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dd45e000-bc67-4ac9-b6f4-537595a09185 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Papillary carcinoma o Thyroid carcinomas arising after radiation or in thyrogiossal cyst are papillary type. Various genes involved in thyroid carcinomas areo Papillary-o Tyrosine kinase receptors RET or NTRK1o RAS mutationo BRAF oncogeneo Follicular-o RAS oncogene (NRAS, HRAS and KRAS)o PAX 8- PPARrl thanslocationo Medullary-o RETprotooncognePapillary thyroid carcinomao It is the most common type of thyroid cancer.o Radiation induced thyroid carcinoma and carcinoma in thyrogiossal cysts are of papillary type.o Carcinoma cells have nuclei which contain finely dispersed chromatin, which imparts optically clear or empty appearance, giving rise to the ground glass or Orphan Annie eye nuclei.o Invagination of cytoplasm may give rise to the appearance of intranuclear inclusins (Pseudoinclusions) or intranuclear grooves - the diagnosis of papillary carcinoma is based on these nuclear features.o Psammoma bodies are presento Lymphatic metastasis may be seen but involvement of blood vessels is rare. | Pathology | Thyroid and Parathyroid | Carcinoma which arises in the thyroglosal cyst is -
A. Papillary carcinoma
B. Follicular
C. Anaplastic
D. Medullary
| Papillary carcinoma |
618688f1-357b-4b8c-880e-73019ecad125 | Pregnanediol is an inactive metabolic product of progesterone. A test can be done to measure the amount of pregnanediol in urine, which offers an indirect way to measure progesterone levels in the body. The principal pathway of the metabolism of progesterone is believed to be progesterone - pregnanedione - pregnanolone - pregnanediol, although small amounts of the corresponding allopregnane compounds are formed. | Biochemistry | null | Most common metabolite of progesterone excreted in urine is _________
A. Pregnanelone
B. Pregnanetriol
C. 17-hydroxy pregnanolone
D. Pregnanediol
| Pregnanediol |
93871c68-7564-4ba5-aa49-a23221c122c9 | You can solve the question just looking at calcium value. Amongst the given options only hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia.
The patient in question has an increased serum Ca', decreased serum phosphorus and increased values of alkaline phosphatase, all of which characterize hyperparathyroidism. | Pediatrics | null | A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm 1st hour. Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case –
A. Nutritional ricicets
B. Renal rickets
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Skeletal dysplasia
| Hyperparathyroidism |
1d7428c6-d01e-48b8-8752-b52174ec13b3 | Paatero and, independently, Numata were the first to describe the principles of panoramic radiography. Figure given shows a schematic view of the relationships between the X-ray source, the patient, the secondary collimator and the image receptor during panoramic image formation. | Radiology | null | Inventor of orthopantomographic machine is:
A. Hounsfield
B. Roentgen
C. Kell
D. Numata
| Numata |
09e46772-f860-49c0-8ce3-b6a0cd07fab7 | Arts, is 'a' i.e., Air pollution Monitoring of air pollutiono Monitoring of air pollution is done by : -Sulphur dioxide.Gritt and dust measurement.Co-efficient of haze.Air pollution index.Smoke or soiling index | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and Health | Soiling index is measure for -
A. Air pollution
B. Water pollution
C. Faecal contamination
D. Milk contamination
| Air pollution |
bdd2e606-a2c5-4f54-b52d-522b43c70c2f | Trichinella REF: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 24T" edition chapter 46 Table 46-4 Indirect repeat in December 2011, See APPENDIX-74 for "DISEASES DUE TO HELMINTHS" "Trichinella infectes by ingestion of undercooked pork which contains encysted larvae in the straited muscle" Skin penetration is seen in: Hookworms; Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus Strongyloides Schistosoma (Cercariae larvae) | Microbiology | null | Which among the following doesn't enter human body skin?
A. Ancyclostoma
B. Strongyloides
C. Trichinella
D. Necator
| Trichinella |
e7c3f5c2-43e9-476a-9956-1d0475c789ae | Paraneoplastic pemphigus is a severe variant of pemphigus, associated with an underlying neoplasm - most frequently non Hodgkin's lymphoma, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, thymoma, and castleman disease. Tumor antigens are hypothesized to evoke an immune response that leads to the development of an autoimmune response to intercellular adhesins (plakins). This autoantibody response leads to blistering in mucosa and other epithelia. | Pathology | null | Desmoplaskin is the target antigen in:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris.
B. Paraneoplastic pemphigus.
C. Drug induced pemphigus.
D. Pemphigus foliaceous.
| Paraneoplastic pemphigus. |
45de53e3-cfa6-46bf-bc43-580fcb56f2f1 | In myocardial infarction, total LDH activity is increased, while H4 iso-enzyme ( monomer of LDH ) is increased 5-10 times more. The magnitude of the peak value, as well as the area under the graph, will be roughly propoional to the size of the myocardial infarct. Ref: D M Vasudevan 7th edition Page no: 304 | Biochemistry | miscellaneous | The predominant isozyme of LDH in cardiac muscle is
A. LD-1
B. LD-2
C. LD-3
D. LD-5
| LD-1 |
a99db976-4464-4d7a-bf49-80f28a66f395 | It should be between 120-200 J asynchronized shock. | Anaesthesia | Cardiopulmonary Cerebral Resuscitation | What is the strength of shock given to below victim of cardiac arrest with shockable rhythm:
A. 200 J asynchronous Shock
B. 300 AC shock
C. 200 Syn. Shock
D. 300 J Syn. Shock
| 200 J asynchronous Shock |
e40b23e8-820b-46a1-8b41-b44a08bbca58 | A Harper, 26lh ed. p. 192 & 25th ed, p. 250 | Biochemistry | Lipids | Unsaturated fatty acids are converted to:
A. Prostaglandins
B. Cholesterol
C. Cell membrane lipid
D. Saturated fatty acid
| Prostaglandins |
e87162c5-e747-4ffc-ac95-44a97da7fbe8 | Most common mechanism of injury is fall from height, often from a ladder, onto one or both heels. The calcaneum is driven up against the talus and is split or crushed.
About one fifth of these patients suffer associated injuries of the spine, pelvis or hip. | Orthopaedics | null | Calcaneum is associated most commonly with which # -
A. # rib
B. # vertebrae
C. # skull
D. # fibula
| # vertebrae |
aeba1468-2548-49f5-aba5-3f0a98afedd5 | Superficial spreading melanoma It is the M/C type of melanoma It is the M/C type which occurs in a patient with pre existing mole. R/F for superficial spreading melanoma- Increasing age Melanoma in situ Many melanocytic nevi Multiple >5 atypical nevi Strong family H/O melanoma | Dental | NEET Jan 2020 | A farmer presented with a black mole on the check. It increased in size, more than 6mm with sharply defined borders with central black lesion, what could be the diagnosis?
A. Acral lentigo melanoma
B. Superficial spreading melanoma
C. Lentigo maligna melanoma
D. Nodular melanoma
| Superficial spreading melanoma |
4b825897-f36f-4e85-9e06-b3a78c3d0874 | Ans. A. FISH(Ref: Robbins 9/e page 177)Robbins 9th edition gives the following descriptionFISH uses DNA probes that recognize sequences specific to particular chromosomal regions.MethodRequires growing cellsDetects deletion and duplicationDetects balanced structural rearrangementsDetects uniparental disomyLower limits of detectionG bandingYesYesYesNo5-10mbMetaphase FISHYesYesYesNo40-250 thousand mbInterphase FISHNoYesSomeNo40-250 thousand mbCGH arrayNoYesNoNoSingle Exon or Single geneSNP arrayNoYesNoSomeSingle Exon or Single gene | Biochemistry | Molecular Biology Techniques | Which method is used to locate a known gene locus?
A. FISH
B. CGH
C. Chromosome painting
D. RT-PCR
| FISH |
46c49dcf-7330-499b-a7f8-a61bd7387ab9 | C i.e. Ataracurium In pediatric patients the choice of non depolarizing muscle relaxant depends on side effects and duration of action. The method of excretion of atracurium and cisatracurium (Hofman elimination and ester hydrolysis) makes these relaxants paicularly useful in newborns and children with liver or renal diseaseQ. If tachycardia is desired (eg with fentanyl anesthesia), pancuronium would be an appropriate choice. Vecuronium, atracurium, rocuronium & cisatracurium are useful for shoer procedures. Rocuronium offers an advantage that it can be administered intramuscularly (like Sch) preferably in deltoid however, the duration of action is - 1 hour, which could be a distinct disadvantage for a brief procedure. Vecuronium is valuable because no histamine is released; however, its duration of action is prolonged in newborns, which makes it similar to pancuronium The potential for rhabdomyolysis & hyperkalemia (paicularly in boys < 8 yrs who may have unrecognized muscular dystrophy), as well as for masseter spasm (jaws of steel), malignant hypehermia, cardiac arrhythmias, and myoglobinemia after administration of succinyl choline suggests that Sch should not be used routinely in children. Unlike adult patients profound bradycardia & sinus node arrest can develop in pediatric patients following 1st dose of Sch without atropine pretreatment. If a child unexpectedly experiences cardiac arrest following Sch administration, immediate treatment for hyperkalemia should be instituted. Howeve, it is the only available ultrasho acting muscle relaxant that provides a dependable, rapid onset of action. IV use of Sch should be limited to children who have full stomach or to treat laryngospasm. Intramuscular, intralingual (Submental) use is indicated for children with difficult intravenous access when control of airway is deemed essential. Mivacurium is an alternative to Sch when profound neuromuscular block of sho duration is required but rapid onset of action is unnecessary. Antagonism of neuromuscular blockade in all neonates & small infants, is recommended, even if they have recovered clinically, because any increase in work of breathing may cause fatigue and respiratory failure. Sugammadex, a cyclodextrin whose endoskeleton forms a water soluble complex with exoskeleton of rocuronium, is designed to antagonize the effects of rocuronium. As it is made of sugars and antagonize by covalent bonding the side effects are minimal. Antagonism is more rapid than neostigmine/atropine. It also reverse the other steroidal relaxants vecuronium & pancuronium to a lesser extent. The mechanism of reversal is lowering of plasma conentation & thus reversing the concentration gradient and pulling the rocuronium off the myoneural junction. | Anaesthesia | null | A child is posted for operative repair of exostrophy of bladder with renal failure. Which anesthetic should be preferred?
A. Pancuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Ataracurium
D. Rocuronium
| Vecuronium |
9d3a73c5-86bc-49e7-bd69-0b947cc2fb81 | CRP is made in the liver in response to excess triglyceride storage. Elevated CRP levels>3mg/l using a high sensitive assay is associated with an increased risk of CHD. Another useful marker is lipoprotein associated phospholipase A2(LpPLA2). It is made by macrophages in response to excess cholesterol storage. Its level when >270ng/ml is associated with CHD. Ideal value for CRP is <2mg/l and for LpPLA2 is < 200ng/ml. Ref: Glycemic Control in Hospitalized Patients By Lillian Lien, Page 38; High Density Lipoproteins, Dyslipidemia and Coronary Hea Disease By Ernst J. Schaefer, Pages 186-7 | Medicine | null | Which of the following is the best predictor for future risk of cardiovascular events?
A. hs CRP
B. Interleukin 6
C. Lipoprotein 'a'
D. Homocysteine
| hs CRP |
889dac82-4096-41ab-a2ce-df5427c536f7 | (A) (Alkaline Phosphate) (64- Harper 29th) (730 U. Satyanarayana 4th)ELlSAs use antibodies covalently linked to a "reporter enzyme" such as alkaline phosphatase or horseradish peroxidase whose products are readily detected, generally by the absorbance of light or by flourescence (64- Harper 24th)* ELISA is based on the immunochemical principles of antigen-antibody reaction***Applications:1. Determination of small quantities of proteins (hormones antigen, antibodies) and other biological substances.2. Most commonly used pregnancy test for the defection of hCG in urine is based on ELISA, by this test pregnancy can be detected within few days after conception.3. Diagnosis of AIDS. | Biochemistry | Enzymes | Enzyme use in ELISA -
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Acid phosphatase
C. Glucosidase
D. Glycosyl transferase
| Alkaline phosphatase |
b3f76834-eb74-4cb2-9fdb-325466816c6a | – To differentiate scar from recurrence.
– To image breasts of women with implants.
– To evaluate the management of axilla and recurrent disease.
It is useful in screening females with the high-risk group.
T1 and T2 weighted images are taken.
Irregular mass with speculations, changes in skin and nipple, lymphoedema are the findings in carcinoma breast.
MRI breast is not accurate if done within 9 months of the radiotherapy in carcinoma of the breast.
Both precontrast and postcontrast MRI are done. | Surgery | null | High-risk breast cancer female investigation of choice is?
A. MRI
B. USG
C. Mammography
D. Clinical examination
| MRI |
ed12d22c-51b8-4b31-94f4-6144fcb80784 | Enflurane can precipitate generalized tonic clonic seizure in epileptics. It is however safer than halothane, causes less myocardiac depression and less hypotension. | Anaesthesia | null | 22-year-old lady, with a history of epilepsy is undergoing the pre-anaesthetic review. The use of which inhalational agent is contraindicated in this patient?
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Isoflurane
| Enflurane |
a5663718-8c8b-46f4-ab4d-4a0357c911f9 | (B) MucorRhino - Orbital mucormycosis:Mucormycosis is a very rare opportunistic infection caused by fungi of the family Mucoraceae, which typically affects patients with diabetic ketoacidosis or immunosuppression. This aggressive and often fatal infection.Specific infections - rhinocerebral mucormycosis:Fungal infection caused by order of mucorales (mucor, rhizopus, absidia).Usually seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.Fungus inhaled into paranasal sinuses, germinates and invades palate, sphenoid, cavernous sinus, orbit, brain.Neurological deficits occur when fungus involves vessels.Proptosis, visual loss ophthalmoplegia, cranial nerve palsies occur. #SIS CLASSIFICATION OF MUCORMYCOSIS & ASPERGILLOSIS AspergillosisMucormycosis (rhino-orbital cerebral mucormycosis)OrderOrder EurotialesOrder MucoralesGenus Aspergillus SpeciesAspergillus fumigatusRhizopus orzae (most common - 90%)Aspergillus flavusAbsidiaAspergillus nigerMucor Rhizomucor pusillus Apophysomyces elegansHyphaeSeptate with dichomatous branches at 45degNon septate filamentous fungi branched at 45degThis is a purulent inflammation of the cellular tissue of the orbit.It is due most frequently to extension of inflammation from the neighbouring parts, especially the nasal sinuses; other less common causes are deep injuries, especially those with a retained foreign body, septic operations, posterior extension of suppurative infections of the eyelids or the eyeball such as panophthalmitis, facial erysipelas, or metastases in pyaemia.In diabetics a particularly fulminant infection with Mucor or Aspergillus is possible.Biopsy to find out non-septate broad branching hiphae.Treatment:Correction of underlying metabolic defect.Intra venous antifungal, antibiotics, E.g., Amphotericin-BWide excision of devitalized necrotic tissues exenteration may be required.Hyperbaric oxygen.Phacomycosis:Mucormycosis is rare a aggressive & often fatal infection caused by the fungus of family Mucoraceae, infection acquired by inhalational of spores.Other Options[?]Candida Ophthalmic Infections:The eye infections that may be caused by Candida species range from extraocular (keratitis, orbital cellulitis) to intraocular (endophthalmitis, panophthalmitis).[?]Aspergillus:Aspergillosis is caused by fungus in the order Eurotiales and genus Aspergillus.[?]Histoplasma:Presumed ocular histoplasmosis syndrome (POHS) occurs secondary to infection with the yeast form of Histoplasma capsulatum. The disease is characterized by atrophic chorioretinal scars, peripapillary atrophy (PPA) & the absence of vitritis. | Ophthalmology | Systemic Disease | Most commonly associated Fungus with orbital cellulitis in patients with Diabetic Ketoacidosis is
A. Candida
B. Mucor
C. Aspergillus
D. Histoplasma
| Mucor |
2423d12b-9755-428d-a814-fb05f9053f2e | In coarctation of aoa there will be radiofemoral delay. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:432 | Pediatrics | C.V.S | Radiofemoral delay is characteristic of ____________
A. Patent ductus aeriosis
B. Coarctation of aoa
C. Aoic dissection
D. Takayasu's disease
| Coarctation of aoa |
b5a916dd-644c-4a92-b2fb-48fab094b59f | Ref: the synopsis of forensic medicine &toxicology-Dr.K.S. Narayana reddy 28th edition pg no:236 proof of semen: the only absolute prrof of semen is the finding of atl;east one unbroken spermatozoon,or electrophoretic LDH isoenzyme detection of sperms. in the absence of spermatozoa, a stain which gives characteristic fluorescence in ultraviolet light , a high level of acid phosphatase , a high creatine phosphokinase and P30 can be considerd due to semen | Forensic Medicine | Special topics | Dried semen stains on clothes identified by -
A. Spectrometry
B. UV rays
C. Infrared rays
D. LASER
| UV rays |
d330c43b-1bc5-49ea-a40e-ae3942af1324 | Ans: b (Temporal lobe) Ref: Khurana, 4th ed,p. 290Superior quadrantanopia is seen in temporal lobe lesions and inferior quadrantanopia is seen in parietal lobe lesions.Lesions of the visual pathway* Optic nerve- u/1 complete loss of vision* Optic chiasma(Central lesion)-bitemporal hemianopia* Lateral chiasma-binasal hemianopia* Optic tract- homonymous hemianopia* Lateral geniculate body- homonymous hemianopia* Optic radiation Total- complete homonymous hemianopiaParietal- inferior quadrantic hemianopia (pie on the floor)Temporal- superior quadrantic hemianopia (pie in the sky)* Visual cortex- congruous homonymous hemianopia +/- macular sparingWhen first order neurons are affected - first colour affected is blue If second order neurons are affected- first colour affected is red SiteLesionClinical featuresOptic nerveoptic atrophy, traumatic avulsion, acute optic neuritisloss of vision on the affected side + I/L loss of light reflexOptic chiasmasuprasellar aneurysms, pituitary tumours, craniopharyngioma, suprasellar meningioma, third ventricular dilatation due to obstructive hydrocephalusBitemporal hemianopia +Bitemporal hemianopic paralysis of papillary reflexesLateral chiasmal lesionsDistended third ventricle, atheroma carotids and PCABinasal hemianopia with binasal hemianopic paralysis of papillary reflexesOptic tract lesionsSyphilitic meningitis or gumma TB, tumours of optic thalamus, PCA aneurysmsHomonymous hemianopia with C/L hemianopic pupillary reactionLateral geniculate body Homonymous hemianopia sparing pupillary reflexesVisual cortexPCA occlusionHomonymous hemianopia sparing maculaPupillary light reflex- normal Optic radiation * TotalVascular occlusionsComplete homonymous hemianopia* Parietal lobeTraumaInferior quadrantic hemianopia (pie in the floor)* Temporal lobeTumoursSuperior quadrantic hemianopia (pie in the sky) | Ophthalmology | Neuro-Ophthalmology | Superior quadrantanopia is seen in lesion of:
A. Parietal lobe
B. Temporal lobe
C. Frontal lobe
D. Occipital lobe
| Temporal lobe |
e440f955-65d2-4480-9235-095bb3e2f7ef | Ans: C. Sugamadex(Ref: KDT 7h/e p. 355; Basic of Anasthesia e book - 157)Sugamadex provides faster reversal of vacuronium - induced neuromuscular blockade compared with neostigmine.A modified gamma-cyclodextrin with high affinity towards vacuronium & recuronium. | Anaesthesia | null | Drug of choice for reversal of is neuromuscular blockade by vacuronium-
A. Edrophonium
B. Neostigmine
C. Sugamadex
D. Pyridostigmine
| Sugamadex |
d387c2b9-3e1c-4d75-9155-9424475cb31d | An autoimmune disease, most likely systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in this patient, can be accompanied by monocytosis. Cytopenias also can occur in SLE because of autoantibodies against blood elements, a form of type II hypersensitivity. Basophilia occurs infrequently, but also can be seen in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Eosinophilia is a feature more often seen in allergic conditions, tissue parasitic infestations, and CML. Neutrophilia is seen in acute infectious and inflammatory conditions. Thrombocytosis usually occurs in neoplastic disorders of myeloid stem cells, such as the myeloproliferative disorders that include CML and essential thrombocytosis. | Pathology | Blood | A 23-year-old woman has noticed that she develops a skin rash if she spends prolonged periods outdoors. She has a malar skin rash on physical examination. Laboratory studies include a positive ANA test result with a titer of 1 :1024 and a "rim" pattern. An anti-double-stranded DNA test result also is positive. The hemoglobin concentration is 12.1 g/dL, hematocrit is 35.5%, MCV is 89 mm3, platelet count is 109,000/mm3, and WBC count is 4500/mm3. Which of the following findings is most likely to be shown by a WBC differential count?
A. Basophilia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Monocytosis
D. Neutrophilia
| Monocytosis |
0802ce59-2705-4780-81ec-aa243531ffd8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., SERM o Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).SELECTIVE ESTROGEN RECEPTOR MODULATION (SERMs)1. Tamoxifen citrate# It is a nonsteroidal compound# It has both estrogen antagonist as well as partial agonist activity -Tamoxifen (selective estrogen receptor modulator)o Sites on which it acts as estrogen antagonisti) Breast carcinomaii) Blood vesselsiii) Some peripheral sitesSite at which it acts as partial agonisti) Uterus - Causes proliferation of endometriumii)Bone - Improves bone mass d/t its antiresorptive effectiii) Lipid profile - Decrease LDL without any change in HDL (| risk of coronary artery disease)# Incresed risk of deep vein thrombosis.Tamoxifen is the standard hormonal treatment of breast cancer in both pre and postmenopausal women, though aromatase inhibitors are now becoming choice.Improvement in bone mass (due to antiresorptive effect) and in lipid profile are the benefits of tamoxifen.It has biphasic t1/2 - (10 hours and 7 days).2. Toremifene (Has been added to 6th/e of KDT)Newer tamoxifen congener with similar action and uses.3. RaloxifeneThis SERM is different from tamoxifen in that it has antagonistic action on endometrium (Tamoxifen has partial agonistic action) - No risk of endometrial proliferation amd carcinoma.All other actions are same.It is mainly used as first line drug for prevention and treatment of osteoprorosis.4. QrmeloxifeneIt also has antagonistic action on endometrium - has been approved for dysfunctional uterine bleeding.o Fulvestrant - It is a selective estrogen receptor down regulators (SERDs) or pure estrogen antagonist. In contrast to tomoxifen, it inhibits estrogen receptor (ER) dimerization so that ER interaction with DNA is prevented and receptor degradation is enhanced. The ER is thus down regulated resulting in more complete suppresion of ER responsive gene function. It is used for ER positive metastatic breast cancer. | Pharmacology | Sex-Hormone | Tamoxifene -
A. SSRI
B. SERM
C. SNRI
D. DNRI
| SERM |
07f8e6b4-8dbe-45d5-84f1-0ae4a5bbaa16 | Following a myocardial infarction, early formation of fibrovascular granulation tissue at margins occur in 7-10 days.Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Page 558; Essentials of Rubin's Pathology By Emanuel Rubin, 5th Edition, Pages 277-8 | Pathology | null | A myocardial infarct specimen is showing early granulation tissue. According to this change when has the infarct occurred?
A. Less than 1 hour
B. Within 24 hours
C. Within 1 week
D. Within 1 month
| Within 1 week |
ac8f8e85-4d2d-4803-8310-0f51df7869e1 | Double aoic arch is most common vascular ring, caused by abnormal persistence of the distal segment of the RIGHT of 4th aoic arch. On lateral, arches are posterior to esophagus and anterior to trachea. Symptoms (of tracheal compression or difficulty swallowing) may begin at bih. Aoic arches: Aoic arches are sho vessels connecting ventral and dorsal aoae on each side they run within branchial (pharyngeal) arches are based gradually the 4th and 5th week, in 6 pairs in total the first, second and fifth pairs are developmental in perspective and they soon disappear.1. 1st aoic arch: disappears, a small poion persists and forms a piece of the maxillary aery.2. 2nd aoic arch: disappears, small poions of this arch contributes to the hyoid and stapedial aeries. 3. 3rd aoic arch: common carotid and initial segments of internal carotid aery.4. 4th aoic arch: has ultimate fate different on the right and left side on the left.RIGHT, the proximal segment of the right dorsal aoa persists and is incorporated into the R subclan aery whereas the distal segment regresses.LEFT, both the proximal and distal segments are retained and incorporated into the descending arch of the aoa.5. 5th aoic arch - is transient and soon obliterates.6. 6th aoic arch - pulmonary arch - RIGHT arch: the proximal segment is incorporated into the R pulmonary aery; the distal segment regresses. LEFT arch: the proximal segment is incorporated into the L pulmonary aery; the distal segment persists as the ductus aeriosus.Ref: Embryology for Medical Students, By Sudhir Sant, 2nd Edition, Page 133 | Anatomy | null | A double aoic arch is due to persistent ?
A. Right 4th arch
B. Right 6th arch
C. Left 4th arch
D. Left 6th arch
| Right 4th arch |
3b0c9b7a-14cb-4f17-81e1-6f0c34d5d847 | progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, JC virus-infected oligodendroglia display 2 distinct patterns of intranuclear viral inclusions: full inclusions in which progeny virions are present throughout enlarged nuclei and dot-shaped inclusions in which virions are clustered in subnuclear domains termed "promyelocytic leukemia nuclear bodies" (PML-NBs) Surrounding the demyelinated areas, the oligodendrocytes are enlarged and contain intranuclear inclusionbodies filled with papovavirus paicles, often forming pseudocrystalline arrays Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e | Physiology | All India exam | "Intranuclear inclusions" in oligodendrocytes are seen in
A. Creutzfeldt Jacob disease
B. Polio
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. Progressive multiple encephalopathy
| Progressive multiple encephalopathy |
a48b93f9-5413-4b1c-b1cd-5b9a95e643cc | Electron microscopy shows deposited immune complexes arrayed as subendothelial, intramembranous, or, most often, subepithelial "humps" nestled against the GBM robbins book of pathology. 9th edition. Page 529 | Pathology | Urinary tract | PSGN (post-streptococcal GN) associated with -
A. Subepithelial deposits
B. Nephritis along with acute Renal failure
C. Low complement levels
D. HTN and protenuria
| Subepithelial deposits |
eeec4c59-0438-4504-9807-ee2c9a169cac | Ans.D.) Ornithine. Ornithine aminotransferase deficiency (also known as gyrate atrophy of the choroid and retina) is an inborn error of ornithine metabolism, caused by decreased activity of the enzyme ornithine aminotransferase. Biochemically, it can be detected by elevated levels of ornithine in the blood. Clinically, it presents initially with poor night vision, which slowly progresses to total blindness. It is believed to be inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. | Ophthalmology | null | Essential atrophy of the choroid is due to inborn error of metabolism of which amino acid?
A. Cystine
B. Cysteine
C. Arginine
D. Ornithine
| Ornithine |
e1dcc08d-7949-418c-a152-b7de6690e688 | The most common cause of death that occurs during acute rheumatic fever is cardiac failure secondary to myocarditis. | Pathology | Rheumatic Fever | A 9-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute rheumatic fever. Instead of recovering as expected, her condition worsens and she dies. Which of the following is the most likely cause of death?
A. Central nervous system involvement
B. Endocarditis
C. Myocarditis
D. Streptococcal sepsis
| Myocarditis |
2c747006-5f50-4c42-9f86-40be9313c139 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mucormycosis o Amongst azole, only posaconazole is active against mucormycosis. o Voriconazole is used for i) Invasive aspergillosis (voriconazole is the DOC) Candida infection iii) Pseudollescheria boydii (Scedosporium apiospermum) infection iv) Fusarium infection | Pharmacology | null | Variconazole is not effective against-
A. Aspergillosis
B. Mucormycosis
C. Candida albicans
D. Candida tropicalis
| Mucormycosis |
677163f4-75d5-4046-acfd-4fbfff2a0e61 | “A soft, low-pitched third sound is heard about one third of the way through diastole in many normal young individuals.” | Physiology | null | The third heart sound is due to:
A. Closure of AV valve
B. Closure of aortic valve
C. Mid diastolic flow in the ventricle
D. Atrial contraction
| Mid diastolic flow in the ventricle |
98fcac00-a064-4f9a-9593-f40e65cafbb6 | Look at figure 12-17 trace the nasal field of one eye it goes to layers 1,4,6 on contralateral side. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;23rd edition; pg:194 | Physiology | Nervous system | The fibers from the contralateral nasal hemiretina project to the following layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus
A. Layers 2,3 & 5.
B. Layers 1,2 & 6.
C. Layers 1,4 & 6.
D. Layers 4,5 &6.
| Layers 1,4 & 6. |
df9ff390-f527-4853-8e2f-be7ead12b145 | REM sleep is characterized by b waves, the waves actually of ale wakefulness. Hence, REM sleep is also called "paradoxical sleep". Awake state with eyes closed - a waves; with eyes open - b waves. NREM sleep: stage 1 shows periodic sho bursts of a waves. | Physiology | Higher Functions | Delta waves are seen in:
A. Deep sleep
B. REM sleep
C. Awake state
D. Stage II nREM sleep
| Deep sleep |
ffa4063d-d470-4236-8997-57762a4e507c | Ans. (c) Type of DCIS(Ref: Sterenberg diagnostic surgical pathology 5th ed p 312)The Van Nuys Prognostic Index (VNPI) classifies patients with DCIS to guide decisions on the best treatment option. The index uses patient age, tumour size, tumour growth patterns (histological grade) and the amount of healthy tissue surrounding the tumour after removal (resection margin width) to predict the risk of cancer returning. | Pathology | Breast | Van Nuys prognostic indicator for DCIS does not include which of the following parameter?
A. DCIS size
B. Age of the patient
C. Type of DCIS
D. Excision margin
| Type of DCIS |
ab4813ce-696a-44e4-acbe-d2501c6facc4 | Ans. C: Thiamin In patients who are thiamin deficient, Wernicke's encephalopathy can be precipitated by refeeding with carbohydrates This is prevented by administering thiamin before staing nutritional suppo | Medicine | null | Wernicke's encephalopathy, during refeeding syndrome, can be precipitated in deficiency of which of the following vitamin: September 2011
A. Riboflavin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Thiamin
D. Vitamin C
| Thiamin |
c9659d60-8b30-443d-8d34-588be23e3be1 | Ans. a (Endometriosis). (Ref. Williams, Obstertrics, 21st ed., 930)ENDOMETRIOSISDefinition# Occurrence of ectopic endometrial tissues outside the true cavity of uterus.Etiology# Samson's implantation theory attributed to reflux of menstrual endometrium through tubes.# Coelomic metaplasia theory.# Metastatic theory.# Histogenesis by induction.# Hormonal influence: mainly estrogen.# Common among woman in child bearing age, especially belonging to affluent class.The commonest sites# Are the ovary 55%, posterior broad ligament 35%, anterior and posterior pouch of Douglas 34% and uterosacral ligaments 28%.Clinical features# Pain is usually associated with menstruation or may occur immediately premenstrually.# Dyspareunia is common. It does not cause postmenopausal bleeding.# There may rarely be rupture or torsion of an endometrioma, irregular menses or cyclical problems with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, diarrhea, constipation, haemoptysis, dysuria, ureteric colic or scar pains.# The chance of conception may be as low as half that of the normal population (infertility).Investigations# Laproscopy is the best diagnostic measure.# Laparoscopically, endometriosis may appear white or red (active lesions), black/brown 'Powder9 burns or burn matchstick like lesions or white plaques of old collagen.# There may also be circular defects in the peritoneum (peritoneal windows/Allemmaster syndrome) or endometriomas with 'chocolate' fluid containing debris from cyclical menstruation.# Chocolate cysts of ovaries represents the most important manifestation of endometriosis.Medical treatment# Drugs are not indicated for the RX of asymptomatic, minimal endometriosis in patients wishing to conceive.# Recurrence after treatment is common.# All therapies suppress ovulation, thus conception is unlikely with good compliance.# For symptomatic endometriosis, continuous progestogen therapy, e.g., medroxyprogesterone acetate 10 mg TID for 90 days is most cost effective, has fewer side-effects and is more suitable for long-term use compared with more expensive alternatives. It acts by producing a state of pseudo-pregnancy, which ultimately leads to regression of the disease .# Another very cost effective alternative suitable for long term use is the continuous low-dose OCpills.# Second line drugs (alternative therapy) are the GnRH analogues, which can be administrated by nasal spray or implants (e.g., nafarelin, buseralin, goseralin, leuproelin), and the danazol 200 mg OD-TID.# Danazol is mildly anabolic, androgenic, anti-estrogenic and anti-progestational drug which acts by inhibiting pituitary gonadotropins (AIIMS-93). It causes pseudomenopause.# Its side effects are atrophy of the breasts, weight gain, hirsutism, excessive sweating, depression, & vaginitis# Conservative treatment: This may be carried out at laproscopy or laprotomy and includes diathermy destruction or laser vaporization of endometriosis deposits. Adhesions may be divided. It is also possible to enucleate or excise endometriomas.# Advantages of laser therapy in treatment of endometriosis are:- Precise tissue destruction- Minimum damage to surrounding tissues.- Relatively bloodless field- Promotes tissue healing without adhesion formation.Surgical treatment# Radical surgery (BSO +/- TAH) This may be indicated for those in whom fertility is no longer required. HRT may lead to a recurrence of endometriosis. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological Diagnosis | Condition that can be diagnosed on laparoscopy?
A. Endometriosis
B. DUB
C. Carcinoma cervix
D. Pyometra
| Endometriosis |
7f4cbefd-b73c-40bc-830f-ed18ac50eb73 | Ref: Shaw&;s Textbook of Gynecology; 16th edition; Chapter 22; Gestational Trophoblastic Diseases | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | The Point of distinction between paial mole to complete mole is
A. Paial mole show trophoblastic proliferation with absent villi
B. Typical of paial mole is cellular atypia
C. Paial mole is more prone to tumor malignancy
D. Paial mole is triploid
| Paial mole is triploid |
dcfe5b2b-5c0c-49d9-b2f0-32e73a00f66b | Gonococcal Infections For gonococcal urethritis: DOC is ceftriaxone For non gonococcal urethritis: DOC is AZITHROMYCIN It is used in combination with ceftriaxone in both gonococcal & non gonococcal urethritis AZITHROMYCIN (Single dose is enough) | Pharmacology | Protein Synthesis Inhibitors | Drug of choice for gonococcal as well as non gonococcal urethritis is
A. Clindamycin
B. Cefepime
C. Metronidazole
D. Azithromycin
| Azithromycin |
df87620b-8512-4b3f-9f75-f44c1bd2358e | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Onchocerca volvulus Onchocerca volvulus is transmitted by Simulium damnosum, a black fly* that breeds in areas of rapidly flowing streams thus the term 'river blindness9T/t by Ivermectin* | Ophthalmology | Ocular Manifestations | River blindness is caused by :
A. Drinking river water without boiling.
B. Oncocerca volvulus
C. Toxoplasma canis
D. Glaucoma
| Oncocerca volvulus |
71fe6450-b19b-4251-849f-f887098b4f83 | Nigro regimen refers to combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy for primary treatment of malignant tumors of the anal canal.
In the 1970s, Nigro pioneered preoperative combination chemoradiation therapy to convert unrespectable cases to respective cases. There was no surgical pathological evidence of tumor found in three out of three patients treated with this approach in an early report.
This led to the concept of definitive radiation therapy combined with chemotherapy. Prior to this, the standard definitive treatment for carcinoma of the anal canal was abdominal-perineal resection, which necessitated a permanent colostomy.
The organ preservation concept following the discovery of a high complete response rate from combined chemoradiation saves a large number of patients from undergoing abdominal-perineal resection and colostomy. | Surgery | null | For Ca Anal canal t/t of choice is -
A. Surgery
B. Surgery + Radiotherapy
C. Chemoradiation
D. Chemotherapy
| Chemoradiation |
84201266-7b6f-4cc1-9d8a-45a91a05e0ee | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 95 - 96)The cell density of endothelium is around 3000 cells/mm2 in young adults, which decreases with the advancing ageCorneal endothelium does not regenerate but adjacent cells slide to fill in a damaged area.Endothelium studied by specular microscope. | Ophthalmology | Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus | What happens to corneal endothelium after injury?
A. Slowly regenerates
B. Regenerates rapidly
C. Never regenerates
D. Forms a scar
| Never regenerates |
57566de4-ac91-49b0-afcb-07962c4c96d8 | Drugs causing exanthematous eruptions are penicillin, sulfonamides, anticonvulsants, anti tubercular , allopurinol, nevirapine, phenylbutazone. Hydrocoisone is a coicosteroid is used for the treatment of severe drug reactions but will not induce exanthem | Dental | Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis | Drug not causing exanthematous skin eruption
A. Phenytoin
B. Hydrocoisone
C. Ampicillin
D. Phenylbutazone
| Hydrocoisone |
129b4d5c-6ea3-42e8-8bb6-d5c1c9dc94fd | Cochlear function develops between 22 and 25 weeks, and its maturation continues for six months after delivery.Reference: William&;s Obstetrics; 24th edition; Chapter 7; Embryogenesis and Fetal Morphological Development | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | Cochlear function in fetus develops between
A. 12 to 15 weeks
B. 18 to 20 weeks
C. 22 to 25 weeks
D. 30 to 34 weeks
| 22 to 25 weeks |
bc502b79-e6b0-4707-a1e6-2a0c86b0c7cd | Implantation of Embryo can be divided into three phases: Apposition--initial contact of the blastocyst to the uterine wall Adhesion--increased physical contact between the blastocyst and decidua; and Invasion--penetration and invasion of syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast into decidua , inner third of the myometrium, and uterine vasculature. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Physiological Changes of Pregnancy | Which of the following is not one of the phases of Implantation of Embryo?
A. Epithelialization
B. Apposition
C. Adhesion
D. Invasion
| Epithelialization |
c727ee48-6d80-4a14-9174-3d86709a8878 | Ans. (a) Glomerular disease(Ref: Henry's 22nd/ 457- 458)Dysmorphic RBCs with ARF is seen in Glomerular disease, while isomorphic RBCs are seen in non-glomerular bleeds; | Pathology | Kidney | Dysmorphic RBC with ARF is seen in?
A. Glomerular disease
B. Renal carcinoma
C. Proximal tubule disease
D. Distal tubule disease
| Glomerular disease |
91ecf3aa-c03c-4f6c-9310-a2bd147dbf0b | (Instantaneous with death): (150 31st/edition; 3.18- Parikh's 6th/e)CADAVERIC SPASM or instantaneous rigor or Cataleptic rigidityCharacterized by stiffening of the muscles immediately after death without being preceded by the stage of primary relaxationThe conditions necessary for its development are1. Somatic death must occur with extreme rapidity2. The person must be in a state of great emotional tension3. The muscle must be in physical activity at that timeTraitRigor mortisCadaveric spasm1. ProductionFreezing and exposure to temperature above 65degC will produce rigorCan not be produced by any method after death2. MechanismKnownNot clearly krown3. Predisposing factorsNilSudden death, excitement, fear, exhaustion nervous tension etc4. Time of onset1 to 2 hours after deathInstantaneres5. Muscles involvedAll the muscles of the body both voluntary and involuntaryUsually restricted to a single group of voluntary muscles6. Muscle stiffeningNot marked, moderate force can overcome itMarked very force is require to over come it7. Molecular deathOccursDoes not occurs8. Body heatColdWarm9. Electrical stimuliMuscles do not respondMuscles response10. Muscular reactionAcidicAlkaline11. Medicolegal importanceIndicate time of death*** Indicate mode of death*** Sudden death associated with great emotional tension* Indicates the muscles in the physical activity at the time of death | Forensic Medicine | Death and Investigations | Cadaveric spasm develops
A. Less than 2 hours of death
B. 6 hours of death
C. Instantaneous with death
D. Same as rigor mortis
| Instantaneous with death |
21f3935c-f400-4b55-9093-4ff882067488 | Symptoms of fibroid uterus Menorrhagia, polymenorrhoea, metrorrhagia, continuous or postmenopausal bleeding Infeility, recurrent aboions Pain Pressure symptoms Abdominal lump Vaginal discharge | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Fibroids | LEAST common presentation of fibroid uterus is?
A. Infeility
B. Amenorrhoea
C. Pelvic mass
D. Menorrhagia
| Amenorrhoea |
1ecb8806-abcf-400a-9b40-d8f8374e6413 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hepatitis A "HAV can be cultivated reproducibly in vitro" - Harrison Remember . HAV is the only cultivable hepatitis virus | Microbiology | null | Cultivable (in vitro) hepatitis virus is?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
| Hepatitis A |
218d3b5c-95e3-4188-9995-d29e87a71ecb | In children Most common cause of hydrophosis is Pelvi Ureteric junction obstruction. | Pediatrics | null | Most common cause of hydronephrosis is children
A. PUJ obstruction
B. Ureterocele
C. Posterior urethral valve
D. Ectopic ureter
| PUJ obstruction |
198b1301-60ff-4613-9b2f-f004ed729a9b | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Atrial systole JUGULAR VENOUS PULSE.a waveIt is the positive presystolic wave produced by right atrial contraction.x descenta wave is followed by the negative systolic wave the x' descent.The x descent is produced due to atrial relaxation.The atrial relaxation is produced as a result of ventricular contraction.c waveThe x descent is interrupted by second positive wave the 'c' wave.It is produced by bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atriumQ during RVisolvolumetric contraction.v waveIt is the positive systolic wave.It result from increase in the blood volume in the venacava during systole, when the tricuspid valve is closed.y descentFollowing the "v wave" this is a negative descending limb referred to as the y descent or diastolic collapse.It is due to tricuspid valve opening and rapid inflow of blood into the right ventricle.So there areThree visible major positive waves (a,c and v) andTwo negative waves (x and y). | Physiology | Heart, Circulation, and Blood | A wave in JVP is due to -
A. Atrial systole
B. Atrial diastole
C. Ventricular systale
D. Ventricular diastole
| Atrial systole |
740725c8-9bee-4ded-aee1-170a163d7818 | Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV), also known as the Euler-Liljestrand mechanism, is a physiological phenomenon in which small pulmonary aeries constrict in the presence of alveolar hypoxia (low oxygen levels). Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2334 | Medicine | C.N.S | Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction due to
A. Irreversible pulmonary vasocontriction hypoxia
B. Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia
C. Direct blood to poorly ventilated areas
D. Occurs hours after pulmonary vasoconstriction
| Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia |
721aa9eb-9cef-45df-9770-4bd86947c2d3 | Clawing of the ring, forefinger and little fingers is characteristic of an ulnar nerve lesion. Ulnar nerve lesions can also produce wasting of the hypothenar eminence and dorsal interosseous muscles. The latter causes "guttering" between the extensor tendons on the back of the hand. Ulnar lesions also cause loss of sensation to the back of the little finger and half of the ring finger.Sensation on the back of the thumb is provided by the radial nerve.Sensation on the palmar side of the forefinger is provided by the median nerve. Wasting of the thenar eminence is associated with lesions of the median nerve. | Anatomy | null | A 24 year old construction worker presents to his physician after an injury on the job. Physical examination is remarkable for marked flexion of the ring and little fingers of the left hand. Which of the following additional findings would most likely be found on physical examination?
A. Loss of sensation on the back of the thumb
B. Loss of sensation on the palmar side of the forefinger
C. Wasting of the dorsal interosseous muscles
D. Wasting of the thenar eminence
| Wasting of the dorsal interosseous muscles |
c9747b05-458a-41fd-8a42-69589c3c23ac | Most of the water soluble vitamins exert the functions through their respective coenzymes while only one fat soluble vitamin (K) has been identified to function as a coenzyme.
Reference: Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-117 | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following fat soluble vitamin has been identified to function as a coenzyme?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin D
| Vitamin K |
54869a90-e313-4fed-b1fe-405945da9352 | Ans. is b, i.e. VVF repairRef: Shaw 14th/ed, p168SurgeryDone in1. Kelly stitch/Boney's Test/Marshall Marchetti Krantz SurgeryStress Urinary Incontinence2. Chassar Moir Technique/ Latzko technique/ layer techniqueVVF Repair3. Boari Flap TechniqueUretrovaginal Fistula repair4. Purandare Sling/ Fothergill's Repair/ Manchester Repair/Ward Mayo Hysterectomy/ Lefort's ColpocleisisProlapse Uterus5. Strassman Unification SurgeryBicornuate/Didelphic uterus (Indication for operation, if bicornuate or didelphic uterus lead to >3 Abortion)6. Hysteroscopic Septal Resection (M/c done), Jones/Thompkins/ Williams metroplastySeptate Uterus7. McIndoe VaginoplastyMRKH Syndrome/Vaginal agenesis (Best time to perform this surgery is just before/just after marriage)8. Me Donald/Shirodkar CerclageIncompetent Internal os9. Baldy Webster operation, Modified Gilliams operation, Laparoscopic ventrosuspensionRetroversion of the uterus10. Haultains Operation(via abdominal route Spinellis operation (via vaginal route)Inversion of uterus | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological Diagnosis | Chassar Moir surgery is done is case of:
A. Uterine inversion
B. VVF repair
C. Ureterovesical fistula repair
D. Retroverted uterus
| VVF repair |
3422e7ef-eed3-46ba-a0b8-a7527f23f7fb | (D) Leukaemia# Occupational exposure to coal tar or coal-tar pitch is associated with an increased risk of skin cancer.> Other types of cancer, including lung, bladder, kidney, and digestive tract cancer, have also been linked to occupational exposure to coal tar and coal-tar pitch. | Pathology | Misc. | Not associated with coal tar
A. Bladder cancer
B. Skin cancer
C. Lung cancer
D. Leukemia
| Leukemia |
c41e7410-60d3-478d-a972-f11c875aba12 | c. HydrocephalusLarge head in an infant with venous prominences over scalp and presence of 'setting-sun sign', suggest hydrocephalus. | Pediatrics | Growth, Development, and Behavior | What is the most probable cause of large head in this child?
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Mucopolysaccharidosis
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Cerebral gigantism
| Hydrocephalus |
58a5500b-731b-468f-88f8-d3e84b5e9b65 | Enterohemorrhagic E.coli O157:H7 is the serotype of E.coli causing hemorrhagic colitis. It is associated with the ingestion of undercooked hamburger, sprouts, unpasteurized milk or juice. EHEC produces a shiga toxin and can cause colitis after an incubation period of 3 -5 days. It typically produces watery diarrhea that progress to bloody diarrhea after a few hours to few days. Fatigue, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting are associated complaints. Mechanism of enterohemorrhagic colitis appears to be vascular endothelial damage that leads to platelet aggregation and initiation of the coagulation cascade. This in turn, leads to ischemia of the colon and results in hemorrhagic colitis. Ref: Mayo Clinic Gastroenterology and Hepatology Board Review By Stephen Hauser, 4th Edition, Page 197 | Microbiology | null | A 20 year old man presented with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhea, his stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. Which of the following serotype of E.coli is the causative agent of hemorrhagic colitis?
A. O 157:H7
B. O 159:H7
C. O 107:H7
D. O 55:H7
| O 157:H7 |
0299ceef-aa58-438e-b9ca-9a943068be2e | park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *implementing rules and regulations for legalisation of aboion was initially written in 1971 were revised again in 1992 came to be known as the MTP act 1971. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Non communicable diseases | Which year MTP act was passed -
A. 1971
B. 1981
C. 1957
D. 1961
| 1971 |
bded4d13-0602-4391-8657-51ddbb1cd0c7 | Most common cause of bilateral proptosis: In children : Neuroblastoma and leukemia (chloroma). In adults : Thyroid ophthalmopathy. Most common cause of unilateral proptosis: In children : Orbital cellulitis. In adults : Thyroid ophthalmopathy. Other tumors causing proptosis : symmetrical lymphoma, secondaries from Neuroblastoma, nephroblastoma, Ewings, leukemic infiltration. Ref: A. K. Khurana 6thE pg404 ref img | Ophthalmology | Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus | Which of the following tumours present with proptosis-
A. Neuroblastoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Germ cell tumour
D. Medulloblastoma
| Neuroblastoma |
79c347e8-6ce8-4349-8483-024c9e56f387 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., B 100Apo B-100 acts as a ligand for binding to LDL receptor.Also knowApo E in IDL acts as ligand for LDL receptor mediated endocytosis of IDL and chylomicron remnants. So, Ligand for LDL receptors are :(i) APO B-100 (for LDL)(ii) APO E (for IDL & Chylomicron remnants) | Pathology | null | Receptors of LDL is/are -
A. B 100
B. B 48
C. APO Al
D. APO A 1 1
| B 100 |
f339df0d-df35-496c-b7d1-94a649d13a6c | Ohomyxoviruses are medium-sized, 80 to 120-nm enveloped viruses exhibiting helical symmetry. The genome is linear, segmented, negative-sense, single-stranded RNA, totaling 10-13.6 kb in size. Segments range from 890 to 2350 nucleotides each. Ohomyxoviruses include influenza viruses that infect humans or animals.Ref: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; Twenty-Seventh Edition; Chapter 29; General Propeies of Viruses | Microbiology | Virology | Influenza belongs to
A. Ohomyxoviridae
B. Retroviridae
C. Herpes virus
D. Pox virus
| Ohomyxoviridae |
441bde1c-e468-4d09-be11-e92eaf7f9926 | Fish acts as intermediate host: Diphyllobothrium latum, Clonorchis sinensis, Paragonimus westermani (Crab fish), Metagonimus spp., Heterophyes heterophyes
In case of H. nana Human, rat and mouse acts as both definitive and intermediate host, no intermediate host.
In case of H. diminuta: Flea acts as intermediate host. | Microbiology | null | Fish acts as intermediate host in -a) D. latumb) Clonorchis sinensisc) H. Diminutad) H. Nana
A. ac
B. ab
C. ad
D. bc
| ab |
6c664734-a677-4f45-9e20-74e1e71489b1 | Retrocaecal is the mc position in 65percent cases in 12 o clock position followed by pelvic in 4 o clock position M/C :-retrocaecal>pelvic | Anatomy | Small and Large intestine | Commonest position of appendix is?
A. Paracaecal
B. Retrocaecal
C. Pelvic
D. Subcoecal
| Retrocaecal |
ed670c17-c824-498b-9d11-a9576eea120f | .<p>randomised control trials mainly include dtrawing up a protocol,selecting reference and experimental populations ,randomisation,manipulation or intervention ,follow up, assessment of outcome.RCT s are generally described as non biassed studies as they give no chance of any systemic error in the determination of association between exposure and disease.</p><p>ref:park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,22 nd edition ,pg no 70</p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Non - bias study is -
A. Case control study
B. Coho study
C. Randomized controlled trials
D. Unrandomized trials
| Randomized controlled trials |
b63ee7a8-10f5-403e-aea2-d111a8139e5d | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Condylar process Condylar process fractures of the mandible are most common account for 35% of all the fractures of mandible. They are followed by angle, body and symphysis in decreasing order of frequency. Mnemonic CABS: condylar process >angle >body >symphysis decreasing order of frequency of fracture mandible. | ENT | null | Fracture mandible occurs most common in ?
A. Body
B. Angle
C. Condylar process
D. Coronoid process
| Condylar process |
5743cd0c-9ddc-45ba-9521-734f5778de3f | Hepatitis A is transmitted through the faecal-oral route or from contaminated water or food.
Measures to protect the family include good handwashing, personal hygiene and sanitation, and the use of standard precautions.
Complete isolation is not required. Avoiding contact with blood-soiled clothing or dressings or avoiding the sharing of needles or syringes are precautions needed to prevent transmission of hepatitis B. | Medicine | null | When planning home care for a client with hepatitis A, which preventive measure should be emphasized to protect the client’s family?
A. Keeping the client in complete isolation
B. Using good sanitation with dishes and shared bathrooms
C. Avoiding contact with blood-soiled clothing or dressing
D. Forbidding the sharing of needles or syringes
| Using good sanitation with dishes and shared bathrooms |
b29cf099-13ab-43da-a92c-49bc95afa59a | There is increasing interest in the use of the ankle-brachial index (ABI) to evaluate patients at risk for cardiovascular events. An ABI less than 0.9 correlates with increased risk of myocardial infarction and indicates significant, although perhaps asymptomatic, underlying peripheral vascular disease. | Surgery | Aerial disorders | An ankle-brachial index (ABI) that suggests increased risk of myocardial infarction would be
A. <0.9
B. <0.6
C. >0.9
D. >0.6
| <0.9 |
d1c6e4ee-cb33-4c6c-bd8c-3f6a996d174e | Prilocaine similar to that of lidocaine. The primary differences are that it causes little vasodilation and thus can be used without a vasoconstrictor, and its increased volume of distribution reduces its CNS toxicity, making it suitable for intravenous regional blocks. The drug is unique among the local anesthetics in its propensity to cause methemoglobinemia. This effect is a consequence of the metabolism of the aromatic ring to o-toluidine. Development of methemoglobinemia is dependent on the total dose administered, usually appearing after a dose of 8 mg/kg. Ref: Catterall W.A., Mackie K. (2011). Chapter 20. Local Anesthetics. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following local anaesthetic causes methemoglobinemia?
A. Procaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Etidocaine
D. Ropivacaine
| Prilocaine |
569f7ffd-c5e5-4b12-98ef-a70598cae032 | Ans: a (Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency) Ref: Vasudevan, 4th ed, p. 170,171,199In ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency there will be high level of ammonia in blood.Rate limiting step in urea synthesis is formation of carbomoyl phosphate. It is catalysed by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I.One molecule of ammonia condenses with CO, in the presence of 2 molecules of ATP to form carbamoyl phosphateNOTE:An entirely different cytoplasmic enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II is involved in pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis.CPS-I deficiency is related to hyperammonemia type IUrea cycle disorders:DiseaseEnzyme defectHyperammonaemia type IHyperammonaemia type IIHyperornithinaemiaCitrullinaemiaCPS-IOrnithine transcarbamoylaseDefective ornithine transporter proteinArginosuccinate synthetaseOTC deficiency leads to hyperammonaemia type II and not hyperornithinaemia- Galactosaemia is due to deficiency of galactose-1-uridyl transferase and in galactosaemia there will be increased blood galactose level and galactosuria- Histidinaemia leads to accumulation of histidine in blood and body fluids and increased excretion of imidazole pyruvic acid in urine. This is due to deficiency of histidase.- Pheny ketonuria is due to deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | In which of the following condition there is increased level of ammonia in blood?
A. Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency
B. Galactosaemia
C. Histidinaemia
D. Phenyl ketonuria
| Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency |
328f6c41-ccf4-4184-acf2-36780d865275 | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. CA 125 is a tumor marker of ovarian cancer. Most commonly used for follow up of ovarian cancer. pancreas tumor marker CA 19-9.. | Pathology | General pathology | Ca 125 is used for ?-
A. Follow up of ovarian cancer
B. Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer
C. Diagnosis of stomach cancer
D. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer
| Follow up of ovarian cancer |
4cc6878d-1928-4c5a-9aec-49fa07f4bcf0 | Medical examiner's inquest is prevalent in most of the states of USA.it is considered to be superior to all other types of inquest, because it is conducted by a forensic pathologist with medical, scientific,& legal knowledge.police& magistrates inquest common in India. Coroner's inquest was common in Mumbai and Kolkata now it is not followed. REF: The Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th edition page no: 3. | Forensic Medicine | Medico legal procedures | Which of the following is best type of inquest at the international level?
A. Coroner's inquest
B. Police inquest
C. Medical examiner's inquest
D. Magistrates inquest
| Medical examiner's inquest |
b548079f-f2a3-48fe-adef-05b39cc8ff64 | If the cone goes to length and radiographically exhibits a wiggly or S-shaped appearance, the cone is too small for the canal and a larger cone must be selected. | Dental | null | Wiggly appearance of the master cone in the root canal suggests:
A. Long cone in the canal
B. Short cone in the canal
C. Thick cone in the canal
D. Thin cone in the canal
| Short cone in the canal |
d5e2056a-069f-40e4-b271-22dae50998dd | History of ice cream ingestion and subsequent symptoms of vomiting, bloated abdomen, are characteristic findings of lactase deficiency.
Lactase deficiency -
Lactase is a disaccharidase present on intestinal epithelium (brush border)*. It is used to digest lactose (disaccharide).
Symptoms arise after ingestion of food containing lactose (e.g. milk).
Symptom - Diarrhoea, vomiting, bloated abdomen.
Diagnosis
Presence of more than 1/2 percent of reducing substrate in the fresh stool.
Acidic stools
Abnormal oral sugar tolerance test* (blood glucose rise of less than 20mg/d1 above fasting level with a disaccharide load of 2g/kg)
Breath H2 excretion of more than 11 ppm*.
Enzyme assay on mucosal biopsies showing low levels of disaccharidases.
Treatment -
low lactose diet. | Pediatrics | null | A boy comes with complains of vomiting, bloated abdomen and abdominal pain. He has a history of attending ice–cream eating competition last night. Ile also has a past history of similar episodes following ingestion of milk and milk products. The likely cause –
A. Pancreatic amylase deficiency
B. Lactase deficiency
C. Salivary amylase deficiency
D. Food poisoning
| Lactase deficiency |
acf07d24-52ef-4088-847f-54446d1d0c92 | Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV: Ideally HIV PEP must be initiated as soon as possible HIV PEP must be initiated within: 24 hours HIV PEP unreasonable to initiate beyond: 72 hours Duration of HIV PEP: 4 weeks Follow-up period after HIV PEP: 12 weeks. Only the higher risk injuries are offered HIV post-exposure prophylaxis which consists of2-3 anti-retroviral medications administered for 28 days. A baseline rapid HIV testing of exposed and source person must be done for PEP. However, initiation of PEP should not be delayed while waiting for the results of HIV testing of the source of exposure PROTOCOL: It is necessary to determine the status of the exposure and the HIV status of the exposure source before staing post exposure prophylaxis (PEP). | Social & Preventive Medicine | Leprosy, HIV & STDs | The minimum period required for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 12 weeks
| 4 weeks |
40a75717-fea4-4efb-9cd3-0de0e693c13f | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Hemolytic anemia Howell-Jolly bodies (HJ bodies)* These are round solid staining, dark-blue to purple inclusions. They are nuclear remanants predominatly composed of DNA.* The presence of Howel-Jolly bodies is associated with hemolytic anemia, megaloblastic anemia, hereditary spherocytosis, myelodysplastic syndrome, post splenectomy and after physiological atrophy of spleen.* Although HJ bodies are seen in all these conditions, they are most common after splenectomy. | Pathology | Blood | Howell jolly bodies are seen in?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Multiple myeloma
| Hemolytic anemia |
744727d6-8abe-488f-a7aa-a03ebadb1cde | T waves are hyper-acute in leads V2-V5 with the simultaneous presence of ST segment elevation in chest leads V2-V5. This is diagnostic of STEMI involving anterior wall and the vessel blocked is left anterior descending aery. The symptoms of chest pain and diaphoresis are explained by the ECG findings of the pain. Ideal treatment of STEMI is PCI or thrombolysis Since PCI is not among the given choices we need to consider thrombolysis but is indicated only within 12 hours of onset As per this question, patient presented late and hence we will treat with Aspirin to prevent future MI episode, Statin to stabilize the vulnerable plaques Morphine to calm the patient and reduce pulmonary edema. Condition ECG findings ECG findings of ischemia Tall wide (peaked)T wave T wave inversion ECG findings of injury ST elevation (Pardee sign) ECG findings of cell death Pathological Q wave | Medicine | Acute coronary syndrome | A 65 year male has a history of sweating and chest pain for last 24 hours with the following ECG. Which of the following is not given in managing the patient?
A. Aspirin
B. Statin
C. Thrombolytic therapy
D. Morphine
| Thrombolytic therapy |
f39436f0-af9a-4702-b8a6-d8b5c1b8da85 | In autopsy in virological disease universal work precautions have to be followed and specimens are stored in 50% glycerine. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 60. | Forensic Medicine | Death and postmortem changes | During autopsy for virology study which agent is used for storing tissue -
A. Sodium chloride
B. Alcohol
C. Spirit
D. 50% glycerin
| 50% glycerin |
1586c80e-f05f-4712-b337-5d6ed0def95a | Multiple physical symptoms (such as heaviness of head, vague body aches) are paicularly common in the elderly depressives and depressed patients from the developing countries (such as India) * MC psychiatric disorder in India: Depression * Neurotransmitter involved: Serotonin and nor-epinephrine * MC cause of suicide: DepressionRisk features of suicide in depression: * Endogenous type of depression * Psychotic depression * MC type of post-puerperal psychosis: Depression * Nihilistic ideas: Seen in depression | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | Depression patients in developing countries most prominently show which of the following feature?
A. Low mood
B. Sleep disturbance
C. Vague body aches
D. Suicidal tendancy
| Vague body aches |
926fdc5f-cd8e-44b0-a5b2-9fddd134cb27 | Ref Robbins 7/e p300; , Harrison 17/e p499; 9/e p290 Tumor suppressor genes are the genes whose products down regulate the cell cycle. RB Gene: Governor of the Cell Cycle It is useful to begin with the retinoblastoma gene (RB), the first tumor suppressor gene to be discovered and, as it happens, a prototypical representative. As with many advances in medicine, the discovery of tumor suppressor genes was accomplished by the study of a rare disease--in this case, retinoblastoma, an uncommon childhood tumor. Approximately 60% of retinoblastomas are sporadic, and the remaining ones are familial, the predisposition to develop the tumor being transmitted as an autosomal dom- inant trait. To account for the sporadic and familial occur- rence of an identical tumor, Knudson, in 1974, proposed his now famous two-hit hypothesis, which in molecular terms can be stated as follows: * Two mutations (hits) are required to produce retinoblas- toma. These involve the RB gene, which has been mapped to chromosomal locus 13q14. Both of the normal alleles of the RB locus must be inactivated (hence the two hits) for the development of retinoblastoma (Fig. 5-21). * In familial cases, children inherit one defective copy of the RB gene in the germ line; the other copy is normal. brakes to cellular proliferation Rb gene is a tumor suppressor gene whereas My ,fos and Ra's are all example of proto oncogene Retinoblastoma develops when the normal RB gene is lost in retinoblasts as a result of somatic mutation. Because in retinoblastoma families only a single somatic mutation is required for expression of the disease, the familial transmission follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. * In sporadic cases, both normal RB alleles are lost by somatic mutation in one of the retinoblasts. The end result is the same: a retinal cell that has lost both of the normal copies of the RB gene becomes cancerous. Although the loss of normal RB genes initially was discovered in retinoblastomas, it is now evident that homo- zygous loss of this gene is a fairly common feature of several tumors, including breast cancer, small cell cancer of the lung, and bladder cancer. Patients with familial retinoblastoma also are at greatly increased risk for development of osteosarcomas and some soft tissue sarcoma The RB gene product is a DNA-binding protein that is expressed in every cell type examined, where it exists in an active hypophosphorylated state and an inactive hyperphosphor- ylated state. The impoance of Rb lies in its regulation of the G1/S checkpoint, the poal through which cells must pass before DNA replication commences. As background for an understanding of how tumor sup- pressors function, it is useful to briefly revisit the cell cycle: In embryos, cell divisions proceed at an amazing clip, with DNA replication beginning immediately after mitosis ends. As development proceeds, however, two gaps are incorpo- rated into the cell cycle: gap 1 (G1) between mitosis (M) and DNA replication (S), and gap 2 (G2) between DNA replica- tion (S) and mitosis (M) (Fig. 5-20). Although each phase of the cell cycle circuitry is monitored carefully, the transi- tion from G1 to S is believed to be an extremely impoant checkpoint in the cell cycle "clock." Once cells cross the G1 checkpoint they can pause the cell cycle for a time, but they are obligated to complete mitosis. In G1, however, cells can remove themselves entirely from the cell cycle, either tem- porarily (quiescence, or G0) or permanently (senescence). Indeed, during development, as cells become terminally differentiated, they exit the cell cycle and enter G0. Cells in G0 remain there until external cues, such as mitogenic sig- naling, push them back into the cell cycle. In G1, therefore, diverse signals are integrated to determine whether the cell should progress through the cell cycle, or exit the cell cycle and differentiate, and Rb is a key hub integrating external mitogenic and differentiation signals to make this decision. To appreciate this crucial role of Rb in the cell cycle, it is helpful to review the mechanisms that enforce the G1/S transition. * The initiation of DNA replication (S phase) requires the activity of cyclin E/CDK2 complexes, and expression of cyclin E is dependent on the E2F family of transcription factors. Early in G1, Rb is in its hypophosphorylated active form, and it binds to and inhibits the E2F family of transcription factors, preventing transcription of cyclin E. Hypophosphorylated Rb blocks E2F-mediated transcription in at least two ways (Fig. 5-22). First, it sequesters E2F, preventing it from interacting with other transcriptional activators. Second, Rb recruits chromatin remodeling proteins, such as histone deacetylases and histone methyltransferases, which bind to the promoters of E2F-responsive genes such as cyclin E. These enzymes modify chromatin at the promoters to make DNA insen- sitive to transcription factors. This situation is changed on mitogenic signaling. Growth factor signaling leads to cyclin D expression and activa- tion of cyclin D-CDK4/6 complexes. These complexes phosphorylate Rb, inactivating the protein and releasing E2F to induce target genes such as cyclin E. Expression of cyclin E then stimulates DNA replication and pro- gression through the cell cycle. When the cells enter S phase, they are committed to divide without additional growth factor stimulation. During the ensuing M phase, the phosphate groups are removed from Rb by cellular phosphatases, regenerating the hypophosphorylated form of Rb. * E2F is not the sole target of Rb. The versatile Rb protein binds to a variety of other transcription factors that regulate cell differentiation. For example, Rb stimulates myocyte-, adipocyte-, melanocyte-, and macrophage- specific transcription factors. Thus, the Rb pathway couples control of cell cycle progression at G0-G1 with differentiation, which may explain how differentiation is associated with exit from the cell cycle. In view of the centrality of Rb to the control of the cell cycle, an interesting question is why RB is not mutated in every cancer. In fact, mutations in other genes that control Rb phosphorylation can mimic the effect of RB loss; such genes are mutated in many cancers that seem to have normal RB genes. For example, mutational activation of CDK4 or overexpression of cyclin D ors cell proliferation by facil- itating Rb phosphorylation and inactivation. Indeed, cyclin D is overexpressed in many tumors because of gene ampli- fication or translocation. Mutational inactivation of CDKIs also would drive the cell cycle by unregulated activation of cyclins and CDKs. As mentioned earlier, the CDKN2A gene is an extremely common target of deletion or muta- tional inactivation in human tumors. The emerging paradigm is that loss of normal cell cycle control is central to malignant transformation and that at least one of the four key regulators of the cell cycle (CDKN2A, cyclin D, CDK4, Rb) is mutated in most human cancers. Fuhermore, the transforming proteins of several oncogenic human DNA viruses act, in pa, by neutralizing the growth inhibi- tory activities of Rb. For example, the human papillomavi- rus (HPV) E7 protein binds to the hypophosphorylated form of Rb, preventing it from inhibiting the E2F transcrip- tion factors. Thus, Rb is functionally deleted, leading to uncontrolled growth | Anatomy | General anatomy | An example of tumor suppressor gene is
A. Myc
B. Fos
C. Ras
D. Rb
| Rb |
1a2131cc-6c33-4cc6-b560-36372d9cb8ce | Morphine - Morphine depresses respiratory center in a dose dependent manner Rate | Tidal | volume In healthy individuals - no cognizable respiratory depression MARKED DEPRESSION In patients with: Asthma COPD Corpulmonalae Lungs and kidney Disease THIOPENTONE SODIUM -decreases respiratory rate KETAMINE: Bronchodilation (best IV anesthetic against causing bronchodilation) Airway reflexes are maintained Respiratory center is not depressed. d/t sympathetic stimulation the following are observed: HR CO | BP Agent of choice in: Shock( duetoo the sympathetic stimulation) bronchial asthma(as it causes bronchodilation) HALOTHANE - causes bronchodilation. Best inhalational bronchodilator followed by sevoflurane | Anaesthesia | FMGE 2018 | In status asthmaticus, anesthetic agent used as bronchodilator:-
A. Morphine
B. Thiopentone sodium
C. Ketamine
D. Halothane
| Ketamine |
789f6419-77d6-408b-99f4-7c563d6aa85c | Ans. B. Fungusa. This HIV/AIDS patient presented with a secondary oral pseudomembranous candidiasis infection.b. The immune system which suffers with HIV undergoes a dramatic reduction in its effectiveness, resulting in the greater possibility of secondary infections. | Medicine | Infection | This type of lesion in HIV patient is caused most likely by which of the following?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungus
C. Virus
D. Parasite
| Fungus |
36799227-84cd-41b9-abaa-407197db7a8f | Bone conduction is a measure of cochlear function. In ABC test: Patient's bone conduction is compared with that of the examiner (presuming that the examiner has normal hearing). In conductive deafness, the patient and the examiner hear the fork for the same duration of time. In sensorineural deafness, the patient hears the fork for a shoer duration. Ref: Dhingra; 6th Edition; pg no 22 | ENT | Ear | Test of detecting damage to cochlea is
A. Caloric test
B. Weber test
C. Rinnie's test
D. ABC test
| ABC test |
f2846108-8efd-48d7-ac23-a753c2b5c2df | The picture shows Peripheral angiography for which we need vasodilatation. Vasodilatation is produced best by non-selective alpha-blockers, tolazoline is more selective for peripheral vesselsRef: CMDT 2010-Pg 1434 | Pharmacology | All India exam | Which of the following drug is used in this test?
A. Tolazoline
B. Clonidine
C. Bismuth
D. Oxymetazoline
| Tolazoline |
66285fc7-51b3-4b31-b306-8e40fa5b51a2 | Ans. (c) Middle FingerRef: Grays Anatomy 41st Ed; Page No- 884* The four dorsal interossei muscles are bipennate in nature.* They are larger in size compare to palmar interossei.* They are arising from the adjacent sides of two metacarpal bones.* First two attach to radial side of proximal phalanx of index and middle finger and blend with dorsal digital expansion.* The third and fourth to ulnar side of proximal phalanx of middle and ring finger and blend with dorsal digital expansion.* The second and third are attached to the radial and ulnar sides of the middle finger, respectively.Action of the interossei musclesPalmar Interossei* It unipennate in natures.* Location: On the palmar surface between the metacarpals.* All fingers have palmar interossei; except;- Mid die finger.* They are arising from palmar aspects of the metacarpals.* It adduct the fingers towards the longitudinal axis of the middle fingerDorsal Interossei* It abducts the fingers away from the longitudinal axis of the middle finger.* Note: Fifth finger is not abducted by dorsal interossei.Extra MileInterosseiMuscleOriginInsertionNerve supplyNerve rootActionDorsal interossei (4) (bipennate)Adjacent sides of metacarpal bonesLateral sides of bases of proximal phalanges; extensor expansionUlnarC8;Abduct fingers; flex metacarpo- phalangeal joints; extend inter- phalangeal jointsT1Palmar interossei (3) (unipennate) Medial side of second metacarpal; lateral sides of fourth and fifth metacarpalsBases of proximal phalanges in same sides as their origins; extensor expansionUlnarC8;Adduct fingers; flex metacarpo- phalangeal joints; extend inter- phalangeal jointsT1 Movement at the Metacarpophalangeal JointDorsal interosseiAbductionPalmar interosseiAdductionExtensor digitorumExtensionLumbricals and interosseiFlexion | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | Which of the following finger is having two dorsal interossei muscles:
A. Index finger
B. Little finger
C. Middle finger
D. Ring finger
| Middle finger |
5d5e1670-3096-4762-b2af-a608efe8dba3 | According to American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology the recommended weight gain for singleton pregnancy is 25-35 pounds during a singleton pregnancy. Maternal weight gain during pregnancy could be due to: Fetus: 3500 gm at term Placenta: 650g Amniotic fluid:800mg Breast enlargement: 400g Uterus: 970g Interstitial fluid and blood volume: 1200-1800 gm. Underweight women should gain more weight of 12.5-18 kg or 28-40 lb. Obese women should gain less than 7-11.5 kg or 15-25 lbs. Ref: Bernstein H.B., VanBuren G. (2013). Chapter 6. Normal Pregnancy and Prenatal Care. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds),CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What is the normal net weight gain during pregnancy?
A. 11 Pounds
B. 24 Pounds
C. 36 Pounds
D. 42 Pounds
| 24 Pounds |
adac28c7-bb22-4978-8efc-493a6e0fdddf | Bullets are used in Rifled Gun. SHOT GUN also known as SMOOTH Barrel GUN :- Choking :-to decrease dispersion and increase the range. Lead shot/ pellets used in shot gun. | Forensic Medicine | Ballistics | Shotgun does not contain :
A. Barrel
B. Choke bore
C. Bullets
D. Muzzle
| Bullets |
39fb6596-c033-4bf6-a75a-bf0eb92ad041 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased metabolism of drug | Pharmacology | null | OCP failure by rifampicin is due to -
A. Decreased absorption of OCP
B. Increased binding of OCPs by rifampicin and reduced free drug concentration
C. Increased metabolism of drug
D. Increased chances of ovulation due to rifampicin
| Increased metabolism of drug |
f70a7975-07ce-47f1-8309-8b68bf7d046a | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Histogram DataScaleGraph/DiagramQuantitativeInterval scaleRatio scaleHistogramFrequency polygonfrequency curves linechart scatter diagramCumulative frequency CurveLine Chart graphQualitativeNominal scaleOrdinal scaleBar diagramPie chartPictogramMap diagram or spot map | Social & Preventive Medicine | Data Variables | Which of the following is used to represent continuous (quantitative) data -
A. Bar diagram
B. Pie chart
C. Histogram
D. Map diagram
| Histogram |
105ca4bd-e16c-4122-8f78-b77e1be7b881 | Nitrates are vasodilator drugs which aggravate condition of HOCM , so it is generally not used in HOCM | Medicine | null | A 32 year old carpenter presented to you with history of recurrent attacks of chest pain . You prescribe him sublingual nitroglycerin and advise him to take it at the time of pain. The patient revisits the hospital again after 2weeks and tells that the intensity of chest pain has increased on taking nitroglycerin. The patient is most likely suffering from
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
C. Aortic dissection
D. Aortic aneurysm
| Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy |
a6491268-ce12-4e2c-9831-1997b62e8af9 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Estrogen o The most important stimulus for erythropoietin secretion is hypoxia. Other stimulus that can increase its secretion are cobalt salts, androgens, alkalosis due to high altitude, and catecholamines via b-adrenergic mechanism.o Pregnancy (due to placental lactogen), testosterone and prolactin increase the activity of erythropoietin. Estrogen inhibits utilization of erythropoietin by marrow cells and also impairs its production. Progesterone increase the effect of erythropoietin by enhancing the effect of placental lactogen and by antagonizing the effect of estrogen. | Biochemistry | Endocrinology | Erythropoietin production is inhibited by -
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Thyroxine
D. Testosterone
| Estrogen |
98f00043-22e0-414a-a202-2f59ffc9f04c | The lens continues to grow throughout life. At bih, it measures about 6.4 mm equatorially and 3.5 mm anteroposteriorly and weighs approximately 90 mg. The adult lens typically measures 9 mm equatorially and 5 mm anteroposteriorly and weighs approximately 255 mg. Ref. AAO Sec.11 (2011-2012) Pg.No. 7 | Ophthalmology | Lens | Equatorial diameter of the lens is
A. 7mm
B. 8mm
C. 9mm
D. 10mm
| 9mm |
5ffda24a-5951-481b-be1c-8be2c83f6964 | Ketamine REF: Morgan 4'h ed p. 935 Anesthesia of choice for congenital hea disease Left to right shunt (Acynotic) Sevoflurane Right to left shunt (Cyanotic) Retamine | Anaesthesia | null | Anesthesia of choice in child with cyanotic hea disease?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopentone
D. Sevoflurane
| Ketamine |
72ed06c8-5abf-493e-9343-02d95148a20e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Maximal expirationo Residual volume is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration.Respiratory Volumes and Capacities for an Average Young Adult MaleMeasurementTypical valueDefinition Respiratory volumes1.Tida] volume (TV)500 mlAmount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during relaxed, quiet breathing2.Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)3000 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal inspiration that can be inhaled with maximum effort3.Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)1200 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal expiration that can be exhaled with maximum effort4.Residual volume (RV)1200 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration, keeps alveoli inflated between breaths and mixes with fresh air on next inspirationRespiratory Capacities5.Vital capacity (VC)4700 mlAmount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration (ERV-rTV-s-IRV); used to assess strength of thoracic muscles as well as pulmonary function6.Inspiratory capacity (1C)3500 mlMaximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration (TV + IRV)7.Functional residual capacity (FRC)2400 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal expiration (RV + ERV)8.Total lung capacity (TLC)5900 mlMaximum amount of air the lungs can contain (RV - VC) | Physiology | Mechanics of Respiration | Residual volume is the volume of air in lung after-
A. Maximal inspiration
B. Maximal expiration
C. Normal inspiration
D. Normal expiration
| Maximal expiration |
90fd0d02-c9df-421e-9477-273415613650 | Ans. is 'c' i.e.,WhitePre-packed colour coded STI/I kits have been provided for free supply to all designated STI/I clinics :Kit 1 4 Grey, for urethral discharge, ano-rectal discharge, cervicitis.Kit 2 - Green, for vaginitisKit 3 4 White, for genital ulcersKit 4 - Blue, for genital ulcersKit 5 - Red, for genital ulcersKit 6 4 Yellow, for lower abdominal painKit 7 - Black, for scoal swelling. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Color of kit 3 for STD under AIDS control programme?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. White
D. Green
| White |
d77fc2b5-e37c-4b79-98f9-e94f88e4aa90 | Cognizable offence
Offence in which a police officer can arrest a person without warrant. | Forensic Medicine | null | What is cognizable offence ?
A. Offence that can be forgiven
B. Offence in which person can be arrested but with a warrant
C. Offence in which a person can be arrested even without a warrant
D. Offence in which bail cannot be granted
| Offence in which a person can be arrested even without a warrant |
b6a6923a-e2cf-4dd5-bb2c-e1cdc45a7957 | Ans. (a) Asthma like features(Ref: Robbins 9th 689)In 10-25% cases, disease may be progressive, with chest tightness recurring or persisting throughout the workweek.After >10 years of exposure, workers with recurrent symptoms are more likely to have an obstructive pattern on pulmonary function testing. | Pathology | Respiration | The lung pathology occurring in persons working in cotton- wool industries is
A. Asthma like features
B. Hypersensitivity pnemonitis
C. Lung Ca
D. Chronic bronchitis
| Asthma like features |
622f30da-dc18-407b-972b-fd679469ce86 | Pendred&;s Syndrome: Consists of congenital sensorineural hearing loss+ goitre Due to defects in sulfate transpo protein (Chromosome 7q) to the thyroid gland and cochlea. Rafetoff Syndrome End organ resistance to T4 Ref: Schwaz 10th edition Pgno: 1534 | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | Pendred&;s Syndrome is due to defect in:
A. Chromosome 7p
B. Chromosome 7q
C. Chromosome 8p
D. Chromosome 8q
| Chromosome 7q |
810f38cb-3f85-42be-a9ba-71610e4fd911 | Congenital diaphragmatic hernia and pneumothorax cause respiratory distress with mediastinal shift to contralateral side.
Bilateral choanal atresia and HMD cause respiratory distress, but no mediastinal shift. | Radiology | null | Apgar scores were 3, and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes. At 10 Apgar scores were 3, and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes. At 10 minutes child shows features of breathlessness,on CXR-mediastinal shift was there, possible causes –
a) Bilateral choanal atresiab) Pneumothoraxc) Congenital diaphragmatic herniad) Hyaline membrane disease
A. a
B. bc
C. ac
D. ad
| bc |
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