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f0afb109-b9d9-4061-9f66-01f5dfc3fca2 | Malaria is not seen in people sickle cell anaemia,thalassemia,G6PD deficiency disorders.Ref.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21st edition page no 236 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | In Sickle cell trait patients, there is reduced risk of which of the following disease?
A. Typhoid
B. Malaria
C. G-6PD deficiency
D. Filaria
| Malaria |
9f18ccee-3313-4ccf-b6d3-b1b70d6b4672 | Lutenizing hormone and insulin stimulate increased testosterone production by ovaries in PCOD. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following hormones stimulates increased testosterone production by ovaries in PCOD
A. Estrogen
B. Luteinizing Hormone
C. Follicle - stimulating Hormone
D. Inhibin
| Luteinizing Hormone |
c76efd0e-e890-46fd-9244-e812f2c04670 | Formed by branches of- Subclan aery - first pa - Suprascapular aery - Deep branch of transverse cervical aery Axillary aery - third pa - Subscapular aery & its circumflex scapular branch There are other smaller anastomoses over the acromion process, which also helps to maintain .flow to arm. (BDC Vol I, 4/e, p 82) Anastomoses over the acromion process Formed by - a)Acromial br. of thoraco-acromial aery b)Acromial br. of suprascapular aery c)Acromial br. of posterior circumflex humeral aery The subscapular aery also forms anastomoses with intercostal aeries | Anatomy | null | In obstruction of second pa of axillay aery, the anostomosis between the following aery will maintain the blood supply of upper limb?
A. Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery
B. Anterior & posterior circumflex humeral
C. Posterior circumflex humeral & circumflex scapular aery
D. Suprascapular & anterior circumflex humeral aery
| Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery |
d036d499-99ab-45f0-a899-419636ee49d6 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Descending flaccid paralysis (Ref: Harrison, 18th/e, 1201)* Botulism causes acute descending paralysis of flaccid type (Areflexia). | Microbiology | Bacteria | Botulism causes:
A. Descending flaccid paralysis
B. Descending spastic paralysis
C. Ascending paralysis
D. Ascending spastic paralysis
| Descending flaccid paralysis |
de9ee238-6ea2-499f-8169-1226d1d5659e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Testis In hemochromatosis, hypogonadism is caused by impairment of hypothalamic pituitary function and not due to deposition of Iron in the Testis. Hemochromatosis Hemochromatosis is characterized by the excessive accumulation of body iron, most of which is deposited in parenchymal organs such as liver and pancreas. The total body content of the iron is tightly regulated, as the daily losses are matched by gastrointestinal absorption. In hereditary hemochromatosis, regulation of intestinal absorption of dietary iron is lost, leading to net iron accumulation of 0.5 to 1.0 gm/year. It may be recalled that the total body iron pool ranges from 2-6 gm in normal adults; about 0.5 gm is stored in the liver 98% of which is hepatocytes. In hemochromatosis the iron accumulation may exceed 50 gm, over one third of which accumulates in the liver. The iron accumulation is life long, the rate of net iron accumulation is 0.5 to 1.0 gm/year. The disease manifests itself typically after 20 gm of storage iron have accumulated. The disease first mainfests itself in the fifth to sixth decades of life. Excessive iron is directly toxic to host tissues The clinical features of hemochromatosis are characterized principally by deposition of excess iron in the following organs in decreasing order of severity. | Pathology | null | In hemochromatosis iron not deposited in ?
A. Hea
B. Pituitary
C. Testis
D. Skin
| Testis |
61048be5-1186-47a7-b46e-393ece50edb6 | Ibuprofen is a common nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is the most frequent cause of aseptic meningitis induced by drugs. The incidence of this type of aseptic meningitis is increasing, mainly among patients with underlying autoimmune connective tissue disorder Ref: G n G 13th ed. | Pharmacology | All India exam | Recently aseptic meningitis was discovered as an adverse effect of which of the following drug?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Paracetamol
C. Ketorolac
D. Nimesulide
| Ibuprofen |
ad5102ce-4b61-4f44-a4b1-dfdb07d029e1 | A typical adult human stomach will secrete about 1.5 liters of gastric acid daily Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:406,407,408 | Physiology | Renal physiology | Amount of gastric juice per day is
A. 500 - 1000ml
B. 1000 - 1500ml
C. 2000 - 2500ml
D. 3000ml
| 2000 - 2500ml |
f299f76d-1c4d-404b-ba4e-03255b90296b | B i.e. Propofol - Incidence of pain on injection after intravenous administration of drug in small vein (eg. dorsum of wrist or hand) is 80% for etomidate, 40% for propofol, 20% for methohexital 1% and 10% for thiopental 2.5% anesthetic agents - This incidence is greatly reduced if a large vein is used, if a small dose of lidocaine (10mg) is injected sholy before. Thiopental 2.5% also causes pain on IV administration but the incidence is much higher for propofol. | Anaesthesia | null | The following anaesthetic drug causes pain on intravenous adminstration:
A. Midazolam
B. Propofol
C. Ketamine
D. Thiopentone sodium
| Propofol |
ebe096ba-7739-4932-b967-1c887e3d079d | The risk of transmission increases with the period of gestation,but the risk of teratogenecity decreases. Refer page no 294,295 of Text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2nd edition. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy | Infections transmitted to the baby at delivery:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Gonococcus
C. Herpes simplex type II
D. Hepatitis-B
| Toxoplasmosis |
b93df9ee-c0d4-4e50-b1cd-f3638b211777 | Answer is A (Cervical): Rheumatoid ahritis commonly involves the joints of hands, wrist, elbow, knees, ankle, and feet in a symmetrical manner. Axial skeleton involvement is usually limited to Upper Cervical Spine. | Surgery | null | Which pa of the spine is most commonly affected in Rheumatoid ahritis:
A. Cervical
B. Lumbar
C. Thoracic
D. Sacral
| Cervical |
6f394237-466f-475a-ac57-607cd56e15b3 | Face bow is to orient the maxillary cast with opening axis of articulator and mandible. | Dental | null | Which of the following is not a significance of centric relation?
A. This position is independent of tooth contact or position.
B. Mounting errors can be detected if centric relation is taken as horizontal reference point.
C. It helps in orienting the maxillary cast to opening axis of articulator.
D. It helps in developing occlusion for complete denture patients.
| It helps in orienting the maxillary cast to opening axis of articulator. |
ee34520f-86df-4451-adb6-2604e280b6c7 | Secondary air pollutants are formed within the atmosphere itself, they arise from chemical reactions of primary pollutants, most familiar example is ozone. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 793 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Which one of the following is a secondary pollutant?
A. Benzene
B. Nitrogen oxide
C. Ozone
D. Sulphur dioxide
| Ozone |
1f9e46b1-1cd3-4757-a57b-ae6a32be5c49 | Bile pigment deposition at sweat pores of patients with liver disease REFERANCE. jaad .org | Pathology | G.I.T | Which substance is/are not deposited in hepatocyte?
A. Lipofuschin
B. Melanin like pigment
C. Bile pigment
D. Melanin
| Bile pigment |
fdf2f88b-ff56-44b7-8706-355bf2c3cb49 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Applanation Tonometry Measurement of intraocular pressure (IOP)* Measurement of IOP is done byA) Manometry It is the only direct measure of IOP.B) TonometryIt is an indirect method of measurement of IOP. Following types of tonometers are therei) Indentation (impression) tonometerThese are the most commonly used tonometers. Example is Schiotz tonometer.ii) Applanation tonometerGoldmann applanation tonometer is the most accurate tonometer. Other types of applanation tonometers are perkins tonometer, pneumatic tonometer; air-puff tonometer, Pulse air tonometer, Tono pen. | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | What is the type of Goldman tonometry?
A. Applanation Tonometry
B. Dynamic countour tonometry
C. Rebound tonometry
D. Impression tonometry
| Applanation Tonometry |
d626e30a-dac6-49fe-8384-d6378d07ecdf | Sheehan syndrome refers to panhypopituitarism. It classically follows massive postpaum hemorrhage and associated hypotension. Abrupt, severe hypotension leads to pituitary ischemia and necrosis. In its most severe form, these patients develop shock due to pituitary apoplexy. In less severe forms, loss of gonadotrope activity in the pituitary leads to anovulation and subsequent amenorrhea. Damage to the other pituitary cell types may present as failure to lactate, loss of sexual and axillary hair, and manifestation of hypothyroidism and adrenal insufficiency symptoms. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 16. Amenorrhea. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A lady with placenta pre delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding and shock. After resuscitation most likely complication would be:
A. Galactorrhoea
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Loss of menstruation
D. Cushing's syndrome
| Loss of menstruation |
649ede47-8199-4cf4-b591-942db68ee7d9 | Refer the byte "Autopsy technique and types". | Forensic Medicine | null | In Ghon's technique of autops, organs are removed
A. As organ blocks
B. One by one
C. En - Masse
D. Not removed
| As organ blocks |
9a5d3821-0404-439c-8da9-48325e5c4d02 | Ans. (b) MercuryRef: The Essentials ofFSM by K.S. Narayan Reddy 31st ed. / 505MERCURY POISONING (HYPRAGYRISM)* Vapours of mercuric compounds are poisonous because it will be absorbed in the systemic circulation.* Mercuric compounds being soluble are more poisonous than mercurous (less soluble) compounds.Clinical Presentation of Mercury Poisoning (Remembered as MEATS)* Mercuria lentis: brownish deposition of mercury on the anterior lens.* Membranous colitis* Erethism: Characterized by shyness, irritability, tremors, loss of memory & insomnia.* Acrodynia (Pink disease): Generalized pinkish body rash starting from tips of fingers & toes# Characterized by 5 P's: Pinkish, Puffy, Painful, Paresthetic hands, and feet with Peeling of skin.* Tremors: Also known as Danbury tremors, hatters or glass-blowers shake* Salivation & gingivitis: excessive salivation associated with metallic taste, gingivitis, loosening of teeth and blue-black line on gums.Also, knowDifferent Metallic Poisoning and Their Effect on Hair And SkinPoisoningColor of Hair & SkinArsenic (As)* Yellow color of skin, hair & mucous membrane* Milk rose (Brownish pigmentation)/Rain drop pigmentation* BLACK FOOT DISEASECopper (Cu)* Jaundiced skin* Green-blue skin, hair & perspiration* Green - purple line on gumsMercury (Hg)* Blue-black line on gums with jaw necrosis and loosening of a tooth* Brown deposits on anterior lens capsule (mercurial lentils)* Acrodynia (pink disease)Lead (Pb)* Blue stippled Burtonian line on gums, especially on the upper jaw.Other Features of Mercury Poisoning*Proximal Convoluted Tubule necrosis* Prevalence of abortions are common* Minimata disease is an organic mercury poisoning due to consumption of fish poisoned by mercury. | Unknown | null | Acrodynia is associated with:
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Zinc
D. Arsenic
| Mercury |
832a7b0c-bb44-4b55-a74a-f6e5514707f2 | The symptoms of vitamin A deficiency result from abnormalities involving the normal functions of vitamin A. These normal functions include maintaining mucus-secreting epithelium, restoring levels of the visual pigment rhodopsin, increasing immunity to infections, and acting as an antioxidant. | Pathology | null | A patient with malabsorption who develops a deficiency of vitamin A is most likely to subsequently develop:
A. Acute leukemia
B. Intestinal metaplasia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Night blindness
| Night blindness |
ff432971-4028-41da-a5e4-18602aadc53d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vaginal hydorcele o Vaginal hydroceleThis is common type of hydrocele; whee acumulation of fluid occurs between the layers of tunica vaginalis in scrotum. These may! be of Pvo types : Primary and secondary?In primary vaginal hydrocele, often there is not definite cause.Secondary vaginal hydrocele accompanies disease of the testis and/or epididymis. The common causes of secondary hydrocele are epididymo-orhitis, trauma and testicular neoplasm. | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Testis & Scrotum) | Young male scrotal swelling since 3 yrs on examination fluctuant swelling testis not separately felt. No trauma or fever. Diagnosis -
A. Vaginal hydrocele
B. Hemorchitis
C. Ca testis
D. Varicocele
| Vaginal hydrocele |
eb91f10f-5531-4150-adfe-2f83a93d2f87 | The P wave represents the wave of depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. Ventricular rate can be calculated by determining the time interval between QRS complexes. The isoelectric period (ST segment) following the QRS is the time at which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization and is longer in duration than depolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential. | Physiology | null | Which one of the following physiological event of cardiac cycle is responsible for QRS complex?
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Atrial repolarisation
D. Ventricular repolarisation
| Ventricular depolarization |
85890f21-fd7b-46f2-badd-2cc2bb957aeb | Habit is an accustomed way of doing things. It is the usual way of action that can be performed without thinking. Chapter: Medicine and social sciences. Ref: Park 21st edition, page: 627. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | An accustomed way of doing things is known as:
A. Habit
B. Custom
C. Belief
D. Ritual
| Habit |
2c82132f-13a3-4eb0-aea5-3f8532ff26f8 | Ans. a. Hypothalamic hamaoma Uncontrollable laughing and precocious pubey are suggestive of hypothalamic hamaoma. Hypothalamic Hamaoma Central precocious pubey staing before the age 3 years is often due to hypothalamic hamaomaQ . Seizures, especially laughing spells (gelastic seizures)deg are seen in children with hypothalamic hamaoma. Hypothalamic Hamaoma Central precocious pubey staing before the age 3 years is often due to hypothalamic hamaomaQ Hypothalamic hamaoma picked up by MRIQ Seizures, especially laughing spells (gelastic seizures)Qare seen in children with hypothalamic hamaoma Precocious Pubey Central precocious pubey is a.lso known as true precocious pubeyQ, peripheral precocious pubey is called pseudo-precocious pubeyQ. McCune-Albright syndrome causes pseudo-precocious pubey (Peripheral precocious pubey). | Pediatrics | null | A neurosurgeon dropped his kid to the school then there he saw a child with uncontrollable laughing and precocious pubey. When he again went to the school in capital parents teachers meeting, he talked to the father of that boy and advised him to get an In1R1 done and the diagnosis was confirmed. What is the most probable diagnosis
A. Hypothalamic hamaoma
B. Pineal germinoma
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Craniopharyngioma
| Hypothalamic hamaoma |
089e67c6-1f35-4cb9-95c2-f0c1fe78dd6b | Huntigton's chorea is characterized by dopaminergic overactivity and Tetrabenazine is a dopamine depleter which is the drug of choice for this condition. | Pharmacology | null | Drug of choice for Huntington's chorea is
A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Tetrabenazine
D. Donepezil
| Tetrabenazine |
426996c8-9e0f-4d7d-8fca-5019c2496b6c | Early diagnosis and treatment of disease comes under secondary level of prevention | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Iron supplements given for anemia,is which level of prevention
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
| Secondary |
bae9d697-285f-41ef-af6e-490f9b722bf9 | Hyperphenylalaninemias arise from defects in phenylalanine hydroxylase (type I, classic phenylketonuria (PKU), frequency 1 in 10,000 bihs), in dihydrobiopterin reductase (types II and III), or in dihydrobiopterin biosynthesis (types IV and V).Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 29 Catabolism of the Carbon Skeletons of Amino Acids | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | Enzyme defect in Classic Phenylketonuria
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
B. Dihydrobiopterin reductase
C. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
D. Homogentisate oxidase
| Phenylalanine hydroxylase |
b9759f26-8e68-4d76-ae5b-ab0865e5cd03 | In a Femoral Hernia, abdominal contents are forced through the femoral ring, which is just lateral to the Lacunar Ligament (of Gimbernant) and just medial to the Femoral Vein. The Femoral Vein would be found immediately lateral to the Femoral Hernia. The adductor longus muscle as well as the pectineus muscle would be found deep and medial to the hernia. | Anatomy | Lower limb 1 | A 34-year-old man is pushing some heavy weights while doing squats. Unfounately, while maxing out, he drops the weight and immediately grabs at his upper thigh, writhing in pain. The man is admitted to the emergency depament and during physical examination is diagnosed with a femoral hernia. What reference structure would be found immediately lateral to the herniated structures
A. Femoral Vein
B. Femoral Aery
C. Pectineus Muscle
D. Femoral Nerve
| Femoral Vein |
fd580971-d063-468e-b933-33ddcbf6d512 | A. Incorrect. Mesothilioma appears as a rind of tissue that encircles the hemothorax. This features is not present in the provided images. B. Incorrect. Empyema demonstrates pleural effusion with air and or thickening of the pleura. These features are not present in the provided images. C. Incorrect. Bronchogenic carcinoma appears as nodule/mass within the lung parenchyma and is often spiculated. These features are not present in the provided images. D. Correct. Solitary fibrous tumor occurs in the pleural space and appears as a mass with smooth borders and incomplete sign which suggests that the finding is extraparenchymal in nature. These features are present in the provided images. | Radiology | Respiratory system | You are shown PA and lateral chest radiographs from a 53-year-old woman with mild dyspnea. Which one of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A. Mesothelioma
B. Empyema
C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
D. Solitary fibrous tumor
| Solitary fibrous tumor |
c2a36ad8-0324-46eb-82af-d86069c78632 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sterilization o Sterilization & double barrier methods are the contraception of choice in hea patients. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In a hea patient, contraceptive of choice is ?
A. Sterilization
B. IUCD
C. OCP
D. Norplant
| Sterilization |
cc7e81a2-158b-49de-973c-9b52c0cb7abd | The peripheral nervous system is mainly derived from the neural crest. The peripheral nervous system is primarily derived from the neural crest. Through migration and specialisation, cells of the neural crest develop into cranial, spinal, and visceral nerves and ganglia, suppo cells of the peripheral nervous system also derive from the neural crest. Neural Crest Origin: System Cell type Peripheral Nervous system (PNS) Neurons, sensory ganglia, sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia, enteric nervous system and plexuses Sensory ganglia of CN V, CN VII, CN IX, CN X Ciliary (CN III), Pterygopalatine (CN VII), submandibular (CN VII) and otic (CN IX) parasympathetic ganglia Dorsal root ganglia Sympathetic chain ganglia Preveebral sympathetic ganglia Enteric parasympathetic ganglia of the gut (Meissner and Auerbach plexus; CN X) Abdominal/Pelvic cavity parasympathetic ganglia Neuroglial cells, olfactory ensheathing cell Schwann cells Endocrine Adrenal medulla (Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla) Calcitonin-secreting cells Parafollicular (C) cells of thyroid Carotid body type I cells Integumentary Epidermal pigment cells Melanoblastoma (pigment cells) and Melanocytes Facial cailage and bone Facial and anterior ventral skull cailage and bones Pharyngeal arch skeletal and connective tissue components Craniofacial skeleton (frontal , parietal, squamous temporal nasal, vomer, palatine, maxillae & mandible bones) Connective tissue of head including cailage, ligaments & tendons Sensory Inner ear Corneal endothelium and stromal, choroid & Sclera of eye Neural crest contribution to Eye Endothelium of cornea & trabecular mesh work Stroma of cornea, iris, ciliary body and choroid Melanocytes of conjuctiva and Uveal tissue (Iris stroma) Ciliary muscle ganglion & nerves (Schwann cells) Orbital bones & Connective tissues Connective sheath & muscle layer of orbital blood vessels Meningeal sheath of optic nerve Sclera & pa of Vitreous (Sclera is of neural crest and mesodermal origin) Connective tissue Tooth papillae; Odontoblast (dentine of teeth) Smooth muscle, and adipose tissue of skin of head and neck Connective tissue of lacrimal, nasal, labial, palatine, oral, salivary and thyroid glands and of pharyngeal pouches i.e., thymus and parathyroid glands Connective tissue of meninges (Pia and arachnoid) Connective tissue and smooth muscle in aeries of aoic arch origin (Aoicopulmonary septum) Ref: Embryology of the Peripheral Nerves Chapter 3 in book Nerves and Nerve Injuries 2015/38 | Anatomy | General anatomy | The peripheral nervous system develops primarily from:
A. Neural tube
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Neural crest
| Neural crest |
196f9fc0-44f1-4a07-98c7-ee8078601961 | Pringle manoeuvre is used to control hemorrhage by clamping the hepatoduodenal ligament and compressing the poal triad,thereby reducing aerial and venous inflow into the liver.But it doesn't control the backflow from inferior vena cava and hepatic veins. Reference: Bailey & Love's sho practise of surgery,25 th edition,page no348. | Surgery | G.I.T | Pringle maneuvar to arrest hehemorrhage is
A. Clamping of poal vein
B. Clamping of hepatic aery
C. Clamping of hepatic vein
D. Clamping of hepatoduodenal ligament
| Clamping of hepatoduodenal ligament |
3c5e6213-3e14-4098-8d59-22455db6d2dd | The image represents cafe - au - lait spots. Precocious puberty, bony lesion like fibrous dysplasia are seen in Mc cune Albright syndrome, | Pediatrics | null | A girl presents with hyper pigmented skin lesions, precocious puberty and some bony lesion. what is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Mc - cune Albright syndrome
D. Hypothalamic hamartoma
| Mc - cune Albright syndrome |
73f8fa4b-b988-40c4-9d0e-45532f748b83 | D- Reduced cell mutation rate. P53 is an example of a pro-apoptotic gene k/a Guardian of Genome. If DNA is damaged / mutated p53, repairs it. But if defect is beyond repair - Activation of pro-apoptotic machinery - Apoptosis Result: - Reduced cell mutation rate The p53 protein is the central monitor of stress in the cell and can be activated by anoxia, inappropriate signalling by mutated oncoproteins, or DNA damage. p53 controls the expression and activity of proteins involved in cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, cellular senescence, and apoptosis. DNA damage is sensed by complexes containing kinases of the ATM/ATR family; these kinases phosphorylate p53, liberating it from inhibitors such as MDM2. Active p53 then upregulates the expression of proteins such as the cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor p21, thereby causing cell-cycle arrest at the G1-S checkpoint. This pause allows cells to repair DNA damage. If DNA damage cannot be repaired, p53 induces additional events that lead to cellular senescence or apoptosis. | Pathology | JIPMER 2018 | Function of guardian of genome p53 is whicvh of the following?
A. Increase in Cell proliferation
B. Evasion of Apoptosis
C. Inducer of necrosis
D. Reduce cell mutation rate
| Reduce cell mutation rate |
125904e2-71bc-4806-b1a0-aca8ba9c05b0 | In case of burns, if death has occurred from suffocation,aspirated blackish coal paicles are seen in the nose,mouth,larynx,trachea,bronchi,oesophagus and stomach, and blood is cherry red. Presence of carbon paicles especially in the terminal bronchioles and an elevated CO saturation together are absolute proof that the victim was alive when the fire occurred. In the absence of CO in blood and soot in the airways,death may possibly result due to poisoning with carbon dioxide or deficiency of oxygen. Sometimes inhalation of smoke produces vomiting which may be inhaled and found in the smaller bronchi. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 29th edition, Chapter 11, page-163. | Forensic Medicine | Death and postmortem changes | Surest proof of antemoem burn is
A. Heat rupture
B. Presence of soots beyond the tracheal bifurcation
C. Blackening of bones
D. Clean laryngeal airway
| Presence of soots beyond the tracheal bifurcation |
846125ad-6d9d-4a16-af35-6afc6533a3ef | Option 1 Chronic hookworm infection with heavy worm load: In the intestine, adult worms attach to intestinal villi with their buccal teeth and feed on blood and tissue with the aid of anticoagulants. A few hundred worms in the intestine can cause hookworm disease, which is characterized by severe anemia and iron deficiency and protein energy malnutrition resulting from blood loss. Causes: Ground itch, Serpiginous tracks, Mild pneumonitis, GIT symptoms and Iron def. anemia Option 2, 3, 4 Thread worm/Pin worm/Seat worm /Enterobius vermicularis: does not cause anemia. Ascaris lumbricoides (Roundworm): causes GIT symptoms, Malabsorption, Intussusception and Loeffler syndrome. Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm): Causes Guinea worm disease or dracunculiasis | Microbiology | Parasitology Pa 2 (Helminthology) | Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to -
A. Hookworm
B. Thread worm
C. Ascaris
D. Guinea worm
| Hookworm |
e48672cc-90bf-4d36-8877-b2d7b4c995cc | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 10 o In a single TCA cycle 10 molecules of ATP are produced (12 molecules according to older calculations),o One turn of the TCA cycle, starting with acetyl Co A produces 10 ATPs. When the starting molecule is pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate yields 2.5 ATPs and therefore, 12.5 ATPs are produced when starting compound is pyruvate. Since, two molecules of pyruvate enter the TCA cycle when glucose is metabolized (glycolysis produces 2 molecules of pyruvate), the number of ATPs is doubled. Therefore, 25 ATP molecules, per glucose molecule, are produced when pyruvate enters the TCA cycle,o Note : Previously calculations were made assuming that NADH produces 3 ATPs and FADH generates 2 ATPs. This will amount a net generation of 30 ATP molecules in TCA per molecule glucose and total 38 molecules from starting. Recent experiments show that these values are overestimates and NADH produces 2.5 ATPs and FADH produces 1.5 ATPs. Therefore, net generation during TCA is 25 ATPs and complete oxidation of glucose through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle yield a net 32 ATPs.o Energy yield (number of ATP generated) per molecule of glucose when it is completely oxidized through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle, under aerobic conditions, is as follows :- Method of ATP formationNo of ATPs gained perglucose (new calculation)No of ATPs As per old calculationPathwayStepEnzymeSourceGlycolysis1Hexokinase- Minus1Minus 1Do3Phosphofructokinase- Minus1Minus IDo5Glyceraldehyde-3-p DHNADHRespiratory chain2.5x2 =53x2=6Do61J-BPG kinaseATPSubstrate level1x2 =21x2=2Do9Pyruvate kinaseATPSubstrate level1x2 =21x2=2Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA-PyruvateDehydrogenaseNADHRespiratory chain2.5 x 2 =53x2=6 TCA cycle3Isocitrate DHNADHRespiratory chain2.5 x 2 =53x2=6Do4Alpha keto glutarate DHNADHRespiratory chain2.5 x 2 =53x2=6Do5Succinate thiokinaseGTPSubstrate level1x2 =21x2=2Do6Succicinate DHFADH2Respiratory chain1.5 x 2 =32x2=4Do8Mai ate DHNADHRespiratory chain2.5 x 2 =53 x 2= 6Net generation in glycolytic pathway 9 minus 2=710 minus 2=8Generation in pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction=5=6Generation In citric acid cycle=20=24Net generation of ATP from one glucose mole=32=38 | Biochemistry | Kerbs Cycle | Number of ATP generated in one TCA cycle-
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 11
| 10 |
1a045b9f-6838-4d0f-9322-60a57214ce54 | As he becomes progressively more starved, his liver will synthesize ketone bodies as an additional fuel for muscle, which cannot meet all of its energy needs from fatty acid metabolism. This spares glucose for the brain and red blood cells. Higher than normal quantities of ketone bodies present in the blood or urine constitute ketonemia (hyperketonemia) or ketonuria, respectively. The overall condition is called ketosis. The basic form of ketosis occurs in starvation and involves depletion of available carbohydrate coupled with mobilization of free fatty acids . Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 22. Oxidation of Fatty Acids: Ketogenesis. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e | Biochemistry | null | A 26-year-woman undeakes a prolonged fast for religious reasons. Which of the following metabolites will be most elevated in his blood plasma after 3 days?
A. Glucose
B. Glycogen
C. Ketone bodies
D. Non-esterified fatty acids
| Ketone bodies |
1b726811-7dcf-4903-ac47-8aaa828e8268 | Ans. A. UDP Glucose(Ref: Harper 31/e page 164)Glycogenin, a 37 kDa protein is glucosylated on specific tyrosine residue by UDP glucose.Glycogenenin catalyses transfer of 7 glucose residue from UDP-Glc, in l-4 linkage to form Glycogen primer.Further Glucose on glycogen primer are added by Glycogen Synthase to nonreducing end till growing chain is at least 11 glucose residue long. | Biochemistry | Carbohydrates | Glycogenin primer is glucosylated by:
A. UDP Glucose
B. Glucose 1 PO4
C. UDP Glucose 1 PO4
D. UDP Glucose 6 PO4
| UDP Glucose |
0a679031-5de8-4315-9649-60f07747c365 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., ileo-transverse anastomosis These options mentioned in the question are of the year 1989; no longer seems to be valid. The management of Colonic injuries in latest edition of Schwaz is: Currently 3 methods for managing the colonic injuries are used? a. Primary repair (it includes lateral suture repair or resection of the damaged segment with reconstruction by ileocolostomy or colocolostomy) b. End colostomy c. Primary reapir with diveing ileostomy Various trials have proven that the Primary repair is safe and effective in viually all patients with penetrating wounds. Schwaz writes- "Numerous large retrospective and several prospective studies have now clearly demonstrated that primary repair is safe and effective in viually all patients with penetrating wounds. Colostomy is still appropriate in a few patients, but the current dilemma is how to select which patients should undergo the procedure. Currently, the overall physiologic status of the patient, rather than local factors, directs decision making. Patients with devastating left colon injuries requiring damage control are clearly candidates for temporary colostomy. Ileostomy with colocolostomy, however, is used for most other high-risk patients." | Surgery | null | Treatment of choice for stab injury caecum ?
A. Caecostomy
B. Ileo-transverse anastomosis
C. Transverse colostomy
D. Sigmoid colostomy
| Ileo-transverse anastomosis |
9244b1d7-efa4-4632-83fd-0fce25971d22 | Ans. D. Minimizes the impact of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal Na+ excretionIn the autoregulatory range, vascular resistance falls when arterial blood pressure falls. Changes in vessel caliber primarily occur in vessels upstream to the glomeruli (cortical radial arteries and afferent arterioles). Because autoregulatory range extends from an arterial blood pressure of about 80 to 180 mm Hg, renal blood flow is not maintained when blood pressure is low; in fact, the sympathetic nervous system will be activated and cause intense vasoconstriction in the kidneys. Renal autoregulation does not depend on nerves. | Physiology | Heart, Circulation, and Blood | Renal autoregulation:
A. Is associated with increased renal vascular resistance when arterial blood pressure is lowered from 100 to 80 mm Hg
B. Mainly involves changes in the caliber of efferent arterioles
C. Maintains a normal renal blood flow during severe hypotension (blood pressure, 50 mm Hg)
D. Minimizes the impact of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal Na+ excretion
| Minimizes the impact of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal Na+ excretion |
8e943b2e-8c57-48c7-88ea-277b50672c9d | (Between the innermost intercostal and internal intercostal muscle) (208-BDC-l 4th) (57-Snell 7th)* Each intercostal space contains a large single posterior intercostal artery and two small anterior intercostal arteries.* The corresponding posterior intercostal vein drain backward into the azygos or hemiazygos vein and the anterior intercostal vein drain forward into the internal thoracic and musculophrenic veinsIntercostal nerves* The intercostal nerves are the anterior rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves. The anterior ramus of the 12th thoracic nerve lies in the abdomen and runs forward in the abdominal wall as the subcostal nerve* In the costal groove the nerve lies below the posterior intercostal vessels. The relationship of structures in the costal groove from above downwards is vein-artery-nerve (VAN)*** Each intercostal nerve enters an intercostal space between the parietal pleura and the posterior intercostal membrane. It then runs forward inferiorly to the intercostal vessels in the subcostal groove of the corresponding rib, between the innermost intercostal and internal intercostal muscle | Anatomy | Thorax | Intercostal vessels and nerve runs in:
A. Upper border of the ribs
B. External intercostal and Internal intercostal muscle
C. Between the external intercostal and innermost internal, inter costal muscle
D. Between the innermost intercostal and internal intercostal muscle
| Between the innermost intercostal and internal intercostal muscle |
367bdb2a-14f2-4328-9411-c0f430e75646 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Veebrae Haemangioma This benign lesion, probably a hemaoma, is composed of vascular spaces lined by endothelial cells. They constitute 1-1.5% of all primary bone neoplasms. It has a peak incidence in the fifth decade (according to Maheshwari, young adults). About 50% of hemangiomas of bone occur in veebrae and are most commonly situated in lower thoracic and upper lumbar regions. Other common site of involvement (20%) is skull. Small bones of hands and feets may also be affected. Haemangioma of the veebra has a typical radiographic picture in the form of loss of horizontal striations and prominence of veebral striations. There is Polka dot appearance on CT. In the skull, hemangioma generally affects the calverium and is seen as an expansile lytic lesion which has a sunburst appearance with striation radiating from the centre. A hemangioma may be identified due to associated phlebolith and it may cause local gigantism of the invovled area. Hemangiomas are largely asymptomatic, and thus most are never discovered, leading some to describe these lesions as rare. Treatment is radiotherapy. | Surgery | null | Most common bone involved in haemangioma?
A. Femur
B. Tibia
C. Pelvis
D. Veebrae
| Veebrae |
92a4257a-2c4c-4d90-aec2-c0a83d8bcc42 | Ans: D (Formaldehyde) Ref: Ammthanamyan R. Panther CKJ Textbook of Microbiology. 8th Edition. Hyderabad: Universities Press: 2009. Pg. 35-8Explanation:Formaldehyde is active against the amino group in the protein molecule.In aqueous solutions, it is markedly bactericidal and sporicidal and also has a lethal effect on viruses.It is used to preserve anatomical specimens, and for destroying anthrax spores in hair and woolDisinfectantEffective againstCharacteristicAlcoholsCompoundsActive against bacteria and fungal sporesGood general use disinfectantAldehydesActive against bacteria and virus and sporesGood activity against bacteria, virus and sporesChlorineGood disinfectant for blood and body fluid spillsActive against bacteria, virus and moderate action against spores | Microbiology | Sterilization and Disinfection | Which agent is effective in killing spores?
A. Alcohol
B. Phenol
C. Chlorine
D. Formaldehyde
| Formaldehyde |
39669a07-721b-42a6-a7a0-bf984b26ffdf | L. Brasiliensis causes Espundia (Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis). | Microbiology | null | Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis is caused by
A. L. Brasiliensis
B. L. tropica
C. L. donovani
D. L. Chagasi
| L. Brasiliensis |
69690df7-aa7f-4ed1-a275-711c24c829ee | Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug and has negligible risk of extrapyramidal symptoms. Atypical antipsychotic drugs act by antagonistic actions at 5-HT2 and alpha receptors and may or may not possess D2 blocking activity. These drugs are less likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms. However, most of these agents (except ziprasidone and aripiprazole) can result in weight gain, hyperlipidemia and new-onset diabetes mellitus. | Pharmacology | Psychiatric Illness | Amongst the following extrapyramidal side effect is commonest with which drug?
A. Risperidone
B. Haloperidol
C. Clozapine
D. Ziprasidone
| Haloperidol |
81b48d3d-b30f-4ae1-a53b-733a9ee7cd63 | Winging of scapulaIn this condition, the veebral border of scapula becomes more prominent when the patient tries to push against the wallIt occurs in paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle in long thoracic nerve palsy(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 268) | Orthopaedics | All India exam | Winging of scapula which muscle is affected
A. Teres minor
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Subscapularis
D. Serratus anterior
| Serratus anterior |
3023c2db-63c5-4b69-8155-9f45818d48d5 | BUDR is a Non-hypoxic cell Radiosensitizer. | Radiology | null | Not a Radioprotector
A. Amifostine
B. IL-1
C. GM-CSF
D. BUDR
| BUDR |
e09d59af-00c6-4583-a18b-0131cb51a4a5 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 93% Half life Elimination I t1/2 50% 2 0/2 75% 3 t1/2 87.5% 41% 93.75% 5 t1/2 96.875 | Pharmacology | null | Elimination after 4 half lives in first order Kinetics is -
A. 84%
B. 93%
C. 80.50%
D. 4.75%
| 93% |
257fd1ec-2d77-4a3b-bcbc-9ba6d19e9b31 | Ans: (c) AutoimmuneHarrison 19th ed. / 370# PEMPHIGUS* Pemphigus is an autoimmune blistering disorder* It results from the loss of integrity of normal intercellular attachments with the epidermis.* Commonly affects indiciduals of age between 40-60.* Equal prevalence among males and females.* There are five variants of pephigus:# Pemphigus Vulgaris: most common type# Pemphigus Foliaceous: superficial pemphigus# Pemphigus Vegetans: least common type# Pemphigus Erythematous# Fogo Selvagem: an endemic form of pemphigus foliacious.* Refer to above table | Skin | General | Pemphigus vulgaris is caused by:
A. Bacteris
B. Virus
C. Autoimmune
D. Fungal
| Autoimmune |
7ff9749d-b4c2-4ec3-a41b-3271b7835e96 | Nasolacrimal duct (NLD) opens into the Inferior meatus through the Hasner`s valve.The direction of NLD--downward, backward, and laterally from the lacrimal sac to the nose, Length- 1.8 cmSphenoid sinus and posterior ethmoids open into the sphenoethmoidal recess (Superior meatus)Frontal, Maxillary and Anterior ethmoids open into the middle meatus.Ref: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 240 | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | The valve of Hasner is
A. Opening of nasolacrimal duct
B. Sphenoidal sinus opening
C. Frontal sinus opening
D. Ethmoidal sinus opening
| Opening of nasolacrimal duct |
6cd6781c-ac10-421c-b960-cfeb3baf8236 | Ans. is c, i.e. Presence of fetal heart activityRef Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 186; Leon Speroff 7/e, p 1287, 1288; Novak 14/e, p 624; Williams Gynae 7/e, p 166Methotrexate: It is a folic acid analogue which inhibits dehydrofolate reductaseQ and prevents synthesis of DNA.QCandidates for methotrexate (Williams 24/e, p 384, Table 19.2): --Leon Speroff 7/e, p 1290Absolute requirementsHemodynamic stabilityQNo evidence of acute intra-abdominal bleedingQReliable commitment to comply with required follow-up careQNo contraindications to treatment viz woman should not be breast feeding/renal/hepatic dysfunction.Preferable requirementsAbsent or mild painSerum beta hCG level less than 5,000IU/L (best results seen with HCG<2000IU/L)Q It is the single best prognostic indicator of treatment success.Absent embryonic heart activityQEctopic gestational mass less than 4 cm in diameter without cardiac activity and < 3.5 cm with cardiac activityQFriends, there is no doubt on this issue that presence of cardiac activity is a relative contraindication according to books like Williams Obs 23/e, Williams Gynae 1/ed and Leon Speroff 7/ed."Fetal cardiac activity - Although this is a relative contraindication to medical therapy; the admention is based on limited evidence." --William Obs. 23/e, p 247"The presence of embryonic heart activity is not an absolute contraindication for medical management but the likelihood of failure and the risk of tubal rupture are substantially increased (therefore it is a relative contraindication)." --Leon Speroff 7/e, p 1287As far as fluid in cul-de-sac is concerned: Earlier, it was also considered a relative contraindication to medical treatment, but studies have shown that free peritoneal fluid can be seen in almost 40% of women with early unruptured ectopic pregnancy and so it's presence and absence does not accurately predict the success or failure of medical treatment.Contraindications to methotrexate treatment: (Williams 24/e, p 384, Table 19.2)Breast feedingQ Immunodeficiency statesQAlcoholism or evidence of chronic liver disease (elevated transaminases) QRenal disease (elevated serum creatinine) QHematological abnormalities (severe anemia, leukopenia or thrombocytopenia) QKnown sensitivity to methotrexateQActive pulmonary diseaseQPeptic ulcer disease. QEvidence of tubal rupture | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Ecotopic Pregnancy | In which of the following conditions, the medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy is contraindicated:
A. Sac size is 3 cm
B. Blood in pelvis is 70 mL
C. Presence of fetal heart activity
D. Previous ectopic pregnancy
| Presence of fetal heart activity |
53397509-c645-4ed6-8646-adaee84bcc6b | Propionibacterium acnes are the commonest agent causing acne in teenagers as it has affinity for sebaceous glands.
Lesions in acne develop with in the sebaceous follicle. | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is the main colonizer of sebaceous gland -
A. Propionic bacterium acnes
B. Diptheria
C. Strep.pyogens
D. Staph. aureus
| Propionic bacterium acnes |
6b3706a7-ea3f-4590-881b-2d7e7eb41b4c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glomus tumour Differential diagnosis of blood stained ear discharge :* ASOM* Acute mastoiditis* CSOM* Aural polyp* Granulations* Glomus tumor | ENT | Ear | Bleeding ear discharge is mostly due -
A. Glomus tumour
B. Otosclerosis
C. Otitis media with effusion
D. Acoustic neuroma
| Glomus tumour |
e7d73e56-40b4-4d0e-9665-da9c5b14c183 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., High orchidectomy + RPLND | Surgery | null | Which one of the following is the treatment of choice for a 4cm retroperitoneal lymph node mass in a patient with non seminomatous germ cell tumor of the testis ?
A. Radical radiotherapy alone
B. High Orchidectomy + RPLND
C. RPLND alone
D. High Orchidectomy alone
| High Orchidectomy + RPLND |
157be612-0913-4c18-bc61-9fe308e438e1 | ERGA wave Activity of rods and conesB wave Bipolar cellC wave Retinal pigment epithelium(RPE) | Pharmacology | All India exam | In ERG 'A' waves corresponds to NOT RELATED-MEDICINE
A. Rods and cones
B. Nerve bundleftlayer
C. Aifact
D. Pigment epithelium
| Rods and cones |
6b12637c-86f0-45d0-ae62-57248494864c | A. i.e. 2-4 months Unilateral cataract in children should be operated early in life because the critical period for development of fixation reflex is between 2" & 4th months of age.Q Age Visual Development At Bih * * * * Eye appear to move randomly & there is no central fixation Fovea is not fully developed & visual acuity is roughly 6/60. The retina is almost fully developed at bih, apa from macula which fuher develops after bih till 4-6 months of ageQ Myelination of optic nerve begins in the 7th month in utero & reaches lamina cribrosaQ(ie is completed) * Hypermetropia of +2 to +3D(2 * Orbit is more divergent (500)Q as compared to adult (450) . * A-P diameter of eyeball is 16.5 mmQ (70% of adult size which is attained by 7-8 years) * Corneal diameter is 10 mm.Q Adult size 11.7 mm is attained by 2 yrs. of age * The anterior chamber is shallower, the angle deep & the lens is more spherical as compared to the adult eye. 6 weeks (11/2 months) * Fixation reflex first becomes apparent and eye can follow bright light for a sho distance 2-4 months * Critical period for development of fixation reflexQ 4-6 months * Refixation reflex develops firmly * Macula differentiates 6-8 months * Depth perception stas developingQ 6 years * Fovea develops completely * Full visual acuity of 6/6 attained If visual developmental process is interrupted during this period by any means (eg. high anisometropia, congenital cataract) it results in amblyopia which becomes irreversible after few years. If the stimulus deprivation occurs bilaterally & severe by the age of 6 months it results in pendular nystagmus on attempted fixation. PAX6 is the master gene for eye development. Binocular Vision Psycho-optical Reflex Fusion Reflex Fixation & Refixation Reflex When a normal individual fixes * Retinal areas which coordinate visually in the Since the most accurate his visual attention on an object occipital coex so that such an object is seen vision is attained by fovea of regard, the image is formed on with both eyes as single object are k/a it is necessary that the eyes the fovea of both the eyes corresponding points. The most impoant pair be rapidly oriented so that separately, but the individual of which is foveae. Nasal half of one retina image of an object of perceives a single image. This corresponds to temporal half of other retina in interest falls upon them or state is called Binocular Single occipital coex. that of a moving object vision. It is a conditional reflex * Points on two retinae which are not retained on them. This which is not present since bih corresponding points in this sense of term are ascendancy of fovea is but is acquired during 1., 6 called disparate points and if object forms its maintained by Fixation monthsQ and is completed during retinal images on these, it will be seen double Reflex first few years. (Psycho-optical (binocular diplopia). If disparity is slight there reflex) is tendency to move the eyes so that images may be fused by means of Fusion Reflex | Ophthalmology | null | Critical period of development of fixation reflex is
A. 2-4 months of age
B. 6-8 months of age
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
| 2-4 months of age |
89bbe76b-71fc-4051-a7e0-04a2c33d8ad4 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., VIP In peristlasis :- Acetylcholine & substance P - Causing smooth muscle contraction. VIP, NO & ATP - Producing relaxation ahead of stimulus. | Physiology | null | Which of the following is involved in peristalsis by causing relaxation ?
A. Substance P
B. Acetylcholine
C. VIP
D. Norepinephrine
| VIP |
077ae14b-099b-42da-ad69-9af24d5e4762 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Venlafaxine Antidepressants A. Typical Tricyclic antidepressants NA + 5HT reuptake inhibitors :- Imipramine, Trimipramine, Amitriptyline, Clomipramine. Predominantly NA reuptake inhibitors :- Desipramine, Noriptyline, Amoxapine, Reboxetine. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors :- Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sealine, Citalopram, Scitalopram. B. Atypical :- Trazodone, Mianserine, Mitrazapine, Venalafaxin, Duloxetine, Tianeptine, Amineptine, Bupropion. c. MAO inhibitors :- Tranylcypramine, Meclobemide, Clorgyline. | Psychiatry | null | Which of the following is an atypical antidepressant?
A. Citalopram
B. Sealine
C. Venlafaxine
D. Reboxetin
| Venlafaxine |
badd402a-995d-4d1b-9c26-74c12505fb79 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Respiratory distress syndromeInfant respiratory distress syndrome is due to deficiency of surfactant. Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (Dipalmitoyllecithin) is the major constituent of surfactant.SurfactantSurfactant is a Soap-like substance secreted by the type-II pneumocytes of the alveolar epithelium. It is a mixture of dipalmitoyl-phosphatidycholine (dipalmitoyl-lecithin), phosphatidylglycerol, other phospholipids, neutral lipids, Surfactant proteins A, B, C and D (SP-A, SP-B, SP-C and SP-D), and carbohydrates. o Surfactant reduces the alveolar surface tension.This has three impoant physiological consequences : ?1) It reduces the collapsing tendency of lungs.2) It reduces the natural tendency of the smaller alveoli to collapse and empty into the larger ones. This is called alveolar stabilization.3) It reduces the tendency of the alveolar interstitial fluid to transudate out into the alveolar space. | Physiology | null | Surfactant deficiency causes ?
A. Transient tachypnea of newborn
B. Respiratory distress syndrome
C. Neonatal jaundice
D. Hypeensive encephalopathy of newborn
| Respiratory distress syndrome |
6a6fc2f7-ba60-4205-bb1e-ac71de21e57b | The ovate pontic is the pontic design that is most esthetically appealing. Its convex tissue surface resides in a soft tissue depression or hollow in the residual ridge, which makes it appear that a tooth is literally emerging from the gingiva.
Careful treatment planning is necessary for successful results. Socket-preservation techniques should be performed at the time of extraction to create the tissue recess from which the ovate pontic form will appear to emerge.
For a preexisting residual ridge, surgical augmentation of the soft tissue is typically required. When an adequate volume of ridge tissue is established, a socket depression is sculpted into the ridge with surgical diamonds, electrosurgery, or a dental laser.
Key Concept:
For a preexisting residual ridge, surgical augmentation of the soft tissue is typically required. When an adequate volume of ridge tissue is established, a socket depression is sculpted into the ridge with surgical diamonds, electrosurgery, or a dental laser. | Dental | null | Which of the following pontic designs require surgical procedure?
A. Modified ridge lap
B. Saddle
C. Ovate
D. Sanitary
| Ovate |
e354f9c1-380f-4912-84aa-5a53f89a4a1c | (b) Bilateral abductor palsy(Ref. Current Diagnosis & Treatment Otolaryngology, Lalwani, 3rd ed., 478)Laryngomalacia and tracheal stenosis do not affect the VC hence voice remain normal in these though stridor is present. | ENT | Larynx | Mild hoarseness with stridor is seen in:
A. Unilateral abductor palsy
B. Bilateral abductor palsy
C. Laryngomalacia
D. Tracheal stenosis
| Bilateral abductor palsy |
9e4a1a85-feb4-4357-bc60-02e6051ddd7e | Bruxism can occur in any stage of sleep or at arousal from sleep. It is most common in stage N1 and N2 and least common during REM sleep Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 721,722,723 | Physiology | Nervous system | Bruxism occurs in _______ phase of sleep
A. ReM
B. NREM I
C. NREM II
D. NREM III
| NREM II |
2a25ac10-2bd9-40b7-aa7e-66829da11cec | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Spinal muscular atrophy o Out of the given options only spinal muscular atrophy is able to cause hypotonia and hyporeflexia during infancy. Rest of them either present late in childhood or do not give the symptoms. o Polyhydromnios and decreased fetal movements can occur in any neuromuscular disorder which present during intrauterine life. o Lets see each option one by one. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) SMA is a degenerative disease of motor neurons that begin in fetal life and continue to progress in infancy and childhood. o The cardinal features are: Hypotonia Generalized weakness Absent tendon stretch refluxes Involvement of tongue face and jaw muscle but sparing of extraocular muscle and sphincters. Congenital mytonia o Congenital myotonia or myotonia congenita is a chloride channel defect of skeletal muscle. o There is weakness and generalized hyperophy of muscles. o Its ruled out as Presents in early childhood (2-3 years age) Deep tendon reflexes are preserved. Congenital myaesthenia o Its a disease of neuromuscular junction similar to myasthenia gravis except that its not autoimmune but rather due to genetic mutations. o It presents in infancy and childhood with symptom similar to myasthenia gravis. o It can be ruled out as? o It does not present in the intrauterine life (so does not cause polyhydramnios). DTRs are preserved Muscular dystrophies o Muscular dystrophy refers to a group of hereditary progressive diseases. o It includes Duchenes muscular dystrophy Limb-girdle Congenital myopathies Becker Myotonic dystrophica o All of these except congenital myopathies are easily ruled out as they present in childhood age. some may rarely present in infancy but never in the intrauterine life. o Congenital myopathies are the most difficult one to rule out. They present with hypotonia in infancy. It may also present in intrauterine life. o Only reason I'm with 'Spinal muscular atrophy' is that congenital myopathy is a very rare disease. | Pediatrics | null | An infant presents with hypotonia and hyporeflexia. During his intrauterine period there was polyhydramnios and decreased fetal movements. Most probable diagnosis is -
A. Spinal muscular atrophy
B. Congenital myasthenia
C. Congenital myotonia
D. Muscular dystrophy
| Spinal muscular atrophy |
77abd1ce-c704-406e-8a3d-b1687782bac7 | Sterilization control for membrane filters is Brevundimonas diminuta and sarratia marcescens. | Microbiology | null | Sterilization control used in membrane filters is
A. B pumilis
B. B stereo thermophilus
C. C tetani
D. Brevundimonas diminuta
| Brevundimonas diminuta |
a30f10bf-1c87-487f-ae7d-e719cb8fc2ab | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CSF Rhinorrhoea Detection of CSF Leak in CSF Rhinorrhoea1) Biochemical testso Concentrations of Glucose are higher in CSF than in nasal discharge. Glucose value > 30-40 mg% protein value <100 mg % (max 200 mg %) support a diagnosis of CSF leako Presence of b2 transferrin is the most definitive test for detection of CSF and b2 transferrin assay is the test of choice when a confirmatory test is needed, because of high sensitivity as well as specificity.o b-trace protein (prostaglandin D synthase) is also used, however it is nonspecific as it is also present in human testes, heart and seroma.2) Basic clinical testso Tissue test (Handker chief test):- Unlike nasal mucous, CSF does not cause a tissue to stiffeno Filter paper test:- Sample of nasal discharge on a filter paper exhibits a light CSF border and a dark central area of blood, i.e., double ring sign or halo sign.o Queckensted test:- Compression of the jugular vein leas to increased CSF leak due to increase in ICPo Rhinoscopy:- Visualization of CSF leak from paranasal sinus.3) CSF tracerso Intrathecal fluorescein dye adminstration, radionuclide cisternography, CT cisternography. | ENT | Trauma of Nose and Face | Halo sign and handkerchief test are positive in-
A. CSF Rhinorrhoea
B. Deviated nasal septum
C. Nasal Myiasis
D. Choanal atresia
| CSF Rhinorrhoea |
109d3ec5-7c75-4181-884f-65ff0741c1b0 | (Latenoprost): Ref: 88-KDT, 394-Khurana 3rd (147-KDT 6th)* Prostagland analogues used in Peptic ulcer are - Misoprostol Enprostil, Rioprostil (588-KDT)* LATANOPROST (0.0005%) It is synthetic drug which is an ester analogue of prostagland in F2a* It acts by increasing uveoscleral outflow and by causing reduction in episcleral venous pressure* Side effects - conjunctival hyperaemia, foreign body sensation and increased pigmentation of the iris. | Pharmacology | Prostaglandins | Which of the following prostaglandin analogues used in Glaucoma
A. Misoprostol
B. Latanoprost
C. Enprostil
D. Rioprostil
| Latanoprost |
4409c8da-0b8a-4df2-8b4f-a5cb0f24cd6f | Ans. is 'c' i.e., OA o Causes of loose bodies includei) Osteoarthritisiii) Osteochondral fracture (injury) v) Synovial chondromatosisii) Osteochondritis dessicansiv) Charcot's disease o Among these, osteochondral fracture causes single loose bodies, while all other can cause multiple loose bodies, maximum by synovial chondromatosis (up to hundrades). | Orthopaedics | Arthritis | Which can cause loose body in the joint -
A. RA
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. OA
D. SLE
| OA |
5ecd4ade-4b2d-4563-9161-08d1c41e8029 | Resting affected limbs in neutral position Repeat from May 06 & 07 Disability limitation is the mode of intervention used if the patient presents in late pathogenic phase. The objective is to prevent the transition of the disease proecess from impairment to handicap. The sequence of events leading to disability and handicap are: Disease ---> impairment -4 disability -4 handicap Impairment - is defined as any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function eg. loss of foot, defective vision or mental retardation. Disability - it is inability to carry out ceain activities considered normal for human beings, because of his 'impairment'. Handicap means that the individual with 'disability' is not able to perform his duties and obligations expected of him in the society. For example: Accident is the disease (or disorder) Loss of foot is the impairment Cannot walk is the disability Unemployed is the handicap Lets see other Modes of intervention in the disease process. Modes of Intervention Modes of intervention can be defined as any attempt to interrupt the usual sequence of any disease process (right from the risk factors to handicap) There are 5 modes of intervention: Health promotion Specific protection Early diagnosis Disability limitation Rehabilitation I. Health promotion Health promotion is not directed against any paicular disease, but is intended to improve the health of people through a variety of interventions like: i) Health education ii) Environmental modifications - Like provision of safe water, installation of sanitary latrines, control of insects and rodents etc. iii) Nutritional interventions - Like food foification, child feeding programmes. iv) Lifestyle and behavioural changes 2. Specific protection is directed against specific disease through interventions such as : - Immunization - Chemoprophylaxis - Protection from carcinogens etc. 3. Early diagnosis and treatment It involves detecting and treating the disease while the biochemical morphological and functional changes are still reversible. Thus it prevents ove disease and disablement. Early diagnosis and treatment are the only effective mode of intervention in following diseases. - Tuberculosis - Leprosy - STD 4. Disability limitation - Already described 5. Rehabilitation It is the combined and coordinated use of medical, social, educational and vocational measures for enabling the handicapped persons to achieve social integration (social integration is defined as the active paicipation of disabled and handicapped people in the mainstream of community life) Option 'a' - Reducing occurence of polio by immunization is specific protection Option 'b' - Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP is rehabilitation Option 'c' - Resting affected limbs in neutral position disability limitation Option 'd' - Providing calipers for walking rehabilitation | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is an example of disability limitation?
A. Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
B. Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP
C. Resting affected limbs in neutral position
D. Providing calipers for walking
| Resting affected limbs in neutral position |
9602a861-4056-4800-9bd2-ea8f1e285434 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosisRef. Harrison 17th/e p 288 & 16th/e p 2591, 266 (15th/e page 284, 286,187)Also see June 2000 Q. No. 94.In patients with salicylate poisoning, initially the acidic metabolites of salicylic acid accumulate and cause metabolic acidosis.This causes the following acid base reaction to shift to left (because of addition of H) CO2 + H20 = H2CO3 = H+ + HCO3-This causes decrease in extracellular HCO3* This in turn stimulates the medullary chemoreceptors to increase ventilation and return the ratio of / PaCO2 and thus pH towards normal* The formula given to predict the degree of compensation required for simple form of metabolic acidosis is PaCO2 = 1.5 x + 8 or you can say that the PaCO2 is expected to decrease 1.25 mm of Hg for each mmol/L decrease in The normal values of PCO2 and HCO3-Arterial PC02 - 40 +- 2 mm HgArterial - 24 +- mm HgThus a patient with metabolic acidosis and of 12 mmol/L would be expected to have a PaCO2 between 24 and 28 mm Hg. (to compensate for the acidosis)Values of PaCO2 below 24 or greater than 28 mm Hg will mean mixed disturbance.If PaCO2 is < 24 it means metabolic acidosis + respiratory alkalosis (hyperventilation has led to excess CO2 washout causing respiratory alkalosis)If PaCO2 > 28 it means - metabolic acidosis respiratory acidosisHere is a table giving predictions of compensatory response on simple acid base disturbance. Prediction of Compensatory Responses on Simple Acid-Base DisturbancesDisorderPrediction of CompensationMetabolic acidosisPaCO2 =(1.5xHCO3-) +8 OrPaCO2 will | 1.25mmHg per mmol/L | in OrPaCO22 = + 15Metabolic alkalosisPaCO2 will | 0.75 mmHg per mmol/L | in orPaCO2 will | 6 mmHg per 10-mmol/L | in OrPaCO2 = + 15Respiratory AlkalosisAcute will | 2 mmol/L per 10-mmHg | in PaCO2Chronic will | 4 mmol/L per 10-mmHg | in PaCO2Respiratory acidosisAcute will | 1 mmol/L per 10-mmHg T in PaCO2Chronic will | 4 mmol/L per 10-mmHg | in PaCO2 | Medicine | Fluid & Electrolyte | A patient with salicylic acid poisoning has the following arterial blood gas analysis report: pH = 7.12; PCO2 = 18 mmHg; HCO3 = 12 mmol/L. The resulting acid-base abnormality can be best labeled as:
A. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
| Metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis |
da1479d3-dc75-4a01-b255-b11fe5d9fbf1 | ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, perindopril, ramipril and ARBs like losaan, telmisaan could decrease the incidence of diabetic nephropathy by decreasing protein levels in the urine especially albumin They r DOC for diabetes with HTN. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Which of the following drugs is best for reducing pro teinuria in a diabetic patient?
A. Metoprolol
B. Perindopril
C. chlohiazide
D. Clonidine
| Perindopril |
b2e65332-8691-44d0-819c-91eb2c26a32f | Treatment of precocious pubey: Rx the underlying cause Long acting GnRH analogues (Leuprolide) | Pediatrics | Disorders of Pubey | Drug of choice for precocious pubey:
A. Cyproterone acetate
B. Danazol
C. Medroxyprogesterone
D. GnRH agonists
| GnRH agonists |
172853cc-506a-4da4-bef0-9295fa1fa79d | Ans. a (Insight). (Ref. Psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja, 5th ed., 14, 41, 57, 72, 85, 95, 171)Term DefinitionPerseverationis persistent repetition of words beyond their relevance.Verbigerationis senseless repetition of same words or phrases.Delusionsare false unshakable belief in something that is not true.Insightis awareness of being diseased or sick.Insight is preserved in OCD.Insight is rated on six point scale from one to six:# Complete denial of illness# Slight awareness of being sick and need help, but denying# Awareness of being sick, but attributed to external/physical factors.# Awareness of being sick due to something unknown in itself.# Intellectual insight.# True emotional insight. | Psychiatry | Miscellaneous | Awareness of having a disease is
A. Insight
B. Perseveration
C. Delusion
D. Incoherence
| Insight |
ec8ce4a8-a881-4e63-a1a9-24b3c710d034 | The major blood groups of this system are A, B, AB, and O.O type RBCs lack A or B antigens. These antigens are carbohydrates attached to a precursor backbone, may be found on the cellular membrane either as glycosphingolipids or glycoproteins, and are secreted into plasma and body fluids as glycoproteins. H substance is the immediate precursor on which the A and B antigens are added. This H substance is formed by the addition of fucose to the glycolipid or glycoprotein backbone. The subsequentaddition of N-acetylgalactosamine creates the A antigen, whereas the addition of galactose produces the B antigen.Reference: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 138e; Transfusion Biology and Therapy | Surgery | General surgery | Carbohydrate-related to blood grouping?
A. Arabinose
B. Xylulose
C. Xylose
D. Fucose
| Fucose |
29dc1dd9-b79a-408a-a2b8-89544613b6ce | Pathologic veigo is generally classified as peripheral (labyrinthine) or central (brainstem or cerebellum).The clinical presentation, in this case, is most consistent with central veigo. Positional (especially horizontal) nystagmus (to-and-fro oscillation of the eyes) is common in the veigo of central origin, but absent or uncommon in peripheral veigo. The chronicity of the veigo is characteristic of central veigo, whereas the symptoms of peripheral veigo generally have a finite duration and may be recurring.Tinnitus and/or deafness is often present in peripheral veigo, but absent in central veigo. The flocculonodular lobe, or vestibulocerebellum, is connected to the vestibular nuclei and paicipates in the control of balance and eye movements, paicularly changes in the vestibuloocular reflex (VOR), which serves to maintain visual stability during head movement.A lesion of this area of the cerebellum may result in veigo and nystagmus, whereas the spinocerebellum is involved in the coordination of limb movement. | Microbiology | All India exam | A 27-year-old patient with a chief complaint of mild veigo of 3-months duration is seen by a neurologist. Examination reveals a positional (horizontal and veical) nystagmus that is bidirectional. The patient repos the absence of tinnitus. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of veigo?
A. Labyrinthitis
B. Meniere's syndrome
C. Lesion of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum
D. Lesion of the spinocerebellum
| Lesion of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum |
bfdd8469-050c-4a06-b4bd-e7047e590ff7 | CEPHALOSPORINS These are a group of semisynthetic antibiotics derived from &;cephalosporin-C&; obtained from a fungus Cephalosporium. They are chemically related to penicillins; the nucleus consists of a P-lactam ring fused to a dihydrothiazine ring, (7-aminocephalosporanic acid). By addition of different side chains at position 7 of [3-lactam ring (altering spectrum of activity) and at position 3 of dihydrothiazine ring (affecting pharmacokinetics), a large number of semisynthetic compounds have been produced. Cefoperazone: Like ceftazidime, it differs from other third generation compounds in having stronger activity on Pseudomonas and weaker activity on other organisms. It is good for S. typhi and B. fragilis also, but more susceptible to Beta lactamases. The indications are-severe urinary, biliary, respiratory, skin-soft tissue infections, meningitis and septicaemias. It is primarily excreted in bile; half life is 2 hr. It has hypoprothrombinaemic action but does not affect platelet function. A disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol has been repoed. Dose: 1-3 g i.m./i.v. 8-12 hourly ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:705,706 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Cephalosporin that does not require dose reduction in patient with any degree of renal impairment is:
A. Cefuroxime
B. Cefoperazone
C. Ceftazidime
D. Cefotaxime
| Cefoperazone |
7944f612-642b-4e97-a7ff-2e8f7380548b | Ans. is 'c' i.e., SDA with antibioticsSDA with antibiotics (Chloramphenicol) is always preferred over plain SDA to avoid bacterial contamination and make it more selective. | Microbiology | Mycology | The medium of choice culturing yeast form of dimorphic fungi is:
A. BHI
B. SDA
C. SDA with antibiotics
D. Any medium incubated at 35-37deg C
| SDA with antibiotics |
063bcfd8-17ce-4ff2-9640-d5f11871b53a | A small medial area of the superior pole is related to the left suprarenal gland. Approximately the upper two-thirds of the lateral half of the anterior surface is related to the spleen. A central quadrilateral area lies in contact with the pancreas and the splenic vessels. Above this a small variable triangular region, between the suprarenal and splenic areas, is in contact with the stomach. Below the pancreatic and splenic areas, a narrow lateral strip which extends to the lateral border of the kidney is related to the left colic flexure and the beginning of the descending colon. Ref: Gray's anatomy 40th edition, Chapter 91. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following does not come in contact with anterolateral surface of left kidney?
A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Stomach
D. Pancreas
| Liver |
f1156838-0cdb-4583-b8bf-39448a505f39 | *Enlargement of costochondral junction and white line of Frankel are seen both in scurvy and rickets. *However, best answer here is scurvy as white line frankel is seen in healing rickets, not in active rickets. And rickets refers to active disease. ref : maheswari 9th ed | Anatomy | Metabolic and endocrine disorders | A young patient presents with enlargement of costocondral junction and with the white line of fraenkel at the metaphysis. The diagnosis is-
A. Scurvy
B. Rickets
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Osteomalacia
| Scurvy |
009c43cf-5ce9-4e6f-9dc6-130d19eeed65 | Woman is suffering from herpes zoster, or "shingles" - a late complication of prior infection with varicella zoster virus. The virus remains latent in the ganglia of sensory nerves after the primary infection. The characteristic shingles rash is always confined to a dermatome and does not cross the midline. Specifically, the area described by the patient is the right V1 dermatome. | Dental | Viral infections | A 54-year-old woman presents with prominent scattered erythematous papules on the right side of her forehead. She had "burning" pain and hypersensitivity in that area for the past 2 days. Her pain is localized to the right supraorbital area and the right aspect of the dorsum of her nose. She denies headaches, mental status changes, or recent infections. What is the most plausible diagnosis?
A. Early Cellulitis
B. Varicella zoster
C. Giant cell aeritis with ulceration
D. Erysepalas
| Varicella zoster |
f4d29428-7d26-4ac0-8d6e-106e91127de1 | Cisplatin is a highly emetic and nephrotoxic agent.
Streptozocin causes the destruction of β-cells of the pancreas and may result in hyperglycemia.
Methysergide can cause retroperitoneal fibrosis on long-term use.
Cyclophosphamide can result in hemorrhagic cystitis. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs is associated with the untoward side effect of renal tubular damage?
A. Cisplatin
B. Streptozocin
C. Methysergide
D. Cyclophosphamide
| Cisplatin |
5d3dcce3-bc5c-4014-a53e-7d5c5faaf805 | Alkaptonuria a condition d/t defective homogentisate 1, 2- dioxygenase (1/t defective tyrosine degradation) usually presents after age of 40 with characteristic triad of Homogentisic aciduria (which blacken/darkens on exposure to air /standing and is strongly Benedict's positive), Ochronosis (i.e black pigmentation of cailage & collagenous connective tissue), and Ahritis of large joints | Biochemistry | null | If urine sample darkens on standing, the most likely condition is :
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Maple syrup disease
D. Tyrosinemia
| Alkaptonuria |
d588dcab-db70-4a04-bd1c-20228f28da86 | Single photon fluorimetry has been used to differentiate between different semen in a gang rape case TESTS FOR SEMINAL STAINS Creatine phosphokinase test Acid phosphatase testQ Florence testQ (Choline iodide crystals) Barberio's test (crystals of spermin picrate) | Forensic Medicine | Trace evidences | The different semen in case of gang rape is identified by:-
A. Acid phosphatase test
B. Christmas tree stain
C. PSA
D. Single photon flourimetry
| Single photon flourimetry |
1fc30362-91fd-424a-9b6e-d3f2f5a7e8f9 | <p>The tumors causing inappropriate rise in erythropoietin are renal cell caarcinoma,hepatocellular carcinoma ,cerebellar hemangioblastoma.</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 359.</p> | Medicine | Haematology | The tumor causing polycythemia due to erythropoietin production is -
A. Cerebellar hemangioma
B. Medulloblastoma
C. Ependymoma
D. Ougodendroglioma
| Cerebellar hemangioma |
0960aa1f-42fc-48db-bf36-94d098a4807e | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Keep the IUCD, give antibiotic, follow up for antibiotic response & then take decision regarding IUCDremoval If an IUD user receives a diagnosis of PID, the IUD does not need to be removed. However, the woman should receive treatment according to these recommendations and should have close clinical follow-up no clinical improvement occurs within 48-72 hours of initiating treatment, providers should consider removing the IUD.PID treatment regimens must provide empiric, broad spectrum antibiotic coverage of likely pathogens | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A female with IUCD develops pelvic inflammatory disease. which of the following should be done:
A. Keep the IUCD, give antibiotic, follow up for antibiotic response & then take decision regarding IUCD removal
B. Sta antibiotic & remove IUCD
C. Remove IUCD & sta antibiotic
D. Wait for next menstrual cycle for any intervention
| Keep the IUCD, give antibiotic, follow up for antibiotic response & then take decision regarding IUCD removal |
ed9da13f-c9c0-401d-87db-696fc9e09ff7 | Ans. (a) Solid mediumRef: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker 8th ed. / 39-40GROWING BACTERIAL CULTURES IN LIQUIDNUTRIENT BROTH* Nutrient broth is a liquid bacterial growth medium made of powdered beef extract and short chains of amino acids that have been dissolved in water.* Liquid medium is convenient to use for growing bacteria in test tubes, and can reveal information about the oxygen requirements of bacteria growing within.* Bacteria that require oxygen will grow close to the water s surface, and bacteria that cannot tolerate the presence of oxygen will grow at the bottom of the test tube.B GROWING BACTERIAL CULTURES ON SOUP MEDIA* Broth media can be made solid by adding agar, a gel like polysaccharide extracted from red algae.* Broth with about 1.5% agar added will be liquid when heated, but solid at room temperature, making it easy to pour into a vessel, such as a Petri dish or test tube when hot.* The solution then becomes solid once cooled. | Microbiology | Culture media and method | Which of the following culture medium is made by adding Agar:
A. Solid medium
B. Liquid medium
C. Selective medium
D. Transport medium
| Solid medium |
1d17bad7-792e-4122-a4f1-ff9f32fa1307 | Many α helices have predominantly hydrophobic R-groups projecting from one side of the axis of the helix and predominantly hydrophilic R-groups projecting from the other side. These amphipathic helices are well adapted to the formation of interfaces between polar and nonpolar regions such as the hydrophobic interior of a protein and its aqueous environment. Clusters of amphipathic helices can create channels, or pores, through hydrophobic cell membranes that permit specific polar molecules to pass.
Note: Clusters of twisted strands of β sheet are called β barrels.
Ref: Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 37 | Biochemistry | null | Amphiphatic helices are
A. α helices having predominantly hydrophobic R-groups projecting from one side and predominantly hydrophilic R-groups projecting from the other side of the axis of the helix
B. Clusters of twisted strands of β sheet
C. Short segments of amino acids that join two units of the secondary structure
D. Supersecondary structures
| α helices having predominantly hydrophobic R-groups projecting from one side and predominantly hydrophilic R-groups projecting from the other side of the axis of the helix |
6576cf14-bd25-4d13-bf8c-cf1e634d918d | Goblet cells form the mucus layer of the tear film They are maximum nasally and least superiorly REF:Refer Khurana 6th edition page number 59 | Ophthalmology | Conjunctiva | Maximum density of goblet cells is seen in
A. Superior conjunctiva
B. Inferior conjunctiva
C. Temporal conjunctiva
D. Nasal conjunctiva
| Nasal conjunctiva |
f4cca320-2458-488e-b44c-868116f03d10 | Monosomy 7 is most common cytogenetic abnormality in children whereas 5q - is seen frequently in adults and is very rare in children. Although 5q may be commoner than monosomy 7 in some settings, overall monosomy 7 appears more common. Myelodysplastic syndromes are a group of stem cell disorders with altered hematopoesis causing anemia. It is the most common hematologic cancer in the older adult. Course may be indolent or rapidly progress to an AML. They are characterized by the constellation of cytopenias, usually hypercellular marrow, and a number of morphologic and cytogenetic abnormalities. Ref: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes: Pathobiology and Clinical Management By John M. Bennett, Page 264 ; Wintrobe's Clinical Hematology, 10th Edition ; Neoplastic Diseases of the Blood, Issue 439, Edited By Peter H. Wiernik, 4th Edition, Page 114 ; Neoplastic Hematopathology By Daniel M. Knowles, 2nd Edition, Page 397 | Pathology | null | Which is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?
A. Trisomy 8
B. 20q-
C. 5q-
D. Monosmy 7
| Monosmy 7 |
d7eae1cb-dfc2-4e82-b300-166ee4e8709e | Yersinia enterocolitica: Type 1- Enterocolitis and gastroenteritis; Type 2- mesenteric adenitis and inflammatory terminal ileitis that may mimic appendicitisYersinia pseudotuberculosis: also mimics appendicitisRef: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p324 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Appendicitis-like syndrome is caused by
A. Y. pestis
B. Y. pseudotuberculosis
C. Pasturella septica
D. Brucella abois
| Y. pseudotuberculosis |
62d24ba7-2223-4392-a811-8065c7838246 | Recent studies have demonstrated that markers of inflammation correlate with coronary risk and that inflammation plays a role in atheromatous plaque instability. Elevations of C-reactive protein, (CRP) identify patients at increased risk of myocardial infarction (MI) and poor outcome of acute coronary syndromes. Measurement of CRP adds information regarding risk stratification to standard risk factor such as hypeension, diabetes, smoking, and lipids. Elevations in homocysteine, lipoprotein A, and plasminogen activator factor I have all been associated with an increased risk at cardiovascular events; however, at the time none have been shown to be useful in populations to improve risk stratification. | Medicine | null | Which of the following parameters adds predictive information regarding cardiovascular risk stratification and the measurement of serum cholesterol?
A. Anti-chlamydia pneumoniae antibodies
B. C-reactive protein
C. Homocysteine
D. Plasminogen activator inhibitor 1
| C-reactive protein |
5e4d2fdd-8412-49dc-804a-7207fded32c8 | An obsession is defined as an idea, impulse or image which intrudes into the conscious awareness repeatedly, patient tries to resist against it but is unable to . an obsession is usually associated with compulsion and a compulsion is defined as a form of behaviour which usually follows obsessions,the behaviour is not realistic and is either irrational or excessive compulsion may diminish the anxiety associated with obsession (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th edition, pg no 95) | Psychiatry | Anxiety disorders stress disorders and grief | Irresistible urge to do a thing repeatedly is seen in
A. Obsessive - compulsive disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Schizoaffective disorder
D. Depression
| Obsessive - compulsive disorder |
472c9c79-3263-4324-bbb8-8254948cfd0c | D i.e. Brain Whiplash injury results from acute hyperextension of cervical spineQ in the region of C4 - C6 veebrae. Coup & Count-re coup lesions are most commonly seen in brainQ. Lucid interval is seen in insanity & epidural haemorrhageQ Fracture - ala - signature / signature fracture is also known as depressed fracture of skull vaultQ. Depressed/ Signature fracture are caused by heavy weapon with small striking surface eg. hammerQ. Pond or Indented fracture occur in childrenQ due to elasticity of their skull bones. -Duret haemorrhages are small areas of bleeding in anterior & paramedian upper brain stem (midbrain & pons)Q produced due to progressive rise of intracranial pressure 1/t coning or downward herniation of brainstem into foramen magnum. This results in stretching & shearing of perforators of basilar aery causing duret hemorrhage , tractional damage of pituitary stalk causing diabetes insipidus; Cushing triad (bradycardia, hypeension & respiratory irregularities), mid size non reacting pupil and brainstem death. | Forensic Medicine | null | Duret haemorrhage is/are seen in:
A. Conjunctiva
B. Middle ear
C. Endocardium of hea
D. Brain
| Brain |
39130a40-67a1-4dd9-a494-cc1dbfb14eef | Answer is D (Hairy cell leukemia) Presence of massive splenomegaly, and granulocytopenia, alongwith characteristic immunophenotypic features (specially CD103) suggests the diagnosis of Hairy cell leukemia. CD103 is exclusively positive in Hairy cell leukemia and thus leaves no doubt as regards the correct diagnosis. | Medicine | null | CD 19 positive, CD22 positive, CD103 positive monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positivity were found to comprise 60% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells on flow cytometric analysis in a 55 year old man with massive splenomegaly and a total leucocyte count of 3.3 x 109/L. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes
B. Mantle cell lymphoma
C. B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia
D. Hairy cell leukemia
| Hairy cell leukemia |
83965e8c-d334-49ad-a40a-ff226ba11e09 | The markers for myeloid series are CD13, CD33, CD 11b, CD15, CD117 and cMPO. c MPO is the most lineage specific marker amongst these. Regarding other options, CD 34 - Myeloid and lymphoid blasts, stem cells, CD 45 - Leukocyte common antigen (nonerythroid hematopoietic cells), CD 99 - Ewing's sarcoma/primitive neuroectodermal cells. | Pathology | Diagnostic procedures | Most specific marker for myeloid series is
A. CD 34
B. CD 45
C. CD 99
D. CD 117
| CD 117 |
07822661-2aca-4f91-a6b9-3406e2d6b956 | The Weheim type of radical hysterectomy for cancer of the cervix is notorious for ureteric injury for which over-dissection of the ureter or accidental injury is most often responsible. Ref: Shaw's Gynaecology, 13th Edition, Pages 180-81; Dutta Gynecology, 4th Edition, Pages 391-92; Management of Common Problems in Obstetrics and Gynecology By T. Murphy Goodwin, Main N. Montoro, Laila Muderspach, Subir Roy, 2010, Page 325; Clinical Gynecology By Bhasker Rao, 4th Edition, 1998, Page 239. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury?
A. Vaginal hysterectomy
B. Abdominal hysterectomy
C. Weheim's hysterectomy
D. Anterior colporraphy
| Weheim's hysterectomy |
328dc4a1-e76f-4e5a-b0a2-22cd463dcb00 | B i.e. Rule out depressionLet us consider the options one by one. This can be a normal behaviour but use definitely need to rule out of few disorders before reaching this conclusion. Recent studies have suggested a possible correlation b/w migraine and behavioural problems. There is nothing in the question to point out towards migraine as a cause of the headache, not there are any specific behavioural problems that can be linked to migraine.Diagnostic criteria for appositional defiantdisorder (ADD) A. A pattern of negativistic, hostile, and defiant behaviour lasting for atleast 6 months, during which four (or more) of the following are present?Often loses temperOften argues with adultsOften actively defies or refuses to comply with adults' requests or rules.Often deliberately annoys peopleOften blames others for his or her mistakes or misbehaviourIs often touchy or easily annoyed by othersIs often spiteful and resentfulIs often spiteful or vindictiveNote: Consider a criterion met only if the behaviour occurs more frequently than is typically observed in individuals of comparable age and developmental level.B. The disturbance in behaviour causes clinically significant impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning.C. The behaviours do not occur exclusively during the course of a psychotic or mood disorder.D. Criteria are not met for conduct disorder, and if the individual is 18 years or older, criteria are not met for antisocial personality disorder.Clinical manifestations of depression in children and adolescents AnhedoniaLoss of interest andenthusiasm in play,socializing, school, andusual activities; boredom;loss of pleasureDysphoric moodTearfulness; sad, downturned expression; slumpedposture; quick temper;irritability; angerFatigabilityLethargy and tiredness; noplay after schoolMorbid ideationSelf-deprecating thoughts,statements; thoughts ofdisaster, abandonment,death, suicide, orhopelessness.Somatic symptomsChanges in sleep or appetitepatterns; difficulty inconcentrating; bodilycomplaints, paicularlyheadache and stomachache.QFrequent quarrels with parents and lack of interest in studies for last 6 months are both consistent with a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder. However, children with oppositional disorder typically present to the clinic by the age of 8 years. Also headache has not been mentioned as a manifestation in this disorder. The presence of frequent headaches and age of presentation (18 years) make the diagnosis of appositional delusional disorders unlikely. So symptoms of the patient here are not enough to be diagnosed as ADD.Depression can occur at any age including adolescents and young adults. Lack of interest in school is a known feature (anhedonia). Restlessness & irritability are pa of dysphoric mood & explain frequent quarrels with parents. Also somatic symptoms like headache/ heaviness of head are known associations | Psychiatry | null | An 18 year old student complains of lack of interest in studies for last 6 months. He has frequent quarrels with his parents and has frequent headaches. The most appropriate clinical approach would be:
A. Leave him as normal adolescent problem
B. Rule out depression.
C. Rule out migraine.
D. Rule out an oppositional defiant disorder.
| Rule out depression. |
8e4f61b0-cd26-4647-913d-136f0d3e6e16 | Timings of IUD inseion During menstruation or within 10 days of begining of menstrual period: Best time for IUD inseion Cervical canal diameter greatest, lesser expulsive, least risk of pregnancy. Immediate post-paum inseion: During 1st week after delivery before woman leaves hospital. High chance of perforation High chance of expulsion Post-puerperal inseion: 6-8 weeks after delivery Can be combined with follow up visit of mother and child. Not recommended after 2nd trimester aboion. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 531 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | Copper-T is preferably inseed postnatal, after:
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. 8 weeks
| 8 weeks |
2cd4fb6d-17b8-40be-bd3f-2ea92b341648 | CONTRIBUTIONS OF FREUD o Father of psychoanalysis He founded a type of psychotherapy called psychoanalysis. It is nothing but analyzing the psych(MIND) o Interpretation of dreams According to Freud dreams are royal road to unconscious In dreams several conflicts that are present in the unconscious comes to the consciousness in the form of dreams Thus by analyzing ones dreams we could understand the unconscious conflicts o Psychosexual stages of life o Freud divided development into 5 stages namely psycho sexual development o It is divivded namely oral , anal , phallic, latent, genital phase. o Conversion disorders conversion disorder is conveing a psychological pain to physical symptoms present physical symptoms which has some connection with unconscious conflict is called SYMBOLIZATION present physical symptoms which has some resemblance with illness in family members, which is called MODELLING patient has illness like neurological deficit but they have apparent in concern towards their own illness which is known as LA BELLE INDIFFERENCE main defense mechanism in conversion disorder is REPRESSION o Repression defence mechanism * REPRESSION is called QUEEN of defense mechanisms o COUCH and FREE ASSOSIATION * He introduced a technique called as a couch technique where he makes the patient lie on the couch, he asks the patient to speak from 'cabbages to kings. This method is called FREE ASSOSIATION. By allowing the patient to speak whatever that comes to their mind randomly so that by analyzing their thoughts we could understand the conflict in the unconscious. o Topographical theory of mind Freud gave topographical theory mind It is divided into pre conscious, unconscious, conscious Later he disregarded topographical theory of mind and gave structural theory of mind o Structural theory of mind It is divided into id, ego, super ego Id= instinctual desires like anger, hunger, sexual instinct Ego= function of mind to work based on ego to avoid guilt from super ego Super ego= based on moral principle, obtained from family members and relatives, teachers Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition pg no. 845 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | who gave the concept of la belle indiffernce
A. seligman
B. lorenz
C. freud
D. bleuler
| freud |
b5988495-d56c-42ab-a01d-3a769711b7cf | HSCs (Hepatic Stellate Cells) are: Pericytes which exist in the space between parenchymal cells and liver sinusoidal endothelial cells of the hepatic lobule. Also called Vitamin A-storing cells, Lipocytes, Interstitial cells, Fat-storing cells or Ito cells, Perisinusoidal cells Store 50-80% of vitamin A in the whole body as Retinyl Palmitate. Extra information: Vitamin A - The fat-soluble vitamin A, as such is present only in foods of animal origin. However, its provitamins carotenes are found in plants Retinol, retinal and retinoic acid are regarded as vitamers of vitamin A. Function of vit A - Vitamin A is necessary for a variety of functions such as vision, proper growth and differentiation, reproduction and maintenance of epithelial cells. Deficiency manifestations of the eyes - nyctalopia is one of the earliest symptoms of vitamin A deficiency. | Biochemistry | NEET 2019 | Vitamin A is stored in:-
A. Kupfer cells
B. Hepatocytes
C. Ito cells
D. Endothelial cells of liver
| Ito cells |
3abf388a-5cc3-4b14-a00b-d2ddc8fc2740 | RAO & SINGH'S INDEX: - It is calculated as Weight (in kg) x 100/height2 (in cm) - Normal value: 0.14 - In children with malnutrition: 0.12 - 0.14 | Pediatrics | Growth | Rao and Singh's index is?
A. Age-dependent index
B. Age-independent index
C. Age and sex-dependent index
D. Independent of wt and ht
| Age-independent index |
538ef57b-9b58-4be3-b70e-49f492885264 | Major Disorders Associated With Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
Obstetric Complications
Abruptio placentae
Retained dead fetus
Septic Abortion
Amniotic fluid embolism
Toxemia
Infections
Sepsis (gram-negative and gram-positive)
Meningococcemia
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Histoplasmosis
Aspergillosis
Malaria
Neoplasms
Carcinomas of pancreas, prostate, lung and stomach
Acute promyelocytic leukemia
Massive Tissue Injury
Trauma
Burns
Extensive surgery
Miscellaneous
Acute intravascular hemolysis, snakebite, giant hemangioma, shock, heatstroke, vasculitis, aortic aneurysm, liver disease.
Robbins BASIC PATHOLOGY T E N T H E D I T I O N page no.487 | Pathology | null | Leukemia associated with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation is:
A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
C. Chronic myeloid leukemia
D. Chronic lymphoid leukemia
| Acute promyelocytic leukemia |
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