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fdd24f43-d4d7-456b-8b05-b52081abe08e | Ans. B i.e. Herpes simplex virus II Ophthalmia neonatorum Time frame of signs/ symptoms following bih play an impoant role in determining the most likely etiology and subsequent proper diagnosis and treatment Within 48 hours: Chemical conjunctivitis (Typically presents within first 24 hours following bih) & Niesseria gonorrhoe 48-72 hours: Staph. aureus, Strepto. Hemolyticus 5-7 days: HSV-II More than 1 week: C. trachomatis (D-K) | Ophthalmology | null | The following is responsible for causing ophthalmia neonatorum on 5-7th day after bih: March 2013 (b)
A. Chemical
B. Herpes Simplex Virus II
C. Neisseria gonorrhoea
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
| Herpes Simplex Virus II |
e2a7f3c1-0852-4d7c-9390-138449418138 | Doses of dapsone less than 50mg in normal healthy persons cause no hemolysis.Ref: Goodman Gillman 12th ed. Pg: 1564 | Pharmacology | Antibiotics | The dose of Dapsone at which it does not cause hemolysis?
A. 50mg
B. 200mg
C. 300mg
D. 500mg
| 50mg |
f77387ef-3e9b-4762-8bec-a51d17856dd8 | Although the significance remains unclear, 30% of patients with polyaeritis nodosa have serum antibodies to the hepatitis B virus. Arsenic is associated with the development of angiosarcoma. Chlamydia pneumonia has been implicated in the development of atherosclerosis. KSHV, HHV-8, causes Kaposi sarcoma in individuals infected with human immunodeficiency virus. | Pathology | Vasculitis | A 23-year-old man presents with fever, weight loss, malaise, abdominal pain and myalgias. Workup reveals that the patient has polyaeritis nodosa. Which of the following is associated with this form of vasculitis?
A. Arsenic
B. Chlamydia pneumonia
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human immunodeficiency virus
| Hepatitis B virus |
bdee0875-e684-47d6-a293-fc82c60446af | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Temporalis fascia o Graft material used for myringoplasty are :i) Temporalis fascia (most common)iii) Tragal cartilageii) Perichondrium from the tragusiv) Veino Sometimes, homografts such as dura, vein, fascia and cadaver tympanic membrane are also used.[?][?] Dhingra 36 | ENT | Operative Surgery | Graft for myringoplasty-
A. Temporalis fascia
B. IIiacus fascia
C. Colles fascia
D. Iliotibial band
| Temporalis fascia |
1bf592f2-6ddf-4236-b651-2715346a61fc | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Psoriasis Various bed side tests and signs associated with psoriasis :-1. Grattage test :- Scraping of the psoriasis lesion causes accentuation of silvery scales (due to trapping of air).2 Auspitz's sign :- Scraping of the psoriasis lesion causes accentuation of silvery scales (like in grattage test). If scrapping is continued further, a glistening white membrane (Bulkely's Membrane) appears. On removing this membrane, punctate (pin point) bleeding becomes visible, referred to as auspitz's sign.3. Woronoffs ring: - Occasionally a hypopigmented ring is seen surrounding the lesion, k/a woronofFs ring. Mostly associated with treatment with topical steroids. | Skin | Psoriasis | Auzpitz sign is seen in -
A. Psoriasis
B. LichenPlanus
C. Alopeciaaerata
D. Lichensclerosus
| Psoriasis |
390657af-f557-4f8e-a13d-0d0e2115dca6 | Moth eaten pattern - Areas of destruction with ragged borders - Implies more rapid growth More likely chance of malignancy - Example Multiple Myeloma Metastasis Ewing&;s Sarcoma ref : maheswari 9th ed | Orthopaedics | Tumors | Moth eaten bone is seen in which of the following ?
A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Eosinophilic granuloma
D. Chondromyxoid fibroma
| Multiple myeloma |
e87dcbbc-8435-454a-9146-7fdf8e7e071e | Mechanical obstruction implies a barrier that impedes progress of intestinal contents. Complete mid or distal small-bowel obstruction presents with colicky abdominal pain, more marked abdominal distention but with vomiting that is less frequent and occurs at a later stage than that of proximal jejunal obstruction. | Surgery | Small & Large Intestine | A 68-year-old male musician presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of colicky abdominal pain and massive vomiting of 4-hour duration. Examination shows an elevated WBC of 13,200 with a HCT of 45%. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are normal. An erect film of the abdomen reveals dilatation of the stomach with distended loops of bowel. What is his clinical diagnosis?
A. Complete proximal intestinal obstruction
B. Incomplete proximal intestinal obstruction
C. Complete ileal obstruction
D. Incomplete ileal obstruction
| Complete proximal intestinal obstruction |
dd5072a9-b5d3-48b1-9689-31e223b09fb4 | Ans. B. IgM. (Ref. H-17th/pg. 708-709; Wintrobe's clinical hematology 13th/ pg. 979)Isohemagglutinins, substances that agglutinate the red blood cells of others of the same species, are also found in humans. Thus, there are four main blood groups, which differ with respect to two antigens, A and B, in the red blood cells and two isohemagglutinins, anti-A and anti-B, in the serum. Thus, in humans, type O has neither antigen but both agglutinins, type A has A antigen and anti-B.# Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are usually IgM and do not pass through the placenta. | Medicine | Blood | Hemagglutinin, (Anti-A and Anti-B) are which type of antibodies?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
| IgM |
9c0aee66-1cbf-484e-b2b9-333ec407c3c7 | This is likely to be a case of pituitary adenoma. The most common pituitary adenoma causing the symptoms is prolactinoma. | Medicine | null | 30 year old female comes with visual defects, breast engorgement and Amenorrhea. Investigation of choice is
A. CT brain
B. Serum prolactin
C. Biopsy
D. Mr angiography
| Serum prolactin |
528cbc97-f14f-46ef-8e6d-8a9119dffc29 | Myxoma is the most common primary neoplasm of hea (30- 50%). 75% of cardiac myxomas develop in the left atrium. Histologically, it is composed of a myxomatous stroma with large stellate cells mixed with multiWnuleated cells and covered with endothelium. Unusual benign tumors of hea are fibroma, lipoma, angioma, teratoma and cysts. Reference: Schwa'z Principles of Surgery 9e chapter 21. | Surgery | null | Which is the most common primary malignancy of hea ?
A. Rabdomyosarcoma
B. Myxoma
C. Fibroma
D. Lymphoma
| Myxoma |
9998f553-8eb9-4fe5-a0d0-de1da46fe29f | OCPs reduce ovarian cancer. TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 368 Table no 33.4 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Contraception | Preferred method of contraception for a female with family H/O ovarian cancer :
A. POP
B. Cu IUCD
C. OCP
D. Barrier method
| OCP |
3d399096-68bc-4d38-a439-0a3010791378 | Differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis in children Gastroenteritis Mesenteric adenitis Meckel's diveiculitis Intussusception Henoch-Schonlein purpura Lobar pneumonia Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1209 | Surgery | G.I.T | Most common differential diagnosis for appendicitis in children is
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Mesentric lymphadenopathy
C. Intussusception
D. Meckel's diveiculitis
| Mesentric lymphadenopathy |
a43e96de-c7cb-4446-87b0-bcec3cd9d378 | ANS. AMetformin is contraindicated in patients with high creatinine because of the risk of lactic acidosis.# Specific side effects of OHAMetformin1. GI symptoms2. B12 deficiency3. Lactic acidosis (especially in patients with high creatinine, liver failure, alcoholism, cardiorespiratory insufficiency)Piogiitazone1. Unsafe in Renal failure, Liver failure, cardiac failure2. Increased risk of bladder cancer3. OsteoporosisDPP-4 inhibitors1. Upper respiratory tract infection2. Renal toxicity (Vildagliptin is hepatotoxic)(Safest DPP-4 inhibitor in renal failure is linagliptan)(asked in Nov AIIMS 2016 and May 2017)SGLT2 inhibitors1. UTI2. Risk of bladder cancer | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Which of the following drugs is to be immediately stopped in a patient of diabetes with HTN and serum creatinine level of 5.6 mg?
A. Metformin
B. Insulin
C. Metoprolol
D. Linagliptin
| Metformin |
2aa77377-0266-4653-8824-288b446e940f | Image shows large U/L hypopigmented lesion on right trunk and arm in young female: segmental vitiligo. Vitiligo Segmental Non segmental Unilateral along dermatome Localised Generalised Focal: few mucosal: mucosa -Vulgaris - MC, B/L symptoms - Acrofacial (including hand and face) - Universalis >90% Etio: Autoimmune condition - Antibody formed destroy melanocytes Neurogenic hypothesis - It is only valid for segmental type The image shown above in question is of Segmental vitiligo Self-destruct theory of Lerner - Given for vitiligo It states that the oxidative stress which is going on in body causes destruction of melanocytes. If question would be about Vitiligo or B/L type, answer would be Autoimmune hypothesis. If there is family history of Vitiligo , answer would be Genetic factors | Dental | Hypo Pigmentary Disorders | Large unilateral hypopigmented lesion on right trunk and arm in female. Which of the following best explain the etiology for it?
A. Autoimmune hypothesis
B. Neurogenic hypothesis
C. Genetic factors
D. Self destruct theory of Lerner
| Neurogenic hypothesis |
ddbada9c-2e7c-483e-ab86-ba4a92fa6bf4 | Colorectal cancer is asymptomatic in its initial stages. As the tumor grows, the most common sign is occult blood in feces, especially when the tumor is in the proximal portion of the colon. Chronic, asymptomatic bleeding typically causes iron-deficiency anemia. Adenocarcinomas of the colon usually express CEA, a glycoprotein that is released into the circulation and serves as a serologic marker for these tumors. CEA is also found in association with malignant tumors of the pancreas, lung, and ovary. AFP (choice A) is expressed by hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumors. Chromogranin (choice D) is expressed by neuroendocrine tumors. Chorionic gonadotropin (choice C) is secreted by choriocarcinoma.Diagnosis: Colon cancer | Pathology | Neoplasia | A 59-year-old man complains of progressive weakness. He reports that his stools are very dark. Physical examination demonstrates fullness in the right lower quadrant. Laboratory studies show iron deficiency anemia, with a serum hemoglobin level of 7.4 g/dL. Stool specimens are positive for occult blood. Colonoscopy discloses an ulcerating lesion of the cecum. Which of the following serum tumor markers is most likely to be useful for following this patient after surgery?
A. Alpha-fetoprotein
B. Carcinoembryonic antigen
C. Chorionic gonadotropin
D. Chromogranin
| Carcinoembryonic antigen |
28e11c7c-c3dc-4389-ae6a-a932955b3a38 | CHEMICAL METHODS of contraception In the 1960s, before the advent of IUDs and oral contraceptives, spermicides (vaginal chemical contraceptives) were used widely. They comprise four categories. a) Foams : foam tablets, foam aerosols b) Creams, jellies and pastes squeezed from a tube c) Suppositories inseed manually, and d) Soluble films - C-film inseed manually. The spermicides contain a base into which a spermicide is incorporated. The commonly used modern spermicides are "surface-active agents" which attach themselves to spermatozoa and inhibit oxygen uptake and kill sperms. The main drawbacks of spermicides are : (a) they have a high failure rate (b) they must be used almost immediately before intercourse and repeated before each sex act (c) they must be introduced into those regions of the vagina where sperms are likely to be deposited, and (d) they may cause mild burning or irritation, besides messiness. The spermicide should be free from potential systemic toxicity. It should not have an inflammatory or carcinogenic effect on the vaginal skin or cervix. No spermicide which is safe to use has yet been found to be really effective in preventing pregnancy when used alone. Therefore, spermicides are not recommended by professional advisers. They are best used in conjunction with barrier methods. Recently there has been some concern about possible teratogenic effects on foetuses, following their use. However, this risk is yet to be confirmed. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 546-547 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | Spermicide acts by -
A. Release of acrosomal enzymes
B. Lysis of cell membrane
C. Glucose uptake inhibition
D. Vaginal enzyme alteration
| Release of acrosomal enzymes |
61dd21cd-674e-4428-9cb5-08788d44bc0f | Ans. is a i.e. CO2 CO2 is the gas used to create pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopy. Other option is N20. But it is expensive, less soluble in blood and suppos combustion. Also know : Instrument used for creating pneumoperitoneum is veress needle. Flow Rate of CO2 for creating pneumoperitoneum 200 -- 2000 ml/min and pressure between 15 -- 25 mm of Hg. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Gas most commonly used in laparoscopy is
A. CO2
B. SO2
C. N2
D. O2
| CO2 |
5ade7921-5b2d-4880-ade4-c2032830a9f4 | Absolute contraindications of OCP'S: - C - Cancers - L - Liver diseases - U - Uterine bleeding - T - Thromboembolism - C - Cardiovascular diseases - H - Hyperlipidemia - Preganancy Also remember, Long-standing or complicated diabetes (with microvascular complications) is absolute contraindication. Grade I hypeension is relative contraindication and Grade II is absolute. Simultaneous use of some anti-epileptics is relatively contraindicated . | Social & Preventive Medicine | Natural Methods, Barrier Methods, IUDs, OCPs | Absolute Contraindication for the Use of OCPs is:
A. Thromboembolism
B. Hypeension
C. Diabetes
D. Epilepsy
| Thromboembolism |
37a1b25b-93aa-4fc3-99f4-aa7a828d48ad | bowel obstruction with an absent caecal gas shadow in ileocolic cases. A soft tissue opacity is often visible in children. A barium enema may be used to diagnose the presence of an ileocolic intussusception (the claw sign) Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1196 | Surgery | G.I.T | A new born girl not passed meconium for 48 hrs, has abdominal distention and vomiting, Initial investigation of choice would be
A. Manometry
B. Genotyping for cystic fibrosis
C. Lower GI contrast study
D. Serum trypsin immunoblot
| Lower GI contrast study |
a7d5134f-931f-4d5f-8297-0b4dd2decfa2 | In osteoahritis of hand:Distal interphalangeal joint: Heberden's nodeProximal interphalangeal joint: Bouchard's node(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 88, 101, 127) | Orthopaedics | All India exam | Heberden done denotes involvement of
A. Distal inetrphalangeal joint
B. Proximal interphalangel joint
C. Metacarpophalangeal joint
D. Metatarsophalangeal joint
| Distal inetrphalangeal joint |
34360764-9c31-430d-af9f-eaeff03305d6 | From the lateral geniculate nucleus, a magnocellular pathway and a parvocellular pathway project to the visual coex. The parvocellular pathway, from layers 3-6, carries signals for color vision, texture, shape, and fine detail. The parvocellular pathway also carries color opponent data to the deep pa of layer 4.Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third Edition | Physiology | Nervous system | The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual coex is most sensitive for the stimulus of
A. Color contrast
B. Luminance contrast
C. Temporal frequency
D. Saccadic eye movements
| Color contrast |
86495f0a-d350-4ad5-ad94-bf6d17d75836 | - for children between 4-8 years, the dose of chloroquine per day is 300 mg. - 2 tablets of chloroquine 150mg base is provided. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition pg no:264 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Dose of chloroquine at 4-8 year -
A. 150 mg
B. 300 mg
C. 450 mg
D. 600 mg
| 300 mg |
3ffb46b3-0bd5-4ba7-ae83-f063254b6288 | As discussed in the preceding text:
Endometrial hyperplasia is of the following four varieties:
Simple hyperplasia without atypical cells
Complex hyperplasia without atypical cells
Simple hyperplasia without atypical cells
Complex hyperplasia without atypical cells.
Logically speaking least chances of malignant transformation are with simple hyperplasia without atypia and maximum chances are with complex hyperplasia with atypia.
Chances of Progression to Carcinoma:
Type of hyperplasia
Simple without atypia - 1%°
Complex without atypia - 3%°
Simple with atypia - 8%°
Complex with atypia - 29-30%°
Thus, from the table, it is reaffirmed that minimum chances of progression to carcinoma are with simple hyperplasia without atypia ( also called as cystic glandular hyperplasia )and maximum chances of carcinoma are with complex hyperplasia with atypia. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Percentage change of cystic glandular hyperplasia turning to malignancy:
A. 0.10%
B. 2%
C. 1%
D. 10%
| 1% |
dbf043d1-9d17-4ba6-9227-3685a54c68e4 | Muriform cells are also called chromo/medlar/copper penny/ sclerotic bodies. They are chestnut/golden brown colored fungal cells found mainly in giant cells in infiltrate of chromoblastomycosis. Ref: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, 8th Edition, Page 36.75. | Skin | null | The chestnut coloured fungal cells known as muriform bodies are seen in:
A. Sporotrichosis
B. Phaeohyphomycosis
C. Chromoblastomycosis
D. Lobomycosis
| Chromoblastomycosis |
fb7e2b07-0378-4f65-82d3-82911042d1f2 | The macrolides (especially azithromycin) and the respiratory quinolones are now the antibiotics of choice and are effective as monotherapy. Compared with erythromycin, the newer macrolides have superior in vitro activity, display greater intracellular activity, reach higher concentrations in respiratory secretions and lung tissue, and have fewer adverse effects. Ref: Sabria M., Yu V.L. (2012). Chapter 147. Legionella Infections. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Pharmacology | null | A young boy presented with high fever shows clinical features suggestive of Legionnaires' Disease. Treatment of choice is:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Azithromycin
C. Penicillin
D. Streptomycin
| Azithromycin |
40752f7b-4da5-4712-995f-7bf5bf5c6bc7 | A chronic granulomatous disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae, principally affecting peripheral nerves and skin. Nerve involvement is seen in all cases of leprosy. The cardinal signs are: 1. Hypopigmented/hypoanaesthetic patches 2. Peripheral nerve thickening 3. Skin slit smear(AFB). | Dental | Mycobacterial Infections | In leprosy neural involvement occurs in what percentage of patients
A. 30%
B. 60%
C. 90%
D. 100%
| 100% |
a2a829d0-0ecb-4770-bc70-b33e9ccbec42 | Ans--b. Fibromyalgia (Ref Harrison 19/e p2238. 18/e p122. 2849: Kaplan and Sada'ock!s Synopsis of Psychiatry 10/e p276; Niraj Ahuja 7/e p104-105)Fibromyalgia is not a specific somatoform disorder, it has organic basis behind its pathologysomatic like is a generic term first used in DSM III for a group of disorders charactrized by physical symptoms that are not explained by organic factors (i.e. for syndromes of presumed psychological origin)." | Psychiatry | null | Which of the following is not a specific somatoform disorders?.
A. Somatization disorder
B. Fibromyalgia
C. Chronic fatigue syndrome
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
| Fibromyalgia |
1f9cbcee-3eb2-41ba-8bc1-cb08b11520be | Fluoride helps in denon and reduces tooth decay,
Flourine is oen called a two edged sword
Excess intake →Causes Endemic fluorosis
Inadequate →Causes dental caries | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Fluoride helps in
A. Vision
B. Dentition
C. Myelinaon
D. Joint stability
| Dentition |
d9ee13f9-8619-4d69-aef9-1e1fd007c70d | There is no posterior epithelium, as these cells are used up in filling the central cavity of lens vesicle during The epithelium development of the lens. | Ophthalmology | null | The epithelium is absent in lens on
A. Anterior surface
B. Posterior surface
C. Anterior pole
D. At zonular attachment
| Posterior surface |
4695473e-a66d-4dc0-89c0-4699cc3bfc4e | Cyclooxygenase 1- plays a role in maintaining GI mucosal integrity The beneficial effects of NSAIDs on tissue inflammation are due to inhibition of COX-2 S/E of NSAIDs: GI mucosal ulceration and renal dysfunction- due to inhibition of the COX-1 isoform. Highly COX-2-selective NSAIDs- provide the beneficial effect of decreasing tissue inflammation & minimizing toxicity in the GI tract. Selective COX-2 inhibitors have had adverse effects on CVS, leading to increased risk of myocardial infarction. | Medicine | Malabsorbtion Syndrome | Which cyclooxygenase plays a role in maintaining GI mucosal integrity?
A. Cyclooxygenase 1
B. Cyclooxygenase 2
C. Cyclooxygenase 3
D. Cyclooxygenase 4
| Cyclooxygenase 1 |
41f370e3-deda-4c23-9577-ababa1a8800a | Ans. D. Metropathia hemorrhagicaEndometrial histology - secretory phasea. The characteristic feature of endometrium in Metropathia hemorrhagica is cystic glandular hyperplasia.b. Another important feature is absence of secretory endometrium with absence of corkscrew glands.c. Endometrium is usually thick and polypoidal.d. Thin polypi project into the uterine cavity. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Obs) | Absence of corkscrew glands is seen in
A. Halban's disease
B. Polycystic ovarian disease
C. Irregular ripening
D. Metropathia hemorrhagica
| Metropathia hemorrhagica |
6e3bbdfd-b181-4f52-808a-ef68f3eed266 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 579 and 8th/e, p. 578)* It takes 2 - 8 weeks to months for antibodies to appear after infection. This period, from infection to appearance of antibodies is called as window period.* During this period patients is seronegative, i.e., serological tests (ELISA and Western blot) are negative.* The individual may be highly infectious during this period. | Microbiology | Human Immunodeficiency Virus | In HIV window period indicates:
A. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms
B. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
C. Time period between infection and minimum multiplication of the organism
D. Time period between infection and maximum multiplication of the organism
| Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV |
74602b4d-95a2-4ff5-956f-66f05fc8a7d0 | Ans. A. Carcinoma cervixEarly Coitarche (early age of first intercourse) is a risk factor for carcinoma cervix. | Pathology | null | Early age of sex is risk factor for
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Carcinoma vulva
C. Carcinoma vagina
D. Carcinoma ovary
| Carcinoma cervix |
7630c720-7e2b-47a5-bb18-6735d984008a | Ans. (c) Aortic stenosis(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.540)In aortic stenosis,PV loop is shifted to left sideVentricular systolic pressure increases to overcome the stenosisThere is increase in End systolic volumeStroke volume decreases | Physiology | Heart, Circulation, and Blood | Pressure volume loop is shifted to left side in
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Congestive cardiac failure
| Aortic stenosis |
63ed130c-20d9-4f4a-b6be-cfc50c0a1d28 | This patient has the classic symptoms of cat scratch disease caused by the bacillus Baonella henselae. The disease is self-limited with the onset of symptoms occurring 3-10 days following an inoculating scratch. The organism can be isolated from kittens, typically less than 1 year of age, or from fleas. A history of a new kitten in the house and the papule at the site of a scratch with regional painful adenopathy defines the classic scenario. Chickens can harbor Salmonella spp. producing a gastroenteritis or enterocolitis. Chicken guano is also a orable environment for the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. The mycelial phase thrives in the rich soil. The human disease is a granulomatous infection involving the lungs and mimicking tuberculosis. Dogs or puppies carry Capnocytophaga canimorsus as pa of the normal flora of the oral cavity. Infections from licking or biting range from a self-severe infections are those with asplenia, alcoholism, or hematologic malignancies. This organism is also associated with cat bites, but the patient develops cellulitis and fulminant septicemia, especially in asplenic patients. Pasteurella multocida is another pathogen that colonizes the nasopharynx and gastrointestinal tract of cats and dogs. Cats have the highest rate of colonization (50-90%), followed by dogs (50%), swine (50%), and rats (14%). P. multocida most commonly causes a localized soft tissue infection or cellulitis after an animal bite, but systemic symptoms may be present in about 40% of the cases. These symptoms include osteomyelitis, septic ahritis, or tenosynovitis. Horses and horse manure have been associated with a pulmonary oppounistic infection with cavitation caused by Rhodococcus equi that resembles tuberculosis in immunocompromised patients. Burkholderia mallei (the cause of glanders) is characterized by non-caseating granulomatous abscesses of skin, lymphadenopathy, and pronounced involvement of the lungs. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 20. Gram-Negative Rods Related to Animal Sources (Zoonotic Organisms). In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | Microbiology | null | A 15-year-old girl in a rural community has swollen, painful lymph nodes in her right axilla. Physical examination reveals multiple scratches on her right arm with a papule associated with one of the scratch marks. She states that the scratches occurred about 5 days ago. What type of animal is the most likely source of the infection?
A. Cat or kitten
B. Chicken
C. Dog or puppy
D. Horse
| Cat or kitten |
52ec8fa6-2268-4c51-84ef-5dbab844861b | Being developed in the dorsal mesogastrium, the spleen projects into the greater sac surrounded by peritoneum of the original left leaf of the dorsal mesogastrium. It lies at the left margin of the lesser sac below the diaphragm, and its diaphragmatic surface is moulded into a reciprocal convexity. Its hilum lies in the angle between the stomach and left kidney, each of which impresses a concavity alongside the attached the splenic vessels. Ref: Last's Anatomy: Regional and Applied By Chummy S. Sinnatamby, 2011, Chapter 5. | Anatomy | null | Spleen projects into the following space of peritoneal cavity:
A. Greater sac
B. Paracolic gutter
C. Left subhepatic space
D. Infracolic compament
| Greater sac |
0fcbd6b9-bf81-4a34-b3b4-e40e7d7c928a | Brain perfusion study using perfusion agents like Tc-99m HMPAO, i.e., Tc-9W6HMPAO brain SPECT is indicated in acute cerebral infarct imaging before evidence of CT/MRI pathology, when positive findings are seen with 1 hour of event. Brain metabolic rate and functional activity study by using 18F –FDG PET is indicated in focal epilepsy prior to seizure.
MDCT is not useful for functional studies of brain. | Unknown | null | A 6 years old boy presented with Complex seizures per day in spite of adequate 4 drug antiepileptic regime. He had history of repeated high-grade fever in childhood. MRI for epilepsy protocol revealed normal brain scan. Which of the following will not be helpful for functional imaging of brain?
A. MDCT
B. SPECT imaging
C. Interictal 18F-FDG PET
D. Video EEG with Ictal 99mTc- HMPAO study of brain
| MDCT |
9a60b528-fc24-4286-8b8c-6558a11d15fe | ANSWER: (A) Defect in development of long bonesREF: Goodman Gillman manual of pharmacology and therapeutics 2008 edition page 897, http:// en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PhocomeliaPhocomelia is lack of development of proximal part of limb. The distal part being present is called as seal limb. Phocomelia is an extremely rare congenital disorder involving the limbs. Although various numbers of factors can cause phocomelia, the prominent roots come from the drug use of thalidomide and from genetic inheritance | Pharmacology | Adverse Drug Effect | Phocomelia is best described as:
A. Defect in development of long bones
B. Defect in development of flat bones
C. Defect in intramembranous ossification
D. Defect in cartilage replacement by bones
| Defect in development of long bones |
4d1d4351-d699-4569-bbcb-1fec1a63adb1 | Bradykinin causes Increases vascular permeability Aeriolar dilation Bronchial smooth muscle contraction Pain at the site of inflammation ref robbins 9th ed page 52 | Pathology | General pathology | Bradykinin Causes -
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Pain at the site of inflammation
C. Bronchodilatation
D. Decreased Vascular permeability
| Pain at the site of inflammation |
8e3bb91d-be97-42e0-be3c-0d20486e0553 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Elbow Myositis ossificans is the extraskeletal hetrotropic ossification that occurs in muscles and other soft tissues. Trauma is the most impoant cause of myositis ossificans. Usually there is history of severe single injury. It is more common in children. Most commonly involved joint is elbow followed by hip. There is history of trauma around the elbow, i.e. fracture supracondylar humerus, dislocation of elbow or surgery with extensive periosteal stripping. Massage to the elbow and vigorous passive stretching to restore movements are aggravating factor. It occurs in muscles which are vulnerable to tear under heavy loads, such as quadriceps, adductors, brachicilis, biceps, and deltoid. X-ray finding is characteristic and shows distinct peripheral margin of mature ossification and a radiolucent center of immature osteoid & primitive mesenchymal tissue | Surgery | null | Most common site of myositis ossificans ?
A. Knee
B. Elbow
C. Shoulder
D. Wrist
| Elbow |
343a745a-81e2-4eb2-9142-7b63b5c9c5be | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pol III gene Alcohol induces pol III gene (RNA polymerase III-dependent genes) transcription in vivo and in vitro. Brfl specifically regulates pol III gene transcription. Changes in pol III gene and Brfl expression tightly link to cell transformation and tumor formation. Alcohol induced deregulation of pol III genes may be fundamental to the development of breast cancer. | Pharmacology | null | Alcohol in substrate inducer for which gene?
A. Pol III gene
B. Myc Oncogene
C. P53
D. NF1
| Pol III gene |
a7baf99b-645c-4995-bf3e-2afc6a83ba8d | C i.e. Accepting delusions of other person | Psychiatry | null | Characteristic Symptom in induced psychotic disorder is
A. Insomnia
B. Profound mood disturbance
C. Accepting delusions of other person
D. Suicidal Ideation
| Accepting delusions of other person |
69738efa-3af9-494d-b8de-59aa9be2e7f5 | A i.e.Prodromal phase of angle closure glaucoma | Ophthalmology | null | A patient has complaint of seeing coloured holoes in the evening and blurring of vision for last few days with normal 10P :
A. Prodromal phase of acute angle closure glaucoma
B. Acute angle closure glaucoma
C. Chronic glaucoma
D. Epidemic dropsy
| Prodromal phase of acute angle closure glaucoma |
a3262af4-f823-4c84-8c24-229f44269542 | Darier's disease is characterized by defect in Ca+2 pump that is necessary for desmosome function, due to mutation in ATP2A2 gene.
Both HHD and Darier's disease are characterized by acantholysis and suprabasal blister, but dysteratosis (premature keratinization in epidermis) is seen classically with Darier's disease. | Dental | null | Dyskeratosis is seen in:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Bullous Pemphigoid
C. Darier's disease
D. Hailey-Hailey disease
| Darier's disease |
a1e9a62b-ff73-4011-a169-f3c38ca5c1cb | (Anterior communicating) (103- BDC-3, 4th edition, 750 Snell 8th)Branches of the Internal Carotid Artery* There are no branches in the neck** (Cervical), Many important branches, however are given off in the skull* Cerebral part branches(i) Opthalmic(ii) Anterior cerebral(iii) Posterior communicting(iv) Middle cerebral(v) Anterior choroidal* Of these the opthalmic artery supplies structures in the orbit while the others supply the brain | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Which of the following is NOT a branch of intracranial part of Internal carotid artery(103 - BDC- 3) 4th edition
A. Anterior communicating
B. Anterior cerebral
C. Middle cerebral
D. Posterior communicating
| Anterior communicating |
111cb9f6-71fc-477a-9135-d0af9895ff76 | Tryptophan. Serotonin is synthesized from the essential amino acid tryptophan. The rate-limiting step is the conversion of the amino acid to 5-hydroxytrptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase. This is then conveed to serotonin by the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase which needs Pyridoxal Phosphate as a cofactor Ref : vasudevan 7th ed | Biochemistry | All India exam | With help of the drug shown below, serotonin is synthesized from which of the following precursor amino acid?
A. Tryptophan
B. Glycine
C. Threonine
D. Methionine
| Tryptophan |
52e91750-fe46-4249-a83a-dab2f5a602ee | Silent thyroiditis / Post-Paum thyroiditis It is an autoimmune mediated destruction of gland. It occurs after 3-6 months post-paum in about 5% of pregnancies. Patient first develops thyrotoxicosis which is followed by hypothyroidism and then resolution. It is characterised by: Normal ESR and presence of TPO antibodies RAIU is supressed No role of steroids Recovery is the rule | Medicine | Diseases of Thyroid | Which of the following is silent thyroiditis?
A. Acute thyroiditis
B. Subacute thyroiditis
C. Hashimoto thyroiditis
D. Post-paum thyroiditis
| Post-paum thyroiditis |
af8c73d6-1cb8-4ff4-b7bb-005c3ce54d28 | * In the Syln fissure, the MCA in most patients divides into superior and inferior divisions (M2 branches). * Branches of the inferior division supply the inferior parietal and temporal coex, Branches from the superior division supply the frontal and superior parietal coex. * Hence due to damage of the blood supply of the Broca's area the main feature shall be motor aphasia. ENTIRE MCA is occluded at its origin (blocking both its penetrating and coical branches) - clinical findings are 1) contralateral hemiplegia, 2) hemianesthesia, 3)Homonymous hemianopia, 4) A day or two of gaze preference to the ipsilateral side. 5)Dysahria is common because of facial weakness. Dominant hemisphere is involved- global aphasia is present Nondominant hemisphere is affected- anosognosia, constructional apraxia, and neglect are found. PAIAL SYNDROME A)Brachial syndrome- embolic occlusion of a single branch include hand, or arm and hand, weakness alone . B)Frontal opercular syndrome-. facial weakness with nonfluent (Broca) aphasia, with or without arm weakness C)Proximal superior division of MCA. A combination of 1)sensory disturbance, 2) motor weakness, and 3) nonfluent aphasia suggests that an embolus has occluded the proximal superior division and infarcted large poions of the frontal and parietal coices D)inferior devision OF MCA IN DOMINANT HEMISPHERE- -If a fluent (Wernicke's) aphasia occurs without weakness, the inferior division of the MCA supplying the posterior pa (temporal coex) of the dominant hemisphere is probably involved. other menifestations -Jargon speech and an inability to comprehend written and spoken language are prominent -Contralateral, homonymous superior quadrantanopia. IN NON DOMINANAT HEMISHERE-Hemineglect or spatial agnosia without weakness indicates that the inferior division of the MCA in the nondominant hemisphere is involved. E)Occlusion of a lenticulostriate vessel produces small-vessel (lacunar) stroke within the internal capsule . This produces pure motor stroke or sensory-motor stroke contralateral to the lesion. F)Ischemia within the genu of the internal capsule- 1) primarily facial weakness followed by arm and then leg weakness as the ischemiamoves posterior within the capsule., 2) Clumsy hand, dysahria lacunar syndrome). The contralateral hand may become ataxic, and dysahria will be prominent G) Lacunar infarction affecting theglobus pallidus and putamen -parkinsonism and hemiballismus. | Medicine | Stroke and TIA | Thrombosis of the Superior branch of middle cerebral aery leads to:
A. Motor aphasia
B. Urinary retention
C. Bitemporal hemianopia
D. Grasp reflex
| Motor aphasia |
8b4fbfa6-301d-4237-b641-24ca4795381f | Ans. is 'a' specific gravity of urineThe main function of renal tubules is concentration of urine and this can be measured by the specific gravity of urine. | Physiology | Glomerular Filtration, Renal Blood Flow, and Their Control | The most sensitive index for renal tubular function is :
A. Specific gravity of urine
B. Blood urea
C. GFR
D. Creatinine clearance
| Specific gravity of urine |
83fb5a08-cdb0-48b2-b8cf-f9e769e86ada | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pancarditis During Acute Rheumatic fever, diffuse inflammation and Aschoff bodies may be found in any of the three layers of hea - pericardium, myocardium or endocardium - PANCARDITIS. | Pathology | null | Characteristic feature of Rheumatic carditis is ?
A. Pericarditis
B. Endocarditis
C. Myocarditis
D. Pancarditis
| Pancarditis |
6b01ac12-4343-4f44-b384-4af8f9913859 | (A) Vitamin B1 # Dry Beriberi involves both the peripheral and the central nervous systems.> Peripheral nerve involvement is typically asymmetric motor & sensory neuropathy with pain, paresthesias& loss of reflexes.> The legs are affected more than the arms. Central nervous system involvement results in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.> Wernicke's encephalopathy consists of nystagmus progressing to ophthalmoplegia, truncal ataxia & confusion> Koraskoff's syndrome includes amnesia, confabulation, and impaired learning. | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | Wernicke's encephalopathy occurs due to deficiency of
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B12
| Vitamin B1 |
086d021b-af51-42e1-b696-cf266ff3783d | MRI is the best radiographic imaging technique for the identification of abscess and for differentiation between bone and soft tissue infection. | Pediatrics | null | Acute osteomyelitis can best be distinguished from soft tissue infection by –
A. Clinical examination
B. X–Ray
C. CT scan
D. MRI
| MRI |
fdc63900-a247-4f02-84df-77b94bfebac2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Metaphysis Metaphysis is most commonly involved in acute osteomyelitis as-o Long loop vessels are present leading to easy bacterial seeding o Excessive bone turnover in this regiono It has thin cortexo It has relatively fewer phagocytic cells | Orthopaedics | Osteomyelitis | Acute Osteomylitis in children most commonly affects-
A. Metaphysis
B. Diaphysis
C. Epiphysis
D. Physis
| Metaphysis |
dc0e3465-17c6-4f28-b982-2da431e37880 | Engagement is said to occur when the greatest transverse diameter of the presenting part, has passed through the pelvic inlet. In all cephalic presentations, the greatest transverse diameter is always the biparietal.
Engagement occurs in multipara with commencement of labour in the late Ist stage after rupture of membranes and in Nullipara during the last few weeks of pregnancy, i.e. ≈ 38 weeks
In primi’s the most common cause of non engagement at term is deflexed head or occipitoposterior position followed by cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD).
Since deflexed head or occipitoposterior is not given in option, we will go for CPD as the answer. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Commonest cause of non - engagement at term, in primi is:
A. CPD
B. Hydramnios
C. Brow presentation
D. Breech
| CPD |
1aad7a29-6a65-43a9-afda-12e3bbeb80d3 | (D) Double helix > Relatively flexible areas of the DNA double helix are most susceptible to damage.> Radiation can damage the DNA "double helix" - a two-stranded, twisting molecule - in a variety of ways: 1) by knocking off one or more of the DNA "bases" known by the letters A, T, G, and C, which form the bonds between the two strands of the double helix; 2) by oxidizing these bases; or 3) by breaking through one or both strands. All can result ir a failure of the molecule to perform its main task - telling cells which proteins to make. That can lead to out-of-control cell growth (cancer) or death. | Radiology | Radiotherapy | Which part of DNA is most susceptible to radiation?
A. Nucleotides
B. Nucleosides
C. Histones
D. Double helix
| Double helix |
e7930f3d-05fe-4cd2-96e0-d2883862f318 | TB verrucosa cutis also called as anatomist's / pathologist's wart ,presents as wart / cauliflower like hypertrophic lesions typically over fingers and feet. | Dental | null | Cutaneous infection due to exogenous exposure to TB bacilli in a person who is already sensitized by previous exposure to TB leads to:
A. Lupus vulgaris
B. TB chancre
C. Erythema induratum
D. TB veruccosa cutis
| TB veruccosa cutis |
1d693ade-8d09-4a3d-9c0a-d75747bae255 | Spermatogenesis is the process in which spermatozoa are produced from spermatogonial stem cells by way of mitosis and meiosis. The initial cells in this pathway are called spermatogonia, which yield primary spermatocytes by mitosis. The primary spermatocyte divides meiotically (Meiosis I) into two secondary spermatocytes; each secondary spermatocyte divides into two spermatids by Meiosis II. These develop into mature spermatozoa, also known as sperm cells.LH appears to have little role in spermatogenesis outside of inducing gonadal testosterone productionRef: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-420 | Physiology | Endocrinology | Spermatogenesis is mostly controlled by
A. Inhibin
B. FSH
C. LH
D. GnRH
| LH |
b64c2848-0e12-41f7-b291-2421e250ecf1 | Ill-Defined Borders
Blending Border: A blending border is a gradual, often wide zone of transition between the adjacent normal bone trabeculae and the abnormal appearing trabeculae of the lesion. The focus of this observation is on the trabeculae and not on the radiolucent marrow spaces.
Examples of conditions with this type of margin are sclerosing osteitis and fibrous dysplasia.
Oral radiology White and Pharaoh; 7th ed. Page no 276,277 | Radiology | null | Which lesion displays an ill-defined border?
A. Periapical cyst
B. Sclerosing osteitis
C. Soft tissue capsule
D. Multiple myeloma
| Sclerosing osteitis |
89f1fc8f-a728-4ccf-aa39-31bee8fa38aa | B i.e. Halothane Among all these options only halothane is hepatotoxic so it should be avoided Lets revise some impoant facts. All coagulation factors with exception of factor VIII (8) & von wille brand factor are produced by liverQ Vit K is necessary for synthesis of prothrombin (factor II) and factor VII, IX and XQ. PT is normally 11-14 seconds, mesures the activity of fibrinogen, prothrombin and factors, V, VII, and XQ All opioids cause spasm of sphincter of oddi & increase biliary pressure Halothane hepatitis is more common in middle age, obese, female sex, and a repeated exposure (esp with in 28 days) | Anaesthesia | null | In a 2 months old infant undergoing surgery for biliary atresia, you would avoid one of the following anaesthetic
A. Thiopentone
B. Halothane
C. Propofol.
D. Sevoflurane
| Halothane |
e476792d-b36e-42fd-889a-cfad35d4693d | (Lichen scrofulosorum) (202-Behl lCfh, 1756-Dorland 28th, 219- Neena khanna)TUBERCULIDES - Group of disease where the evidence for a tuberculous etiology is not definite {May be hypersensitivity reaction) but which show a tuberculous granuloma on histology and respond to ATT)Conditions included in TuberculidsCutaneous Tuberculosis (Non Tuberculides)* Lichen scrofulosorum* Lupus vulgaris* Erythema- induratum* Sacrofuloderma* Papulonecrotc tuberculides (Acne-scrafulosorum)* Tubercularis cutis verrucosus* Lupus miliaris disseminatus faciei* Miliary tuberculosis and metastatic tuberculosis* Rosaceous tuberculide* Miliary tuberculosis and metastatic tuberculosis abscess may also present as cutaneous tuberculosis(According to 'Behl' Erythema - nodosum is also a tuberculide while some texts do not include it as a tuberculide)Features of TB in AIDS patients* |Sputum positivity *** Little or no cavitation*** |ed extra pulmonary tuberculosis *** Negative PPD skin test*** Lack of classic granuloma* Atypical CXR- Diffuse interstitial or military infiltrate* Response to short course chemotherapy is similar*** but adverse effects may be more pronounced including severe or even fatal skin disease* High rate of reactivation Indications of pulmonary resection in tuberculosis / haemoptysis areAbsoluteRelative* Massive haemoptysis (600cc/24 hours)* Destroyed lung, positive sputum* Bronchopleural fistula* Suspicion of carcinoma* Haemoptysis* Bronchial stenosis* Persistent positive sputum* Open negative cavity* T.B. Empyema* Atypical tuberculus infections* Aspergilloma (Fungus balls)Lupus - vulgaris - is a form of cutaneous tuberculosis that is seen in previously infected and sensitized individualsLupus- pernio - is a particular type of sarcoidosis that involves the tip of nose & earlobes with lesions that are violaceous in colourSpino- ventosa - Tuberculosis of bone in which bone is expanded & the cortex thins eg digitsScrofuloderma - Tuberculosis first develops in a lymph node or a bone producing a swelling and subsequently ruptures through the overlying skinFalse negative tuberculin skin test - reactions may result from improper testing technique - concurrent infections, malnutrition advanced age, immunologic disorders, lymphoreticular malignancies, corticosteroid therapy, CRF, HIV infections and fulminant tuberculosis | Medicine | Skin | Tuberculides are seen in
A. Lupus vulgaris
B. Scrofuloderma
C. Lichen scrofulosorum
D. Erythema nodosum
| Lichen scrofulosorum |
298d8c60-b34a-476f-b9e0-9ce94c49625c | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 15 months o Vocabulary of 4-6 words in addition to jargon is achieved by 15 months of age. However | Pediatrics | null | A child has a vocabulary of4-6 words however the main mode of communication and social interaction continues to be non-verbal what is the most likely developmental age of the child -
A. 12 months
B. 15 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
| 15 months |
75c30c8b-b8f7-42d5-8562-a82aa37bfd63 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Para-aoicLymphatics of the ovary drain to para-aoic nodes alongside the origin of the ovarian aery (L2). | Anatomy | null | Lymphatic drainage of ovary?
A. Deep inguinal
B. Superficial inguinal
C. Obturator
D. Paraaoic
| Paraaoic |
86fca861-ba48-46bc-97e8-7ea2811bf202 | Osteoahritis characteristically involves distal interphalangeal joint (Heberden's node), proximal interphalangeal joint (Bouchard's node), 1st carpometacarpal joint (base of thumb) of hand with sparing of metacarpophalangeal joint and wrist joint. Fig. Joints involved in osteoahritis | Orthopaedics | Joint disorders | Ahritis involving DIP, PIP, 1st carpometacarpal with sparing of MCP and wrist joints is typical of:
A. Osteoahritis
B. Rheumatoid ahritis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Psoriatic ahritis
| Osteoahritis |
14d590e3-1ae4-4d4b-893e-5693a5658346 | The secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase of meiosis II, and it will remain in this meiotic stage until feilization occurs. Following feilization, the secondary oocyte completes meiosis II, forming a mature ovum and a polar body. The nucleus of the mature ovum is called the female pronucleus, which fuses with the male pronucleus to form a zygote. | Anatomy | Introduction and gametogenesis. | In oogenesis, which of the following events occurs immediately following the completions of meiosis II?
A. Degeneration of the zona pellucida
B. Sperm penetration of the corona radiata
C. Formation of a female pronucleus
D. Appearance of the blastocyst
| Formation of a female pronucleus |
d49be83b-ca03-47fb-b02b-307fc2ad4e2a | eg for enzyme inducers of cyp3a4 - phenobarbitone, rifampin, glucocoicoids, Phenobarbitone also induces CYP2Bl and rifampin also induces CYP2D6.Isoniazid and chronic alcohol consumption induce CYP2El.Other impoant enzyme inducers are- chloral hydrate, phenylbutazone, griseofulvin, DDT. Erythromycin, cimetidine, ketoconazole are enzyme inhibitors ref ;KD Tripathi Pharmacology 7th edition (page no;26) | Pharmacology | General pharmacology | CYP-450 inducers are:
A. Cimetidine
B. Ketoconazole
C. erythromycin
D. DDT
| DDT |
4053e2a3-3f27-46e5-9966-a284e869e4fd | Answer is A (EHPVO): Presence of hemetemesis, malena and splenomegaly suggests a diagnosis of poal hypeension. The most common cause of poal hypeension in a male child (12 year old boy) is Extra Hepatic Poal Vein Obstruction (EHPVO). EHPVO is therefore the single best answer by exclusion Non Cirrhotic Poal Fibrosis presents in a similar fashion clinically, however it is more common in females and in an adult population (third or fouh decade). NCPF is usually associated with a moderate/large (massive) splenomegaly Cirrhosis is an uncommon cause of poal hypeension in children and the absence of jaundice and ascitis makes this diagnosis more unlikely. 'An infant or child presenting with hemetemesis and mild/moderate splenomegaly in the absence of features of chronic - liver disease is likely to be suffering from EHPVO. In adults, one needs to exclude diseases such as NCPF and compensated cirrhosis - 'Poal Hypeension': by Robeo De Franchis (Wiley - Blackwell) 2006 /314 Ate of presentation ors a diagnosis of EHPVO over NCPF Age at presentation is an impoant factor in distinguishing EHPVO from NCPF - Indian Journal of Gastroenterology; 1984: Vol 3; No 4; 201-202 'More than three quaers of Indian Children with poal Inpeension were found to have extra hepatic poal vein obstruction (EHPVO) and Indian studies have shown extra hepatic poal vein obstruction (EHPVO) to be the commonest non cirrhotic cause for poal hypeension' - 'Diseases of the Liver and Biliary System in Children' by Kelly 3rd /559 'In a prospective study 'Yaccha etal provided suppo for the hypothesis that the etiology of zipper gastro intestinal bleeding in children may differ between developed and developing countries. They showed that 95% of children had upper gastrointestinal variceal bleeding, 92% of whom had bleeding due to EHPVO, a .figure significantly higher than that seen in the west' - Disease of the Liver & Bihar/ system in Children by Kelly 3rd /560 *Occasional impairment may be observed NCPF, non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis: EHPVO, extrahepatic poal vein obstruction: US, ultrasound | Medicine | null | A 12 year old boy presents with hemetemesis, malena and mild splenomegaly. There is no obvious jaundice or ascitis. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. EHPVO
B. NCPF
C. Cirrhosis
D. Malaria with DIC
| EHPVO |
0db06833-8bc5-4fb2-bcd7-76a96d467489 | Removal of the cerebral coex (Decoication) produces decoicate rigidity which is characterized by flexion of the upper extremities at the elbow and extensor hyperactivity in the lower extremities. The flexion can be explained by Rubio spinal excitation of flexor muscles in the upper extremities; the hyperextension of lower extremities is due to the same changes that occur after mid-collicular decerebration. Decoicate rigidity is seen on the hemiplegic side in humans after hemorrhages or thromboses in the internal capsule. Probably because of their anatomy, the small aeries in the internal capsule are especially prone to rupture or thrombotic obstruction, so this type of decoicate rigidity is fairly common. Sixty percent of intracerebral hemorrhages occur in the internal capsule, as opposed to 10% in the cerebral coex, 10% in the pons, 10% in the thalamus, and 10% in the cerebellum.Reference: Ganong review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 247 | Physiology | Nervous system | In decoicate animal which reflex is lost?
A. Hopping and placing reflex
B. Tonic neck reflex
C. Tonic labyrinthine reflex
D. Stretch reflex
| Hopping and placing reflex |
7c2c79cd-74a0-4f3a-9fa7-4ac7ab153238 | Individuals with type O Rh D negative blood are often called universal donors, as they do not contain antigen A and B on the surface of their RBC and those with type AB Rh D positive blood are called universal recipients ref:harsh mohan text book pathology | Pathology | Haematology | Which of the following is universal donor blood group -
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
| O |
bbb9e019-e487-4da9-be2b-d12eb9bb15d6 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coho study Coho study analyses the following data :?1) Incidence rate among exposed and nonexposed2) Estimation of riska) Relative risk (risk ratio)b) Attributable risk (risk difference)c) Population attributable riskIncidence rateo In coho study, incidence rate can be determined directly in those exposed and nonexposed. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Incidence rate is measured by -
A. Case control study
B. Coho study
C. Cross sectional study
D. Cross over study
| Coho study |
33aec826-9735-4fe6-af9e-cad5cbeddd7b | Meningioma are now the most common primary brain tumor. On an MRI it appears as a paially calcified densely enhancing extra axial tumor arising from the dura. Occasionally it has a dural tail, consisting of thickened, enhanced dura extending like a tail from the mass. Meningiomas are typically located over the cerebral convexities, especially adjacent to the sagittal sinus. It can also occur in the skull base and along the dorsum of the spinal cord. They are more common in women and in patients with neurofibromatosis type 2. They also occur more commonly in patients with a past history of cranial irradiation. Most of them are found incidentally, but it can also present with headache, seizures or focal neurologic deficits. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e chapter 379. | Surgery | null | A 45 yr old female complains of progressive lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy. MRI shows intradural enhancing mass lesion. MOST likely diagnosis is:
A. Dermoid cyst
B. Intradural lipoma
C. Neuroepithelial cyst
D. Meningioma
| Meningioma |
3df0b09c-82b6-4985-bf71-d5c6e8158c49 | The court-ordered medication is disulfiram. Disulfiram inhibits ALDH, which greatly reduces the amount of acetaldehyde that is converted to acetate. This causes an accumulation of acetaldehyde, which is the substance responsible for the symptoms of a "hangover," including nausea and vomiting. Alcohol dehydrogenase reduces ethanol to acetaldehyde. Acetyl-CoA synthetase converts acetate to acetyl-CoA. | Biochemistry | Lipids | A man has just received his fourth DUI citation. The judge orders an alcohol dependency program complete with a medication that makes him have nausea and vomiting if he drinks alcohol while taking the medication. The drug-induced illness is caused by the buildup of which one of the following?
A. Ethanol
B. Acetaldehyde
C. Acetate
D. Acetyl-CoA
| Acetaldehyde |
804ee5d3-5128-4fe2-a485-37b78f0c217e | Metric scale is fuher divided into interval and ratio scales. In an interval scale, there is no absolute zero, such as in body temperature. A temperature of 105? F cannot be interpreted as 5% higher than 100? F. Ref: Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 99 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Body temperature in Fahrenheit is an example of which of the following scales?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
| Interval |
05984fe2-80e8-4fd0-bc43-387369e511f3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Radiation Radiation is the best answer. Schwaz 9/e writes- "although initially thought to be ineffective in the treatment of melanoma, the use of radiation therapy, regional and systemic chemotherapy, and immunotherapy are all under investigation." | Surgery | null | Which one of the following is not included in the treatment of malignant melanoma?
A. Radiation
B. Surgical excision
C. Chemotherapy
D. Immunotherapy
| Radiation |
c2c80117-21f3-43c9-b78b-c75a58426d9f | Ganglion cells are a type of neuron located near the inner surface of the retina and are the final output neurons of the veebrate retina. Ganglion cells collect visual information in their dendrites from bipolar cells and amacrine cells and transmit it to the brain throughout their axon to the brain. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:742,743,744 | Physiology | Nervous system | The only neuron in retina showing action potentials are
A. Rods and cones
B. Bipolar cells
C. Amacrine cells
D. Ganglion cells
| Ganglion cells |
024dd67f-5af2-4f51-8633-e8b06ea3bf54 | A i.e. Reticulated popcorn like configuration T2 gradient echo MRI is the investigation of choice for identification of cavernous angioma (cavernous hemangioma or cavernoma), which typically demonstrates a mass characterized as popcorn in appearance (mulberry shaped lesion)Q. | Radiology | null | Cavernous hemangioma is characterized by:
A. Reticulated popcorn like configuration
B. Well defined nidus
C. Well defined aerial feeder
D. Phlebectasis
| Reticulated popcorn like configuration |
2ff94bbd-cb1b-4f7a-b2e3-5f557b788f60 | (Refer: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry, 27th edition, pg no: 172 – 185)
Oxidative phosphorylation
The energy released as a result of biological oxidation is trapped in the form of higher energy phosphate bonds in ATP by phosphorylation of ADP. | Unknown | null | The enzyme not involved in substrate level phosphorylation is:
A. Succinyl thiokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Phosphoglycerate kinase
| Phosphofructokinase |
c29b2b3f-c2db-4444-b891-44c5fd14d90f | Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) occurs while measles vaccine is contaminated or the same vial is used for more than one session on the same day or next day.
Now the question arises, why only measles vaccine causes TSS more commonly and not the other commonly used vaccines? : -
It is due to the absence of preservatives.
Preservatives are substances used in vaccines to prevent bacterial & fungal contamination.
Measles vaccine contains limited or no amount of preservative, therefore rapid multiplication of pathogen takes place.
Most of the other commonly used vaccines contain preservatives.
Note : TSS can be caused by all vaccines (Park 20th/e 107), but it is mostly associated with measles vaccine. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The following vaccine, if contaminated can cause Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) -
A. Measles vaccine
B. DPT
C. Hepatitis B
D. Typhoral
| Measles vaccine |
6c74dfb0-dd94-4905-905d-6d2b5e5c76cf | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cholangiogram o "An operative cholangiogram at time of cholecystectomy will also demonstrate presence or absance of bile duct stones".o "If a CBD exploration was performed and a T-tube left in place, a T-tube cholangiogram is done before its removal". | Surgery | Gallstone Disease | Best way to confirm that no stones are left back in the CBD?
A. Choledochoscope
B. Palpation
C. Cholangiogram
D. ERCP
| Cholangiogram |
2122dd25-fcb9-43cd-b51f-e8a881e4912f | Premalignant Conditions of gastric carcinoma Atrophic gastritis: Both type A (autoimmune pernicious anemia) and type B (associated with H. Pylori) atrophic gastritis are associated with increase risk for gastric cancer. Gastric Polyp: Gastric polyp are of 5 type - inflammatory, hamaomatous, heterotopic, hyperplastic and adenomatous. Of these two namely hyperplastic and adenomatous are associated with increased risk for gastric carcinoma. Adenomatous polyp is having a risk of approximately 38% of malignant transformation and hyperplastic polyp have only Intestinal metaplasia and dysplasia: Both are precursor lesion of gastric cancer. Familial adenomatous polyposis coli: patients with familial adenomatous polyposis have a high prevalence of gastric adenomatous polyp (50%) and 10 times more likely to develop adenocarcinoma stomach. Ref: Schwaz 9/e, Page 927; Maingot's 10/e, Page 1006. | Surgery | null | Which of the following is a precancerous condition of cancer stomach?
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Chronic gastric atrophy
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Curling's Ulcer
| Chronic gastric atrophy |
e12f3e1c-5f3c-41ba-bd76-b894607f9128 | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Takes more time for purification o Slow sand filter occupies large area (more space). o Slow and filter requires less skilled operation. o Slow sand filter removes more bacteria and has better bacterial control (99.9-99.99%) o Slow sand filter requires longer duration for purification. o Size of sand is smaller (0.2-0.3 mm). | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Feature of slow filter (w.r.t. fast filter) is/are:
A. Occupies less space
B. Highly skilled operation
C. Poor bacterial quality
D. Takes more time for purification
| Takes more time for purification |
113d3d08-588a-4f15-8cf8-aaa8546ffc45 | The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) (also called Golgi organ, tendon organ, neurotendinous organ or neurotendinous spindle) is a proprioceptive sensory receptor organ that senses changes in muscle tension. It lies at the origins and inseion of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscle. It provides the sensory component of the Golgi tendon reflex.(Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 162 ) | Physiology | General physiology | Golgi tendon apparatus conveys message to cns, depends upon
A. Tension in muscle
B. Length of muscle
C. Rapaidity of contraction
D. Blood supply
| Tension in muscle |
76f1428f-1754-41ba-8a15-135665844338 | History of atophy (asthma) in family, with erythematous lesions on face (cheek) and extensor surface of limbs is suggestive of atopic dermatitis. Ref: Pediatric Allergy, Asthma And Immunology By Arnaldo Cantani, 2008, Page 511; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 16th Edition, Page 268; Roxburgh's Common Skin Diseases 17th Edition, Page 105-112; Illustrated textbook of dermatology: Pasricha 3rd Edition, Page 152; Fitzpatrick's Dermatology in General Medicine 6thEdition, Page 1181-1203; Rooks Textbook of Dermatology 7th Edition, Page 18.1-18.30 | Skin | null | An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek and extensor aspect of upper and lower limbs. There is a family history of Asthma. The probable diagnosis is:
A. Air borne contact dermatitis
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Seborraehic dermatitis
D. Infectious eczematoid dermatitis
| Atopic dermatitis |
fae6b4a7-8bcc-4a7b-a00f-48808631bc7d | Ans. A. YellowColor coded bagItemYellow bagInfectious non-plastic (Anatomical & microbiological)Red bagInfectious plastic wasteWhite/Translucent sharp container (Puncture proof box)Metal sharpBlue container (Puncture proof box)Broken glass items and metal implants | Microbiology | General | Microbiological waste should be segregated in which color bag:
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Black
| Yellow |
90f33636-ab0a-4db3-a03d-4270bd9045f8 | PLETHORA= INCREASED PULMONARY MARKINGS SEEN IN TAPVC, ASD,VSD, TGA REF : BRAUWALD CARDIOLOGY | Medicine | All India exam | Pulmonary plethora is seen in ?
A. TAPVC
B. TOF
C. EBSTIEN ANAMOLY
D. TRICUSPID ATRESIA
| TAPVC |
efbbddb0-4fdd-4365-829b-a677f25dfd63 | Ans. C. Deltoid contractureThe above history and examination suggest a diagnosis of deltoid contracture.* Deltoid contracture can be congenital or acquired. Anatomical aberrations, repeated intramuscular injections into the deltoid, chronic infection due to the injected drugs and pressure ischemia are all causes of acquired contracture.* A patient with a deltoid contracture presents with inability to keep his arm in contact with the chest in the anatomical plane of the scapula. When the arm is forcibly brought into contact with the chest there is winging of the scapula. On palpation, a thick intermediate fibrotic deltoid is felt. | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around Shoulder | A 40-year-old patient presents with an inability to keep the arm in contact with the chest. When the arm is forcibly brought into contact with the chest there is winging of the scapula. There is a history of repeated intramuscular injections into the deltoid muscle. What is the diagnosis?
A. Serratus anterior muscle palsy
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Deltoid contracture
D. Neglected anterior dislocation of shoulder
| Deltoid contracture |
1f878ad7-2362-466d-9d06-a8e0e6e6bc15 | 1) Bone(most common) (70%) - in order -lumbar veebrae, femur, ends of long bone, thoracic veebrae, ribs, skull 2)Liver 3)Lung- causes malignant pleural effusion and cannon ball secondaries. 4)Brain- causes increased ICP 5)Adrenals and ovaries Reference: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no = 530. | Surgery | Endocrinology and breast | Most common site of metastasis for Breast Carcinoma is
A. Thoracic veebra
B. Pelvis
C. Femur
D. Lumbar veebra
| Lumbar veebra |
c7dc4138-78a0-47d3-a887-5be40e19f29f | Life-threatening intravascular hemolysis, due to a toxin with lecithinase activity, occurs with Clostridium perfringens sepsis. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 881 | Medicine | null | Life-threatening intravascular hemolysis, due to a toxin with lecithinase activity, occurs with sepsis due to:
A. Pseudomonas
B. Babesia
C. Parvovirus B 19
D. Clostridium perfringens
| Clostridium perfringens |
eae6bf1b-9984-45d5-a3f8-4193ace9a603 | Airway obstruction above the glottis - an inspiratory stridor Obstruction in the lower trachea & bronchi - indicative of expiratory stridor Lesion in glottic or subglottic lesion. - A biphasic stridor So answer is option a - supraglottis Ref : PL Dhingra 7th edition ; pg num:- 333,334 | ENT | Ear | Inspiratory stridor is found in what kind of lesions
A. Supraglottic
B. Subglottic
C. Tracheal
D. Bronchus
| Supraglottic |
ad32342f-b600-4732-bbf5-cd40523d5d6b | For the elderly, alpha blockers like prazosin can cause severe hypotension and 1st dose hypotension DOC for elderly with severe HTN - CCBs DOC for HTN with diabetes- ARBs or ACE inhibitors Ref:Tripati 8th edition | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Which of the following drugs should NOT be used in the setting of severe hypeension in elderly on empirical basis?
A. Enalapril
B. Amlodipine
C. Chlohiazide
D. Prazosin
| Prazosin |
457bf29d-69ba-445a-a021-44b8dffc3f29 | Valvular involvement is the most encountered form of hea disease in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Immunoglobulin and complement deposition in the valvular structure will subsequently lead to Libman-Sacks vegetations, valve thickening, and valve regurgitation. Valvular stenosis is rarely seen.resulting in mitral regurgitation Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 455 | Medicine | C.V.S | The commonest valvular lesion in SLE-related cardiac disease is-
A. Tricuspid regurgitation
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Aoic regurgitation
| Mitral regurgitation |
2f49b4af-af74-4ff4-b756-562e621b1319 | Pleomorphic adenoma are most common epithelial tumors of lacrimal gland Lacrimal tumors High Yield Facts Pleomorphic adenoma are most common epithelial tumors of lacrimal gland Adenoid cystic adenocarcinoma are most common malignant tumors of lacrimal gland. They are usually painful Present with superotemporal mass and inferonasal dystopia Inflammatory lesion and lymphomas are most common tumors of lacrimal gland | Ophthalmology | Nasolacrimal Disorders | Most common epithelial tumor of lacrimal gland:-
A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Non hodgkins lymphoma
| Pleomorphic adenoma |
0dc60e40-e86d-4bb9-85bd-ed96a4a8d1b9 | Ans: a (Na K ATPase) Ref: Tripathi, 6th ed, p. 499All cardiac glycosides are potent and highly selective inhibitors of the active transport of Na+ and K+ across cell membranes by their reversible binding to the alpha subunit of the. Na+, K+- ATPase the elimination 11 /2 for digoxin is 36 hours in patients with nonnal renal function. Digoxin is excreted by the kidney with a clearance rate that is proportional to the glomerular filtration rate. It is now recommended that digoxin be reserved for patients with heart failure who are in atrial fibrillation, or for patients in sinus rhythm who remain symptomatic despite maximal therapy with ACE inhibitors and beta adrenergic receptor antagonists. Although the drug has no net effect on mortality, it reduces hospitalization and death, from progressive heart failure at the expense of an increase in sudden death.Other than heart failure digitalis is useful in the management of atrial arrhythmias because of its cardioselective parasympathomimetic effects. In atrial flutter and fibrillation, the depressant effect of the drug on atrioventricular conduction will help control an excessively high ventricular rate. Digitalis has also been used in the control of paroxysmal atrial and atrioventricular nodal tachycardia.ToxicityExtracardiacAnorexia, nausea, vomiting are usually first symptoms of toxicity. Other complaints include fatigue, malaise, headache, mental confusion, restlessness, disorientation, psychosis and visual disturbances.CardiacAlmost every type of arrhythmia can be produced by digitalis: pulsus bigeminis, nodal and ventricular extrasystoles, ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Partial to complete A-V block, severe bradycardia.Atrial extra systoles, AF or atrial flutter have also been noted.Treatmenta) For tachyarrythmias:KC1 infusion 20 m mol /hr IV or give orally in mild cases.b) For ventricular arrythmias: Lidocaine IV repeated as required is the drug of choice.c) For supraventricular arrythmias: Propranolol may be given IV or oral depending on urgencyd) For A-V block and bradycardia: Atropine 0.6-1.2 mg IM may help: otherwise cardiac pacing is recommended.Therapy of toxicity manifested as visual changes or gastrointestinal disturbances generally requires no more than reducing the dose of the drug.Immunotherapy with purified Fab fragments from bovine antidigoxin antisera (DIGIBIND) provides an effective antidote for lifethreatening digoxin toxicity.Precautions and contraindicationsHypokalaemia:enhances digitalis toxicityby increasing its binding to Na+ K+ATPase elderly, renal or severe hepatic disease Myocardial infarction: sever arrythmias are more likely thyrotoxicosis-reduces responsiveness to digitalis.Myxedema: these patienst eliminate digoxin more slowly, toxicity can appearVentricular tachycardia:digitalis is contraindicated, may precipitate ventricular fibrillationIt is explicitly contraindicated in patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome and atrial fibrillation | Pharmacology | C.V.S | Digoxin acts by inhibiting:
A. Na K ATPase
B. Ca channel
C. K channel
D. Adenyl cyclase
| Na K ATPase |
1e03a4fd-8f38-4d02-b45f-668936bf3ef5 | Small amount (0.1 ml) of diluted (1/50 MLD) diphtheria toxin is injected intradermally into one arm of the person and a heat inactivated toxin on the other as a control. If a person does not have enough antibodies to fight it off, the skin around the injection will become red and swollen, indicating a positive result. This swelling disappears after a few days. If the person has an immunity, then little or no swelling and redness will occur, indicating a negative result. Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:112 | Microbiology | Immunology | Skin test based on neutralization reaction is/are -
A. Casoni test
B. Lepromin test
C. Tuberculin test
D. Schick test
| Schick test |
b10fb5e5-94ea-4787-b790-bebe6612508c | 1. Medical treatment. Course of oral corticosteroids for extended periods is the main stay of treatment during active inflammation.
A course of antitubercular therapy has also been recommended in selective cases.
2. Laser photocoagulation of the retina is indicated in stage of neovascularizion.
3. Vitreoretinal surgery is required for non- resolving vitreous haemorrhage and tractional retinal detachment. | Ophthalmology | null | Treatment of choice for Eale’s disease
A. Corticosteroids
B. Antibiotics
C. Antihistaminics
D. Surgery
| Corticosteroids |
2932f223-5449-4cfc-a477-9e1871e9d492 | Most common site of lentigo maligna subtype of malignant melanoma is face- Hutchinson's melanotic freckle. It is more common in elderly women. It ia slow growing, variegated, brown macule/ lentigo; also seen in neck and hands. Reference : page 295-96 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | Surgery | Urology | Most common site of lentigo maligna subtype of malignant melanoma is ?
A. Palms & soles
B. Trunk
C. Face
D. Buttocks
| Face |
16c7e8db-8265-402e-b597-f0f17d67fff7 | Avulsion
Term used to describe the complete displacement of tooth from its alveolus. It is also called as exarticulation and most often involves the maxillary teeth. | Dental | null | Exarticulation of teeth means:
A. Intrusion
B. Extrusion
C. Sublimation
D. Avulsion
| Avulsion |
11782a0a-44e3-4ac1-bf84-ec304a63094a | Bronchiolitis obliterans is a rare chronic obstructive lung disease characterized by complete obliteration of the small airways following a severe insult. The most common form in children is postinfectious, following a lower airway tract infection with adenovirus, although influenza, rubeola, Bordetella, and Mycoplasma are also implicated. Persons with bronchiolitis obliterans usually experience dyspnea, coughing, and exercise intolerance. This diagnosis should be considered in children with persistent cough, wheezing, crackles, or hypoxemia persisting longer than 60 days following a lower respiratory tract infection. Chest X-ray shows hyperlucency and patchy infiltrates. PFT shows airway obstruction. Ventilation-perfusion scans show a pattern of ventilation and perfusion mismatch. Classic findings on chest high-resolution CT include a mosaic perfusion pattern, vascular attenuation, and central bronchiectasis. This finding along with pulmonary function testing showing airway obstruction unresponsive to bronchodilators may be diagnostic in some patients with the appropriate clinical history. Diagnosis is by open lung biopsy or transbronchial biopsy. No specific treatment is required. Administaion of coicosteroids may be benifical. Ref: Federico M.J., Stillwell P., Deterding R.R., Baker C.D., Balasubramaniam V., Zemanick E.T., Sagel S.D., Halbower A., Burg C.J., Kerby G.S. (2012). Chapter 19. Respiratory Tract & Mediastinum. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | Pediatrics | null | A 9 year old girl is presenting with non productive cough and mild stridor for 2.5 months duration. Patient is improving but suddenly developed wheeze, productive cough, mild fever and on X-ray hyperlucency is seen and PFT shows obstructive curve. The MOST probable diagnosis is?
A. Bronchiolitis obliterans
B. Hemosiderosis
C. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
D. Follicular bronchitis
| Bronchiolitis obliterans |
596f1db8-1aa5-4890-ba12-ac6eb12536f3 | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 214 - 215)After cataract, if thin, can be cleared centrally by Nd: YAG laser capsulotomy. Dissection with cystitome or Zeigler&;s knife also be used. Thick membranous after cataract needs surgical membranectomy. | Ophthalmology | Lens | Posterior capsulotomy after cataract is done using
A. Argon Laser
B. Nd YAg
C. Holmium
D. Diode laser
| Nd YAg |
ec0b19fd-ccb6-4517-886f-566c9e23939d | Answer is D (Huntington's chorea): Huntington's chorea is inherited as autosomal dominant Disorder Inheritance Fragile X syndrome X Linked Fanconi's syndrome Autosomal recessive Duchene's dystrophy X Linked | Medicine | null | Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?
A. Duchenes muscular dystrophy
B. Fragile X syndrome
C. Fanconi's syndrome
D. Hutington's chorea
| Hutington's chorea |
7b64c0db-a59f-4e7a-b711-224d2af45a70 | - Transcranial Doppler ultrasound It uses low frequency probe as it has higher penetration Using low frequency probe and a proper acoustic window the vessels of Circle of Willis can be evaluated. The acoustic windows are: 1. Transtemporal 2.Submandibular 3.Transorbital 4.Suboccipital window It is very sensitive and the first line investigation to know the flow dynamics in middle cerebral aery It is used to detect vasospasm especially in SAH as during vasospasm there is increased flow velocity in the MCA Acoustic windows of Skull | Radiology | JIPMER 2019 | Best advantage of doing transcranial Doppler ultrasound?
A. Detect AV malformation
B. Detect emboli
C. Detect vasopasm
D. Detect brain blood vessels stenosis
| Detect vasopasm |
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