id
stringlengths 36
36
| exp
stringlengths 41
22.5k
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | input
stringlengths 35
1.3k
| correct_answer
stringlengths 1
287
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
eb149b88-c1b7-4925-838b-a5f6fd7c0fc9 | In Argon Laser Trabeculoplasty (ALT) Laser beam is focused on trabecular meshwork Opens up the pores of trabecular meshwork. So that more Aqueous can flow through it in faster time Lowers Intra ocular pressure Typically done in open angle glaucoma Trabecular meshwork After ALT | Ophthalmology | FMGE 2018 | Argon laser trabeculoplasty is done in:
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Angle recession glaucoma
C. Secondary glaucoma
D. Open angle glaucoma
| Open angle glaucoma |
7c856a1f-cd7d-443a-8449-b3282a170f0f | PANDAS is sho for Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections. A child may be diagnosed with PANDAS when: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), tic disorder, or both suddenly appear following a streptococcal (strep) infection, such as strep throat or scarlet fever. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | All India exam | PANDAS are associated with which of the following infection?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Neisseria
| Streptococcus |
86a7ce90-2b3c-42d6-a3d8-5a00b35be9ef | refrobbins 7/e p 114;9/e p106 synthesis of collagen. It is also a highly effective antioxidant protecting cells from damage by free radicals. Studies have shown that the vitamin can help speed thehealing process of wounds. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Which of the following is absolutely essential for wound healing
A. Vit D
B. Carbohydrates
C. Vit C
D. Balanced diet
| Vit C |
c22edee9-131f-420c-990f-c7817284f194 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Synoptophore Grades of binocular single vision There are three grades of binocular single vision, which are best tested with the help of a synoptophore. 1. Grade-I - Simultaneous perception It is the power to see two dissimilar objects stimultaneously. It is tested by projecting two dissimilar objects (which can be joined or superimposed to form a complete picture) in front of the two eyes. For example, when a picture of a bird is projected onto the right eye and that of a cage onto the left eye, an individual with presence of simultaneous perception will see the bird in the cage. 2. Grade-II - Fusion It consists of the power to superimpose two incomplete but similar images to from one complete image. The ability of the subject to continue to see one complete picture when his eyes are made to converge or diverge a few degrees, gives the positive and negative fusion range, respectively. 3. Grade-III - Stereopsis It consists of the ability to perceive the third dimension (depth perception). It can be tested with stereopsis slides in synoptophore. | Ophthalmology | null | Binocular single vision is tested by ?
A. Amsler grid
B. Synoptophore
C. Maddox rod
D. Cardboard test
| Synoptophore |
70a9ab9e-bd73-40fe-9119-55f5f3885f45 | Distance between source and the subject = 5 feet.
Distance between film and the subject = 15 cm. | Radiology | null | For cephalometric projection, what should be the distance between source and the subject?
A. 5 feet
B. 6 feet
C. 7 feet
D. 9 feet
| 5 feet |
64cb3d4d-f7d0-4efd-902e-b010dbd1749c | TB KNEE has two stages. In late stage it shows TRIPLE DEFORMITY- Posterior Subluxation External Rotation Flexion Other condition showing triple deformity of knee-Rheumatoid Ahritis REF : MAHESWARI 9TH ED | Orthopaedics | Skeletal infections | Triple deformity of knee joint is seen in
A. Tuberculosis
B. Trauma
C. Malignant tumour
D. Sarcoidosis
| Tuberculosis |
39565d89-bc72-46cf-8afd-2b8030a5c879 | The T wave represents ventricular repolarization and is longer in duration than depolarization (i.e., conduction of the repolarization wave is slower than the wave of depolarization). The P wave represents the wave of depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria, and is usually 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms) in duration. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential. | Physiology | null | The T wave on an ECG tracing represents which of the events in the cardiac cycle?
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Atrial repolarization
C. Ventricular depolarization
D. Ventricular repolarization
| Ventricular repolarization |
fa96201f-057c-40af-99ec-942e387539b5 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Wood workers * Paranasal sinus cancer is uncommon and represents only 0.2 to 0.8% of all malignancies.* Cancer of paranasal sinus constitutes 3% of all carcinomas of the aerodigestive tract.* The majority of paranasal sinus malignancies (50-80%) originate within the maxillary sinus antrum. Malignancies rarely occur within the other sinuses and originate in the ethmoid, frontal, and sphenoid sinuses in 10%, 1% and 1% respectively.* The cause of parasinus malignancy is unknown. However several risk factors have been associated and therefore it is seen more commonly in people working in hardwood furniture industry, nickel refining, leather work, and manufacturer of mustard gas.* More than 80% of the malignant tumours are of squamous cell variety. Rest are adenocarcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, melanoma, and various type of sarcomas.* Workers of furniture industry (wood workers) develop adenocarcinoma of the Ethmoids and upper nasal cavity. While those engaged in Nickel refining get squamous cell and Anaplastic carcinoma. | ENT | Nose and PNS | Which of the following is a specific risk factor for development of adenocarcinoma of ethmoid sinus?
A. Smoking
B. Nickel industry worker
C. Mustard gas exposure
D. Wood workers
| Wood workers |
5bedaef6-8d34-446e-b094-f42fca1dbd12 | Here, a pharmaceutical company develops a new anti-hypertensive drug; samples of 24 hypertensive patients, randomly selected from a large population of hypertensive people, are randomly divided into 2 groups of 12, and one group is given the new drug over a period of 1 month & the other group is given a placebo according to the same schedule,
Since a new drug (intervention) is given it is an experimental/ interventional study (not a prospective study which is only observational in design)
Also, there are 2 groups, i.e. experimental group (Intervention – new drug is given) and reference group (no intervention is given – only placebo is given) which are compared concurrently, thus it is a ‘Concurrent parallel design of RCT’ (there is no cross-over)
Also, neither the patients nor the treating physicians are aware of which patients are in which group, thus it is a ‘double blinded RCT’. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A pharmaceutical company develops a new antihypertensive drug. Samples of 24 hypertensive patients, randomly selected from a large population of hypertensive people, are randomly divided into 2 groups of 12. One group is given the new drug over a period of 1 month; the other group is given a placebo according to the same schedule. Neither the patients nor the treating physicians are aware of which patients are in which group. At the end of the month, measurements are made of the patient’s blood pressures. This study
A. Is a randomized controlled clinical trial
B. Uses a crossover design
C. Is a single blind experiment
D. Is a prospective study
| Is a randomized controlled clinical trial |
8b22779e-e655-42f6-847d-cfb2bbf8dafd | Isolation of chlamydiae can done by :
Inoculationinto yolk sac/embryonated eggs of 6-8 day old chick embryo which may be pretreated by streptomycin or polymyxin
Inculation into experimental animals (mice)
Tissue/cell culture :
Preferred mode
Commonly used cell lines are McCoy and HeLa cells.
Cell cultures are pretreated by irradiation or chemicals such as 5-iodo – 2 deoxyuridic or cycloheximide to enhance replication and detection of inclusion bodies.
Pretreatment with DEAE dextrax or centrifugation after inoculation, promotes contact between chlamydiae particles and cell monolayer. | Unknown | null | Chlamydia are isolated by :
A. Enzyme immune assay
B. Yolk sac inoculation
C. Direct immunofluorescence
D. Micro immunofluorescence
| Yolk sac inoculation |
673357fb-4a08-4e56-b846-b67c0cb8ec3b | The lung specimen reveals diffusive panacinar emphysema. The liver biopsy shows PAS positive diastase resistant deposits. Both the above clues point towards option C. - Option A hemochromatosis would show pearls stain on liver biopsy. - Cystic fibrosis would show bronchiectasis. | Unknown | Integrated QBank | A 50 yr. old male presented with chronic breathlessness and intermittent jaundice. He denies smoking and alcohol abuse. Lung and liver specimens revealed the following findings respectively What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
D. Wilsons disease
| Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency |
4e243378-60a0-4085-94d9-e1a7b4b97259 | Apical lung cancer/ Pancoast tumor causes - 2deg neuron injury (Preganglionic sympathetic fibres) I/L horner syndrome (Cervical sympathetic chain and ganglion involved) Loss of sweating on same side of face 1deg sympathetic neuron injury occurs in Wallenberg syndrome 2deg sympathetic neuron (preganglionic fibers) injury occurs in Apical lung cancer 3deg sympathetic neuron (postganglionic fibers) injury occurs in Internal carotid aery disection | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy 3 | Apical lung tumor causes
A. C/L horner syndrome
B. Post ganglionic fibres involved
C. 1deg neuron injury
D. Loss of sweating on same side of face
| Loss of sweating on same side of face |
8e2543a2-c9c7-445d-8151-7e6502ba87ed | Prilocaine causes methemoglobinemia, hence it is largely limited to dentistry. This effect is a consequence of the metabolism of the aromatic ring to o-toluidine. Development of methemoglobinemia is dependent on the total dose administered, usually appearing after a dose of 8 mg/kg. Methemoglobinemia is more common in neonates due to decreased resistance of fetal hemoglobin to oxidant stresses and the immaturity of enzymes in the neonate that conve methemoglobin back to the ferrous state. Ref: Catterall W.A., Mackie K. (2011). Chapter 20. Local Anesthetics. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following is an intermediate-acting local anaesthetic which is an amino amide causing methemoglobinemia?
A. Procaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Etidocaine
D. Ropivacaine
| Prilocaine |
c86c11e1-8855-410b-8a66-e27d513e5ef3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Uveitis as a result of lens tissue induced inflam mation following cataract surgery o Due to cataract extraction or lens trauma, lens matter induces inflammation in the uveal tissue, called phacoanaphylactic/phacotoxic uveitis:# Phacoanaphylaxis/lens-induced uveitis occurs in the setting of a ruptured or degenerative lens capsule and is characterized by a granulomatous antigenic reaction to lens protein.# Lens proteins are most likely immunologically privileged, and they may initiate an immunologic sensitization only after entering the aqueous humor. This privilege is probably because of numerous factors, as follows: lens proteins are isolated from the fetal circulation early in embryonic life, the lens is devoid of innervation, and the adult lens is completely avascular. | Ophthalmology | Uveal Tract | What is phacoanaphylactic Uveitis?
A. Uveitis as a result of lens tissue induced inflam mation following cataract surgery
B. Uveitis following cataract extraction in automiimune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis
C. Uveitis seen with phacoemulsification cataract surgery
D. Uveitis associated with fungal comeal ulcer
| Uveitis as a result of lens tissue induced inflam mation following cataract surgery |
29a2bc81-1a45-4296-8e1c-44fb8c0ec595 | Opoids are used during labor for analgesia. It may cause newborn respiratory depression. Naloxane is a narcotic antagonist capable of reversing this respiratory depression | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Labour - III | Which of the following drug must always be available for emergency use in labour ward if a patient on opoid analgesia?
A. Fentanyl
B. Naloxone
C. Morphine
D. Bupivacaine
| Naloxone |
cb657fff-7821-4b85-97d2-a2c4eca32abc | Angioedema is an area of swelling of the lower layer of skin and tissue just under the skin or mucous membranes.The swelling may occur in the face, tongue, larynx, abdomen, or arms and legs. Often it is associated with hives, which are swelling within the upper skin.Onset is typically over minutes to hours Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1567 | Dental | Bacterial infections | Quincke's disease is
A. Norwegian scabies
B. Angioneuritic edema
C. Seborrhea olessa
D. Saddle nose
| Angioneuritic edema |
d8e7df88-427e-4209-8706-b183d38efbd6 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1-1/2 hr. In experiment animals tourniquets have been retained for three hours without lasting ill effect but in practice an hour and a half is probably a wise limit. | Surgery | null | Maximum tourniquet time for the upper limb is ?
A. 1/2 hour
B. 1 hr
C. 1-1/2 hrs.
D. 2 hrs
| 1-1/2 hrs. |
b293f3d7-ae14-4e09-97fd-71568f827539 | Treatment of maxillary carcinomas: Early cases with Stage I and II squamous cell carcinomas are treated with surgery or radiation with equal results. T3 and T4 lesions are treated by combined modalities of radiation and surgery. Radiation in such cases may be given preoperatively or postoperatively Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 233. | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Preferred treatment in a 60years old patient with Maxillary carcinoma involving anterolateral pa of maxilla is
A. Radiotherapy only
B. Total/extended Maxillectomy followed by radiotherapy
C. Radiotherapy followed by total/extened maxillectomy
D. Total/extended maxillectomy alone
| Radiotherapy followed by total/extened maxillectomy |
b46b66bf-9575-4482-a7b1-58fc4422b345 | Sn-RNA is involved in RNA splicing.
Sno-RNA → r-RNA modification
mi-RNA & St-RNA → Regulation of gene expression
SP-RNA → RNA-interference (RNA i) | Biochemistry | null | Splicing Activity is a functions of
A. m RNA
B. Sn RNA editing
C. r RNA
D. t RNA
| Sn RNA editing |
619e7e3b-c74e-46a8-8c19-8af49d13dc2f | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:161-162 Acute infective endocarditis: Caused by highly virulent organisms mainly S. aureus (20-30%), seeding a previously normal valve 2D Echo * The smallest size of vegetation that can be picked up by echo is 2 mm. * Transoesophageal echocardiography is more sensitive in detecting vegetations in the aoic valve (90%) and mitral valve (100%) than transthoracic echocardiography | Medicine | C.V.S | In rheumatic hea disease, infective endocarditis is detected by echocardiogram and the largest vegetations seen are due to -
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Candida albicans
D. Salmonella typhi
| Staphylococcus aureus |
cc9035c1-7a04-44d8-9a1f-071bbf6b4002 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Human herpes virus-8 Important virusesDisease causedo HHV-8Kaposi sarcomaoHHV-6Roseola infantum, multiple sclerosiso VZVChicken pox, herpes zostero EBVIMN, burkitis lymphoma, oral hairy leukoplakia, nasopharyngeal carcinomao Enterovirus-72Hepatitis Ao Coxsackie-AHerpangina, hand-foot-mouth diseaseo Coxsackie-BPleurodynia, myocarditis, pericarditis, Bornholm diseaseo OrthomyxovirusInfluenzao ParamyxovirusesMumps, measles, parainfleuenzao HIVAIDSo JC virusProgressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyo RhabdovirusRabiesoHPVWarts, condyloma accuminatum, cervical cancero ParvovirusErythema infectiosum, aplastic anemia, fetal hydrops | Microbiology | Herpesviruses | Kaposi sarcoma is caused by -
A. Human herpes virus-2
B. Human herpes virus-4
C. Human herpes virus-6
D. Human herpes virus-8
| Human herpes virus-8 |
b6bf4a8e-16e2-4baf-99a0-b48e2bc80747 | Atrial fibrillation (AF or A-fib) is an abnormal hea rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atrial chambers of the hea.Often it stas as brief periods of abnormal beating which become longer and possibly constant over time.Often episodes have no symptoms. Occasionally there may be hea palpitations, fainting, lightheadedness, shoness of breath, or chest pain.The disease is associated with an increased risk of hea failure, dementia, and stroke.It is a type of supraventricular tachycardia Leads V4 and V5 of an electrocardiogram showing atrial fibrillation with somewhat irregular intervals between hea beats, no P waves, and a hea rate of about 150 BPM. Pulse deficit occurs when there are fewer pulses than there are heabeats. Atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter can cause pulse deficit because they cause the hea to beat so fast, and often irregularly, that the force of blood out of the hea is sometimes not strong enough to create a pulse. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1576 | Medicine | C.V.S | Pulse deficit more than 10 is seen in-
A. Ventricular premature contraction
B. Atnal flutter
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Ventricular fibrillation
| Atrial fibrillation |
9becf270-8e35-4f0c-97ba-7aa955050b9b | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Disinfecting power Traditional testing of disinfectants Two traditional tests for determining the efficiency of disinfectants are :? 1) Rideal-Walker test : Phenol is taken as the standard with unit as phenol coefficient (pheno1=1) 2) Chick-Main test : The disinfectant acts in the presence of organic matter (dried yeast or feces). | Microbiology | null | Rideal-Walker coefficient is related with ?
A. Disinfecting power
B. Parasitic clearance
C. Dietary requirement
D. Statistical correlation
| Disinfecting power |
c2ee0fef-7bc1-4247-9b41-252801e8fa3c | Hamstrings
- Semimembranosus
- Semitendinosus
- Long head of biceps femoris
- Ischial head of adductor magnus | Anatomy | null | The following are part of Hamstrings -a) Semitendinosusb) Semimembranosusc) Gracilisd) Short head of biceps femorise) Sartorius
A. ac
B. ab
C. ad
D. bc
| ab |
15b61168-9e7f-4e0f-b54e-3ba562a3e9f3 | Ans. (a) Nodular sclerosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 606-611)Binucleated owl shaped nuclei with clear vacuolated area refers to Lacunar cells.Lacunar cells are seen in the nodular sclerosis subtype of Hodgkin's diseaseLacunar cells have delicate, folded, or multilobate nuclei and abundant pale cytoplasm that is often disrupted during the cutting of sections, leaving the nucleus sitting in an empty space (lacuna) | Pathology | Misc. (W.B.C) | A person is having painless lymphadenopathy. On biopsy, binucleated owl shaped nuclei with clear vacuolated area is seen. On IHC CD 15 and CD 30 were positive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Nodular sclerosis
B. Large granular lymphocytic lymphoma
C. Lymphocyte depletion type
D. Lymphocyte predominant HD
| Nodular sclerosis |
c6a9401e-712e-4366-bee9-2473b3dd6bc2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dry tap (hypocellular) Myelofibrosiso The hallmark of primary myelofibrosis is rapid development of obliterative marrow fibrosis,o Myelofibrosis suppresses bone marrow hematopoiesis, leading to peripheral blood cytopenias.o This results in extensive extramedullary hematopoiesis in the spleen, liver and lymphnode - Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly.o Blood cell production from sites of extramedullary hematopoisis is disordered and ineffective - Persistent cytopenia.Peripheral blood pictureLeukoerythroblastosis - Presence of erythroid and granulocytic precursors in the peripheral blood.Tear-drop erythrocytes (dacrocytes) - Fibrotic marrow distorts and damages the membranes of erythroid proginators.Bone marrow findingso Initially marrow is hypercellular.o With progression marrow becomes hypocellular and diffusely fibrotic --> Bone marrow aspiration is a dry tap.o There is increase laying down of reticulin fibril network.o Cellularity of bone marrow is decreased, but megakaryocytes are increased and demonstrate features of dysmegakaryopoiesis.o Dilated marrow sinusoids. | Pathology | Myeloproliferative Disorder | Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis -
A. Dry tap (hypocellular)
B. Megaloblastic cells
C. Microcytic cells
D. Thrombocytosis
| Dry tap (hypocellular) |
3b314d7f-d412-44d3-933a-a2c4500ac825 | Late complications of cataract surgery are cystoid macular oedema, retinal detachment, epithelial in growth, fibrous in growth, vitreous touch syndrome, after cataract.
Retinal detachment (rhegmatogenous) presents with sudden painless loss of vision with floaters and photopsia. | Ophthalmology | null | A 60-years old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is –
A. Vitreous hemorrhage
B. Retinal detachment
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Cystoid macular edema
| Retinal detachment |
0a646d07-8d7a-4833-9d1e-152ab3711bc2 | Ref: Parks 23rd edition Disease will be Prevalent so long it exist in the community. Longer the duration of the illness, longer will it persist in the community and hence higher will be its prevalence. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Which of the following can cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease-
A. Immigration of healthy persons
B. Increased cure rate of disease
C. Longer duration of illness
D. Decrease in population
| Longer duration of illness |
c5e30232-3f06-49ed-80f7-798c51d5f6d7 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Medullary o Thyroid tumor is seen in MEN II, and is medullary carcinoma of thyroid. | Pathology | null | Commonest thyroid tumor in MEN (multiple endocrine neoplasia) -
A. Follicular
B. Papillary
C. Anaplastic
D. Medullary
| Medullary |
150819c0-cc18-464a-815a-2e4f89505df5 | IOC - CECT.
IOC if renal vein or IVC involved - MRI. | Radiology | null | Investigation of choice for diagnosis and staging of renal cell carcinoma
A. USG
B. CECT
C. IVP
D. MRI
| CECT |
9f2e2d91-8944-4875-ad05-8d4f7ced21a4 | Nihilistic delusion, insomonia and early morning awakening are seen in depression | Psychiatry | null | Delusion of Nihilism and Early morning insomnia are characteristic features of -
A. Mania
B. Major depression
C. Personality disorder
D. Schizophrenia
| Major depression |
e7fc3844-6dca-4cc8-9d5d-61767efb6994 | Repeatability (reliability)
Repeatability means, the test must give consistent results when it is repeated more than once on the same individual under same conditions.
That means the results of test are precise (exact), So repeatability is some time called precision, reliability or reproducibility. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Reliability means -
A. Number of times the same results on repeated trials
B. Number of times variation is seen
C. Extent of accuracy
D. Level of simplicity
| Number of times the same results on repeated trials |
6fb380b5-8239-4fa9-b596-4e89147f213b | Ans. is b i.e. To take Warfarin after delivery Friends venous thromboembolism in pregnancy, is one of those topics which we donot study in detail during undergraduation. So, I am giving in brief, all the impoant points you need to remember : Venous thromboembolism in pregnnacy : Venous thromboembolism is the leading cause of maternal deaths in developed countries. Pregnancy increases the risk of thromboembolism 6 times as all components of virchow's triad are increased.deg A. Deep vein thrombosis : Left sided DVT is more common than Right sided DVT. Clinical features : swelling / redness / pain and calf muscle tenderness and oedema. Investigations - Recommended method during pregnancy : Doppler ultrasound - Gold standard (in conditions other than pregnancy) : venography Mangement : Therapeutic The treatment should be staed on clinical grounds if confirmatory tests are not available. Drug of choice - Heparin (as it doesnot cross the placenta) Initially intravenous Heparin is given with the aim to prolong APTT (activated paial thromboplastic time) by 1.5 to 2 times the control followed by subcutaneous Heparin. Monitoring is done by APTT and platelet count (as Heparin causes Thrombocytopenia). Oral anticoagulants like Warfarin cross the placenta and cause teratogenesis therefore should be avoided in pregnancy. Treatment is continued for 6 weeks following which prophylactic subcutaneous heparin is given throughout pregnancy. Heparin is stopped just before delivery. Regional anaesthesia should be avoided at the time of delivery in patients on heparin due to the risk of hematoma formation. Heparin is restaed about 6 - 8 hours after delivery as the puerperium is the time of greatest risk for VTE. Warfarin is commenced simultaneously and thereafter monitoring is done by prothrombin time (PT). Once the prothrombin time INR is between 2 and 3, heparin can be discontinued. Usually warfarin is continued for 6 to 18 weeks and is safe for breast feeding mothers. Thromboprophylaxis : Thromboprophylaxis is considered for women who are at increased risk of thromboembolism (TE). Risk category Risk factors High risk Recurrent TE Previous TE with thrombophilia Previous TE with family history TE in current pregnancy Low risk One episode of previous TE without thrombophiiia or family history Thrombophilia without previous thrombosis Additional risk Cesarean section, obesity, grand multiparity, age above 35, pre-eclampsia, prolonged immobilization etc. High risk patients need antepaum heparin, intrapaum heparin and postpaum prophylaxis for 6 weeks. Low risk patient require intrapaum and postpaum low dose prophylaxis for 6 weeks. Well, now that you have a detailed knowledge of thromboembolism, lets have a look at the question. It says : a female with previous history of embolism becomes pregnant,what medical management should be given to her? Option 'a. i.e. Compulsory prophylaxis with warfarin at 10 weeks. It is absolutely wrong as warfarin is not given during pregnancy. Option 'b Le to take warfarin after delivery - According to William obs. 22/e, p 1077 table 47-3, 23/e, p 1028 - table 47.6 In case of prior VTE associated with a non recurring risk factor and no known thrombophilia? During pregnancy : Only surveillance is required as per American college of chest physicians. Prophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin is required as per American college of obs & gynaecology (which also explains option 'd is paly correct). Postpaum : warfarin is given for 6 weeks. So, option 'b' is absolutely correct i.e. warfarin should be given in the post paum period for six weeks. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A pregnant female has past history of embolism in puerperium. What medical management she should take in next pregnancy to avoid this
A. Cumpulsory prophylaxis with warfarin sta at 10 weeks
B. To take warfarin after delivery
C. Chance of thromboembolism increases by 12% in next pregnancy
D. Does not need anything
| To take warfarin after delivery |
43647b60-760f-4f7a-bbef-9c3fb997e9b6 | Cyclothymic disorder *Cyclothymic disorder is characterized by recurrent periods of mild depression alternating with periods of hypomania. *This pattern must be present for at least 2 years (1 year for children and adolescents) before the diagnosis can be made. *During these 2 years, the symptom-free intervals should not be longer than 2 months. Cyclothymic disorder usually stas during adolescence or early adulthood and tends to have a chronic course. *The marked shifts in mood of cyclothymic disorder can be confused with the affective instability of borderline -, personality disorder or may suggest a substance abuse problem. | Surgery | null | A 27-yrs-old woman has been feeling low for the past 2 weeks. She has little energy and has trouble concentrating. She states that 6 weeks ago she had been feeling very good, with lots of energy and no need for sleep. She states this pattern has been occurring for at least the past 3 years, though the episodes have never been so severe that she couldn't work. Most likely diagnosis is?
A. Borderline personality disorder
B. Seasonal affective disorder
C. Cyclothymic disorder
D. Major depression, recurrent
| Cyclothymic disorder |
5f3fb73b-4f72-4378-92a3-06a0cc39c796 | Characteristic features of Tricuspid regurgitation are marked hepatomegaly and systolic pulsations of the liver. Hepatic pulsation in tricuspid regurgitation is caused by reversed systolic blood flow in the great veins. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012, Chapter 10; The Cleveland Clinic Cardiology Board Review By Brian P. Griffin, Page 290 | Medicine | null | Which of the following condition is associated with hepatomegaly with liver pulsation?
A. Mitral Stenosis
B. Mitral Regurgitation
C. Tricuspid Regurgitation
D. Pulmonary Hypeension
| Tricuspid Regurgitation |
65f7d156-ab6a-41ef-a616-6fc7afda8fa9 | Ans. B. CO. (Ref. Bailey & Love 26th ed. Pg. 386; Summary box 28.3)Metabolic poisoning in burns:# There are many poisonous gases that can be given off in a fire, the most common being carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion that is often produced by fires in enclosed spaces. This is the usual cause of a person being found with altered consciousness at the scene of a fire.# Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin with an affinity 240 times greater than that of oxygen and therefore blocks the transport of oxygen. Levels of carboxyhaemoglobin in the bloodstream can be measured. Concentrations above 10% are dangerous and need treatment with pure oxygen for more than 24 hours. Death occurs with concentrations around 60%.# Another metabolic toxin produced in house fires is hydrogen cyanide, which causes a metabolic acidosis by interfering with mitochondrial respiration.Additional educational points:The shock reaction after burns# Bums produce an inflammatory reaction# This leads to vastly increased vascular permeability# Water, solutes and proteins move from the intra- to the extravascular space# The volume of fluid lost is directly proportional to the area of the bum# Above 15% of surface area, the loss of fluid produces shockASPHYXIANTS# Include CO, CO2, Hydrogen sulphide and some war gases.- CO reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood;- Carbon dioxide produces oxygen lack in the tissues;- Hydrogen sulphide paralyses the respiratory centre.Cause of death in burns:# Primary neurogenic shock - instantaneously from fear or pain or within 24-48 hrsfrom severe pains or from injury to vital organ from burning, or from oligemic shock.# If a victim survives this stage, this stage merges rapidly into the stage of secondary shock due to depletion of blood (serum) volume.# Apart from actual burning, death may occur from asphyxia (suffocation) due to inhalation of smoke containing carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and other products of combution, which may be poisonous (in recent yrs cyanide intoxication has been recognized as important, especially where plastics and paints are burning), or accidental injuries from falling structures whle trying to escape from abuming house, or from fat embolism. | Surgery | Burns | Which of the follwing gas given off in a fire is most commonly known to cause metabolic poisoning?
A. HCN
B. CO
C. CO2
D. H2S
| CO |
dcffb592-bae2-4b01-8b5d-e3e7fa831b3b | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Insecticide treated bed nets The main strategies of Roll Back Malaria initiative are : a) Strengthen health system to ensure better delivery of health care, especially at district and community level. b) Ensure the proper and expanded use of insecticide treated mosquito nets. c) Ensure adequate access to basic health care and training of health care workers. d) Encourage the development of simpler and more effetive means of administering medicines, such as training of village health workers and mothers on early and appropriate treatment of malaria, especially in children. e) Encourage the development of more effective and new anti-malaria drugs and vaccines. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Roll back malaria programme focused mainly on ?
A. IEC campaigns for community awareness
B. Insecticide treated bed nets
C. Development of larvivorus fishes for eradication of larvae.
D. Presumptive treatment of malaria case
| Insecticide treated bed nets |
455ad9be-d492-4923-b412-24c530c6f3c8 | - the reservoir of plaque is wild rodents, filed mice gerbils and skunks. - in India, the wild rodent Tatera indica is the main reservoir. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:293 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | The following rodent is the natural reservoir of plague -
A. Mus musculus
B. Tatera indica
C. Rattus Rattus
D. Rattus norvegicus
| Tatera indica |
7efc8789-126c-487d-abe8-7a5e172213c6 | Chronic hypeension is defined as BP >140/90 mmHg before pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation, or hypeension first diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation and persistent after 12 weeks postpaum. The average prevalence of hypeension in women aged 18 to 39 years is approximately 5-7 percent. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Obstetrics | A 22-year-old primigravida at 11 weeks of gestational age has a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg obtained during a routine visit. . The patient denies any headache, visual changes, nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. Her repeat BP is 160/90 mm Hg, and urinalysis is negative for protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Chronic hypeension
C. Eclampsia
D. Gestational hypeension
| Chronic hypeension |
5f99829d-90b2-4e68-9fe6-8f67027e5d14 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 6 cm/year "After 4 years, the child gains about 5 cm in height every year, until the age of 10 years" -- O.P. Ghai. "An average child gains approximately 7-8 cm in height between the age of 2-6 years and 6-7 cm in height between 6-12 years". -- Nelson Amongst given option, 6 cm/year is the best answer. | Pediatrics | null | Height of children in 2-10 years of age is increased by-
A. 2 cm/year
B. 4 cm/year
C. 6 cm/year
D. 10 cm / year
| 6 cm/year |
efefa614-35a4-49b1-bdca-0f254edcef23 | Ans: B (Patch test) Ref: Eczema. In: Thappa DM. editor. Essentials in Dermatology, 2nd,edn.. New Delhi: jaypee brothers medical publishers (P) Ltd 2009:99-113. & Atopic dermatitis. Eczema and non infectious immunodeficiency disorders. In: James WD. Berger TG, Elston DM. editors. Andrew's diseases of the skin: Clinical Dermatology, 11th edn., China: Saunders Elsevier 2011: 62-87.Explanation:Patch test - Application of allergens suspected to be the cause of allergic contact dennatitis to intact uninflamed skin in non irritating concentrationDiagnostic of allergic contact dermatitis (airborne contact dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis wherein the allergens are airborne like pollen, cement, etc)Patch test - Delayed hypersensitivity (type IV hypersensitivity)Reading done two days laterPrick testType I hypersensitivity reaction, used to detect allergy to a host of allergens like food, dust, insects, drugs, etcDone in atopic dermatitis, chronic urticaria, allergic rhinoconjunctivitis, bronchial asthmaReading done in 15 minutesSerum IgE levels are non specifically elevated in allergic conditions characteristically high levels are seen in atopic dermatitis and very high levels in hyper IgE syndromeSkin biopsy reveals nonspecific features of spongiosis seen in all cases of dermatitis and not specific for airborne contact dermatitis. | Skin | Disorder of Pigmentation | Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:
A. Skin biopsy
B. Patch test
C. Prick test
D. Estimation of serum IgE levels
| Patch test |
7901b015-8182-4e64-acf7-4a88a950489b | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 467 - 470)X3A Corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting less than a one-third corneal surfaceX3B corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting more than a one-third corneal surfaceXS corneal scar due to xerophthalmia XF Xerophthalmic fundus | Ophthalmology | Cornea and sclera | Children with apathy, general weakness, loosening of the skin, marasmic features also has X3B Xerophthalmia features. Eye finding will be
A. Corneal ulcer with thickening
B. Corneal ulcer with full thickness
C. Hyperemia
D. Conjunctival xerosis
| Corneal ulcer with full thickness |
3eaff76e-ac66-409b-9154-7a3bb8b4f539 | calcium gluconate immediately antagonises the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia, whereas the others are used to correct hyperkalemia. (reference : harrisons principles of internal medicine,19E page- 312) | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | Hyperkalemia with no ECG finding. The drug that should not be used is -
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Glucose with insulin
D. Resins
| Calcium gluconate |
16a21d38-aedb-4249-af8c-4c80172f6106 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IV o Long-term adverse effects on large number of patients -f Phase IV clinical trial. | Pharmacology | null | Trials stage for experimentation of adverse drug reaction in large scale population is ?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
| IV |
53683db2-c3eb-4327-8571-41da03dcc705 | drugs used for hyperkalemia- IV calcium gluconate, calcium chloride, insulin, sodium bicarbonate, albuterol, thiazide diuretics, loop diuretics New drug patiromer was recently approved for the treatment of hyperkalemia ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMACOLOGY SIXTH EDITION -KD TRIPATHI Page:323 | Pharmacology | Other topics and Adverse effects | Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of hyperkalemia?
A. Salbutamol
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Magnesium sulphate
| Magnesium sulphate |
211cdc24-35da-4067-8018-3fa79cd63a4e | Ans. (b) B.pertisusRef: Harrison's 18th ed ch-148 | Microbiology | Bacteria | Whooping cough is caused by?
A. C.dipthera
B. B.pertussis
C. M.catarrhalis
D. S.pneumonea
| B.pertussis |
26979b55-e4f1-4c54-aef5-5ad49216f5c1 | Patient here has presented with prodrome of viral hepatitis. Investigations to diiferentiate various causes of jaundice in pregnancy are IHCP AFLP HELLP Viral hepatiis Bilirubin (mg/dL) 1-5, direct 2-10, direct <2 >5 SGOT/ SGPT <200 <1000 <500 500-3000 ALP Raised Normal Normal Normal/raised Platelets Normal low Low Normal Prothrombin time Normal Prolonged prolonged prolonged | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical Illness Complicating Pregnancy | A patient at 28 weeks pregnancy presents with low grade fever, malaise, vomiting since 1 week. On examination she is icteric, Her Hb is 10 gm%, bilirubin is 5 mg/dL, SGOT and SGPT at 630 and 600 with normal platelet count. Most probable cause of her jaundice is
A. IHCP
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. HELLP syndrome
| Viral hepatitis |
aa630a6b-699a-4750-8710-02107f8762ce | A i.e. Oral griseofulvin Tenia capitis is most commonly caused by Microsporum canis > Trichophyton tonsurans; and never caused by Epidermophyton as it does not involve hair. It presents with localized non-cicatrial (mostly) alopecia, itching, scaling with or without boggy swelling of scalp & easily pluckable hair. Tinia capitis is diagnosed by potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mounts of hair & scale and treated by griseofulvin. Griseofulvin is used systemically only for dermatophytosis, it is ineffective topically. It is the drug of choice for treatment of tinea requiring systemic therapy. Griseofulvin has no role in treatment of Tinea versicolar & candida. | Skin | null | An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is:
A. Oral griseofulvin therapy
B. Topical griseofulvin therapy
C. Shaving of the scalp
D. Selenium sulphide shampoo
| Oral griseofulvin therapy |
b56428ee-670b-4741-85af-166ef32a37e4 | Ans. C. HLA B8a. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a disease characterized by erythematous vesicular or bullous lesions and severe itching. The disease most commonly occurs between 20-40 years of age and men are more commonly affected. IgA is deposited in the reticular dermis of the uninvolved skin suggesting an immune etiology.b. More than 90% of patients express the HLA B8/DRW3 and HLA DQW2. It is also associated with gluten sensitive enteropathy. Polymorphism of the eruption (erythematous blotches or stain, grouped vesicle or bullae) and intense itching are characteristic features of the disease.c. The attacks last for weeks or months with intervals of partial remission over a period of years. General health of the patient is unaffected except due to sleeplessness caused by irritation or secondary infection. Although any part of the body may be involved but mucous membranes are involved only in 1% of the cases.d. Distribution is usually bilateral and symmetrical and forearms, thighs, inter-scapular region and buttocks beings most commonly involved. Dapsone is the drug of choice and is given 50mg 1-4 times a day orally.e. Most of the patients are controlled by 100mg daily dose but the require pent varies from time to time. The effect of dapsone is dramatic and rapid with all signs disappearing in 48 hours.f. However, the treatment must be continued indefinitely as it is suppressive and not curative. It is also necessary to treat the patient with a gluten free diet because this reduces the dose of drug required to suppress the eruption. | Skin | Autoimmune Skin Disorders | HLA associated with Dermatitis herpetiform is:
A. HLA A5
B. HLA B27
C. HLA B8
D. HLA A28
| HLA B8 |
7c4484cb-3400-4421-804e-eff019039d41 | Adenovirus causes Acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children and generalized exanthem. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:482 | Microbiology | Virology | Which virus can cause hemorrhage -
A. Parvovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. HPV
D. Coronavirus
| Adenovirus |
14e68a28-4e89-4467-8a0b-0099bf31f5c7 | AnsL C (1.2 L) Ref: Davidson, 21st ed, pg 651Explanation:Refer Medicine 2013 question explanation.TLC: Volume of air in the lungs following maximal inspiration ( N= 5-6L)FVC: Maximum amount of air exhaled following maxima] inspiration ( N= 4.8L)VT: Volume of air entering and leaving lungs during normal respiration ( N+ 500 ml)RV: Volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiratory' effort (1.2L)FRC; Volume of air within the lungs at the end of normal respiration (2.5-3L)FEV: Volume of air exhaled in a given time during a forced vital capacity effort | Medicine | Respiratory Function | Residual volume of lung in an average adult male is: (Repeat)
A. 3.0 L
B. 0.9 L
C. 1.2 L
D. 1.9 L
| 1.2 L |
3b332f26-5d8e-4b75-8eb5-aeddeed72dd1 | Ans. a. Nitrous oxide above options, most potent analgesic agent is Nitrous oxide. "Nitrous oxide- 50:50 nitrous oxide and oxygen has revolutionized it as analgesic agent; it has been used as an analgesic agent in obstetric surgeries; dental procedures; in acute trauma; burn dressings and cardiac pain as well."- Wiley and Churchill-Davidson A Practice of Anesthesia 7/e p536 Miller says "Nitrous oxide produce analgesia that is in pa because of release of proenkephalin derived family of endogenous opioids Physical propeies of N20 It is colourless, non-irritating and sweet smelling Boiling point is -89degC. Critical temperature is 36.5degCdeg which is a.bove room temperature, therefore it can be kept in liquefied state. Stored as liquid in blue color cylindersQ 35 times more soluble than nitrogen Remember: Anesthesia with No analgesia HalothaneQ Only analgesia N20Q Profound analgesia KetamineQ Best/maximum analgesia TrileneQ | Anaesthesia | null | Most potent analgesic agent among following
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Nitric oxide
C. CO2
D. Oxygen
| Nitrous oxide |
84bb22ea-eb0c-4e14-8c87-ed1342f5efd2 | Paul Bunell test is the standard diagnostic procedure of infectious mononucleosis which is caused by EBV.
Paul Bunell test detects heterophile antibody.
Paul Bunell test
In this test inactivated serum (56 0 C for 30 minutes) in doubling dilutions is mixed with equal volumes of a 1% suspension of sheep erythrocytes.
An agglutination titre of 100 or above is suggestive of infectious mononucleosis.
For confirmation, differential absorption of agglutinins with guineapig kidney and ox red cells is necessary
The Paul Bunell antibody develops early during the course of infectious mononucleosis, and disappears within two months.
False positive : In patient with lymphoma hepatitis, malaria connective tissue disease
Remember :
– MC cause of heterophile antibody (+)ve infectious mononucleosis is EBV.
– MC cause of heterophile antibody (–) ve infectious mononucleosis is CMV.
– Heterophile (–) ve IM also caused by toxoplasmosis, Listeria, non-infectious stimuli. | Microbiology | null | A patient with sore throat has a positive Paul Bunnel test. The causative organism is :
A. EBV
B. Herpes virus
C. Adeno virus
D. Cytomegalovirus
| EBV |
c08898f8-1435-4b47-8e11-5485cfc8fe3f | Injection sclerotherapy is the treatment of choice of internal hemorrhoids. It helps in reducing the size of the hemorrhoids and stop it from bleeding. A solution containing either quinine and urea or phenol is used as the sclerosing agent. Hemorrhoids are swollen veins around the anus and in the rectum that may protrude from the anus. Patients presents with itching, burning, pain, swelling, irritation and bleeding per rectum. Bleeding is bright red in colour and is associated with bowel movements. Ref:Bailey and Love's Sho Practise of Surgery, 24th Edition, Page 1255. | Surgery | null | Which type of haemorrhoids is treated by the injection of sclerosing agent?
A. External haemorrhoids
B. Internal haemorrhoids
C. Prolapsed haemorrhoids
D. Thrombosed haemorrhoids
| Internal haemorrhoids |
d2c006cc-ab7a-4fb0-a136-a56389060d18 | Ureteric injury has an incidence of 0.1-1.5% of all pelvic surgery The highest risk is for Weheim Radical hysterectomy since this surgery involves stripping of the ureteric fascia and that can compromise the ureteric blood supply and hence a devascularisation injury. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Endometrial Carcinoma and Hysterectomy | Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with which of the following
A. Anterior colporraphy
B. Vaginal hysterectomy
C. Weheim hysterectomy
D. Abdominal hysterectomy
| Weheim hysterectomy |
4d36c77c-6b44-4c1b-8958-8eaca910d120 | "Fibrous dysplasia of proximal femur has shepherd crook deformity". | Orthopaedics | Ohopedics Oncology | X-ray proximal femur in a patient with pain hip. The deformity shown is:
A. Blade of grass deformity
B. Shepherd crook deformity
C. Chicken wire appearance
D. Corduroy appearance
| Shepherd crook deformity |
8e92e460-98d9-4709-82eb-dc613ac32980 | For PETs in the pancreas, EUS is highly sensitive, localizing 77-100% of insulinomas, which occur almost exclusively within the pancreas. Tests for location of pNET: Somatostatin Receptor Scintigraphy is the initial imaging modality but is less available. Helical CT scan has a sensitivity of 82-94%. Gadolinium based MRI has sensitivity of 85%. If above scans are negative, then Endoscopic ultrasound will be able to pick up the insulinoma which is usually <1.5 cm in size. If all the above tests turn negative then calcium stimulated angiography can be used to localize the tumor. The intra-aerial calcium test also allows differentiation of the cause of the hypoglycaemia and indicates whether it is due to an insulinoma or a nesidioblastosis. | Medicine | Disorders of Adrenal Gland | Which is the initial Imaging modality of choice for Insulinoma?
A. USG
B. CT abdomen
C. Somatostatin Receptor Scan (SRS)
D. E.U.S
| E.U.S |
18fbc52c-b20e-4e34-b38a-1192d9bb0afb | Ref: Goodman & Gillman's 13th ed. P 1016* Ciprofloxacin is one of the fluoroquinolones along with norfloxacin, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, spartloxacin, etc.* MOA of quinolones: The quinolone antibiotics target bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV.* The quinolones inhibit gyrase-mediated DNA supercoiling at concentrations that correlate well with those required to inhibit bacterial growth.* Mutations of the gene that encodes the A subunit of the gyrase can confer resistance to these drugs. | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | Resistance to ciprofloxacin is due to:
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Mutation
| Mutation |
062db933-3632-4c3f-8822-ffe12b939cd2 | B i.e. Atracurium You might be thinking that this Q has never been asked, but think a while and try to understand that around which concept the Q is based. In other words, they are trying to ask that which muscle relaxant will not require reversal? I think now you need no explanation - In pancuronium reversal is often required d/ t its longer duration of action - Ve/Ro-curonium seldom require reversal unless repeated doses have been given - In atracurium & cis-atracurium reversal is mostly not required due to its unique feature of spontaneous non eyzmatic degradation (Hoffmann elimination) Q. | Anaesthesia | null | A 21 year old lady with a history of hypersensitivity to neostigmine is posted for an elective caesarean section under general anesthesia. The best muscle relaxant of choice in this patient should be:
A. Pancuronium
B. Atracurium
C. Rocuronium
D. Vecuronium
| Atracurium |
e805ad44-6f84-4e4e-8d52-bdbe959caebe | Nasopharyngeal fibroma/Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a major cause for recurrent epistaxis in adolescent males. It is testosterone dependent. Benign tumour but locally invasive Ref - PL DHINGRA diseases of ear nose and throat, 6th edition | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Diagnosis in a ten year old boy with recurrent epistaxis and a unilateral nasal mass is
A. Antrochoanal polyp
B. Hemangioma
C. Angiofibroma
D. Rhinolith
| Angiofibroma |
cb97fa3d-0934-4156-a50e-67066127ca0f | (d) Hip replacement- Watson-Jones operation is anterolateral approach to the hip joint.There are four commonly used approaches to the hip joint:- Anterior or Smith-Peterson- commonly used to access the hip in cases of suspected septic arthritis - Anterolateral or Watson-Jones- is used for hemi or total hip arthroplasty - Direct lateral or Hardinge - Posterior or Southern approach | Orthopaedics | Congenital Talips Eqino Varvs (C.T.E.V.) | Watson-Jones approach is done for?
A. Neglected club foot
B. Muscle paralysis
C. Valgus deformity
D. Hip replacement
| Hip replacement |
c2c15c69-0256-4e18-9a76-415acf181cc3 | If during firing, the bullet remains in the barrel; during subsequent firing two bullets, one behind the other are projected out → called as Tandem bullet. | Forensic Medicine | null | A bullet fired form a gun is not released. It is ejected out with the subsequent shot. It is known as -
A. Dum dum bullet
B. Rocketing bullet
C. Ricochet bullet
D. Tandem bullet
| Tandem bullet |
40999861-2dcd-4ff3-89e5-c5328ac7faea | Answer-A. 1 min of arcVisual acuity is the first test performed after taking history.Measurement of the central visual acuity is essentially an assessment of function of the fovea centralis.An object must be presented so that each poion of it is separated by a difinite interval, known as minimum angle of resolution (MAR). Customarily, this interval has become one minute of an arc.The test object should subtends an angle of five minutes of an arc. | Ophthalmology | null | Minimum angle of resolution when visual acuity is 6/6
A. 1 min of arc
B. 5 min of arc
C. 10 min of arc
D. 15 min of arc
| 1 min of arc |
3c103424-fa8e-47d0-9533-85a8c9ed4138 | AKI from ATN due to ischemic injury, sepsis, or ceain nephrotoxins has characteristic urine sediment findings: pigmented "muddy brown" granular casts and tubular epithelial cell casts. These findings may be absent in more than 20% of cases Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1805 | Medicine | Kidney | Pigmented "muddy brown" granular cast is characteristic of
A. Prerenal ARF
B. Ischemic or nephrotoxic ATN
C. Postrenal ARF
D. Chronic renal failure
| Ischemic or nephrotoxic ATN |
550be516-3a36-465d-8ffd-b9ca47f342a4 | C7 is most prominent spinous process seen at the neck region just above T 1 veebrae BD CHAURASIA HUMAN ANATOMY Vol 3 | Anatomy | General anatomy | 7Which is the most prominent spinous process?
A. T1
B. C7
C. C6
D. L5
| C7 |
3a8e7aa5-55e3-4312-8dd6-e177633a5173 | Crude birth rate : Number of live births in a year per 1000 mid-year population.
CBR is simplest indicator of fertility : Total mid-year population is not exposed to child bearing thus it doesnot give true idea of fertility of a population. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Crude birth rate is a simplest measure of fertility because it includes
A. Mid year population
B. Total population
C. Live births only
D. Pre-term births
| Mid year population |
cdbfb887-d897-43b8-86df-d21d3543c82b | Due to anticholinergic action, TCAs should be avoided in glaucoma These agents block muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, blurred vision, urine retention, constipation); they are contraindicated in patients with glaucoma. | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | Tricyclic antidepressant are contraindicated in:
A. Glaucoma
B. Brain tumor
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Hypeension
| Glaucoma |
16880d89-b7b5-4219-b75d-cb5470b9947e | DMPA is effective for 13 weeks. It has grace period of 4 weeks, which means that this woman can get her next injection before completed 17 weeks. If she comes later than 17 weeks, then she will be given injection but will have to use backup for next 7 days, as injections would take time to become effective. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Other FP Methods and New Initiatives in Family Planning | With DMPA, the next injection may be taken latest by:
A. 12 weeks
B. 13 weeks
C. 15 weeks
D. 17 weeks
| 17 weeks |
b0ec7a67-4379-4bd5-9e8b-d27e75dffec5 | (B) Thiopental Sodium # Uses of Thiopentone Sodium:> Induction of anaesthesia;> Maintenance of anaesthesia for short procedures;> Basal narcosis by rectal administration;> Treatment of status epilepticus;> Reduction of intracranial pressure;> Fordiagnostic operative neurological procedures. | Anaesthesia | Miscellaneous | During surgery for aortic arch aneurysm under deep hypothermic circulatory arrest which of the following anaesthetic agent administered prior to circulatory arrest that also provides cerebral protection?
A. Etomidate
B. Thiopental Sodium
C. Propofal
D. Ketamine
| Thiopental Sodium |
d271c97e-fde5-49e2-b61d-166058eca9f2 | I think there is printing mistake in this question. There should be except in this question. In that case answer will be erythema induratum.
Neonatal fat necrosis, post-steroidal panniculitis, Lipodermatosclerosis and lupus panniculitis belong to same group, i.e. Mostly lobular panniculitis without vasculitis.
Erythema induratum belongs to other class, i.e. Mostly lobular panniculitis with vasculitis. | Dental | null | Neonatal fat necrosis resembles which of the following – a) Post steroidal panniculitisb) Erythema induratumc) Lipodermatosclerosisd) Lupus panniculitis
A. abc
B. ad
C. acd
D. bde
| acd |
82931b21-d013-43f3-8b5c-ef3511c09481 | Answer- B. Loss of corneal reflexAbsent corneal reflex is the earliest sign of cerebellopontine (CP) angle tumors like acoustic neuroma. | Surgery | null | First clinical feature of cerebello-pontine angle tumor is ?
A. Reduced lacrimation
B. Loss of corneal reflex
C. Hoarseness of voice
D. Exaggerated tendon reflexes
| Loss of corneal reflex |
c90a2bc3-d7b5-4b0b-bc4d-3d73e312f106 | Petechial spots without hepatosplenomegaly in a 5-year-old boy suggest the diagnosis of ITP.
About other options
Acute leukaemia
Acute leukaemia will give features of involvement of all the three lineages i.e.
anaemia (erythrocyte involvement)
fever (due to neutrophil involvement)
bleeding (due to platelet involvement)
Moreover, splenomegaly and lymphadenopathy are usually present in Acute leukaemias.
Aplastic anaemia
Aplastic anaemia too will present with features, characteristic of involvement of all the three lineages i.e. severe anaemia, fever bleeding. | Pediatrics | null | A 5-year-old boy comes with overnight petechial spots 2 weeks back he had a history of abdominal pain and no hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis is –
A. Aute lymphatic leukemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenis purpura
D. Acute viral infection
| Idiopathic thrombocytopenis purpura |
208c8dfe-a772-49a0-aba0-ded7d7fd038f | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Theophylline 1 o Drugs showing zero/pseudo-zero order kinetics :# Phenytoin# Tolbutamide# Theophylline# Warfarin# Alcohol# Salicylates (Aspirin) | Pharmacology | Pharmacokinetics | Zero order kinetics is shown by which drug -
A. Digoxin
B. Theophylline
C. Phenobarbitane
D. Etomidate
| Theophylline |
77f64b2b-ee99-4de6-99ff-2d1afb33dbff | D i.e. Miosis and ptosis Homer's syndrome presents with - ENopthalmos Q, Ptosis Q, Anhidrosis, Loss of ciliospinal reflexes Q, MiosisQ (Mnemonic - "NO-PALM") Way of remembering - all things are decreased whether it be the size of pupil (miosis), or proptosis of eye (enopthalmos), or palpebral size (ptosis), or unilateral loss of sweating (anhidrosis), or reflexes (loss of ciliospinal reflexes). | Ophthalmology | null | Homer's syndrome consists of-
A. miosis and endopthalmos
B. miosis and exopthalmos
C. miosis and proptosis
D. miosis and ptosis
| miosis and ptosis |
199f259d-96d3-41c2-ab65-b2f197b9e065 | The given picture shows a child creeping upstairs, that comes at around 15 months age; Another impoant milestone that appears at around 15 months age is Jargon speech | Pediatrics | Impoant Motor Milestones | When is this gross motor milestone attained by a child?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 15 months
D. 24 months
| 15 months |
1593ebaf-98c7-4ef9-9d4d-42c9256c4388 | Isoxsuprine, magnesium, ritodrine, salbutamol, and terbutaline to some extent, atosiban, calcium channel blockers could act as uterine relaxants or tocolytics Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Which one of the following drugs is not a uterine relaxant?
A. Isoxsuprine
B. Dopamine
C. Salbutamol
D. Terbutaline
| Dopamine |
708505d4-4b0f-4318-8357-b98f309b06ef | Antioxidants fall into two classes:
Preventive antioxidants, which reduce the rate of chain initiation. ex: Catalase and other peroxidases such as glutathione peroxidase.
Chain-breaking antioxidants, which interfere with chain propagation. ex: Superoxide Dismutase, Uric Acid, Vitamin E (Most powerful).
Key Concept:
Catalase falls into preventive anti-oxidants which reduce the rate of chain initiation.
Ref : Harper’s illustrated biochemistry, 31st edition. | Biochemistry | null | An example of a preventive antioxidant is:
A. Catalase
B. Tocopherol
C. Superoxide dismutase
D. Urate
| Catalase |
9c03246d-2a4e-4a7a-88ab-8f5fc6c46c3c | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cellular debris Types of edema fluidIn edema, the fluid accumulated in interstitial fluid may be either a transudate or an exudate. Exudate is an inflammatory fluid that contains high protein content, cellular debris, and specific gravity >1.020. It occurs due to increased vascular permeability.Transudate contains low protein (mostly albumin) with specific gravity < 1.012.It is an ultrafiltrate of plasma that results from hydrostatic or osmotic imbalance between intravascular and extravascular compaments despite normal vascular permeability | Pathology | null | Characteristic of exudative fluid is -
A. Low protein content
B. Specific gravity < 1.012
C. Normal vascular permeability
D. Cellular debris
| Cellular debris |
f588a6e8-4f5b-4372-a417-d6dabcfacbcb | Ans. b (Vaginal delivery). (Ref. Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th/pg.38, 1082)MATERN AL-FETAL/INFANT TRANSMISSION# The predominant cause of HIV infection in children is transmission of the virus from the mother to the newborn during the perinatal period.# The majority of cases of mother-to-child (vertical) transmission of HIV-1 occur during the intrapartum period.# Exposures, which increase the risk of mother-to-child transmission, include -- Vaginal delivery,- Preterm delivery,- Maternal bleeding, and# Trauma to the fetal skin.# Perinatal HIV transmission can be most accurately correlated with measurement of maternal plasma HIV RNA burden.# In the absence of prophylactic antiretroviral therapy to the mother during pregnancy, labor, and delivery, and to the fetus following birth (see below), the probability of transmission of HIV from mother to infant/fetus ranges from 15- 25% in industrialized countries and from 25-35% in developing countries.# In developed countries, current recommendations to reduce perinatal transmission of HIV include- universal voluntary HIV testing and counseling of pregnant women,- antiretroviral prophylaxis with one or more drugs in cases in which the mother does not require therapy for her HIV infection,- combination therapy for women who do require therapy,- obstetric management that attempts to minimize exposure of the infant to maternal blood and genital secretions, and- avoidance of breast-feeding.# Certain studies have demonstrated that truncated regimens of zidovudine alone or in combination with lamivudine given to the mother during the last few weeks of pregnancy or even only during labor and delivery, and to the infant for a week or less, significantly reduced transmission to the infant compared to placebo.# Short-course prophylactic antiretroviral (ARV) regimens, such as a single dose of nevirapine given to the mother at the onset of labor and a single dose to the infant within 72 h of birth, are of particular relevance to low- to mid-income nations because of the low cost and the fact that in these regions perinatal care is often not available and pregnant women are often seen by a health care provider for the first time at or near the time of delivery.# Indeed, short-course ARV regimens have now been used for several years in developing nations for the prevention of mother-to-child transmission. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | HIV transmission to the newborn is most commonly and effectively by
A. LSCS
B. Vaginal delivery
C. Perinatal
D. Breast feeding
| Vaginal delivery |
1f976616-c259-4834-8aa2-8ba19fd0ca06 | Ans. is a i.e. Impending rupture of scar Now friends - here in the question it is asked specifically that hematuria is seen in a patient with previous LSCS during labour - which indicates impending rupture of scar? "There are no reliable signs of impending uterine rupture that occurs before labor, although the sudden appearance of gross hematuria is suggestive. Here in this questions obstructed labor is not given in the options, but even if it was given, I would have still opted for impending scar rupture as the question is specifically asking, in a case of previous LSCS. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Hematuria during labour in previous is sign of -
A. Impending rupture of scar
B. Urethral trauma
C. Prolong labour
D. Sepsis
| Impending rupture of scar |
3f2f30a9-5c4f-4db7-9933-13a683d791be | Ans. is 'b' i.e., A C Two type of meningococcal vaccine develop Unconjugated polysaccharide vaccine. Conjugated group C vaccine. Polysaccharide vaccines Internationally marketed meningococcal polysaccharide vaccines are o Bivalent (A and C), Trivalent (A, C and W-135) Tetravalent (A, C, Y and W-135). The vaccines are purified, heat-stable, lyophilized capsular polysaccharides from meningococci of the respective serogroups. A protective antibody response occurs within 10 days of vaccination. In schoolchildren and adults, one dose of these polysaccharide vaccines appears to provide protection for at least 3 years, but in children under 4 years of age the levels of specific antibodies decline rapidly after 2-3 years. | Pediatrics | null | Bivalent meningococcal vaccine is ?
A. A Y
B. A C
C. C y
D. A W-I35
| A C |
e5c3b933-b83b-4958-8d85-36b0df103ff4 | Delhi has the highest percentage of population (70%) in the highest quintile of wealth index, followed by Goa (55%). States with low wealth index include Chhattisgarh and Orissa. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 639. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A per NFHS III data, the wealthiest state is:
A. Delhi
B. Haryana
C. Punjab
D. Goa
| Delhi |
8a8bbee3-1643-49cb-80bf-ce2b5dc26bc2 | Calcification is best detected by CT scan. | Radiology | Fundamentals in Radiology | Calcification is best detected by -
A. X-ray
B. USG
C. CT scan
D. MRI
| CT scan |
d5d4974a-df75-4137-9cd7-6ee47853675b | Enterobius vermicularus mainly affects children. The gravid female worm lays ova around the anus ,causing itching especially at night .The ova are often carried to the mouth on the fingers & so re-infection or human to human infection takes place. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 1120 | Medicine | Infection | A 6-year old child who presented with perianal pruritus, excoriation of skin and nocturnal enuresis was found to be infected with a parasite causing autoinfection. The infective form of parasite for humans is the -
A. Filariform larvae
B. Embryonated egg
C. Adult female
D. Adult male
| Embryonated egg |
94629f44-0289-4926-a894-50171a3a65f8 | Ans: A (Complement deficiency) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th edition, 2008, Chapter 136, pg: 911 and Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th editionExplanation:Defects in Complement SystemHost DefectDisease or Therapy Associated With DefectCommon Etioiogic Agent of InfectionC3* Congenital liver disease* SLE* Nephrotic syndrome* S. aureus* S. pneumoniae* Pseudomonas spp* Proteus spc.C5* Congenital* Neisseria spp.* Gram-negative rodsC6,C7,C8* Congenital,* SLE* Neisseria meningitidis* N. qonorrhoeaeAlternativepathway* Sickie cell disease* S. pneumonia* Salmonella spp. | Unknown | null | Child admitted with meningitis. Examination reveals gram negative diplococci. History of previous similar infection is present with same organism. Which of the following should be suspected?
A. Complement deficiency
B. Immunoglobulin deficiency
C. T cell
D. 8 cell
| Complement deficiency |
5fe6b0be-96aa-40dd-b1fe-278f019af66d | Types of Tympanoplasty Wullstein classified tympanoplasty into five types . Type I Defect is perforation of tympanic membrane which is repaired with a graft. It is also called myringoplasty. Type II Defect is perforation of tympanic membrane with erosion of malleus. Graft is placed on the incus or remnant of malleus. Type III Malleus and incus are absent. Graft is placed directly on the stapes head. It is also called myringostapediopexy or columella tympanoplasty. Type IV Only the footplate of stapes is present. It is exposed to the external ear, and graft is placed between the oval and round windows. A narrow middle ear (cavum minor) is thus created to have an air pocket around the round window. A mucosa-lined space extends from the eustachian tube to the round window. Sound waves in this case act directly on the footplate while the round window has been shielded. Type V Stapes footplate is fixed but round window is functioning. In such cases, another window is created on horizontal semicircular canal and covered with a graft. Also called Fenestration operation. Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition, page 30. | ENT | Diagnostic and operative ENT | Fenestration operation is which type of tympanoplasty?
A. Type - 2
B. Type - 3
C. Type - 4
D. Type - 5
| Type - 5 |
b980912a-a874-4aee-8904-510c8fca188f | The external urethral sphincter is the voluntary sphincter composed of skeletal muscle, the sphincter urethrae muscle. This muscle, along with the deep transverse perineal muscle, are in the deep perineal space and form the muscular layer of the urogenital diaphragm. The internal urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle in the neck of the bladder. The internal and external sphincters are both open during micturition. During ejaculation, the external sphincter is open and the internal sphincter is closed. | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | The external urethral sphincter is located in which of the following regions?
A. Ischiorectal fossa
B. Extrapeoneal space
C. Retropubic space
D. Deep perineal space
| Deep perineal space |
eddbc9e8-174f-49a7-8823-2ad55950c8db | Ans. A. AcetylcholineWhenever blood pressure rises, there is reflex stimulation of baroreceptors. These release Ach and depress the heart. | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | Neurotransmitter released in response to raised blood pressure:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Adrenaline
C. Dopamine
D. Nor-adrenaline
| Acetylcholine |
1e259266-70f7-4b47-9298-cd0827bfb831 | Ans. is b, i.e. Genital ridgeRef: Dutta Gynae 8th/ed, p38Male and female derivatives of embryonic urogenital structures.Part of female genital systemOriginates fromOvaryGenital ridgeFallopiantubesUterus CervixUpperpartofvagina [?][?][?][?][?][?][?][?][?] Mullerian/paramesonephric ductLower part of vaginaSinovaginal bulb/urogenital Sinus | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Malformation of the Female Generative Organs | Ovary develop from:
A. Mullerian duct
B. Genital ridge
C. Genital tubercle
D. Mesonephric duct
| Genital ridge |
eb08e6c9-1723-45b4-be7b-30e419a9d40a | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cardiotoxicity Anthracvclineso Anthracyclines are anticancer antibiotics and they include Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) and Daunorubicin.o The major toxicity of anthracyclines is potentially irreversible cumulative dose related toxicityo They may causes arrhythmias and cardiomyopathy. Because of their carditoxicity these drugs should be avoided in the patient with MI and CHF.o The antracyclines exert their anticancer activity through four major mechanisms -1. Inhibition of topoisomerase II2. Blockade of synthesis of DNA & RNA, and DNA strand scission.3. Alter fluidity and ion transport.4. Generation of semiquinone free radicals and oxygen free radicals - this free radical mechanism is the cause of cardiotoxicity.o This cardiootoxicity can be prevented by using dexrazoxane (a free radical scavenger) and a-tocopherol.o Liposomal forms of these drugs also reduce cardiac toxicity.o Adverse effects - Dose related myelosuppression with neutropenia, dose limiting mucositis, cardiotoxicity (AI 96, 94, AIIMS 93)o Uses of Doxorubicin# Ca Breast# Ca Endometrium# Ca ovary# Ca testicle# Ca thyroid# Ca lung# Hodgkin s disease# Non Hodgkin disease# Sarcomaso Uses of Daunorubicin# It has far narrower spectrum of activity than Doxorubicin# It is mainly used in acute leukemia. | Pharmacology | Anti-Neoplastic Agents | Characteristic toxicity of daxorubicin -
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
| Cardiotoxicity |
88c04c95-080a-4531-a814-bcead4f26455 | The activins and inhibins are glycoproteins that belong to the transforming growth factor -b superfamily. They are secreted from granulose cells. FSH induces steroidogenesis (estradiol production) in granulosa cells in the preovulatory phase (follicular phase). Stimulation of the arrested meiotic division of the ovum occurs at ovulation, till then the oocyte is resting in the prophase of the first meiotic division. This is the reason why the 1st polar body is released along with ovulation. (The second polar body is released after feilisation). Inhibin B has shown increased levels in mid-follicular phase, has a periovular peak, and then declines in luteal phase. Inhibin A is low in follicular phase, reaches a small peak in mid-follicular phase, and increases to reach a peak in luteal phase. Just like inhibin, which is a inhibitory co-molecule of FSH, Activin is also a co-molecule of FSH and is increased when action of FSH is required. i.e. action of FSH is activin mediated. Hence, activin will be highest when the FSH action is maximum in the early follicular phase | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Tests of Ovulation | Which of the following event occurs during the ovulation phase ?
A. Increase in inhibin A level
B. FSH induce steroidogenesis in granulosa cells in secretory phase
C. Activin increases
D. Stimulation of the arrested meiotic division of the ovum
| Stimulation of the arrested meiotic division of the ovum |
c8d76274-6e3b-4098-97fe-ca96618e9133 | Mutagenesis in bacteria The Ames test is carried out in Salmonella and detects mutations in the bacterial DNA. Because mutagenic potential is associated with carcinogenic risk for many chemicals, the Ames test is often used to claim that a paicular agent may be a carcinogen. However, the test itself only detects mutations. | Surgery | null | The Ames test is a method for detecting
A. Carcinogenesis in rodents
B. Carcinogenesis in primates
C. Teratogenesis in any mammalian species
D. Mutagenesis in bacteria
| Mutagenesis in bacteria |
baf9416d-a62c-4615-9a7b-0ffb6f81fb22 | Lateral pterygoid depresses the mandible to open the mouth, with suprahyoid muscles. | Anatomy | null | Most important muscle which opens mouth is -
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medical pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Temporalis
| Lateral pterygoid |
052f5a0a-d731-4615-acdb-a34524f67b50 | 15ºC is the best temp for cooling burn wound. | Surgery | null | Temp of water used to cool the burn wound?
A. 20ºc
B. 25ºC
C. 10ºC
D. 15ºC
| 15ºC |
bcdde484-d76b-42e0-b67b-8b78e40f2738 | Ans. C. CoccidioidesSporothrix (Sporotrochosis), Histoplasma (Histoplasmosis), Coccidioides (Desert rheumatism or Valley fever), Paracoccidioides (South American Blastomycosis), Blastomyces (North American Blastomycosis), Talaromycesmarneffei. | Microbiology | Mycology | Desert rheumatism is caused by:
A. Cryptococcus
B. Candida
C. Coccidioides
D. Chromoblastomycosis
| Coccidioides |
12d863d3-bf65-4f3a-893e-33842561c804 | B i.e. Secondary syphilis Secondary syphilis presents with generalized, symmetrical, nonitchy, coppery red maculoppular lesions (+- scales) on trunk, extremities and even palm and solesQ. Oral and genital superficial mucosal erosion (patches) are painless silver-grayQ surrounded by red periphery. And warm, moist, interiginous areas (such as perianal area, vulva and scrotum) show large, hyperophic, coalesced gray-white, highly infections papules (Condylomata lata)Q. | Skin | null | A 40 year old female presented with numerous, nonitchy, erythematous scaly papules (lesions) on trunk, with few oral white mucosal plaques. She also had erosive lesions in perianal area. The probable diagnosis is
A. Psoriasis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Lichen planus
D. Disseminated candidiasis
| Secondary syphilis |
bd7fa1d4-b3f2-4a50-9315-054b68938f36 | The patient most likely has a pancreatic pseudocyst, which is a complication of pancreatitis. Pancreatic pseudocyst is not a true cyst; it is lined by granulation tissue and collagen. It contains pancreatic juices and lysed blood, so rupture would spill the active digestive enzymes onto the adjacent viscera, paicularly the stomach, small intestine, and transverse colon. Digestive action produces potentially severe gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Anaphylactic shock results from massive activation of the IgE-mediated branch of the immune system. Pancreatic secretions do not elicit an IgE response. The classic abdominal cyst that ruptures, producing anaphylactic shock, is a hydatid cyst. Carcinomatosis is widespread serosal spread of a carcinoma, typically due to tumor spillage into a body cavity. Although this may occur with pancreatic mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, this disease is far less likely to occur than is pancreatic pseudocyst in a patient with chronic pancreatitis. Pancreatic pseudocyst is not an infective disease. Although septic abscesses do occur in the abdomen, and may even complicate a pancreatic pseudocyst, the danger of rupture is more associated with tissue destruction by pancreatic enzymes than with infection. Ref: Fisher W.E., Anderson D.K., Bell R.H., Saluja A.K., Brunicardi F.C. (2010). Chapter 33. Pancreas. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | Surgery | null | A 58 year old male alcoholic with chronic pancreatitis develops a palpable abdominal mass. Ultrasound reveals a 9 cm cystic lesion adjacent to the pancreas. An impoant complication that might occur if this cyst ruptured would be?
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Carcinomatosis
C. Disseminated infection
D. Intestinal hemorrhage
| Intestinal hemorrhage |
01eefdd6-df22-4655-9d65-a240d34ec725 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vit. B complex Interactions of levodopa Pyridoxine abolishes the therapeutic effect by enhancing peripheral decarboxylation of levodpa. Less levodpoa is thus available to cross BBB, to be conveed into dopamine in dopaminergic neurones in CNS Phenothiazines, butyrophenones, and metoclopramide reverse therapeutic effect by blocking DA receptors. The antidopaminergic domperidone blocks levodopa induced nausea and vomiting without abolishing its antiparkinsonian effect, because domperidone does not cross the blood brain barrier. Reserpine abolishes levodopa action by preventing entry of DA into synaptic vesicles. Nonselective MAO inhibitors: prevent degradation of peripherally synthesized DA and NA hypeensive crisis may occur. Atropine and other anticholinergic drugs have additive antiparkinsonion action, but retard its absorption more time is available for peripheral degradation Efficacy of levodopa may be reduced. Note : Pyridoxine is a component of vit B complex. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs decreases the effect of levodopa-
A. Carbidopa
B. MAO inhibitors
C. Vit. B complex
D. COMT
| Vit. B complex |
36f1ff34-aa98-4957-a5d0-bf285ddc86b9 | "A benign cystic teratoma is the most common neoplasm to undergo torsion, and it to the M/C benign tumor diagnosed during pregnancy." A benign cystic teratoma is synonymous to dermoid cyst. REF : gynecology book of shaw 17th | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | All India exam | Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy :
A. Serous cystadenoma
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Theca lutein cyst
| Dermoid cyst |
23bbeaa8-bf60-4ab5-a9cb-270f7941006e | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 9 o One N ADH produces 2.5 ATP and one FADH2 produces 1.5 ATP. Thus 3 NADH and 1 FADH2 will produce 9 ATP.o There is production of ATP at substrate level also. Thus total 10 ATP molecules are produced per cycle.Energetics of TCA cycles iKreb's cycle)o One turn of the TCA cycle, starting with acetyl CoA produces 10 ATPs. When the starting molecule is pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate yields 2[?]5 ATPs and therefore, 12[?]5 ATPs are produced when starting compound is pyruvate. Since, two molecules of pyruvate enter the TCA cycle when glucose is metabolized (glycolysis produces 2 molecules of pyruvate), the number of ATPs is doubled. Therefore, 25 ATP molecules, per glucose molecule, are produced when pyruvate enters the TCA cycle,o Note : Previously calculations were made assuming that NADH produces 3 ATPs and FADH generates 2 ATPs. This will amount a net generation of 30 ATP molecules in TCA per molecule glucose and total 38 molecules from starting. Recent experiments shoiv that these values are overestimates and NADH produces 2[?]5 ATPs and FADH produces T5 ATPs. Therefore, net generation during TCA is 25 ATPs and complete oxidation of glucose through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle yield a net 32 ATPs.o Energy yield (number of ATP generated) per moleeule of glucose wrhen it is completely oxidized through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle, under aerobic conditions, is as follows :- Method ofATP formationNo of ATPs gained perglucose (new calculation)No of ATPs As per old calculationPathwayStepEnzymeSource Glycolysis1 Hexokinase.Minus 1Minus 1Do3Pbosphofructoki nase-Minus 1Minus 1Do5Glyceraldehyde-3-p DHNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2 = 53x2=6Do61,3-BPG kinaseATPSubstrate level1x2= 21x2=2Do9Pyruvate kinaseATPSubstrate level1x2= 21x2=2Pyruvate to-PyruvateNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2= 53x2=6Acetyl CoA Dehydrogenase TCA cycle3Isocitrate DHNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2= 53x2=6Do4Alpha keto giutarate DHNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2= 53x2=6Do5Succinate thiokinaseGTPSubstrate level1x2= 21x2=2Do6Succictnate DHFADH2Respiratory chain1-5x2= 32x2=4Do8Malate DHNADHRespiratory chain2-5x2= 53 x 2= 6Net generation in glycolytic pathway 9 minus 2=710 minus 2=8Generation in pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction=5 =6Generation in citric acid cycle=20 =24Net generation of ATP from one glucose mole=32 =38 | Biochemistry | Kerbs Cycle | Per TCA with 3 NADH and 1 FADH2, generates how many ATP-
A. 6
B. 9
C. 12
D. 15
| 9 |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.