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274aeedf-7b3a-46ec-955f-a1a020c0fc3a | Oblique view of spine displays the lamina and articular processes more clearly than the classical anteroposterior & lateral views. The shadow of the neural arch resembles that of Scottish terrier dog.
Spondylolysis → Scotty dog wearing a collar sign.
Spondylolisthesis → (i) Beheaded Scotty dog sign;
(ii) 'Inverted Napoleon's Hat' sign. | Radiology | null | Beheaded Scottish terrier sign is –
A. Spondylosis
B. Spondylolisthesis
C. Lumbar canal stenosis
D. Slipped disc
| Spondylolisthesis |
e04408d7-af7b-43dc-a9b1-1d0d673d0eb0 | (D) Methanol# Acute intoxication with Methanol is common in chronic alcoholics.> Headache, vertigo, vomiting, abdominal pain, dyspnea, blurred vision, and hyperemia of the optic disc can occur.> Visual disturbances are caused by damage to retinal cells and the optic nerve by methanol metabolites.> Severe cases of intoxication can lead to blindness.> Other symptoms include bradycardia, prolonged coma, seizures, acidosis, and death by respiratory depression.> Because methanol is biotransformed by alcohol and aldehyde dehydrogenase to highly toxic products (formaldehyde & formic acid, respectively), Ethanol, which has a high affinity for the enzyme, is useful in therapy because it reduces the biotransformation of methanol.> Other treatments include hemodialysisto enhance removal of methanol & its products and alkalinization to reverse metabolic acidosis> 4-methylprazole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has also been proposed for treatment.> Treatment with ascorbic acid would aggravate the acidosis. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Anion-gap Metabolism with decreased vision occurs with the following poisoning
A. Cadmium
B. Mercury
C. Ethanol
D. Methanol
| Methanol |
751422fa-c4c2-48b6-b1db-44c7a8f07234 | Congenital rubella syndrome characterized by PDA,PS,VSD. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition ,p.no:401 | Pediatrics | C.V.S | The most common congenital cardiac abnormality associated with the maternal rubella infection during pregnancy is
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Patent ductus aeriosus
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Coarctation of aoa
| Patent ductus aeriosus |
a0404fbd-ad9d-4e28-a006-548f3183ff78 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bleeding o Most common side effect --> Bleeding o Most common side effect requiring removal of the device --> Pain | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The most common side effect of IUD inseion is -
A. Bleeding
B. Pain
C. Pelvic
D. Ectopic pregnancy
| Bleeding |
6a7858e8-7b84-4e31-9209-8e592fbd8b6f | The lesions in Linear IgA disease with a bimodal age distribution ie 60 yrs comprise of uicated plaques and papules, and annular, polycyclic lesions often with blistering around the edge, the string of pearls sign/cluster of jewels sign. | Skin | null | Which of the following presents with a "string of pearl appearance"?
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Linear IgA disease
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
| Linear IgA disease |
9d2ddb3e-bef0-43ef-8585-a2ac730b6523 | Ans. (a) Neurofibromatosis* Neurofibromatosis type 1/von Recklinghausen disease caused by inherited gene, the NF1 gene codes for the protein neurofibromin.* Patients with neurofibromatosis develop cafe-au-lait spots, and benign and malignant tumors of the nervous system.* Benign nervous system involvement include neurofibromas, and the malignant include peripheral nerve sheath tumor.* They can also develop distinctive eye lesions called Lisch nodules, and a small percentage develop somatostatinomas of the pancreas/duodenum* The most common cause of death is CNS tumors.Also Know* Turcot syndrome is characterized by intestinal polyposis and CNS tumors: most commonly glioblastoma or medulloblastoma* MEN2A sipple consists of parathyroid adenoma, medullary carcinoma thyroid, phaeochromocytoma. | Surgery | Pathophysiology - Pancreatic Endocrine Tumors | Lisch nodule and somatostatinoma in pancreas is seen in?
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Multiple endocrine neoplasia 2A
C. Turcot syndrome
D. Familial adenomatous polyposis
| Neurofibromatosis |
a4dcc8b5-2d52-4297-a019-c79abe94af3c | Ans. is 'b' i.e. The side of the neck Though submental knot (below the chin) is thought to be more effective and ensures a quicker death; subaural knot (side of the neck under the angle of the jaw/mandible) on the left side is the preferred position in India as well as England. Judicial hanging causes fracture-dislocation usually at the level of 2nd and 3rd or 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae. B/l fractures of either the pedicles or laminae of the arch of the 2nd, 3rd or 4th cervical vertebrae occur.In proper judicial hanging, there is rupture of the brain stem between the pons and the medulla.This results in instantaneous and irreversible loss of consciousness (d/t destruction of reticular formation) and in irreversible apnoea (d/t destruction of the respiratory centre).Death is instantaneous due to damage to spinal cord or brain stem though the heart may continue to beat for 15 to 20 minutes and muscle jerking may occur for quite some time. | Forensic Medicine | Injuries | The "knot" in judicial hanging is placed at
A. The back of the neck
B. The side of the neck
C. Below the chin
D. Choice of hangman
| The side of the neck |
7c7dc71c-c1cc-4580-83d7-31b5382c5cae | Choice D: Reservoir face mask is a high flow, variable performance device. At flow rate of 12-15L/min the delivered Fi02 is in the range of 75-90%. Choice C is simple face mask while choice B is Nasal cannula and both can deliver limited oxygen up to 40% due to diffusion and mixing with air. Choice A: Venturi mask is a high flow, fixed performance device. It can deliver up to 60% oxygen. | Medicine | Flow Volume curve, Spirometry and DLCO | Maximum oxygen concentration can be delivered by?
A. <img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
B. <img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
C. <img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
D. <img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
| <img style="max-width: 100%" src=" /> |
f4b044af-b78b-4319-b0aa-f12608be7a90 | Ans. (b) MercuryRef. Harrison 18/e, chapter 371 | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | Hatter shake is seen in which poisoning?
A. Aluminum
B. Mercury
C. Lead
D. Arsenic
| Mercury |
7a919782-d04e-4469-9f02-c5e1817214c6 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Abrasion Abrasion It is a destruction of the skin, which involves the superficial layers of the epidermis only. They are of 4 types: Scratches- its a abrasion with length but no significant width or a a very superficial incision. Grazes-most common. They occur when there is movement between the skin and some rough surface in contact with it. Pressure or friction abrasion- they are caused by crushing of the superficial layers of the epidermis and are associated with a bruise of the surrounding area. Impact or contact abrasion- they are caused by impact with a rough object, when the force is applied at or near a right angle to the skin surface. Patterned abrasion- impact abrasion and pressure abrasion reproduce the pattern of the object causing it and are called Patterned abrasion. | Forensic Medicine | null | Graze is a type of ?
A. Bruise
B. Contusion
C. Laceration
D. Abrasion
| Abrasion |
7acedce9-1880-45f6-8d2b-42bf7d920bca | Streptococcus pyogenes infection leads to two impoant non-suppurative post-streptococcal sequelae - acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis. This complication ensues 1-3 weeks after the acute infection so that the organism may not be detectable when sequelae set in. In rheumatic fever, carditis, including connective tissue degeneration of the hea valves and inflammatory myocardial lesions characterized by Aschoff nodules is seen. Occurs due to an antigenic cross-reaction between group A carbohydrate of Streptococcus pyogenes and cardiac valves Streptococcal antigens cross-reactive with human tissues Streptococcal antigen Human antigen Disease Hyaluronic acid Synol fluid Reactive ahritis Cell Wall M protein Myocardium ARF(Acute rheumatic fever) Cell Wall C carbohydrate Cardiac Valves ARF(Acute rheumatic fever) Peptidoglycan Skin antigens Guttate psoriasis Cytoplasmic membrane Glomerular vascular intima Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 215 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Streptococcus causing rheumatic hea disease is
A. Streptococcus milleri
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus equisimilis
| Streptococcus pyogenes |
15b7a7b1-97e9-42e4-aa91-28b1229f08a5 | C i.e. Contusion + Haemorrhage + Low intraocular pressure Complications of Blunt Trauma Voissius ring (on anterior surface of lens) Q Rossette shaped cataract Q Angle recession with secondary glaucoma Q Global rupture indicated by contusion, haemorrhage & low intraocular pressure Q Hyphaema with elevated lop | Ophthalmology | null | Global rupture due to blunt trauma is indicated by
A. Blow out fracture
B. Lens sublu xati on
C. Contusion + haemorrhage + low intraocular pressure
D. Proptosis and decreased mobility of muscle
| Contusion + haemorrhage + low intraocular pressure |
5a0b4040-da02-425b-a1e9-91b9424dd2c8 | Hyponatremia, hypo-osmolality, and inappropriately concentrated urine are characteristic of SIADH. The syndrome results from excessive secretion of vasopressin. This could be due to ectopic tumor secretion of vasopressin, various central nervous system complications, or it could be drug induced. The increased vasopressin causes excessive water retention, resulting in dilutional hyponatremia and hypo-osmolality. Volume expansion inhibits the renin-angiotensin system. Plasma aldosterone therefore tends to be low, which partly explains the inappropriately concentrated urine. | Unknown | null | A patient presents to a clinic with complaints of headache, fatigue. Lab data show serum sodium, 122 mEq/L; serum osmolality, 240 mOsm/L; urine osmolality, 455 mOsm/L. which condition best correlates with these data?
A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. SIADH
| SIADH |
b408d916-7ca1-4fd0-9d10-0805561cf9dc | Bender Gestalt test is a brief, nonverbal, perceptual motor assessment instrument. It was originally developed by Lauretta Bender as a measure of visual motor maturation in children. In this test patients are asked to copy designs from the card (containing design) in front of them. Now it is most widely used as a screening measure for brain dysfunction in both adults and children. Ref: Concise Encyclopedia of Special Education: A Reference for The Education of Special Education, 2nd Edition By Cecil R. Reynolds, Page 125 ; Essentials of Abnormal Psychology By V. Mark Durand, 5th Edition, Page 82 ; BRS Behavioral Science By Barbara Fadem, 5th Edition, Page 71 | Psychiatry | null | Which of the following test is used to detect signs of organic brain damage?
A. Rorschach Test
B. Bender Gestalt Test
C. Sentence Completion Test k
D. Thematic Aperception Test
| Bender Gestalt Test |
4b0822ee-9350-4478-8f86-5bce965031fe | Koilonychia is not a feature of chronic liver disease. | Medicine | null | Not a feature of chronic liver disease
A. Hepatomegaly
B. Variceal bleeding
C. hepatic encephalopathy
D. Koilonychia
| Koilonychia |
f030f2d7-870b-465c-b4f0-834ab0e66f40 | In children the earliest presentation of hypopituitarism is growth retardation and hypogonadism is the earliest manifestation in adults. Trophic hormone failure with pituitary compression or destruction usually occurs sequentially. Sequence of fall of hormonal levels is GH>FSH>LH>TSH>ACTH. 1st hormone to fall in Sheehan Syndrome is Growth Hormone. | Medicine | Disorders of pituitary gland | Earliest presentation of hypopituitarism in adults is?
A. Growth failure
B. Anosmia
C. Visual field defects
D. Hypogonadism
| Hypogonadism |
e9686f93-2cad-4ecc-af80-8860c36b5703 | Ans. (a) Duodeno duodenostomyRef: Bailey And Love 27th edition Page 1219* Annular Pancreas is the result of failure of complete rotation of ventral pancreatic bud during development, so that the ring of pancreatic tissue is surrounding the 2nd or 3rd part of pancreas.* Most common in down syndrome cases.* Presents with Vomiting in neonatal age.* Treatment is Duodeno Duodenostomy* In late cases presenting with pancreatitis - resection of head of pancreas is preferable to a lesser procedure than resection. | Surgery | Pancreas | Treatment of Choice for Annular Pancreas
A. Duodeno duodenostomy
B. Gastro jejunostomy
C. Vagotomy and GJ
D. Billroth 2 reconstruction
| Duodeno duodenostomy |
96716f22-0f35-4fed-9a4b-9868742d19c8 | In patients with NMO, attacks of ON can be bilateral and produce severe visual loss (uncommon in MS); myelitis can be severe and transverse (rare in MS) and is typically longitudinally extensive involving three or more contiguous veebral segments. Also in contrast to MS, progressive symptoms typically do not occur in NMO. The brain MRI was earlier thought to be normal in NMO, but it is now recognized that in many cases brain lesions are present, including areas of nonspecific signal change as well as lesions associated with specific syndromes such as the hypothalamus causing an endocrinopathy; the area postrema in the lower medulla presenting as intractable hiccoughs or vomiting; or the cerebral hemispheres producing focal symptoms, encephalopathy, or seizures. Large MRI lesions in the cerebral hemispheres can be asymptomatic, sometimes have a "cloud-like" appearance and, unlike MS lesions, are often not destructive, and can resolve completely. NMO is an autoimmune disease associated with a highly specific autoantibody directed against aquaporin-4 (AQP4) that is present in the sera of ~70% of patients with a clinical diagnosis of NMO. AQP4 is localized to the foot Ref Harrison 20th edition page 3202 | Medicine | C.N.S | A patient presented with history of recurrent attacks of optic neuritis, an episode of transverse myelitis with no white mater lesions on mri brain. Aquaporin 4 antibody testing was positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. multiple sclerosis
B. neuromyelitis optica
C. acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
D. miller fischer syndrome
| miller fischer syndrome |
3b22b4e2-5001-4f66-8770-02796f08747f | Alpha fetoprotein AFP is a normal component of plasma protein of the fetus secreted by yolk sac and embryonal hepatocytes(fetal liver) which usually reduces after bih and persists as a low value level. Normal value is upto 10 ng/ml. It is an impoant tumour marker for hepatocellular carcinoma (100-1000 ng/ml). It also increases in non seminomatous testicular tumours, hepatoblastoma and some ovarian tumours(yolk sac tumours). It also increases in benign conditions (<100 ng/ml). It is useful in diagnosing omphalocele, ataxia telengiectasia, neural tube defects. Reference : page 594 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | Surgery | Urology | Alpha feto protein is increased in
A. Hepatoblastoma
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Seminoma
D. Renal cell carcinoma
| Hepatoblastoma |
b1ed5dcc-c3d8-442c-bc3e-1266ea347227 | X-ray tubes produce X-ray by accelerating electrons to high energies. | Radiology | null | ↑ energy linear acceleration used in-
A. X-ray
B. Cathode rays
C. Photon rays
D. α - rays
| X-ray |
beb0bcc4-4be8-474c-8bf4-6b1919076d6d | Extremities distal to elbow and knee are least commonly involved in metastasis.
Fibula is distal to knee. | Orthopaedics | null | Metastasis not'ound in -
A. Femur
B. Humerus
C. Fibula
D. Spine
| Fibula |
d6d04ead-afda-4dac-927f-e3585cfcb8db | Ans. C: Auto-immune diseasesThe major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a large genomic region or gene family.It is the most gene-dense region of the mammalian genome and plays an impoant role in the immune system and autoimmunity.The proteins encoded by the MHC are expressed on the surface of cells and display both self antigens (peptide fragments from the cell itself) and nonself antigens (e.g., fragments of invading microorganisms) to a type of lymphocytes called a T cell that has the capacity to kill or coordinate the killing of pathogens in infected or malfunctioning cells The classical MHC molecules (also referred to as HLA molecules in humans) have a vital role in the complex immunological dialogue that must occur between T cells and other cells of the body. The polypeptides may be "self," that is, originating from a protein created by the organism itself, or they may be foreign ("nonself"), originating from bacteria, viruses, pollen, and so onThree main sets of genes are suspected in many autoimmune diseases. These genes are related to:Immunoglobul insT-cell receptorsThe major histocompatibility complexes (MHC).Ceain MHC class 11 allotypes are strongly correlated withHLA DR2 is strongly positively correlated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, narcolepsy and multiple sclerosis, and negatively correlated with DM Type 1.HLA DR3 is correlated strongly with SjOgren's syndrome, myasthenia gravis, SLE, and DM Type 1.HLA DR4 is correlated with the genesis of rheumatoid ahritis, Type 1 diabetes mellitus, and pemphigus vulgaris.Fewer correlations exist with MHC class I molecules. The most notable and consistent is the association between HLA B27 and ankylosing spondylitis. | Pathology | null | MHC is impoant in pathogenesis of: March 2005
A. Idiopathic disease
B. latrogenic diseases
C. Auto-immune diseases
D. Tumours
| Auto-immune diseases |
77a8ac86-2bc0-42b5-838a-f563f9331aac | Ans. B. 2.0L/hra. Rate of elimination (RoE)- Amount of drug/timeb. Clearance (Cl):- rate of elimination/concentrationc. In the given MCQ, RoE=10mg/hr;Con=5mg/L,d. Therefore, Cl=10/5=2L/hr | Pharmacology | General Pharmacology | If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is:
A. 0.5 L/hr
B. 2.0 L/hr
C. 5.0 L/hr
D. 20 L/hr
| 2.0 L/hr |
0ebe7e40-27fe-47a7-a939-0951a2e0f43a | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pons Square-wave erks Not localizing Macro square-wave erks Cerebellum Macrosaccadic oscillation Cerebellum Voluntary nystagmus Volitional Saccadic pulses Cerebellum, lower brainstem Ocular flutter Cerebellum, lower brainstem Opsoclonus Cerebellum, lower brainstem Ocular bobbing Pons | Ophthalmology | null | Ocular bobbing?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Coex
| Pons |
ca69c564-4381-4fc6-a468-e79263297c97 | Low metabolic rate, no need for a separate incision, same thickness as that of tympanic membrane ours the use of temporalis fascia. Other graft materials also include perichondrium, dura and cadaveric tympanic membrane. Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition | ENT | Diagnostic and operative ENT | For myringoplasty, Graft material of choice is
A. Peritoneum
B. Palmar fascia
C. Temporalis fascia
D. Fascia lata
| Temporalis fascia |
5942bb07-4170-4d5b-ad89-78bebac43ac3 | (Supra condylar humerus) (596-Apley's 8th)Supracondylar fracture of humerus - usually seen in children suggest an extenson injury, usually due to a fall on the outstretched hand. The distal fragments is pushed backwards and (because the forearm is usually in pronation) twisted inwards, sometimes injuring the brachial artery or Median nerve"These are among the commonest fractures in children" | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around Arm & Elbow | Most common fracture in the children is
A. Supracondylar humerus
B. Tibia fracture
C. Fracture shaft of the femur
D. Metatarsal fracture
| Supracondylar humerus |
82101f07-ab8a-464d-a17e-6815feaefe97 | Positional veigo is commonly due to pathology in the Posterior Semicircular Canal.BPPV is the commonest cause of peripheral veigoRef: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 105 | ENT | Ear | Positional veigo is most commonly seen due to pathology in
A. Lateral semicircular canal
B. Superior semicircular canal
C. Inferior semicircular canal
D. Posterior semicircular canal
| Posterior semicircular canal |
8298ab5b-dbc3-49c0-aca9-da096f700a5f | It is the causative agent of food poisoning due to sea fish. Usual signs are abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting and fever. Feces contain cellular exudate and blood. Dehydration is moderate. Recovery occurs in 1-3 days. Common in summer and in adults. Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panicker's, 8th Edition, Page 312 | Microbiology | null | The Halophilic Vibrio that is implicated in gastroenteritis is which of the following?
A. Vibrio Mimicus
B. Vibrio Vulnificus
C. Vibrio Alginolyticus
D. Vibrio Parahaemolyticus
| Vibrio Parahaemolyticus |
3dad0c2d-5b9c-4508-b526-42d14bad3052 | The serum ferritin level is the laboratory test to estimate iron stores. As iron stores are depleted, the serum ferritin falls to Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 847 | Medicine | null | What does Serum ferritin level
A. Decreased capacity to absorb iron
B. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
C. Absent body iron stores
D. Sideroblastic anemia
| Absent body iron stores |
1329167d-0ce5-42f9-8be1-0999da85c950 | Answer is A (Steroid) Steroid has no role in treatment of hairy cell leukemia. Cladribine is the drug of choice. Clinical complete remissions with cladribine occur in majority of patients and longterm disease free survival is frequent. Treatment of hairy cell leukemia is chemotherapy with Cladribine : Drug of choice. Alpha-interferon Q PentostatinQ | Medicine | null | 'Which of the following is NOT used in treatment of hairy cell leukemia:
A. Steroid
B. Pentostatin
C. Splenectomy
D. Alpha-interferon
| Steroid |
af50b446-99fa-4dc2-80ae-c3b11434e55e | GnRH agonist treatment is continued for 3 → 6 months. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | GnRH agonist therapy for leiomyoma is given for
A. 2 → 4 months
B. 3 → 6 months
C. 4 → 8 months
D. 5 → 10 months
| 3 → 6 months |
e0964ff7-73e1-4a6f-ade9-1573aaff2f0d | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Grandfather "In Atavism the child does not resemble its parents but its grandparents" - Parikh, 6/e. | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | Atavism is resemblence of features to
A. Mother
B. Father
C. Neighbour
D. Grandfather
| Grandfather |
e99507f5-41f1-4f0c-98fe-079b1c60ae32 | Ans. B. Ulnar Nervea. In the proximal forearm, ulnar nerve gives muscular branches to: (a) flexor carpi ulnaris, and (b) medial half of flexor digitorum profundus.b. In the mid-forearm, it gives off palmar cutaneous branch, which provide sensory innervation to the skin over the hypothenar eminence.c. About 5 cm proximal to the wrist, it gives off dorsal cutaneous branch which provides sensory innervation to the skin over the medial third of the dorsum of the hand and medial 11/2 finger.d. The superficial terminal branch supplies palmaris brevis provides sensory innervation to the skin on the palmar surface of medial 11/2 fingers.e. The deep branch of ulnar nerve is purely motor and supplies all the intrinsic muscles of the hand including adductor pollicis except other muscles of thenar eminence and first two lumbricals. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | Palmaris Brevis is supplied by:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar Nerve
C. Radial Nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
| Ulnar Nerve |
1a18c20f-842b-4f2a-bb8e-09c305304a27 | Brown's tube is the most commonly used chemical indicator of moist heat sterilization in the autoclave. It contains red solution that turns green when exposed to temperature of 121degC for 15 minutes in an autoclave. | Microbiology | General Microbiology Pa-2 and Pa-3 (Sterilization and Bacterial Genetics) | Browne's tube is used for -
A. Steam sterilization
B. Radiation
C. Chemical sterilization
D. Filtration
| Steam sterilization |
2e44beef-a93b-41ea-9199-dc089328ba0a | Most common twins after assisted reproduction are dizygotic twins. For increasing the success of IVF and the expenses involved, it's a norm to transfer 2-3 embryos of day 3 or 1-2 embryos of Day 5. For women lesser than 35 years, the implantation rate is better and hence these are the ones who have more multiple pregnancies. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Twin Pregnancy, Molar Pregnancy, Gestational Trophoblastic disease and contraception in special situations (Sour Grapes!) | Most common twins after assisted reproduction:
A. Monozygotic
B. Acardiac twin
C. Dizygotic twin
D. Conjoined twin
| Dizygotic twin |
ddcb345f-367a-4447-9bb9-8a603499348b | Sites of Epistaxis 1) Little's area - 90% 2) Above the level of middle turbinate- From anterior and posterior ethmoidal vessels 3) Below the level of middle turbinate-From sphenopalatine aery 4) Posterior pa of nasal cavity 5) Nasopharynx 6) Diffuse -Both from septum and lateral nasal wall; Seen in general systemic disorders and blood dyscrasias Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 198. | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Common site of bleeding:
A. Woodruff's plexus
B. Brown area
C. Little's area
D. Vestibular area
| Little's area |
ac90ec88-2fd9-497a-8260-ba8aa3f7993a | (b) Otosclerosis(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2213)10% cases of otosclerosis are active. In these the active division is taking place on the medial wall of middle ear leading to increased vascularity. This appears pinkish through the intact tympanic membrane leading to flamingo pink appearance of TM also known as Schwartze sign.In Glomus jugulare the vascular tumour coming from the floor of the middle ear gives a rising sun appearance on the TM. This is also known as red reflex.In Meniere's and Acoustic neuroma the TM appears no3rmal, i.e. pearly white. | ENT | Otosclerosis | Schwartze sign seen in:
A. Glomus jugulare
B. Otosclerosis
C. Meniere's disease
D. Acoustic neuroma
| Otosclerosis |
facb6045-682b-4207-8338-3d34096083b9 | Rosuvastatin It is a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, having a mechanism of action similar to that of other statins. Its approximate elimination half life is 19 h and its time to peak plasma concentration is reached in 3-5 h following oral administration. REF : katzung pharmacology : 14th ed | Pharmacology | All India exam | Statin having longest half life:
A. Rosuvastatin
B. Pravastatin
C. Simvastatin
D. Lovastatin
| Rosuvastatin |
9c058b12-6bd7-400c-acda-26d6d653c770 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Blocking ATI receptors ACE inhibitors : Captopril, enalapril, lisinopril, ramipril, perindopril, imidapril, trandopril, benazepril, fosinopril. Ren in inhibitors : Aliskiren, remikiren, enakiren. ATI blockers : Losaan, candesaan, irbesaan, valsaan, telmisaan. | Pharmacology | null | Telmisaan lowers blood pressure by -
A. Inhibiting formation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
B. Inhibiting conversion of renin to angiotensin I
C. Blocking ATI receptors
D. Interfering with degradation of bradykinin
| Blocking ATI receptors |
674089d2-fbfd-4696-9ea0-58f055aa85aa | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Intraabdominal fat {Ref: Harrison 18th/e p. 2968-2975; IT^/e p. 2279]Risk factors for type 2 Diabetes mellitusObesityo The risk of impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) or type 2 diabetes rises with increasing body weight.o The NHS demonstrated an approximately 100-fold increased risk of incident diabetes over 14 years in nurses whose baseline BMI was >35 kg/m2 compared with those with BMI < 22.o Obesity acts at least in part by inducing resistance to imidin-mediated peripheral glucose uptake, which is an important component of type 2 diabetes.o Reversal of obesity decreases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes and, in patients with established disease, improves glycemic control.Fat distributiono The distribution of excess adipose tissue is another important determinant ofthe risk of insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes.o The degree of insulin resistance and the incidence of type 2 diabetes are highest in those subjects with centra/ or abdominal obesity, as measured bv waist circumference or waist-to-hio circumference ratio.o Intra-abdominal {visceral) fat rather than subcutaneous or retroperitoneal fat appears to be of primary- importance in this regard.o This 'male'type obesity is different from the typical female' type, which primarily affects the gluteal and femoral regions and is not as likely to be associated with glucose intolerance or cardiovascular disease,o Why the pattern of fat distribution is important and the relative roles of genetic and environmental factors in its development are not known.Other important risk factorsBirth weiehtThere is an apparent U-shaped relationship between birth weight and risk of type 2 diabetes.Lifestyle factors# Although insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion in type 2 diabetes have a substantial genetic component, they> can also be influencedr both positively and negatively, by behavioral factors, such as physical activity, diet, smoking, alcohol consumption, body weight, and sleep duration. Improving these lifestyle factors can reduce the risk of diabetes mellitus.ExerciseA sedentary' lifestyle lowers energy- expenditure and promotes weight gain and increases the risk of ty!pe 2 diabetes.Among sedentary' behaviors, prolonged television watching is consistently associated with the development of obesity and diabetes.Physical activity ofmoderate intensity reduces the incidence of new cases of type 2 diabetes, regardless of thepresence or absence of IGT.SmokingSeveral large prospective studies have raised the possibility' that cigarette smoking increases the risk of type 2 diabetes.While a definitive causal association has not been established, a relationship between cigarette smoking and diabetes mellitus is biologically possible based upon a number of observations:Smoking increases the blood glucose concentration after an oral glucose challenge.Smoking may impair insulin sensitivity.Cigarette smoking has been linked to increased abdominal fat distribution and greater waist-to-hip ratiothat, as mentioned above, may have an impact upon glucose tolerance.Sleep durationo Quantity and quality-# of sleep may predict the risk of development of type 2 diabetes mellitus.o Difficulty initiating and maintaining sleep were also associated with an increased incidence.Dietary Patternso Dietary patterns affect the risk of type 2 diabetes mellitus.o Consumption of red meat, processed meat and sugar sweetened beverages is associated with an increased risk of diabetes, whereas consumption of a diet high in fruits, vegetables, nuts, whole grains, and olive oil is associated with a reduced risk.Increased risko Western versus prudent diet,A western diet (characterized by high consumption of red meat, processed meat, high fat dairy! products, sweets, and desserts) was associated with an increased risk of diabetes independent of BMI, physical activity, age, or family history.o Sugar-sweetened beveragesSugar-sweetened beverages, in particular soft drinks, have been associated with obesity in children. Most, but not all, studies report an increased risk of diabetes with consumption of sugar-sweetened beverages.o Vitamin D deficiencySeveral prospective observational studies have shown an inverse relationship between circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels and risk of type 2 diabetes.o SeleniumAlthough animal models suggest that low doses of the antioxidant selenium may improve glucose metabolism, these findings have not been demonstrated in humans.o Iron intake An association between serum ferritin lex-els, high iron intake,, and type 2 diabetes has been reported, but the association is not well understood. Low iron diets are not recommended.o Chromium deficiency Chromium deficiency is generally limited to hospitalized patients with increased catabolism and metabolic demands in the setting of malnutrition.Other patients at risk for chromium deficiency include patients with short bowel syndrome, burns, traumatic injuries, or those on parenteral nutrition without appropriate trace mineral supplementation.Reduced risk for diabetes mellituso Mediterranean dieto Dairy productso Nutso Whole grains and cereal fibero Fruito Coffee and caffeinated beverages | Medicine | Diabites & Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone | Insulin non dependent DM correlate with which fat reserve -
A. Intraabdominal fat
B. Lower body fat
C. Subcutaneous fat
D. Upper body fat
| Intraabdominal fat |
fe37ce63-399d-4495-b41a-c0f633993323 | Ans. is c, i.e UterusPara mesonephric duct is the other name for Mullerian duct so now we don't need any explanation for this one. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Malformation of the Female Generative Organs | Paramesonephric duct forms:
A. Seminal vesicle
B. Ureter
C. Uterus
D. Vas deferens
| Uterus |
045f4102-f784-47fe-aac7-1f2550fc4f36 | Ans. (b) PapillaryRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 763-64* Ionizing radiation can cause genetic mutations leading to malignant transformation.* This association is much stronger for thyroid cancer than for other malignancies, and radiation is the only well-established environmental risk factor for thyroid malignancy.* The risk of developing thyroid cancer after exposure to radiation is greater in those exposed during childhood and increases with higher doses of radiation delivered to the thyroid. This is true for exposure to ionizing radiation given for medical purposes and for environmental exposures.* The association with radiation is much stronger for papillary than for follicular cancer. | Surgery | Thyroid Malignancies | Thyroid cancer associated with radiation exposure?
A. Medullary
B. Papillary
C. Follicular
D. Anaplastic carcinoma
| Papillary |
e2891448-9e64-4845-af58-158c7f749be5 | kaposi sarcoma commonly seen in patient with AIDS REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.576 | Microbiology | Virology | Multifocal tumor of vascular origin in a patient of AIDS?
A. Kaposi sarcoma
B. Astrocytoma
C. Gastric Carcinoma
D. Primary CNS lymphoma
| Kaposi sarcoma |
c560ad86-f316-44b0-b2e8-aa6ed968d257 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., To teach a medical student how to conduct safe delivery According to the International Epidemiological Association (IEA), epidemiology has three main aims : a) To describe the distribution and magnitude of health and disease problems in human populations. b) To identify aetiological factors (risk factors) in the pathogenesis of disease; and c) To provide the data essential to the planning, implementation and evaluation of services for the prevention, control and treatment of disease and to the setting up of priorities among those services. In order to fulfil these aims, three rather different classes of epidemiological studies may be mentioned : descriptive studies, analytical studies, and experimental or intervention studies. The ultimate aim of epidemiology is to lead to effective action : a) To eliminate or reduce the health problem or its consequences; and b) To promote the health and well-being of society as a whole. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following is not related to epidemiology ?
A. Promotion of health
B. Identification of etiology of disease
C. To collect data of magnitude of health problem
D. To teach a medical student how to conduct safe delivery
| To teach a medical student how to conduct safe delivery |
7f53fe63-87b3-435e-9174-554c55dbaa78 | Intermediate filaments - resist external pressure cell type specific: used as cellular markers Types Nuclear(Lamin-A,B,C) Vimentin like (Vimentin, desmin, GFAP, peripherin) Epithelial(Types 1,2 keratin) Axonal( Neurofilament proteins- NF-L,M,H) | Physiology | Cell Membrane and transpo protiens | Which is not an intermediate filament?
A. Desmin
B. Vimentin
C. Tubulin
D. Keratin
| Tubulin |
f5c26b1b-c60c-43f2-a746-1b20a184167a | A i.e. DNAHereditary information is preserved in DNA. Thus all genetic diseases are due to change in DNAQ. | Biochemistry | null | Cellular bearings of herediatary disease seen in:
A. DNA
B. Ribosome
C. RNA
D. Membrane
| DNA |
dc299526-31d0-4a35-9381-1ca12f7b03c6 | Lepromatous test it is not a diagnostic test but a prognostic test. it helps in the classification of leprosy. antigens used for skin testing: mitsuda lepromin, Dharmendra leprominmanifests as biphasic reaction: early Fernandez (48-72hrs)and late mitsuda reaction (3-4weeks)Represents Cmi towards antigen. Erythema and induration more than 5mm indicates positive and good delayed hypersensitivity. lepromin test positive: tuberculoid, borderline tuberculoid leprosy lepromin test negative in lepromatous leprosy, borderline lepromatous leprosyand mid borderline leprosy iadvl textbook of dermatologypage 2060 | Dental | Bacterial infections | The following test is not used for dignosis of leprosy-
A. Lepromin test
B. slit skin smear
C. Fine needle aspiration cytology
D. skin biopsy
| Lepromin test |
67a939b9-daa4-46ad-b7bf-36dc31189c94 | Simple bone cyst (Unicameral bone cyst) is a Metaphyseal tumor. | Radiology | null | Not a Epiphyseal tumors
A. Chondroblastoma
B. Osteoclastoma
C. Clear cell Chandrosarcoma
D. Simple bone Cyst
| Simple bone Cyst |
583ef76d-7f69-4a9c-a47d-ef3c3ce71bc3 | Supraspinatus is responsible for shoulder abduction for the first 15 degrees. If it is torn completely, the initiation of abduction is impossible. Passive abduction upto 15 degrees allows other muscles to take over for further abduction. | Anatomy | null | Rupture of supraspinatus manifests as -
A. Painful movements
B. Flat shoulders
C. Difficulty in initiation of abduction
D. Difficulty in abduction after 90°
| Difficulty in initiation of abduction |
a52abc75-74da-44a9-acb1-fb19bfa63b8c | 1st generation anti histamines 2nd generation anti histamines 1. Chlorphenaramine 2. Promethazine 3. Diphenhydramine 4. Cyclizine 5. Meclizine 6. phenaramine 1. Terfenadine 2. Fexofenadine 3. levocetrizine 4. Loratidine Note : All the 1st generation drugs can cross BBB and produce CNS actions so all 1st generation antihistamines can cause sedation. so 2nd generation antihistamines are given in this patients. | Pharmacology | Histamine, 5-HT and PGs | A night shift worker complains of profuse Rhinorrhea and Sneezing for the past few days . Which among the following drug can be given to him ?
A. Promethazine
B. Fexofenadine
C. Chlorpheniramine
D. Pheniramine
| Fexofenadine |
24abc81c-ff9b-4368-b987-5a453d36f4ef | Aeriovenous Fistula (AVF) MC type of AVF: Congenital MC cause of acquired AVF: Penetrating trauma | Surgery | Aerial disorders | Commonest cause of A-V fistulae is:-
A. Congenital
B. Traumatic
C. Surgical creation
D. Tumor erosion
| Congenital |
e768da65-b7eb-45a5-85c4-a1bf7c1b56dc | Adults Upper midline incision extending down across the left of the umbilicus is the preferred incision. But can be extended into the thorax or do horizontal T or extended as needed depending on internal organ injury Paediatric abdomen:- The abdomen is wider with the bladder intra abdominal. Transverse supraumbilical incisions are preferred to veical midline Scars may migrate during growth. Ref.Bailey $ Love;24th edition | Surgery | Trauma | Preferred incision for abdominal exploration in Blunt injury abdomen is
A. A.Always Midline incision
B. B.Depending upon the organ
C. C.Transverse incision
D. D.Paramedian
| A.Always Midline incision |
064479d4-90c7-4e04-92d0-7131cdac602a | Please note that 110g/litre= 11g/dl A WHO expe group proposed that anaemia or deficiency should be considered to exist when haemoglobin is below the following levels: Cut-off points for the diagnosis of anaemia: AGE GROUP VENOUS BLOOD (g/dl) MCHC (%) Adult males 13 34 Adult females, non-pregnant 12 34 Adult females, pregnant 11 34 Children, 6 months to 6 years 11 34 Children 6 to 14 years 12 34 Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 18th edition; Page-450 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | According to the WHO criteria, anaemia in infants of 6 months age is defined as Hb less than:
A. 100 gm/litre
B. 105 gm/litre
C. 110 gm/litre
D. 115 gm/litre
| 110 gm/litre |
f1ed6405-44f1-417f-9a2f-e58d032aff37 | IV diazepam controls convulsions. In fact these can be prevented by preanesthetic administration of diazepam (1-2 mg/kg),especially if large doses are to be used. From padmaja 4th edition Page no 201 | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | Which of the following drugs has spasmolytic activity and could also be used in the management of seizure caused by overdose of a local anesthetic?
A. Baclofen
B. Dantrolene
C. Diazepam
D. Tizanidine
| Diazepam |
2d5b2c7e-9ab1-420d-b016-c5cbec17bb76 | All vaccines/immunization are primary level of prevention. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Vaccine is what level of prevention
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
| Primary |
2f31c612-b471-449a-9258-a7a81ccc545d | ANSWER: (B) Maxillary sinusREF: Dhingras ENT 5th ed p-188, 4th edition page 164See table of "DIFFERENCES BETWEEN ANTROCHOANAL AND ETHMOIDAL POLYP" in ENT December 2009 | ENT | Polyp | Antrochoanal polyp arise from?
A. Ethmoid sinus
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Frontal sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus
| Maxillary sinus |
938c243c-28f7-475c-b144-66da2f8b2a96 | Cortisol levels in blood are normally elevated at 8.00 AM and decrease to less than 50% by midnight. | Pediatrics | null | ACTH secretion is highest during –
A. Noon
B. Evening
C. Morning
D. Night
| Morning |
a8bc20e6-fac5-41cb-93f7-20cca024cbab | Answer is 'c' i.e. Transitional cell carcinoma There are 3 common histological types of bladder cancer a) Transitional (urothelial) cell ca -- 90% b) Squamous cell ca -- 5-10% c) Adenocarcinoma -- 2% | Surgery | null | Most common tumor of urinary bladder is ?
A. Sq. cell carcinoma
B. Adeno carcinoma
C. Transitional carcinoma
D. Str. squamous carcinoma
| Transitional carcinoma |
87b32955-e809-4bf9-88d8-6175336fdae0 | Health guides come from and are chosen by the community they work.They should be permanent residents of local community, have formal education up to 6th standard, acceptable to all sections, spend 2-3 hrs for community health work.Park 23e pg: 902 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health care of community & international health | A village health guide is selected by
A. Panchayat
B. Zilla parishad
C. Block Development Officer
D. Medical Officer in-charge
| Panchayat |
5d3fe1d3-46c4-4c58-823f-d6b9d9e5ae0b | The inhibition of uterine contractions, or tocolysis, has been the mainstay therapy for pre-term labour. Specific tocolytic agents are adrenergic receptor agonists Terbutaline, Ritodrine), MgSO4, Ca2+ channel blockers (Nifedipine), COX inhibitors, oxytocin-receptor antagonists, and nitric oxide donors. Two forms of prostaglandins are commonly used for cervical ripening prior to induction at term a) Misoprostol (PGE1) and Dinoprostone (PGE2) Ref: Schimmer B.P., Parker K.L. (2011). Chapter 66. Contraception and Pharmacotherapy of Obstetrical and Gynecological Disorders. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e Archie C.L. (2007). Chapter 10. The Course & Conduct of Normal Labor & Delivery. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment Obstetrics & Gynecology, 10e | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following is NOT a tocolytic agent?
A. Nifedipine
B. MgSO4
C. Dinoprostone
D. Terbutaline
| Dinoprostone |
ba32557d-179a-4a95-a467-6d3388a2f8d7 | Answer B. Esophagogastric bypassEsophagogastric bypass is the correct answer. This patient had an subcutaneous esophagogastric bypass procedure over 50 years ago as a result of a complete esophageal stenosis due to a chemical burn. The examination finding is notable for the subcutaneous colonic segment on the chest wall as well as the proximal jejunum as a result of herniation through the epigastric opening of the abdominal fascia created for the esophagogastric bypass. This subcutaneous approach was chosen at the time to avoid additional complications of surgery and anesthesia related to thoracotomy or retrosternal tunneling. | Medicine | G.I.T. | What is the most likely cause of this physical finding?
A. Ascariasis
B. Esophagogastric bypass
C. Hirschsprung's disease
D. Acute intestinal pseudo-obstruction
| Esophagogastric bypass |
267c59ce-118f-4baf-acf1-1eec00b4c858 | Ans. (a) Ascending urethrogramRef: Bailey and Love 27th Edition, Page 1479* Most common urethral injury sites caused by external trauma are bulbar and membranous urethra.* Most common cause of urethral trauma: Catheterization and cystoscope induced.* IOC for urethral injuries is by ascending urethrogram using water soluble contrast. | Surgery | Urethra & Penis | IOC for urethral trauma:
A. Ascending urethrogram
B. Descending urethrogram
C. USG
D. CT scan
| Ascending urethrogram |
9e59ad74-7078-4c2b-9656-a1df58d50955 | RIA is a competitive binding assay in which fixed amounts of antibody and radiolabelled antigen react in the presence of unlabeled antigen. The labeled and unlabeled antigens compete for the limited binding sites on the antibody. This competition is determined by the level of the unlabelled antigen present in the patient's serum sample. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no:113 <\p> | Microbiology | Immunology | Most sensitive test for antigen detection is -
A. RIA
B. Elisa
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Passive hemagglutination
| RIA |
d004bc4f-2aa1-46ea-9ed1-33bbc4a2a698 | Ans. (c) CirrhosisRef: Sabiston 19/e p 1222-1223* MC cause of Isolated Gastric varices- Splenic vein thrombosis* MC cause of gastric varices- Cirrhosis* Gastric Varices are in the SUBMUCOSA (Esophageal varices are seen in MUCOSA)* Endoscopic USG is the IOC to diagnose Gastric Varices because of the reason above.* Endoscopic therapy for Gastric varices- Endoscopic GLUE injection | Surgery | Liver | Most common cause of gastric varices is:
A. Splenic vein thrombosis
B. Splenectomy
C. Cirrhosis
D. Mesenteric thrombosis
| Cirrhosis |
c9fb4704-224b-4ebb-aaf8-32f33f5aafb4 | - Combined oral contraceptives are relatively contraindicated in the first six months of delivery, as they decrease breastmilk output. - Progestin-only methods can be used after 6 weeks of delivery safely as they have little to no effect on lactation post-six weeks. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Natural Methods, Barrier Methods, IUDs, OCPs | During the first 6 months of lactation, which amongst the following contraceptives is not advisable?
A. DMPA
B. Combined oral contraceptives pills
C. Progestin only pills
D. Norplant
| Combined oral contraceptives pills |
99efb380-50e5-4abf-bfa0-1ae2da2aa615 | Inherited Medullary Thyroid Cancer: In inherited medullary thyroid cancer prospective family screening is essential due to the 90 to 95% penetrance of the disease. Inherited MTC is usually present by the third decade of life. Inherited syndromes of medullary thyroid cancer are all transmitted in an autosomal dominant form. The mutation is detected in the tyrosine kinase proto-oncogene RET and can be identified in 98% of affected family members with appropriate screening. Also know: 6% of patients with sporadic medullary thyroid cancer carry a germline RET mutation. Genetic testing should, thus, be offered to all patients with newly diagnosed apparent sporadic disease. MEN 2B patients tend to exhibit more locally aggressive MTC , and screening with RET testing is recommended at age 6 months or prior; for familial MTC and MEN 2A screening is recommended by 5 years of age. Other oncogenes: FOS - Overexpression is seen in osteosarcomas BRAF - Point mutation seen in melanoma, lung, colorectal carcinoma WNT1 - Amplification is seen in retinoblastoma Ref: 1. Busaidy N.L., Habra M.A., Vassilopoulou-Sellin R. (2011). Chapter 38. Endocrine Malignancies. In H.M. Kantarjian, R.A. Wolff, C.A. Koller (Eds), The MD Anderson Manual of Medical Oncology, 2e. 2. Morin P.J., Trent J.M., Collins F.S., Vogelstein B. (2012). Chapter 83. Cancer Genetics. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e | Medicine | null | Expression of which of the following oncogene is associated with a high incidence of medullary carcinoma of thyroid:
A. FOS
B. BRAF
C. RET Proto oncogene
D. WNT1
| RET Proto oncogene |
360e653e-5722-4bf1-a3d3-2083c529cf91 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Face o Rodent ulcer is synonymous with basal cel! carcinoma.o 90% of basal cell carcinomas are seen in the face, above a line from the corner of mouth to the lobule of ear. The commonest site is around the inner can thus of the eye (also k/a Tear cancer).o This is a typical appearance of nodular variety of Basal cell Ca.o Basal cell Ca is a locally invasive carcinoma of the basal layer of epidermis.o Its of the following 4 types :Nodular variety (most common type) - is characterized by a small slow growing pearly nodule, often with small telengiectatic vessels on its surface. Central depression with umblication is classic sign.Pigmented BCC - This is pigmented variant of nodular variety and thus mimick malignant malanoma.Cystic BCCs - are more macular than other varieties andmay extend over the surface of the skin in a multicentric pattern. The centre can ulcerate. These lesions may appear similar to psoriasis, tenia or eczema.Other points about Basal cell carcinomaIt is the most common type of skin cancer. ( Ref: Schwartz 9th/e p. 406)Low grade malignancy.More common in fair and dry skinned people.Exposure to sunlight is an important etiological factor.Has been seen following prolonged administration of Arsenic.Spread:Basal cell ca usually spreads by local Invasion. In gradually destroys the tissues it comes in contact with, that's why it is called 'rodent ulcer',Lymphatic spread is not seen.Blood spread is also extremely rare. | Pathology | Skin | commonest site of a rodent ulcer is -
A. Limbs
B. Face
C. Abdomen
D. Trunk
| Face |
531f514f-bfde-4e8c-a49f-84acdc59bf9a | Ans: b (Measles)The cytopathic effects of measles include1) Multinucleate syncitium formation2) Acidophilic cytoplasmic & nuclear inclusion bodies3) Multinucleate giant cells (Warthin Finkleday cells)More about measles* Commonest childhood exanthema (Mobili virus)* Characteristic Koplik spots are seen opposite to upper molars* Most common complication of measles is otitis media* SSPE is a rare complication of measles; Drug used in treatment - isoprenosineAbout the properties of paramyxovirus study the given below points byheart* Fusion protein is present in all members* Haemolysis & haemagglutination positive in all except RSV* No neuraminidase in RSV & measles* In other words RSV has got only F protein (for syncitium formation) | Microbiology | Virology | Warthin Finkleday giant cells are seen in:
A. LGV
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Rubella
| Measles |
884bb6f3-a0ce-4ec3-86ef-dd71f0c48e9c | B i.e. Vasodilatation due to local metabolites | Physiology | null | The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is :
A. Raised blood pressure
B. Vasodilatation due to local metabolites
C. Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
D. Increased hea rate
| Vasodilatation due to local metabolites |
76387746-2b1e-438d-a80e-ff7e2a4aab14 | Hypehermia is increase in the body temperature to abnormal level despite of normal hypothalamic functions The body temperature may be over 105 F, a level that damages the brain and other organs. Other symptoms include muscle cramps, fatigue, dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, and weakness. The hea rate may be elevated, and the skin is reddened Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1287 | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Hypehermia is defined as-
A. Core temperature > 40.0degC
B. Core temperature > 41.50degC
C. Elevated temperature that normalizes with antipyretic drugs
D. Uncontrolled increase in body temperature despite a normal hypothalamic temperature setting
| Uncontrolled increase in body temperature despite a normal hypothalamic temperature setting |
48d71756-1bba-4675-8496-f0a617cdf84d | The gestational sac can be visualized as early as 41/2 weeks by transvaginal USG and 5 weeks by transabdominal USG. | Radiology | null | USG can detect gestation sac earliest at –
A. 5–6 weeks of gestation
B. 7–8 weeks of gestation
C. 10 weeks of gestation
D. 12 weeks of gestation
| 5–6 weeks of gestation |
be8dc1e6-9eef-4996-8fea-c773d78729c3 | Components of PQLI:Infant Moality Life expectancy at age oneLiteracyPQLI is scaled from 0 to 100. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | Physical Quality of life Index Components
A. Life expectancy at bih
B. Knowledge
C. Life expectancy at age one
D. Standard of Living
| Life expectancy at age one |
78a6de28-a173-4bd5-b9db-4d95655fa962 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Weaver's bottom Prepatellar bursitis Hrdeg,1semaid's knee Infrapatellar bursitis Clergyman's knee Olecranon bursitis Student's elbow Ischia] bursitis Weaver's bottom On lateral malleolus Tailor's ankle On great toe Bunion | Surgery | null | Ischial bursitis is also known as ?
A. Clergyman's knee
B. Housemaid's knee
C. Weaver's bottom
D. Students elbow
| Clergyman's knee |
fb070130-bc61-44d6-b500-53bd61f0737f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., p53 * Most common gene involved infamilial breast cancer - BRCA-1* Most common gene involved in sporadic breast cancer -p53* Most common gene involved overall (Hereditory plus sporadic) - p53* Maximum increase in susceptibility to breast cancer is seen with - p53 mutation (>90%) whether it is sporadic or Hereditary. | Pathology | Breast | Gene affected in breast cancer?
A. WT1
B. p53
C. RAS
D. p83
| p53 |
c39cc9c6-f7de-4c8e-a67f-57745beb1d9b | Lithium usage in pregnancy can lead to Ebstein's anomaly cardiovascular defects. | Psychiatry | null | Use of lithium in pregnancy can result in which of the following abnormalities in the baby?
A. Anencephaly
B. Ebstein's anomaly
C. Caudal dysgenesis syndrome
D. Elfin facies
| Ebstein's anomaly |
a8e10f2c-95fa-4da7-9ebe-1fe0f659e128 | Ans. is c, i.e. AnencephalyRef. Dutta Obs. 9/e, p 299Causes of Post-term pregnancy:Wrong dates: Due to inaccurate LMP (most common).Biologic variability (Hereditary) may be seen in the family.Maternal factors: Primipara/elderly multipara/H/o previous prolonged pregnancy, sedentary habit.Fetal factors: Congenital anomalies: Anencephaly - (Abnormal fetal HPA axis), adrenal hypoplasia (Diminished fetal cortisol response).Placental factors: Sulphatase deficiency (Low estrogen). | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Normal Labour | Post-term labor is seen in:
A. Hydramnios
B. PID
C. Anencephaly
D. Multiple pregnancy
| Anencephaly |
ea6c4eab-28c0-4094-832b-32ddef410236 | Answer is D (Repeated Gross Hematuria): The most common presentation of IgA Nephropathy is with recurrent episodes of Gross (Macroscopic) Hematuria during or immediately following an upper respiratory tract infection 'Recurrent attacks of Painless Gross Hematuria represent the classic clinical presentation of IgA Nephropathy' -- Rudolph's Paediatrics | Medicine | null | The most common presentation for IgA nephropathy is:
A. Nephritic syndrome
B. Nephritic syndrome
C. Microscopic hematuria
D. Repeated gross hematuria
| Repeated gross hematuria |
d5b054aa-2d01-4c3e-b0bf-9d0b7719bc1e | Affected individuals excrete large amounts of L-xylulose in urine. Xylulose being a reducing sugar gives Benedict's test positive. Bial's test is positive as xylulose is a pentose Reference Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 30th Edition Pg 205 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Essential Pentosuria is due to defect in?
A. Glycolysis
B. HMP Shunt
C. TCA Cycle
D. Uronic acid pathway
| Uronic acid pathway |
bf7bc935-2e3c-4143-b784-86ff1fcfad5d | Posterior urethral valves Posterior urethral valves occur in around 1 in 5000-8000 live male bihs. The valves are membranes that have a small posterior slit within them, which typically lie just distal to the verumontanum and cause obstruction to the urethra of boys. They function as flap valves and so although they are obstructive to antegrade urinary flow, a urethral catheter can be passed retrogradely without any difficulty. Clinical features Newborns may present with palpable abdominal masses (distended bladder, hydronephrotic kidney & Ascites) Infants with Urinary infection & sepsis. Sometimes, the valves are incomplete and the patient remains without symptoms untill adolescence or adulthood Approximately 30% of patients experience end stage renal disease Vesicoureteral reflux occurs in 50% of patients DIAGNOSIS Posterior urethral valves need to be detected and treated as early as possible to minimise the degree of renal failure. The presentation varies according to the severity of the obstruction. The more severe the obstruction, the earlier the presen tation. Diagnosis is most commonly made antenatally with ultrasound, which demonstrates bilateral hydronephrosis above a distended bladder. If the diagnosis is not made antenatally, then babies typically present with urinary infection in the neonatal period or with uraemia and renal failure. Rarely the valves are incomplete and the patient is symp tom free until adolescence or adulthood, when again urinary infection or renal impairment can supervene. Investigation will involve a voiding cystogram, with the dilatation of the urethra above the valves demonstrable on a voiding cystogram. The bladder is hypero phied and often shows diveicula. Typically, there is vesico- ureteric reflux into dilated upper tracts. The valves themselves can be difficult to see on urethroscopy because the flow ofirrigant sweeps them into the open position. Renal function is usually impaired, albeit to a varying degree, and the extent is fuher assessed by measurement of ultrasound scanning, which will assess the renal coical thickness, and renography to assess differential renal function. TREATMENT Initial treatment is by catheterisation to relieve the obstruction and to allow the effects of renal failure to improve. Definitive treatment is by endoscopic destruction of the valves with continuing lifelong suppoive treatment of the dilated urinary tract, the recurrent urinary infections and the uraemia. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1478 | Surgery | Urology | A neonate presenting with ascites is diagnosed having urinary ascites. What is the most common cause
A. Bilateral PUJ obstruction
B. Infant polycystic kidney disease
C. posterior urethral valve
D. Meatal stenosis
| posterior urethral valve |
a46322fc-d4ca-4cc0-83e6-16cbe56394c6 | CN3 lesion causes dilated pupil, down-and-out eye, droopy eyelid. | Ophthalmology | All India exam | Which of the following cranial nerve palsy leaves the eye "down and out"?
A. Trochlear
B. Oculomotor
C. Optic
D. Abducens
| Oculomotor |
a2331634-5450-4aa3-a870-86fe09a0ea68 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Active transporto The Na+ - 1C pump operates at basolateral membrane which maintains intracellular concentration of Na+ very low.o Na+ - K+ pump is a pump for active transport. | Physiology | Transport Across Cell Membrane | Na + uptake at basolateral surface of apical cells is by -
A. Active transport
B. Passivetransport
C. Diffusion
D. Osmosis
| Active transport |
2d6be52a-151c-4302-a8a3-3e44fe79b188 | "Although congenital mesoblastic nephroma (CMN) is a rare benign congenital renal tumor it is the most common solid renal tumor in the neonatal period." | Surgery | Kidney and ureter | Most common renal tumor in neonatal period:
A. Renal cyst
B. Congenital mesoblastic nephroma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Nephroblastoma
| Congenital mesoblastic nephroma |
bcdbcc6e-46cd-437c-86be-db33bb8fd31a | 1st generation drugs better treat motion sickness than 2nd gen drugs due to high sedating nature Fexofenadine is a 2nd gen. antihistaminic Promethazine, diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate, and meclozine have prophylactic value in milder types of motion sickness; should be taken one hour before staing journey. Promethazine can also be used in morning sickness, drug-induced and postoperative vomiting, radiation sickness. | Pharmacology | Autacoids | Antihistaminic not much preferable in motion sickness among the following is:
A. Cetirizine
B. Meclizine
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Fexofenadine
| Fexofenadine |
242a6ed2-5fd2-40e2-a1f5-e5bbb5e5b375 | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Spina bifida * Lemon and banana signs are ultrasonographic findings in a patient of neural tube defects (esp spina bifida).* The banana sign seen on axial imaging through the posterior fossa of fetus. It describes the way the cerebellum is wrapped tightly around the brain stem as a result of spinal cord tethering and downward migration of posterior fossa content. The cisterna magna gets obliterated and the shape of the cerebellum has the appearance of a banana. The sign persists into the second and third trimesters. | Radiology | Nervous System | "Lemon sign" & "Banana sign" are see in-
A. Down syndrome
B. Spina bifida
C. Turner syndrome
D. Periventricular leukomalacia
| Spina bifida |
d613bddd-79ee-4661-b151-f3511c92f0c9 | Antibody with least serum concentration IgE(0.0004) | Microbiology | null | Which immunoglobulin is scarce in human serum
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
| IgE |
640ab192-6dac-4ad3-a17b-6aba3bda3046 | Posterior interventricular vein or middle cardiac vein runs in the posterior interventricular sulcus and may drain into the right atrium or into the coronary sinus. | Anatomy | null | In which of the following cardiac structure is middle cardiac vein located?
A. Anterior AV groove
B. Posterior AV groove
C. Anterior interventricular sulcus
D. Posterior interventricular sulcus
| Posterior interventricular sulcus |
aea61ed0-473d-42dc-a059-e4d4734a1362 | Ans. B. ACE inhibitorsACE inhibitorsI- C- coughII- A-angioedemaIII- P-prodrugIV- T-taste disturbanceV- O- orthostatic hypotensionVI- P-pregnancyVII- R-renal artery stenosisVIII- I-increased potassiumIX- L-low risk of diabetic nephropathy. | Pharmacology | C.V.S | A hypertensive patient was started on antihypertensive drug. He develops dry cough during the course of the treatment. Which of the following drug is responsible for the following?
A. Beta blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Alpha blockers
D. Diuretics
| ACE inhibitors |
5ae5acd9-d586-4f7c-8ce7-a4b3353d2d50 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Give good information about the patients in that hospital at a time o A one day census of inpatient in a mental hospital means the examination is carried out at one point of time --> feature of cross-sectional study. o So, it will provide information about the patients in that hospital at that time. About other options o For estimation of seasonal factors in admission, we will require the study which can be extended to all seasons --> longitudinal study. o This study (study in question) cannot enable us to draw conclusions about the mental hospital of India because it is being done only in one hospital for only one day. o Because the study was done for only inpatient (not for OPD patients) it cannot estimate the distribution of different diagnosis in mental illness in the local area. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A one day census of inpatients in a mental hospital could -
A. Give good information about the patients in that hospital at that time
B. Give reliable estimates of seasonal factors in admissions
C. Enable us to draw conclusions about the mental hospitals of India
D. Enable us to estimate the distribution of different diagnosis in mental illness in the local area
| Give good information about the patients in that hospital at that time |
25d5e21c-4900-452a-a021-c379adb0959b | Ans. (a) Brain* Due to increased ICP - there will be downward herniation of brain stem which causes stretching of the Basilar artery and results in Duret hemorrhage.* Duret hemorrhage is a small area of bleeding in Upper brain stem (Midbrain and Pons)* Fatal outcome. | Surgery | Nervous System | 'Duret hemorrhages' are seen in:
A. Brain
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Lung
| Brain |
a90f1f74-fa8f-4bc2-9d94-d25d963792c7 | Example of Preformed toxin i.e. toxin secreted in food: S.aureus enterotoxin, Bacillus cereus emetic type of enterotoxin and botulinum toxin. | Microbiology | null | Preformed toxin produces diarrhea in which organism ?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Vibrio cholera
C. Salmonella
D. Escherichia coli
| Staphylococcus |
4eb4e5bf-33b6-4696-8443-3d28d4e7322b | Ans. is a, i.e. Acute intermittent porphyriaRef: Harrison 17th/ed, p2439Patient taking OCP's and presenting with abdominal pain and psychiatric problem, diagnosis is undoubtedly acute intermittent porphyria as OCP's can precipitate porphyria.Some drugs which precipitate porphyria are:* BarbituratesSulfonamide antibiotics * Meprobamate Gluthemide* Phenytoin Carbamazepine* Valproic acid Pyrazolones* Griseofulvin Ergots* Synthetic estrogen/progestogen (OCP)Danazol* Alcohol Succinimide | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraceptives | OCP's intake cause psychiatric symptoms, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is:
A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Systemic lupus
C. Thrombosis
D. Anemia
| Acute intermittent porphyria |
26a89f5e-9d15-405e-9feb-7719c7b26716 | Sites of itching patch in atopic dermatitis
Infant Face (especially cheeks), extensors of forearm & legs.
Childhood & adult → Flexures (antecubital fossa, Popliteal fossa). | Dental | null | M.C.site of Atopic dermatitis –
A. Scalp
B. Elbow
C. Antecubital fossa
D. Trunk
| Antecubital fossa |
cc2277fb-2cea-48cc-9312-2d668ee59bb1 | Answer is neurogenic shock. It is usually due to spinal cord injury, which causes dilatation of splanchnic vessels. There will be bradycardia, hypotension, arrhythmias, and decreased cardiac output. Reference : SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no = 106. | Surgery | Trauma | A patient with spine, chest and abdominal injury in road traffic accident developed hypotension and bradycardia. Most likely reason is
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Hypovolemic + neurogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic + Septicemia
D. Neurogenic shock
| Neurogenic shock |
ae80d5c9-2e2f-4a36-bb3a-48b61e7503ca | HRCT is the investigation of choice for interstitial lung disease. | Radiology | null | Investigation of choice for detection & characterization of interstitial lung disease is –
A. MRI
B. Chest X-ray
C. High resolution CT scan
D. Ventilation perfusion scan
| High resolution CT scan |
9dbd4d81-99ae-4131-8921-14c2942c26ab | Vagotonic maneuvers such as carotid massage or the Valsalva maneuver could ceainly be tried first. If these are unsuccessful, adenosine, with its excellent safety profile and extremely sho half-life, is the drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia at an initial dose of 6 mg. Dosage can be repeated if necessary a few minutes later at 12 mg. Verapamil is the next alternative; if the initial dose of 2.5 to 5 mg does not yield conversion, one or two additional boluses 10 min apa can be used. Diltiazem and digoxin may be useful in rate control and conversion, but have a much slower onset of action. | Surgery | null | The initial pharmacologic therapy of choice in this stable patient (refer to Q 87) is
A. Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV bolus
B. Verapamil 2.5 to 5 mg IV over 1 to 2 min
C. Diltiazem 0.25 mg /kg IV over 2 min
D. Digoxin 0.5 mg IV slowly
| Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV bolus |
ad20e74d-d638-4a5c-9068-89fff434d6bc | The Garden classification of subcapital femoral neck fractures is the most widely used. It is simple and.
Garden stage III: complete fracture, incompletely displaced. femoral
Garden stage IV: complete fracture, completely displaced. femoral | Orthopaedics | null | Avascular necrosis is the most common in one of the following fracture
A. Garden 3 and 4 fracture of femoral neck
B. Garden 1 and 2 fracture of femoral neck
C. Sub-trochanteric fracture of femoral neck
D. Baso-trochanteric fracture
| Garden 3 and 4 fracture of femoral neck |
fd08f9d8-46be-42ba-b740-4f6847e27c0e | Ans: A (Cystic fibrosis) Ref: Harrison's 18th edn, pg 2149Explanation:Cystic FibrosisAutosomal recessiveMutation in CFTR (cysic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) geneClinical FeaturesBronchiectasisExocrine pancreatic insufficiencyIntestinal dysfunctionAbnormal sweat gland functionUrogenital dysfunctionCF airway epithelia exhibit abnormal Cl- secretion and Na+ absorptionPredisposes to infections. Staph, aureus. Pseud.aeruginosa. Others are H.influenza. Alcaligenes. Burkholderia, Proteus. E.coli, Klebsiella, AspergillusLack of CFTR Cl- channel in the apical membrane of pancreas, failure to secrete NaHCO3 and water, destruction of the pancreasIn the sweat glands, inability to absorb Cl- from the sweat leads to high Cl- concentrations in sweat measured after iontophoresis of cholinergic agentsSpirometry: | RV/TLC, | FVC and | FEV1CXR- hyperinflation, brochiectasis, right upper lobe (Earliest involved)Clubbing, pneumothorax, hemoptysis, corpulmo- naleGIT: Meconium ileus, DIOS, protein and fat malabsorption, diabetes laterGUT: Late onset puberty, azoospermia, female infertility- TreatmentGene therapy of CFTR geneClearance of secretions with hypertonic saline, antibioticsRecombinant human DNAse to degrade DNA in sputumPancreatic enzyme replacement, Vit E and K. InsulinMegalodiatrizoate enema for acute intestinal obstructionUrodeoxv cholic acid for cholestatic liver diseasePredisposed to renal stones and osteoporosis | Medicine | Genetics | Chloride receptor defect is responsible for:
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Wilson's disease
C. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
D. Hemochromatosis
| Cystic fibrosis |
12d78741-c099-4720-b1d9-279738994e91 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of ami noacyl tRNA Tetracyclineso Tetracyclines are classified into three groups -# Group 1 - Tetracycline, oxytetracycline, chlortetracycline.# Group II - Lymecycline, Demeclocycline.# Group III - Minocycline, Doxycycline.o Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic and broad spectrum antibiotics.o Tetracycline interact with small ribosomal subunits, blacking access of aminoacyl- tRNA to the nuRNA-ribos- ome complex.o Oral absorption of tetracyclines is impaired by food except doxycycline and minocycline which are absorbed completely irrespective of food.o Most tetracyclines are primarily excreted in urine by glomerular filtration; dose has to be reduced in renal failure; doxycycline is an exception - doxycycline can be used in renal failure.o Tetracyclines can cross placenta and secreted in milk - contraindicated during pregnancy and lactation. | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by-
A. Inhibiting initiation and causing misreading of mRNA
B. Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyltRNA
C. Inhibiting peptidyitransferase activity
D. Inhibiting translocation
| Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyltRNA |
95895b06-6bbf-43fb-8cbb-f492a645730e | - panel discussion is a group approach in health communication. - in a panel discussion, 4-8 people who are qualified to talk about a topic sit and discuss a given problem or topic in front of a large group or audience. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:865 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning | A group of 8 expes discussing and interacting about a topic in front of large audience is?
A. Workshop
B. Symposium
C. Semin ar
D. Panel discussion
| Panel discussion |
3b754d8a-c4ff-4c48-9d9c-8c67df972a2d | Ponderal index (PI) in neonate
Ponderal index has been used as an indicator of fetal growth status, especially to assess assymetrical IUGR.
Ponderal index can be used to indentify infants whose soft tissue mass is below normal for the stage of skeletal development.
The Ponderal index is calculated by multiplying the weight in grams by 100 and then dividing it by cube of length in cm.
Ponderal index = Weight (gm) x 100 / Length (cm)3
A ponderal index below the 10th percentile may be used to identify IUGR infants correctly.
A low neonatal ponderal index is defined as less than 1 SD below a mean 2.0.
PI is usually less than 2 in assymmetric growth retarded baby and 2 or more in a baby who has either normal growth or has symmetrical growth retardation.
The PI of the baby in question is PI = 200 x 100 / (50)3 = 1.6
That means the baby is having assymetic IUGR (PI < 2).
Fetal ponderal index can also be calculated by USG examination and compared with neonatal PI. Fetal PI had been found to be predictor of IUGR with the sensitivity and specificity of 76.9 and 82%, respectively. If the fetal PI is less than 1SD, the fetal and neonatal well being is compromised. | Pediatrics | null | What is the ponderal index of a child with weight 2000 g and height 50 cm –
A. 1.6
B. 3.6
C. 2.2
D. 2.6
| 1.6 |
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