id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
1b987a0b-2fbc-407c-8ade-b8d813117243 | Ans. is 'c' i.e.,DNA polymerase III Impoant DNA PolymerasesIn ProkaryotesDNA polymerase I :- Helps in gap filling and synthesis between okazaki fragments of lagging strand, and replaces ribonucleotides of RNA primer by deoxyribonucleotides. It has (i) 3' 5' exonuclease activity, (ii) 5' 3' exonuclease activity and (iii) polymerase (5' -> 3' polymerase) activityDNA polymerase II:- Helps in (i) proof reading (3' 5' exonuclease activity), and (ii) DNA repair.DNA polymerase III :- It is the main enzyme that synthesizes prokaryote DNA, i.e., synthesis of leading and lagging strand. It has (i) 5' -> 3' polymerase (or simply polymerase) activity for DNA synthesis, and (ii) 3'->5' exonuclease activity for proof reading.In EukaryotesDNA polymerase a :- It has primase activity (i.e. synthesizes RNA primer), and initiates DNA synthesis.DNA polymerase p :- It is a DNA repair enzymeDNA polymerase y :- Replicates mitochondrial DNADNA polymerase ?:- Helps DNA synthesis on lagging strand, i.e. elongation of okazaki fragments on lagging strand. It also has 5'->3' exonuclease activity for proof reading.DNA polymerase c :- Helps in DNA synthesis on leading strand. It also has 5'43 'exonuclease activity for proof reading. | Biochemistry | null | Most impoant enzyme in DNA replication for chain elongation
A. Helicase
B. DNA polymerase I
C. DNA polymerase III
D. Topoisomerase III
| DNA polymerase III |
62eb1fa4-d1dd-438e-aeab-b95f9053c535 | Muscles in superficial perineal space.
- Ischiocavernosus
- Bulbospongiosus
- Superficial transverse perinei | Anatomy | null | Superficial perineal muscles include-
A. Iliococcygeus
B. Ischiococcygeus
C. Bulbospongiosus
D. Levator ani
| Bulbospongiosus |
0f9b3bd0-1cde-4f9f-ae25-453760fa3465 | Surgical trauma during pelvic surgery is the most common cause of ureteric trauma This occurs most often during vaginal or abdominal hysterectomy when the ureter is mistakenly divided, ligated, crushed or excised. Pre-emptive ureteric catheterisation makes it easier to identify the ureters. ( ref : Bailey 27th ed , chap 76 , pg no 1415 ) | Surgery | Urology | Commonest cause of ureteric injury during surgical operation is
A. Abdomino-perineal resection
B. Hysterectomy
C. Prostectomy
D. Colectomy
| Hysterectomy |
f55764f6-a1de-404f-8fc2-296b52fdc15f | Misoprostal: PGE-1 Given transvaginally and orally Dose of 25 micrograms every 4 hrs is found to be more effective than PGE -2 for cervical ripening and labor induction. Oral use of misoprostal is less effective than vaginal administration . Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 485. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Abnormal labor | Misoprostol is an analogue of
A. PGE1
B. PGE2
C. PGF2alfa
D. PGI2
| PGE1 |
58e1a7dd-6fc3-4b0c-8195-c67ad3d198d3 | Macular edema is not a characteristic feature of traumatic optic neurpathy. Traumatic Optic Neuropathy Loss of vision. Dilatation of pupil. Impaired Pupillary light reflex. Contrast sensitivity is decreased. Central or centrocecal scotoma (though less common, it can be seen in traumatic optic neuropathy) MRI is the investigation of choice for visualization of optic nerve. Treatment -Steroids/ Surgical decompression. | Ophthalmology | Retina | Not a feature of traumatic optic neuropathy:
A. RAPD
B. Dilatation of pupil
C. Centrocecal scotoma
D. Macular edema
| Macular edema |
023569d6-3a3d-41b5-8adb-8e560805adb3 | Food standards are done by CODE ALIMENTARIUS, PFA STANDARDS, THE AGMARK STANDARDS, BUREAU OF INDIA STANDARDS. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 610) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Codex alimentarius is related to -
A. Water purity
B. Milk purity
C. Air polution
D. Food stardardization
| Food stardardization |
52fbc1c4-deb2-48c4-a05f-29dfd62e1ca8 | Development and grwoth of paransal sinuses | ENT | null | Sinus not present at birth is -
A. Ethmoid
B. Maxillary
C. Sphenoid
D. Frontal
| Frontal |
5c17bf5c-dddd-4581-b557-07251975b6fd | Tillaux fracture Lower tibial epiphysis injury (anterolateral pa) | Orthopaedics | Lower Limb Traumatology | Tillaux fracture involves:
A. Lower end tibia
B. Upper end tibia
C. Lower end femur
D. Upper end femur
| Lower end tibia |
90252609-b0bf-4455-9576-b318fe579e69 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., BetaBeta wave is seen when the person is fully awake and ale and is thinking with maximum concentration.Therefore it is also called arousal or ale response. | Physiology | null | EEG rhythm in full awake and ale state?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Theta
D. Delta
| Beta |
538885ec-99dd-4e01-8c61-7416435ea194 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylationInhibitors of electron transpo chain?Inhibitors of respiratory chain may be divided into three groups : ?1. Inhibitors of electron transpo chain properThese inhibitors inhibit the flow of electrons through the respiratory chain. This occurs at following sites.Complex I (NADH to CoQ) is inhibited by : - Barbiturates (amobarbital), Piericidin A (an antibiotic), rotenone (an insectiside), chlorpromazine (a tranquilizer), and guanethidine (an ntihypeensive). These inhibitors block the transfer of reducing equivalents from FeS protein to CoQ.Complex II is inhibited by : - Carboxin and TTFA inhibit transfer of electon from FADH2 to CoQ, whereas malanate competitively inhibit from succinate to complex II. Complex III (Cytochrome b to cytochrome CI) is inhibited by : - Dimercaprol, antimycin A, BAL(British antilewisite), Naphthyloquinone. These inhibitors block the transfer of electrons from cytochrome b to cytochromeComplex IV (cytochrome C oxidase) is inhibited by : - Carbon monoxide, CN-, H2S and azide (N3-). These inhibitors block the transfer of electrons from cytochrome aa3 to molecular oxygen and therefore can totally arrest cellular respiration.2. Inhibitors of oxidative phosphorylationThese compounds directly inhibit phosphorylation of ADP to ATP. Oligomycin inhibits Fo component of F0F, ATPase. Atractiloside inhibits translocase, a transpo protein that transpos ADP into mitochondria for phosphorylation into ATP.3. UncouplesAs the name suggests, these componds block the coupeling of oxidation with phosphorylation. These compounds allow the transfer of reducing equivalents in respiratory chain but prevent the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP by uncoupling the linkage between ETC and phosphorylation. Thus the energy instead of being trapped by phosphorylation is dissipated as heat. Uncouplers may be :-Natural :- Thermogenin, thyroxineSynthetic :- 2, 4-dinitrophenol (2, 4-DNP), 2, 4-dinitrocresol (2, 4-DNC), and CCCP (chlorocarbonylcyanidephenyl hydrazone). | Biochemistry | null | Atractiloside act as ?
A. Uncoupler
B. Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylation
C. Inhibitor of complex I of ETC
D. Inhibitor of complex III of ETC
| Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylation |
e5554a36-2285-40cc-8020-554dda2f3b20 | (Achandroplasia): (306- Maheshwari 4th edition)Champagne - glass' pelvic cavity found in ACHONDROPLASIA(275-Aids to radiological differential diagnosis chapman)ACHONDROPLASIA(Primary defect of enchondral bone formation, Autosomal dominant (but 80% are spontaneous mutations)SkullPelvis1. Large skull, small base, small sella, steep clivus small funnel shaped foramen magnum2. Hydrocephalus - of variable severity (+ obstruction)1. Square iliac wings2. "Champagne-glass" pelvic cavity3. Short narrow sacrosciatic notch4. Horizontal sacrum articulating low on the iliamThoraxAppendicular Skeleton1. Thick, stubby sternum2. Short ribs with deep concavities to the anterior ends1. Rhizometic micromelia with bowing of long bones2. Widened metaphyses3. Ball and socket epiphyseal/metaphyseal junctions4. Broad and short proximal and short proximal and middle phalanges5. Trident shaped hands**Axial Skeleton1. Decreasing interpedicular distance caudally in the lumber spine2. Short pedicles with a narrow sagittal diameter of the lumber spinal canal3. Disc heigh/ body weight ratio is 1.0 (Normal 0.3)4. Posterior scalloping5. Anterior vertebral body beak at T12/L1/L2 | Orthopaedics | Miscellaneous | Champagne glass pelvis is seen in
A. Cretinism
B. Achandro plasia
C. Osteomalacia
D. Rickets
| Achandro plasia |
a7e9ea72-b4ac-4121-b916-f7e54de42f75 | ) Pulmonary vascular sclerosis refers to the vascular changes associated with pulmonary hypeension. Elevation of the mean pulmonary aerial pressure is the result of endothelial dysfunction and vascular changes. The vascular changes vary with the size of the vessel. The main aeries have atheromas that are similar to systemic atherosclerosis, but are not as severe. Medium-sized aeries show intimal thickening and neomuscularization. Smaller aeries and aerioles show intimal thickening, medial hyperophy, and reduplication of the internal and external elastic membranes. A distinctive aeriolar change, a plexiform lesion, consists of intraluminal angiomatous tufts that form webs. This pattern is thought to be diagnostic of primary hypeension The changes of pulmonary vascular sclerosis may be primary or secondary. Primary pulmonary vascular sclerosis almost always occurs in young women, who develop fatigue, syncope (with exercise), dyspnea on exeion (DOE), and chest pain. Secondary sclerosis may occur at any age, and symptoms depend on the underlying cause. Possible causes include ceain types of hea disease, such as mitral valve disease, left ventricular failure, and congenital valvular disease with left-to-right shunt, as well as ceain types of pulmonary disease, such as chronic obstructive or interstitial lung disease and recurrent pulmonary emboli. Pulmonary hypeension is also associated with diet pills (Redux and Fen-Phen), while "exotic" causes include Crotalaria spectabilis ("bush tea") and adulterated olive oil Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition. | Pathology | miscellaneous | A specimen from a lung biopsy reveals occasional plexiform lesions within pulmonary aerioles. This abnormality is most characteristic of
A. Churg-Strauss syndrome
B. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
C. Wegener's granulomatosis
D. Pulmonary hypeension
| Pulmonary hypeension |
4c49f1f9-24e6-4c2d-93e4-31aa596557f2 | Ans. a Twins. (Ref. Dutta, Obstetrics, 4th/pg.221)D/d of Large placenta/hyperplacentosis:# Twin pregnancy# Hydrops fetalis# Diabetes in pregnancy# IUGRHUMAN PLACENTA# It is Discoid, Deciduate and Haemchorial.# It develops from--- foetal (4/5th)--chorionic frondosum and- maternal (l/5th)--decidua basalis.# Its development begins at 6th week of gestation and is completed by 12th week.Q# Its weight is 500 gms and weight of blood in it is 500 ml.# Fetal blood flow through placenta = 400 ml/min# Decidua basalis retains its characteristic appearance till term and becomes the maternal portion of placenta.# Line of separation of placenta after birth of the baby is through decidua spongiosum.# Fetal surface has attachment of umbilical cord with ramification of umbilical vessels and aminon.# Only decidua basalis and blood in the inter villou space are of maternal origin.# Maternal surface has shaggy looks with cotyledons.# Placentome = fetal cotyledon.# Villi are the functional units of placenta. Umbilical arteryUmbilical veinO2 saturation50-60%70-80%pO2 (mm Hg)20-2530-40# Placental calcification is a feature of postmaturity.# Signs of Placental aging:- Appearance of syncytial knots.- Decreased stromal tissue including Hofbauer cells.- Partial deficiency of Langhan's cells.- Thinning of basement membrane layer of foetal endothelium.# Most common tumour of placenta is choriohaemangioma.QDiscriptionDiscriptionType of placentaPlacenta with umbilical cord attached to its marginPlacenta with chorionic plate smaller than basal platePlacenta associated with increased rate of prematurityPlacenta with accessory lobes in the membranes away from main body of placenta, connected by large vessels to main body which if it goes to cervix causes formation of "Vasa previa"--a vital cause of bleeding of fetal originBattledore placentaCircumvallate placenta.Circumvallate placenta.Succenturiate placenta.Placenta with functioning villi covering all foetal membranesPlacenta with central portion missingMembranous placenta.Fenestrated placenta. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Large placenta is seen in
A. Twins
B. Oligohydramnios
C. IUGR
D. Pre-eclamptic toxemia
| Twins |
dd42d061-4d03-4c68-8f0d-8f384209bb95 | Most Mycobacterium tuberculosis infections are asymptomatic and subclinical infections. In most healthy people primary tuberculosis is asymptomatic, although it may cause fever and pleural effusion. Generally, the only evidence of infection, if any remains, is a tiny, fibrocalcific pulmonary nodule at the site of the infection. Viable organisms may remain dormant in such lesions for decades. If immune defenses are lowered, the infection may be reactivated, producing communicable and potentially life-threatening disease. Testing for latent tuberculosis is done by detecting T-cells specific for or delayed hypersensitivity to M. tuberculosis antigens. This can be detected by either IFN-g release assays (IGRAs) or the tuberculin (purified protein derivative , or Mantoux) skin test. | Pathology | Pulmonary Tuberculosis and Lung Abscess | A 9-year-old girl child developed a 10 mm area of induration on the left forearm 72 hours after intradermal injection of 0.1 ml of purified protein derivative (PPD). Which of the following is most likely to be seen on the X-ray of this patient?
A. Marked hilar adenopathy
B. Upper lobe calcifications
C. No abnormal findings
D. Reticulo-nodular densities
| No abnormal findings |
2018386e-1a58-495e-927f-43c2de258008 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Glaucoma PG F2 alpha (Latanoprost) is used in glaucoma. | Pharmacology | null | Latanoprost (PGF2 alfa) is used in -
A. Maintenance of ductus aeriosus
B. Pulmonary hypeension
C. Gastric mucosal protection
D. Glaucoma
| Glaucoma |
be5797c0-922f-4b84-809b-a178e4a8f0aa | In phacoemulsification, the nucleus is emulsified using high frequency sound waves and then sucked out of the eye through a small (3.2 mm) incision. | Ophthalmology | null | The standard sutureless cataract surgery is done with phacoemulsification and foldable IOL has an incision of –
A. 1mm–1.5mm
B. 2mm–2.5min
C. 3mm–3.5mm
D. 3.5mm–4.5mm
| 3mm–3.5mm |
466a6eec-9817-4c9d-9492-243d9895e9ad | Epithelial cell necrosis leads to focal opacification of the lens epithelium as glaucomflecken in acute angle-closure glaucoma. | Ophthalmology | null | Glaukomflecken is –
A. Acute uvetis due to glaucoma
B. Lens opacity due to glaucoma
C. Retinal detachment due to glaucoma
D. Corneal opacity due to glaucoma
| Lens opacity due to glaucoma |
5b06347e-0194-4f80-9b78-9aa2c1ff7927 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 93% Half life Elimination 1t%2 50% 2t'/2 75% 3 0/2 87.5% 41 93.75% 5 t'/ 96.875 | Pharmacology | null | Elimination after 4 half lives in first order Kinetics is
A. 84%
B. 93%
C. 80.50%
D. 4.75%
| 93% |
6316b949-883e-429c-a197-f2dfffac989c | Hyperventilation in high altitude is due to respiratory alkalosis Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:375,376,377 | Physiology | Respiratory system | Hyperventilation in high altitude is due to
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Hypercapnea
D. Decreased concentration of bicarbonate
| Respiratory alkalosis |
22f7e828-a48f-4e6a-a009-fe0e6a4057b7 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autosomal dominant (most likely) o It is typical presentation of waardeburg syndrome type - 1. --> Widely spaced eyes, Hearing loss, Increased facial hair o It is an autosomal dominant disorder. o In autosomal disorder, if one parent is affected and the other is normal, 25% of children (1 out of 4) will manifest disease. | Pediatrics | null | In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is least likely pattern of inheritance in this case-
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
| Autosomal dominant |
13b5a0d4-10b0-4ce2-82f0-ca86b13e79df | 1. Chvostek sign - seen in hypocalcemia - Twitching of Circumoral Muscle on tapping of Facial Nerve 2. Inability to open eye on tapping of facial nerve - L.P.S 3rd nerve | Medicine | Electrolyte Imbalance | Chvostek sign is?
A. Twitching of circumoral muscles on tapping of facial nerve
B. Involuntary blink on tapping on facial nerve
C. Inability to open eye on tapping of facial nerve
D. Inability to close eye on tapping of facial nerve
| Twitching of circumoral muscles on tapping of facial nerve |
6da9b62e-a507-43f6-8cca-138b8a8dea1d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Analytic study Coho study o Coho study is a type of analytic observational study (like case control study). o Coho study proceeds forward from cause to effect, i.e., disease has not occured in subjects (In contrast to case-control study which proceeds backward from effect to cause). | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Coho study is a type of -
A. Clinical trial
B. Analytic study
C. Descriptive study
D. Experimental study
| Analytic study |
46de4a8d-7024-4a47-8fa9-72ef146a3f1f | Bleomycin is a marrow sparing drug but it causes pulmonary fibrosis and skin toxicity as adverse effects. Another anticancer drug causing pulmonary fibrosis is busulfan. | Pharmacology | null | Pulmonary fibrosis is seen with :
A. Bleomycin
B. Cisplatin
C. Methotrexate
D. Actinomycin D
| Bleomycin |
4ac2b77f-98ea-4f6e-90c4-4eb67af403b4 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Absent long bones 'Phacomelia' o Is a term applied to a marked reduction in the size of limbs The distal pa of the limbs are placed very near the trunk (absent long bones). o Seen in foetuses of mothers who recieved thalidomide during pregnancy. | Pediatrics | null | Phocomelia is-
A. Absence of long bones
B. Absence of brain
C. Reduplication of bones
D. Absence of hea
| Absence of long bones |
bc773b1e-d4ae-4158-b46b-f6ff607365de | Sympathetic noradrenergic division constricts the blood vessels of the skin(which limits bleeding from wounds). Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg: 268. | Physiology | Nervous system | Cutaneous vasoconstriction is mediated by
A. Sympathetic adrenergic nerves
B. Sympathetic cholinergic nerves
C. Parasympathetic cholinergics
D. Somatic nerves
| Sympathetic adrenergic nerves |
ae4182f7-b9b6-4546-9c59-fe432b9d8af7 | (A) Blood in lumen on sigmoidoscopy # Severe Ulcerative collitis: Bowel movements >6 per day, Severe Blood in stool, Severe Fever 37.5C mean.Tachycardia >90 mean pulse, Anemia <75%, Sedimentation rate >30 mm, Endoscopic appearance Spontaneous bleeding, ulcerations.> Sigmoidoscopy is used to assess disease activity and is usually performed before treatment. If the patient is not having an acute flare, colonoscopy is used to assess disease extent and activity.> Endoscopically mild disease is characterized by erythema, decreased vascular pattern, and mild friability.> Moderate disease is characterized by marked erythema, absent vascular pattern, friability and erosions, and severe disease by spontaneous bleeding and ulcerations. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Which is an indicator of severe Ulcerative colitis?
A. Blood in lumen on sigmoidoscopy
B. Stool volume >1 It
C. Serum albumin <40
D. Abdominal discomfort
| Blood in lumen on sigmoidoscopy |
7d171def-9ed8-4944-8998-0b7d5325eebf | Dilator pupillae muscle is suppliedby the postganglionic fibers arising from the cervical sympathetic chain. ... Oculomotor nerve supplies the skeletal as well as the smooth muscles of the eyeball. It carries the pre-ganglionic fibers from the Edinger-Westphal to supply two smooth muscles in the eyeball Ref AK khurana 6/e | Ophthalmology | Ocular motility and squint | Dilator pupillae is supplied by -
A. Post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers from Edinger Westphal nucleus
B. Post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers from cervical sympathetic chain
C. IIIrd nerve
D. Sympathetic fibers from fronto-orbital branch of V nerve
| Post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers from cervical sympathetic chain |
60664f63-49fd-46ba-ba3e-de2cb0dec620 | Neuromuscular-blocking drugs block neuromuscular transmission at the neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis of the affected skeletal muscles. This is accomplished either by acting presynaptically the inhibition of acetylcholine (ACh) synthesis or release or by acting postsynaptically at the acetylcholine receptors of the motor nerve end-plate. While some drugs act presynaptically (such as botulinum toxinand tetanus toxin), those of current clinical impoance work postsynaptically. | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | Non-depolarizing blockade is potentiated by:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypomagnesemia
C. Chronic Phenytoin therapy
D. Quininidine
| Quininidine |
5e76f6b5-6a5d-478e-9394-7556e3985b93 | Naegleria fowleri, the only pathogenic species of naegleria Human infection comes from water containing the amoebae and usually follows swimming or diving in ponds. Patients are mostly previously healthy young adults or children. The amoebae invade the nasal mucosa, pass through the olfactory nerve branches in the cribriform plate into the meninges and brain to initiate an acute purulent meningitis and encephalitis (primary amoebic meningoencephalitis). The incubation period is 2 days to 2 weeks. The disease almost always ends fatally within a week Diagnosis can be made by CSF examination. The fluid is cloudy to purulent, with prominent neutrophil leucocytosis, elevated proteins and low glucose, resembling pyogenic meningitis. Failure to find bacteria in such specimens should raise the possibility of PAM. Wet film examination of CSF may show the trophozoites. Cysts are never seen CSF or brain. At autopsy, trophozoites can be demonstrated in brain histologically.Culture can be obtained in agar seeded with Escherichia coli or in the usual cell cultures used for virus isolation. Both trophozoites and cysts occur in culture. Amphotericin B has been used in treatment with limited success TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY,CKJ PANIKER,6TH EDITION,PAGE NO 33 | Microbiology | parasitology | A 30-yebar old patient presented with features of acute meningoencephalitis in the casualty. His CSF on wet mount microscopy revealed motile unicellular microorganisms. The most likely organism is -
A. Naegleria fowleri
B. Acanthamoeba castellani
C. Entamoeba hystolytica
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
| Naegleria fowleri |
e2d63e36-5dee-479e-aee8-967e5e9cd04e | Alkali denaturation test (Apt-Downey test / apt test)Used to detect differentiate Fetal or neonatal blood from maternal blood (Qualitative).PrincipleMethodFetal hemoglobin (alpha 2 gamma 2 subunits) is resistant to alkali (basic) denaturation, whereas adult hemoglobin (alpha2 beta 2 subunits) is susceptible to such denaturation.Exposing the blood specimen to sodium hydroxide (NaOH) will denature the adult but NOT the fetal hemoglobin.The fetal hemoglobin will appear as a pinkish color under the microscope while the adult hemoglobin will appear as a yellow-brownish colorThe blood is mixed with sterile water to cause hemolysis of the RBCs, yielding free hemoglobin,The 5 ml pink hemoglobin-containing supernatant is then mixed with 1 mL of 1% NaOH.Fetal hemoglobin will stay pink and adult hemoglobin will turn yellow-brown.Adult hemoglobin changes color because it is less stable and will conve to hematin.Clinical UsesVaginal bleeding in late pregnancy is tested to rule vasa pre.Neonatal bloody vomitus or bloody stool to rule out swallowed maternal blood.To detect the presence of fetal blood in the maternal circulation in cases of suspected fetal-maternal hemorrhage.Positive test indicates that blood is of fetal origin.Negative test indicates that the blood is of maternal origin. | Pathology | All India exam | The reagent used in Apt test is
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. KCL
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Sodium chloride
| Sodium hydroxide |
70b8ed66-1d24-4156-8285-19e19f9181b6 | Aldosterone increases the rate of sodium absorption and potassium secretion by the kidneys, but in high concentrations aldosterone also stimulates hydrogen ion secretion. Therefore elevated aldosterone levels such as occur in patients with Cushing's syndrome can elevate body fluid pH above normal (alkalosis). The major factor that influences the rate of hydrogen ion secretion, however, is pH of the body fluids. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 20. The Adrenal Medulla & Adrenal Coex. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | Physiology | null | Predict the effect of aldosterone hypersecretion on body fluid pH and electrolytes ?
A. pH decreased, K+ decreased, Na+ increased
B. pH increased, K+ decreased, Na+ increased
C. pH decreased, K+ increased, Na+ decreased
D. pH increased, K+ increased, Na+ decreased
| pH increased, K+ decreased, Na+ increased |
759faf15-dbbf-40ab-ad95-63b62e01e51b | Diveicula These are abnormal outpouchings or sacs of colon wall that occur due to interactions of high intraluminal pressures, disordered motility and low diet in fiber Formed on mesenteric side of antimesenteric taenia coli Results in protrusion of mucosa and submucosa through layers of muscle It is Pseudodiveiculum or False diveiculum Radiological evidence in prediveicular disease Saw tooth appearance of colon Shoening of bowel Crowding of haustra Picket fencing of folds Ischemic colitis- Ba. Enema - Thumb print sign Ulcerative colitis | Surgery | GIT | Saw tooth appearance in abdominal barium enema X ray is seen in
A. Multiple polyposis
B. Ischemic colitis
C. Diveiculosis
D. Ulcerative colitis
| Diveiculosis |
b56c1677-06ff-4d74-be3c-8d0bf0aa99cc | The choice of surgical approach or treatment modalities is influenced more by the stage of a cancer than by its cytologic grade. The significant criteria used for staging vary with different organs. Commonly used criteria include (1) tumor size, (2) extent of local growth, (3) presence of lymph node metastases, and (4) presence of distant metastases. The other choices reflect grade of the tumor.Diagnosis: Renal cell carcinoma | Pathology | Neoplasia | During a routine checkup, a 50-year-old man is found to have blood in his urine. He is otherwise in excellent health. An abdominal CT scan reveals a 2-cm right renal mass. You inform the patient that staging of this tumor is key to selecting treatment and evaluating prognosis. Which of the following is the most important staging factor for this patient?
A. Histologic grade of the tumor
B. Metastases to regional lymph nodes
C. Proliferative capacity of the tumor cells
D. Somatic mutations in the p53 tumor suppressor gene
| Metastases to regional lymph nodes |
1e01454d-7a6c-4a71-b512-ea1430893e33 | Ans. C. Ascending colona. The large intestine develops as a fully mesenteric organ. However, after the rotation of the gut tube in utero, large portions of it come to lie adherent to the retroperitoneum, which means that some parts of the colon are fixed within the retroperitoneum, and other parts are suspended by a mesentery within the peritoneal cavity. Those portions of the colon within the retroperitoneum are separated from other retroperitoneal structures by a thin layer of connective tissue which forms an avascular field during surgical dissection, but which offers little or no barrier to the spread of disease within the retroperitoneum.b. The caecum may be within the retroperitoneum, but more frequently is suspended by a short mesentery. The ascending colon is usually a retroperitoneal structure although the hepatic flexure may be suspended by a mesentery. The transverse colon emerges from the retroperitoneum on a rapidly elongating mesentery and lies, often freely mobile, in the upper abdomen.c. The transverse mesocolon shortens to the left of the upper abdomen and may become retroperitoneal at the splenic flexure. Occasionally the splenic flexure is suspended by a short mesentery. The descending colon is retroperitoneal usually to the level of the left iliac crest.d. As the colon enters the pelvis it becomes increasingly more mesenteric again at the origin of the sigmoid colon, although the overall length of the sigmoid mesentery is highly variable. The distal sigmoid colon lies on a rapidly shortening mesentery as it approaches the pelvis; by the level of the rectosigmoid junction the mesentery has all but disappeared, so that the rectum enters the pelvis as a retroperitoneal structure. The caecum and proximal ascending colon are often more mobile on a longer mesentery in the neonate and infant than they are in the adult.e. The mesorectum is enclosed by meso rectal fascia, a distinct covering derived from the visceral peritoneum that is also called the visceral fascia of the mesorectum, fascia propria of the rectum or the presacral wing of the hypogastric sheath. The fascia bounds the mesorectum posteriorly and thus lies anterior to the retro rectal space and the pre-sacral fascia. The meso rectal fascia is surrounded by a very thin layer of loose areolar tissue which separates it from the posterior and lateral walls of the true pelvis. Superiorly, the meso rectal fascia blends with the connective tissue bounding the sigmoid mesentery. Laterally, it extends around the rectum and mesorectum and becomes continuous with a denser condensation of fascia anteriorly. In males this anterior fascia is known as the rectovesical fascia of Denon Villiers, and in females it forms the fascia of the rectovaginal septum. | Anatomy | Large Intestine, Rectum, and Anal canal | Part of colon with no mesentery-
A. Transverse colon
B. Sigmoid colon
C. Ascending colon
D. Rectum
| Ascending colon |
3c2a012d-4eca-4eb9-b6cd-ac6318b6341f | Myositis Specific Antibodies Anti Jo-1 and anti synthetase antibodies Polymyositis and dermatomyositis with Interstitial lung disease, ahritis, mechanic's hands Anti-Mi-2 Dermatomyositis with rash Anti MDAS Dermatomyositis with rapidly progressive lung disease Anti-10 Juvenile dermatomyositis Anti-Signal recognition paicle Severe acute necrotizing myopathy | Medicine | Systemic Lupus Erythematous | Among patients with polymyositis, which one of the following auto-antibodies is associated with an increased risk of interstitial lung disease?
A. Anti-CCP antibody
B. Anti ds DNA antibody
C. Anti cardiolipin antibody
D. Anti-Jo-1 antibody
| Anti-Jo-1 antibody |
b14abbfd-bb86-4729-ad6e-a16fa82d779b | Approximately 35mg of bilirubin is formed from 1g of Hb. About 6g of Hb is broken down per day. A total of 300mg of bilirubin is formed everyday; of which 80% is from destruction of old RBCs, 10% from ineffective erythropoiesis and the rest 10% from degradation of myoglobin and other heme containing proteins. Reference : page 249 Textbook of Biochemistry D M Vasudevan 6th edition | Pediatrics | New born infants | One gm of Hb liberates _______ mg of billurubin .
A. 40
B. 34
C. 15
D. 55
| 34 |
f43dd649-4003-4a55-8023-18cad890d2cc | Discontinuation of aspirin at least 1 week before surgery. Aspirin inactivates platelet cyclo-oxygenase and thus inhibits platelet aggregation. The effect of aspirin is irreversible and lasts for the entire life span of the platelets. Therefore, aspirin should be discontinued for at least 1 week before surgery. | Surgery | Miscellaneous | A 60-year-old man with no significant past medical history is scheduled for elective cholecystectomy. He has been taking aspirin daily. Preoperative recommendations should include which of the following?
A. Determination of prothrombin time (PT)
B. Estimation of platelet count
C. Discontinuation of aspirin 2 days before surgery
D. Discontinuation of aspirin at least 1 week before surgery
| Discontinuation of aspirin at least 1 week before surgery |
bc3c3aa6-96ee-477a-bea1-724ee0b906b1 | ANSWER: (C) Sentinel surveillanceREF: Park 20th edition page 38The word surveillance is the French word for "watching over"Sentinel surveillance is useful for answering specific epidemiologic questions because sentinel sites may not represent the general population or the general incidence of disease, they may have limited usefulness in analyzing national disease patterns and trends. (REF: http://www.usaid. gov/our_work/global_health/id/surveillance/sentinel.html)SURVEILLANCE:Continuous scrutiny of factors that determine the occurrence and distribution of diseases and other conditions of ill healthTypes:1. Active Surveillance:* One way to overcome the limitations of passive surveillance and get a better picture of disease burden in the community is for health workers to visit health facilities and communities to seek out cases. This is known as active surveillance.Eradication and elimination programmes may require a very active surveillance programme aimed at detecting every case.During outbreak situations surveillance must be intensified with the introduction of active case findingPassive Surveillance:Passive surveillance yields only limited data because many sick people do not visit a health facility and because those cases that do show up may not be correctly classified, recorded, or reportedSentinel Surveillance:A method of identifying the missing cases and thereby supplementing the notified casesFor example, in HIV/AIDS surveillance the proportion of the population positive for HIV7 must be monitored as well as the number of new cases of AIDS. This requires special HIV seropre vale nee surveillance usually done in a few representative sites ('sentinel surveillance"). | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of Control | Missing cases are detected by?
A. Active surveillance
B. Passive surveillance
C. Sentinel surveillance
D. Monitoring
| Sentinel surveillance |
7d193ac0-bb73-471b-bbb6-396fed67713f | Ans. (b) Gastric ulcer* Malignant transformation is very rarely seen in gastric ulcer (<1%) - Not so common.* Giant gastric ulcer (>2cm) is associated with cancer in 6-15% cases* Of the above choices we can opt for choice B' only - but it is not so common. | Surgery | Stomach & Duodenum | Malignant transformation is commonly seen in:
A. Stomal ulcer
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Chronic duodenal ulcer
D. Postbulbar ulcer
| Gastric ulcer |
6093968d-c9c6-4bb8-aad8-75bc7b681412 | Marfan syndrome and homocystinuria can cause dislocation of lens. | Ophthalmology | null | Eye lens dislocation seen in –a) Marfan\'s syndromeb) Homocystinuriac) Down\'s syndromed) Klinefelter syndrome
A. ac
B. a
C. ab
D. bc
| ab |
fe6c28d2-8fef-4a90-a8d2-2b97370f156f | A hypercalcaemiccrisisis an emergency situation with a severehypercalcaemia, generally above approximately 14 mg/dL (or 3.5 mmol/l)The most common cause is hypercalcemia of malignancy, although granulomatous diseases, previously undetected primary hyperparathyroidism, medication-induced hypercalcemia, and a few rarer causes may result in this endocrine emergency as well. Stepwise approach for management of Hypercalcemic crisis Step 1: Confirm the diagnosis. Step 2: Restore normal hydration - Through IV fluids(200-500 ml/hr of NS )should be administered to maintain a urine output of >100 ml/hr. Step 3: Use of loop diuretics to be limited to hypercalcemic crisis associated with hea failure or renal failure. Calcitonin or bisphosphonates-Preferred drugs for hypercalcemic management after restoring normal hydration with IV fluids. | Surgery | Parathyroid and adrenal glands | Most common cause of hypercalcemic crisis is :
A. Parathyroid adenoma
B. Parathyroid hyperplasia
C. Malignancy
D. Paget's disease
| Malignancy |
58c3d6b9-d756-4140-ae3b-4731168ef147 | Conditions causing scarring alopecia Causes of non-cicatricial alopecia (non-scarring) Traumatic causes of scarring alopecia may be due to: Injury Surgery Radiation Traction (tight curls) Central centrifugal cicatricial alopecia Infections causing scarring alopecia include: Bacterial infection: boils and abscesses (Staphylococcus aureus) Fungal infection: kerion (inflammatory tinea capitis) Viral infection: shingles (herpes zoster) Inflammatory skin diseases causing scarring alopecia include: Folliculitis decalvans Dissecting cellulitis Lichen planopilaris Frontal fibrosing alopecia Alopecia mucinosa Discoid lupus erythematosus Localised scleroderma Anagen effluvium Androgenetic alopecia Dermatopathia pigmentosa reticularis Telogen effluvium Trichotillomania (Trichotillosis) Conditions resulting in reversible patchy hair thinning, poor hair quality and bald patches include: Localised alopecia areata Localised infection, such as tinea capitis Severe local skin disease, such as psoriasis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, atopic dermatitis, pityriasis rubra pilaris, cutaneous lupus erythematosus, cutaneous T-cell lymphoma Generalised skin disease (erythroderma) Systemic diseases resulting in reversible patchy hair thinning, poor hair quality and bald patches include: Iron deficiency Thyroid hormone deficiency Systemic lupus erythematosus Syphilis Severe acute or chronic illness (Ref: Harrison 20th edition pg 1234 | Dental | Autoimmune skin disorders | Scarring loss of hair is seen in
A. Discoid lupus erythematosus
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Alopecia areata
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
| Discoid lupus erythematosus |
9285a130-99e1-4c2b-8e97-984eb4427877 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Asthma o .All expiratory parameters are reduced in the data given with timed vital capacity of 29%.o FEV1/FVC is reduced in obstructive airway disease with lowering of peak expiratory flow rates. Due to air trapping in asthma the DLco may be normal or increased. | Medicine | Asthma | The results of the pulmonary functions tests shown below, the best diagnosis is -ParametersActualPredictedFE VI (L)1[?]23[?]5-4[?]3FVC(L)4[?]14[?]6-5[?]4FEVL'FVC (%)2972-80PEF (L/min)80440-540DLCO120%100%
A. Asthma
B. Asbestosis
C. ARDS
D. Silicosis
| Asthma |
4ac2aa8b-02c4-494e-90dd-aeb859abca48 | Volume of plasma = volume of dye injected / final concentration of the dye Volume of dye injected = 1.5 * 20 = 30 mg Volume of plasma = 30/0.015 = 2000 mL | Physiology | Body fluid compaments | 1.5 mL of a solution containing 20 mg/mL of Evans blue dye is injected into plasma, the final concentration of the dye is 0.015 mg/mL, the volume of the plasma is:
A. 1 L
B. 2 L
C. 3 L
D. 4 L
| 2 L |
dcd5aa7c-dfcf-4727-acf0-13de51421ca1 | Chloride shift (also known as the Hamburger phenomenon or lineas phenomenon, named after Haog Jakob Hamburger) is a process which occurs in a cardiovascular system and refers to the exchange of bicarbonate (HCO3-) and chloride (Cl-) across the membrane of red blood cells (RBCs Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:360,361,362 | Physiology | Respiratory system | Chloride shift is due to
A. Generationof HCO3 in RBC's
B. Metabolism of glucoses in RBC's
C. Formation of O2-Hb complex in RBC's
D. Release of K in RBC's
| Generationof HCO3 in RBC's |
07950cce-6d72-4405-82ba-5ba894190ae5 | Tinea Versicolor or Pityriasis Versicolor: It is a chronic recurrent condition involving stratum corneum of skin, caused by a lipophilic fungus - Malassezia furfur. Malassezia furfur is a lipophilic fungus that is found on skin. Clinical manifestation: Characterized by scaly patches of hypo to hyper pigmentation of skin * Areas rich in sebaceous glands are commonly involved (neck, chest or upper arms). E. floccosum - cause Tinea unguium M. gypseum - cause Ectothrix infection T. tonsurans and T. violaceum- cause Endothrix | Microbiology | Mycology | Pityriasis versicolor is caused by-
A. E. floccosum
B. M. gypseum
C. M. furfur
D. T. tonsurans
| M. furfur |
06581457-c9f1-4a3f-aa65-91b9e748bc97 | Superior intercostal arery is a branch of costocervical trunk of subclan aery. BD chaurasia's human anatomy.6th edition volume 1.page no 219. | Anatomy | Thorax | Superior intercostal aery is a branch of
A. Costocervical trunk
B. Dorsal scapular aery
C. Thyrocervical trunk
D. Internal thoracic aery
| Costocervical trunk |
e22acf59-7d54-4a8a-9487-b8c9b561c531 | The Ferning of the cervical mucus is because of the high estrogen content and its DOES NOT diagnose ovulation. Maximum before ovulation and once ovulation happens, the ferning actually reduces and finally disappears due to the high progesterone. This implies that loss of ferning pattern is suggestive of ovulation. Due to the presence of sodium chloride in the mucus under estrogen effect. This fern pattern is also known as Arborisation. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Tests of Ovulation | Ferning of cervical mucus depends upon:
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Progesterone
D. Estrogen
| Estrogen |
7c2fb41c-b231-4696-8fbe-a9d2f1d28aac | Ans. A: DopamineParkinson's disease has both hypokinetic and hyperkinetic features. In this condition, which was originally described by James Parkinson and is named for him, the nigrostriatal dopaminergic neurons degenerate. The fibers to the putamen are most severely affected.Dopaminergic neurons and dopamine receptors are steadily lost with age in the basal ganglia in normal individuals, and an acceleration of these losses apparently precipitates parkinsonism. Symptoms appear when 60-80% of the nigrostriatal dopaminergic neurons are lost. Parkinsonism is also seen as a complication of treatment with the phenothiazine group of tranquilizer drugs and other drugs that block D2 dopamine receptors. | Physiology | null | Neurotransmitter depleted in Parkinson's disease:September 2007
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Glutamate
D. GABA
| Dopamine |
90eceaa9-ead0-464b-9b4c-0e81fb134c3e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Loose areolar tissueThe scalp consists of five layers:SkinClose network of connective tissue (superficial fascia)Aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) with occipitofrontalis musclesLoose areolar (subaponeurotic) tissuePericranium (outer periosteum of skull)First three layers are intimately connected and move as one unit, and are called surgical layers of scalp or scalp proper.Loose subaponeurotic areolar tissue (4th layer) is called dangerous area of scalp because it contains emissary veins through which infection in subaponeurotic space may spread readily to intracranial venous sinuses. | Anatomy | null | Dangerous area of scalp is ?
A. Superficial fascia
B. Loose areolar tissue
C. Pericranium
D. Aponeurosis
| Loose areolar tissue |
a0d9e728-a0c5-42e3-8252-94ae52b086b5 | Ans is 'b' i.e. Imprint abrasion Real confusion in this question is between imprint abrasion and patterned bruising. In both imprint abrasion and patterned brusing there is mark or pattern of the object causing injury.* Abrasion is caused by friction and/or pressure between the skin and some rough object or surface. For abrasions to occur some movement along with pressure is essential between the object or instrument or weapon and the skin. Inabrasions superficial layers of skin are crushed and damaged.* Bruises or contusions are caused by blunt trauma resulting in rupture of small blood vessels which lead to effusion of blood in subcutaneous or subepithelial tissues. However skin is intact in most cases until associated withabrasions.* In an accident in which victim is overrun by vehicle, there will be movement and friction between the tyre and skin along with pressure by the tyre leading to imprint or patterned abrasion. There can be intradermal bruises also whichare usually associated with patterned objects. So the tyre mark will be primarily an imprint or patterned abrasion (tyre has a pattern because of ridges and grooves) associated with bruises too.Also know-Abrasions are of following types - 1. Scratches - a linear injury produced by a sharp object, such as a pin, thorn, nail or tip of any sharp weapon.2. Graze - An injury which is produced when a broad surface of skin slides or scraps against a rough surface. These are the most common type. Commonly seen in road accidents.Violent lateral (tangential) rubbing against a rough surface can produce abrasion known as 'brush burn' or 'gravel rash'.'Friction burn' can occur due to tangential contact with a smooth surface.3. Patterned abrasions: In it pattern of the object causing injury is produced over the skin when the force is applied at right angle to the surface of the skin. Patterned abrasions are produced either by pressure of the object or by impactwith a rough object. The former is called pressure (crushing or friction) abrasion and the latter is known as impact (contact or imprint) abrasion. There can be associated bruising in the surrounding area. Examples are ligaturemark, nail and thumb mark, teeth bite marks, whip marks, radiator, grill or tyre marks in vehicular accidents and muzzle marks in gunshot injuries. | Forensic Medicine | Death and Investigations | A rickshaw tyre passed on a 8 year old child. Tyre marks were found on the body. This is an exmaple of:
A. Percolated bruise
B. Imprint abrasion
C. Contusion
D. Patterned bruise
| Imprint abrasion |
b6cdede5-20e8-4d9d-b26b-c834e5824ff7 | Infection and radiation, both cause bone destruction and predispose to pathological fracture. | Pathology | null | What is present in the part of the bone which received radiotherapy -
A. Response to radiotherapy is good
B. Fast healing
C. More destruction of bone
D. Tumour regression is not affected
| More destruction of bone |
dd830ca3-24d8-4df7-8c5e-489133b469de | NADH cannot penetrate the mitochondrial membrane, but it is produced continuously in the cytosol by 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase, an enzyme in the glycolysis sequence.
The transfer of reducing equivalents is carried out by using the various shuttle systems.
Malate shuttle system is of more universal utility. Used to transport NADH from cytosol to mitochondria.
In glycolysis, the impermeable NADH produced in the cytosol are taken up into mitochondria for oxidation via malate shuttle.
In gluconeogenesis, pyruvate in the mitochondria yields impermeable oxaloacetate, which gets translocated to the cystol via malate shuttle for the sythesis of glucose.
Harper 30th edition Pg-125,126,173 | Biochemistry | null | Malate shuttle is important in ________
A. Glycolysis only
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogen synthesis
| Glycolysis and gluconeogenesis |
e973b652-7fda-49d7-9b4f-de37b1b06eb6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Apoptosis o Programmed cell death is apoptosis. o But remember this impoant fact that not all apoptosis are programmed cell death (read text below) Apoptosis o Apoptosis is pathway of cell death that is induced by a tightly regulated intracellular program in which cell destined to die activate enzymes that degrade the cell's own nuclear DNA, and nuclear & cytoplasmic proteins. o Apoptosis generally involves single cells in contrast to necrosis that usually involve a group of cells. o Apoptosis may be of two types ? A. Physiological (most of the time) Programmed cell death. B. Pathological Unprogrammed cell death. A.Physiological apoptosis o Death by apoptosis is a normal phenomenon that serves to eliminate cells that are no longer needed. o It is impoant in the following physiologic situation :? The programmed destruction of cells during embryogenesis, including implantation, organogenesis, and metamorphosis. Hormone dependent involution in adult, e.g., endometrial cell breakdown during menstural cycle, ovarian follicular atresia in the menopause, the regression of lactating breast after weaning, and prostatic atrophy after castration. Cell deletion in proliferating cell population in order to maintain a constant number, e.g., intestinal crypt epithelium. Death of host cells that have served their useful purpose, such as neutrophils after an acute inflammatory response, and lymphocytes at the end of an immune response. Elimination of potentially harmful self-reactive lymphocytes in thymus. Cell death induced by cytotoxic T cells to eliminate virus infected and neoplastic cells. Same mechanism occurs in graft versus host disease. B.Pathological apoptosis o Apoptosis may also be pathological. o When cells are damaged beyond repair, especially when the damage affects the cell's DNA, the irreparably damaged cells are eliminated : ? Cell death produced by injuries stimuli --> Radiation and cytotoxic anticancer drugs damage DNA, and if repair mechanisms cannot cope with the injury, the cell kills itself by apoptosis. In these situations, elimination of the cell may be a better alternative than risking mutations and translocations in the damaged DNA which may result in malignant transformation. Cell injury in ceain viral diseases, e.g., in viral hepatitis. Pathologic atrophy in parenchymal after duct obstruction, such as occurs in pancreas, parotid gland. Cell death in tumors. | Pathology | null | Programmed cell death is known as-
A. Cytolysis
B. Apoptosis
C. Necrosis
D. Proptosis
| Apoptosis |
6d6bf4f5-725f-4a95-a785-2bd6ac94eb4f | Laboratory Studies in gastrinoma Due to the elusive nature of the neoplasm, the diagnosis is based on the following 3 criteria: Fasting hypergastrinemia is present (>150 pg/mL with levels >100,000 pg/mL in some patients; a serum gastrin level >1,000 pg/mL in the appropriate clinical setting is viually diagnostic of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome ). Basal acid output (BAO) is greater than 10 mEq/h. Results from a secretin stimulation test are positive. Ref - harrison's internal medicine 20e , Medscape.com | Medicine | Endocrinology | Which of the following does not occur in a patient with gastrinoma -
A. Epigastric pain
B. Diarrhoea
C. Basal acid output (BAO) less than 15 mEq/litre
D. Serum gastrin levels >200 pg/ml
| Basal acid output (BAO) less than 15 mEq/litre |
0d266096-61c5-4609-8e16-19db23cd4323 | Loco Parentis: In an emergency involving children, when parents or guardians are not available, consent is taken from the person in charge of the child. Paternalism: Is an abuse of medical knowledge so as to disto the doctor-patient relationship in such a way that the patient is deprived of his autonomy, or his ability to make a rational choice. Vicarious liability (Liability for act of another): An employer is responsible not only for his own negligence but also for the negligence for his employees. Novus Actus Interveniens: A person is responsible not only for his actions, but also for the logical consequences of those actions. This principle applies to cases of assault and accidental injury. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th Ed Page 45. | Forensic Medicine | null | A school teacher gives consent for treating a child who becomes sick during a picnic away from home town. This type of consent is known as?
A. Paternalism
B. Loco Parentis
C. Vicarious liability
D. Novus Actus Interveniens
| Loco Parentis |
88713cee-71e1-494d-aad9-f442908a5963 | The Act provides for the creation of the Central Pollution Control Board and State Pollution Control Boards. The main function of the Central Board is to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in the States. It also provides ceain functions in the nature of advice, planning, co-ordination, publications, education and programmes for preventing, controlling and abating water pollution. The State Boards are expected not only to plan comprehensive programmes for the prevention and control of water pollution in the State but also to inspect sewage or trade effluents, works and plants for their treatment, to lay down standards for such effluents, their treatment and for the quality of receiving waters, and to make orders for waste disposal. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 657. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The "water act" passed in 1974 deals with:
A. Provision of adequate drinking water
B. Prevention of water pollution
C. Provision of adequate irrigation water
D. Provision for digging of wells
| Prevention of water pollution |
4f520708-420d-4ed9-bdae-0c9f0ee2facf | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Segmented mandibulectomy The best t/t for such tumor is excision of the growth along with segmental mandibulectomy. Hemimandibulectomy would not be useful, as the tumor is midline. Since the bone is involved by the growth, marginal mandibulectomy would not be a good choice. | Surgery | null | A 80 year old patient presents with a midline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar margin. He is endentulous. Rx of choice is :
A. Hemimandibulectomy
B. Commando operation
C. Segmental mandiblectomy
D. Marginal mandibulectomy
| Segmental mandiblectomy |
24e64e1a-15b0-4a9b-8ed0-1411b5cd02b2 | Measurements of variations in the respiratory cycle of expired carbon dioxide by displayed waveform and by absolute numerical values is defined as Capnography and Capnometry respectivelyMeasurement of the exhaled CO2 at the level of upper airway at the end of expiration (when CO2 is at its maximum) is referred to as 3end tidal CO2 (EtCO2)Modern monitors used to measure EtCO2 in the exhaled air make use of infrared absorption spectroscopy(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no. 126) | Anaesthesia | All India exam | Modern monitors to measure ETCO2 make use of
A. Infrared absorption spectroscopy
B. Ultra violet rays
C. Laser technology
D. Scatter technology
| Infrared absorption spectroscopy |
dd45c6b2-527b-4dbb-8cf4-afafe78a8da3 | In kwashiorkor, the hair is straight and hypopigmented. The length of hair that grows during the period of nutritional deprivation appears reddish brown. During the phases of better nutrition, the growing pa of hair gets appropriately pigmented. This gives the appearance of alternate bands of hypopigmented and normally pigmented hair known as flag sign. Ref: Page 105; Ghai essential pediatrics; 6th edition | Pediatrics | Nutrition | Flag sign is seen in ___________
A. Marasmus
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Vitamin A deficiency
D. Rickets
| Kwashiorkor |
d8084c92-f2b5-46e3-9ae7-01019d1a371a | (A) Naegleria fowleri # The clinical syndrome associate a with N. fowleri infection is Primary 'amoebic' meningoencephalitis (RAM).> When naegleria are suspected they can be identified by their Motility in wet preparation.> Acute meningoencephalitis which can be caused by either Naegleria or Acanthamoeba. (Entamoeba histolytica and T. cruzi do not cause it.> Out of Naegleria and Acanthmoeba only Naegleria are motile on CSF wet mount.> Aqanthmoeba actually cause Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis. | Microbiology | Misc. | A 30-year-old patient presented with features of acute meningoencephalitis in the casualty. His CSF on wet mount microscopy revealed motile unicellular microorganisms. The most likely organism is
A. Naegleria fowleri
B. Acanthamoeba castellan
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
| Naegleria fowleri |
a637aad7-9b7a-474a-9c44-8c190f1b65dd | People have different susceptible to altitude sickness,on an average it begins around 2000 to 3000 meters above sea level Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:375,376 | Physiology | General physiology | For development of alveolar PO2 of 60 mm Hg and high altitude illness to develop in an otherwise healthy person from sea level, rapid ascent to following height is required
A. 2,000 meters
B. 3,000 meters
C. 4,000 meters
D. 5,000 meters
| 3,000 meters |
f9746be0-3269-4d86-b3ac-61f03ca9becd | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ranolazine o Ranolazine was initially assigned as paial fatty acid oxidation inhibitors. However, now it is believed that it acts by a different mechanism. It acts by blocking a late sodium current that facilitates calcium NCX (Sodium -Calcium exchanger) -4 Calcium overload and decrease left ventricular wall tension --> decreased myocardial oxygen demand. | Pharmacology | null | Drug causing decrease in late sodium current -
A. Nicorandil
B. Ranolazine
C. Trimetazidine
D. Molsidominc
| Ranolazine |
c926d94b-bb65-429f-8d3f-d8444886ca29 | Ans. is b i.e., HPV Human upper respiratory papillomatosis is due to infection with human papilloma virus (HPV) type 6 and 11. | Microbiology | null | Human papillomatosis is caused by?
A. INV
B. HPV
C. HIV
D. HBV
| HPV |
8f6d874e-c8f0-418d-90b3-ca927a6881b3 | Ans. a (14). (Ref. Park, PSM, 17th/pg.586)According to the Factory Act children below the age of 14 years should not work.FACTORY ACT- 1948Applicable towhole India except Jammu & Kashmir.Scope# Establishment >10 workers where power is used and > 20 where power is not used.# Minimum 500 Cu.ft of space for each worker.# Factories before 1948 minimum 350 Cu.ft.# Prohibit employment <14 years.# 15 to 18 yrs old are called adolescents and they should be duly certified by certifying surgeon. They are allowed to work only between 6 am to 7 pm.Hours of workMax 48 hours/week, Including overtime its 60 hours/week.Leave with wagesafter 12 months of continuous service- adult 1 day for 20 days of work, children 1 day for 15 days.Maximum accumulated leave# adult 30 days; Children 40 days.Notifiable diseasesAsbestosis,Byssinosis,Dermatitis (occupational), andNoise induced hearing loss.Officerssafety officer - > 1000 workers, welfare officer- >500 workers canteen > 250 workers. Creches - > 30 female workers. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Occupational Health | By the Factory Act the age for the child to work should minimum be (in years)
A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 21
| 14 |
054d84b0-3ec2-4e1b-bc82-0fdbba5d8f09 | Ans. D: Macrophages Macrophages/ histiocytes are the cells that define a granuloma. They often, but not invariably, fuse to form multinucleated giant cells. The macrophages in granulomas are often referred to as "epithelioid". Epithelioid macrophages differ from ordinary macrophages in that they have elongated nuclei that often resemble the sole of a slipper or shoe. They also have larger nuclei than ordinary macrophages and their cytoplasm is typically more pink when stained with eosin. Granulomas are seen in a wide variety of diseases, both infectious and non-infectious. Infections that are characterized by granulomas tuberculosis leprosy histoplasmosis cryptococcosis coccidioidomycosis blastomycosis cat scratch disease. Examples of non-infectious granulomatous diseases are Sarcoidosis (Sarcoid granulomas often contain star-shaped structures termed asteroid bodies or lamellar structures termed Schaumann bodies) Crohn's disease berylliosis Wegener's granulomatosis Churg-Strauss syndrome Pulmonary rheumatoid nodules Aspiration of food and other paiculate material into the lung. | Pathology | null | Epitheloid granuloma consists mainly of which type of cells:
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Monocytes
D. Macrophages
| Macrophages |
16b38f91-7f5d-4290-9a84-9846d6448d71 | Barefoot doctors are farmers who received minimal basic medical and paramedical training and worked in rural villages in China. Their purpose was to bring health care to rural areas where urban-trained doctors would not settle. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | "Barefoot Doctors" were from which type of medicine?
A. Mesopotamian Medicine
B. Greek Medicine
C. Indian Medicine
D. Chinese Medicine
| Chinese Medicine |
cc49ce75-c23e-47ac-87a8-08333e6739dd | - Umbilical vein -> carries oxygenated, nutrient rich blood from placenta to fetus - Umbilical aeries -> carries deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta for oxygenation - Ductus venosus -> shunt that allows oxygenated blood from umbilical veins directly into inferior vena cava - Hypogastric aery -> aka internal iliac aery -> Supplies pelvic viscera | Pediatrics | Fetal circulation | Oxygenated blood is carried to the fetus by?
A. Umbilical aery
B. Umbilical vein
C. Ductus venosus
D. Hypogastric aery
| Umbilical vein |
383a259b-7fd7-4a36-8222-3001caf9d33e | Either megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency (due to lack of intrinsic factor, which is necessary for B12 absorption and is normally produced by the parietal cells of the stomach) or microcytic anemia due to iron deficiency (due to decreased iron intake and impaired absorption in the duodenum) can result after paial gastrectomy. While folate deficiency can also cause megaloblastic anemia, it is rare after paial gastrectomy. Oral B12 is not a reliable method for correcting B12 deficiency; intravenous cyanocobalamin should be administered every 3 to 4 months for life. Other complications of paial gastrectomy includes osteoporosis secondary to impaired calcium absorption due to the Billroth II reconstruction (since calcium is normally absorbed in the proximal intestine--duodenum and jejunum). Also, fatty acids may also be malabsorbed due to inadequate mixing of bile salts and lipase with ingested fat, and therefore steatorrhea may result. | Anaesthesia | Preoperative assessment and monitoring in anaesthesia | A 63-year-old man undergoes a paial gastrectomy with Billroth II reconstruction for intractable peptic ulcer disease. He presents several months postoperatively with a megaloblastic anemia. Which of the following is the best treatment for this surgical complication?
A. Transfusion with 1 unit of packed red blood cells
B. Oral iron supplementation
C. Oral vitamin B12 supplementation
D. Intravenous vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) supplementation
| Intravenous vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) supplementation |
a41a62f3-ee4a-4542-b245-f41f75803c9a | Gold standard procedure to reduce recurrence of pterygium after surgical excision is amniotic membrane grafting. | Ophthalmology | null | Gold standard procedure to reduce recurrence of pterygium after surgical excision is
A. Thiotepa
B. B- radiation
C. Conjunctival autograft
D. Amniotic membrane grafting
| Amniotic membrane grafting |
dfc453a3-d256-4456-8aa3-00fc6f3d9734 | CONTRIBUTIONS OF FREUD o Father of psychoanalysis He founded a type of psychotherapy called psychoanalysis. It is nothing but analyzing the psych(MIND) o Interpretation of dreams According to Freud dreams are royal road to unconscious In dreams several conflicts that are present in the unconscious comes to the consciousness in the form of dreams Thus by analyzing ones dreams we could understand the unconscious conflicts o Psychosexual stages of life o Freud divided development into 5 stages namely psycho sexual development o It is divivded namely oral , anal , phallic, latent, genital phase. o Conversion disorders conversion disorder is conveing a psychological pain to physical symptoms present physical symptoms which has some connection with unconscious conflict is called SYMBOLIZATION present physical symptoms which has some resemblance with illness in family members, which is called MODELLING patient has illness like neurological deficit but they have apparent in concern towards their own illness which is known as LA BELLE INDIFFERENCE main defense mechanism in conversion disorder is REPRESSION o Repression defence mechanism * REPRESSION is called QUEEN of defense mechanisms o COUCH and FREE ASSOSIATION * He introduced a technique called as a couch technique where he makes the patient lie on the couch, he asks the patient to speak from 'cabbages to kings. This method is called FREE ASSOSIATION. By allowing the patient to speak whatever that comes to their mind randomly so that by analyzing their thoughts we could understand the conflict in the unconscious. o Topographical theory of mind Freud gave topographical theory mind It is divided into pre conscious, unconscious, conscious Later he disregarded topographical theory of mind and gave structural theory of mind o Structural theory of mind It is divided into id, ego, super ego Id= instinctual desires like anger, hunger, sexual instinct Ego= function of mind to work based on ego to avoid guilt from super ego Super ego= based on moral principle, obtained from family members and relatives, teachers Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition pg no. 845 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | who gave the concept of id pa of mind
A. bleuler
B. lorenz
C. erikson
D. freud
| freud |
177662c9-147a-4ee6-8197-7fb9d87e5a52 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Case-control studyOdds - ratio (cross product ratio)From a case control study odds ratio can be derived which a measure of the strength of association between risk factor and outcome.Odds ratio is closely related to relative risk (which is analysed in coho study) 4 odds ratio represents only an estimate of relative risk. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Cross-product ratio is estimated by ?
A. Coho study
B. Case-control study
C. Cross sectional study
D. Field trial
| Case-control study |
9708fa92-9600-4bc0-bfcd-e0f52e05d581 | Ans. C. Compartment syndromeFracture can lead to ischemia in the distal limb by direct injury to the blood vessel or by the effect of oedema increasing the pressure within the osteo fascial compartment which limits perfusion. In compartment syndrome, the increased pressure can lead to profound ischemia with necrosis of muscle and nerve tissue. This is a surgical emergency requiring prompt decompression by open fasciotomy. Once muscle tissue dies it is replaced by inelastic fibrous tissue giving rise to the complication of Volkmann's ischaemic contracture. | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around Arm & Elbow | A 25-year-old man presents with a blue right arm with absent radial pulse and painful passive finger extension following a supracondylar fracture of humerus. He is suffering from:
A. Sudeck's atrophy
B. Median nerve injury
C. Compartment syndrome
D. Myositis ossificans
| Compartment syndrome |
679648de-22bb-4459-a23d-d1ee6042ee33 | Ans. is 'a' i.e.Mucormycosis Mucormycosis is a fungal infection of nose and paranasal sinuses which may prove rapidly fatal if untreated.lt is seen in uncontrolled diabetes or in those taking immunosuppressive drugs.Treatment is by amphotericin B* and surgical debridement.Remember :Most common fungal infection of nose is Aspergillosis *Rhinosclerosis is caused by a bacteria Klebsiella * (& not by Rhinosporidium Seeberi, a fungus )Otomycosis is caused by Aspergillosis* | ENT | Nose and PNS | A diabetic patient has black necrotic mass in nose, most likely causes is:
A. Mucormycosis
B. Aspergillus
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Candidiasis
| Mucormycosis |
35399572-4e81-45f5-8087-becbe709bd9b | Mansonella streptocerca is transmitted by biting midges. The major clinical manifestations involve the skin and include pruritus, papular rashes, and pigmentation changes. Many infected individuals have inguinal adenopathy, although most are asymptomatic. The diagnosis is made by detection of the characteristic microfilariae in skin snips. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice for streptocerciasis. Non-sheathed microfilariae are: Onchocerca volvulus Mansonella ozzardi M. perstans M. streptocerca Sheathed microfilariae are: Wuchereria bancrofti Brugia malayi B. timori Loa loa Ref: Harrison's Online > Pa 8. Infectious Diseases > Section 19. Helminthic Infections > Chapter 218- Filarial and Related Infections, by Thomas B. Nutman, Peter F. Weller. | Microbiology | null | An African presented with itching with rashes and inguinal lymph nodes. Skin snips shows microfilariae which are non-sheathed. The most probable organism will be:
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Brugia malayi
C. Brugia timori
D. Mansonella streptocerca
| Mansonella streptocerca |
23c4d556-4f92-408f-b2fc-c15ad2dec7d2 | Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.165 Schaumann's bodies or conchoid (conch like) bodies which are concentric laminations of calcium and of iron salts, complexed with proteins.The giant cells in sarcoid granulomas contain ceain cytoplasmic inclusions Schaumann's bodies is one of them others are: Asteroid bodies which are eosinophilic and stellateshaped structures. Birefringent cytoplasmic crystals which are colourless. Similar types of inclusions are also observed in chronic berylliosis Ferrugenious bodies are asbestos fibres coated with glycoprotein and haemosiderin and appear beaded or dumbbell-shaped. The coating stains positively for Prussian blue reaction. Gandy-Gamna nodules or Gandy-Gamna bodies, sometimes known as Gamna-Gandy bodies or Gamna-Gandy nodules, are small yellow-brown, brown, or rust-colored foci found in the spleen in patients with splenomegaly due to poal hypeension, as well as sickle cell disease. | Pathology | Respiratory system | Laminated concretions of calcium and proteins are -
A. Schaumann's bodies
B. Ferrugenious bodies
C. Asteroid bodies
D. Gamm Gandy bodies
| Schaumann's bodies |
89449b3f-aee9-4894-a02e-125138c9a4c4 | Nulligravida: a woman who currently is not pregnant and has never been pregnant.Gravida: a woman who currently is pregnant or has been in the past, irrespective of the pregnancy outcome. With the establishment of the first pregnancy, she becomes a primigravida, and with successive pregnancies, a multigravida.Reference: William's obstetrics; 25th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | Mrs. X, 25years old with a history of 2 previous pregnancies, and now 28weeks of gestation her gravidity is
A. Nulligravida
B. G1
C. G2
D. G3
| G3 |
e75f8b1b-0b43-426a-ab4f-8b2e929f61af | Lovibond angle or Hyponychial angle - Angle between nail bed and proximal nail fold - Normally around 1600. - It is >1800 in digital clubbing. It is described as a 'profile sign' | Medicine | Thromboembolism and Fat Embolism Syndrome | Lovibond angle is:
A. Angle between the iris and cornea
B. Angle between the long axis of the forearm and the long axis of upper arm
C. Angle between nail bed and proximal nail fold
D. Angle between manubrium sternum and body of sternum
| Angle between nail bed and proximal nail fold |
3e931d42-8759-434b-8b86-f281385258ef | Rave drugs are used for recreational purpose in parties.
Methamphetamine, LSD and Ketamine are the important Rave drugs. | Psychiatry | null | Which of the following is a Rave drug?
A. Cocaine
B. Methamphetamine
C. Heroin
D. Cannabis
| Methamphetamine |
44023f26-f6dd-442a-925e-533516a48f21 | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 95 - 96)The cell density of corneal endothelium is around 3000 cells/mm2 in young adults, which decreases with the advancing age | Ophthalmology | Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus | Density of cells in adult corneal endothelium is
A. 2000 cells/mm2
B. 3000 cells/mm2
C. 4000 cells/mm2
D. 5000 cells/mm2
| 3000 cells/mm2 |
e29d373b-df8d-46a8-ab11-d147e11951f8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2010 Objectives of National Population Policy 2000 Immediate objectives: To meet unmet need of contraception; to strengthen health infrastructure; to strengthen health personnel and to promote integrated service delivery for basic RCH care Mid term objective: 'To bring the total feility rate (TFR) to Replacement Level; i. e, TFR to 2.1' Long term objective: To stabilize population by 2045 o National Socio-demographic Goals of NPP 2000 (achieve by 2010) Address the unmet needs for basic reproductive and child health services, supplies and infrastructure Make school education up to age 14 free and compulsory, and reduce drop outs at primary and secondary school levels to below 20 percent for both boys and girls Reduce infant moality rate to below 30 per 1000 live bihs Reduce maternal moality ratio to below 100 per 100,000 live bihs Achieve universal (100%) immunization of children against all vaccine preventable diseases Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age Achieve 80 percent institutional deliveries and 100 percent deliveries by trained persons Achieve universal access to information/counseling, and services for feility regulation and contraception with a wide basket of choices Achieve 100 per cent registration of bihs, deaths, marriage and pregnancy Contain the spread of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and promote greater integration between the management of reproductive tract infections (I) and sexually transmitted infections (STI) and the National AIDS Control Organisation Prevent and control communicable diseases Integrate Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM) in the provision of reproductive and child health services, and in reaching out to households Promote vigorously the small family norm to achieve replacement levels of TFR Bring about convergence in implementation of related social sector programs so that family welfare becomes a people centred programme | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The National Population Policy 2001 aims to achieve net reproduction rate of 1 by the year ?
A. 2005
B. 2010
C. 2015
D. 2050
| 2010 |
3cc1adf3-c93d-4e18-89be-f5fda9538650 | Enzymes in MILDH is the last enzyme to rise (3-4 days) and also the last enzyme to return to normal level in MI (10-15 days)CPK returns to normal by 2-3 daysAST/ SCOT returns to normal by 4-5 daysMyoglobin returns to normal by 20-25 hours | Biochemistry | null | Serum marker to return to normal level, last in myocardial infarction is:
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Creatine phosphokinase
C. Aspaate transmainase
D. Myoglobin
| Lactate dehydrogenase |
b0be109c-f8fe-437c-81cc-fb6f1a28f152 | Ans. a. Bedaquiline (Ref: Harrison 19/e p1115. 205e- 7)Two novel drugs belonging to two new antibiotic classes--the diarylquinoline bedaquiline and the nitroimidazole delamanid--have recently been approved for use in severe cases of MDR-TB by stringent regulatory authorities."Two novel drugs belonging to two new antibiotic classes--the diarylquinoline bedaquiline and the nitroimidazole delamanid--have recently been approved for use in severe cases of MDR-TB by stringent regulatory authorities (the L .S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA} and the European Medicine Agency (EMA] in the case of bedaquiline; the EM A and the Pharmaceuticals and Medical Devices Agency of Japan in the case of delamanid). "-- Harrison 19/e p1115BedaquilineBedaquiline is a new diarylquinoline with a novel mechanism of action: inhibition of the mycobacterial ATP synthetase proton pumpQ.It is bactericidal for drug-susceptible and MDR strains of M. tuberculosisQ.Mechanism of action:Inhibition of the mycobacterial ATP synthetase proton pump.Therapeutic Uses:Provisional recommendation for the use of bedaquiline for 24 weeks in adults with laboratory-confirmed pulmonary MDR-TB when no other effective treatment regimen can be provided.Side-Effects:Arrhythmias (induce long QT syndrome by blocking the hERG channel)Resistance:Resistance has been reported and is due to point mutations in the atpE gene encoding for subunit c of ATP synthetase.Anti-Tubercular DrugsFirst line (WHO Group 1)Second lineThird line* EthambutolQ (EMB or E)* IsoniazidQ (INH or H )* PyrazinamideQ (PZA or Z)* RifampicinQ (RMP or R)* StreptomycinQ (SM or S)* Second line drugs (WHO groups 2, 3 & 4) are only used to treat disease that is resistant to first line therapy, i.e., for extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) or multidrug- resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB).* Aminoglycosides (WHO group 2): Amikacin, kanamycinQ* Polypeptides (WHO group 2): Capreomycin, viomycin, enviomycinQ* Fluoroquinolones (WHO group 3): Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacinQ* Thioamides (WHO group 4): Ethionamide, prothionamideQ* CycloserineQ (WHO group 4)* TerizidoneQ (WHO group 5)* Third-line drugs (WHO group 5) include drugs that may be useful, but have doubtful or unproven efficacy.* RifabutinQ* ClarithromycinQ* LinezolidQ* ThioacetazoneQ* ThioridazineQ* Arginine* Vitamin D* BedaquilineQ* DeiamanidQ | Medicine | Bacteriology | Which of the following is a new drug available to treat multi drug resistant tuberculosis?
A. Bedaquiline
B. Rifampicin
C. Linezolid
D. Cefepime
| Bedaquiline |
8b5bd0c6-f20e-46ee-ad64-a306877fbb3d | Most of the cases of erythema multiforme are idiopathic, but amongst the known causes, HSV is the most important cause. | Dental | null | A most common cause of erythema multiforme –
A. Herpes simplex
B. DM
C. Pityriasis rosae
D. Erysipelas
| Herpes simplex |
57253b53-58aa-4528-a425-57c49dd0ead3 | For pregnant woman the extra energy requirement is 350kcal.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-588 table no.29. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | The daily extra calorie requirement in first trimester of pregnancy is -
A. 50
B. 150
C. 350
D. 450
| 350 |
5131f7aa-e9fe-4acc-aecf-6487c8ad6fa4 | Ans. C. Excision with radiation* These are highly infiltrative tumors, and the areas of increased T2/FLAIR signal surrounding the main tumor mass contain invading tumor cells.* Treatment involves maximal surgical resection followed by partial-field external beam radiotherapy (6000cGy in thirty 200-cGy fractions) with concomitant temozolomide, followed by 6-12 months of adjuvant temozolomide | Medicine | Oncology | Best treatment for glioblastoma multiforme:
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiation
C. Excision with radiation
D. Stereotactic surgery
| Excision with radiation |
6044e2db-f865-40bf-b3ce-6d6fdad8bebd | Pentostatin is a purine analogue that inhibits Adenosine deaminase. It is used in cases of Hairy cell leukemia (Doc: Uadiribine). | Pharmacology | null | Pentostatin inhibits
A. Dihydrofolate reductose
B. Adenosine deaminase
C. Thymidylate synthase
D. Uridylate synthose
| Adenosine deaminase |
dc9e7806-89b8-4f43-9f5b-d48a98fda67c | Ans. (A) Lubiprostone(Ref: Katzung 11/e p1080)Lubiprostone acts by stimulating Cl- channel opening in the intestine, increasing liquid secretion in gut and decreasing transit time, therefore used for chronic constipation. It has also been approved for constipation dominant irritable bowel syndrome in women. | Pharmacology | G.I.T | Drug used in irritable bowel syndrome with constipation is:
A. Lubiprostone
B. Loperamide
C. Alosetron
D. Clonidine
| Lubiprostone |
b79330f5-50ac-4788-9ef0-bee9492431bc | A i.e. Complicated cataract Complicated cataract (i.e. cataract secondary to some intraocular disease) may be - Anterior coical Q in anterior segmental lesions as glaucoma, acute iritis, or, - Posterior coical Q in posterior segmental lesions as uveitis, RD, pigmentary retinal dystrophy. The second type of complicated cataract presents with posterior coical bread crumb appearance/ polychromatic lusture or rainbow cataract Q Complicated cataract occurs secondary intraocular disease e.g. Inflammatory conditions as uveitis. Degenerative conditions as retinitis pigmentosa, high myopia etc. Intraocular tumors Retinal detachment, Glaucoma etc. | Ophthalmology | null | Polychromatic lusture is seen in :
A. Complicated cataract
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Post radiation cataract
D. Congenital cataract
| Complicated cataract |
8898c315-f99e-4e0c-bd79-e00e7699e908 | The Rose Angina Questionnaire (RAQ) was developed in 1962 to detect ischemic hea pain (angina pectoris and myocardial infarction) for epidemiological field-surveys.1 Since then, the RAQ has been used in many countries to detect coronary hea disease (CHD) in epidemiological research . Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 460 | Medicine | C.V.S | ROSE questionnaire is used for
A. Alcohol addiction
B. Sex addiction
C. Angina assessment
D. DVT assessment
| Angina assessment |
6c0ed82e-95dd-4f3b-8cee-54c7e5645a17 | Ans. B. 5-fluorouracilHand and foot syndrome is caused by 5-fluorouracil, capecitabine, doxorubicin. Cisplatin is highly emetic and nephrotoxic drug. Methotrexate is hepatotoxic. | Pharmacology | Anti-Cancer | Hand foot syndrome is seen with which anticancer drug?
A. Cisplatin
B. 5-fluorouracil
C. Methotrexate
D. Imatinib
| 5-fluorouracil |
2d915186-9fa5-4dd6-9cf1-c7812000fde7 | - Titration of drug dosage can be done only with the inhalational route of administration among the given options. | Pharmacology | null | Titration of the dose of a drug with the response can be done with which of the following routes of administration:
A. Sublingual
B. Transdermal
C. Inhalational
D. Subcutaneous
| Inhalational |
bab68c3e-1a10-4807-a87c-320381df9664 | Ans is c, i.e. Zavanelli maneuverRef Williams, 24/e, p 567The last rescue for entrapped fetal head in term fetus is replacement of the fetus higher into the vagina and uterus followed by cesarean delivery. This is called as Zavanelli maneuver.In preterm babies, last resort for entrapment of after-coming head of breech is-to give Duhrssen Incisions. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Malpresentation | Procedure to be performed in the case of arrest of after-coming head due to contracted pelvis in breech:
A. Craniotomy
B. Decapitation
C. Zavanelli maneuver
D. Cleidotomy
| Zavanelli maneuver |
5eeff1eb-62ce-480a-a27f-d61cd173439d | Glanzmann thrombasthenia is an autosomal recessive disorder. There is a failure of primary platelet aggregation with ADP or collagen due to inherited deficiency of two platelets membrane glycoproteins. It is caused due to deficiency of glycoprotein IIb- IIa. | Pathology | null | Glanzmann thrombasthenia is due to
A. Decreased GpIb
B. Decreased GpIIb/IIa
C. Anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies
D. Inhibition or deficiency of ADAMTS 13
| Decreased GpIIb/IIa |
0702ddb7-04ff-4b1d-874d-6b10c7b2a34a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multipe myeloma Causes of Hyponatremia* Pseudohyponatremia# Hyperlipidemia# Hyperproteinemia (multiple myeloma, macroglobulinemia)* Dilutional# Hyperglycemia* Hypovolemic hyponatremia : decreased total body sodium with a relatively greater increase in total body water# Heart failure# Chronic renal failure# Hepatic failure or cirrhosis* Euvolemic hyponatremia : Increased Total body water with nearly normal total body sodium# SIADH# Drugs causing DIADH (diuretics, barbiturates, carbamazapine, chlopropamide, clofibrate, opioids, tolbutamide, vincristine psychogenic polydipsia# Beer potomaria# Hypothyroidism# Adrenal insufficiency# MDMA (ecstasy)# Accidental or intestional water intoxication# MDMA, N-methyl-3,4 methylenedioxy amphelamine; SIADH, syndrome of inapproprfate secretion of antidiuretic hormone.# Hyperglycemia is retened by some as pseudohyponumia, but hyperglycemia is acrually a dilutional hyperglycemia. | Medicine | Fluid & Electrolyte | Pseudohyponatremia can be seen in -
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Diarrhea
C. Vomiting
D. CHF
| Multiple myeloma |
01fef5d1-c5ed-4a09-a15f-d958a57b9a77 | Ans. (c) Pleomorphic adenomaRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 732PLEOMORPHIC ADENOMA* Overall most common tumor of salivary gland* MC benign salivary gland tumor* MC tumor of major salivary glands* MC site is parotid tail (superficial lobe).Also Know* 2nd MC benign tumor of parotid gland: Warthin's tumor* MC malignant tumor of parotid gland: Mucoepidermoid CA* 2nd MC malignant tumor of parotid gland: Adenoid cystic CA | Surgery | Thyroid Gland | Most common parotid gland tumor is:
A. Warthins tumor
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. Adenoid cystic Carcinoma
| Pleomorphic adenoma |
373a5018-6446-4fba-8cf9-4248f3ac0b51 | Mineralocoicoid excess increases net acid excretion and may result in metabolic alkalosis, which may be worsened by associated K+ deficiency. ECFV expansion from salt retention causes hypeension. The kaliuresis persists because of mineralocoicoid excess and distal Na+ absorption causing enhanced K+ excretion, continued K+ depletion with polydipsia, inability to concentrate the urine, and polyuria. | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | Metabolic alkalosis is seen in-
A. Primary mineralocoicoid excess
B. Deficiency of mineralocoicoid
C. Decreased acid excretion
D. Decreased base excretion
| Primary mineralocoicoid excess |
f065d4c4-d093-474f-bd1c-705752b59162 | - Given features suggests the diagnosis of Aplastic anemia - Aplastic anemia is a disorder of pluripotent stem cells causing bone marrow failure resulting in hypocellular bone marrow & pancytopenia - Most cases are idiopathic. - Iron-deficiency anemia (choice B) and megaloblastic anemia (choice C) are not characterized by a hypoplastic bone marrow. | Pathology | Aplastic Anemia | A 30-year-old woman complains of recent easy fatigability, bruising, and recurrent throat infections. Physical examination reveals numerous petechiae over her body and mouth. Abnormal laboratory findings include hemoglobin of 6 g/dL, WBC of 1,500/mL, and platelets of 20,000/mL. The bone marrow is hypocellular and displays increased fat. What is the appropriate diagnosis?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Iron-deficiency anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Leukemia
| Aplastic anemia |
aa2dc458-b95d-4125-a7b5-df260aba1a72 | Cannabis also is known as Dagga in South andCentral Africa and Hashish in Egypt as many preparations Marijuana (marihuana/mary jane/pot/weed/grass): The most commonly abused form of Cannabis is marijuana, which is dried plant material including cut leaves, flowering tops, stems, and seeds. Hashish (charas): It is dark black-brown resinous exudates from the leaves and stems of the plant. Ganja: It is the resinous extract of leaves and bracts of a female plant. Bhang (Siddhi/patti/sabji): It is also a form of Cannabis, which is ingested. It consists of dried leaves and fruiting shoots and is prepared by rubbing black pepper, sugar and dried leaves of Cannabis on a stone slab. Majun: It is a so of confection prepared from bhang after treating it with sugar, flour, milk, and butter. Ref - Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology 5e pg : 513 | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | Which is not a dervative of cannabis?
A. Charas
B. Ganja
C. Heroin
D. Bhang
| Heroin |
00b53949-9c9a-48f4-8897-df640683fb32 | Kussmaul's sign is rise in JVP with inspiration. It is seen in constrictive pericarditis and Restrictive cardiomyopathy. | Medicine | null | Kussmaul's sign is positive in
a. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
b. Constrictive pericarditis
c. Cardiac tamponade
d. Dilated cardiomyopathy
e. Pneumothorax
A. a,b,e
B. a,b
C. a,c,d,e
D. a,b,c,d,e
| a,b |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.