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b0941911-2f3b-4e96-9e75-3adfb1156dc2 | Coenzyme Q (CoQ) is a quinone derivative with a long, hydrophobic isoprenoid tail. It is also called ubiquinone because it is ubiquitous in biologic systems. CoQ is a mobile carrier and can accept hydrogen atoms both from FMNH2, produced on NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) and from FADH2, produced on succinate dehydrogenase (Complex II).Ref: Harpers Biochemistry; 30th edition | Biochemistry | Respiratory chain | Coenzyme required for tissue respiration is
A. Coenzyme Q
B. Coenzyme A
C. NADP
D. Cobamide
| Coenzyme Q |
f5a7bf26-0527-4fb8-a48b-8d715ee2c967 | XDR-TB (Extensively drug-resistant TB) is defined as MDR TB (Resistant to rifampicin and isoniazid) + Resistant to one fluoroquinolone (eg. ofloxacin) + resistance to one injectable second line drug (Amikacin or kanamycin or capreomycin). Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Bacteriology | A patient presents with fever, cough with sputum and weight loss. He has a history of not completing treatment for tuberculosis thrice in the past. XDR-TB is suspected. How is XDR-Tb defined?
A. Resistant to INH + Rifampicin + Amikacin
B. Resistant to INH + Amikacin + Ofloxacin + Ethambutol
C. Resistant to INH + Rifampicin + Amikacin + Ofloxacin
D. Resistant to Rifampicin + Amikacin+ Ofloxacin
| Resistant to INH + Rifampicin + Amikacin + Ofloxacin |
bbbd4c9a-a388-4111-8a1f-f30c2a9b90b7 | Ans. is A ie. ERCP The first inv. for any pt. with cholelithiasis or jaundice is U/S. Next inv. depends on U/S findings, If the intrahepatic ducts are dilated without any extrahepatic dilatation then the preferred inv. is ----> PTC* If the dilatation is in CBD ---> ERCP*. ERCP may provide direct diagnosis of the distal CBD pathology and may be therapeutic as well for a CBD stone or stricture. | Surgery | null | Ramu, presents with recurrent attacks of cholelithiasis, U/S examination shows a dilated CBD of 1 cm. The next line of management is ?
A. ERCP
B. PTC
C. Cholecystostomy
D. Intravenous cholangiogram
| ERCP |
5a3bf5e9-5210-4a40-87e2-60bcbe1a2e2d | Conduction speed in cardiac tissue: Tissue Conduction Rate SA node 0.05 Atrial pathways 1 AV node 0.05 Bundle of His 1 Purkinje system 4 Ventricular muscle 1 Purkinje fibers also have the ability of firing at a rate of 15-40 beats per minute if upstream conduction or pacemaking ability is compromised. In contrast, the SA node in normal state can fire at 60-100 beats per minute. In sho, they generate action potentials, but at a slower rate than sinoatrial node. This capability is normally suppressed. Thus, they serve as the last reso when other pacemakers fail. When a Purkinje fiber does fire, it is called a premature ventricular contraction or PVC, or in other situations can be a ventricular escape. It plays a vital role in the circulatory system. Reference: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology; 25th edition; Page no: 522 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | A 50 year old male patient came with the complaint of palpitations. Examination of pulse revealed irregular heabeat and advised ECG recording. Spread of cardiac impulse is fastest in which of the following structure
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibre
| Purkinje fibre |
17ca54f6-b5fe-42da-8454-8cd4b093151f | Golgi tendon organs are in series with the muscle fibers, they are stimulated by both passive stretch and active contraction of the muscle, when tension increases inside muscle. | Physiology | null | Golgi tendon apparatus conveys message to CNS, depends upon:
A. Tension in muscle
B. Length of muscle
C. Rapidity of contraction
D. Blood supply
| Tension in muscle |
a5686bd1-7bae-432c-ab49-7fdb6b5dd353 | Since this patient has developed gangrene of the toe ankle to brachial presure ratio should be less than 0.3. Ratio of ankle to brachial systolic pressure (ankle brachial index) is obtained to determine the presence and magnitude of occlusive disease. The ankle brachial index of 0.9 - 1.0 indicates normalcy or minimal aerial occlusive disease. ABI of 0-5 -0.9 signifies claudication level. ABI less than 0.5 signifies presence of ischemic rest pain or severe occlusive aerial disease. ABI less than 0.3 is compatible with trophic changes over the lower extremity. | Surgery | null | An adult patient presents with leg pain. On examination there is gangrene of his toe. What would be the ankle to brachial aerial pressure ratio in this patient ?
A. 1
B. 0.3
C. 0.5
D. 0.8
| 0.3 |
ec880431-82ce-4ae4-872d-5eb8081d2d2d | Ans is (c) i.e Candida Paraspilosis Ref Clin MicroHol Rev. Oct 2008: 21(4): 606-625 Candida parapsilosis is an emerging major human pathogen that has dramatically increased in significance and prevalence over the past 2 decades, such that C. parapsilosis is now the second leading causes of invasive candidal disease. Individuals at the highest risk for severe infection include neonates and patients in intensive care units. C. parapsilosis infections are especially associated with hyperalimentation solutions, prosthetic devices, and indwelling catheters, as well as the nosocomial spread of disease through the hands of health care workers. Factors involved in disease pathogenesis include the secretion of hydrolytic enzymes, adhesion to prosthetics, and biofilm formation. Impoant Points about Candida parapsilosis Candida species are presently the fouh leading cause of nosocomial bloodstream infection. Candida albicans is the most frequent isolate from blood cultures followed by Candida parapsilosis C. parapsilosis does not form true hyphae and exists in either a yeast phase or a pseudohyphal form. C. parapsilosis is notorious for its capacity to grow in total parenteral nutrition and to form biofilms on catheters and other implanted devices, for nosocomial spread by hand carriage. C. parapsilosis is of special concern in critically ill neonates, causing more than one-quaer of all invasive fungal infections in low-bih-weight infants. Additionally, it is the predominant fungal organism isolated in many neonatal intensive care units (NICUs), where it is often associated with neonatal moality C. parapsilosis is also a normal human commensal, and it is one of the fungi most frequently isolated from the subungal space of human hands C. parapsilosis fungemia can lead to seeding of tissues, resulting in deep-seated infections, and has a moality rate ranging from 4% to 45% Compared to C. albicans, C. parapsilosis more frequently caused fungemia among neonates, in patients with intravenous lines or vascular catheters, who had received prior antifungal agents, were on parenteral nutrition, or had undergone transplantation. | Microbiology | null | The infection that is spreading to the newborn by caregivers?
A. Candida albicans
B. Candia galbrata
C. Candida parapsilosis
D. Candida tropicans
| Candida parapsilosis |
9d5ec875-763a-40b9-bb80-84ecebf800b1 | Optic tract fibers project to the superior colliculi for reflex gazesPretectal area for the light reflexSuprachiasmatic nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus for generation of circadian rhythms | Microbiology | All India exam | Optic tract fibers project to the superior colliculi for
A. Reflex gazes
B. Light reflex
C. Generation of circadian rhythms
D. Veical nystagmus
| Reflex gazes |
4271fa97-23ea-418a-a877-51c7a213b1b7 | Voluntary sexual intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman, or animal is an unnatural sexual offence (Section 377 I.P.C). Penetration is sufficient to constitute the offence. These offences are punishable with imprisonment for life or upto ten years and also with fine. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 27th edition, Page 363. | Forensic Medicine | null | Which of the following deals with section 377, I.P.C?
A. Unnatural sex offences
B. Rape
C. Incest
D. Adultery
| Unnatural sex offences |
2646edf5-8673-4dbe-b0bf-4cdf36be73ff | Implicit memory is subdivided into 4 types. Procedural memory includes skills and habits, which one acquired become unconscious and automatic. Priming is facilitation of recognition of words or objects by prior exposure to them. Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg: 290 | Physiology | Nervous system | Striatum damage affects priming
A. Procedural memory
B. Sho term memory
C. Long term memory
D. Explicit memory
| Procedural memory |
18843a5c-d0aa-4479-be20-b31105595dc0 | (D) Buccinator > The facial nerve contributes to the oropharyngeal phase of deglutition via the buccinator, perioral, digastricus posterior, and stylohyoid muscles. The gustatory and salivatory functions of the facial nerve are also known to contribute to swallowing.> The relation between peripheral facial nerve palsy (PFP) and swallowing dysfunction has never been studied systematically | Medicine | Miscellaneous | In facial palsy, food accumulated in the mouth due to paralysis of
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Mentalis
D. Buccinator
| Buccinator |
75486946-8808-41b9-b03e-9ed065ccb9d2 | ANSWER: (D) Pyridoxal phosphateREF: Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry 4th edition page 562Pyridoxal phosphate is an essential cofactor in the glycogen phosphorylase reaction; itsphosphate group acts as a general acid catalyst, promoting attack by Pi on the glycosidic bond. (This is an unusual role for this cofactor; its more typical role is as a cofactor in amino acid metabolism)Flavin mononucleotide (FMN), or riboflavin-5'-phosphate, is a biomolecule produced from riboflavin (vitamin B2) by the enzyme riboflavin kinase and functions as prosthetic group of various oxidoreductases including NADH dehydrogenase as well as cofactor in biological blue- light photo receptors | Biochemistry | Glycogen Metabolism and Glycogen Storage | Glycogen phosphorylase coenzyme associated is?
A. Thiamine pyrophosphate
B. Tetrahydrofolate
C. Flavin mononuleotide
D. Pyridoxal phosphate
| Pyridoxal phosphate |
6decd79e-783c-41f9-92b7-e0b6e1528838 | Recommended norms of 450 Kcal and 12 g protein for a minimum of 200 days Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno :661 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health programmes in India | The minimum number of feeding days in a year recommended, under Mid-day meal programme is
A. 200
B. 250
C. 300
D. 350
| 250 |
48e79fac-305f-4e93-bd07-958b7264b734 | Most characteristic - Capillary aneurysm. | Ophthalmology | null | Most characteristic eye lesion in diabetes is
A. Papilledema
B. Proptosis
C. Capillary aneurysm
D. Cataract
| Capillary aneurysm |
6264db2a-a94d-4806-a0d7-23cba0aeb0f7 | Perforations. They may be central, attic or marginal and are associated with chronic otitis media The most common site of Tympanic membrane perforation is antero-inferior quadrant. Ref : Diseases of ENT by Dhingra 6th edition Pgno : 56,71 | ENT | Ear | The most common site of perforation in tympanic membrane is
A. Antero inferior
B. Postero inferior
C. Postero superior
D. Antero superior
| Antero inferior |
b27f4464-a60d-442f-ae18-be672caa02e9 | Paradoxical carrier - A person gets infected from another carrier and himself becomes Carrier. Carriers are of 6 major types: Content carrier - Carrier gets infection from a case Paradoxical carrier - Carrier gets infection from another carrier Chronic carrier - Carrier for duration of more than 6 months Incubatory carrier - can transmit the agent during the incubation period before clinical illness begins. Convalescent carrier - can transmit the agent during recovery phase Pseudo carrier - asymptomatic carrier with avirulent organismsm.( no need to worry about it) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Other Key Definitions & Concepts | A carrier who gets infected from another carrier is known as:-
A. Incubatory carrier
B. Paradoxical carrier
C. Convalescent carrier
D. Pseudo carrier
| Paradoxical carrier |
0d491b97-af0c-41f5-9ff9-caed29402111 | Answer- C. Whipple's SurgeryWhipples operation (Pancreaticoduodenectomy) is the most commonly performed operation for carcinoma of head of Pancreas. | Surgery | null | Which is the treatment of choice for CA head of pancreas
A. Radiotherapy
B. Chemotherapy+ Radiotherapy
C. Whipple's Surgery
D. Resection of the entire pancreas with adjuvant chemotherapy
| Whipple's Surgery |
b58e17c9-2829-4884-8708-e7c1b762dc20 | Presence of thick uniform coating of smegma under prepuce and around corona glandis is suggestive of absence of inter course (vaginal or anal) within the last 24 hours since it gets rubbed off during the sexual act.
However, its an unreliable sign with no medicolegal value as its presence or absence depends on personal hygiene. | Forensic Medicine | null | An accused in a case of sodomy is brought for Medical Examination. On detailed questioning, he reveals that he is an active agent and is a regular participant. Which of the following will not be seen during the examination of the accused -
A. Presence of smegma
B. Fecal smell
C. Tear of Frenulum
D. Relative constriction of shaft of penis
| Presence of smegma |
df13d382-364f-440a-82f1-c14fb4f02a4b | Ans.: D {Large bore needls puncture of thorax) (Ref Harrison 17th/1660; Oxford Textbook of Surgery'/1932}The young lady from the case history is suffering from tension pneumothorax.The immediate management of such patient should be large bore neelds punctureQ of thorax through second anterior intercostals space to save the life- Oxford Textbook of Surgery/1932X-ray is used for confirmation of diagnosis, but urgent order is not requiredABC & HRCT is not necessaryFig.: Needle Insertion & thoracostomy tubeTension Pneumothorax Harrison I7th/1660# This condition usually occurs during mechanical ventilation or resuscitative efforts.The positive pleural pressure is life-threateningQ both because ventilation is severely compromised and because the positive pressure is transmitted to the mediastinum, which results in decreased venous return to the heart and reduced cardiac output.Difficulty in ventilation during resuscitation or high peak inspiratory pressures during mechanical ventilation strongly suggests the diagnosis.The diagnosis is made by physical examinationQ showing an enlarged hemithorax with no breath sounds, hvperresonance to percussion, and shift of the mediastinum to the contralateral side.Tension pneumothorax must be treated as a medical emergencyQIf the tension in the pieural space is not relieved, the patient is likely to die from inadequate cardiac output or marked hypoxemia.A large-bore needleQ should be inserted into the pleural space through the second anterior intercostal space. If large amounts of gas escape from the needle after insertion, the diagnosis is confirmed. The needle should be left in place until a thoracostomy tube can be inserted | Medicine | Pulmonary Diagnostic Procedures | 30 yea raid female comes with acute breathelessness, neck vein distension, absent breath sounds and mediastinal shift. Which of the following should be done immediately: (PGI June 2008)
A. HRCT Ls the investigation of choice
B. ABG analysis should be done
C. CXR
D. Large bore needle puncture of pleura
| Large bore needle puncture of pleura |
dda71056-4f4e-4390-9441-65fb030682bb | Drug allergies are the most significant allergic reactions occurring in HIV-infected patients and appear to become more common as the disease progresses. Anaphylaxis is extremely rare in patients with HIV infection, and patients who have a cutaneous reaction during a single course of therapy can still be considered candidates for future treatment or prophylaxis with the same agent. The one exception to this is the nucleoside analog abacavir, where fatal hypersensitivity reactions have been repoed with rechallenge. This hypersensitivity is strongly associated with the HLA-B5701 haplotype, and a hypersensitivity reaction to abacavir is an absolute contraindication to future therapy. Ref: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 226; Human Immunodeficiency Virus Disease: AIDS and Related Disorders; Page no: 1260 | Medicine | Immune system | HLA gene for abacavir hypersensitivity is?
A. B5
B. B51
C. DQ2
D. B57
| B57 |
43d4126c-e798-40cb-8380-1bfb87095fe2 | Ans. D. IL-1. (Ref Robbins Basic Pathology 8th/ Table 2-6).IL-1: fever.IL-2: stimulates T cells.IL-3: stimulates bone marrow.IL-4: stimulates IgE production.IL-5: stimulates IgA production.IL-6: stimulates acute-phase protein production.IL-8: recruites Neutrophils. Tumor Necrosis Factor and Interleukin-1# TNF and IL-1 are producedby activated macrophages, as well as mast cells, endothelial cells, and some other cell types.# Their secretion is stimulatedby microbial products, such as bacterial endotoxin, immune complexes, and products of T lymphocytes generated during adaptive immune responses.# The principal role of these cytokines in inflammation is in endothelial activation.# Both TNF and IL-1 stimulate the expression of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells, resulting in increased leukocyte binding and recruitment, and enhance the production of additional cytokines (notably chemokines) and eicosanoids.# TNF also increases the thrombogenicity of endothelium and causes aggregation and activation of neutrophils, and# IL-1 activates tissue fibroblasts, resulting in increased proliferation and production of ECM.- Although TNF and IL-1 are secreted by macrophages and other cells at sites of inflammation, they may enter the circulation and act at distant sites to induce the systemic acute-phase reaction that is often associated with infection and inflammatory diseases.- Components of this reaction include fever, lethargy, hepatic synthesis of various acute-phase proteins, metabolic wasting (cachexia), neutrophil release into the circulation, and release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (inducing corticosteroid synthesis and release). Role of Mediators in Different Reactions of InflammationVasodilationProstaglandins. Nitric oxide, HistamineIncreased vascular permeabilityHistamine and serotonin, C3a and C5a (by liberating vasoactive amines from mast cells, other cells), Bradykinin, Leukotrienes C4, D4, E4, PAF, Substance PLeukocyte recruitment and activationTNF, IL-1, Chemokines, C3a, C5a, Leukotriene B4 (Bacterial products, e.g., N-formyl methyl peptides)Fever0IL-1, TNF, ProstaglandinsPainProstaglandins, Bradykinin, NeuropeptidesTissue damageLysosomal enzymes of leukocytes, Reactive oxygen species, Nitric oxide CytokineCellular sourceTraget cellsBiologic effectsIL-1Monocytes and macrophagesT cells, B cells neuronsCostimulator pyrogenIL-2Tumor cells T cells (TH1)Endothelial cells T cellsB cellsNK cellsGrowthActivation and antibody productionActivation and growthIL-3T cellsImmature hemopoietic stem cellGrowth and differentiationIL-4T cells (TH2)B cellsActivation and growth; isotype switch to IgE; increased MHCII expression T cellsGrowthIL-6Monocytes and macrophages T cells, B cells Ovarian cancer cells Other tumors tumor cellsB cellsT cellsHepatocytesStem cell Autocrine/paracrine growth and viability-enhancing factorDifferentiation, antibody productionCostimulatorInduction of acute-phase responseGrowth and differentiationIL-10T cells (TH2)Monocytes and macrophagesT cells (Th1)Monocytes and macrophagesInhibition of cytokine synthesisInhibition of Ag presentiation and cytokine production B cellsAcivationIL-12MonocytesNK cells, T cells (TH1)InductionIL-13T cells (TH2), mast cells, NK cellsBcells, TH2 cells, macrophagesRegulates IgE secretion by B cell TH2developmentMacrophage activityIL-15Dendritic cells, monocytes, placenta, kidney, lung, heart, TcellsMast cellsNK cell development and functionMast cell proliferation11-16CD4+ and CD8+ T cells, eosinophils, mast cells, dendritic cellsT cells, monocytes, dendritic cells, eosinophilsPrevent antigen-induced T-cell death, chemotactic factor for CD4= T cells, monocytes, eosinophils, dendritic cellsIL-17Acivated CD4+ T cellsT cell, fibrobiastsT-cell activation Induces secretion ofcytokiness by fibroblastsIL-27Monocytes, macrophagesCD4+ T cellsProliferation of naive CD4+ T cells, synergizes with IL-12IFN-YT cells (TH1) NK cellsMonocytes/ macrophagesNK cells, T cells, B cellsActivationAcivation Enhanves responsesTNF-aMonocytes and macrophages T cellsMonokine productionCostimulator pyrogenMonocytes/ macrophages T cells, B cells Neurons Endothelial cells Muscle and fat cellsActivation, inflammationCatabolism/cachexiaAdditional Educational points:# The major cytokines in acute inflammation are TNF and IL-1, as well as a group of chemoattractant cytokines called chemokines. Other cytokines that are more important in chronic inflammation include interferon-? (IFN-?) and IL-12.# Chemokines are classified into four groups based on the arrangement of highly conserved cysteine residues. The two major groups are the CXC and CC chemokines:- CXC chemokines have one amino acid separating the conserved cysteines and act primarily on neutrophils.* IL-8 is typical of this group; it is produced by activated macrophages, endothelial cells, mast cells, and fibroblasts, mainly in response to microbial products and other cytokines such as IL-1 and TNF.- CC chemokines have adjacent cysteine residues and include:* monocyte chemoattractant protein 1 (MCP-1) and macrophage inflammatory protein 1? (MIP-1?) (both chemotactic predominantly for monocytes),* RANTES (regulated on activation normal T expressed and secreted) (chemotactic for memory CD4+ T cells and monocytes), and* eotaxin (chemotactic for eosinophils). | Pathology | Cellular Pathology | Major Pyrogenic cytokine:
A. INF alpha
B. TNF beta
C. IL-3
D. IL-1
| IL-1 |
ccb0fa34-a5f0-4130-a90e-5ad3b9e86baa | Since systemic blood is shunted toxins ( NH3) travel to brain
causing encephalopathy. Hence TIPSS is contra indicated in
encephalopathy patients. | Surgery | null | Most common Complication of TIPSS procedure
A. Heart failure
B. Hepatic Encephalopathy
C. Thrombosis
D. Recurrent Variceal bleed
| Hepatic Encephalopathy |
e5a36c5b-f3d3-4821-9b9a-95c359f2da7c | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 389)*Schirmer's test is used for the production of tear by lacrimal glands*Preganglion secretory fibers for lacrimal gland arise from the lacrimatory nucleus and pass through the facial nerve, then to its greater petrosal branch. Greater petrosal nerve forms nerve to the pterygoid canal to reach pterygopalatine ganglion. Postganglionic fibers supply lacrimal gland*Thus, lesion in any structure of this pathway will have positive Schirmer's test | Ophthalmology | Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus | Schirmer's test detects abnormality of which nerve?
A. Oculomotor
B. Facial
C. Hypoglossal
D. Glossopharyngeal
| Facial |
158988b2-226d-405b-9a6b-cbaabf5bb35f | Ans b (Optic neuritis)Ophthalmic complication of OCP central retinal artery occlusion prethrombosis of central retinal vein perivasculitis, inflammation of anterior segment of the eye ' macular hemorrage Papillitis & lesions of optic nerve causing variable degree of visual loss | Surgery | Miscellaneous | OCP are associated with which of the following complication (Repeat 2009)
A. Papilledema
B. optic neuritis
C. colourblindness
D. Papillitis
| optic neuritis |
d92e085f-2ba7-492f-a16a-4501bc3bbb88 | Complex IV inhibitors i. Carbon monoxide, inhibits cellular respiration ii. Cyanide (CN-) iii. Azide (N3-) iv. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)Ref: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 234 | Biochemistry | Respiratory chain | Hydrogen sulphide acts on which complex of cytochrome oxidase
A. Comlex I
B. Comlex II
C. Comlex III
D. Comlex IV
| Comlex IV |
f9f4492a-f37a-4fa1-bd32-b3bd0d11c54e | A. i.e. Femoral aery Femoral aery traverses the femoral triangle from its base (which is formed by inguinal ligament - attached between ASIS and Pubic tubercle) at midinguinal pointQDeep inguinal ring lies 1/2 inch above midinguinal pointQ; Superficial inguinal ring lies I/2 inch bellow midinguinal point; and Saphenous opening lies 4 cm below & lateral to the pubic tubercle. | Anatomy | null | Which structure lies midway between the ASIS & pubic symphysis :
A. Femoral aery
B. Deep inguinal ring
C. Superior epigastric aery
D. Inguinal ligament
| Femoral aery |
cea2d2a7-48c6-4d56-8338-b6634634b04b | Anti-HBV appears in serum a week or two after the appearance of HBsAg. It is therfore the earliest antibody marker to be seen in blood? long before anti-HBe or anti-HBs. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-546 | Microbiology | Virology | First antibody to appear in hepatitis -
A. IgM anti-Hbe
B. IgG-anti-Hbe
C. IgM-anti-HBc
D. IgM anti-HBs
| IgM-anti-HBc |
5fe7dbf2-be56-46fd-b6c2-b12c4d79bdc4 | Answer- B. Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN)Microscopic polyangiitis (microscopic polyaeritis, hypersensitivity, or leukocytoclastic vasculitis): This type of necrotizing vasculitis generally affects aerioles, capillaries, and venule.Wegener granulomatosis (Granulomatosis with polyangitis)- is a necrotizing vasculitis characterized by th e triad ofacute necrotizing granulomasnecrotizing or granulomatous vasculitisrenal disease in the form of focal necrotizing often crescentic, glomerulitis"Churg- Strauss syndrome(allergic granulumatosis and angiitis) is a multisystem diseases with cutaneous involvement gastrointestinal tract bleeding, and renal disease. | Medicine | null | In which of the following vasculitis lung involvement does not occur:
A. Eosoniphilic granulomatosis with vasculitis
B. Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN)
C. Microscopic polyangitis
D. Granulomatosis with polyangitis
| Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN) |
0478a4df-b4ed-4f30-bf70-9784ed2bb589 | Ans. (B) Scopolamine hydrochloride(Ref: J Psychiatry and Law 1993:3:447-471)Controlled administration of intravenous hypnotics to obtain information from subjects who are unable or unwilling to provide it otherwise, is known as Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis.Drugs used for narcoanalysis are:[?]Ethanol[?]Scopolamine[?]Temazepam[?]Barbiturates like Thiopentone and AmobarbitalThese drugs are also known as truth drug or truth serum.Phenobarbitone is not used, rather amobarbital is used for narcoanalysis. | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | Which of the following drug is commonly used in narcoanalysis?
A. Atropine sulfate
B. Scopolamine hydrochloride
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Morphine
| Scopolamine hydrochloride |
d5fb003c-5207-42ef-a555-7516354d027b | Phagocytic cells are: neutrophils monocytes macrophages | Pathology | Oxygen dependent bacterial killing | The function common to neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages is:
A. Immune response is reduced
B. Phagocytosis
C. Liberation of histamine
D. Destruction of old erythrocytes
| Phagocytosis |
b0b42625-73ea-4b87-982d-33420f1e3069 | The okasaki fragments that are sho segments of DNA formed on the lagging strand of DNA in the 5'-3' direction are joined by DNA ligase. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 347-8 | Biochemistry | null | Which of the following enzyme is involved in rejoining sho fragments of DNA on the lagging strand?
A. DNA Ligases
B. DNA Helicase
C. DNA Topoisomerase
D. DNA Polymerase
| DNA Ligases |
f410b51f-3c6d-4813-a290-b90540b2a917 | Ans. (b) StreptomycinRef : KDT 6th ed. / 743-44* Streptomycin has been assigned to pregnancy category D by the FDA.* Streptomycin crosses the placenta; reported cord concentrations have been equal to or less than the mothers serum concentration.* There are reports of fetal eighth cranial nerve damage with subsequent bilateral deafness. Most authorities, including the Centers for Disease Control and the American Thoracic Society, discourage the use of streptomycin during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal ototoxicity. | Pharmacology | Adverse Drug Effect | Ototoxicity caused by:
A. Vancomycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Ampicillin
D. Rifampicin
| Streptomycin |
e6d005fa-9ea5-4df0-a98a-976aa3254954 | (Refer: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8thedition, pg no: 709) | Unknown | null | Goodpasture syndrome has antibodies against:
A. Collagen 1
B. G-y or x-y of collagen
C. Collagen 4
D. Collagen 2
| Collagen 4 |
c26ebb3c-2829-447d-a540-1e885f643b75 | DNA synthesis is always into 5&; to 3&; direction in both strands The strand which is discontinuously synthesized is referred to as the &;lagging strand &; otherwise called the retrograde strand The small DNA molecules attached to its own primer RNA are called Okazaki fragments The synthesis along the lagging strand is in 5&; to 3&; directionRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 580, 581 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids | Okazaki fragments are found during
A. Replication
B. Translation
C. Translocation
D. Transcription
| Replication |
4c909f2f-cf54-49da-af5a-576474205b13 | As discussed in the text in Table 1.1 face-to-pubis delivery is common in anthropoid pelvis. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which type of pelvis is associated with increased incidence of 'face to pubis' delivery:
A. Gynaecoid pelvis
B. Anthropoid pelvis
C. Android pelvis
D. Platypelloid pelvis
| Anthropoid pelvis |
e6913561-9a1a-4f1b-b774-c718f0624fdb | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD4 T-cells * The receptor for the virus is the CD4 antigen on surface. The cells affected are :# CD4 T Cells (major target)# B lymphocytes# Monocytes and macrophages# Langerhans cells in dermis# Glial cells and microglia in the CNS# Follicular dendritic cells from tonsils can be infected by HIV without the involvement of CD4 | Microbiology | Virology | HIV primarily replications in which cells -
A. CD4T-cells
B. CD8 T-cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Follicular dendritic cells
| CD4T-cells |
02f45a16-1b7d-4bf5-a2b5-247ed39f7c33 | Ans. b. Anthrax (Ref: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0">According to The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923, Anthrax is considered an occupational disease.List of Occupational Diseases as per Employee Compensation Act 1923 (Workmen Compensation Act, 1923)Part APart BPart C* Infectious and parasitic diseases contracted in an occupation where there is a particular risk of contamination (Anthrax)* Diseases caused by work in compressed air* Diseases caused by lead or its toxic compounds* Poisoning by nitrous fumes* Poisoning by organophosphorus compounds.* Diseases caused by phosphorus or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by mercury or its toxic compounds* Diseases caused by benzene or its toxic homologues.* Diseases caused by nitro and amido toxic derivatives of benzene or its homologues.* Diseases caused by chromium, or its toxic compounds* Diseases caused by arsenic or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by radioactive substances or radiations.* Primary epitheliomatous cancer of the skin, caused by tar, pitch, bitumen, mineral oil, anthracence, or the compounds, products or residues of these substances.* Disease caused by the toxic halogen derivatives of hydrocarbons (of the aliphatic and aromatic series).* Diseases caused by carbon disulphide.* Occupational cataract due to infrared radiations.* Diseases caused by manganese or its toxic compounds.* Skin diseases caused by physical, chemical or biological agents not included in other items.* Hearing impairment caused by noise.* Poisoning by dinitrophenol or a homologue or by substituted or by the salts of such substances.* Diseases caused by beryllium or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by cadmium or its toxic compounds.* Occupational asthma caused by recognized sensitizing agents inherent to the work process.* Diseases caused by fluorine or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by nitroglycerine or other nitro acid esters.* Diseases caused by alcohols and ketones.* Diseases caused by asphyxiant carbon monoxide, and its toxic derivatives, hydrogen sulphide.* Lung cancer and mesotheliomas caused by asbestos.* Primary neoplasm of the epithelial lining of the urinary bladder or the kidney or the ureter.* Snow blindness in snow bound areas.* Disease due to effect of cold in extreme cold climate.* Pneumoconiosis caused by sclerogenic mineral dust silicosis, anthracosilicosis, asbestosis) and silicotubercuiosis provided that silicosis is an essential factor in causing the resultant incapacity or death.* Bagassosis* Bronchopulmonary diseases caused by cotton, flax hemp and sisal dust (Byssinosis).* Extrinsic allergic alveolitis caused by the inhalation of organic dusts.* Bronchopulmonary disease caused by hard metals.* Acute pulmonary edema of high altitude. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Occupational Health | According to The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923, which of the following is considered an occupational disease?
A. Typhoid
B. Anthrax
C. Tetanus
D. Dengue
| Anthrax |
9aa277e2-6952-40e5-986a-84c7b302b2dc | TB causes chronic granulomatous uveitis.
Staphylococcus and streptococcus cause acute non-granulomatous pyogenic uveitis. | Ophthalmology | null | Uveitis is caused by –a) TBb) Staphylococcusc) Streptococcusd) Klebsiellae) E.Coli
A. ab
B. abc
C. acd
D. bcd
| abc |
a7580720-1bf3-4102-854b-63c89c138c62 | Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is an X-linked platelet/immunologic disorder caused by mutations in the WASP gene. The triad of eczema, recurrent infections, and microthrombocytopenia that characterizes WAS only occurs in 27% of the cases. The immunologic defects include low serum concentrations of IgM, while IgA and IgG are normal and IgE is frequently increased. Ref: The Elements of Immunology By Fahim Halim Khan, 2009, Page 413 ; Harrison's 17th ed chapter 310 | Medicine | null | A patient presents with thrombocytopenia, eczema and recurrent infections. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
B. A beta gammaglobulinemia
C. Chediak higashi syndrome
D. Lazy leukocyte syndrome
| Wiskott Aldrich syndrome |
84797bc4-0406-4d41-a130-f79e456161ef | Baby in the above mentioned case scenario is showing signs and symptoms of multiple carboxylase deficiency such as dermatitis severe metabolic acidosis, organic acid excretion. Ref: Essentials of Pediatrics By Nelson, 16th Edition, Pages 356 ; The Embryo: Scientific Discovery and Medical Ethics By Shraga Blazer, Page 246 ; NORD Guide to Rare Disorders: National Organization for Rare Disorders, Page 483 | Biochemistry | null | A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, ketosis organic acids in urine with normal ammonia; likely diagnosis is:
A. Proprionic aciduria
B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
| Multiple carboxylase deficiency |
ef7b70d9-9605-46ad-b894-73476befdceb | (B) Urea & Pyrimidine # Biosynthesis of urea begins with the condensation of CC>2, NHs and ATP to form carbamoyl phosphate, a reaction catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthase I which is a mitochondrial enzyme, and rate limiting or pacemaker enzyme and the enzyme is active only in the presence of its allosteric activator N-acetylglutamate, which enhances the affinity of synthase for ATP. | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | Carbamoyl phosphate intermediates the synthesis of
A. Urea
B. Urea & Pyrimidine
C. Uric acid
D. Ketone body
| Urea & Pyrimidine |
9e307cf2-906c-4880-9c66-434b8ab8685f | The three canals lie at right angles to each other but the one which lies at right angles to the axis of rotation is stimulated the most.Thus horizontal canal will respond maximum to the rotation on the veical axis. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE and THROAT by PL Dhingra; 6th edition; page no.17) | ENT | Ear | Horizontal semicircular canal responds to
A. Horizontal acceleration
B. Rotational acceleration
C. Gravity
D. Antero-posterior acceleration
| Rotational acceleration |
088e94f6-ca40-4fef-9eac-904fd15c4ef9 | Anatomical snuff box boundaries: Lateral wall Abductor pollicis longus Extensor pollicis brevis Medial wall Extensor pollicis longus Roof Cephalic vein Sup branch of radial nerve Floor Radial styloid, scaphoid, trapezium,1st meta carpal Content Radial Aery Ref: Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 893. | Anatomy | Upper limb | Roof of the Anatomical snuff box is formed by the
A. Radial aery
B. Basilic aery
C. Sup branch of radial nerve
D. Sup branch of ulnar nerve
| Sup branch of radial nerve |
90bb4a01-f48b-43fa-abbd-ebe7e3623b06 | SPECIFIC FINDINGS IN ANTEMOEM BURNS 1.SOOT PAICLES UPTO THE LEVEL OF TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE. 2. PRESENCE OF CARBOXYHEMOGLOBIN IN BLOOD. 3. Cyanide IN BLOOD 4. CURLING ULCER IN FIRST PA OF DUODENUM. NON SPECIFIC FINDINGS IN BURNS( ANTEMOEM + POSTMOEM BURNS) 1. PUGILISTIC ATTITUDE OR HEAT STIFFENING. 2. HEAT RUPTURE 3. HEAT HEMATOMA 4. HEAT FRACTURE. | Forensic Medicine | Thermal injuries | Which of these differentiates between ante moem and post moem burns?
A. Heat rupture
B. Heat Hematoma
C. Soot paicles up to terminal bronchioles
D. Pugilistic attitude
| Soot paicles up to terminal bronchioles |
32f2f0d1-4e17-41d9-9693-4a1db029239b | Interaction of follicular theca and granulosa cells for production of estrogens. The theca cells, under the control of luteinizing hormone (LH), produce androgens that diffuse into the granulosa cells. In mature follicles, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) acts on granulosa cells to stimulate aromatase activity, which conves the androgens to estrogens. AC - Adenylate cyclase; ATP - Adenosine triphosphate; cAMP - Cyclic adenosine monophosphate; LDL - Low density lipoproteins. | Physiology | Female Reproductive System | Arrange the following in sequential order of their involvement in estrogen synthesis: A. Progesterone B. Androgen in granulosa cell C. Androgen in theca cell D. Aromatase
A. B-A-D-C
B. A-C-D-B
C. D-C-A-B
D. A-C-B-D
| A-C-B-D |
4895947e-dd27-4326-a9cb-aa7b66c26380 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1NH biweekly for 9 month Dosing regimens for treatment of latent tuberculosis* AdultsChildren <12IsoniazidStandard regimen:o 300 mg PO daily for nine months Alternate regimens:o 300 mg PO daily for six months900 mg PO twice weeklyD for nine months900 mg PO twice weeklyD for six monthsStandard regimen:o 10 to 15 mg/kg PO daily for nine months; not to exceed 300 mg/dayAlternate regimen:o 20 to 30 mg/kg PO twice weekly for nine months; not to exceed 900 mg/dayIsoniazid and rifapentineIsoniazid (orally once weekly for 12 doses, given by direct observation):o 15 mg/kg, rounded up to the nearest 50 or 100 mg; 900 mg maximumRifapentine (orally once weekly for three months, given by direct observation):o 10 to 14 kg: 300 mgo 14.1 to 25 kg: 450 mgo 25.1 to 32 kg: 600 mgo 32.1 to 49.9 kg: 750 mg o >50 kg: 900 mg maximumSee noteYIsoniazid (orally once weekly for 12 doses, given by direct observation):o 15 mg/kg, rounded up to the nearest 50 or 100 mg; 900 mg maximumRifapentine (orally once weekly for three months, given by direct observation):o 10 to 14 kg: 300 mgo 14.1 to 25 kg: 450 mgo 25.1 to 32 kg: 600 mgo 32.1 to 49.9 kg: 750 mgo >50 kg: 900 mg maximumRifampin600 mg PO daily for four months10 to 20 mg/kg PO daily for four months; not to exceed 600 mg/dayIsoniazid and rifampinIsoniazid 300 mg PO daily for three monthsIsoniazid 10 to 15 mg/kg PO daily for three months; not to exceed 300 mg/day Rifampin 600 mg PO daily for three monthsRifampin 10 to 20 mg/kg PO daily for three months; not to exceed 600 mg/day | Medicine | Bacteriology | Treatment of latent TB infection in Tuberculin positive, HIV positive patients:
A. INH biweekly for 9 month
B. 2(HRZ)3 + 4(HR)3
C. Rifampicin biweekly for 6 months
D. Pyrazinamide daily for 6 months
| INH biweekly for 9 month |
40f0dcf9-4e03-4698-ba8d-7da048d6d0c7 | Answer is C (Creatinine phosphokinase) Creatinine phosphokinase is seen at 4 to 8 hours (May be seen at 2-4 hours), peaks at 24 hours and return to normal by 72 hours. Creatinine phosphokinase MB (CPKMB) Very sensitive (CPK MB isoenzyme increases the specificity) 'Absence in change in levels of CPK and CPKMB during the 1st 2 days essentially excludes the diagnosis of MI' -Chandrasoma CK elevation used to be test of choice in First 24 hours. ('Cardiac troponins are now preferred'). CKMB is still the test of choice for detecting recurrent ischaemic event. | Medicine | null | In MI, which enzyme is raised in 4 to 6 hrs. & decreases in 3 to 4 days :
A. SGOT
B. LDH
C. CPK
D. SGPT
| CPK |
03cd7e2f-3eba-43df-96f3-9276236534cf | (Congenital stricture of urethra) (1388-89-Baily & Love 24th) (Internet) (1362-Baily & Love 25th)Hypospadias - surgical plastic repair of hypospadias is currently accomplished by a variety of highly successful one stage operations and is routinely performed between 6 and 19 months of age (1008-CSDT 12(tm))Epispadias - Treatment consist of correction of penile curvature reconstriction of the bladder neck in incontinent patients.Congenital urethral stricture - commonly these strictures are thin diaphragms that may respond to simple dilation onto direct vision internal urethrotomy.A single treatment by optical urethrotomy or dilatation is usually effective (1388-Bailey & Love 24th)* A one stage dorsal free graft urethroplasty for bulbar urethral structure to reduce the incidence of urethrocele. | Surgery | Urethra & Penis | Optical urethroplasty is done in:(Internet)
A. Congenital stricture of urethra
B. Hypospadias
C. Epispadias
D. Testicular tumour's
| Congenital stricture of urethra |
84cd2af8-2c2e-4e13-ab76-519ecce5fada | (a) Source: (Fuster, p. 313)No atrial activity is detected. The ventricular rate is slightly irregular. Beat number 4 is a ventricular premature contraction. The T waves are tall and markedly peaked. This type of T wave is characteristic of hyperkalemia, as is absence of visible atrial activity. The potassium level was 8.2 mmol/L. | Medicine | C.V.S. | A 78-year-old man with advanced renal disease has the ECG(lead II). What is the diagnosis?
A. hyperkalemia
B. hypercalcemia
C. hypernatremia
D. pericarditis
| hyperkalemia |
14f553ed-7b5f-4421-b6fd-d71e33b8c8b2 | Acute changes are most frequently seen in the 1. Mamillary bodies And also seen in 2. Around the third and fouh ventricles and 3. Aqueduct of the midbrain. Ref: Thorarinsson BL, S C I E N T I F I C P A P E R O V E R V I E W | Medicine | null | Acute changes in brain due to wernicke's encephalopathy in chronic alcoholics is most frequently seen in:
A. Mamillary bodies
B. Aqueduct of the midbrain
C. Around the third ventricle
D. Around the fouh ventricle
| Mamillary bodies |
8ba2b730-39d7-41bc-af72-14a9097039e8 | Ans. d (23 X)Secondary oocyte consist of 23 X chromosomes.The chromosomal complement of a primary oocyte is 46 XX and that of secondary oocyte is 23 X.Sequence of maturation of ovarian primordial follicle after primary follicle stage:Primordial follicle(Single layered ovarian follicle)Spermatogonium (diploid, 2N) ||Primary Spermatocyte (diploid, 2N)Primordial follicle ||Secondary Spermatocyte (haploid, N)Secondary follicle (Antral follicle) ||Spermatid (haploid, N)(Spermatogenesis begins with Spermatogonia.Full development takes 2 months.It occurs in seminiferous tubules)Graffian follicle|Corpus luteum| Corpus albicans # While majority of oogonia divide, some enter into prophase of first meiotic division and are primary oocytes. These are surrounded by flat cells, which are called primordial follicles, and are present in cortex of the ovary.# At birth, there is no more mitotic division and all the oogonia are replaced by primary oocytes, which have finished prophase of first meiotic division and remain in resting phase between prophase and metaphase.# The first stage of maturation occurs with full maturation of ovarian follicle just prior to ovulation but the final maturation occurs only after fertilization.# The primary oocyte undergoes first meiotic division giving rise to secondary oocyte and one polar body.# Secondary oocyte has haploid number of chromosomes.# Ovulation occurs soon after formation of secondary oocyte.# The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division only after fertilization by the sperm in the fallopian tube. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | The Ovarian Cycle | Secondary oocyte consists of
A. 46 XY
B. 46 XX
C. 23 Y
D. 23 X
| 23 X |
8563613e-ccc0-4b34-8458-39fadfcda3e9 | The glucogenic amino acids are: Alanine Arginine Asparagine Aspaic Cysteine Glutamic Glutamine Glycine Histidine Methionine Proline Serine ValineRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Which is not Glucogenic?
A. Arginine
B. HIstidine
C. Glycine
D. Lysine
| Lysine |
f24130de-63a8-4a78-9ccf-fb1c5a0993bb | C i.e. 21Folic acid transpoer gene (SLC 19 AI solute carrier family 19) is located on long arm of chromosome 21 (21q) Q at band 22.3. Transpo of folate occurs by potocytosis which functionally couples folate receptor, folate transpoer and V- type h+ pump. | Biochemistry | null | The gene for folic acid transpoer is located on which chromosome:
A. 5
B. 15
C. 21
D. X
| 21 |
51dd9041-40e1-49e3-8f3b-0983ead096f6 | With class V lesion and extensive class II cavity in the same tooth the remaining enamel surface with the supported healthy dentin will be much less hence in such situation full crown restoration will be long lasting. | Dental | null | The best treatment for class V lesion on a tooth along with extensive class II caries is:
A. Restoration of class II followed by class V
B. Cast gold restoration
C. A full crown restoration
D. Restoration of class V followed by class II
| A full crown restoration |
7252503e-f6ba-44d0-a96c-e3bd9e355781 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carbachol o Amongst the given options carbachol has maximum nicotinic actions. It has nicotinic as well as muscarinic action. | Pharmacology | null | Which has maximum nicotinic effect-
A. Bethanechol
B. Carbachol
C. Pilocarpine
D. Methacholine
| Carbachol |
702f2177-19eb-46fc-a1e4-972372aaadf9 | The nerve of the pterygoid canal passes through the pterygoid canal to reach the pterygopalatine ganglion. The parasympathetic fibres relay in this ganglion. Postganglion are parasympathetic fibres arising in the ganglion ultimately supply the lacrimal gland and the mucosal glands of the nose, palate, and pharynx. The gustatory or taste fibres do not relay in the ganglion and are distributed to the palate. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. | Anatomy | Head and neck | The parasympathetic secretomotor nerve supply to the nose is
A. Anterior ethmoid nerve
B. Greater palatine nerve
C. Vidian nerve
D. Inferior orbital nerve
| Vidian nerve |
40d34782-f2cd-4463-a921-396b1260cd38 | Category B drugus are the one that have shown no risks in animal studies, but human studies do not exist or also if adverse effect have been seen in animal studies with no such effect im well controlled human trials. eg.ranitidine,paracetamol. TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.564 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy | Which of the following drug is category B (adequate studies in pregnant woman have failed to demonstrate a fetal risk)?
A. Ranitidine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Latanoprost
D. Dorzolamide
| Ranitidine |
42f67821-567d-464b-9ea9-c0f7153fd39c | Answer- B. Celiac SprueEnteropathy-type- T cell lymphoma is a rare complication of long-standing celiac disease. | Medicine | null | Enteropathy type T cell lymphoma is associated with -
A. M.A.L. Toma
B. Celiac Sprue
C. Menetrier disease
D. Crohn's disease
| Celiac Sprue |
4d7125b4-f5d7-4c00-a87b-8d2304559eb5 | Ans. A. The dorsal lemniscal systema. Lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature;b. Anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch;c. All other sensations are carried by dorsal lemniscal. | Physiology | Nervous System | Fine touch is transmitted via:
A. The dorsal lemniscal system
B. The anterior spinothalamic tract
C. The lateral spinothalamic tract
D. The cerebellopontine tracts
| The dorsal lemniscal system |
c806d509-79be-4275-9b1e-b7155be25181 | Ref: Clohertys Manual of Neonatal Care, 6th edition. Page 646 and ENT DhingraExplanation:"ABR is reliable after 34 weeks postnatal age. "Ref: ClohertyBRAINSTEM EVOKED RESPONSE AUDIOMETRY (BERA)Other nameso Auditory brainstem responses (ABR)o Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER)o Brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP).Measures the electroencephalographic waves generated hy the auditory system in response to clicks through three electrodes placed on the infant's scalp.The characteristic waveform recorded from the electrodes becomes better defined with increasing postnatal age.ABR is reliable after 34 weeks postnatal age.At present, because of the increased risk of injury to the auditory pathway beyond the cochlea (auditory nerve) including auditory dyssynchrony, ABR is the preferred screening method to evaluate hearing loss in the NICE graduate.Non-invasive technique to find integrity of central auditory pathways through the 8th cranial nerve, pons and midhrain.Electrical potentials are generated in response to several click stimuli or tone-bursts and picked up from the vertex by surface electrodes.It measures hearing sensitivity in the range of 1000 - 4000 Hz.In normal person. 7 waves are produced in the first 10 milliseconds.The 1st, 3rd and 5th waves are most stable and are used in measurements.Parameters studied in waveforms:o Latencyo Inter-wave latencyo Amplitude.The exact anatomic site of neural generators are:o Wave 1 - Distal part of CN 8.o Wave 2 - Proximal part of CN 8 near the brainstem.o Wave 3 - Cochlear nucleuso Wave 4 - Superior olivary complexo Wave 5 - Lateral lemniscuso Wave 6 & 7 - Inferior colliculus.UsesScreening for hearing in infants.To determine the threshold of hearing in:o Infants.o Children.o Uncooperative adultso Malingerers.To diagnose retroeochlear pathology (e.g.: Acoustic neuroma).To diagnose brainstem pathology (e.g.: Multiple sclerosis or Pontine tumors)To monitor CN 8 intraoperatively in surgery of acoustic neuromas to preserve the function of cochlear nerve. | ENT | Hearing Loss | BERA can be most accurate from which gestation?
A. 30 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 34 weeks
D. 28 weeks
| 34 weeks |
4e5b932f-b4af-4520-a837-af06b82158dc | Parapharyngeal space is situated on the side of the pharynx. It is pyramidal in shape with the base at the base of the skull and apex at the hyoid bone. It contains carotid vessels, jugular vein, last 4 cranial nerves and cervical sympathetic chain. Ref: Diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 301 | ENT | Pharynx | Parapharygeal space is also known as
A. Retropharyngeal space
B. Pyriform sinus
C. Lateral pharyngeal space
D. Pterygomaxillary space
| Lateral pharyngeal space |
1e1f0e83-16ad-45bb-9fd1-7adfd47ef425 | Hyponatremia can result from diarrhea, vomiting, burns, diuretic administration, and administration of sodium-poor parenteral solutions. Seizures and coma usually are associated with severe hyponatremia and may be life-threatening. Acute hypernatremia usually is caused by severe water depletion with diarrhea especially in children. Ref: Harrison's 17th edition, chapter 46 | Medicine | null | Which among the following electrolyte disturbance following diarrhoea can cause convulsions?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypernatremia
| Hyponatremia |
a0dc8c41-3b9c-4eeb-871d-1b5e61e2a3b5 | Ans. A (Microaneurysm) [Ref Khurana 4th/260-62; Parson 20th/294-98}"The earliest detectable lesion is microaneurysms in the macular area" -Khurana 4th/260Diabetic Retinopathy: Classification- 4 types Khurana 4th/260-62Non-proliferative Diabetic RetinopathyMicro aneurysmQ in macular area (the earliest detectable lesionQ)Retinal haemorrhage both deep (dot & blot haemorrhage) & superficial haemorrhages (flame shaped)Hard exudateQRetinal oedemaCotton-wool spotQProliferative Diabetic RetinopathyPDR develops in >50% of cases after about 25 years of the onset of diseaseThe hallmark Q of PDR is the occurence of neovasculari- ation'i over the changes of very severe NPDRVitreous detachment & vitreous haemorrhage may occurDiabetic MaculopathyMacular edemaQ is termed as clinically significant macular edemaChanges in macula affect visionD.Maculopathy-4 subtypeFocal exudative maculopathyDiffuse exudative maculopathyIschaemic maculopathyMixed maculopathyAdvanced Diabetic Eye DiseasePersistent vitreous haemorrhageTractiona! retinal detach m entQNeovascularglaucoma Q | Ophthalmology | Vascular Disorders | First retinal abnormality in diabetic retinopathy: (PGI Dec 2007)
A. Microaneurysm
B. Hard exudates
C. Soft exudates
D. Cotton Wool spots
| Microaneurysm |
12dea8d2-9238-4f16-9ce8-834e8edb8000 | Ans. D. PharmacokineticsPhase I trial is also called First in human trial. In this phase, 10-100 healthy people are enrolled to calculate pharmacokinetic data. Phase 0 trials are also done sometimes prior to phase I studies to calculate early pharmacokinetic data. Phase II and III trials usually enrol patients. Phase II trials enrol 50-100 and usually determine drug efficacy and dose ranging. Phase III trials confirm the efficacy in larger population (100-1000). Phase IV trials are also known as postmarketing studies which determine safety (adverse drug reactions, adverse events, and drug-drug interactions). Even safety of long-term drug treatment can be determined in Phase IV trials which can be missed in clinical trials due to limited duration of clinical trials. | Pharmacology | General Pharmacology | Phase I trial is done to test:
A. Safety
B. Efficacy
C. Dose
D. Pharmacokinetics
| Pharmacokinetics |
b0ab3da2-ad8d-408e-9b8e-6b7ae22ce811 | A new genus Henipavirus has been recently identified with the Nipah and Henda viruses causing zoonotic outbreaks. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:515 | Microbiology | Virology | New infectious agents are -
A. Nipah virus
B. Pneumocystis jieruveci
C. Corona virus
D. SARS
| Nipah virus |
f14ddf6b-2f16-435a-9904-ad144bb3f411 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thrombocytopenia Felty's syndrome is characterized by the combination of rheumatoid ahritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia. The condition is more common in those aged 50-70 years, and is more prevalent in females than males | Pediatrics | null | Felty syndrome is characterised by A/E
A. Rheumatoid ahritis
B. Splenomegaly
C. Neutropeni
D. Thrombocytopenia
| Thrombocytopenia |
a6a7bf87-ad7b-4df1-aace-9c360b80df9f | Functions of Microtubules include determination of cell shape and various cell movements. | Physiology | null | The motility of cell is due to protein-
A. Motilin
B. Tubulin
C. Laminin
D. Tactilin
| Tubulin |
241d2385-b917-4893-a7d9-7dad39f89f9b | Chronic graft rejection is manifested in cardiac allografts as chronic vascular rejection of main and intramuscular coronary arteries. Myointimal proliferation and medial scarring result in diffuse and eccentric arterial narrowing referred to as accelerated graft atherosclerosis. Infection remains the primary cause of death within the first year of cardiac transplant, but accelerated graft arteriosclerosis is the most common cause of mortality thereafter. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty, coronary artery bypass grafting, and re-transplantation are the current options for combating this problem. | Surgery | Transplantation | After the first postoperative year of cardiac transplantation, the most common cause of death is
A. Infection
B. Arrhythmia
C. Accelerated graft arteriosclerosis
D. Acute rejection episode
| Accelerated graft arteriosclerosis |
8ba15321-64eb-47d5-8b73-6e9e087a39bc | Answer is B (Medullary Carcinoma) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid secretes calcitonin and this causes reduction in calcium levels. | Medicine | null | Thyroid carcinoma associated with hypocalcemia is
A. Follicular carcinoma
B. Medullary carcinoma
C. Anaplastic carcinoma
D. Papillary carcinoma
| Medullary carcinoma |
61450be5-7374-42fb-9508-c16293fe3349 | C i.e. Pityriasis rosea Pityriasis rosea is a self limiting disorderQ of unknown etiology, with a suspected association with Herpes virus 7 and 6Q. It presents with development of usually asymptomatic (i.e. no prodromal or constitutional system), sharply (well) demarcated, larger (2-6 cm), annular (oval-round), erythematousQ (red to brown) lesion k/a primary/herald/mother patch mostly located on trunk in children and young adults (10-35 yrs)( 2. Similar but smaller secondary eruptions appear in crops at interval of usually 2 weeks distributed along lines of cleavage in christmas (fir) tree appearanceQ. Lesions demonstrate fine (cigarette paper) collarette of scaleQ just inside the peripheray of plaque. | Skin | null | A 16 year old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple erythamatous annular lesions with a collarette of scales at periph-ery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis versicolor
B. Pityriasis alba
C. Pityriasis rosacea
D. Pityriasis rubra pilaris
| Pityriasis rosacea |
d887e299-72d5-4912-a90b-1a0450dd1038 | ANSWER: (C) Sudan IVREF: See APPENDIX-24 for "HISTOLOGY/PATHOLOGY/ MICROBIOLOGY STAINS" APPENDIX - 24Histology/Pathology/Microbiology StainsT issue/substanoeStainCommentAmyloidGross stainingLugol's iodine Light microscopyH & E, Congo redPolarised lightCongo redMetachromatic stainMethyl violet, crystal violetFluorescent stainThioflavin TNon specific stainPAS, Toludine blue. Aldan blueCaldum/calcificationVon kossa Alizarin Red SFor small quantitiesCalcein Tetracycline labellingBest for bone mineralizationConnective tissueVan Gieson stain (Picric Add + Acid Fuchsin)Simplest method of differential staining of Collagen and other Connective TissueTrichome stain (Gomori trichrome stain, Lillie's trichome & Masson trichome)Red = keratin/muscleBlue/green = bone /'collagenPink = cytoplasmCarcohydrate (Glycogen, cellulose etc)Periodic acid-Schiff stainNon specific for glycogenDiastaseSpecific for glycogenBest's carmine LipidSudan stains{Sudan III, IV, Sudan Back-B, Oil Red 0)Oil Red O largely replaced Sudan III and Sudan IVOil Red O is also used in a technique for staining latent fingerprintsOsmium tetra oxideAs a lipid stain, it is useful in scanning electron microscopy (SEM)LipofuscinSudan Black B MucinMuscarmineMost specific but less usefulPASMost sensitive, For neutral mucopolysaccharidesAlcian blue Bismark brownCan be used with live cellsColloidal iron Micro organismsFungiH & EBluePASRedGomori methamine silverMost sensitiveMycobacteriumZ N stain/methodCarbol fuchsinAuramine Rhodamine stainMost sensitive, mixture of Auramine O and Rhodamine B, used in fluorescence microscopySpirochetesWarthin starry silver stain H PyloriWarthin starry silver stainGiemsa stainH&E Pneumocystis/ Cryptococcus/ cocci diomycetesGomori methamine silver | Pathology | Histo Pathology | Which of the following is a stain for fat cells?
A. PAS
B. Prussian blue
C. Sudan IV
D. Alcian blue
| Sudan IV |
723f2290-a389-4c86-b783-77fb1727c225 | Amplification assays (-PCR, DNA PCR, and b DNA tests) are routinely used to detect viral RNA in clinical specimens. The tests can be quantitative when reference standards are used, and appropriate positive and negative controls must be included in each test. Because these molecular based tests are very sensitive, they form the basis for plasma viral load determinations. It is generally agreed that the amount of HIV in the blood (viral load) is of significant prognostic value. There are continual rounds of viral replication and cell killing in each patient, and the steady-state level of virus in the blood varies with individuals. A single measurement of plasma viral load approximately 6 months after infection can predict the risk of development of AIDS in men several years later. In women, viral load appears to be less predictive. The plasma viral load appears to be the best predictor of long-term clinical outcome, whereas CD4 lymphocyte counts are the best predictor of sho-term risk of developing an oppounistic disease. Plasma viral load measurements are a critical element in assessing the effectiveness of antiretroviral drug therapy. Ref:- Baveja textbook of Microbiology | Microbiology | Virology | In a person with HIV-1 infection, which of the following is the most predictive of the patient's prognosis
A. CD4+ cell count
B. CD4:CD8 cell ratio
C. Level of HIV-1 RNA in plasma
D. Degree of lymphadenopathy
| Level of HIV-1 RNA in plasma |
edbfe6fe-21c2-4743-98c2-e0c7426c7a9d | ref Robbins 9/ep106-108 When the levels of collagen production and degradation equalize, the maturation phase of tissue repair is said to have begun. During maturation, type III collagen, which is prevalent during proliferation, is replaced by type I collagen.Originally disorganized collagen fibers are rearranged, cross-linked, and aligned along tension lines. The onset of the maturation phase may vary extensively, depending on the size of the wound and whether it was initially closed or left open, ranging from approximately 3 days to 3 weeks. The maturation phase can last for a year or longer, similarly depending on wound type. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Maximum collagen in wound healing is seen at which stage of healing
A. End of first week
B. End of second week
C. End of third week
D. End of 2months
| End of third week |
d02718fd-e241-4256-ae93-467655317154 | Aqueous humour is derived from plasma within the capillary network of ciliary processes.The normal aqueous production rate is 2.3ml/min. Ref:ophthalmology -AK khurana -6th edition chapt:10 page no:221 | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | Normal aqueous production rate -
A. 2 ml/min
B. 5 ml/min
C. 2ml/min
D. 5 ml/min
| 2ml/min |
010d3612-2353-4694-8d3a-9d3086dcb8bb | Brachial plexus neuritis Ref: Basic neurology [By John Gilroy 3/e p594; "Brachial plexus neuritis is characterized by a sudden paralysis of muscles supplied through the brachial plexus and is often associated with painful dysesthesia of the arm. The condition occurs in known viral infections (herpes zoster, Epstein-Barr virus), following injections of tetanus toxoid, in putative viral infections; and as an autobnmune disorder following a surgical procedure."- Basic neurology By John Gilroy 3/e p594 Brachial plexus neuritis usually is characterized by the acute onset of excruciating unilateral shoulder pain, followed by flaccid paralysis of shoulder and parascapular muscles several days later. The syndrome can vary greatly in presentation and nerve involvement. Brachial neuritis (BN) exists in an inherited and an idiopathic form. In the idiopathic version, the pathophysiology is unknown, but the condition is generally thought to be an immune system - mediated inflammatory reaction against nerve fibers of the brachial plexus. The onset of pain in brachial neuritis (BN) is often abrupt and may follow recent illness, surgery, immunization, or even trauma (see Causes, below). Up to two thirds of cases begin during the nighttime. Sensory abnormalities are of usually of less intensity than the pain and muscle weakness. Causes: The exact cause of brachial neuritis is unknown, but the condition has been linked to many antecedent events or illnesses, as follows: Viral infection (paicularly of the upper respiratory tract) Bacterial infection (eg, pneumonia, diphtheria, typhoid) Parasitic infestation S urgery 2 Trauma (not related to shoulder) Vaccinations (eg, influenza, tetanus, diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, peussis [DPT J. smallpox, swine flu) Childbih Miscellaneous medical investigative procedures (eg, lumbar puncture, administration of radiologic dye) Systemic illness (eg, polyaeritis nodosa, lymphoma, systemic lupus erythematosus, temporal aeritis, EhlersDanlos syndrome) A rarer, hereditary form of BN has been localized to the SEPT9 gene on chromosome arm 17q and should be considered a distinct disorder. This entity presents in a younger age group, and is characterized by recurrent, often bilateral attacks. Dysmorphic facial features (eg, hypotelorism, long nasal bridge, facial asymmetry) can also be present. Diagnosis: Other causes of severe pain, such as an acute herniated cervical disc, should be excluded. In brachial plexus neuritis, electromyography and nerve conduction studies reveal abnormalities in more than one nerve; in contrast, cervical radiculopathy may show osteophytes and interspace narrowing on cervical spine x-rays and neuroforaminal disc impingement of MRI. Treatment: of brachial plexus neuritis is suppoive, with analgesics for pain, physical therapy to maintain shoulder strength/mobility, and reassurance that the condition generally will improve, albeit slowly. | Anaesthesia | null | A 45 year - male presents with abrupt onset pain, weakness, loss of contour of shoulder and muscle wasting on 5deg day of tetanus toxoid immunization. Likely cause is:
A. Hysterical
B. Radial nerve entrapment
C. Brachial plexus neuritis
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome
| Brachial plexus neuritis |
e875b62b-33c2-4832-9185-bb14d29d14d2 | Hypotension is the most common acute complication of hemodialysis. It is paicularly common among patients with diabetes mellitus. The factors that appear to increase the risk of hypotension, are excessive ultrafiltration with inadequate compensatory vascular filling, impaired vasoactive or autonomic responses, osmolar shifts, overzealous use of antihypeensive agents, and reduced cardiac reserve. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 2324. | Medicine | null | MOST common acute complication of hemodialysis is:
A. Muscle cramps
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Hypotension
D. Arrythmias
| Hypotension |
261a31e5-a2c6-43c1-a968-36d399308efb | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thiazide o Thiazide, furosamide, coicosteroids, oral contraceptives, salbutamol, nifedipine tend to raise blood sugar and reduce effectiveness of insulin. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following decreases effectiveness of insulin -
A. Thiazide
B. Atropine
C. b-blockers
D. Acute alcohol ingestion
| Thiazide |
de84fb62-5f53-4f8e-b724-a673dde4c52d | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 16 o At about 16 cells stage the blastomeres tightly align by the process of compaction to form a compact ball of cells called morula (mulberry ).o This process of compaction leads to segregation of cells into two groups :Inner cells (inner cell mass)Outer cells (outer ceil mass)o Morula enters uterine cavity 4 days after fertilization. | Anatomy | Fertilization and Development of Embryo | Morula is how many ceiled -
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
| 16 |
12e83d4d-366d-47c8-8eca-ba22feef4308 | Ans: D (Japanese encephalitis) Ref: 21st edition Park.Explanation:The diseases transmitted by various insects are* Anopheles mosquito- MalariaFilaria (not in India)Culex mosquitoBancroftian FilariasisJapanese EncephalitisWest Nile feverViral Arthritis (epidemic / polyarthritis)Aedes mosquitoYellow fever (not in India)DengueDengue Haemorrhagic feverChikungunya feverChikungunya haemorrhagic feverRift Valley feverFilaria (not in India)Mansonoides mosquitoMalayan (Brugian) filariasisChikungunya feverHouseflyTyphoid and paratyphoid feverDiarrhoeaDysentryCholeraGastroenteritisAmoebiasisHelminthic infestationsPoliomyelitisConjucntivitisTrachomaAnthraxYawsSandflyKala-azarOriental SoreSandfly feverOraya FeverTsetse FlySleeping SicknessLouseEpidemic TyphusRelapsing FeverTrench FeverPediculosisRat FleaBubonic PlagueEndemic TyphusChiggerosisHymenolepis diminutaBlack FlyOnchocerciasisReduvid BugChagas DiseaseHard TickTick TyphusViral EncephalitisViral FeversViral Hemorrhagic fevers (eg KFD)TularemiaTick ParalysisHuman BabesiosisSoft TickQ FeverRelapsing FeverTrombiculid MiteScrub TyphusRickettsial PoxItch-miteScabiesCyclopsGuinea WormFish Tape wormCockroachesEnteric Pathogens | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and Health | Culex mosquito transmits:
A. Yellow fever
B. Dengue fever
C. Tularemia
D. Japanese encephalitis
| Japanese encephalitis |
97eb77dd-fec1-437b-9e1c-7d6937701ddf | Carbohydrate-rich tumor markers are specific antigens found either on the surface of tumor cells or may also be secreted as products by the tumor cells. CA: carbohydrate antigen/cancer antigen. Specific Proteins Immunoglobulins Multiple myeloma and other gammopathies Prostate-specific antigen and prostate-specific membrane antigen Prostate cancer Mucins and Other Glycoproteins CA-125 Ovarian cancer CA-19-9 Colon cancer, pancreatic cancer CA-15-3 Breast cancer CA 125: tumor marker of primary ovarian cancer of surface epithelial subtype. | Pathology | JIPMER 2017 | Carbohydrate tumor marker for breast cancer:
A. CA 15-3
B. CA 125
C. CA 34
D. CA 19-9
| CA 15-3 |
c47bcdfe-7e7f-42bd-8f9a-ea9ea21cdc18 | Depression of the mandible or opening of the mouth is produced mainly by the lateral pterygoid helped by gravity.Elevation is produced by the medial pterygoid, temporalis and masseter.Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head Neck, and Brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.148 | Anatomy | Head and neck | Which of the following is the action of the lateral pterygoid muscle on the temporomandibular joint?
A. Elevation
B. Depression
C. Adduction
D. Abduction
| Depression |
f747bf68-aa24-4ceb-a245-b439736bd960 | Imperforate hymen and patient refusal are the only absolute contraindications for Transvaginal sonography. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Absolute contraindication for Transvaginal sonography
A. Placenta previa
B. Imperforate hymen
C. Abruptio placenta
D. Abnormal uterine bleeding
| Imperforate hymen |
54f6671d-dbda-41de-bf6f-645bbcbb119e | Vocal cord paralysis is most commonly iatrogenic in origin following surgery to Thyroid, parathyroid, carotid or cardiothoracic structures. Neck trauma Benign or malignant thyroid disease Thyroid surgery Carcinoma cervical oesophagus Cervical lymphadenopathy | ENT | null | Vocal cord palsy is not associated with:
A. Veebral secondaries
B. Left atrial enlargement
C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
D. Secondaries in mediastinum
| Veebral secondaries |
3bf214da-c0b2-477e-ac1b-394229c84f20 | Anatomical changes:The lower ribs flare out,the subcoastal angles increases from 68 to 103 degree,transverse diameter of chest increases by 2 cm and the diaphragm rises about 4cm in pregnancy. Functional changes:Increase in ventilation in pregnancy is achieved by an increase in tidal volume by 40%.Minute ventilatory volume also increases.There is no change in vital capacity.The functional residual capacity and residual volume are decreased due to elevated diaphragm. TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.80 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy | Changes in the respiratory system in pregnancy;
A. Vital capacity is increased
B. Subcostal angle remains unchanged
C. Tidal volume remains unaltered
D. Residual volume Is decreased
| Residual volume Is decreased |
4e337a61-cad4-4dbf-953e-1a6f2a473ea8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clostridium difficle Cefoxitin - cycloserine fructose agar (CCFA) is an enriched selective and differential medium recommended for the isolation and cultivation of clostridium difficle from fecal specimens. | Microbiology | null | Cefoxitin - cycloserine fructose agar is used for ?
A. Neisseria
B. Clostridium difficle
C. Bacillus anttacis
D. Reiter's treponema
| Clostridium difficle |
abd04190-0bfb-4e74-82b5-37fa2c42a4a4 | Ans. B. Fumarylaceto Acetate HydrolaseAmino acidurias and enzyme defectClassic Phenyl KetonuriaPhenylalanine HydroxylaseAlkaptonuriaHomogentisate OxidaseTyrosinemia Type I (Most common Tyrosinemia)Fumaryl Aceto Acetate HydrolaseTyrosinemia Type IITyrosine TransaminaseTyrosinemia Type IIIPara Hydroxy Phenyl Pyruvate hydroxylase/Para hydroxyl Phenyl Pyruvate DioxygenaseHawkinsinuriaPara Hydroxy Phenyl Pyruvate hydroxylase/Para hydroxyl Phenyl Pyruvate Dioxygenase is mutant, so that it catalyse only partial reaction.Segawa SyndromeGTP CyclohydrolaseAlbinismTyrosinase | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Type I Tyrosinemia is caused by:
A. Tyrosine transaminase
B. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
C. 4 Hydroxy phenyl pyruvate hydroxylase
D. Maleyl acetoacetate isomerase
| Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase |
9421c64d-b57b-470f-a4d1-f8381cad4844 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Pyrimethamine Doc for Toxoplasmosis - Pyrimethamine and Trimethoprim | Pharmacology | Anti-Helminths | Drug used in Toxoplasmosis is :
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Ribovarin
C. Ganciclovir
D. Tetracycline
| Pyrimethamine |
6e90e8c7-b27a-46d0-aff2-65c8e0911839 | The primary goal in fluid resuscitation for all forms of shock is the same: restoration of adequate end organ perfusion. Urine output is a quantitative and relatively reliable indicator of organ perfusion. It is a reflection of kidney perfusion and function and an indicator of renal, cardiovascular, and fluid volume status. Must know: Signs of a successful initial resuscitation: Improved blood pressure Improving level of consciousness Improving peripheral perfusion Decreasing tachycardia Decreasing lactate Normalizing pH Ref: Holcroft J.W., Anderson J.T., Sena M.J. (2010). Chapter 12. Shock & Acute Pulmonary Failure in Surgical Patients. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: | Physiology | null | The best method to assess the adequacy of replacement of fluid in a case of shock is:
A. Decrease in thirst
B. Increased PaO
C. Increase in urine output
D. Blood pressure
| Increase in urine output |
380c6e27-583b-410b-8651-cb3f39ff8202 | Answer: D. Sharp waste. Types of Bio-medical waste Bio-medical waste means "any solid and/or liquid waste including its container and any intermediate product, which is generated during the diagnosis, treatment or immunization of human beings or animals or research activities pertaining thereto or in the production or testing of biological or in health camps. Biomedical waste poses hazard due to two principal reasons - the first is infectivity and other toxicity. Bio Medical waste consists of Human anatomical waste like tissues, organs and body parts Animal wastes generated during research from veterinary hospitals Microbiology and biotechnology wastes Waste sharps like hypodermic needles, syringes, scalpels and broken glass Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs Soiled waste such as dressing, bandages, plaster casts, material contaminated with blood, tubes and catheters Liquid waste from any of the infected areas Incineration ash and other chemical wastes The biomedical waste (BMW) management requires its categorisation as a first step. The BMW Rules classify the BMW into following categories. CATEGORIES OF BIOMEDICAL WASTE SCHEDULE - I CATEGORY TYPE OF WASTE TYPE OF BAG OR CONTAINER TO BE USED TREATMENT AND DISPOSAL OPTION Yellow Human tissues, organs, body parts and fetus below the viability period (as per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1971, amended from time to time). Yellow coloured non-chlorinated plastic bags Incineration or Plasma Pyrolysis or deep burial * Animal Anatomical Waste : Experimental animal carcasses, body parts, organs, tissues, including the waste generated from animals used in experiments or testing in veterinary hospitals or colleges or animal houses. Soiled Waste: Items contaminated with blood, body fluids like dressings, plaster casts, cotton swabs and bags containing residual or discarded blood and blood components. Incineration or Plasma Pyrolysis or deep burial * In absence of above facilities, autoclaving or micro-waving/ hydroclaving followed by shredding or mutilation or combination of sterilization and shredding. Treated waste to be sent for energy recovery. Expired or Discarded Medicines: Pharmaceutical waste like antibiotics, cytotoxic drugs including all items contaminated with cytotoxic drugs along with glass or plastic ampoules, vials etc. Yellow coloured non-chlorinated plastic bags or containers Expired cytotoxic drugs and items contaminated with cytotoxic drugs to be returned back to the manufacturer or supplier for incineration at temperature >1200 0 C or to common bio - medical waste treatment facility or hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facility for incineration at >1200 0 C Or Encapsulation or Plasma Pyrolysis at >1200 0 C All other discarded medicines shall be either sent back to manufacturer or disposed by incineration. Chemical Waste: Chemicals used in production of biological and used or discarded disinfectants. Yellow coloured containers or non-chlorinated plastic bags Disposed of by incineration or Plasma Pyrolysis or Encapsulation in hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facility . Chemical Liquid Waste : Liquid waste generated due to use of chemicals in production of biological and used or discarded disinfectants, Silver X - ray film developing liquid, discarded Formalin, infected secretions, aspirated body fluids , liquid from laboratories an d floor washings, cleaning, house - keeping and disinfecting activities etc. Separate collection system leading to effluent treatment system After resource recovery, the chemical liquid waste shall be pre - treated before mixing with other wastewater. The combined discharge shall conform to the discharge norms given in Schedule - III. Discarded linen, mattresses, beddings contaminated with blood or body fluid. Non-chlorinated yellow plastic bags or suitable packing material Non - chlorinated chemical disinfection followed by incineration or Plazma Pyrolysis or for energy recovery. In absence of above facilities, shredding or mutilation or combination of sterilization and shredding. Treated waste to be sent for energy recovery or incineration or Plazma Pyrolysis . Microbiology, Biotechnology and other clinical laboratory waste: Blood bags, Laboratory cultures, stocks or specimens of micro - organisms, live or attenuated vaccines, human and animal cell cultures used in research, industrial laboratories, production of biological, residual toxins, dishes and devices used for cultures. Autoclave safe plastic bags or containers Pre - treat to sterilize with non - chlorinated chemicals on - site as per National AIDS Control Organisation or World Health Organisation guidelines thereafter for Incineration. Red Waste (Recyclable) Wastes generated from disposable items such as tubing, bottles, intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, syringes (without needles and fixed needle syringes ) and vaccutainers with their needles cut) and gloves. Red coloured non-chlorinated plastic bags or containers Autoclaving or micro - waving/ hydroclaving followed by shredding or mutilation or combination of sterilization and shredding. Treated waste to be sent to registered or authorized recyclers or for energy recovery or plastics to diesel or fuel oil or for road making, whichever is possible. Plastic waste should not be sent to landfill sites. White (Translucent) Waste sharps including Metals: Needles, syringes with fixed needles, needles from needle tip cutter or burner, scalpels, blades, or any other contaminated sharp object that may cause puncture and cuts. This includes both used, discarded and contaminated metal sharps Puncture proof, Leak proof, tamper proof containers Autoclaving or Dry Heat Sterilization followed by shredding or mutilation or encapsulation in metal container or cement concrete; combination of shredding cum autoclaving; and sent for final disposal to iron foundries (having consent to operate from the State Pollution Control Board s or Pollution Control Committee s) or sanitary landfill or designated concrete waste sharp pit. Blue Glassware: Broken or discarded and contaminated glass including medicine vials and ampoules except those contaminated with cytotoxic wastes Cardboard boxes with blue colored marking Disinfection (by soaking the washed glass waste after cleaning with detergent and Sodium Hypochlorite treatment) or through autoclaving or microwaving or hydroclaving and then sent for recycling. Metallic Body Implants * Disposal by deep burial is permitted only in rural or remote areas where there is no access to common bio - medical waste treatment facility. This will be carried out with prior approval from the prescribed authority and as per the Standards specified in Schedule - III. The deep burial facility shall be located as per the provisions and guidelines issued by Central Pollution Control Board from time to time. | Unknown | null | Which of the following is not discarded in yellow bag?
A. Human waste
B. Microbiological waste
C. Solid waste
D. Sharp waste
| Sharp waste |
d402c87c-d37a-4038-b6ba-5ee6b8580c53 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute eczemao Spongiosis is the accumulation of edema fluid within the intercellular space of epidermis and is characteristic of acute eczematous dermatitis. | Pathology | null | Spongiosis is seen in ?
A. Acute eczema
B. Lichen Planus
C. Psoriasis
D. Pemphigus
| Acute eczema |
98767c25-11d4-40b4-b493-5ff9891ff726 | ERIC ERIKSON ERIC ERIKSON gave the psychosocail stages of development There are 8 psychosocial stages A person has to succesfully pass one stage to move to the next stage If he gets arrested in one stage he may develop some disorders Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pf no. 485 | Anatomy | Treatment in psychiatry | who gave the psychosocial stage of development
A. erikson
B. bleuler
C. freud
D. lorenz
| erikson |
64723181-2aac-413e-97dd-320479889e1a | Zinc Oxide Eugenol
Most commonly used.
Bonastre (1837) discovered zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE) and it was subsequently used in dentistry by Chisholm (1876).
Zinc oxide eugenol paste, the first root canal filling material to be recommended for primary teeth, as described by Sweet in 1930.
Zinc oxide eugenol is said to have anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties.
Its limitations are slow resorption, irritation to the periapical tissues, necrosis of bone and cementum and alters the path of erupting teeth.
When ZOE mixture is used, thin mixture is used to coat the walls of the canal, followed by a thick mixture that can be manually condensed into the lumen of the canal.
Barr et al. showed 82.3 percent clinical success rate, Gould showed 86.1 percent, Coll et al. showed 86.1 percent clinical success rate.
Barcelos et al. showed 85 percent of clinical success with ZOE but the overfilling was evident even after evaluation period.
Reference: Pediatric Dentistry by Nikhil Marwah 3rd ed, page no 672 | Dental | null | Which of the following medicaments is indicated to obturate the canals of a primary tooth in which a pulpectomy was performed?
A. Gutta-percha
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Zinc oxide-eugenol
D. Calcium hydroxide-CMCP paste
| Zinc oxide-eugenol |
368267bb-96ce-4563-bb63-04a328a807e2 | The key cells in our immune system are lymphocytes known as B cells and T cells, which originate in our bone marrow. After T cells fuher develop in our thymus. Reff: www.mayoclinic.com | Microbiology | Immunology | B cell maturation takes place in -
A. thymus
B. Lymph node
C. Bone marrow
D. Spleen
| Bone marrow |
16dd4748-aee5-457a-83e9-bfb2a7378180 | AMRU- Sequence of nerve involvement in SCF A- Anterior Interior Nerve M- Median Nerve R- Radial Nerve U- Ulnar nerve =Mechanism of injury-fall on outstretched hand(FOOSH) =TYPES- extension type most common (95-98%),flexion type less common (<5%). =Complications of supracondylar fracture of the humerus: Malunion leading to cubitus varus (gunstock deformity) Median nerve injury leading to pointing index sign Volkmann's ischemic contracture Vascular compromise - Rx- Urgent reduction in the OT and vascular status reassessed If perfusion is not restored, urgent exploration of the brachial aery is done | Orthopaedics | Peripheral Nerve Injury | Arrange the following nerves according to incidence of their involvement in Supra-condylar fracture of humerus a. Median nerve b. Radial nerve c. Anterior interosseous nerve d. Ulnar nerve
A. c,a,d,b
B. c,a,b,d
C. a,c,b,d
D. d,a,b,c
| c,a,b,d |
ab8d61d8-21ee-4a71-b63f-4f86e97654c4 | c. HoloprosencephalySingle eye (cyclopia) with a tubular-shaped nose (proboscis), are usually seen in a child with Holoprosencephaly | Pediatrics | Central Nervous System | A newborn baby has severe facial abnormalities, as shown below. What could be the underlying CNS abnormality in this baby?
A. Lissencephaly
B. Dandy walker malformation
C. Holoprosencephaly
D. Iniencephaly
| Holoprosencephaly |
9aa7e592-2a9b-41a9-9cd6-60fcee550c62 | Ion exchange chromatography is the chromatography in which molecules are separated on the basis of charge. Ref: Applications of High Performance Liquid Chromatography By Andrew Pryde, Mary T. Gilbe, Pages 50, 53; Biochemistry By Reginald Garrett, Charles M. Grisham, Page 127. | Biochemistry | null | Method of chromatography in which molecules that are negatively charged are selectively released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules in mobile phase is termed as:Affinity chromatography
A. Affinity chromatography
B. Ion - Exchange chromatography
C. Adsorbtion chromatography
D. Size - Exclusion chromatography
| Ion - Exchange chromatography |
d2881fcf-d579-4c3d-a4c0-580379efe52d | Hirschberg corneal reflex test: It is a rough but handy method to estimate the angle of manifest squint. In it the patient is asked to fixate at point light held at a distance of 33 cm and the detion of the corneal light reflex from the centre of pupil is noted in the squinting eye. Roughly, the angle of squint is 15deg and 45deg when the corneal light reflex falls on the border of pupil and limbus, respectively. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-327 | Ophthalmology | Ocular motility and squint | Hirschberg test is used to detect
A. Optic atrophy
B. Squint
C. Glaucoma
D. Field defects
| Squint |
a3bf0256-65a1-4eeb-a3d7-976e0834d6e4 | Oral clobazam (benzodiazepines) is an effective prophylaxis and is given during fever episodes for 3 days Ref Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 557 | Pediatrics | Central Nervous system | A 6 yr old child with Acute onset of fever of 104o fever developed febrile seizure was treated. To avoid recurrence of seizure attack what should be given ?
A. Paracetamol 400 mg and phenobarbitone
B. Oral diazepam 6 hourly
C. Paracetamol 400 mg 6 hourly
D. IV Diazepam infusion over 12 hourly
| Oral diazepam 6 hourly |
4b4c6c6e-2fbf-415e-b429-aeca394b48d4 | Main treatment consist of topical and systemic antibiotics and anti inflamatory analgesics . Ref :ak khurana 6th edition pg no:395 | Ophthalmology | Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus | Probing and irrigation is not done in -
A. Lacrimal fistula
B. Acute dacryocystitis
C. Congenital dacryocystitis
D. Trauma to eye
| Acute dacryocystitis |
20538a9a-b5e9-4879-9ff2-d648b2ae083f | The risk of developing schizophrenia in first degree relatives of schizophrenic patients is elevated compared to the risk of the general population (0.9%). Parents of schizophrenic patients have a lifetime prevalence of 11%, and siblings have a prevalence of 9%. Identical twins have a 50% chance of suffering from schizophrenia if their sibling has it. Children of schizophrenics have a lifetime prevalence of 12.8%. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 310 | Psychiatry | Mood disorders | A 17-year-old boy is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the risk that one of his siblings will develop the disease?
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 9%
D. 20%
| 9% |
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