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0f3b740a-2b2b-42d6-9942-62c2c538a3a5 | Ans. is 'b' ultrasound abdomen [Ref Love & Bailey 24/e p. 1211 (23rd/e p. 1084)Ultrasound is a useful diagnostic method in a pregnant female presenting with right iliac fossa pain to exclude tubal or ovarian disease | Surgery | Urinary Tract | A pregnant female presents with pain in abdomen on examination, tenderness is found in right lumbar region. TLC is 12000/cmm. and urine examination is normal.For diagnosis further test done is -->
A. Chest Xray with abdominal shield
B. ultrasound abdomin
C. Non contrast CT abdomin
D. Laproscopy
| ultrasound abdomin |
9bb497b5-1fe0-424c-8911-a35c65251a72 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nasopharyngeal swab Best site for specimen collection for meningococci :? For cases - CSF (by lumbar puncture) For carriers - Nasopharyngeal swab As CSF is not there in options, examiner is, most probably, asking about specimen in carrier. Laboratory diagnosis of meningococcal infection Specimens CSF - Divided into three poions : One poion is centrifuged and Gram stained smears are prepared from the deposit The second poion is inoculated on blood agar or chocolate agar plates. The third poion of CSF is incubated overnight and than subcultured on chocolate agar. Blood - for culture in patients with meningococcemia and early meningitis. Nasopharyngeal swab - for carriers Petechial lesions - In cases of meningococcemia. Autopsy specimens - from meninges, lateral ventricle, surface of brain or spinal cord. Smear will show Gram negative diplococci inside the polymorphs but often extracellularly also. They are arranged in pairs, with the adjacent sides flattened. Capsulated nonmotile Transpo medium - Stua's medium Culture Blood agar, chocolate agar and Muller-Hinton starch casein hydrolysate agar are the media commonly used for culturing meningococci. Modified Thayer - Main (with vancomycin, colistin and nystatin) is a useful selective medium. Serology Antibodies to meningococcal polysaccharides can be measured by latex agglutination or hemagglutination tests or by their bactericidal activity. | Microbiology | null | Best site for collection of specimen for N. meningitides ?
A. Oral swab
B. Nasal swab
C. Nasopharyngeal swab
D. Skin lesions
| Nasopharyngeal swab |
57d205f7-a766-4a07-b4a6-afbc3e982afd | * Superfecundation is the feilization of two or more ova from the same cycle by sperm from separate acts of sexual intercourse, which can lead to twin babies from two separate biological fathers. * The term superfecundation is derived from fecund, meaning the ability to produce offspring REF : DUTTA BOOK OF OBESTETRICS | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | What is meant by Superfecundation?
A. Feilization of two or more ova in one intercourse
B. Feilization of two or more ova in different intercourses in same menstrual cycle
C. Feilization of ova and then it's division
D. Feilization of second ovum first being implanted
| Feilization of two or more ova in different intercourses in same menstrual cycle |
c90a58e9-62f4-45a5-965b-81db0d9f2a8a | Thiopentone is a ultra sho acting barbiturates ,its action is terminated because of redistribution . thiopentone is highly lipid soluble ,after i.v injection consciousness is regained in 6-10 minutes due to redistribution ,while the ultimate disposal occurs by metabolism. Greater the lipid solubility of the drug ,faster is its redistribution. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | The effect of thiopentone on the CNS is quickly terminated because of:
A. Rapid metabolism in the CNS
B. Quick first-pass elimination
C. Redistribution
D. Rapid metabolism in systemic circulation
| Redistribution |
3b339c0c-d2d4-4857-b657-476ce9869612 | Clinical features of HCC Vascular bruit (25%) GI bleed (10%) Tumor rupture (2-5%) Jaundice due to biliary obstruction (10%) Paraneoplastic syndrome (<5%) Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1456-1463 | Anatomy | G.I.T | In HCC
A. Aerial bruit is present in 80% of cases
B. Two-third patients presents with signs of liver disease
C. Hemoperitoneum in 7% of cases
D. Percutaneous biopsy is mandatory for diagnosis
| Hemoperitoneum in 7% of cases |
7b5ae78e-966f-41ed-bba6-d1b02cc2871a | Keratoconus usually have irregular astigmatism * B/L Non inflammatory ectatic condition of cornea Clinical Presentation * Young females with constantly changing power of glasses with myopia & high cylinder and irregular astigmatism SIGNS IN KERATOCONUS Munson sign Enlarged corneal nerves Oil droplet reflex( on DDO) Rizutti sign Hydrops Fleischer ring | Ophthalmology | Diseases of Cornea | Most common type of astigmatism in keratoconus is
A. Simple myopia
B. Simple hypermetropia
C. Irregular astigmatism
D. Regular astigmatism
| Irregular astigmatism |
0f9f7ddc-8b32-4617-a117-b59411170ffa | Ans. D: Cardiac tamponade A positive Kussmaul sign is rare in cardiac tamponade Davidson's (21st ed., p-542) includes Kussmaul's sign as a clinical feature of pericardial/ cardiac tamponade Normal physiology: Ordinarily the JVP falls with inspiration due to reduced pressure in the expanding thoracic cavity. Kussmaul's sign suggests impaired filling of the right ventricle due to either fluid in the pericardial space or a poorly compliant myocardium or pericardium. This impaired filling causes the increased blood flow to back up into the venous system, causing the jugular distension. Causes of Kussmaul's sign: The differential diagnosis generally associated with Kussmaul's sign is constrictive pericarditis, along with restrictive cardiomyopathy and cardiac tamponade. With cardiac tamponade, jugular veins are distended and typically show a prominent x descent and an absent y descent as opposed to patients with constrictive pericarditis Right ventricular infarction - low ventricular compliance Right hea failure Cardiac tumours Tricuspid stenosis | Medicine | null | Kussmaul's sign is NOT seen in: March 2011
A. Constrictive pericarditis
B. Right Ventricular Infarct
C. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
D. Cardiac tamponade
| Cardiac tamponade |
2fd55a6b-59e0-439d-8e5a-54519c4e69ea | HR is about 150/min with variation in electrical axis due to fluctuation in amplitude of QRS complex on beat to beat variation. Malignancies like breast cancer and lung cancer can metastasize to the hea leading to cardiac tamponade. | Medicine | ECG and Arrhythmias 1 | A 50 year old breast cancer patient presents with breathlessness. What does the ECG show?
A. Normal tracing
B. AV dissociation
C. Electrical Alternans
D. Electromechanical dissociation
| Electrical Alternans |
eed6a4f1-0b24-42e0-8a35-694591976c5a | Square root of the month of the baby. Till he reaches 7 months Ref- OP. Ghai ,9th edition, Page 14 | Pediatrics | Growth and development | Average gain of Height in the first year is?
A. 25 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 75 cm
D. 100 cm
| 25 cm |
d0afd750-58d7-4d82-b5c2-463875605dff | Guttate psoriasis occurs in children and adults. It is precipitated by URTI (e.g. streptococcal tonsilitis) | Dental | null | This type of psoriasis is commonly seen in children and may follow a streptococcal sore throat –
A. Guttate
B. Stable plaque
C. Pustular
D. Arthropathic
| Guttate |
93042de7-d556-48c4-afeb-76f1fa567786 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., I.V. Mannitol Treatment of angle closure glaucoma Definitive treatment (treatment of choice) is surgery. However, intially drugs are used to decrease KW during an acute attack. Approach of treatment is as follows:- Sta i.v. mannitol or i.v. acetazolamide When IOT stas falling, sta topical pilocarpine or b-blocker (timolol). Apraclonidine/latanoprost may be added. Once IOT is reduced, surgery is done. Topical pilocarpine 2% is the preferred antiglaucomatous drug. After control of IOP, Laser (Nd : YAG) peripheral irodotomy is the definitive management of choice. If laser is not available surgical peripheral iridectomy is the procedure of choice. Other surgical procedures used are filteration surgeries (like trabeculectomy, deep sclerotomy, Viscoanulostomy). Symptomatic treatment during an attack also includes analgesics, antiemetic and topical coicosteroids to reduce inflammation. Mydriatics (e.g. atropine) are contraindicated as they precipitate glaucoma. PACG is a bilateral disease, the fellow eye is at risk of developing an acute attack in 50% cases in future. Therefore a prophylactic peripheral laser iridotomy should be performed in the fellow eye. | Ophthalmology | null | Acute angle closure glaucoma first line treatment?
A. Iv mannitol
B. Acetazolamide
C. Pilocarpine
D. Beta blocker eyedrops
| Iv mannitol |
2f1edbfe-d7ac-4bd6-9066-4d94ae11670d | Ans. (a) Primary structureRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30lh ed. pg. 26-29, 618-19 |PROTEIN DENATURATION* In quaternary structure denaturation, protein sub-units are dissociated and/or the spatial arrangement of protein subunits is disrupted.* Primary structure, such as the sequence of amino acids held together by covalent peptide bonds, is not disrupted by denaturation.* In secondary structure denaturation proteins adopt a random coil as they lose all regular repeating patterns such as alpha-helices and beta-pleated sheets, and configuration.* Tertiary structure denaturation involves the disruption of:1. Covalent interactions between amino acid side- chains (such as disulfide bridges between cysteine groups)2. Non-covalent dipole-dipole interactions between polar amino acid side-chains (and the surrounding solvent)3. Van der Waals (induced dipole) interactions between nonpolar amino acid side-chains. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Which of the following structure is not affected in protein denaturation?
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure
| Primary structure |
8eefe6a5-feed-456b-8249-5d81400e59dc | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Atherosclerosis Aneurysmo Aneurysm is a localized abnormal dilatation of blood vessel or the wall of hearto When an aneurysm is bounded by true arterial wall, it is called a true aneurysm.o When wall, is ruptured and there is collection of blood outside the vessel wall {extravaseular hematoma) that is freely communicating with vessel wall - false aneurysm. Most common cause of false aneurysm is post myocardial infarction rupture.o Aneurysm due to infection that causes weakening of vessel wall - mycotic aneurysm.o The two most important causes of aortic aneurysm (not only abdominal part but in any part of aorta) are atherosclerosis and cystic medial degeneration of arterial media.Abdominal aortic aneurvsmo The most common etiology for abdominal aortic aneurysm is atherosclerosis.o Atherosclerosis causes arterial wall thining through medial destruction secondary to plaque that originates in the intima.o Besides abdominal aorta, atherosclerotic aneurysm also occur in common iliac arteries, arch and descending part of thoracic aorta.o The usual site of abdominal aortic aneurism is below the origin of renal artery and above the bifurcation of the aorta.Remembero Most common cause of aortic aneurysm (overall) = Atherosclerosis.o Most common cause of ascending aortic aneurysm = Cystic medial necrosis.o Most common cause of descending aortic aneurysm = Atherosclerosis.o Most common cause of aneurysm of aortic arch = Atherosclerosis.o Syphilitic aneurysm affect = Ascending aorta, a Aneurysm ofTakayasu arteritis affects = Aortic arch.o Most common cause of mycotic abdominal aneurysm = salmonella gastroenteritis. | Pathology | Aneurysms and Dissections | Most common cause of aortic aneurysm is -
A. Syphilis
B. Marfan's syndrome
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Congenital
| Atherosclerosis |
79917da0-2029-47d2-8b88-a56c192ade3c | Ans. (a) Conservative treatment and leave him and hope for the spontaneous resolutionRef: Sabiston 19th edition, Pages 1270-1272* As long as the patient has no signs of sepsis we can wait -- the waiting can be maximum for 4-6 weeks.* Only after 6 weeks we will plan for surgery: Excision of fistula and segmental resection of the involved bowel and reanastomosis. | Surgery | Small & Large Intestine | A patient of Crohn's disease underwent resection anastomosis. Now present on 7th postoperative day with anastomotic leak from a fistula. Every day leakage volume adds up to 150-200 mL. There is no intra-abdominal collection and the patient is stable without any complaints. What will be next line of management?
A. Conservative treatment and leave him and hope for the spontaneous resolution
B. Perform laparotomy and check for leakage site and health margins
C. Perform laparotomy and completely exteriorize the fistula
D. Perform laparotomy and place drain and leave
| Conservative treatment and leave him and hope for the spontaneous resolution |
63c7dfb3-f6a6-4235-813c-3b9a494755b8 | Minimal change disease(MCD)Also known as nil lesion or lipoid nephrosis Causes 70-90% of the Nephrotic syndrome in childhood but only 10-15% of the Nephrotic syndrome in adultsCan be associated with Hodgkin&;s disease, allergies, NSAIDs, HIVClinical and laboratory findings: Abrupt onset of edema and nephrotic syndrome accompanied by acellular urinary sedimentHypeension, microscopic hematuria, allergic symptoms and decreased renal function may be presentAcute renal failure in adults is seen mostly in patients with low serum albumin and intrarenal edema (nephrosarca) that is responsive to intravenous albumin and diureticsIn children, the abnormal urine principally contains albumin with minimal amounts of higher-molecular-weight proteins, called as selective proteinuriaLight microscopy- no obvious glomerular lesionImmunofluorescent microscopy- negative for deposits or IgM deposits in mesangium(rarely)Electron microscopy- an effacement of the foot process with the weakening of slit-pore membranesPatients with steroid resistance may have FSGS on repeat biopsyPrimary responders: patients who have complete remission (<0.2 mg/24 h of proteinuria) after a single course of prednisoneSteroid-dependent: patients who relapse as their steroid dose is taperedFrequent relapsers: those having two or more relapses in the 6 months following taperSteroid-resistant: patients failing to respond to steroid therapyRelapses: - occur in 70-75% of children after the first remissionEarly relapse predicts multiple subsequent relapsesThe frequency of relapses decreases after pubey; increased risk of relapse following the rapid tapering of steroids in all groupsRelapses are less common in adults but are more resistant to subsequent therapyPrednisone is first-line therapy; cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, and mycophenolate mofetil are used in frequent relapsers, steroid-dependent, or steroid-resistant patients(Ref: Harrison's 18/e p2345) | Medicine | All India exam | A 7 year old boy presented with generalized edema. Urine examination revealed marked albuminuria. Serum biochemical examinations showed hypoalbuminemia with hyperlipidemia. Kidney biopsy was undeaken. On light microscopic examination, the kidney appeared normal. Electron microscopic examination is most likely to reveal
A. Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
B. Rarefaction of glomerular basement membrane
C. Deposition of electron dense material in the basement membrane
D. Thin basement membrane
| Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells |
ee52856f-23aa-4594-9eec-5bd30346dec9 | Ans: a (IgA) Ref: Ananthanarayan, 7th ed, p. 88, 89Serum IgA is the major Ig in colostrums, saliva & tears.It is concentrated in secretions and on mucus surfaces forming an antibody paste.It is important in immunity against respiratory & intestinal pathogens.Properties of Immunoglobulins:IgMIgG* Maximum intravascular concentration* Maximum molecular weight* Maximum sedimentation co efficient* Earliest Ig by the foetus* Increased in primary immune response* Activate classical pathway* Mediates hypersensitivity pneumonitis* Maximum serum concentration* Longest half life (23 days)* Only Ig to cross placenta* Ig to increase in secondary immune response* Fixes complement by classical pathway (except IgG4) IgAigE* Secreted by seromucinous glands* Ig present in milk. (Other one is IgG)* Fix complement by Alternate Pathway* Mediator of type 1 HS* Only heat labile Ig* Shortest half life (2 days), least amount in serum* Maximum carbohydrate concentration* Shows homocytotropism* Mediate Prausnitz Kustner reaction.* Ig's activating alternate pathway - IgG4, IgA, IgD* IgG in multiple myeloma, IgM in Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia* Ig dimer is IgA. Ig pentamer is IgM | Pathology | Immunity | Ig seen in breast milk & secretions:
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgD
| IgA |
332734c0-8273-49e1-95b2-d653ab47c6f5 | Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease characterised by the presence of noncaseating granulomas.The granuloma is the pathologic hallmark of sarcoidosis. Desquamative interstitial pneumonia Is characterised by extensive accumulation of macrophages in intraalveolar spaces with minimal interstitial fibrosis.Granulomas are not formed in usual interstitial pneumonitis and diffuse alveolar damage. Reference:Harrison's Medicine-18th edition,page no:2805,2806,2167. | Medicine | Respiratory system | The interstitial lung disease (ILD) showing granulomas on lung biopsy is
A. Usual interstitial pneumonitis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Diffuse alveolar damage
D. Desquamative interstitial pneumonia
| Sarcoidosis |
6aeb31fa-5f8f-47a0-97e8-0f6f4f2fd472 | Ref. Grainger and Allison's Diagnostic Radiology. Page. 189 | Unknown | null | New born male baby presented with congestive heart failure. On examination enlarged fontanelles, a loud cranial bruit and following radiological finding was noted-the most likely diagnosis:
A. Sinus peri cranii
B. Vein of Galen malformation
C. Arachnoid cyst
D. Dandy walker malformation
| Vein of Galen malformation |
8532872a-e717-4030-bc66-d32222472e53 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., ACE inhibitors o Spironolactone is a potassium sparing diuretic, therefore, it can cause hyperkalemia decreasing the potassium diuresis. o ACE inhibitors can also cause hyperkalemia by inhibiting the production of angiotensin I, an inmmediate precursor of angiotensin II. Angiotensin causes excretion of Kt by increasing the secretion of aldosterone (Normally aldosterone enhances absoion of Na' in distal tubules in exhange of active secretion of Kt). o ACE inhibitors decrease potassium excretion by inhibiting the generation of Angiotensin. o Therefore, More pronoundced hyperkalemia can occur in patients receiving ACE inhibitors with sprironolactone. | Pharmacology | null | Spironolactone should not be given with ?
A. Chlorothiazide
B. b - blocker
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Amlodipine
| ACE inhibitors |
96ef2e1d-a2bf-4b02-bb0c-bfc1c665d385 | Myositis ossificans: MYOSITIS OSSIFICANS * Acquired development of non neoplastic heterotopic ossification within soft tissues * Most often in response to localized trauma * Although the process most commonly develops within skeletal muscle, the term itself is a misnomer, because nonmuscular tissue may be involved, and inflammation is rare. * Adolescents & young adults, predominantly men, are affected most frequently, although it has been repoed in infancy as well Treatment * Once diagnosis is established, usually clinically, any surgical biopsy is contraindicated in FOP. * No established medical therapy exists. * Pain medications * suppoive measures -gentle occupational and/or physical therapy. Ref maheshwari 6/e p102 | Orthopaedics | Elbow injuries | Late complication of elbow dislocation
A. Median nerve injury
B. Brachial aery injury
C. Myositis ossificans
D. paresthesia on medial elbow
| Myositis ossificans |
bec3fca6-32b5-492c-a866-077c3f201fe4 | Ans: C (Deviated nasal symptom) Ref: Diseases of the Ear Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra 5th edn 2010.Page 164-165Explanation:In this test (he cheek is pulled laterally and subjective improvement in the airway is assessedIf there is relief in nasal obstruction then the test is positive and indicates an abnormality in the vestibular component of the nasal valve. | Unknown | null | Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares in:
A. Atrophic rhinitis
B. Rhinosporidiosis
C. Deviated nasal septum
D. Hypertrophied inferior turbinate
| Deviated nasal septum |
9334cf84-d3c7-4ec9-b14f-f2c46707839a | Hydralazine Drug induced lupus refers to a form of lupus caused by medication, it causes some symptoms similar to those of SLE (ahritis, rash, fever, and chest pain, but no kidney involvement ) that go away when the drug is Stopped common medications that may cause drug-induced lupus include hydralazine (Apresoline), procainamide (Procan, Pronestyl), methyldopa (Aldomet), quinidine (Quinaglute), isoniazid (INH), and some anti-seizure medications such as phenytoin (Dilantin) or carbamazepine (Tegretol) compications are more common in females. It is also more common in 'slow acetylators' since the metabolism of hydralazin is reduced in these patients. | Surgery | null | A 38 year old woman being treated for hypeension and diabetes has the sudden onset of swelling and tenderness of the wrists and knees. On examination she is febrile and flushed. A friction rub can be heard at the left lower sterna border. Which of the following drug is most likely the cause of these findings?
A. Metformin
B. Hydralazine
C. Minoxidil
D. Nitroprusside
| Hydralazine |
7d617443-2cd7-4d5f-94a2-67a140c4ce1c | Ans. c. Significant pericardial effusion on echocardiography Fibrinolytics and anticoagulants can be continued in case of pericarditis, however, once significant pericardial effusion develops after MI, fibrinolytics should be discontinued "The risk of post MI pericardial effusion is not increased with the use of fibrinolytic agents, heparin, aspirin and other antiplatelet agents. In contrast, a pericardial effusion occurring I the setting of MI is an indication to discontinue anticoagulation and fibrinolytics. Fibrinolytic Therapy Absolute Contraindications History of cerebrovascular hemorrhage at any timeQ A non-hemorrhagic stroke or other cerebrovascular event within the past yearQ Marked hypeension (areliabl determined systolic aerial pressure >a180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic pressure>110 mm Hg) at any time during theacute presentation, suspicion of aoicdissection, and active internalbleeding (excluding menses).Q Relative Contraindications Current use of anticoagulantsQ(INR 2) A recent (<2 weeks) invasive or surgical procedure or prolonged (> cardiopulmonary resuscitation)Q Known bleeding diathesisQ PregnancyQ A hemorrhagic ophthalmic condition (e.g., hemorrhagic diabetic retinopathy) ctive peptic ulcer diseaseQ A history of severe hypeension that is currently adequatelyQ Allergic reactions to streptokinaseQ | Medicine | null | An elderly female presents to the emergency depament and was found to have a transmural myocardial infarction. Based on her ECG, she was staed on thrombolytie therapy with streptokinase. On fuher examination, which of the following findings would indicate that the thrombolytic therapy is risky and should be stopped
A. Pericardial friction rub
B. Mobitz Type II block
C. Significant pericardial effusion on echocardiography
D. Lower limb vein thrombosis
| Significant pericardial effusion on echocardiography |
32345745-b11d-4d84-ae95-d19fc212fa0c | Ans. D: 8 weeks Child stas smiling back (social smile) when anyone talks to him or smiles at him by 6-8 weeks of age Impoant milestones: Head control: 1 month Sits with suppo: 5 months Transfer object from one hand to other: 6 months Crawls at: 8 months Says mama dada: 10 months Babies know his/ her gender: 3 years Can draw a circle: 3 years Self decisions: 7 years | Pediatrics | null | Non-appearance of social smile even after ..... weeks, is considered as abnormal: September 2011
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 8 weeks
| 8 weeks |
5b9fe806-43c0-4f2f-a686-847b94fa333f | Blunt trauma is the most common cause of diaphragmatic rupture. Associated injuries are common. In blunt trauma, the left diaphragm is ruptured more frequently than the right. The stomach, spleen, colon, and omentum may enter the left pleural cavity. Diaphragmatic injury without herniation of abdominal contents is difficult to diagnose. Patients may present with symptoms many years after the initial trauma. Early surgery is indicted. | Surgery | Stomach & Duodenum | A 25-year-old man arrives in the emergency department in respiratory distress following a motor vehicle collision. A chest x-ray shows abdominal viscera in the left thorax. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Traumatic rupture of the diaphragm
B. Sliding esophageal hernia
C. Short esophagus with intrathoracic stomach
D. Rupture of the esophagus
| Traumatic rupture of the diaphragm |
670026f2-f0ae-4180-8f05-081c2a2d1256 | ASA triad (also known as Samter's Triad) is characterized by nasal polyps, asthma and aspirin intolerance . Patients with this condition develop a special rash and/or asthmatic reaction, which can be life threatening, when they take aspirin or aspirin-related drugs (ibuprofen, others). Patients with ASA triad have severe asthma and rhinosinusitis. Even after appropriate sinus surgery, the polyps can return. Optimal treatment includes sinus surgery and medical management. Most patients with ASA triad require systemic and topical coicosteroids. Good asthma treatment is critical as well. Some centers employ aspirin desensitization, a specific technique to create aspirin tolerance, which seems to improve both the asthma and the rhinosinusitis. Ref - medscape.com | Medicine | Miscellaneous | Aspirin triad is -
A. Sampter's triad
B. Young syndrome
C. Gardemer syndrome
D. Chrug strauss syndrome
| Sampter's triad |
8bfb1dd6-1f79-4a84-8638-3fb058aad7dd | Radiation-related caries and other dental hard tissue changes can appear within the first 3 months following RT.
Ref: Gupta N, Pal M, Rawat S, et al. Radiation-induced dental caries, prevention and treatment - A systematic review. Natl J Maxillofac Surg. 2015;6(2):160-166. doi:10.4103/0975-5950.183870 | Radiology | null | Radiation induced caries occurs in?
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
| 3 months |
8bc62535-d61c-485e-b0fa-75c9e0722c7b | Endolymph fills the membranous labyrinth and rich in K ions and is secreted by stria vascularis and the dark cells present in the utricle and near the ampullated end of semicircular ducts. Reference Dhingra 6th edition pg-24. | ENT | Ear | Endolymph in the inner ear
A. Is a filterate of blood serum
B. Is secreted by Stria vascularis
C. Is secreted by Basilar membrane
D. Is secreted by Hair cells
| Is secreted by Stria vascularis |
76831388-75b7-46a1-90b1-5ab020ba52fc | Podophylin is used in anogenital wart (condyloma accuminata). | Dental | null | Podophyllum resin is indicated in the treatment of –
A. Psoriasis
B. Pemphigus
C. Condyloma acuminata
D. Condylomata lata
| Condyloma acuminata |
5daa5949-5a2e-451c-8d72-c755acbb193e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Poor perfusion of tissues SHOCK Shock is the clinical syndrome that results from poor tissue perfusion. In this condition tissues in the body do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients to allow the cells to function. o This ultimately leads to cellular death and may progress to organ failure and finally, to whole body failure and death. Common types of shock o Hypovalemic shock --> Due to decreased blood volume from any cause. (most common type) o Cardiogenic shock Due to inadequate pumping action of the hea. o Septic shock Caused by infection o Anaphylactic shock --> Caused by type I hypersensitivity reaction. o Neurogenic shock Caused by damage to nervous system that leads to interruption of sympathetic vasomotor input. | Pathology | null | In shock, characteristic feature is -
A. Cardiac failure
B. Poor perfusion of tissues
C. Cyanosis
D. Oedema
| Poor perfusion of tissues |
1eb01c1b-3453-4cfb-be85-4b032274cce8 | "Upside down" stomach on Ba meal study is seen in Mesenteroaxial gastric volvulus. Barium swallow study showing the upside-down appearance of the stomach in the thorax with the subdiaphragmatic location of the gastroesophageal junction before surgery (a) and normal subdiaphragmatic position of the stomach one month after the surgery (b). ref - <a href=" <p> | Medicine | All India exam | "Upside down" stomach on Barium meal study is seen in
A. Organoaxial gastric volvulus
B. Large Gastric adenocarcinoma at antral end
C. Rolling type of hiatus hernia
D. Mesenteroaxial gastric volvulus
| Mesenteroaxial gastric volvulus |
6667859f-d5be-4cfd-b925-9a6316f0b449 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pemphigus Immunofluorescence in dermatologyDiseaseIgGIgMIgAC3FibrinIF patternAntigenPemphigus vulgaris++ ++ Intercellular- between epidermal cells.Network patternDesmoglein 3IgA pemphigus ++ Do Paraneoplastic pemphigus++++ DoDesmoplakinBullous pemphigoid++ ++ Linear deposits along BMZBP230 BPI80Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita++ ++ DoCollagen 7Dermatitis herpetiformis +++ Granular papillary tip deposits along BMZEpidermal transglutaminaseSLE++++ ++ Granular deposits along BMZ Lichen planus++++++Ovoid bodies with ragged fibrin band along BMZ Bullous SLE+++ Linear BMZ depositsCollagen 7Porphyria++\ +Perivascular and BMZ deposits Amyloid+++++-H- Globular deposits in tips of apillary dermis BMZ-Basement membrane zone | Unknown | null | Intra-epidermal intercellular deposition of IgG is associated with -
A. Pemphigus
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
D. Henoch schonlein purpura
| Pemphigus |
55e60003-6cc9-4321-b7ea-9ba691a2eba8 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fusion of foot process of the glomerular epithelial cells o The child in presenting with features S/o Nephrotic syndrome most frequent cause of which amongst children is minimal change ds. o Light microscopic finding of MCD --> no abnormality o Electron microscopic finding of MCD --> fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells o Note that loss of foot processes may also be seen in other proteinuric states (eg. Membranous glomerulonephritis, diabetes), but when the fusion is associated with normal glomeruli only then the diagnosis of MCD can be made. o MCD is also know as lipoid nephrosis as cells of the proximal tubules are often laden with lipids. | Pathology | null | A 7 year old boy presented with generalized edema. Urine examination revealed marked albuminuria. Serum biochemical examinations showed hypoalbuminaemia with hyperlipidaemia. Kidney biopsy was undeaken. On light microscopic examination, the kidney appeared normal. Electron microscopic examination is most likely to reveal ?
A. Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
B. Rarefaction of glomerular basement membrane
C. Deposition of electron dense material in the basement membrane
D. Thin basement membrane
| Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells |
52cce2f6-183a-410a-a93a-5a8cb87f7d11 | Resistance of organism to antiseptics in decreasing order is as follows:
Prions
Coccidia
Spores
Mycobacteria
Cysts
Small non-enveloped virus
Trophozoites
Gram-negative bacteria (non-sporulating)
Fungi
Large non-enveloped virus
Gram-positive bacteria
Lipid enveloped / medium sized virus (HIV, HBV) | Microbiology | null | Which of the following is most resistant to antiseptics?
A. Spore
B. Prion
C. Cyst
D. Fungus
| Prion |
16146dd6-0dc7-4588-b7b3-27b22d217fae | Ref: Guyton & Hall. Body Temperature Regulation, and Fever. In: Textbook of Medical Physiology. 12th ed. Philadelphia: Saunders Elsevier; 2012. P873. Canong's Review of Medical Physiology, 21st edition.Explanation:'"Brown fat is richly supplied with sympathetic nerves that release norepinephrine, which stimulates tissue expression of mitochondrial uncoupling protein f also called thermogenin). It increases thermogenesis "The lipids in cells are of three main types:Structural lipids - Inherent part of the membranes and other parts of cells; andNeutral fat - Stored in the adipose cells of the fat depots.Brown fatBrown FatMakes up a small percentage of total body fat.More abundant in infants but is present in adults as wellIt is located in:Between the scapulasAt the nape of the neckAlong the great vessels in the thorax and abdomenOther scattered locations in the body* The fat cells as well as the blood vessels have an extensive sympathetic innervation. (Remember. In white fat depots, the principal sympathetic innervation is solely on blood vessels and not on fat cells)Ordinary lipocytes have only a single large droplet of white fat, whereas brown fat cells contain several small droplets of fat.Brown fat contain relatively abundant mitochondria.In these mitochondria, there is the usual inward proton conductance that generates ATP (oxidative phosphorylation) but there is in addition a second proton conductance that does not generate ATP.This "short-circuit" conductance depends on a 32-kDa uncoupling protein (UCP l)It causes uncoupling of metabolism and generation of ATP, so that more heat is producedSympathetic stimulation - Releases norepinephrine - b3-adrcnergic receptors - | lipolysis. - increased fatty acid oxidation in mitochondria - | heat production.Nerve discharge to brown fat is also increased after eating, so that heat production is increased.Hormones secreted by Adipose TissueAdiponectin - Modulates glucose and fat metabolism in liver and skeletal muscleLeptin - Regulated energy homeostasisNorepinephrine (symphathetic stimulation) - Mobilization of free fatty acidsPerilipin - Involed in the formation of lipid droplets in adipocytes. | Physiology | Heart, Circulation, and Blood | Protein present in brown adipose tissue:
A. Thermogenin
B. Dinitroprotein
C. Spectrin
D. Adiponectin
| Thermogenin |
af5dd0eb-cdcc-4f38-8a63-a581e327d8d7 | Ans. C. TranslocationGiven technique is FISH (Fluorescent in situ hybridization).Above image is of translocation as a combination of two colours is seen in one chromosome.(A). Duplication(B). Deletion | Biochemistry | Molecular Genetics | Following FISH technique depicts?
A. Deletion
B. Duplication
C. Translocation
D. Ligation
| Translocation |
464736c8-8370-462f-8863-e427f70dd806 | Depression of bone marrow is usually the most significant dose-limiting toxicity with cancer chemotherapy. | Pharmacology | null | Most important dose-limiting toxicity of cancer chemotherapy is :
A. Gastrointestinal toxicity
B. Neurotoxicity
C. Bone marrow suppression
D. Nephrotoxicity
| Bone marrow suppression |
e3b7596f-e176-4b95-8e6f-074fa6906c7b | Ankylosis
Ankylosis is the fusion of bones in a joint leading to stiffness of the joint.
Ankylosis may be : -
1) Fibrous ankylosis: - Two articular surfaces are fused by fibrous tissue.
The feature are : -
Some movement of joint is possible (though just a jog of movement).
Movements may be painless or painful.
Most common cause is tubercular arthritis.
2) Bony ankylosis: - There is a bony union between two articular surfaces. The features are : -
No movements possible.
a Joint is painless
A most common cause is acute suppurative arthritis (septic arthritis).
Sometimes, stiffness may also occur due to extra-articular etiology such as in Bum contracture, myositis ossificans etc. It is called False ankylosis. | Orthopaedics | null | A most common cause of bony ankylosis-
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Pyogenic arthritis
C. Traumatic arthritis
D. Osteoarthritis
| Pyogenic arthritis |
5bc6273e-491d-44e1-8bde-12032746d48e | Food-borne botulism is caused by the ingestion of the preformed toxin. The source of botulism is usually preserved food - meat and meat products. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 269 | Microbiology | Bacteriology | Botulism is most commonly due to
A. Egg
B. Milk
C. Meat
D. Pulses
| Meat |
f259d1b1-f51c-480e-84c8-9422399a4cd7 | Ans: a (Oculomotor nerve) Ref: Chaurasia, 4 ed, p. 112,113A simple one! All external muscles of the eye are supplied by oculomotor nerve except the lateral rectus (abducent nerve) and the superior oblique (by trochlear).Remember 3The inferior oblique is fleshy throughout.In the primary position of the eye, its function is:elevation,abduction andextortion.Actions of extraocular musclesMuscleprimarysecondarytertiaryMRadduction LRabduction SRelevationintorsionadductionIRdepressionextorsionadductionSOintorsiondepressionabductionIOextorsionelevationabductionSome useful mnemonics:All superiors are intorters. So inferiors are extortersAll recti are adductors. So obliques are abductors Also remember: The first muscle to be affected in thyroid ophthalmopathyThe last muscle to be affected in retrobulbar block- inferior rectus-superior oblique | Anatomy | Orbit | The inferior oblique muscle is supplied by:
A. Oculomotor nerve
B. Trochlear
C. Trigeminal
D. Abducens
| Oculomotor nerve |
33afc106-d31b-4d7c-8315-a6f878cc5504 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Diethyl glycol poisoning It is case of Ethylene glycol poisoning.The key to the diagnosis of Ethylene glycol poisoning is recognition of-Anion gap acidosisIncreased osmolar gapIncreased oxalate crystals in urine Ethylene glycol poisoningEthylene glycol is readily available as a constituent of antifreezes for car radiatorsYoung children are sometimes attracted by the sweet taste of ethylene glycol and it has sometimes been used criminally to give 'body' and sweetness to white table wines.Ethylene glycol, itself, can only cause direct depression of central nervous system, however their oxidized products i.e., aldehyde and oxalates can cause severe metabolic acidosis and renal failure.Ethylene glycol poisoning can be divided into three stages.Management of Ethylene glycol poisoningSodium bicarbonate to correct acidemiaThiamine, folinic acid, magnesium and high dose pyridoxine to facilitate metabolism.Ethanol or Fomepizole is given to competitively inhibit the metabolism of Ethylene glycol. (Ethanol or Fomepizole occupies the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, and are metabolized instead of Ethylene glycol).Hemodialysis to eliminate ethylene glycol. | Medicine | Toxicology | A 2 year old boy presents with fever for 3 days which responded to administration of paracetamol. Three days later he developed acute renal failure, marked acidosis and encephalopathy? His urine showed plenty of oxalate crystals. The blood anion gap and osmolal gap were increased. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis -
A. Paracetamol poisoning
B. Diethyl glycol poisoning
C. Severe malaria
D. Hanta virus infection
| Diethyl glycol poisoning |
49e53ba4-0da8-43ff-bde8-b2f99217208b | Lower third of the rectum is separated anteriorly from the prostate/vagina by- Denonvilliers' fascia Posteriorly from the coccyx and lower two sacral veebrae by- Waldeyer's fascia These fascial layers act as barriers to malignant invasion | Surgery | Rectum and anal canal | Fascial layer separating the rectum from the coccyx is?
A. Denonvilliers' fascia
B. Scarpa's fascia
C. Buck's fascia
D. Waldeyer's fascia
| Waldeyer's fascia |
84b78ce6-5be0-4de0-ace0-1cc239ead5e1 | Hepatitis A virus was originally classified as Enterovirus type 72 but is now assigned to a separate genus Hepatovirus in the family Picornaviridae. Picornaviruses are Icosahedral, 28-30 nm (small size), nonenveloped single stranded RNA viruses; Linear positive sense RNA genome. Hepatitis B : belongs to Hepadnaviridae , DNA virus. Hepatitis C : belongs to Flaviviridae, RNA virus. Hepatitis E: belongs to Hepeviridae , RNA virus. | Microbiology | Virology (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses) | Enterovirus 72 is:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis E
| Hepatitis A |
1940ba18-950e-4c8c-a96d-f418943edef7 | Contamination - the presence of an infectious agent on a body surface.; also on or in clothes; beddings; toys; surgical instruments or dressing or anther inanimate aicles or substance including water, milk, and food. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 101 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Presence of infectious agent on clothes or dressings is termed
A. Infection
B. Infestation
C. Contamination
D. Contagion
| Contamination |
5dd87060-8709-4c75-aa16-c9d904bb0af6 | In girls the sequence of development of puberty is (Mnemonic: GTPH in males).
G = Growth spurt
T = Breast development (Thelarche)
P = Pubic hair development (Pubarche)
H = Height increases; peak growth velocity attained
in males = Menstruation starts (Menarche)
(Axillary hair develop after menstruation starts)
►The main hormone responsible for secondary sexual characteristics in females is estrogen
►Estrogen leads to
• Breast development
• Growth spurt, i.e. height attained
• Production of cervical mucus
• Cornification of vaginal cells
• Menstruation (menstruation occurs due to withdrawal of progesterone in an oestrogen primed uterus)
►Estrogen leads to
►As far as hair growth is concerned – in females also the hormone responsible is Androgens(produced by adrenals and ovary) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following pubertal events in girls is not estrogen dependant:
A. Menstruation
B. Vaginal cornification
C. Height spurt
D. Hair growth
| Hair growth |
e6c215bc-de5c-4eb0-b95f-2b12dddfa525 | A i.e. IV adrenaline Intravenous adrenaline is the drug of choice in anaphylactic shock. | Anaesthesia | null | In a 10 year old child presented with anaphylactic shock, drug of choice is:
A. I/V adrenaline
B. S.C. adrenaline
C. Anti histamine
D. Coicosteroids
| I/V adrenaline |
3183b786-3544-4fc6-bed0-f4becc1c171c | Amiodarone is a widely used antiarrhythmic drug. It is related structurally to thyroid hormone and is stored in adipose tissue. The drug has a high iodine content as well. Taking amiodarone on an ongoing basis can lead to hypothyroidism by inhibiting deiodinase activity and by acting as a direct antagonist to T4 . In some cases, amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism resolves within a few months; however, in many, especially when accompanying anti-TPO antibodies are present, treatment with levothyroxine is needed. This can be easily monitored and adjusted. While answer a is a consideration, the patient likely needs the amiodarone given her tendency toward paroxysms of atrial fibrillation and the attendant risk of stroke. While starting a beta-blocker may prevent episodes of rapid ventricular response, this decision would be made with the help of her cardiologist, which is not mentioned. Anti-TPO antibodies increase the risk of hypothyroidism but are not necessary to guide therapy in this patient. Although prednisone may be used for treatment of amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism, this patient has hypothyroidism, and prednisone is not indicated. | Medicine | Endocrinology | An 80-year-old woman is admitted to the intensive care unit with sepsis due to a urinary tract infection. While in the ICU she develops atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and is treated with a loading dose of amiodarone. She converts to sinus rhythm and is sent home on amiodarone to prevent recurrences of atrial fibrillation. In the following weeks she develops increasing fatigue, dry skin, and constipation and her internist finds her TSH to be 25. She is in sinus rhythm. What is the best approach in this situation?
A. Stop the amiodarone and follow the TSH and the clinical response.
B. Start low dose levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 6 weeks.
C. Start a beta-blocker and begin weaning off the amiodarone.
D. Check for anti-TPO antibodies to help guide your decision.
| Start low dose levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 6 weeks. |
d90e6ee5-d542-4a06-9324-b3b456d86e3b | Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins that can act as food poisons. Ref: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology, 9th edition; pg no: 207 | Microbiology | miscellaneous | A cook prepares sandwiches for 10 people going for a picnic. Eight out of them develop severe gastroenteritis within 4-6 hrs of consumption of the sandwiches. It is likely that on investigation the cook is found to be the carrier of
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Staphylococcus aureus
| Staphylococcus aureus |
c119985e-f780-4d8b-a7ac-a4c6cedc0a0d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type of weapon o The kind of firearm weapon which fired the shot can be determined by -1) Size, shape, composition and primary or secondary marking of bullet.2) Appearance of wound.o Primary markings (class characteristics or bare codes):# These markings result during passage of bullet through barrel and depend on design, dimensions and manufacturing specifications of weapon. So they are most useful in identifying make and model (class) of weapon. Features noted include1) Calibers and type.2) Number and width of lands and grooves.3) Direction and rate of twist of rifling.4) Pitch (angle of spiral) of rifling.o Secondary markings (individual or accidental characteristics/Bullet finger print):# Irregularities on the inner surface of barrel due to accidental manufacturing defects or sticking of particles of prior fired bullets (later is known as metallic fouling) also produce grooving (marking) on surface of bullet. These secondary individual (or accidental) markings are specific for that particular weapon and used to exclude it from all others (bullet fingerpringing). These are more pronounced on lead bullet (which may even sometimes carry weaving pattern of cloth) and jacketed bullet.o The bullet found in body or crime scene is called crime (exhibit) bullet. It is compared under microscope with test bullet fired from suspected weapon. Using same type and brand of ammunition, the suspected weapon is fired into a box filled with cotton waste (bullet traps), a sand bag, bag of rags, oiled saw, dust, blocks of ice, water tank (bullet recovery tank) or against white bloating paper. | Forensic Medicine | Injuries by Firearms | Bullet marking indicates -
A. Type of weapon
B. Type of wound
C. Range of firing
D. Severity of tissue damage
| Type of weapon |
9dba680e-62cf-4325-89a7-5be77a1befe5 | Incubation period of cholera: 1-2 days. Incubation period of kala azar: 1-4 months. Incubation period of filariasis: 8-16 months. Incubation period of measles: 10-14 days. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Intestinal Infections, Worm Infestations | Which of the following disease has incubation period< 1week?
A. Cholera
B. Kala-azar
C. Filariasis
D. Measles
| Cholera |
9f523cdf-ae04-4897-b4ed-07ae68181de3 | Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, is when fluid in the pericardium (the sac around the hea) builds up, resulting in compression of the hea.Onset may be rapid or gradual. Symptoms typically include those of cardiogenic shock including shoness of breath, weakness, lightheadedness, and cough. Other s relate to the underlying cause Cardiac tamponade is caused by a large or uncontrolled pericardial effusion, i.e. the buildup of fluid inside the pericardium.This commonly occurs as a result of chest trauma (both blunt and penetrating), but can also be caused by myocardial rupture, cancer, uremia, pericarditis, or cardiac surgery, and rarely occurs during retrograde aoic dissection,or while the person is taking anticoagulant therapy.The effusion can occur rapidly (as in the case of trauma or myocardial rupture), or over a more gradual period of time (as in cancer). The fluid involved is often blood, but pus is also found in some circumstances. Causes of increased pericardial effusion include hypothyroidism, physical trauma (either penetrating trauma involving the pericardium or blunt chest trauma), pericarditis (inflammation of the pericardium), iatrogenic trauma (during an invasive procedure), and myocardial rupture. Surgery One of the most common settings for cardiac tamponade is in the first 24 to 48 hours after hea surgery. After hea surgery, chest tubes are placed to drain blood. These chest tubes, however, are prone to clot formation. When a chest tube becomes occluded or clogged, the blood that should be drained can accumulate around the hea, leading to tamponade Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 460 | Medicine | C.V.S | A patient in ICU has normal pulmonary A pressure; low systemic peripheral resistance; low cardiac index; aerial PO,- 93; diagnostic possibilities are
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Septic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Cardiac tamponade
| Cardiac tamponade |
1d16199d-f44e-4c77-8e7c-53c485507a12 | Both erythema multiformae and steven Johnson syndrome are due to deposition of immune complexes in the superficial microvasculature of skin and mucosa. These immune complex diseases are mediated through type III hypersensitivity reaction. | Pathology | null | Steven-Johnson syndrome involves
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
| Type III hypersensitivity reaction |
f7834c25-ec73-4da0-ba42-b3df9f290db8 | ‘AC is the single most sensitive parameter to detect IUGR’
Dutta Obs 7/e, p 462
‘Serial measurements of AC (not BPD) and estimation of fetal weight are more diagnostic to fetal growth restriction’
Dutta Obs 7/e, p 462
Head circumference (HC) and abdominal circumference (AC) ratios: In a normally growing fetus the HC/AC ratio exceeds 1.0 before 32 weeks. It is approximately 1.0 at 32 to 34 weeks. After 34 weeks, it falls below 1.0. If the fetus is affected by asymmetric IUGR, the HC remains larger. The HC/AC is then elevated. In symmetric IUGR, both the HC and AC are reduced. The HC/AC ratio remains normal. Using HC/AC ratio, 85% of IUGR fetuses are detected
Pathophysiology: Basic pathology in small for gestational age is due to reduced availability of nutrients in the mother or its reduced transfer by the placenta to the fetus. It may also be due to reduced ultilization by the fetus. Brain cell size (asymmetric–SGA) as well as cell numbers (symmetric-SGA) are reduced. Liver glycogen content is reduced. AC indirectly reflects the decreased fetal liver size and glycogen content. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Regarding IUGR
A. Abdominal circumference (AC) is the least sensitive parameter for detection of IUGR
B. In asymmetric IUGR head circumference/abdominal circumference (HC/AC) is reduced
C. Serial biparietal diameter (BPD) is the only important measurement in IUGR
D. AC indirectly reflects fetal liver size and glycogen storage
| AC indirectly reflects fetal liver size and glycogen storage |
1fad66ac-3fba-41d9-a9cb-e10ddff725f6 | Ans. (a) Morning Glory syndromeRef: Morning Glory syndrome- A histopathological study British Journal of ophthalmology; the morning Glory syndrome' Opthalmologica 1983; 187 (7): 222-230 1990, 74; 56-58 | Ophthalmology | Neuro-Ophthalmology | Lamina cribrosa is absent in:
A. Morning Glory syndrome
B. Nanophthalmia
C. Colobama of retina
D. Optic nerve agenesis
| Morning Glory syndrome |
fb158faa-588e-4410-a86d-c14a40f0e02d | Answer- D. Exchange transfusionLucion phenomenon is a very rare comcomplication of leprosy.It presents as sudden necrotizing vasculopathy in Patients with longstanding, untreated lepromatous leprosy.TreatmentOptimal wound care and therapy for bacteremia are indicated. Ulcers tend to be chronic and heal poorly.In severe cases exchange transfusion is indicated. | Medicine | null | Lucio phenomenon is treated with
A. Steroids
B. Lenalidomide
C. Clofazimine
D. Exchange transfusion
| Exchange transfusion |
f669f208-4895-4cfa-aa2d-8fd018deddba | Aspirin- Urate excretion: Aspirin in high dose reduces renal tubular excretion of urate- dose more than 5 grams per day- that is more than the antiinflammatory dose ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION; KD TRIPATHI; PAGE NO 195 | Pharmacology | Autacoids | Aspirin should be used with caution in the following groups of patients because of which of the following reason:
A. In diabetics because it can cause hyperglycemia
B. In children with viral disease, because of the risk of acute renal failure
C. In gout, because it can increase serum uric acid
D. In pregnancy, because of high risk of teratogenicity
| In gout, because it can increase serum uric acid |
fb1109b3-6119-4c6f-b479-4a5be4408e0b | It is characterized by hypokalemia , alkalosis, high rennin level and hypercalciuria , but with normal blood pressure and no edema.
This is due to mutation Na-k-cl co transporter gene , usually begins in childhood. | Unknown | null | 20 year old patient presents with hypokalemia, alkalosis with normal blood pressure and no edema. the diagnosis is
A. Bartter syndrome
B. Liddle syndrome
C. Glucocorticoids remediable aldosteronism
D. Apparent mineral ocorticoid excess syndrome
| Bartter syndrome |
248a65c0-33c5-4c93-9f2b-67e4e4266b9d | Ans. (a) B12Ref: Harrison 18th ed, ch. 294* Post resection of ileum, vitamin B12 deficiency is seen.* Steatorrhea is fat malabsorption leading to malodorous stools. Fat malabsorption leads to deficiency of vitamin A,D,E,K. | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Small & Large Intestine) | Post resection of terminal ileum, deficiency of which of the following vitamins is seen along with Steatorrhea:
A. B12
B. B9
C. C
D. B6
| B12 |
6d80888e-bbed-4d42-9acb-0ce5350736ad | Pyriform sinus drains into jugular chain and then to deep cervical group of lymph nodes. Post cricoid region drains into para pharyngeal and paratracheal group of lymph nodes. Posterior pharyngeal wall drains into para pharyngeal lymph nodes and finally to deep cervical lymph nodes. Ref Tuli 1/e,p 231,232. | Anatomy | null | The lymphatic drainage of pyriform fossa is to:
A. upper deep cervical nodes
B. Prelaryngeal node
C. Para pharyngeal nodes
D. Mediastinal nodes
| upper deep cervical nodes |
c33164c3-6451-43b9-b35f-7036ca63e47e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3 months Depot formulations (Injectable hormones) They are given i.m. as oily solution 1. Long acting progestin alone Depot medroxy progesterone acetate (DMPA) 150 mg at 3 month intervals. or Norethindrone (norethisterone) enanthate (NEE) 200 mg at 2 months intervals. The most impoant undesirable propey is complete disruption of mestural bleeding pattern and total amenorrhoea (more common with DMPA). 2. Long acting progestin + long acting estrogen - once a month. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Injection DMPA is given once in ?
A. 3 days
B. 3 week
C. 3 months
D. 3 years
| 3 months |
a560d271-be00-495d-ac57-5f0931df19e6 | Ans. B. Clostridium tetaniSwarming/ spreading type of growth is seen in many bacteria i.e. Proteus, Clostridium tetani, Vibrio parahemolyticus etc. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Swarming is seen in:
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Clostridium difficile
| Clostridium tetani |
28d1060c-9839-4162-9ffc-0817d8f362f0 | PGF2[?] is CARBOPROST 250 ug I.M. up to 8 doses and maximum dose is 2 mg given I.M. always ( i.v. can cause sudden hypeension ) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | NEET 2019 | PGF2 alpha maximum dose in PPH management which can be given over 24 hours is-
A. 250 mg
B. 200 mg
C. 2 mg
D. 20 mg
| 2 mg |
a6728aaa-408a-4738-a65a-973af62346bd | Ans. (c) FibroadenomaRef: Sabiston 19th ed. / 827* Fibroadenoma aka Breast mouse is the most common benign tumor of breast.* It is MC seen in young age group females (15-30 yrs)* Clinically, it is slow growing, painless solitary mass, which is mobile in nature (that's why known as breast mouse).* IOC: FNAC* Upon mammography: Popcorn calcification | Surgery | Fibroadenoma | Young female with painless, mobile lump of 4 cm in a breast. Diagnosis is?
A. Breast abscess
B. Breast cyst
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Peau dorange
| Fibroadenoma |
afd51f88-46e3-4de9-94bd-7076e689d3df | Ref Robbins 9/e p296 APC is classified as a tumor suppressor gene. Tumor suppressor genes prevent the uncontrolled growth of cells that may result in cancerous tumors. The protein made by the APC gene plays a critical role in several cellular processes that determine whether a cell may develop into a tumor. The APC protein helps control how often a cell divides, how it attaches to other cells within a tissue, how the cell polarizes and the morphogenesis of the 3D structures, or whether a cell moves within or away from a tissue. This protein also helps ensure that the chromosome number in cells produced through cell division is correct. The APC protein accomplishes these tasks mainly through association with other proteins, especially those that are involved in cell attachment and signaling. The activity of one protein in paicular, beta-catenin, is controlled by the APC protein (see: Wnt signaling pathway). Regulation of beta-catenin prevents genes that stimulate cell division from being turned on too often and prevents cell overgrowth. The human APC gene is located on the long (q) arm of chromosome 5 in band q22.2 (5q22.2). The APCgene has been shown to contain an internal ribosome entry site. APC ohologs have also been identified in all mammals for which complete genome data are available. | Anatomy | General anatomy | APC gene is located on which chromosome
A. Chromosome 5
B. Chromosome 6
C. Chromosome 9
D. Chromosome 11
| Chromosome 5 |
89bdbe5d-9abd-413e-a9cb-a0cc0997ffa8 | Grade Type Description I Contusion Microscopic (>3 RBCs/HPF)or gross hematuria, urological studies normal Hematoma Subcapsular, nonexpanding without parenchymal laceration. II Hematoma Nonexpanding perirenal hematoma, confined to renal retroperitoneum Laceration <1 cm parenchymal depth of renal coex without urine extravasation. III Laceration >1 cm parenchymal depth of renal coex without collection system rupture or urinary extravasation IV Laceration Parenchymal laceration extending through collecting system Vascular Main renal aery or vein injury with contained hemorrhage V Laceration Completely "Shattered kidney" Vascular Avulsion of renal hilum, devascularising the kidney. | Surgery | Kidney and ureter | Under classification of Renal injuries, Laceration more than 1 cm without extension into the renal pelvis or collecting system comes under which Grade?
A. Grade I
B. Grade III
C. Grade IV
D. Grade V
| Grade III |
dcd171c8-d0e2-42e5-bfb9-8d19fdcd57c7 | Maxillary fractures may be classified as LeFort I, II, or III. The LeFort III is the highest and most severe. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is considered the highest and most severe classification of maxillary fracture?
A. LeFort I
B. LeFort II
C. LeFort III
D. LeFort IV
| LeFort III |
a9b413d6-553e-4e08-9c6f-79da1442565e | Glucose, amino acids, and bicarbonate are reabsorbed along with Na+ in the early portion of the proximal tubule. | Physiology | null | Glucose reabsorption occurs in the
A. Proximal tubule.
B. Loop of Henle.
C. Distal tubule.
D. Cortical collecting duct.
| Proximal tubule. |
63100bb5-cb14-44ed-9eb2-b7d629d85d06 | D i.e. Used to increase oxygen delivery to tissue | Physiology | null | Furasol DA is :
A. Free radical
B. Aificial blood
C. CO antagonist
D. Used to increase 02 delivery to tissue
| Used to increase 02 delivery to tissue |
46e406e9-5a3d-4b5b-92b2-065a4faf5a12 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Culex mosquitoMosquito speciesDisease transmittedAnophelesMalaria, filariasis (not in India), arboviruses of febrile and encephalitic diseaseCulexBaneroftian filariasis, Japanese encephalitis, West- Nile fever, St. Louis encephalitis, western equine encephalitisAedesYellow fever (in Africa), Dengue, Dengue haemorrhagic fever, Chickengunya, Chickengunya haemorrhagic fever, Rift valley fever, Sindbis, Baneroftian filariasis (not in India)MansoniaBrugian filariasis, Baneroftian filariasis, Chickengunya | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | Western equine encephalitis virus is transmitted by-
A. Anophales mosquito
B. Culex mosquito
C. Sandfly
D. Aedes mosquito
| Culex mosquito |
604d3185-8b4d-42b1-9c0d-df2b267dd2ca | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Atrophic rhinitis Clinical features of atrophic rhinitis o The disease is mostly seen in females and tends to appear during puberty. o The disease is always bilateral except in case of DNS where it is seen on the wider side. o There is foul smell from the nose making the patient a social outcast though patient himself is unaware of the smell due to marked anosmia (merciful anosmia). o The patient complains of nasal obstruction in spite of unduly wide nasal chambers. This is due to large crusts filling the nose. o Epistaxis may occur when the crusts are removed. o Crusting may occur in the larynx and cause hoarseness. o Apart from the nose, other sites may also be involved. Pharynx - Atrophic pharyngitis may be seen Larynx - Atrophic laryngitis may be seen which can lead to a cough and hoarseness of voice. Ear - Obstruction of eustachian tube can cause serous otitis media PNS - Small/under developed and have thick walls. They appear opaque on X-ray. | Unknown | null | Merciful anosmia is seen in -
A. Nasal polyp
B. Atrophic rhinitis
C. Rhinosporidiosis
D. Rhinoscleroma
| Atrophic rhinitis |
3aef4ead-0142-4621-9008-d7cf37f5ed90 | HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:136The inferior parathyroid glands develop from endoderm of the third pharyngeal pouchThe superior parathyroid glands develop from endoderm of the fouh pharyngeal pouch | Anatomy | General anatomy | Parathyroid glands develop from .............branchial pouches?
A. 1st & 2nd
B. 2nd & 3rd
C. 3rd & 4th
D. 5th & 6th
| 3rd & 4th |
5032d293-19a2-48f2-b738-6f19154c2893 | Propofol infusion syndrome occurs when propofol infusion is continued for more than 48 hours
Severe metabolic acidosis
Acute cardiacfailure
Hyperkalemia
Hyperlipidemia
Skeletal myopathy
Refractory bradycardia. | Anaesthesia | null | Propofol infusion syndrome is characterized by
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypolipidemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Tachycardia
| Bradycardia |
bc879aff-9d2a-40e3-9495-77b4bf720f11 | S.Agalactiae which is a group B Streptococcus shows
CAMP test positive
HHT positive
BACITRACIN RESISTANT | Microbiology | null | Organism which is CAMP test positive and Bacitracin resistant is
A. S.Aureus
B. S.pyogenes
C. S.Agalactiae
D. Enterococcus
| S.Agalactiae |
9829a93e-1135-479b-a757-e47038a51849 | Sentinal surveillance is a method of identifying the missing cases and thereby supplementing the notified cases. Helps to estimate disease prevalence. Repoing bias minimized. Note: India is the 1st country to have Sentinal surveillance set up for follow up of cataract surgeries. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition - Page no. 45 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of health and disease | Missing cases are detected by
A. Active surveillance
B. Passive surveillance
C. Sentinel surveillance
D. Prevalence rate
| Sentinel surveillance |
2d0129ab-1708-43f6-be20-46c703963c5e | Hemolytic jaundice results from excessive RBC destruction.there is increased release of Hb that leads to overproduction of bilirubin. Hyperbilirubinemia develops whn the capacity of liver to conjugate large amt of bilirubin is exceeded. There is also increased urinary excretion of urobilinogen. Ref.Harsh mohan page no.598 6th edition | Medicine | G.I.T | A patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilinibinemia and presence of urobilinogen in urine. Which amongst the following is the least likely diagnosis-
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Crigler Najjar syndrome type 1
C. Gilbe s syndrome
D. crigler najjar syndrome type 2
| Hemolytic jaundice |
523b04e3-7030-4435-be04-2bc780a69adf | Causes of secondary PPH: Retained bits of cotyledon or membranes Infection and separation of slough over a deep cervicovaginal laceration Endometritis Hemorrhage from cesarean section wound Withdrawal bleeding following estrogen therapy for suppression of lactation Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 392. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | Cause of secondary PPH is
A. Atonic uterus
B. Retained placental bits
C. Ruptured uterus
D. Cervical laceration
| Retained placental bits |
4d64f5b5-57e9-4513-9a00-3dd6a33e7048 | Dacrocytes(D),more commonly known as tear-drop cells, are strongly indicative of myelofibrosis. Sickle cells (B) occur due to homozygous haemoglobin S which causes cell sickling on polymerization. Schistocytes (A), more commonly known as fragmented red cells, can be seen in a number of conditions such as haemolytic anaemia
or disseminated intravascular coagulation. Spherocytes (C) are commonly seen in haemolytic anaemia or in
congenital disease, such as hereditary spherocytosis. | Unknown | null | In case of Myelofibrosis what is most likely to be seen on the peripheral blood smear?
A. Schistocytosis
B. Sickle cells
C. Spherocytes
D. Dacrocytes
| Dacrocytes |
69dfb1e3-36a4-4f61-b0fc-911907ddcc13 | Ans-B (4.10-Parikh 6th)Split lacerations (Incised like or incised looking wound)* Blunt force on areas where the skin is close to bones, and the subcutaneous tissues are scanty, may produce a wound which by the linear splitting of the tissues may look like an incised wound. Common sites (4.10 Parikh 6th)(181- Reddy 32th edition)* Scalp* Scalp* Face* Eyebrows* Hands* Cheekbones* Lower legs* Lower jaw * Iliac crest * Perineum * Shin* Flying is seen in Avulsion type lacerations.* The incisional wound on genital is seen commonly in Homicides.* Face - lesser impact causes a maximum bruise.* Rickshaw tire mark is an example of patterned abrasion/bruise since it reproduces the pattern of the object (Tread of Rickshaw tyre).* Primary impact injury are commonly seen on the legs.* Commonest organ to be injured in primary blast injury is - EAR drum or tympanic membrane (Eardrum > Lumg > Eye > Intestine).* Antemortem abrasion can be confused with Ant-bite marks** | Unknown | null | The lacerated wound will look like an incised wound in the region of-
A. Palm
B. Forehead
C. Chest
D. Abdomen
| Forehead |
d145dcfc-6d1f-4d7a-8ec8-7504c18995aa | Most common tumour of pineal region is germinoma. Most common tumour of pineal parenchymal gland is pineocytoma. | Radiology | Neuroradiology | Most common tumour of pineal region is?
A. Germinoma
B. Pineocytoma
C. Pineoblastoma
D. Secondaries
| Germinoma |
d15ec1de-960f-4a01-a36b-3bff5f25f61b | This is a case of Legionella infection. The established approach to diagnosis combines direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) with culture of infected tissues. Cultures must be made on buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar medium that includes supplements (amino acids, vitamins, L-cysteine, ferric pyrophosphate), which meets the growth requirements of Legionella. It is buffered to meet the acidic conditions--optimal for Legionella growth (pH 6.9). The isolation of large Gram-negative rods on BCYE after 2 to 5 days that have failed to grow on routine media (blood agar, chocolate agar) is presumptive evidence for Legionella. Diagnosis is confirmed by DFA staining of bacterial smears prepared from the colonies. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 34. Legionella. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | Microbiology | null | An elderly male presented with fever, dry cough and chest pain. The causative organism was detected in sputum which is cultured on charcoal yeast medium. The organism is:
A. H. influenzae
B. Moraxella catarrhalis
C. Legionella
D. Burkholderia cepacia
| Legionella |
da965615-9a28-4c26-9f44-599a28adc6f8 | The pa of the left sixth arch aery, between the branch to the lung bud and aoa,forms the ductus aeriosus HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:255 | Anatomy | General anatomy | The ductus aeriosus is derived from the following aoic arch
A. 3rd
B. 4th
C. 5th
D. 6th
| 6th |
e79626a2-f448-4b6d-9602-ac817ea20802 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 45 Molecular pathogenesis of Turner's syndromeo Turner's syndrome results from complete or partial monosomy of the X chromosome and is characterized primarily by hypogonadism in phenotypic females,o The genotype in Turner's syndrome is AOo As already discussed absence of Y chromosome allows the development of female gonads ovary,o So these patients have female gonads.o What is the abnormality produced due to loss o f one X chromosome.o Both X chromosomes are active durine oosenesis and are essential for normal development of ovaries.o In Turners syndrome fetal ovaries develop normally early in embryogenesis, but the absence of second X chromosome leads to loss of oocytes from the ovary' and the ovaries are atrophied,o The ovaries are reduced to atrophic fibrous strands devoid of ova and follicles "Streak ovaries". (Gonadal dysgensis)o Short stature in Turner *s syndrome is also attributed to the loss ofhomeobox (SHOX) gene.o Homeobox gene is present on both the X chromosomes and is responsible for skeletal development.o Loss of this gene in Turner's syndrome results in short stature,o Congenital cardiac defects occur in Turner's syndrome.o Turner's syndrome results from complete or partial monosomy of the X chromosome and is characterized primarily by hypogonadism in phenotypic females.o It is the most common sex chromosome abnormality in females.Features of Turner syndrome in childreno The most severely affected patients generally present during infancy writh edema (owing to lymph stasis) of the dorsum of the hand and foot and sometimes swelling of the nape of the neck.o Swelling of the neck is related to markedly distended ly mphatic channels, producing so called cystic hygroma.o As these infants develop, the swelling subsides but often leave bilateral neck webbing and persistent looseness of skin on the back of the neck.o Congenital heart disease is also common, particularly preductal coarctation of Aorta and bicuspid Aortic valve,o C.V.S abnormalities are most important cause of mortality in children with Turner s syndrome.Features of Turner's syndrome in Adolescents and Adulto At puberty there is failure to develop normal secondary sex characteristics.o The genitalia remains infantile, breast development is inadequate and there is little pubic hair. Nipples are widely- spaced.o Turner syndrome is the single most important cause of primary- amenarrhoea accounting for approximately 1/3 of the cases.a Short stature (height rarely exceeds 150 cm).o The mental status of these patients is usually normal but subtle defects in nonverbal, visual spatial information processing have been noted (Recall that mental retardation is associated with the presence of extra chromosome) not with loss of X chromosome.o About 50% of the patients develop autoantibodies directed to the thyroid gland and upto one half of these patients develop hypothyroidism.o Glucose intolerance, obesity and insulin resistance are also seen. | Pathology | Mendelian Disorders: Single-Gene Defects | Turner no of chromosomes -
A. 45
B. 47
C. 46
D. 42
| 45 |
120bb24e-4ead-480e-b60b-c5b33d4c899d | Step 3 of Glycolysis -6-phosphate is fuher phosphorylated to fructose1,6-bisphosphate. The enzyme is phosphofructokinase. ii.PFK is an allosteric, inducible, regulatory enzyme. It is an impoant key enzyme of this pathway. This is again an activation process, the energy being derived by hydrolysis of yet another molecule of ATP. This irreversible step is the rate-limiting reaction in glycolysis. However, during gluconeogenesis, this step is circumvented by fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 109 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Phosphofructokinase is the key enzyme of
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glycogenesis
C. Glycolysis
D. TCA cycle
| Glycolysis |
4d3a5d89-3881-472f-96ba-4ec2b649bf56 | (Ref: KDT 6/e p841) By inhibiting the enzyme IMP dehydrogenase, mycophenolate inhibits the de novo synthesis of purines. | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | Which of the following drugs inhibits de nove synthesis of purines?
A. Cyclosporine
B. Tacrolimus
C. Mycophenolate
D. Infliximab
| Mycophenolate |
f95aba06-a303-49f2-8713-3e1aaa6de1ef | Ans. (b) Papaniculaou smearRef. Shaw's Gynae 15th ed./. 403* Pap smear is taken from cervix, with Arye spatula, rotated 360deg to pick up cells from squamo-columnar junction. Vaginal smear for hormonal evaluation is taken from lateral fornix* The objective of screening is to reduce the incidence and mortality from cervical cancer* Pap smear test has been effective reducing the incidence of cervical cancer by 80% and the mortality by 70%.* Please refer to above explanation also. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Staging, Investigation and Prognostic Factors | Screening test for cervical cancer is:
A. Biopsy
B. Papaniculaou smear
C. Visual inspection
D. Colposcopy
| Papaniculaou smear |
194e56bb-233f-4eb3-9655-d58f87a06179 | Ans. (d) Plasma cell(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 598-602)Multiple myeloma is a malignant proliferation of plasma cells derived from a single clone. | Pathology | Misc. (W.B.C) | Multiple myeloma is a tumor of?
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-lymphocyte
C. Lymph nodes
D. Plasma cell
| Plasma cell |
c139a603-f5f3-4277-9c84-598f18fc4b6b | Any tumor "filling the 4th ventricle" blocks the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This blockage leads to increased intracranial pressure, which manifests with nausea, vomiting, headache,nuchal rigidity, and mental status changes. If surgery is not performed promptly, cerebellar tonsillar herniation and rapid death will ensue. In children, medulloblastoma and ependymoma are the most frequent neoplasms presenting in this manner. There is no evidence in this case suggesting that acute hemorrhage into the 4th ventricular cavity has occurred, nor is medulloblastoma typically associated with this complication. CNS tumors that frequently bleed are metastases from melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, and choriocarcinoma. Alterations in medullary function lead to cardiorespiratory instability and may be caused by direct tumor compression or infiltration of the medulla, neither of which is suppoed by MRI findings in this case. Infiltration of the cerebellar vermis is ceainly seen in many cases of medulloblastoma, a tumor that arises from this midline cerebellar structure. However, this would lead to truncal ataxia and gait instability, not symptoms of increased intracranial pressure. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 30. Disturbances of Cerebrospinal Fluid and Its Circulation, Including Hydrocephalus, Pseudotumor Cerebri, and Low-Pressure Syndromes. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e. | Pathology | null | A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency depament after the acute onset of headache, vomiting, nuchal rigidity, and impaired mental status. MRI reveals a posterior fossa tumor that fills the 4th ventricle. Surgery is immediately staed, and intraoperative consultation leads to a "frozen section" diagnosis of medulloblastoma. Which of the following pathologic mechanisms most likely accounts for this child's clinical presentation?
A. Acute hemorrhage into the 4th ventricle
B. Alteration of medullary function
C. Increased intracranial pressure
D. Infiltration of the cerebellar vermis by the neoplasm
| Increased intracranial pressure |
e4fb8b5b-7cb0-4d48-ae7f-9a545ebd41ca | Ans. Heterochromic iridocyclitis of Fuch's | Ophthalmology | null | A young patient presents to the ophthalmic outpatient depament with gradual blurring of vision in the left eye. Slit lamp examination reveals fine stellate keratatic precipitates and aqueous flare and a typical complicated posterior subcapsular cataract. No posterior synechiae were observed. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Intermediate Uveitis (Pars plants)
B. Heerford's disease
C. Heterochromic iridocyclitis of Fuch's
D. Subacute Iridocyclitis
| Heterochromic iridocyclitis of Fuch's |
110280b5-b343-4166-b11e-9e4304dc6346 | A i.e. Ichtyosis vugaris Icthyosis vulgaris - Icthyosis vulgaris is autosomal dominant disorderQ, occurring due to reduced or absence of filaggrin protein and granular layerQ. It presents with dry scaly skin resembling fish (reptile or crocodile) skin K/a sauroderma. AD means one parent should also manifest disease. It is a congenital condition which is not present at bih but develops during first year of life. - Diy looking large mosaic like scales most commonly over anterior (extensor) surface of legs. Major flexors (axillae, groins, popliteal & cubital fossa) are always and face is usually spared; though cheeks & forehead may be rarely involved. Condition improves in humid & summers and deteriorates in winter. It may be associated with atopic diathesis, keratosis pilaris, hyper linear & exaggerated palm & sole creases, and occasionally, keratoderma. | Skin | null | Granular layer is absent in:
A. Ichtyosis vugaris
B. X linked ichthyosis
C. Epidermolytic hyper keratosis
D. Lamellar ichthyosis
| Ichtyosis vugaris |
f9a33b1f-fed6-4651-97f3-c649d6c04015 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., ThomasMethods of removal of organso Virchow's technique - organs are removed one by one. Crania] cavity is exposed first, followed by thoracic, cervical & abdominal organs.o Rokitansky rs technique - It involves in situ dissection in part, combined with en block removal,o Lettulle's technique - Cervical, thoracic, abdominal & pelvic organs are removed en masse & dissected as organ block. | Forensic Medicine | Medicolegal Autopsy | Which method is not used for autopsy -
A. Virchow
B. Rokitansky
C. Lettulle
D. Thomas
| Thomas |
46a7c121-014d-4cb4-a1a2-fa21ce769d66 | Shiga toxin also known as verotoxin, was first identified in a major cause of dysentry called Shigella dysentriae. Shiga toxin contains an enzymatic domain and 5 binding domains which bind to globotriaosylceramide (Gb3), a glycosphingolipid on the surface of cells and the complex is internalized. The internalized shiga toxin hydrolyse the ribosomes, preventing fuher protein synthesis. Shiga toxin is composed of two distinct peptide subunits: The first located on the larger A subnit is an N-glycosidase that hydrolyzes adenine from specific sites of ribosomal RNA of the mammalian 60s ribosomal subunit, irreversibly inhibiting protein synthesis. The second is a binding site on the B subunit that recognizes glycolipids of target cell membranes (glycolipid Gb 3). Ref: Toxins and Hemostasis: From Bench to Bedside By R.Manjunatha Kiri, Page 642-643 ; Textbook of Pathology By V. Krishna, Page 178 ; Interaction of Pathogenic Bacteria with Host Cells By Virginia L. Clark, Volume 236, Page 67 ; Microorganisms in foods 5: Microbiological Specifications of Food Pathogens By International Commission on Microbiological Specifications for Food, Page127 | Microbiology | null | Which of the following toxin acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?
A. Cholera toxin
B. LT of enterotoxigenic E.coli
C. Peusis toxin
D. Shiga toxin
| Shiga toxin |
7ec255e8-b782-4207-b83b-73f5412c309f | Ans. b (Hepatitis B) (Ref Robbins 7th/899; TABLE 18-7)Robbins 7th/B99HBV HISTOLOGY# HBV infected hepatocytes may exhibit a cytoplasm packed with spheres and tubules of HBsAg, producing a finely granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (GROUNDGLASS HEPATOCYTES).Key Morphologic Features of Viral HepatitisAcute Hepatitis (Enlarged. reddened liver: greenish if cholestatic)Parenchymal changes:Regenerative changes:Hepatocyte injury: swelling (ballooning degeneration)- hepatocyte proliferationCholestasis: canalicular bile plugs- Sinusoidal cell reactive changesHCV: mild focal fatty change of hepatocytes- Accum of phagocytosed debris in Kupffer cellsHepatocyte necrosis: isolated cells or clusters- Influx of mononuclear cells into sinusoidsCytolysis (rupture) or apoptosis (shrinkage)- Portal tracts: Inflammation: pred mononuclearIf severe: bridging necrosis (portal-portal, central-central, portal-central)- Inflammatory spillover into adj parenchymaLobular disarray: loss of normal architecture- hepatocyte necrosisChronic Hepatitis- Changes shared with acute hepatitis: Hepatocyte injury, necrosis, and regeneration- Sinusoidal cell reactive changes; Portal tracts:- Inflammation: Confined to portal tracts, or Spillover into adjacent parenchyma, with necrosis of hepatocytes (interface hepatitis); Bridging inflammation and necrosis- Fibrosis: Portal deposition, or Portal and periportal deposition, or Formation of bridging fibrous septa- HBV: "ground-glass" hepatocytes ; "sanded" nuclei- HCV: bile duct epithelial cell proliferation, lymphoid aggregate formation; Cirrhosis: The end-stage outcome | Pathology | Liver & Biliary Tract | "Groundglass hepatocytes" are seen in which of the following viral hepatitis?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
| Hepatitis B |
7d86d506-ac4d-4d4d-8019-f3ca69582d42 | Rathke's pouch develop at the roof of oral cavity from surface ectoderm to form most of pituitary . Posterior pituitary develops from diencephalon. Craniopharyngioma is a tumor that develop in the sella turcica. | Anatomy | FMGE 2017 | Tumour arising from Rathke's pouch is
A. Meningioma
B. Glioma
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Ependymoma
| Craniopharyngioma |
9efaf1cd-69c3-4d88-8809-de119893c58f | Most commonly used fluid for resuscitation in burns is ringer lactate. Some centres use human albumin solution or fresh-frozen plasma, and some centres use hypeonic saline. Intravenous resuscitation is indicated for children with a burn greater than 10% TBSA and adults with 15% TBSA. Parkland formula is the most widely used formula for calculating fluid replacement in the first 24 hours. The formula is Volume in ml = Total percentage body surface area x weight in kilograms x 4. Half of this volume is given in first 8 hours, and the second half is given in the subsequent 16 hours. In children, maintanence fluid is also given which is primarily dextrose saline. Ref: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 24th edn, Page 271-2 | Surgery | null | Intravenous resuscitation is required in a patient with 30% burns. Which of the following will be the best choice of fluid in the first 24 hours?
A. Normal saline
B. Dextrose 5%
C. Ringer lactate
D. Whole blood
| Ringer lactate |
d9d51e30-8b31-4138-97ad-73fa46c9199d | Ref Robbins 8/e p1159-1161;9/e p1135 Pheochromocytoma and their related counterpas in extra adrenal sites called paraganglioma, are notorious Because the only reliable indicator of metastasis potential is the presence of distant metastasis . Very malignant appearing tumors may not metastasize and benign appearing tumors may produces metastases . These tumors should all be considered " potentially malignant" . | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following criteria can be used to determine if a pheochromocytoma lesion is benign or malignant
A. Blood vessel invasion
B. Cannot be determined by microscopic examination
C. Hemorrhagic and necrosis
D. Nuclear pleomorphism
| Cannot be determined by microscopic examination |
31ddf634-052d-4e46-adff-ea8cc2ff6068 | RICKETTSIAL DISEASE CAUSE VECTOR RESERVOIR EPIDEMIC TYPHUS R. prowazekii Louse Man ENDEMIC TYPHUS R. typhi Flea Rodents SCRUB TYPHUS R. tsutsugamushi Trombiculid mite Rodents INDIAN TICK TYPHUS R. conori Tick Rodents RMSF R. ricketisii Tick Rodents R.POX R. akari Mite Rodents Q FEVER Coxiella - Cattle TRENCH FEVER Baonella Louse Man | Social & Preventive Medicine | VBDs, Arboviral & Viral Infections, Surface Infections | Rocky mountain spotted fever Cause and vector are:-
A. R. Akari and mite
B. R. Conori and tick
C. R. Rickettsii and tick
D. R. Prowazekii and louse
| R. Rickettsii and tick |
42d6d9d0-8c2d-4d9d-8883-f85610e59c3f | Ans. is d, i.e. 120 hoursRef: Shaw 15th/ed, p237; Current Concepts in Contraception and Women Death, pl05, Leon Speroff8th/ed, p1042The standard recommendation is to start emergency contraceptive not later than 72 hours. The greatest protection is offered, if it is taken within 12 hours, as postponing the dose by 12 hours raises the chances of pregnancy by almost 50%.For this reason, the treatment should be initiated as soon as possible after sexual exposure.Note: But here the question says - till how long are ECs effective or till how long can they be administered. - Ref: Shaw 14th/ed, p213 says"The tables can be offered up to 120 hours, but its efficacy decreases with the longer coital - drug interval.""Treatment should be initiated as soon after exposure as possible, and the standard recommendation is that it be no later than 120 h." - Ref: Leon Speroff 8th/ed, p1042 According to current concepts in contraception's and women health alsoEmergency contraception can be given up to 5 days.This is because"Emergency contraception is not an abortifacient i.e. it will not act after implantation has occured. This is also the basis for the window period of 5 days for use effectiveness of EC, as the whole process from deposition of sperms to implantation takes about 5 days." - Ref: Current Concepts in Contraception and Women Health p108 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraceptives | Emergency contraceptives are effective if administered within following period after unprotected intercourse:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 120 hours
| 120 hours |
1d306e41-d04e-45fd-b435-41f6c07fdda1 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 150-200 litresThe basic physiological requirements for drinking water have been estimated at about 2 litres per head per day.A daily supply of 150-200 litres per capita is considered as an adequate supply to meet the needs for all urban domestic purposes. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Adequate Total per capita water for Urban domestic purposes?
A. 50-100 Liters
B. 100-150 Liters
C. 150-200 Liters
D. 200-250 Liters
| 150-200 Liters |
47c1fa8d-0ab7-41db-9250-a26de1e35027 | Autoimmune skin disorders
Autoimmune bullous skin disorders
Pemphigus
Bullous pemphigoid
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Lichen planus
Lichen planus is believed to be an autoimmune disorder as it often occurs concurrently with other autoimmune disorders like primary biliary cirrhosis, diabetes, chronic active hepatitis.
Psoriasis
The theory that psoriasis is an autoimmune disorder is based on the fact that scientist have found an abnormally large number of T cells in the patch of psoriasis.
Autoimmune connective tissue disorders
Lupus erythematosus
Dermatomyositis
Scleroderma
Mixed connective tissue disease
Bechet's disease | Dental | null | An autoimmune disease is – a) Pemphigus vulgarisb) Psoriasisc) Lichen planusd) Acne vulgaris
A. abc
B. bc
C. acd
D. bcd
| abc |
a677f0a3-b6b2-42d3-908b-0c1d30c5e1ae | (A) Umbilical vein SOME FREQUENTLY ASKED REMNANTS* Ductus arteriosusLigamentum arteriosum* Ductus venosusLigamentum venosum* Left umbilical veinLigamentum teres of liver* Right umbilical veinDisappears* Vitello-intestinal ductMeckel's diverticulum* Wolffian ductGartner duct> After obliteration, the umbilical vein forms the ligamentum teres and the ductus venosus becomes ligamentum venosum. | Anatomy | Misc. | Ligamentum teres is the remnant of
A. Umbilical vein
B. Portal vein
C. Ductus venosus
D. Umbilical artery
| Umbilical vein |
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