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Ans: b (Psoriasis) Ref: Pavithran's textbook of dermatology, p. 14,15Micro abscess of Munro is seen in psoriasis.PsoriasisType IType IIHeriditaryStrong HLA association (HLA CW6)Severe course and early onsetArthropathy more common.SporadicHLA unrelatedMild course and late onsetThe most important locus for psoriasis susceptibility is Psors 1 (psoriasis susceptibility locus on chromosome 6p 21.3.T cells(helper) are fundamental in activating the disease process. The trigger to their activation may be conventional antigens or bacterial superantigens.Histopathology of psoriasis# Parakeratosis# Micro munro abscess-collection of neutrophils in stratum comeum# Spongiform pustules of Kogoj-aggregates of neutrophil in stratum spinosum.# Acanthosis with regular elongation of rete ridges-camel foot appearance.# Edema of dermal papillae with dilated & tortuous capillaries.Treatment of choice for generalized pustular psoriasis & psoriatic erythroderma is-Acetretin
Skin
Papulosquamous Disorders
"Microabscess of munro" is seen in: A. Lichen planus B. Psoriasis C. Pityriasis rosea D. Tbberous sclerosis
Psoriasis
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There are four types of isolation precautions that can be implemented in health care settings. Any given patient might require more than one type of precaution. Standard precautions apply when interacting with any patient, regardless of the diagnosis. They include hand washing before and after contact with every patient and the use of gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection when contact with open sores, blood, or body secretions is anticipated. Contact precautions reduce the risk of spreading microorganisms that are transmitted by direct or indirect contact. They include private room placement of the patient and the use of gloves and gowns when in contact with the patient or the immediate environment. Contact precautions are indicated in patients colonized or infected with MRSA, vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE), and C difficile.Droplet precautions limit the transmission of infections that are carried in respiratory droplets (>5 mm in size) such as influenza and meningococcal meningitis. Droplet precautions include placing the patient in a private room and asking health care professionals to use surgical masks within 3 ft from the patient. Airborne precautions reduce the risk of airborne particulate (particles less than 5 mm in size) transmission of infectious agents such as tuberculosis. The patient is placed in a private negative-pressure room with high-efficiency masks, such as the N95 mask, worn by all health care professionals upon entering those rooms. The patient has health care-associated MRSA pneumonia and requires contact precautions.
Medicine
Infection
A 60-year-old nursing home resident presents with a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath and cough. The lung examination reveals right basilar crackles. The chest x-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation. Sputum culture grows methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) Select the most appropriate isolation precaution. A. Standard precautions B. Contact precautions C. Droplet precautions D. Airborne precautions
Contact precautions
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The tip of the tongue drains into the submental lymph nodes, whereas, the side of the tongue drains into the submandibular lymph nodes.
Surgery
Oral Cavity
A 63-year-old bartender presents at his physician's office complaining of a painful sore on his tongue. On examination, it is found that he has an ulcerated lesion on his tongue and a mass in the submandibular gland triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis? SELECT ONE. A. Lymphoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Metastatic skin cancer D. Benign mixed tumor
Squamous cell carcinoma
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Screening for diabetic retinopathy To prevent visual loss occurring from diabetic retinopathy a periodic follow-up is very impoant for a timely intervention. The recommendations for periodic fundus examination are as follows : First examination, 5 years after diagnosis of type 1 DM and at the time of diagnosis in type 2 DM. Every year, till there is no diabetic retinopathy or there is mild NPDR. Every 6 months, in moderate NPDR. Every 3 months, in severe NPDR Every 2 months, in PDR with no high-risk characteristics. Ref;A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no: 280
Ophthalmology
Vitreous and retina
Child with Type I Diabetes. What is the advised time for fundus examinations from the time of diagnosis? A. After 5 years B. After 2 years C. After 10 years D. At the time of diagnosis
After 5 years
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<P>Davidson&;s principles and practice of medicine 22nd edition. *biopsbiopsy unease test is cheap,quick ,specific(95%) and sensitivity (85%)</p>
Medicine
G.I.T
Most sensitive test for H pylori is- A. Fecal antigen test B. Biopsy urease test C. Serological test D. Urea breath test
Biopsy urease test
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Rt. Gastric aeryarises from common hepatic aery andRt. Gastroepiploic aeryarises fromgastroduodenal aerywhich is a branch of common hepatic aery. Therefore,ligation of common hepatic aerywill lead to impaired blood supply inRt. Gastric aeryandRt. Gastroepiploic aery. Left gastric aery arises from CT. Sho gastric aeries arise from splenic aery.
Anatomy
NEET Jan 2020
Ligation of the common hepatic aery will compromise blood flow in A. Right and Left gastric aery B. Right gastric and sho gastric aeries C. Right gastroepiploic and sho gastric aeries D. Right gastric and right gastroepiploic aery
Right gastric and right gastroepiploic aery
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(A) Blood culture # Typhoid investigation of choice code 'BASU'> 'B' i.e. Blood culture in the first week (Better is Bone Marrow culture)> 'A' i.e. Antibodies (Widal) in the second week> 'S' i.e. Stool culture in the third week> 'U' i.e. Urine culture in the 4th week> Widal test shows diagnostic titre for S. typhii usually after 7 to 10 days of the illness - 2nd week> Positivity with Widal test is maximum in third week.> Widal - The agglutinins tested by the Widal test appear by the end of the first week. The titre increases steadily till the third or the fourth week, after which it declines gradually.> Maximum titre is found in third week.> Blood culture- They are positive in approximately 90% of cases in the first week of fever, 75% of cases in the second week, 60% in the third week and 25% thereafter till the subsidence of pyrexia. Test of choice in first week.> Stool culture - Salmonellae are shed in the faeces throughout the course of the disease and even in convalescence, with varying frequency. So a positive fecal culture may occur in carriers as well as in patients. Thus the test is not very useful for a recent infection.> Urine culture - Salmonellae are shed in the urine irregularly and infrequently. Cultures are generally positive only in the second and third weeks and then only in about 25% of cases.
Microbiology
Misc.
Typhoid investigation of choice in 1st week A. Blood culture B. Widal test C. Stool culture D. Urine culture
Blood culture
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Stomach perforation is more common with H2SO4.
Forensic Medicine
null
Perforation of stomach is more common due to ingestion of - A. Nitric acid B. Sulphuric acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Carbolic acid
Sulphuric acid
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Pyrogens A pyrogen is a substance that induces fever. These can be either internal (endogenous) or external (exogenous) to the body. The bacterial substance lipopolysaccharide (LPS), present in the cell wall of some bacteria, is an example of an exogenous pyrogen. Endogenous Pyrogens IL 1 TNF PGs Depyrogenation may be achieved through filtration, distillation, chromatography, or inactivation.
Pathology
null
Which of the following inflammatory mediator doesn't cause fever: A. Nitric oxide B. Prostaglandin C. IL-1 D. TNF-alpha
Nitric oxide
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Brown's tumour: This is an expansile bone lesion, a collection of osteoclasts. It commonly affects the maxilla or mandible, though any bone may be affected. Commonly seen in Hyperpathyroidism Ref: Maheshwari 6e pg 313.
Orthopaedics
Tumors
Brown tumour is seen in A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hypothyroidism D. Hypehyroidism
Hyperparathyroidism
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PCR Real-time PCR Traditional PCR For accurate quantification of the amount of initial DNA in the reaction Detects the DNA by electrophoresis at the end-point of the reaction
Biochemistry
Techniques in molecular biology
The technique for accurate quantification of gene expression is A. Nohern blot B. PCR C. Real-Time Reverse Transcriptase PCR D. Reverse Transcriptase PCR
Real-Time Reverse Transcriptase PCR
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Sanger was the first to determine the sequence of a polypeptide. Mature insulin consists of the 21-residue A chain and the 30-residue B chain linked by disulfide bonds. Frederick Sanger reduced the disulfide bonds, separated the A and B chains, and cleaved each chain into smaller peptides using trypsin, chymotrypsin, and pepsin. Ref: Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 29
Biochemistry
null
Who was the first to determine the sequence of a polypeptide? A. Pehr Edman B. Frederick Sanger C. John Kendrew D. Oakley Fulthrop
Frederick Sanger
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Ans. is 'a' i.e. ApoptosisMechanism ofApoptosiso Apoptosis is induced by a cascade of molecular events that may be initiated in distinct ways but culminate in the activation of caspases.o Caspases are central to the pathogenesis of apoptosiso The process of apoptosis is divided into two phasesi) Initiation phase --> During this phase caspases become catalytically activeii) Execution phase --> During this phase caspases act to cause cell death.
Pathology
null
Cytosolic cytochrome C plays an impoant function in - A. Apoptosis B. Cell necrosis C. Electron transpo chain D. Cell division
Apoptosis
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Ans. C.4Trigeminal nerve has four nuclei - 3 sensory and 1 motor nucleus.The sensory nucleus is divided into three parts, from rostral to caudal (top to bottom):a. The mesencephalic nucleusb. The chief sensory nucleus (or "main sensory nucleus" or "principal nucleus")c. The spinal nucleus
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
Trigeminal nerve has how many nucleus? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
4
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Flexion, posterior subluxation & external rotation REF: Apley's 8th ed p. 42 Triple deformity of knee consists of flexion, posterior subluxation of tibia and external rotation of tibia Treatment: ATT, Ahrodesis Causes: TB, Rheumatoid ahritis
Surgery
null
The deformity of tibia in triple deformity of the knee is? A. Extension, Posterior subluxation & external rotation B. Flexion, posterior subluxation & external rotation C. Flexion, posterior subluxation & internal rotation D. Extension, Anterior subluxation & internal rotation
Flexion, posterior subluxation & external rotation
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In dates calcium present is 120mg,vitamin C is 3,carotene is 44mg per 100mg of datesREF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 581
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
Dates are rich source of - A. Calcium B. Iron C. Vit C D. Carotene
Calcium
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An embolus is a detached intravascular mass that has been carried by the blood to a site other than where it was formed. Emboli basically can be thrombotic or embolic, but most originate from thrombi. These thromboemboli, most of which originate in the deep veins of the lower extremities, may embolize to the lungs.
Pathology
null
What is the most common site of origin of thrombotic pulmonary emboli? A. Deep leg veins B. Lumen of left ventricle C. Lumen of right ventricle D. Mesenteric veins
Deep leg veins
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Amphotericin B Deoxycholate is the only FDA approved drug for mucormycosis.Ref: Harrison 18th/pg 1663
Pharmacology
Antibiotics
FDA approved antifungal treatment of mucormycosis? A. Liposomal Amphotericin B. Amphotericin B deoxycholate C. Amphotericin B taurocholate D. Voriconazole
Amphotericin B deoxycholate
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Ans. (b) B/L milky discharge with squeezing from multiple ductsRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition page 864* Bilateral milky discharge is from physiological lactation All other secretions may be pathological.
Surgery
Breast
Which of the following nipple discharge is most probably; physiological: A. B/L spontaneous discharge B. B/L milky discharge with squeezing from multiple ducts C. U/L bloody discharge D. U/L bloody discharge with squeezing from a single duct
B/L milky discharge with squeezing from multiple ducts
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Ans. is 'd' i.e., Arginine * Nitric oxide, also called endothelium-derived-relaxing factor (EDRF), is formed from amino acid arginine, by the action of the enzyme NO synthase, which is cytosolic.ArginineNO synthase-------Citrulline + NO
Physiology
General
NO is synthesized by - A. Uracil B. Aspartate C. Guanosine D. Arginine
Arginine
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Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder. However, it must be remembered that benzodiazepines can cause dependence. The other drugs which can be used include SSRIs buspirone and venlafaxine.
Psychiatry
Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders
Drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Alprazolam B. Buspirone C. Venlafaxine D. Beta - blockers
Alprazolam
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Arlts line is a linear scarring on the upper palpebral conjunctiva in patients of trachoma REF:Refer Khurana 6th edition page number 69
Ophthalmology
Conjunctiva
Arlts line is seen in A. Vernal keratoconjunctis B. Pterygium C. Ocular pemphigoid D. Trachoma
Trachoma
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Premature ejaculation * Squeeze technique (Seman's technique) is used for premature ejaculation. When the male partner experiences 'ejaculatory inevitability' the female partner 'squeezes' the penis on the coronal ridge thus delaying ejaculation.
Psychiatry
Sexual Disorders
Squeeze technique is used for? A. Retrograde ejaculation B. Premature ejaculation C. Erectile dysfunction D. UTI
Premature ejaculation
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Pulmonary edema is a serious complication of beta-adrenergic therapy (ritodrine) and MgSO4. This complication occurs in patients receiving oral or (more common) intravenous treatment. It occurs more frequently in patients who have excessive plasma volume expansion, such as those with twins or those who have received generous amounts of intravenous fluids and in patients with chorioamnionitis. Patient presents with respiratory distress, bilateral rales on auscultation of the lungs, pink frothy sputum, and typical X-ray picture. Patients receiving IV beta-adrenergic drugs should be monitored continuously with pulse oxymeter to anticipate the development of pulmonary edema.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
The drug that inhibits uterine contractility and cause pulmonary edema is: A. Ritodrine B. Nifedipine C. Indomethacin D. Atosiban
Ritodrine
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Ans. (b) OrthomyxovirusRef: Appendix-141 for viruses classification
Microbiology
Virology
Influenzae virus belongs to which family? A. Paramyxovirus B. Orthomyxovirus C. Bunyaviridae D. Togaviridae
Orthomyxovirus
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Toned milk is a blend of natural milk and made up milk. It contains 1 pa water, 1 pa natural milk and 1/8 th pa of skimmed milk powder. It has composition almost equivalent to cow milk. Ref: Park, 22nd edition pg: 584
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Composition of toned milk is approximately close to: A. Cow B. Buffalo C. Human D. Goat
Cow
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B cell Nearly 1 to 20% of people who receive a solid organ transplant develop a lymphoma. - Lymphomas have also been repoed (though less .frequently) after bone-marrow transplants .for other disorders. Why does it happen? - Post-transplant lymphomas are almost always related to infection by the Epstein Barr Virus (EBV). - Infection by the Epstein Barr Virus causes a transformation of B-cells which becomes cancerous. In normal individuals other cells of the immune system can tackle the EBV infection, but for organ transplants high doses of drugs that suppress the immune system must be administered. With nothing to control the infection, the chances of developing lymphomas increase. The two main factors that determine the chances of getting lymphoma are: How much immunosuppressive treatment is required - The more the immunosuppression, the more the chances of EBV infection. The status of EBV serology of the recipient of the transplant - If this individual has previously been infected by EBV the chances are that the body remembers the infection and the blood already has called antibodies that can identify and kill the virus. Clinical features Post-transplant lymphomas are usually different .from the usual Non-Hodgkin lymphomas. While most patients have involvement mainly of lymph nodes, other organs are very commonly affected as well. These include the brain, lungs and the intestines. The transplanted organ can also get involved. Treatment Whenever possible, immunosuppressive treatment has to be reduced or stopped. In those who have small and localized disease, surgery or radiation may be attempted. If not, the first line of treatment is usually Rituximab, a monoclonal antibody that specifically targets lymphoma cells. Only when this. fails is chemotherapy attempted. Chemotherapy is deferred until necessary as in paially immunosuppressed individuals, chemotherapy may fuher increase the risk of infections. In those who develop lymphomas after bone marrow transplants, donor leukocyte transfusions can be highly effective. Prognosis of Post transplant lymphomas In general, non-Hodgkin lymphomas occurring after organ transplants have a poorer outcome than other NHLs. Around 60-80% of the victims ultimately succumb to their lymphoma. Involvement of brain has poor prognosis
Surgery
null
Post transplant lymphoma is ? A. T cell B. B cell C. Null cell D. NK cell
B cell
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Ans. is 'd' i.e., Regular insulin o All preparations are administered by S.C. route except regular insulin which can be given
Pharmacology
null
The following insulin can be given intravenously? A. Protamine zinc insulin B. Ultra lente insulin C. Semi lente insulin D. Regular insulin
Regular insulin
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ATP formation in glycolysis: Reaction Catalyzed by Method of ATP Formation ATP per mol of Glucose Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase Respiratory chain oxidation of 2 NADH 5 Phosphoglycerate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Pyruvate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Total 9 Consumption of ATP for reactions of hexokinase and phosphofructokinase -2 Net 7 Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 18. Glycolysis & the Oxidation of Pyruvate. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e.
Biochemistry
null
What is the net ATP's formed in glycolysis? A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 15
7
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The mainstay of treatment for LUTS due to BPH is a1-adrenergic receptor blockers.a-adrenergic receptors are the most common adrenergic receptors in the bladder, and a1 is the most common subtype in the lower urinary system, prostate, and urethra. The action of a1 blockers is to relax the smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate and to reduce outflow resistance. (Prazosin)This class of drugs has become progressively more selective to the a1 subtypes, and many now target the a1asubtype receptor specifically. (Tamsulosin, Alfuzosin)The most common side effects of these drugs are dizziness related to ohostasis, retrograde ejaculation, and rhinitis.The second category of pharmacologic therapy is the 5a-reductase inhibitors that target the glandular component of the prostate. These drugs block the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in the prostate and subsequently reduce the prostate volume, thereby reducing outflow resistance. (Finasteride, Dutasteride)Sabiston 20e pg: 2108
Surgery
Urology
Tamsulosin belongs to A. 5a-reductase inhibitors B. a1a receptor blockers C. a1a receptor agonist D. 5a-transferase inhibitors
a1a receptor blockers
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Urea breath test is a test with high sensitivity and specificity for Helicobacter pylori. It is a non-invasive test used to diagnose and confirm elimination of H.pylori infection. Ref: Davidson's principles and practice of Medicine, 20th Edition, Chapter 22, Page 886; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 947; 16th Edition, Page 1755, 887
Medicine
null
A patient with H. Pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H.Pylori infection in this person is which of the following? A. Rapid urease test B. Urea breath test C. Endoscopy and biopsy D. Serum anti H.Pylori titre
Urea breath test
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Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pg no :514-515 Sabiston 20th edition pgno: 832
Anatomy
Endocrinology and breast
BRCA-1 postive women have ____% increased risk of breast carcinoma A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 60
60
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Ref: Katzung 14th ed. Monoamines like serotonin and nor-adrenaline are deficient in depressive patients, therefore reuptake inhibitors of these monoamines are used for treatment of depression.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
In depression , there is deficiency of: A. 5-HT B. Acetylcholine C. Dopamine D. GABA
5-HT
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The lower ribs flare out,the subcostal angle increases from 68deg to 103deg,the transverse diameter of the chest increases by 2 cm and the diaphragm rises by about 4 cm in pregnancy. Refer page no 80 of text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2 nd edition.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
The subcostal angle during pregnancy is: A. 85deg B. 95deg C. 105deg D. 75deg
105deg
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., GnRH [Ref: Shaw's Gynae 15th/ e p. 473) Both B and C are correct. However- Commonly used is B. Treatment of endometriosis Asymptomatic minimal cases:- Observe for 6-8 months & investigate infertility Symptomatic cases:- Drug treatment OCPs Mirena lUCD Progesterone Androgens GnRH analogues Aromatase inhibitors (eg:- letrozole) RU-486 Minimal invasive surgery (Laproscopy) Destruction by cautery, laser vaporization Excision of cyst Adhesiolysis Presacra! neurectomy LUNA (laproscopic uterosacral nerve ablation) C) Surgery (laprotomy) Incision of chocolate cyst & removal of lining Salpingo-oophorectomy Hysterectomy & unilateral or bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Excision of scar endometriosis
Unknown
null
Drug commonly used in t/t of endometriosis - A. LH B. GnRH analogues C. MPA D. FSH
GnRH analogues
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The transmembrane action potential of single cardiac muscle cells is characterized by, Rapid depolarization (phase 0) Initial rapid repolarization (phase 1) Plateau (phase 2) Slow repolarization process (phase 3) that allows return to the resting membrane potential (phase 4). The initial depolarization is due to Na+ influx through rapidly opening Na+ channels (the Na+ current, INa). The inactivation of Na+ channels contributes to the rapid repolarization phase. Ca2+ influx through more slowly opening Ca2+ channels (the Ca2+ current, ICa) produces the plateau phase, and repolarization is due to net K+ efflux through multiple types of K+ channels. Ref: (2012). Chapter 29. Origin of the Heabeat & the Electrical Activity of the Hea.In Barrett K.E., Boitano S, Barman S.M., Brooks H.L. (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
Physiology
null
The physiological change occurs in a cardiac muscle cell when there is plateau phase of action potential is: A. Influx of Na B. Influx of Ca2+ C. Influx of K+ D. Closure of voltage gated K channels
Influx of Ca2+
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Care of routine and emergency cases in surgery Care of routine and emergency cases in medicine 24-hour delivery services,including normal and assisted deliveries Essential and emergency obstetric care Full range of family planning services including laparoscopic services Safe aboion services Newborn care Routine and emergency care of sick children Other management including nasal packing,tracheostomy,foreign body removal (refer pgno:907 park 23 rd edition)
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health education & planning
Which of the following procedure is not done in CHC? A. Aboion B. Blood transfusion C. Caesaran section D. Urine microscopy and culture sensitivity
Urine microscopy and culture sensitivity
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Ans, is a, i.e. Gestation diabetesRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 647; Fernando Arias 3/e, p 46, 47; COGDT 10/e, p 107, Williams Obs. 23/e, p 299, 300Amniocentesis or chorionic villi sampling should be offered to the following class of patients:-Singleton pregnancy and maternal age 35 years or above.-Twin pregnancy at age over 31 years of pregnancy.-Previous chromosomally abnormal child.-Three or more spontaneous abortions.-Patient or husband with chromosome anomaly.-Family history of chromosome anomaly.-Possible female carrier of X-linked disease.-Metabolic disease risk (because of previous experience or family history).-NTD risk (because of previous experience or family history).-Positive second-trimester maternal serum screen or major fetal structural defect identified by USG.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis in Obstetrics
Which of the following is not an indication of amniocentesis for chromosomal anomaly detection? A. Gestation diabetes B. Previous Down's child C. Maternal age more than 35 D. Parents with chromosomal anomaly
Gestation diabetes
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Chancre, LGV, Donovanosis Indurated ulcer (firm induration). HSV Non-indurated ulcer. Chancroid → Can be both either Non-indurated or soft induration (but there is no firm induration, therefore usually considered as non-indurated).
Dental
null
Multiple painful ulcers over glans without in duration is suggestive of – A. LGV B. Granuloma inguinale C. Chancroid D. 2° syphilis
Chancroid
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The PA erect abdominal radiograph is often obtained in conjunction with the AP supine abdominal view in the acute abdominal series of radiographs. When used together it is a valuable projection in assessing air fluid levels, and free air in the abdominal cavity. Ref: Internet
Surgery
G.I.T
Which view is best for viewing hollow viscus perforation A. Erect B. Supine C. Right lateral D. Left lateral
Erect
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Answer is D (Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis): NCPF is suspected in a patient presenting with symptoms of poal hypeension with: YOUNG AGE Moderate/Large Splenomegaly NO FEATURES SUGGESTIVE OF LIVER CELL FAILURE -No Jaundice (uncommon) - No Ascitis (uncommon) - No Hepatomegaly (uncommon) - No Stigmata of liver cell failure (uncommon) Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis is a condition of liver characterized by widespread fibrosis of the 1 ver (mainly poal, subcapsular and rarely perisinusuoidal) causing wide variation in the normal architecture but there is no true cirrhosis. NCPF is the most impoant causes of intrahepatic non cirrhotic poal hypeension in India
Medicine
null
A child presents with massive hemetemesis and systemic hypotension. He has no fever or other significant history. Examination reveal massive splenomegaly but no hepatomegaly. Likely diagnosis is A. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Bleeding duodenal ulcer C. Oesophageal varices D. Non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis
Non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis
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Answer- B. Intralesional steroidIntralesional injection of steroid (Triamcinolone acetate) is now recommended as the first line of t/t for keloid.
Surgery
null
Initial treatment of keloid A. Topical steroid B. Intralesional steroid C. Excision D. Radiotherapy
Intralesional steroid
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Ans. A. Conn syndromea. In Conn syndrome there is profound hypokalemia that leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.b. Although excess of sodium is reabsorbed due to high amount aldosterone, but excess of water is lost. Hence edema feet is not a feature in Conn syndrome.
Medicine
Endocrinology
Edema feet is not a feature of: A. Conn syndrome B. Hypothyroid C. CHF D. Nephrotic syndrome
Conn syndrome
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Irregular central calcification is characteristic of hamartoma.
Radiology
null
Chest X-ray showing opacity in the lung with irregular calcification is suggestive of – A. Lung carcinoma B. Hamartoma C. Hydatid cyst D. Adenoma
Hamartoma
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Mitral regurgitation (MR) is the commonest manifestation of acute as well as previous rheumatic carditis. Reference: Essential Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; Page no: 438
Pediatrics
C.V.S
The commonest valvular manifestation of acute as well as previous rheumatic carditis is A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Aoic stenosis D. Aoic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
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The anterior pa of the floor of the temporal fossa is crossed by an H shaped suture where four bones,frontal,parietal,greater wing of sphenoid and temporal adjoin each other.This area is termed the pterion. REF.B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy VOL.3,Fouh edition
Anatomy
Head and neck
Thinnest pa of the skull A. Lambdoid suture B. Temporal pa of bone C. Pterion D. Occiput
Pterion
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Thiamine deficiency can cause high-output cardiac failure (wet beriberi) or neurologic symptoms (dry beriberi). In North America, thiamine deficiency occurs in alcoholics or those with chronic disease. In alcoholics, deficiency is secondary to low intake, impaired absorption and storage, and accelerated destruction. Genetic factors are important as clinical manifestations occur only in a small proportion of chronically malnourished individuals. Beriberi heart disease is characterized by peripheral vasodilatation, sodium and water retention, and high-output CHF.
Medicine
Endocrinology
A 43-year-old woman with chronic alcoholism presents with shortness of breath and edema. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse 110/min, JVP is 8 cm, the cardiac apex is displaced and enlarged, there are bilateral inspiratory crackles, and there is pedal edema.For the patient with vitamin deficiency or excess, select the most likely diagnosis A. niacin B. thiamine C. pyridoxine D. vitamin C
thiamine
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Endemic fluorosis interventions to prevent fluorosis a) Changing of water source o Running surface water contains lower quantities of fluoride than ground water. b) Chemical treatment Water can be chemically defluoridated in a water treatment plant. The National Environmental Engineering Research Institute, Nagpur has developed a technique for renewing fluoride by chemical treatment, k/a Nalgonda technique. It involves the addition of two chemical (viz lime and alum) in sequence followed by flocculation, sedimentation and f i Iteration. c) Other measures Fluoride toothpastes are not recommended for children in areas of endemic fluorosis. Fluoride supplements should not be prescribed for children who drink fluorinated water.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
`NALGONDA technique' is used in - A. Endemic-fluorosis B. Epidemic-dropsy C. Endemic-ascites D. Ncurolathyrisin
Endemic-fluorosis
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For glucose, the renal threshold is 180 mg/dl and Tm is 375 mg/min. In other words, glucose stas to appear in urine when blood level is more than 180 mg/dl, and all the glucose molecules above 375 mg are excreted in the urine. abnormal conditions, the renal threshold may be lowered so that even at lower blood levels, compounds are excreted in urine, e.g. renal glycosuria (glucose); and renal tubular acidosis (bicarbonate).Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 316
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
Renal threshold for glycosuria A. 100 mg/dl B. 180 mg/dl C. 300 mg/dl D. 350 mg/dl
180 mg/dl
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Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine can cause toxic retinopathy due to their binding of melanin in the retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE) as well as direct toxicity to retinal ganglion cells. Early findings include mottling of the RPE and blunted foveal reflex. As the retinopathy progresses, a bull's-eye maculopathy develops, as seen in this image. In addition to the bull's-eye maculopathy, patients can demonstrate paracentral scotomas on visual field testing and parafoveal outer retinal atrophy on OCT. Other causes of Bulls Eye Maculopathy- Cone dystrophy Cone rod dystrophy Inverse retinitis pigmentosa Stargardt's disease.
Ophthalmology
Diagnosis and Treatment of Retina
Bulls eye retinopathy is seen in toxicity of- A. Quinine B. Tobacco C. Ethanol D. Chloroquine
Chloroquine
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Persistent vomiting leads to loss of large amount of gastric fluid. Gastric fluid consists of large amount of HCL along with potassium Thus the metabolic abnormality associated with repeated vomiting is metabolic alkalosis in combination with hypochloretnia and hypokaletnia. In the early stages the kidneys are able to compensate by reabsorbing hydrogen and chloride ions in exchange for sodium potassium and bicarbonate, however as the body stores of sodium and especially potassium becomes depleted these ions are selectively retained while hydrogen is excreted in the urine, causing the paradoxical aciduria. The excretion of hydrogen in the urine aggravates the alkalotic stage.
Medicine
null
Persistant vomiting most likely causes -a) Hyperkalemiab) Acidic urine excretionc) Hypochloraemiad) Hyperventilation. A. a B. c C. bc D. ad
bc
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Simple Bone cyst is seen in metaphysis or in diaphysis and it can be least likely to be at an eccentric location. Aneurysmal bone cyst is the lesion most likely to occur in ecentric location. All other lesions might sta from centre but ultimately during presentation,they present as eccentric lesion.
Orthopaedics
Ohopedics Oncology
Which of the following lesion is least likely to be eccentric? A. GCT B. Simple bone cyst C. Osteochondroma D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Simple bone cyst
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Ref:Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no. 404 Incest is defined as natural sexual intercourse between two persons so closely related that they are forbidden by law to marry. Incest most frequently occurs between members of nuclear family, and the victim s are most often children.
Forensic Medicine
Sexual offences and infanticide
Intercourse in closely related individual in relation - A. Incest B. Adultery C. Bestiality D. Tribadism
Incest
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Fosfomycin and Ifosfamide are metabolized by glutathionation.
Pharmacology
null
Drug metabolized by Glutathionation is A. Benzodiazepines B. Dapsone C. Fosfomycin D. Nicotinic acid
Fosfomycin
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Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Inferior epigastric artery Contents of inguinal canalo Spermatic cord in male or round ligament of uterus in female.o Ilioinguinal nerve : It enters through the interval between external and internal oblique muscles,\o Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve is a constituent of spermatic cord.
Anatomy
Abdominal Wall
Which is not a content of inguinal canal - A. Spermatic cord B. Ilioinguinal nerve C. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve D. Inferior epigastric artery
Inferior epigastric artery
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Some impoant syndromes and their associations to be remembered Down's syndrome: Congenital cataract Rubella Syndrome : Congenital Cataract WAGR Syndrome: Aniridia Gillepsie syndrome: Aniridia FRASER Syndrome: Cryptophthalmos Marfan's syndrome: Subluxation of lens Patau Syndrome: PHPV
Ophthalmology
Investigation in ophthalmology and miscellaneous topics
Which of the following ophthalmological anomaly is seen in WAGR syndrome A. Lens coloboma B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Aniridia D. Trabeculodysgenesis
Aniridia
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Ans. B i.e. 50% X-linked dominant are transmitted by an affected heterozygous female to half her sons and half her daughters and by an affected male parent to all his daughters but none of his sons, if the female parent is unaffected.
Pathology
null
A female married to a normal male but her father had vitamin D resistant rickets. So what are the chances that her childrens will be colour blind: March 2013 A. 0% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
50%
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Thorcoabdominal nerves (T7 - T11) and Subcostal nerve ( T12) are the nerves of Rectus sheath. T6 is not the content of Rectus sheath
Anatomy
null
NOT a content of Rectus sheath among the following is A. Pyramidalis B. Superior epigastric artery C. T12 D. T6
T6
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(A) Enhancement of signal transmission# LONG-TERM POTENTIATION (LTP): a long-lasting strengthening of the response of a postsynaptic nerve cell to stimulation across the synapse that occurs with repeated stimulation and is thought to be related to learning and long-term memory.> Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a long-lasting enhancement in signal transmission between two neurons that results from stimulating them synchronously.> It is one of several phenomena underlying synaptic plasticity, the ability of chemical synapses to change their strength.> As memories are thought to be encoded by modification of synaptic strength, LTP is widely considered one of the major cellular mechanisms that underlies learning and memory> NMDA receptor-dependent LTP exhibits several properties, including input specificity, associativity, cooperativity, and persisience.
Physiology
Misc.
Long term potentiation means A. Enhancement of signal transmission B. Increased number of receptors C. Increased number of neurons D. Increased muscle tone
Enhancement of signal transmission
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ref, Robbins 8/e p96;9/ep24 The cell adhesion molecules are classified into four main families: Immunoglbulin family CAMs Cadherins Selectins
Anatomy
General anatomy
Cell matrix adhesion are mediated by A. Cadherins B. Integrins C. Selectins D. Calmodulin
Integrins
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In the question there is simple injury by a dangerous weapon, hence 324 IPC IPC Sections related to Hu etc:- 319. Definition of Hu (Any Bodily pain, Infirmity or Disease) 320. Definition of Grievous hu. 321 Defines Voluntarily causing hu 322 DefinesVoluntarily causing Grievous hu 323 Punishment for causing hu: Up to 01 year, fine up to 1000 Rs 324 Punishment for causing Hu by dangerous weapon: Up to 03 years, or fine 325 Punishment for causing Grievous hu: Up to 07 years, and also fine. 326 Punishment for Grievous hu by dangerous weapons: Imprisonment for life, or up to 10 yrs, and fine 326 A Causing grievous hu by throwing acid: Minimum ten years and maximum upto life 326 B Throwing or attempting to throw acid: Minimum 5 years and maximum upto 7 years) 330 Causing hu to exto confession, or to compel restoration of propey. 331 Causing grievous hu to exto confession, or to compel restoration of propey. 334 Punishment for Hu on provocation: Up to 01 month, or with fine up to 500 rupees, or both. 335 Punishment for Grievous hu on provocation: Up to 04 years or with fine up to 2000 rupees
Forensic Medicine
FMT Q Bank
Mr.X fired his gun at Mr.Y who moved and escaped with the bullet only grazing his arm. There was only a little bleeding and no other significant injury. Mr. X is liable for arrest under which section of IPC? A. 302 B. 304 C. 324 D. 326
324
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Fingerprints are the impressions of the patterns formed by the papillary or epidermal regions of the fingeips. The patterns are not inherited and paternity cannot be proved through fingerprint patterns The pattern is different even in identical twins.
Forensic Medicine
NEET 2019
Identical twins can be differentiated by:- A. Finger print B. DNA fingerprinting C. Blood grouping D. Age
Finger print
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Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1447 Reversed or paradoxical splitting refers to a pathologic delay in aoic valve closure, such as that which occurs in patients with left bundle branch block, right ventricular pac- ing, severe AS, HOCM, and acute myocardial ischemia. With reversed or paradoxical splitting, the individual components of S2 are audible at end expiration, and their interval narrows with inspiration, the oppo- site of what would be expected under normal physiologic conditions.
Anatomy
General anatomy
Paradoxical splitting of second hea sound Heard in A. RBBB B. ASD C. VSD D. LBBB
LBBB
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C i.e. C8Thumb corresponds to C6; middle & ring fingers to C7; and little finger to Cs dermatomesQ
Anatomy
null
Little finger of hand corresponds to which of the following dermatomes: A. C6 B. C7 C. C8 D. T1
C8
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Ans. is b i.e., Poliovirus Human diploid fibroblasts (HDF) cell line is used for cultivation of coxsackie A7, 9, 16; CMV; Echovinis; enteroviruses; HSV-1, 2; Poliovirus; parainfluenzavirus, rhinovirus and VZV.
Microbiology
null
Human fibroblast cell line is used for cultivation of ? A. Adenovirus B. Poliovirus C. HIV D. Measles
Poliovirus
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Ans. (b) Child born after father's deathRef: The Essentials ofFSM by K.S. Narayan Reddy 31st ed./369* Posthumous child: child born after father's death, the mother being conceived by the said father.* Suppositious child: Fictitious child claimed by a women as her own, a women may pretend pregnancy & deliver and later produce a living child as her own or substitute a living male child for a dead child or for a living female child born for her.* Spurious or phantom child (pseudocyesis): usually seen in women nearing menopause or younger women with an intense desire for children.
Forensic Medicine
Abortion and Delivery
A posthumous child is: A. Still born B. Child born after father s death C. Child born after mother s death D. Fictitious child claimed by a women as her own
Child born after father s death
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(B) Prematurity # Direct causes of death: About 80% of the perinatal deaths are related to perinatal hypoxia, low birth weight, infection & intracranial haemorrhage.> The undetermined group is reduced to 15%.> Thus autopsy study is essential in any perinatal; mortality study when the real causes of death can only be ascertained so that preventive measures can be taken to prevent its occurrence.> The WHO's definition "Deaths occurring during late pregnancy (at 22 completed weeks gestation and over), during childbirh and up to seven completed days of life" is not universally accepted. The perinatal mortality is the sum of the fetal mortality and the neonatal mortality.> Collectively, the two types of deaths are referred to as perinatal deaths. Maternal and prenatal foetal conditions leading to slow foetal growth, foetal malnutrition and immaturity are the major contributing factors.> Hypoxia, birth asphyxia and congenital anomalies are some of the major causes of perinatal deaths
Pediatrics
Miscellaneous
The Most common cause of perinatal mortality is A. Anoxia B. Prematurity C. Congenital anomalies D. Toxaemia
Prematurity
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HISTORY * Medunna ====IM injection of camphor to induce seizures * Ugo cerletti and lucio bini==== ECT in a catatonic patient INDICATIONS * DEPRESSION SUICIDAL IDEAS-------------- first choice * CATATONIC SCHIZOPHRENIA * SCHIZOPHRENIA * MANIA * ELECTRODE PLACEMENT * Most commonly used=== bi fronto temporal * More cognitive side effects==bi fronto temporal * Less cognitive side effect======bi frontal * SIDE EFFECTS * RETROGRADE AMNESIA * BODY ACHE * MEDICATIONS USED IN THE PROCEDURE * ANAESTHETIC======Thiopentone / ethosuximide * MUSCLE RELAXANT====Succynyl choline CURARE IN PSEUDOCHOLINEESTERASE DEFICIENCY * ANTICHOLINERGIC=====Atropine CONTRA INDICATIONS * NO ABSOLUTE Contra indication * RELATIVE -----------------Brain tumour / arrythmia Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psyhiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 1065
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
who introduced camhor for patients for production of seizures for management of mental illness A. adler B. medunna C. freud D. cerletti
medunna
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Diagnosis of atopic dermatitis is largely clinical and is facilitated by using major and minor criteria.
Dental
null
Atopic dermatitis is diagnosed by – A. Patch test B. Wood lamp C. Clinical examination D. IgE
Clinical examination
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Ans: b (cones) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 159A straight forward question! Cones play a very important role in colour vision and rods in night vision (dim light)Cones are the visual receptors which impart to the eye, the ability for colour visionThere are three types of cone pigments:- Cvanolabe- Ervthrolabe- ChlorolabeThe other visual receptor - rods is mainly for night vision. The pigment present in rods is rhodopsinDark adaptationIt is the adjustment of visual mechanism from bright light vision to dim light vision (i.e., switching from cone vision to rod vision)Visual areas in brain* Primary visual cortex area - 17* Visual association area-18,19 /* Frontal eye field area - 8Note: * Lateral geniculate body is concerned with vision* Medial geniculate body is concerned with hearingBRIDGEThe time required for Dark adaptation can be minimized by wearing red goggles while entering a cinema theatre.(Remember--L for light and M for music)* Rods are absent in the foveola (contains mainly cones).
Physiology
Nervous System
Colour vision is with the help of: A. Rods B. Cones C. Cortex D. Optic disc
Cones
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Ans is 'd' i.e., Betamethasone o Following are the drugs used in medical induction of labour:# Prostaglandins PGE2, PGE1# Oxytocin# Mifepristone
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Induction of Labour
Which of the following drugs is not used for induction of labour? A. PGE2 B. PGE1 C. Mifepristone D. Betamethasone
Betamethasone
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(A) Anti nuclear antibody # Antinuclear antibody (ANA) tests are positive in 5 to 10 percent of the general population, a rate that increases with age.> Thus, given a one in 20 frequency for ANAs and a one in 2,000 frequency for systemic lupus erythematosus, only one in 100 persons with a positive ANA test will have the disease.> Consequently, positive ANA test results must be interpreted with caution.> Given the high sensitivity of the currently used substrate for testing, a negative ANA test essentially rules out systemic lupus erythematosus.
Medicine
Miscellaneous
A 23 yr. old female came with arthritis, Malar rash, oral ulcers, serositis (pleuritis or pericarditis). The likely investigation to be positive is A. Anti nuclear antibody B. Anti collagen antibody C. Anti epithelial antibody D. Antigen antibody complexes
Anti nuclear antibody
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Ans. (b) EndocytosisEndocytosis is the process of taking contents inside the cell. It involves fusion of two cell membranesExocytosis is release of contents from inside of the cell to outside. It involves fusion of vesicles inside the cell to its cell membrane
Physiology
General
The process by which fusion of part of a cell membrane occurs is/are A. Cell division B. Endocytosis C. Exocytosis D. Virus replication
Endocytosis
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(B) 95.4% # In a NORMAL CURVE, the area between one standard deviation on either side of the mean will include 68%, the area between two standard deviations 95.4% and the area between three standard deviations will include 99.7% of the values in the distribution.> In a Normal curve: Area between one standard deviation on either side of the mean (x +- la) will include approximately 68 per cent of the values in the distribution Area between two standard deviations on either side of the mean (~x +- 2a) will cover most of the values, i.e., approximately 95 per cent of the values Area between (x +- 3a) will include 99.7 per cent of the values. These limits on either side of the mean are called 'confidence limits'.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Miscellaneous
In a standard deviation of 2, confidence limit is A. 68.30% B. 95.40% C. 99.70% D. 76.20%
95.40%
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Bruxism is grinding of teeth which occurs during stage 3 & 4 of NREM sleep.
Psychiatry
null
Bruxism is - A. Walking during sleep B. Nocturnal enuresis C. Grinding of teeth during sleep D. Sleep apnoea
Grinding of teeth during sleep
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Ans. c (Merkel discs). (Ref. Ganong Physiology 21st ed., 125)MECHANORECEPTORS# Four types of mechanoreceptors in glabrous skin are-two in the superficial layers (Meissner's corpuscles and Merkel discs) and two in the subcutaneous tissue (Ruffini endings and Pacinian corpuscles).Meissner's corpuscles# are rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors# respond to Low frequency vibrations, stroking and fluttering types of tactile stimuli.Merkel disc receptors# are slowly adapting receptors# respond to pressure and texture.Pacinian corpuscles# are rapidly adapting and# respond to high frequency vibrations.Ruffini endings# are slowly adapting receptors that respond to skin stretch.# These endings link subcutaneous tissue to skin folds overlying joints.The afferent fibres of these receptors are myelinated and include:# large (group A alpha),# medium (group Ab),# small (group Adelta) diameter fibres.# Smallest (group A gama)- Tactile sensitivity is greatest on the glabrous (hairless) skin of the hands, the soles of the feet, and the lips.
Physiology
Nervous System
Which of the following are the slowly adapting mechan- oreceptors present in the skin that are very sensitive to perpendicular indentation? A. Pacinian corpuscles B. Meissner's corpuscles C. Merkel discs D. Ruffini end organs
Merkel discs
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Ans. is b i.e. Choroids plexus cyst Abnormalities associated with Down's syndrome (as listed in Benacerraf and Callen). Brachycephaly (sho frontal lobe) Ventriculomegaly Flat facies, small earsdeg Increase nuchal fold thickness Absent nasal bone Cystic hygroma (more associated with trisomy 18) Sho humerus and femur Clinodactyly Hypoplasia of middle phalanx of 5th digitdeg Single transverse palmar crease Sandal foot--i.e. widened gap between 1st and 2nd toe. Congenital hea defects (CHD) : -- Atrioventricular canal defect (Most common hea defect in Down's syndrome)deg -- VSD -- ASD Esophageal atresia and duodenal atresiadeg Diaphragmatic herniadeg Renal pyelectasis (Mild renal pelvis dilation) Hyperechoic bowel Single umbilical aerydeg Widened iliac angle. As far as Choroid plexus cyst is Concerned : -Several investigators have suggested that choroids plexus cysts are also associated with an increased risk of trisomy 21. However, our group demonstrated that the frequency of choroids plexus cysts among fetuses. with trisomy 21 was the same as that among fetuses without trisomy 21, suggesting that the presence of choroid plexus cysts should not increase a patient's calculated risk of having a fetus with Down syndrome. This is in agreement with the work from Gupta and co-workers, who repoed a 1 in 880 risk of Down syndrome among fetuses with isolated choroid plexus cysts detected antenatally." "The presence of a cyst in the choroid plexus in an axial view through the upper poion of fetal head has been correlated with the increased risk of Trisomy 18." Choroid plexus cysts are found to be associated with trisomy 18 (occurring in nearly 30% of cases of trisomy 18). Choroid plexus cysts are also found in 0.7 to 3.6% of normal second trimester fetuses.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
Which of the following feature on second trimester ultrasound is not a marker of Down's A. Single umbilical aery B. Choroid plexus cyst C. Diaphragmatic hernia D. Duodenal atresia
Choroid plexus cyst
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Endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide is found in the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
Microbiology
null
Endotoxin consists of _____. A. Lipopolysaccharide B. M protein C. Hyaluronidase D. Lactic acid
Lipopolysaccharide
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Answer is D (Oesophageal varices) Oesophageal variceal bleeding secondary to poal hypeension .should always be the initial diagnosis in a young patient presenting with massive hematemesis and a moderate to large splenomegaly' Features in our of oesophageal varices: Most common presentation of oesophageal varices is G.I. bleed, which may be 'massive'. - Massive hematemesis in children is almost always due to variceal bleed - Shwaz - Gastrointestinal bleed in peptic ulcer disease usually occurs in persons who are > 60 years old i.e. (it ceainly is an uncommon presentation in a young boy) - Harrison - Erosive drug induced gastritis is usually superficial therefore hemodynamically significant 'massive' bleeding is rare Patients presents with moderate splenomegaly which is an impoant pointer towards presence of poal hypeension. - Absence of any significant history of altered liver function in the presence of poal hypeension could well be attributed to an extrahepatic causes of poal hypeension.
Medicine
null
A young boy, Rahul presents with massive hemetemesis. He had fever for 15 days few days back which was treated with few drugs. Clinical examination reveal moderate splenomegaly). No other history is positive) Probable diagnosis is: A. Drug induced gastritis B. Oesophageal tear C. Bleeding duodenal ulcer D. Oesophageal varices
Oesophageal varices
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Trauma. Ring/ pettal shaped marking on the lens. Ref: AK khurana 7th ed.
Ophthalmology
All India exam
Rosette cataract is seen due to: A. Trauma B. Copper foreign body C. Diabetes D. Hyperparathyroidism
Trauma
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Ans. B: AnteriorShoulder joint is the commonest joint in the body to dislocateAnterior shoulder dislocation is much more common than posterior dislocationShoulder dislocation:MC joint to dislocate in body: ShoulderMC type of shoulder dislocation: Subcoracoid/ inferiorRarest type of shoulder dislocation: PosteriorPosterior type of shoulder dislocation is associated with: Epileptic fitsBanka's lesion is related with avulsion of glenoidal labrumHill Sach's lesion is found on humeral headTest for dislocation of shoulder joint:- Duga's test,- Hamilton ruler test,- Callaways testKocher's manouevre is done to reduce a dislocated shoulder
Surgery
null
Most common type of shoulder dislocation is:March 2011 A. Posterior B. Anterior C. Inferior D. Superior
Anterior
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Hypopyon REF: Khurana 4th ed p. 156 Uveitis in bechet's disease Bilateral Recurrent iridocyclitis Hypopyon Viteritis Periphlebitis Retinitis
Ophthalmology
null
Bechet's disease is characterized by: A. Hypopyon B. Hyphema C. Subconjuctival hemmorrhage D. Scleritis
Hypopyon
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Bentall&;s Operation For aoic root aneurysm repair Reimplantation of coronary ostia into composite graft Bastio surgery For Left Ventricular hyperophy Ventriculectomy is done Ref: Bailey 27th edition Pgno: 936
Surgery
Cardio thoracic surgery
Bastio surgery for refractory LV hyperophy is: A. Patch repair B. MR repair C. Ventriculectomy D. Ventriculoplasty
Ventriculectomy
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d. BMI >95th percentile(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 307-315, Ghai 8/e p 528-529)Obesity in children is defined as BMI >95th percentile; Body mass index (BMI) is equal to weight/height2 (in kg/m2).
Pediatrics
Endocrinology
Obesity in a child of age 2 years is defined as: A. Weight for height more than double of expected B. Weight for age more than double of expected C. BMI >30 D. BMI >95th percentile
BMI >95th percentile
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Ans. (B) Ketamine(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p437; KDT 8th/e p411)Ketamine increases all pressures (blood pressure, intracranial tension, intraocular pressure) in the body. It is therefore intravenous anesthetic of choice for shock and should be avoided in hypertensive patients (increases blood pressure). Further it is contraindicated in glaucoma (increases IOP) and head injuries (increases ICT).
Pharmacology
Anaesthesia
A 32-year-old male is a known hypertensive and is being planned for cholecystectomy. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is contraindicated in this person? A. Propofol B. Ketamine C. Midazolam D. Etomidate
Ketamine
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pulmonary fibrosis Methysergide It is chemically related to ergot alkaloids and antagonizes the action of serotonin on smooth muscles including that of blood vessels, withot producing ergot like effects. It is a potent 5HT2A/2C antagonist. It has been used for migraine prophylaxis, carcinoid and postgastrectomy dumping syndrome. Prolonged use has caused abdominal, pulmonary and endocardial fibrosis, because of which it has gone into disrepute.
Pharmacology
null
Methysergide is banned as it causes ? A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Pleural effusion C. Syncope D. Myocarditis
Pulmonary fibrosis
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Ans. (d) Zenker's diverticulumRef: Sabiton 20th Edition, Page 1019* Dohlman Endoscopic stapling procedure is indicated for diverticulum >3cm size
Surgery
Oesophagus
Dohlman's procedure is used for: A. Rectal prolapse B. Esophageal achalasia C. Cancer oesophagus D. Zenker's diverticulum
Zenker's diverticulum
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Precocious pubey It is the appearance of appropriate secondary sexual charecters before the age of 8 years and occurance of menstruation before the age of 10 years The most common cause is constitutional(idiopathic -75% cases) due to premature activation of HPO Axis. SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOOGY,Pg no:56,15th edition
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Sexuality and intersexuality
A 9-year-old girl presents with menarche. History reveals thelarche at the age of 7 years and adrenarche at the age of 8 years- the M/C cause of this condition in girls is: A. Idiopathic B. Gonadal tumor C. Mc cure albright syndrome D. Hypothyroidism
Idiopathic
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Clindamycin: This potent lincosamide antibiotic is similar in mechanism of action (inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosome) and spectrum of activity to erythromycin with which it exhibits paial cross resistance. Modification of the ribosomal binding site by constitutive methylase enzyme confirs resistance to both. It inhibits most gram-positive cocci (including penicillinase producing Staph., but not MRSA), C. diphtheriae, Nocardia, Actinomyces, Toxoplasma, but the distinctive feature is its high activity against a variety of anaerobes, especially Bact. fragilis. Aerobic gram-negative bacilli, spirochetes, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Rickettsia are not affected. Side effects are rashes, uicaria, abdominal pain, but the major problem is diarrhoea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis due to Clostridium difficile superinfection which is potentially fatal. The drug should be promptly stopped and metronidazole (alternatively vancomycin) given to treat it. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:731
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
Drug-induced colitis is most frequently associated with A. Neomycin B. Vancomycin C. Clindamycin D. Chloramphenicol
Clindamycin
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Painful vesicles along the distribution of a dermatome suggest the diagnosis of Herpes zoster.
Dental
null
A 45 year old male has multiple grouped vesicular lesions present on the TN segment dermatome associated with pain. The most likely diagnosis is A. Herpes zoster B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Herpes simplex D. Scabies
Herpes zoster
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temperature for ear syringing - 370c because if you decrease or increase the temperature we can stimulate lateral semicircular canal in the middle ear and patient will have veigo and nystagmus (caloric stimulation )
ENT
FMGE 2018
Cold water is not used for ear cleaning because A. It will make the wax hard B. Damage to tympanic membrane C. Caloric stimulation caused by cold water D. It will cause infection
Caloric stimulation caused by cold water
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(Ref: KDT 6/e p582, 583) Substances improving the absorption of iron Substances improving the absorption of iron 1. Acid 1. Antacids 2. Reducing substances like ascorbic acid 2. Phosphates 3. Meat 3. Phytates 4. Tetracyclines 5. Food in the stomach
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
A patient Secta is diagnosed to be having iron deficiency anemia. The agent that can be used to improve the absorption of iron is: A. Antacids B. Tetracyclines C. Phosphates D. Ascorbic acid
Ascorbic acid
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In a sense, cervical carcinoma can be considered a "sexually transmitted disease," since human papilloma virus (typically strains HPV-16 or HPV- 18) is transmitted venereally. In our culture, HPV-related dysplasia of the cervix is common, even in the 18-28 year old group, and carcinomas of the cervix (more rare now than in the past due to screening and aggressive therapy of dysplasia) can occur in the 35-45 age group. The other cancers listed typically occur in older age groups and are not as clearly related to venereal agents. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 30. Cervical Cancer. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e.
Microbiology
null
A 38 year old woman with a history of multiple sexual paners is most at risk for which of the following? A. Bladder carcinoma B. Cervical carcinoma C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Ovarian carcinoma
Cervical carcinoma
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Wbc casts are seen in- Interstitial nephritis Acute pyelonephritis Allograft rejection Malignant infiltration of the kidney. Rbc casts - GN vasculitis Malignant hypeension Thrombotic microangiopathy Granular casts- ATN GN vasculitis Tubulointerstitial nephritis. Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no. 2106
Medicine
Kidney
A boy is suffering from acute pyelonephritis. Most specific urinary finding will be - A. W.B.C. casts B. Leucocyte esterase test C. Nitrite test D. Bacteria in gram stain
W.B.C. casts
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vitamin B o Deficiency of Vitamin B12 may occur in exclusive breastfed infants of mother who is on strict vegetarian diet. Remember following impoant facts ? o Milks from the mother whose diet is sufficient and properly balanced will supply all the necessary nutrients except fluoride and Vitamin D. o The iron content of human milk is low, but most normal term infants have sufficient iron stores for the first 4-6 months. Human milk iron is well absorbed. Nonetheless, by 6 months the breast-fed infant's diet should be supplemented with iron foified complementary foods. o The Vitamin K content of human milk is low and may cause hemorrhagic disease of newborn.
Pediatrics
null
What is deficient in exclusively breast fed baby ? A. Vitamin B B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin C D. Proteins
Vitamin B
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Stages of sleep and rhythm -        Beta rhythm- Alert, awake, maximum concentration. -        Alpha rhythm- Eyes closed, mind wandering, less attentiveness -        Theta rhythm- Stage 1 NREM -        Sleep spindles, K complex- Stage 2 NREM -        Delta rhythm- Deep sleep (Stage 3 & 4 NREM)   -        Beta Rhythm and occasional reappearance of alpha rhythm- REM
Physiology
null
EEG rhythm recorded from the surface of the scalp during REM sleepa) Alphab) Betac) Deltad) Theta A. ab B. a C. ad D. bc
ab
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Strength of association is given by Odds ratio or Cross product ratio in a Case control study. Odds ratio = ad/bc OR > 1 - Positive association, OR=1 - No association, OR < 1 - Inverse/ negative association. Chi-square test or t-test can only tell whether an association is statistically significant based on p-value, but doesn't give the magnitude of strength of association.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Case Control Study, Combined Designs
Strength of association is given by A. p-value B. Coefficient of regression C. Alpha value D. Odds ratio
Odds ratio
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After a person is infected with HBV, the first virologic marker detectable in serum within 1-12 weeks, usually between 8-12 weeks, is HBsAg. Circulating HBsAg precedes elevations of serum aminotransferase activity and clinical symptoms by 2-6 weeks and remains detectable during the entire icteric or symptomatic phase of acute hepatitis B and beyond. In typical cases, HBsAg becomes undetectable 1-2 months after the onset of jaundice and rarely persists beyond 6 months. After HBsAg disappears, antibody to HBsAg (anti-HBs) becomes detectable in serum and remains detectable indefinitely thereafter. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 2540)
Medicine
Infection
Early diagnosis of acute hepatitis-B infection is made by- A. Presence of HbeAg in serum B. Presence of IgM anti-Hbc in serum C. Presence HbsAg in serum D. Presence of IgG anti-HBc in serum
Presence HbsAg in serum
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Hara- kiri(seppuku) means cutting the belly. This is a ritual suicide formerly practiced in Japan and nearby counties by samurais(warrior class) when disgraced. Stabbing is done as a ceremony. In this type of suicide, in front of an audience, the person stabs himself on the abdomen and produces a large wound to make the intestines come out. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY DR PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 132
Forensic Medicine
Special topics
Hara-kiri is death by A. Stab in the neck B. Stab in the thorax C. Stab in the abdomen D. Stab in wrist
Stab in the abdomen
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Kala-azar by Sandfly Trypanosomiasis African - Tsetse fly American (Chagas) - Triatomine bug Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 836
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
Which of the following disease is transmitted by phlebotomus argentipes - A. Epidemic typhus B. Kala-azar C. Relapsing fever D. Trench fever
Kala-azar