal transmission occurs between 1 and 4 months following placental colonization by tachyzoites* There are 2 goals of drug therapy for toxoplasmosis, depending on whether or not fetal infection has occurred. If maternal infection has occurred but the fetus is not infected, Spiramycin is used for fetal prophylaxis (to prevent spread of organisms across the placenta from mother to fetus). Spiramycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is concentrated in but does not readily cross the placenta, and therefore is not reliable for treatment of fetal infection. Use is aimed at preventing vertical transmission of the parasite to the fetus, and it is indicated only before fetal infection* It is given at a dose of 1 g (3 million U) orally every 8 hours.lt will be prescribed for the duration of the pregnancy if the amniotic fluid polymerase chain reaction is reported negative for T. gondii.* If fetal infection has been confirmed or is highly suspected, pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine are used for treatment. Pyrimethamine is a folic acid antagonist that acts synergistically with sulfonamides. This drug should not be used in the first trimester because it is potentially teratogenic. It produces a reversible, dose related depression of the bone marrow and therefore must be combined with folinic acid. The combination of pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine results in a significant decrease in disease severity. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Drug of choice for preventing Fetal Toxoplasmosis infection during pregnancy is -
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Sulfadiazine
C. Spiramycin
D. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine
| Spiramycin |
decdf4d8-8556-4421-80e0-acd8c8c1baf5 | Ans. d. Nitrobenzene (Ref: Reddy 33/e p507; Industrial Hygiene and Toxicology. General Principles/p 174)Shoe polish like smell is seen in Nitrobenzene."Nitrobenzene is an oily yellow to yellow-brown liquid that smells like bitter almonds or shoe polish. Nitrobenzene dissolves only slightly in water and easily in other chemicals. It is man-made. The most common exposure is at workplaces that use nitrobenzene to produce dyes, drugs, pesticides or some types of rubber. "Characteristic Odours produced by ToxinsOdourToxinsAcrid (Pear smell)* ParaldehydeQ, Chloral hydrateQBitter almonds* CyanideQBurnt rope* Marijuana (Cannabis)QDisinfectant* Phenol (Carbolic acid), CreosoteGarlic* PhosphorusQ, Tellurium, Thallium* Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)Fish or raw liver (Musty)* Zinc phosphideQ. Aluminum phosphideQKerosene like* OrganophosphateMint* Methylsalicylate (Oil of Wintergreen), MentholMothballs* Naphthalene, Camphor, p-dichlorobenzenePepper* o-chlorobenzylidene malonitrile (Tear gas)Rotten eggs* Hydrogen sulphideQ, Carbon disulphideQ* Mercaptans DisulfiramQ, N -acetyIcysteineQShoe polish* NitrobenzeneVinegar* Acetic acidQ; Hydrofluoric acid | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | Shoe polish like smell is seen in:
A. Mercaptans
B. Lacquer
C. Paraldehyde
D. Nitrobenzene
| Nitrobenzene |
1f068645-17fb-4fa6-8aa5-95d0b07875f4 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 20 gm GroupageProtein/davInfant0-6 month6-12 month2.05/kg1.65,'TegChildren1-3 year4-6 year7-9 year10-12 year13-15 gm22 gm30 gm41 gm54 gm65-70 gm | Pediatrics | Nutritional Requirements | Protein requirement for 2 year old child (per day)-
A. 10 gm
B. 15 gm
C. 20 gm
D. 25 gm
| 20 gm |
160f1ef7-451b-4362-bd71-97c72fcc8140 | Transposition of great vessels (TGA) is defined as aoa arising from the right ventricle and pulmonary aery from the left ventricle. In patients with TGA, the oxygenated pulmonary venous blood recirculates in the lungs whereas the systemic venous blood recirculates in the systemic circulation. The pulmonary aery saturation is thus always higher than the aoic saturation. Survival depends on the mixing available between the two circulations. Patients of complete TGA with intact ventricular septum are cyanotic at bih. Since the interatrial communication results in poor mixing, the neonates present with rapid breathing and congestive failure secondary to hypoxemia within the first week of life. Physical examination shows severe cyanosis, congestive failure, normal first sound, single second sound and an insignificant grade one to two ejection systolic murmur. The electrocardiogram shows right axis detion and right ventricular hyperophy. The thoracic roentgenogram shows cardiomegaly with a narrow base and plethoric lung fields. The cardiac silhouette can have an "egg on side" appearance: The right upper lung fields appear more plethoric than other areas. The thymic shadow is often absent. Patients of TGA with VSD have increased pulmonary blood flow; mixing at the ventricular level determines the severity of cyanosis. They develop congestive failure around 4-10 weeks of age. Physical findings consist of cyanosis, cardiomegaly, congestive failure, normal first sound, single or normally split second sound and grade II-IV ejection systolic murmur. Apical third sound gallop or a mid-diastolic rumble may be present. Electrocardiogram shows right axis detion with biventricular, right ventricular or left ventricular hyperophy. Chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly, plethoric lung fields and features of pulmonary venous hypeension. The aerial switch operation is now established as the treatment of choice for TGA, Prostaglandin El can help reduce cyanosis in selected cases by keeping the PDA open. Interim palliation can be accomplished through a balloon atrial septostomy. Reference: Essential Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; Page no: 425 | Pediatrics | C.V.S | The cardiac silhouette can have an "egg on side" appearance in
A. VSD
B. PDA
C. TOF
D. Transposition of Great Vessels
| Transposition of Great Vessels |
dce5e747-b0ce-4ffc-9aee-0594fb49832b | *Various immunodiffusion test *Single diffusion in one dimension - Oudin procedure *Double diffusion in one dimension - Oakley fulthorpe procedure *Single diffusion in two dimensions - Radial immunodiffusion *Double diffusion in two dimensions - Ouchterlony procedure | Microbiology | Immunology | Oakley-Fulthorpe procedure is:
A. Single diffusion in one dimension
B. Double diffusion in one dimension
C. Single diffusion in two dimensions
D. Double diffusion in two dimensions
| Double diffusion in one dimension |
f90c434f-e5b9-4ea7-9428-545613b30160 | The Spanish fly (Cantharis vesicatoria, blister beetle) is 2 x 0.6 cm in dimensions. Active principle: Cantharidin.Action: It is locally irritant and nephrotoxic agent Priapism in males and aboion in pregnant females may occur. The patient becomes prostrated with convulsions, and coma preceding death. TreatmentGastric lavage, demulcents (but not fat) and symptomatic treatment. Ref: Krishnan vij Textbook of Forensic Medicine ; 5th ed; Page no: 486 | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | Priapism is seen in
A. Rat poisoning
B. Arsenic poisoning
C. Sildenafil poisoning
D. Cantharide poisoning
| Cantharide poisoning |
5688761c-3708-47e0-b31f-7dde6725f9cc | mRNA (most likely) Gene duplications are impoant forces of genome evolution which change genome size and lead to the evolution of new gene functions. Gene duplication (or chromosomal duplication or gene amplification) is any duplication of a region of DNA that contains a gene; it may occur as an error inhomologous recombination, a retrotransposition event, or duplication of an entire chromosome. The second copy of the gene is often free from selective pressure-- that is, mutations of it have no deleterious effects to its host organism. Thus it accumulates mutations faster than a functional single-copy gene, over generations of organisms. This freedom from consequences allows for the mutation of novel genes that could potentially increase the fitness of the organism or code for a new function. The two genes that exist after a gene duplication event are called paralogs and usually code for proteins with a similar function and/or structure. By contrast, ohologous genes are ones which code for proteins with similar functions but exist in different species | Biochemistry | null | Gene duplication plays an impoant role in the evolution of aEUR'
A. >m Rna
B. >r Rna
C. >t Rna
D. >hn Rna
| >m Rna |
b7f8aa21-0452-4046-9aa2-564858bcc8ac | Amyloidosis of the spleen may be inapparent grossly or may cause moderate to marked splenomegaly (up to 800 g). Two patterns of deposition is seen:- The deposits limited to the splenic follicles, producing tapioca-like granules on gross inspection, designated sago spleen. The deposits involves the red pulp,Fusion of the early deposits gives rise to large, maplike areas of amyloidosis, creating what has been designated lardaceous spleen. | Pathology | Amyloidosis | Lardaceous spleen is due to deposition of amyloid in:
A. Sinusoids of red pulp
B. White pulp
C. Pencillary aery
D. Splenic trabeculae
| Sinusoids of red pulp |
fda98ccd-14a1-443b-af07-6b913c213125 | Wide pulse pressure is when SBP increases by more than 50%. It is seen in:
Aortic regurgitation
PDA
Anemia
Beri beri
Hyperthyroidism
Fever
Complete heart block
AV shunts | Medicine | null | Wide pulse pressure is seen in
A. Beri beri
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Diarrhea
D. Aortic stenosis
| Beri beri |
609e8a20-afff-498a-ba3c-628539f52f87 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Coxsackie virus . It is necessary to employ suckling mice for the isolation of coxsackie viruses. . Inoculation is usually made by intracerebral, subcutaneous and intraperitoneal route. . Adult mice are not susceptible. | Microbiology | null | The following virus can be grown only in suckling mice-
A. Coxsackie virus
B. Rhinovirus
C. Echovirus
D. Poliovirus
| Coxsackie virus |
de407aa5-cffe-4942-b3e0-29f4fe42d610 | Introduction. A major symptom of asthma is an excessive contraction of airway smooth muscle cells (SMCs) which results in airway hyper-reactivity. To allete this acute and chronic airway constriction, b-adrenergic agonists, that relax SMCs, are commonly administered Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:331,332,333 | Physiology | Respiratory system | Which of the following relaxes bronchial smooth muscles?
A. Cold air
B. Leukotriene
C. Ach
D. VIP
| VIP |
6f86c247-7bbf-466e-a661-d1cb8166c428 | The US Food and Drug Administration (USFDA)-approved effective life is only 1 year. The contraceptive effectiveness of the progestase is similar to that of Cu IUDs; it reduces menstrual loss but has to be replaced every year. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraceptives | Progestase has to be replaced after :
A. 1 year
B. 5 years
C. 3 years
D. 6 months
| 1 year |
d774c3c1-1b99-4ab0-a11a-2bd0d7e324dd | Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 146 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of lipid | Cholesterol is a(an)
A. Ester
B. Phospholipid
C. Sterol
D. Lipoprotein
| Sterol |
2c44b9bc-cd20-4d45-8316-ffa96090d427 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Veebrae Metastasis Metastatic bone disease is the commonest malignancy of bones and is much more common than primary bone tumors. The commonest sites for bone metastases are veebrae (most common), pelvis, the proximal half of the femur and the humerus. Extremities distal to elbow and knee are least commonly involved sites. Spread is usually the blood stream; occasionally, visceral tumors spread directly into adjacent bones e.g., the pelvis and ribs. Ceain tumors are known to be common sources of bone metastasis. The following primary tumors are the most common to metastasize in the bone; breast, prostate, lung, thyroid, kidney, and gastrointestinal tract. The commonest source of metastatic bone disease is carcinoma of the breast. In males most common source is prostate carcinoma. Bladder and uterine carcinomas are less common sources. In children, skeletal metastases originate from neuroblastoma, Ewing's sarcoma, and osteosarcoma. | Surgery | null | Most common site of metastasis in skeleton ?
A. Femur
B. Tibia
C. Veebrae
D. Skull
| Veebrae |
17708270-9c5f-4627-b93e-4c208cd16d1f | Atrial myxoma is the most common benign cardiac tumor. It usually presents with symptoms of valvular obstruction (mural or tricuspid valve). It is attached by a pedicle to the fossa ovalis of the left atrial septum. It is treated by resection. | Surgery | Thorax And Mediastinum | A 60-year-old woman, Sridevi presents with a murmur suggestive of mitral stenosis and an echocardiography confirmed a mass attached to the fossa ovalis of the left atrial septum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cardiac myxoma
B. Endocarditis
C. Lymphoma
D. Metastatic cancer to the hea
| Cardiac myxoma |
b61806f0-89b9-401c-ace3-632027592cd8 | Nitrates produce headache because of vasodilatation of meningeal vessels. Ref katzung 12th ed. | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Headache is commonly seen with which anti-anginal drug?
A. Beta blockers
B. Nitrates
C. Trimetazidine
D. Potassium channel openers
| Nitrates |
d036148a-7bdb-4cf6-ad39-be4dca693310 | Polymyxin 8 and Colistin Polymyxin and colistin were obtained in the late 1940s from Bacillus polymyxa and B. colistinus respectively. They are active against gramnegative bacteria only; all except Proteus, Serratia and Neisseria are inhibited. Both have very similar range of activity, but colistin is more potent on Pseudomonas, Salmonella and Shigella. Mechanism of action They are rapidly acting bactericidal agents; have a detergent-like action on the cell membrane. They have high affinity for phospholipids: the peptide molecules (or their aggregates) orient between the phospholipid and protein films in gram-negative bacterial cell membrane causing membrane distoion or pseudopore formation. As a result ions, amino acids, etc. leak out. Sensitive bacteria take up more of the antibiotic. They may also inactivate the bacterial endotoxin. They exhibit synergism with many other AMAs by improving their penetration into the bacterial cell. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:734 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Which of the following drugs is effective against pseudomonas infection?
A. Ampicillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Colistin
D. Cefixime
| Colistin |
8b9ffacd-f864-45de-b835-f6746007a55a | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chimeric antibody against TNF alpha | Pharmacology | null | Infliximab ?
A. CD 20 antagonist
B. IL6 antagonist
C. Chimeric antibody against TNF alpha
D. Chimeric antibody against Her2-neu
| Chimeric antibody against TNF alpha |
4ff035e3-f116-4b92-b214-d6579ee9988b | Methyldopa was primarily used in the past but is now used widely for pregnancy induced hypeension. Refer katzung 11e p173 | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Alpha methyldopa primarily used for
A. Pregnancy induced hypeension
B. Renovascular hypeension
C. First line agent in hypeension
D. Refractory hypeension
| Pregnancy induced hypeension |
2f448829-2433-4861-ac84-0533bf524c62 | Ans: (b) 3Ref: Harper's Biochemistry 30th edn. / 417-18* Frame-shift mutations* The genetic code is read in form of triplets of nucleotides which are known as codons.* If one or two base pairs from the code are removed or inserted, the genetic code will be misread from that change onwards, because the genetic code is not punctuated. Therefore the amino acid sequence translated from the change onwards will be completely changed. This is known as frame shift mutation.* However if the removal /insertion happens in multiples of three, rest of the reading frame doesn't change and hence the amino acid sequence will not change. | Biochemistry | Molecular Genetics | Frame shift mutation DOESN'T occur in multiples of:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
| 3 |
01292a7b-e4cf-47a6-874f-db071aa76942 | Inadequate attached gingiva around crowded incisors indicates the possibility of tissue dehiscence developing when the teeth are aligned, especially with non-extraction (arch expansion) treatment.
proffit page 173 | Dental | null | Among the following, which one is considered as 'pathologic problem' while planning treatment in orthodontics?
A. Tendency of lower jaw and teeth to be behind upper
B. Deep overbite
C. Minimal attached gingiva in lower anterior region
D. Decalcification
| Minimal attached gingiva in lower anterior region |
869291f6-ecb1-4249-97c5-f863547e35aa | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Crotalidae o Poisonous snakes are divided into six families:Viperidae - Russell's viper, gaboon viper, saw scaled viper, puff adder. They are found in all parts of world except America.Crotalidae - Rattlesnakes, pigmy rattlesnakes, copperheads, pit viper & bush master. They are found in Asia and America.Elapidae - Cobras, kraits, mambas, tiger snake, death adder, copperhead snakes and coral snakes. They are found in all parts of world except Europe.Hydrophidae or sea snakes - All sea snakes are poisonous but they seldom bite.Colubridae - Boomslangs, bird snake of the African continent.Atractaspididae - African & Middle Eastern burrowing asps or stiletto snakes. | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology | Pit viper beongs to -
A. Viperidae
B. Elapidae
C. Sea snakes
D. Crotalidae
| Crotalidae |
da14f0b5-70c9-493e-9f5e-f4cba95fd8d1 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Median nerve Pointing index:On asking the pt. to make a fist, it is noticed that the index finger remains straight.This is d/t Paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis and that of lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle (to the index finger) in median nerve palsy at a level of proximal to elbow.*Some other related questions:* Wrist drop is seen in*-Radial nerve palsy* Foot drop is seen in*-Common peroneal nv palsy.Winging of the scapula*Claw hand(Main -en -griffe):-Long thoracic nerve palsy.* Partial claw hand*-Ulnar nerve palsy* Complete claw hand*-Ulnar +Median nerve palsy* Ape thumb deformity*-Median nerve palsy* Pointing index*-Median nerve palsy* Policeman's tip deformity*-Also k/a Erb's paralysis d/t injury in the region of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus.Nerve roots involved are mainly C5 & partly C6. | Orthopaedics | Peripheral Nerve Injuries | "Pointing index" is due to paralysis of:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Auxiliary nerve
| Median nerve |
d028bfc8-59a3-4438-8af7-7393ea6cb4ab | Ans. is d, i.e. HypomenorrheaThe typical presenting symptom in adenomyosis is hypomenorrhea, i.e. less blood loss during menstruation. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Endometriosis and Infertility | A 25 years old female comes to your clinic for evaluation of infertility. A hysterosalpingogram reveals Asherman's syndrome. What symptoms will the patient have?
A. Menorrhagia
B. Oligomenorrhea
C. Polymenorrhea
D. Hypomenorrhea
| Hypomenorrhea |
c2a03ce1-bcc1-4152-9f7b-bbf0ff9845c4 | Cyclophosphamide IMPOANT POINTS ON HEMORRHAGIC CYSTITIS: Drugs causing: Cyclophosphamide Ifosfamide Metabolite responsible: Acrolein - In Cyclophosphamide Chloracetaldehyde - In Ifosfamide Treatment: Mesna. Nitrogen mustards: 1. Cyclophosphamide: Powerful vesicant Prodrug - Activated by hepatic biotransformation to aldophosphamide. Acrolein - One of its degradation products. Responsible for hemorrhagic cystitis - Characteristic adverse effect. Use: DOC for Wegener's granulomatosis. Adverse effects: Hemorrhagic cystitis (Characteristic) - Treated by mercapto ethane sulfonic acid (mesna). May cause cardiac dysfunction, pulmonary toxicity & syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. 2. Ifosfamide: Produces chloracetaldehyde & acrolein as metabolites. Adverse effects: HIGHER risk of neurotoxicity & hemorrhagic cystitis. Chloracetaldehyde - Responsible for nephrotoxic. | Pharmacology | null | Anticancer drug also used in RA, produces acrolein in urine that leads to hemorrhagic cystitis
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Busulfan
C. Procarbazine
D. Mesna
| Cyclophosphamide |
2041597c-0b64-4562-bb25-ecd94b4ea426 | "Preferably mother should accompany and baby can be transported in KlI4C position. Even father can provide KII/IC during transport if mother can not a company | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following is best for transport of the newborn with maintenance of warm temperature –
A. Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)
B. Transport incubator
C. Thermacol box
D. Hot bottle
| Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) |
7b535d72-590a-462c-881c-0898755b9b45 | In cove sensitization also called as imagined punishment, the individual who wants to quit alcohol will be asked to think about adverse consequences of taking alcohol like getting arrested for drunken driving or facing a accident underintoxicated state. He would be told to dream as if if he is drunk and lies intoxicated in the road and has to be brought back to the home by family members where he will be given lot of advice from neighbours and there would be a loss of respect. While these imagined exposure the patient feels bad and makes sure thet he should quit alcohol and his thoughts ahgainst alcohol increases. Ref.kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | cove sensitization is used for
A. PTSD
B. hysteria
C. brain injury
D. alcohol use
| alcohol use |
42ebdd47-f82c-4bd1-9f92-69cb9197d914 | The type of glycogen storage disease that primarily involves the hea is Pompe disease (GSD IIa) in which acid maltase, necessary for hydrolysis of the outer branches of glycogen, is absent. There is marked deposition of glycogen within the myocardium. Affected infants are well at bih, but symptoms of growth and developmental delay, feeding problems, and cardiac failure occur by the sixth month of life. Physical examination reveals generalized muscular weakness, a large tongue, and cardiomegaly without significant hea murmurs. Chest radiographs reveal cardiomegaly with or without pulmonary venous congestion. The ECG shows a sho PR interval and LVH with ST depression and T-wave inversion over the left precordial leads. Echocardiography shows severe concentric LVH. Children with Pompe disease usually die before age 1 year. Death may be sudden or result from progressive HF. Ref: Darst J.R., Collins K.K., Miyamoto S.D. (2012). Chapter 20. Cardiovascular Diseases. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | Pediatrics | null | A 6 month old baby brought to emergency depament with features of cardiac failure. On examination, she found to have developmental delay and a large tongue. Echocardiography shows severe concentric LVH. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Pompe disease
B. Von Gierke's disease
C. Forbe's Disease
D. McArdle's disease
| Pompe disease |
be649016-c765-4f0a-a077-efe2d1c7633b | String sign → Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, Ileocecal tuberculosis.
String sign of Kantor → Crohn's disease
String of bead sign → Small bowel obstruction | Radiology | null | String sign is a radiological feature of -
A. Crohn's disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Ileocecal tuberculosis
D. Ischemic colitis
| Ileocecal tuberculosis |
e6f7cfa9-39ab-4b04-9cf9-042c68522151 | Norton and Gellin developed 3 alarm system. | Dental | null | Alarm system (a reminder technique for digit sucking in mature children) was developed by:
A. Massler
B. Norton and Gellin
C. Benjamin
D. Pinkham
| Norton and Gellin |
f4db2bbc-2f09-47bd-bfb5-a7eb1a3f525b | Elevations in prolactin may cause amenorrhea or galactorrhea. Amenorrhea without galactorrhea is associated with hyperprolactinemia in approximately 15% of women. In patients with both galactorrhea and amenorrhea, approximately two-thirds will have hyperprolactinemia; of those, approximately one-third will have a pituitary adenoma. In more than one-third of women with hyperprolactinemia, a radiologic abnormality consistent with a microadenoma (<1 cm) is found. Normal Prolactin levels Males: 2-20 ng/mL Females (non-pregnant): 2-30 ng/mL Pregnant females: 10-200 ng/mL A prolactin level of more than 200 ng/mL is usually due to a pituitary tumour and requires pituitary evaluation | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception | Which level of prolactin definitely suggest hyperprolactinemia?
A. 200 ng/mL
B. 150 ng/mL
C. 50 ng/mL
D. 100 ng/mL
| 200 ng/mL |
2688f6c0-2727-4446-ac82-aea615715ddd | BULGE TEST is a useful method of testing when there is very little fluid in the joint.Usually occurs in medial meniscal injury. It can detect even 30 ml of fluid accumulation. After squeezing any fluid out of the suprapatellar pouch,the medial compament is emptied by pressing on the inner aspect of the joint; that hand is lifted away and the lateral side is sharply compressed-a distinct ripple is seen on the flattened medial surface as fluid is shunted across. REF:APLEY'S 9TH EDITION PAGE NO.550 | Orthopaedics | Thigh, Knee,Leg,Foot & Ankle injuries | Bulge sign in knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation-
A. 100 ml
B. 400 ml
C. 200 ml
D. < 30 ml
| < 30 ml |
b3b8f17f-25ac-4f83-9434-0efb1f1621b8 | From the above clinical history and examination, the most probable diagnosis is Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's syndrome). It is an autosomal dominant primary immunodeficiency disease caused by a mutation of STAT3 gene. Neutrophils do not generate an immune response, probably due to a defect in chemotaxis. Patients present with recurrent staphylococcal skin abscesses, recurrent lung infections (pneumatoceles), eczema, eosinophilia and high serum levels of lgE. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Immunology | An 11-year-old boy was brought to the pediatric OPD with multiple abscesses over his face, chest, and back. The child has a history of recurrentrespiratory infections. On examination, he has atopic excoriating skin and multiple cold abscesses on his back. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Hyper IgE syndrome
B. Hyper IgM syndrome
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Wiskott aldrich syndrome
| Hyper IgE syndrome |
ef67c9a8-9deb-49f6-a1ad-caba454e0b0a | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Polymethyl methacrylate Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are interventional radiologic procedures for the treatment of the intense pain refractory to medical management or bracing caused by vertebral compression fracture associated with osteoporosis, tumors, and trauma.Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty involve intraosseous injection of acrylic cement- polymethyl methacrylate under local anesthesia and fluoroscopic guidance.Pain reduction or elimination is immediate, and the risk of complications is low. Neither vertebroplasty nor kyphoplasty are intended for the treatment of intervertebral disc disease or arthritis.Vertebroplasty may also be applied prophylactically to an at-risk vertebra between 2 other abnormal vertebrae.Vertebroplasty does not restore the height of the compressed vertebral body. A related procedure, kyphoplasty, is intended to restore lost height by inflating a balloon pump within and between the fracture fragments prior to the infusion of the cement. Both procedures result in similar relief of pain due to vertebral compression fractures.The risks of the procedure are low and include extravasation of cement into the epidural space causing myelopathy, or fatal pulmonary embolism from extension of cement into paraspinous veins. | Orthopaedics | Management In Orthopedics | Material used in verterbroplasty is :
A. Isomethyl methacrylate
B. Isoethyl methacrylate
C. Polyethyl methacrylate
D. Polymethyl methacrylate
| Polymethyl methacrylate |
f3dc8239-3a5e-49a4-965e-b644963a9660 | Cerebral palsy is a static encephalopathy and a disorder of posture and movement often associated with seizures and deficit in the motor, language, and social milestones due to insult to the developing brain.MICROCEPHALY is a feature of cerebral palsy because of insult to the developing brain.DYSTONIC CP is associated with hypotoniaEXTRAPYRAMIDAL CP is associated with ataxiaCerebral palsy is an upper motor neuron disease characterized by rigidity.Flaccid paralysis is a feature of lower motor neuron disease. Hence flaccid paralysis not a feature of cerebral palsy.Spastic cerebral palsy is the common type( 65%)Spastic CP - prognosis for normal intellectual development is good compared to other types of cerebral palsy.BIH ASPHYXIA accounts for only 8 -10% of cerebral palsy. | Pediatrics | All India exam | Which of the following is not found in cerebral palsy?
A. Hypotonia
B. Microcephaly
C. Ataxia
D. Flaccid paralysis
| Flaccid paralysis |
1455c58f-89a0-47fa-a763-b4ea704aa815 | Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 852 Tests of significance: Qualitative: Chi- square : 2 or more than 2 groups Mc Nemar test : 1 group. ( before and after intervention) Quantitative: Paired T test: 1 group Student T test/ unpaired T test: 2 groups Anova: more than 2 groups. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostatistics | When observations are made before and after the exposure to the factor, it is -
A. Chi-square test
B. Unpaired T-Test
C. Paired T-Test
D. ANOVA test
| Paired T-Test |
ce5dba32-2e1e-47a0-b9ce-e961ad0b5cbc | About 1 in 1400 people have a single kidney. Sometimes a ureter and renal pelvis are present with no kidney. The contralateral kidney is typically hyperophied. Reference: page 1282 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 26th edition ( note : according to 27th edition Complete absence of one kidney occurs in 1 in 500-1000 bihs ) | Surgery | Urology | An absent kidney is found in
A. 1:200 individuals
B. 1:700 individuals
C. 1:1400 individuals
D. 1:5000 individuals
| 1:1400 individuals |
c0aee457-26c3-42cc-a1e8-7fd4fccd0207 | Anticoagulants are the treatment of choice in patients with atrial fibrillation and prior stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Vitamin K antagonists such as warfarin have long been the mainstay of therapy, but a new set of anticoagulants has emerged as a reasonable alternative that may indeed prove to have better efficacy and a reduced risk of hemorrhage. Apixaban is one such oral direct factor Xa inhibitor; it was recently shown to be likely more effective compared with warfarin in the Apixaban for the Prevention of Stroke in Subjects With Atrial Fibrillation (ARISTOTLE) trial. Clopidogrel combined with aspirin was more effective than aspirin alone in preventing vascular events, principally stroke, but increases the risk of major bleeding. Ref: 1. Easton JD et al. Apixaban compared with warfarin in patients with atrial fibrillation and previous stroke or transient ischaemic attack: A subgroup analysis of the ARISTOTLE trial. Lancet Neurol 2012;11:503. 2. Smith W.S., English J.D., Johnston S.C. (2012). Chapter 370. Cerebrovascular Diseases. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Medicine | null | Which of the following is an anti-coagulant for atrial fibrillation in a patient with prior history of stroke, with reduced risk of haemorrhage?
A. Vitamin K antagonists
B. Apixaban
C. Clopidogrel
D. Ticlopidine
| Apixaban |
e8f17b12-1cdd-4ea4-9f5d-ef03a47d41ff | Robbins page no p922 Glomerular diseases presenting with a nephritic syn- drome are often characterized by inflammation in the glomeruli. The nephritic patient usually presents with hematuria, red cell casts in the urine, azotemia, oliguria, and mild to moderate hypeension. Proteinuria and edema are common, but these are not as severe as those encountered in the nephrotic syndrome, discussed later. The acute nephritic syndrome may occur in such multi- system diseases as SLE and microscopic polyangiitis. | Pathology | Urinary tract | The cause of oedema in nephritic syndrome
A. Increase in plasma protein concentratn
B. Decrease plasma protein concentratn
C. Reduced plasma osmotic pressure
D. Sodium and water retention
| Sodium and water retention |
a94f1530-2ef9-4d91-a5c6-056e2180420f | Triple assessment comprises of :
Clinical examination (palpation).
Radiological imaging (mammography or USG).
Pathological assessment (Biopsy or cytology). | Radiology | null | Triple assessment for carcinoma breast includes :
A. History, clinical examination, biopsy/cytology
B. Clinical examination, mammography, biopsy/cytology
C. History, clinical examination, ultrasonography
D. Observation, ultrasonography, biopsy/cytology
| Clinical examination, mammography, biopsy/cytology |
63fc1595-897d-4cd1-aff2-b44bc651e84b | Shiga toxin-producing E coli (STEC) are named for the cytotoxic toxins they produce. There are at least two antigenic forms of the toxin referred to as Shiga-like toxin 1 and Shiga-like toxin 2. STEC has been associated with, Hemorrhagic colitis Severe diarrhea Hemolytic uremic syndrome resulting acute renal failure Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Thrombocytopenia Of the E coli serotypes that produce Shiga toxin, O157:H7 is the most common. STEC O157:H7 does not use sorbitol, unlike most other E coli, and is negative (clear colonies) on sorbitol MacConkey agar (sorbitol is used instead of lactose); which serves as an impoant criterion that distinguishes it from other strains of E. coli. O157:H7 strains also are negative on MUG tests. Many of the non-O157 serotypes may be sorbitol positive when grown in culture. Ref: Brooks G.F. (2013). Chapter 15. Enteric Gram-Negative Rods (Enterobacteriaceae). In G.F. Brooks (Ed), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e. | Microbiology | null | EC O157:H7, shiga toxin-producing strain of E. coli can be distinguished from other strains of E.coli by using the following medium:
A. Hektoen agar
B. Sorbitol
C. Blood agar
D. LJ medium
| Sorbitol |
42f7afcf-c9f3-48d5-bb82-6c749036138a | Amylin, or islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP), is a 37-residue peptide hormone. It is cosecreted with insulin from the pancreatic b-cells in the ratio of approximately 100:1.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 315 | Physiology | G.I.T | Amylin is secreted by which cell of pancreas?
A. Alpha cells
B. Beta cells
C. Gamma cells
D. Delta cells
| Beta cells |
6d8e49b2-7017-4dca-b017-85f516181804 | Carbolic acid delays the process of putrefaction.
Peritonitis, ansarca, sepsis enhances the process of putrefaction. | Forensic Medicine | null | Putrefaction process is delayed by :
A. Peritonitis
B. Ansarca
C. Carbolic acid
D. Sepsis
| Carbolic acid |
868974ec-5ea4-4b32-995b-5c99bbac2576 | Initial investigation done in STN is thyroid function test(TFT) Investigation of choice in STN for diagnosis is FNAC Solitary Thyroid Nodule: Initial investigation done in STN is thyroid function test (TFT) If TFT is raised, next investigation is thyroid scan , (For hot nodules, RAI ablation or surgery is done; For warm or cold nodules follow-up or surgery) If TFT is normal, USG is done (Aspiration in cystic lesion, FNAC for solid or heterogenous lesions) Investigationn of choice in STN for diagnosis is FNAC. Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 890 | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | Initial preferred investigation for thyroid nodule is:
A. FNAC
B. Radionucleide test
C. Thyroid function test
D. USG
| Thyroid function test |
5e32f377-76df-42e4-98b5-69b6c90477c3 | Ans is d, i.e. MentoverticalFetal diameters-AP diameters are always longer than Transverse diameter of fetal head.Longest diameter is-Mentovertical diameter (14 cms) followed by submentovertical diameter. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis | Longest fetal diameter:
A. Biparietal
B. Suboccip tobregmatic
C. Occipitofrontal
D. Mentovertical
| Mentovertical |
0192ace1-b1f2-4dfa-8257-3a84efa89e67 | Both Campylobacter and Helicobacter Belong to the family Campylobacteriaceae. Both are GNspiral-shaped or comma-shaped bacteria. Catalase and oxidase positive. Urease however, is produced only by Helicobacter. | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria) | Which of the following is an impoant distinguishing characteristic of H. pylori as compared to Campylobacter species?
A. Oxidase production
B. Catalase production
C. Urease production
D. Curved shape
| Urease production |
e1a175d6-8a8b-4925-a0dc-c486737eee31 | Anterior dislocation is ruled out because it will have Flexion Abduction External Rotation with lengthening and anterior femoral head (Mass that moves with femur shaft is femur head). Central dislocation is ruled out because it will have shoening and femur head palpable on per rectal examination. Posterior dislocation will have Flexion Adduction and internal rotation with shoening and gluteal femoral head. Pipkins type IV: Shoening and gluteal mass with atypical features Type I: Femoral head fracture caudal to fovea centralis. Type II: Femoral head fracture cephalad to the fovea. Type III: Femoral head fracture associated with femoral neck fracture. Type IV: Type I, II or III with associated acetabular fracture. | Orthopaedics | Pelvis and Hip Injury | A 33 yr /M has history of A, now complaints of pain left hip. On examination there is Flexion, External Rotation of left lower limb is present. There is 7 cm shoening of left lower limb, there is a gluteal mass felt which moves with the movement of femoral shaft, most probable diagnosis could be?
A. Anterior dislocation of hip
B. Central fracture dislocation
C. Posterior dislocation
D. Pipkin's type 4 fracture
| Pipkin's type 4 fracture |
b457fb36-1ee1-4af3-915b-e128af60b160 | Wood's Lamp It is a low intensity ultraviolet light(360nm) emitted by a high pressure mercury lamp fitted with a special filter made up of 9% nickel oxide and silica. | Dental | Fungal infections | Wood's lamp is made up of -
A. 9% nickel oxide with 6% barium silicate
B. 9% nickel oxide with 9% barium silicate
C. 6% nickel oxide with 6% barium silicate
D. 9% nickel oxide with barium silicate
| 9% nickel oxide with barium silicate |
fb0e5556-9c34-4764-8f98-b662d4efa4bb | Answer is B (Inflow tract of RV) The most commonly involved valve in, carcinoid syndrome is tricuspid valve which forms the inflow tract of Right ventricle. Most commonly involved pa of hea : Inflow tract of RV (Tricuspid valve) Second most commonly involved pa of hea : Outflow tract of RV (Pulmonic valve) | Medicine | null | In carcinoid syndrome, the ap of hea mostly affected is:
A. Outflow tract of RV
B. Inflow tract of RV
C. Inflow tract of LV
D. Outflow tract LV
| Inflow tract of RV |
6ca325b0-59fa-4428-90b7-a91578778f8e | Fabry's disease is an X-linked dominant disorder. Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum is another name for it. Neuropathy usually stas in the childhood. It is overshadowed by complications arising from the associated premature atherosclerosis that lead to death by the fifth decade of life. ALSO KNOW: Fabry's disease is caused by mutations in the Alpha -galactosidase gene. There will be accumulation of ceramide trihexoside in nerves and blood vessels. Enzyme replacement therapy with alpha galactosidase B may be useful in the early stages. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-3456 | Medicine | null | Premature atherosclerosis causing death is seen in:
A. Fabry's disease
B. Vitamin E deficiency
C. Abetalipoproteinemia
D. Spinocerebellar ataxia
| Fabry's disease |
e702181c-7216-4b23-9a09-87ec18055cda | Pharmacovigilance has been defined by the WHO as the ''science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding, and prevention of adverse effects or any other drug-related problems'' The information generated by pharmacovigilance is useful in educating doctors about the adverse drug reaction and in the official regulation of drug use Ref; KD Tripathi Pharmacology 7th edition (page no:82) | Pharmacology | General pharmacology | Pharmacovigilance means:
A. Monitoring of drug safety
B. Monitoring of unethical trade of drugs
C. Monitoring pharma students
D. Monitoring drug efficacy
| Monitoring of drug safety |
e5d4a9c1-c129-4b4a-a018-1d9ae1610247 | Ligament of poupart is another name for Inguinal ligament | Anatomy | null | Ligament of poupart is
A. Linea alba
B. Pectineal ligament
C. Lacunar ligament
D. Inguinal ligament
| Inguinal ligament |
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