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5056225e-43a8-4651-91df-a8da4ad13754 | Ans. C. Selenium* Selenium is a constituent of glutathione peroxidase, an antioxidant in red blood cells and other tissues.* Glutathione peroxidase scavenges free Hydro peroxidases generated during fatty acid oxidation, thus protecting the cell from damage due to free radical formation.* Severe deficiency is the major cause of Keshan disease, which presents as cardiomyopathy in young children. Skeletal myopathies have also been reported.* Mild deficiency is associated with macrocytosis and loss of hair pigment. | Pediatrics | Nutrition | Keshan disease is caused by deficiency of:
A. Thiamine
B. Zinc
C. Selenium
D. Proteins
| Selenium |
86bb3906-0d25-43c3-97bb-368e87d5b0fd | The axons of postganglionic neurons are mostly unmyelinated C fibres and terminate on visceral effectors. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:263. | Physiology | Nervous system | Postganglionic sympathetic fibres are
A. A alpha
B. C
C. B fibres
D. A gamma
| C |
ec3e701f-4786-469f-a5ad-8c8d0fb3435a | Lepirudinis a recombinant preparation of hirudin which acts by inhibiting thrombin directly. It is the recommended drug for treatment of heparin induced thrombocytopenia. Ref: Goodman And Gillman's Manual of Pharmacology, 2007, Page 955; Clinical Hematology & Oncology By Bruce Furie, 2003, Page 488. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of Heparin Induced thrombocytopenia?
A. Abciximab
B. Lepirudin
C. Warfarin
D. Alteplase
| Lepirudin |
43de31b2-c7f3-480f-a6de-3a6d64d76d6e | (Losartan) (453-54-KDT) (469-70-BB) (488-KDT6th)I. ACE-Inhibitors - Captropril, Enalapril, Lisinopril, benazepril, ramipril, perindopril (Available in India)* Quinapril, cilazapril, Zolfenopril, fosinopril (Marketed in other countries)II. Angiotensin Antagonists* Losartan, Candesartan and Irbesartan (Available in India)* Valsartan, telmisartan and eprosartan (Marketed elsewhere) | Pharmacology | C.V.S | Angiotensin II receptor antagonist is
A. Perindopril
B. Enalapril
C. Benazepril
D. Losartan
| Losartan |
8ae919dd-e996-4d5e-a221-e70c6f65631e | Exon (coding protein) : Sequence of a gene that is represented as m-RNA.
Enhancer: Are special cis-acting DNA sequences that increase the rate of initiation of transcription of eukaryotic genes by RNA polymerase II.
Leader sequence: Sequence at the 5' end of a mRNA that is not translated into protein.
Non-coding RNA (nc RNA): Functional RNA that is not translated into a protein. Non-coding RNAs include tRNA, rRNA, Sno RNA, mi-RNA, si-RNA, pi-RNA and long nc RNA like Xist & HOT AIR. | Biochemistry | null | Part of eukaryotic DNA contributing to polypetide synthesisa) Exonb) Enhancerc) Leader sequenced) tRNAe) ncRNA
A. ac
B. a
C. ad
D. ab
| ab |
d8a1a0e1-9add-40e3-9aae-2b9f63ee4463 | Injury to MMA or MMV - Epidural.
Rupture of berry aneurysm - SAH. | Radiology | null | Most common cause for subdural hematoma
A. Injury to middle meningeal artery
B. Injury to middle meningeal vein
C. Tearing of cortical bridging veins
D. Rupture of berry aneurysm
| Tearing of cortical bridging veins |
69463eaa-d7e4-4c8f-9777-3c877bbaf78d | Prevalence = Incidence * Duration of illnessIf incidence is high and prevalence is low compared to the incidence, it means the duration of illness is low.Duration can be low if the disease is fatal or disease is easily curable.Park 23e pg: 62 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies
A. Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable
B. Disease is non-fatal
C. Calculation of prevalence & incidence is wrong
D. Nothing can be said, as they are independent
| Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable |
f0f27f10-d0b0-486e-b7b6-1a7cd8f735e3 | First constriction, at the pharyngo-esophageal junction, 9 cm (6 inches) from the incisor teeth. Second constriction, where it's crossed by the arch of aoa, 22.5 cm (9 inches) from the incisor teeth. Third constriction, where it's crossed by the left principal bronchus, 27.5 cm (11 inches) from the incisor teeth. Fouh constriction, where it pierces the diaphragm, 40 cm (15 inches) from the incisor teeth. Ref - sciencedirect.com | Anatomy | Head and neck | The distance of aoic constriction of the oesophagus from the upper incisor teeth
A. 15 cm
B. 22.5 cm
C. 27.5 cm
D. 40 cm
| 22.5 cm |
73ed9276-6d31-4219-bf38-33742d49fc3a | ANSWER: (C) Nutritional RicketsREF: Nelson 17th edition page 2342 Table 691-2Table 691-2 Clinical variants of Rickets and Related ConditionsTypeSerum calcium LevelSerumPhosphorusLevelAlkaline Phosphatase ActivityUrine Concentration of Amino AcidsGeneticsI. Calcium deficiency with secondary hyperparathyroidism (deficiency of vitamin D; low 25(OH) D and no stimulation of higher 1,25 (OH)2 D values)1. Lack of vitamin D a. Lack of exposure to sunlighN orLLE E b. Dietary deficiency of vitamin in DN orLLEE c. CongentialN or LLEE 2. Malabsorption of Vitamin DN or LLEE 3. Hepatic diseaseNorLLEE 4. Anticonvulsive drugsN or LLEE 5. Renal osteodystrophyN or LEEV 6. Vitamin D-dependent type ILN or LE EARII. Primary phosphate deficiency (no secondary hyperparathyroidism)1. Genetic primary hypophosphatemiaNLENXD2. Fanconi syndrome a. CystinosisNLEEARb. TyrosinosisNLEEARc. Lowe syndromeNLEEXRd. AcquiredNLEE 3. Renal tubular acidosis, type II proximalNLEN 4. Oneogenic hypophosphatemiaNLEN 5. Phosphate deficiency or malabsorption a. Parenteral hyperalimentationNLEN b. Low phosphate intakeNLEN III. End-organ resistance to 1.25(OH)2 D31. Vitamin D-dependent type II (Several variants)LL or NEEARIV. Related conditions resembling rickets1. HypophosphatasisNNLPhosphoet- hanolamine AR elevated 2. Metaphyseal dysostosis a. Jansen typeENENADb. Schmid typeNNNNADN = normal; L = low; E = elevated; V = variable; X = X-linked; A = Autosomal; D = dominant; R = recessive; Yes = Y.Rickets may be classified as calcium-deficient or phosphate-deficient rickets. The two types of rickets are distinguishable by their clinical manifestations (Table 691-2)In this case Serum Ca levels are low; Phosphate levels are low, while ALP levels are high. | Pediatrics | Vitamin D | In an 8 yr old girl with symptoms of rickets, lab investigations show Serum Calcium 7.2 mg/dl, Serum Phosphates 2.3 mg/dl Alkaline Phosphatase 2420 IU/L. The most probable diagnosis is?
A. Vitamin D dependant type II
B. Hypophosphatemic Rickets
C. Nutritional Rickets
D. Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
| Nutritional Rickets |
18dd1d2a-bf2a-4285-82bf-629ccb82dcb2 | Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPSs) are characterized by defective degradation and excessive storage of mucopolysaccharides in various tissues. Hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal deformities, lesions of hea valves, subendothelial aerial deposits, paicularly in the coronary aeries, and lesions in the brain, are features that are seen in all of the MPSs. Of the seven recognized variants, only two well-characterized syndromes are discussed briefly here. MPS type I, also known as Hurler syndrome, is caused by a deficiency of a-L-iduronidase. Accumulation of dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate is seen in cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system, in fibroblasts, and within endothelium and smooth muscle cells of the vascular wall. The affected cells are swollen and have clear cytoplasm, resulting from the accumulation of material positive for periodic acid-Schiff staining within engorged, vacuolated lysosomes. Lysosomal inclusions also are found in neurons, accounting for the mental retardation. MPS type II or Hunter syndrome differs from Hurler syndrome in its mode of inheritance (X-linked), the absence of corneal clouding, and often its milder clinical course. Despite the difference in enzyme deficiency, an accumulation of identical substrates occurs because breakdown of heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate requires both a-L-iduronidase and the sulfatase; if either one is missing, fuher degradation is blocked. Diagnosis is made by measuring the level of enzyme in leukocytes. Ref: ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY 10th Ed. pg no: 260 | Pathology | Nervous system | Reilly bodies are seen in?
A. Gangliosidosis
B. Bechet's disease
C. Gaucher's disease
D. Hurler disease
| Hurler disease |
942f83f8-a546-4fe2-9853-930b73b515b1 | Cerebral blood flow at rest is about 750 mL/min and remains unchanged during any grade of muscular exercise. During exercise, coronary blood flow is increased by four to five times with 100% O2 utilization. Renal blood flow is also decreased by 50-80% in severe exercise. During strenuous exercise muscle blood flow can increase up to 20 times, i.e. about 50-80 mL/ 100 g/min muscle tissue. | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | A 47-year-old man with type II diabetes repos for his 6-month checkup. His doctor prescribes a daily 30-minute routine of walking at a brisk pace. During aerobic exercise, blood flow remains relatively constant to which of the following organs?
A. Brain
B. Hea
C. Kidneys
D. Skeletal muscle
| Brain |
56204bd2-d55e-453a-99b3-b395c09c4bec | Fatty acids must first be converted to an active intermediate before they can be catabolized. This is the only step in the complete degradation of a fatty acid that requires energy from ATP. In the presence of ATP and coenzyme A, the enzyme acyl-CoA synthetase (thiokinase) catalyzes the conversion of a fatty acid (or FFA) to an “active fatty acid” or acyl-CoA, using one high-energy phosphate and forming AMP and PPi . The PPi is hydrolyzed by inorganic pyrophosphatase with the loss of a further high-energy phosphate, ensuring that the overall reaction goes to completion. Acyl-CoA synthetases are found in the endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisomes, and inside and on the outer membrane of mitochondria.
HARPERS ILLUSTRATED BIOCHEMISTRY30th ed page no. 224 | Biochemistry | null | The conversion of a fatty acid to an active fatty acid is catalysed by which of the following enzymes?
A. Acyl-CoA synthetase
B. Enoyl CoA hydratase
C. Thiolase
D. Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
| Acyl-CoA synthetase |
8d70e5d6-db12-4842-8dcb-c329178f12ab | The medulla oblongata, commonly called the medulla, is located at the level of the foramen magnum. It serves as the major autonomic reflex center that relays visceral motor control to the hea, blood vessels, respiratory system, and gastrointestinal tract. It possesses the nuclei for the glossopharyngeal, vagal, accessory, and hypoglossal nerves (CNN IX, X, XI, and XII, respectively). Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 16. Brain. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy. | Anatomy | null | In which of the following structure of central nervous system the major autonomic reflex centers are found?
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Hypothalamus
D. Thalamus
| Medulla oblongata |
b3b355bc-80ba-4a7b-b496-f14394483069 | Causes of acquired cerebral palsy may include1,2: Brain damage in the first few months or years of life. Infections, such asmeningitis or encephalitis. Problems with blood flow to the brain due to stroke, blood clotting problems, abnormal blood vessels, a hea defect that was present at bih, orsickle cell disease. A cerebral infarction is an area of necrotic tissue in the brain resulting from a blockage or narrowing in the aeries supplying blood and oxygen to the brain Refer robbins 1258 and 1263 | Pathology | Nervous system | Similar features between cerebral abscess and cerebral infarct -
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Heal by collagen formation
D. lways develop from emboli from other site
| Liquefactive necrosis |
3ed16a66-e7cd-48ff-adfe-4ae45795da31 | Ans. A: Radioiodine Follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC) is a well-differentiated tumor. In fact, FTC resembles the normal microscopic pattern of the thyroid. FTC originates in follicular cells and is the second most common cancer of the thyroid, after papillary carcinoma. Follicular and papillary thyroid cancers are considered to be differentiated thyroid cancers; together they make up 95% of thyroid cancer cases. Papillary/follicular carcinoma must be considered a variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma (mixed form), and Huhle cell carcinoma should be considered a variant of FTC. Despite its well-differentiated characteristics, follicular carcinoma may be ovely or minimally invasive. In fact, FTC tumors may spread easily to other organs. The prognosis is better for younger patients than for patients who are older than 45 years. Patients with FTC are more likely to develop lung and bone metastases than are patients with papillary thyroid cancer. The bone metastases in FTC are osteolytic. Older patients have an increased risk of developing bone and lung metastases. The initial treatment for cancer of the thyroid is surgical. The exact nature of the surgical procedure to be performed depends for the most pa on the extent of the local disease. A total thyroidectomy is performed if the primary tumor is larger than 1 cm in diameter or if there is extrathyroidal involvement or distant metastases. Clinically evident lymphadenopathy should be removed with a neck dissection. If the primary tumor is less than 1 cm in diameter, a unilateral lobectomy might be considered. About 4-6 weeks after surgical thyroid removal, patients must have radioiodine to detect and destroy any metastasis and any residual tissue in the thyroid. | Surgery | null | Metastasis from follicular carcinoma should be treated by: September 2007
A. Radioiodine
B. Surgery
C. Thyroxine
D. Observation
| Radioiodine |
28e30827-5825-4c53-adf8-cb62076d785a | This child has →
i) Rash
ii) Arthritis (swelling of knee joint)
iii) Haematuria
All these suggest the diagnosis of Henoch Schonlein purpura
HSP is characterized by deposition of IgA in the mesangium. | Pediatrics | null | A 8-year-old male had non-blanching rashes over the shin and swelling of the knee joint with haematuria +++ and protein +. Microscopic analysis of his renal biopsy specimen is most likely to show –
A. Tubular necrosis
B. Visceral podocyte fusion
C. Mesangial deposits of IgA
D. Basement membrane thickening
| Mesangial deposits of IgA |
aed260f5-2970-43da-b669-5ce8704dc8b0 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Folic acid Assessment of folate deficiencyo Following tests are used for assessment of folate deficiency.Blood levelNormal level in scrum is about 2-20 nanogram/mJ and about 200 micorgram.'ml of packed cells.Histidine load test or FIGLU excretion test :- Histidine is normally metabolized to formimino glutamic acid (FIGLU) from wrhich formimino group is removed by THF. Therefore in folate deficiency, FIGLU excretion is increased in urine.AICAR excretion In purine nucleotide synthesis the 2nd last step is the addition of C2 with the help of N10-formyl THF. This step is blocked in folate deficiency and the precursor, i.e., amino imidazole carboxamide ribosyl-5-phosphate (AICAR) accumulates and is excreted in urine.Peripheral blood picture Macrocytosis, tear drop cells, hvpersegmented neutrophils, anisopoikilocvtosis. | Biochemistry | Vitamins | FIGLU excretion test is used for assessment of deficiency of -
A. VitaminBn
B. Niacin
C. Folic acid
D. Pyridoxin
| Folic acid |
9b83a48a-0cbd-4711-9d55-9d89222f3365 | Ans. b. Uric acid The underlying basis of gouty ahritis is increased serum uric acid level. Most common joint involved in gout: Meta-Tarso-Phalangeal jointsQ Precipitation of monosodium urate crystalsdeg into the joints is the underlying basis for these urate crystals is increased total body urate levels | Medicine | null | 100. A Patient presents with pain in Meta-Tarso-Phalangeal joints and is a known case of chronic renal failure. This is due to accumulation of:
A. Rh factor
B. Uric acid
C. Serum urea
D. HLA B27 typing
| Uric acid |
f2e24e1b-c934-4c9a-ba71-47cd774d66dc | Normal" Output: 1400-2300 mL/d Urine: 800-1500 mL Stool: 200 mL-250mL Insensible loss: 600-900 mL (lungs and skin). (With fever, each degree above 98.6degF adds 2.5 mL/kg/d to insensible losses; insensible losses are decreased if a patient is undergoing mechanical ventilation; free water gain can occur from humidified ventilation.)Ref: <a href=" | Physiology | G.I.T | Amount of water lost in stools
A. 50ml
B. 200ml
C. 300ml
D. 350ml
| 200ml |
c63500d4-e2c9-40ad-9b5b-32abaf4e0018 | Ans. A. Octreotide.The medical management of acute variceal hemorrhage includes the use of vasoconstricting agents, usually somatostatin or Octreotide. Vasopressin was used in the past but is no longer commonly used. Balloon tamponade (Sengstaken- Blakemore tube or Minnesota tube) can be used in patients who cannot get endoscopic therapy immediately or who need stabilization prior to endoscopic therapy. Control of bleeding can be achieved in the vast majority of cases; however, bleeding recurs in the majority of patients if definitive endoscopic therapy has not been instituted. Octreotide, a direct splanchnic vasoconstrictor, is given at dosages of 50-100mg/h by continuous infusion. | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Which of the following is used for acute variceal bleeding?
A. Octreotide
B. Oxytocin
C. Somatotropin
D. Dexamethasone
| Octreotide |
923bfd4a-615d-42db-8ce0-a68ec7dfacd3 | Pneumococcus is the only bacteria causing acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis. | Ophthalmology | null | Bacteria causing acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus hemolyticus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Pseudomonas
| Pneumococcus |
b3e5d16e-6ac4-450c-9729-b7d1b6af526e | Cruising is attained by 10-11 months "Cruising" is an action in which a child pulls to the standing position and then scuffles around holding onto a piece of furniture. Ref: Ghai Essentials Pediatrics 9th edition Pgno: 43 | Pediatrics | Growth and development | "Cruising" is a developmental milestone attained at the age of:
A. 8 months
B. 10 months
C. 13 months
D. 15 months
| 10 months |
2fde25f4-6b21-488b-a86f-66b243d37b43 | On this, there is controversy in different books :-
According to Goodman & Gilman, Pancuronium is the longest acting.
According to Lee Pipecuronium is the longest acting.
Some books have given Doxacurium as longest acting (KDT, Ajay Yadav)
You are lucky as you have got only one amongst these three. For this question doxacurium is the answer for sure. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action –
A. Atracurium
B. Vecuronium
C. Rocuronium
D. Doxacurium
| Doxacurium |
faf81b4a-82cc-4265-97b9-7e7b0bf95de0 | Breast feeding is not contraindicated if the mother has hepatitis B infection. Infants routinely receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin and hepatitis B vaccine if mother is HBsAg positive. No delay in initiation of breastfeeding is required. Contraindications of Breastfeeding: Donot Breastfeed Infant factors Classic galactosemia maternal factors Human T-cell lymphocyte virus (HTLV) infection Ebola virus infection PCP/Cocaine abuse Donot breastfeed (Temporarily) Donot give expressed breastmilk (Temporarily) Maternal factors: Brucellosis Undergoing Diagnostic imaging with radiopharmaceuticals Active herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection with lesions on the breasts Donot Breastfeed (Temporarily) Can give expressed breastmilk Maternal factors Untreated, active tuberculosis active varicella infection Alcohol consumption and smoking are not contraindications of breastfeeding. However, smoking and alcohol consumption should be discouraged Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 322 | Pediatrics | Nutrition | Breast feeding is not contraindicated if:
A. Mother has active infection of herpes on breast
B. Mother has hepatitis B infection
C. Mother has tuberculosis
D. Mother is on Chemoprophylaxis for leukemia
| Mother has hepatitis B infection |
9558b7c0-021a-4d5e-915c-1947f93eb69d | Ans. B Calcific tendinitisCalcific density is seen adjacent to the greater tuberosity of humerus - mostly this is within the supraspinatus tendon and seen in chronic calcific tendinitis. | Radiology | Miscellaneous | In the absence of any clear history of trauma, this radiograph done in a patient of shoulder pain most likely suggests:
A. Shoulder dislocation
B. Calcific tendinitis
C. Acromioclavicular dislocation
D. Hill Sachs lesion
| Calcific tendinitis |
4412465a-c74b-4d9c-bc6c-e43bcdae6e5d | Most common causative organism for bacterial meningitis beyond 3 years of age is - Pneumococcus | Pediatrics | Impoant Bacterial Diseases in Children | Most common causative organism for bacterial meningitis beyond 3 years of age is -
A. Pneumococcus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Meningococcus
D. H. influenzae Type b
| Pneumococcus |
299849b7-e793-4ae2-b9c9-ae6c20240177 | Rhinoscleroma
The causative organism is Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis Frisch bacillus, which can be cultured from the biopsy material.
The disease is endemic in several parts of the world.
In India, it is seen more open in northern than in the southern parts.
Biopsy shows infiltration of submucosa with plasma cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils, Mikulicz cells & Russell bodies.
There two are diagnostic features of the disease.
The disease starts in the nose & extends to nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, trachea & bronchi.
Mode of infection is unknown.
Both sexes of any age may be affected. | ENT | null | Rhinoscleroma occurs due to
A. Auto immune cause
B. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis infection
C. Inflammatory cause
D. Mycotic infection
| Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis infection |
3d71bd8e-bf54-48cb-8b61-ab2695f77276 | Submandibular duct It is 5 cm long duct and runs forwards on hyoglossus, between lingual and hypoglossal nerves. At the anterior border of the hyoglossus muscle it is crossed by lingual nerve which loops around it. It opens into the floor of mouth, on the summit of the sublingual papilla at the side offrenulum of tongue. | Anatomy | null | Nerve which loops around submandibular duct?
A. Mandibular nerve
B. Lingual nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
| Lingual nerve |
76ec3c2e-3f0b-4b9d-ba3d-f2596a12b1b2 | The blastocyst begins implantation by day 5 after feilization. | Anatomy | Development period- week 1,2,3,4 | How soon after feilization occurs within the uterine tube does the blastocyst begin implantation?,
A. Within minutes
B. By 12 hours
C. By day 1
D. By day 5
| By day 5 |
386fa6cb-ab0b-4197-a359-849e64a89037 | Average duration of function of primary dentition is 6 yrs while maximum duration is 10 years. | Dental | null | Average duration of function of primary dentition
A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years
| 6 years |
442459c9-6d37-4f7b-a8ab-8b77be1b544c | Limiting resource Carrying capacity : The suppoable population of an organism, given the food, habitat, water and other necessities available within an ecosystem is known as the ecosystem is known as the ecosystem's carrying capacity for that organism RRefers to the number of individuals who can be suppoed in a given area within natural resource limits, and without degrading the natural social, cultural and economic environment for present and future generations For human population more complex variables (Sanitation, medical care) are sometimes considered as pa of necessary infrastructure Below carrying capacity, population typically increase ; While above, they typically decrease May depend on a variety of factors including food availability ; water supply, environmental condition and living space Ref: internet (Wikipedia) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Non communicable diseases | The carrying capacity of any given population is determined by its
A. Population growth rate
B. Bih rate
C. Death rate
D. Limiting resource
| Limiting resource |
a56ed05e-ede5-4500-a7da-1880aa1af829 | Management of vesicular mole/complete mole Suction evacuation (also do a gentle curettage with a sharp curette) Do USG after a week to rule out retained bits Do CXR to rule out metastasis HCG follow up | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Twin Pregnancy, Molar Pregnancy, Gestational Trophoblastic disease and contraception in special situations (Sour Grapes!) | The treatment of choice for hydatiform mole with a uterine size of 28 weeks is:
A. Suction evacuation
B. Intra -amniotic saline followed by oxytocin
C. Evacuation by misoprostol and Mifepristone
D. Methotrexate administration
| Suction evacuation |
8753da71-9b13-4afc-b71c-dbbcefc1c3b8 | Glomerulus As the name implies ju.aglomerulus apparatus (JGA) lies at hilum of glomerulus Juxtaglornerulus apparatusThe juxtaglomerular apparatus is a microscopic structure in the kidney, which regulates the function of Lech nephron. The juxtaglomerular apparatus is named for its proximity to the glomerulus: it is found between the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle and the returning distal convoluted tubule of the same nephron. This location is critical to its function in regulating renal blood flow and glomerular.filtration rate.The three microscopic components of the apparatus are the macula densa, extraglomerular mesangial cells (lacis cells), and juxtaglomerular cells.Juxtaglomerular cellJuxtaglomerular cells (JG cells, also known as granular cells) are the site of renin secretion.The JG cells are found in the media of afferent aerioles of the glomerulus and act as an intro-renal pressure sensor Lowered pressure leads to decreased pressure on the JG cells stimulating renin secretion. Renin then acts to increase systemic blood pressure (while maintaining GFR) the resi angiotensin systemMacula densaAt the point where the afferent aeriole enters the glomerulus and the efferent leaves it, the tubule of the nephron touches the aeriole of the glomerulus from which it arose.At this location, which marks the sta of the distal convulation, there is the modified region of tubular epithelium called the macula densaThe macula densa senses sodium chloride concentration in the distal tubule of the kidney and secretes a locally active (paracrine) vasopressor which acts on the adjacent afferent aeriole to decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR), as pa of the tubuloglomerular feedback loop. Specifically, excessive filtration at the glomerulus or inadequate sodium uptake in the proximal tubule / thick ascending loop of Henle brings fluid to the distal convoluted tubule that has an abnormally high concentration of sodium. Na/K/2C1 cotranspoers move sodium into the cells of the macula densa. The increased Na+ conc. triggers a signal that causes constriction of the afferent aeriole thus reducing the GFRLacis cells or extraglomerular mesangial cellsThe function of the extraglomerular mesangial cells remains somewhat mysterious. They contain actin and myosin, allowing them to contract when stimulated by renal sympathetic nerves, which may provide a way for the sympathetic nervous system to modulate the actions of the juxtaglomerular apparatus. In addition, extraglomerular mesangial cells are strategically positioned between the macula densa and the afferent aeriole, and may mediate signalling between these two structures | Anatomy | null | Juxtaglomerular apparatus lies in relation to :
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Ascending loop of Henle
C. Descending loop of Henle
D. Glomerulus
| Glomerulus |
dfa70f0f-85c2-4bc7-977f-0b220226ea87 | Ans. A (Arylsulfatase B). (Ref. Harrison, Medicine, 18th/ Chapter 361. Lysosomal Storage Diseases) Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome (MPS type VI) is due to deficiency of N-acetyl galactosamine (arylsulphatase B enzyme). Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS) Disorder Enzyme Deficiency Stored Material Inheri- tance Neuro- logic Liver Spleen Enlarge- ment Skeletal Dysplasia Ophthal- mologic Hemato- logic Unique Features MPS I, Hurler -L-lduroni- dase Dermatan sulfate Heparan sulfate AR Mental retardation Mental retardation None + + + ++++ Corneal clouding Vacuola- ted lympho- cytes Coarse facies; cardiovas- cular involve- ment; joint stiffness MPS II, Hunter Iduronate sulfatase Dermatan sulfate Heparan sulfate X-linked Mental retardation, less in mild form + + + ++++ Retinal degene- ration, no corneal clouding Granula- ted lympho- cytes Coarse facies; cardiovas- cular involve- ment; joint stiffness; distinctive pebbly skin lesions MPS III, Sanfi- lippo A =Heparan -N-sulfa- tase. B=N-Acetyl -alpha-glu- cosamini- dase. C=Acetyl- CoA: Alpha -glucosa- minide N-acetyl- transferase. D=N-Acetyl glucosa- mine-6- sulfate sulfatase. Heparan sulfate AR Severe mental retarda- tion + + None Granula- ted lym- phocytes Mild coarse facies MPS IV A, Morquio N-Acetyl- galactose mine-6- sulfate sulfatase Keratan sulfate Chondroi- tin-6 sulfate AR None + ++++ Corneal clouding Granu- lated neutro- phils Distinctive skeletal deformity; odontoid hypopla- sia; aortic valve disease MPS IV B, Morquio Beta- Galacto- sidase AR None +- + + + + MPS VI, Marote- aux-Lamy Arylsulfa- tase B Dermatan sulfate AR None + + + + + + Corneal clouding Granula- ted neutron phils and lym- phocytes Coarse facies; valvular heart disease MPS VII Beta-Glu- curoni- dase Dermatan sulfate Heparan sulfate AR Mental retardation, absent in some adults + + + + + + Corneal clouding | Unknown | null | In Maroteaux- Lamy syndrome, the enzyme deficient is?
A. Arylsulfatase B
B. Glucosidase
C. Hydroxylase
D. b-glucuronidase
| Arylsulfatase B |
a1a829fb-fc50-4c7a-9a6d-7b7f4e37a812 | Thiopental slows the activity of your brain and nervous system. Thiopental is used to help you relax before you receive general anesthesia with an inhaled medication.Thiopental may be used for other purposes not listed in this medication guide. | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | Following accidental intra-aerial injection of thiopentone, which should not be done?
A. Remove the needle
B. Intra -aerial heparin
C. Intra-aerial papaverine
D. Do a stellate ganglion block
| Remove the needle |
f774b2c7-a101-424f-a115-2d6ab1183304 | “The cardiac silhouette occupies 50-55% of the chest width.
Cardiomegaly is present when the cardiothoracic (CT) ratio is more than 55%” he CTR is measured on a PA chest x-ray and is the ratio of maximal horizontal cardiac diameter to maximal horizontal thoracic diameter (inner edge of ribs / edge of pleura).
A normal measurement should be <0.5(50%). | Pediatrics | null | What is the cardiothoracic ratio in children is -
A. 30-35%
B. 40-45%
C. 50-55%
D. 60-65%
| 50-55% |
ed3bfce0-a701-496c-8c45-008318ec2409 | Ans. (c) Direct ophthalmoscopyThe only confusion (if any) should be with Retinoscopy, as both the instruments look the same, but retinoscopy is usually performed from a distance of 1 meter. | Ophthalmology | Retina | Which ophthalmological investigation is being performed on the patient?
A. Retinoscopy
B. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
C. Direct ophthalmoscopy
D. Oblique illumination test
| Direct ophthalmoscopy |
7bf7315a-a2f3-4b1c-9fa7-be13602e5893 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reduction Types of biotransformation reactions Biotransformation reactions (metabolism) of drugs can be classified : A. Non-synthetic (phase I) reactions Metabolism brings about a change in the drug molecule by : Oxidation Hydrolysis Decyclization Reduction Cyclization The new metabolite may retain biological activity or it may be an inactive metabolite. Oxidation is the most impoant metabolizing reaction. The most impoant enzyme for oxidation reaction is cytochrome P450. B. Synthetic (phase H or conjugation) reaction Metabolism involves union of the drug with one of several polar (water-soluble) endogenous molecules that are products of intermediary metabolism, to form a water-soluble conjugate which is readily eliminated by kidney or, if the molecular weight exceeds 300, in the bile. Phase II metabolism almost invariably terminates biological activity, i.e. metabolites are usually inactive. o Reactions are Acetylation Glutathione conjugation Neucleotide synthesis Glucuronide conjugation Sulfate conjugation Glycine conjugation Methylation | Pharmacology | null | Phase 1 biotransformation includes ?
A. Reduction
B. Acetylation
C. Sufate conjugation
D. Methylation
| Reduction |
226b3ae8-bc2d-4c66-b2a2-483fd3607e30 | Ans is 'c' i.e. risk factors * ASA is the simplest and most widely used system for describing patient's physical status to assess the risk factors before anaesthesia.* Brain dead patient is ASA grade-2.American society of anaesthesiologist (asa) classification* ASA classification is for the Preoperative assessment to quantify the risk for patients who require anaesthesia for surgery. This is the simplest and most widely used system for describing patient's physical status (Rajasthan 01). Based on physical status, the patients are classified into six categories. The morbidity and mortality ishighest in grade V patients and minimum is grade I patients.ASA GradePatient conditionASA 1Normal healthy patient (no physical or mental illness)ASA 2Mild systemic disease not limiting functional activity(mild heart disease, DM Mild hypertension, Anemia, Old age, obesity, mild chronic bronchitis)ASA 3Severe systemic disease that limits activity but not incapaciating (Angina,Severe DM, cardiac failure)ASA 4Severe systemic disease that is life-threatening(Marked cardiac insufficiency; presistent angina; severe renal, respiratory or hepatic insufficiency)ASA 5Moribund patient who is not expected to survive whthout operationASA 6Brain dead patient (for organ donation) | Anaesthesia | Preoperative Assessment & Monitoring | ASA grading is to assess?
A. Cardiac status
B. Respiratory status
C. Risk factors
D. Mental status
| Risk factors |
e85f5165-07b2-4d92-84da-1130d6da2379 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycogen phosphorylase kinase Alcohol effects on Carbohyrate metabolism* Ethanol adversely affects the carbohydrate metabolism in skeletal muscle.* Chronic alcohol intake is associated with an increase in glycogen concentration in skeletal muscles because of incapacity to degrade glycogen due to partial inhibition of glycogen phosphorylase kinase at glycogenolysis and by decrease in pyruvate kinase activity at glycolysis.* Activities of the glycolytic enzymes phosphofructokinase and lactate dehydrogenase are not affected. | Medicine | Alcohol | In chronic alcoholics which the following enzymes are inhibited-
A. Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Alcohol dehydrogenase
| Glycogen phosphorylase kinase |
0aa3cb66-5be9-4b79-91db-b4390572c551 | REACTION TO STRESS AND ADJUSTMENT DISORDERS This category in ICD-10 consists of disorders which are temporally related to an exceptionally stressful life event ( acute stress reaction and post-traumatic stress disorder) or a significant life change (adjustment disorders) immediately before the onset of illness. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no.111 | Psychiatry | Anxiety disorders stress disorders and grief | Post traumatic stress syndrome is due to -
A. Head injury
B. Cardiovascular Disease
C. Minor stress
D. Major life threatening events
| Major life threatening events |
a42f9f67-091e-4463-b533-4b3cb90c465e | Wolman disease is a congenital disease characterized by an impaired metabolism of the fats (lipids). It is the most severe type of lysosomal acid lipase deficiency. The lysomal acid lipase deficiency causes a buildup of lipids (fats) in body organs and calcium deposits in the adrenal glands. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Metabolic disorders | A child presents with Hepatosplenomegaly, Abdominal distension, Jaundice, Anemia and Adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the Diagnosis ?
A. Adrenal hemorrhage
B. Wolman's disease
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Addison's disaease
| Wolman's disease |
f5d401ec-26dd-422a-8a1d-83eb356cf2b2 | A distinctive feature of dermatomyositis is atrophy and degeneration of myofibres at the periphery of fasicles (perifasicular) which occurs even in the absence of inflammation. | Pathology | null | Perifasicular atrophy of muscle fibres is seen in?
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Steroid myopathy
C. Inclusion body myositis
D. Viral myositis
| Dermatomyositis |
e3180d90-06bb-44ca-b38e-e316963707a2 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 25 feet Rural housing In rural areas, the 'approved' standards may be lower than in towns. The following minimum standards have been suggested : There should be at least two living rooms. Ample verandah space may be provided. The built-up area should not exceed one-third of the total area. There should be a separate kitchen with a paved sink or platform for washing utensils. The house should be provided with a sanitary latrine. The window area should be at least 10 percent of the floor area. There should be a sanitary well or a tube well within a quaer of a mile from the house. It is insanitary to keep cattle and livestock in dwelling houses. Cattle sheds should be at least 25 feet away from dwelling houses. A cattle shed should be open on all sides; an area 8 fit 4 fit is sufficient for each head of cattle. There should be adequate arrangement for the disposal of waste water, refuse and garbage. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In rural area, cattle sheds should be ..... away from the houses ?
A. 5 feet
B. 10 feet
C. 20 feet
D. 25 feet
| 25 feet |
b69dbc81-a767-4ed6-81e1-e7c91cd98122 | Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections are associated with the consumption of raw shellfish, cross-contaminated food, and the exposure of wounds to seawater containing V. parahaemolyticus. It is the cause of numerous outbreaks of foodborne illness where raw or uncooked seafoods are commonly consumed. | Microbiology | null | Vibrio parahemolyticus is seen in which of the following if undercooked?
A. Crab
B. v
C. Prawn
D. Fish
| v |
f064c2b3-6077-4a67-b4ac-1beae0479218 | Acute mesenteric ischemia occurs when prolonged reduction in the splanchnic blood flow occurs. The most common cause is aerial embolism, which accounts for 50% of cases. The emboli most commonly originate from a cardiac source. Most emboli lodge in the superior mesenteric aery (SMA) because of the angle from which it takes off from the aoa. Risk factors for developing the mural thrombi that embolize to the mesenteric aeries include, Myocardial ischemia/infarction Atrial arrhythmias (specifically atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter) Valvular disorders Cardiomyopathies Endocarditis Ventricular aneurysms Ref: Travis A.C., Saltzman J.R. (2012). Chapter 161. Small Bowel Disorders. In G.V. Lawry, S.C. McKean, J. Matloff, J.J. Ross, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine. | Surgery | null | A 56 year old man is brought to the emergency depament with rapid onset of severe abdominal pain. But physical examination seemed to be out of propoion to his symptom. Acute mesenteric ischemia was diagnosed. What is the MOST common cause of acute mesenteric ischemia?
A. Aerial thrombosis
B. Venous thrombosis
C. Embolism
D. Non occlusive disease
| Embolism |
f78d8d8c-6cab-443b-ab27-31e022aa4f67 | The glossopharyngeal nerve is the nerve for both general sensation and taste for the posterior one third of the tongue including the circumvallate papillae.The posterior most pa of the tongue is supplied by the vagus nerve through the internal laryngeal branch.The sensory supply of anterior two thirds is lingual nerve where as the taste sensation from the anterior two thirds is carried out by chorda tympani except vallate papillae(pre-trematic branch of first arch). REF.BDC VOL 3,Fifth edition. | Anatomy | Head and neck | The sensation of posterior aspect of tongue is by
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Mandibular nerve
| Glossopharyngeal nerve |
bedb8767-93fe-4c5c-9fc4-40d34231c208 | Rapid sand filter → 0.4 - 0.7 mm
Slow sand filter → 0.2 - 0.3 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | What is the size of particle is rapid sand filter ?
A. 0 .1 mm
B. 0.2
C. 0.5
D. 0.4 to 0.7 mm
| 0.4 to 0.7 mm |
aaac7037-399e-49cf-9003-121c7d1838fb | Diseases transmitted by fleas include: Plague Endemic typhus Chiggerosis Hymenolepis diminuta. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 719. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by fleas?
A. Plague
B. Endemic typhus
C. Chiggerosis
D. Trench fever
| Trench fever |
b289bad5-aded-4509-b297-25c76ac46779 | In this question primarily we talking about asthma= We give salbutamol FEV1 becomes Normal Change of FEV1 before & after giving salbutamol (SABA) should be at least 12% to call it Bronchial Asthma. | Medicine | COPD and Asthma | What will be reversible damage?
A. Fev1 decrease by 50 % by SABA
B. Fev1 increase by 12% by SABA
C. Fev1 decrease by 25% by SABA
D. Fev1 decrease by 5% by SABA
| Fev1 increase by 12% by SABA |
d9064a7c-6acb-4c87-a948-4029c5f0e190 | Emerging patterns of Adaptive milestones from 1-5years of age 15months Makes a tower of 3 cubes Makes a line with a crayon Inses raisin in a bottle 18months Makes a tower of 4 cubes Imitates scribbling Imitates veical stroke Dumps raisin from a bottle 24months Makes a tower of 7 cubes (6 at 21 mo) Scribbles in a circular pattern Imitates horizontal stroke Folds paper once imitatively 30months Makes a tower of 9 cubes Makes veical and horizontal strokes, but generally will not join them to make cross Imitates circular stroke, forming a closed figure 36months Makes a tower of 10 cubes Imitates construction of "bridge" of 3 cubes Copies circle Imitates cross 48months Copies bridge from model Imitates construction of "gate" of 5 cubes Copies cross and square Draws man with 2-4 pas besides the head Identifies longer of 2 lines 60months Draws a triangle from copy Names heavier of 2 weights Ref: Nelson paediatrics; Table 11-1 | Pediatrics | Growth and development | The child , Makes tower of 9 cubes at age of ____________
A. 24 months
B. 30 months
C. 36 months
D. 48 months
| 30 months |
2a56ef02-7089-4765-b730-22447bc92f28 | Facio - cervical Actinomycosis is most common type. | Surgery | null | Actinomycosis most commonly affects
A. Thorax
B. Facio - cervical region
C. Liver
D. Pelvis
| Facio - cervical region |
432a6642-0d76-42d9-b589-f82a871866eb | Laryngeal pseudosulcus refers to edema of the ventral surface of the true vocal fold that extends from the anterior commissure to the posterior larynx. Patients with pseudosulcus are nearly 2.5 times more likely to have pH-documented Larynopharyngela reflux. | ENT | Larynx | Pseudosulcus in larynx is
A. Laryngopharangeal reflux
B. Vocal abuse
C. Chronic steroid use
D. Tuberculosis
| Laryngopharangeal reflux |
bc4a7520-c911-4252-a7c7-22d53d042f88 | Lesion in right hepatic lobe with mixed echogenicity on USG suggests the diagnosis of hemangioma.
MRI is the most accurate method of diagnosing liver hemangioma and is indicated when liver hemangioma is suspected on USG and the diameter of the lesion is smaller than 2.5 cm. However, MRI is not provided in the options.
A second most accurate method of diagnosing liver hemangioma is SPECT RBC scintigraphy (hepatic scintigraphy). It is indicated to confirm the diagnosis when hemangioma is suspected on USG and the diameter of the lesion is greater than 2.5 cm.
Suspected hemangioma on USG:-
Lesion smaller than 2.5 cm in diameter → MRI
Lesion greater than 2.5 cm in diameter → hepatic scintigraphy | Radiology | null | A 22 year old man presents with a solitary 2 cm space occupying lesion of mixed echogenicity in the right lobe of the liver on ultrasound examination. The rest of the liver is normal. Which of the following tests should be done next –
A. Ultrasound guided biopsy of the lesion
B. Hepatic scintigraphy
C. Hepatic angiography
D. Contrast enhanced CT scan of the liver
| Hepatic scintigraphy |
ab14f374-5958-423d-9d55-bd704ede97d8 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., IL 1 antagonist BIOLOGIC RESPONSE MODIFIER (BRMs)* Several recombinant proteins/monoclonal antibodies that bind and inhibit cytokines, especially TNFa or IL-1 have been used succesfully in autoimmune diseases like RA, IBD, psoriosis or scleroderma.A. TNF-a inhibitorsa. Etanercept# It is a recombinant fusion protein of TNF - receptor and Fc portion of human IgG1'# It is administered by S.C. injection.b. Infliximab# It is a chimeral monoclonol antibody which binds and neutralizes TNF-a.# It is given by i.v. route.# It is indicated in RA, psoriotic arthritis, Crohn's disease, Wegener's granulomatosis and sarcoidosis.c. Adalimumab# This recombinant monoclonal anti-TNF antibody.# It is administered by S.C. route.B. IL-1 antagonistAnakinra# It is a recombinant human IL-1 receptor antagonist.# It is less effective than TNF inhibitors.# It is administered by S.C. route.C. T-cell costimulatory blockersAbatacept# It is a fusion protein that combines the extracellular domain of the molecule CTLA4 (CD 154) with the Fc portion of a human immunoglobulin.# It interfere with the interactions between antigen presenting cells and T lymphocytes. Therefore, it affects early stages in the pathogenic cascade of event in RA.D. B-cell depletersRituximab# B-cells are inflammatory cells with multiple functions in the immune response. The depletion of B cells has been shown to be effective in reducing signs and symptoms of RA and in slowing radiographic progression.# Rituximab is a chimeric monoclonal antibody that binds to the CD20 molecule on the B cell surface leading to the removal of B cells from the circulation. | Pharmacology | Immunomodulator | Anakinrais-
A. TNF a antagonist
B. IL 1 antagonist
C. IL 2 antagonist
D. IL 6 antagonist
| IL 1 antagonist |
cbe2cecd-1497-40e1-ade3-23ac30c7a06a | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Nymphomania Sexual dysfunction* Sexual dysfunction are characterized by repeated inability to participate in sexual relationship or its unsatisfying nature. Important sexual dysfunctions are: -1. Disorder of sexual desire:- i) Excessive sexual desire - Satyriasis in males and nymphomania in women, ii) Hypoactive sexual desire - Frigidity2. Disorder of sexual arousal (Impotence or erectile dysfunction)# This disorder is characterized by an inability to have or sustain penile erection till the completion of satisfactory sexual activity. One of the important method to distinguish psychogenic impotence from organic impotence is nocturnal penile tumescence & early morning erection which are preserved in psychogenic impotence but not in organic cause of impotence.# Phosphodiesterase-5-inhibitors (Sildenafil, Todafil, vardenafil) are the drug of choice for erectile dysfunction. Other treatment includes PIPE therapy (Papaverine/Phentolamine induced penile erection), Alprastadil (Prostaglandin El), Androgens, and penile prosthesis/vaccume constrictor device. Sensate focus technique is the method in which the aim is to discover on body (excluding genitals) sensate focus, where manipulation leads to sexual arousal.3. Orgasmic dysfunction : - Premature ejaculation : -# Premature ejaculation is defined as ejaculation before the completion of satisfactory sexual activity for both partners.# Squeeze technique (Seman's technique) is used for premature ejaculation. When the male partner experiences 'ejaculatory inevitability' the female partner 'squeezes' the penis on the coronal ridge thus delaying ejaculation.# Dapoxetine (A new SSRI) can be used in treatment | Psychiatry | Sexual Disorders | Excessive sexual desire in females is known as?
A. Nymphomania
B. Satyriasis
C. Frigidity
D. Impotency
| Nymphomania |
6aac427f-4393-4d24-bdc7-eb0c0a3be40d | Ans. is 'c1 i.e., MIHo Sertoli cells are stimulated by FSH and secreteAndrogen binding protein (ABP)InhibinMullerian inhibiting substance (MIS) or Mullerian inhibiting hormone (MIH)o Leydig cells are stimulated by LH and secrete androgens (testesterone), dihydrotestosterone, androstendione, dehydroepiandrosterone. | Physiology | Sex Hormones | Sertoli cells in male secrete -
A. Testosterone
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone
C. MIH
D. Progesterone
| MIH |
8a9f1643-e566-4d39-9d2d-626821888c52 | Refer Apleys 9th e p 372 Cubitus varus develops which is reduced carrying angle and Cubitus valgus is increased carrying angle | Anatomy | General anatomy | Deformity with decreased carrying angle is
A. Cubitus varus
B. Mannus varus
C. Cubitus valgus
D. Mannus valgus
| Cubitus varus |
b7405022-cec9-4ccc-9609-b74baa254ed5 | Ans. is'c'i.e., 3rd pa of axillary aeryAnastomosis around surgical neck of humerus is formed by -Anterior circumflex humeral aery.Posterior circumflex humeral aeryBoth are branches of 3rd pa of axillary aery. | Anatomy | null | Aery forming anastomosis around surgical neck humerus -
A. lst pa of axillary aery
B. 2nd pa of axillary aery
C. 3rd pa of axillary aery
D. Subclan aery
| 3rd pa of axillary aery |
5d8cf923-9210-4278-862a-6b6b98f6df09 | Ans.A. StuporStupor refers to a higher degree of arousability in which the patient can be transiently awakened only by vigorous stimuli, accompanied by motor behaviour that leads to avoidance of uncomfoable or aggravating stimuli. | Psychiatry | null | In which of the following state, a person is mute and akinetic, but can be awakened and even be ale?
A. Stupor
B. Delirium
C. Twilight state
D. Oneiroid state
| Stupor |
e379d1ec-9b0b-41c5-8551-cfb4e7146d48 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Carbon dioxide Important indoor air pollutantsPOLLUTANTSSOURCESRespirable particlesTobacco smoke, Stove, Aerosol sprays.Carbon monoxideCombustion equipment, Stove, Gas heaters.Nitrogen dioxideGas cookersCigarettesSulphur dioxideCoal combustionCarbon dioxideCombustion, respirationFormaldehydeParticle board, Carpet adhesives, Insulation.Other organic vapours(benzene, toluene, etc)Solvents, adhesives, resin products, aerosol sprays.OzoneElectric arcing, UV light sourceRadon and "daughters"Building materialAsbestosInsulation, Fire proofingMineral fibersAppliances | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and Health | Which of the following is an indor air-pollutonts-
A. Carbon dioxide
B. HCN
C. Methan
D. Perfluoro carbons
| Carbon dioxide |
e1a5e8d7-705a-4bfa-b36a-e2d50b25fa98 | Ans. C: 1.25 cm per day During the first 24 hours after delivery, the level of the uterus remains constant; thereafter there is a steady decrease in height by 1.25 cm (half inch) in 24 hours, so that by the end of 2^d week, the uterus becomes a pelvic organ Remember: Puerperium period: 6 weeks after delivery Involution of uterus is complete by: 6 weeks Uterus becomes a pelvic organ: 2 weeks after the delivery MC cause of puerperal infection: Streptococcus MC route of puerperal infection: Direct spread | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Rate of involution of uterus is: March 2011
A. 0.75 cm per day
B. 1 cm per day
C. 1.25 cm per day
D. 1.5 cm per day
| 1.25 cm per day |
baa1e1b0-69fe-4f63-a7d7-55ddb0cd7558 | CSF in T meningitis
Low sugar o Predominant cells --> Lymphocytes o Opening pressure is elevated
High protein o Very low chloride | Pediatrics | null | The CSF findings in TB meningitis include –
A. High sugar + low protein
B. Low sugar + high protein and Lymphocytosis
C. High sugar + high chloride
D. Low sugar + high protein and Lymphopenia
| Low sugar + high protein and Lymphocytosis |
d806af03-2083-43ab-be53-6a7c9c45f411 | (Ref: Katzung 14th ed. pg. 145-47)Alpha 1 and Beta 2 receptors present at blood vessels causing vasoconstriction and vasodilatation respectively.Sympathetic receptors, their location, function and G protein.ReceptorLocationFunctionG-Proteina1BV, smooth muscle, Salivary glandsVasoconstriction Increase secretionGqa2Presynapse Beta pancreatic cellBrake/Inhibit NA releaseDecrease insulin releaseGib1Heart JG cellInc Heart rate Renin releaseGsb2LungsSmooth muscle LiverBronchodilatation Relaxation of smooth muscles GlycogenolysisGsb3Adipocyte Detrusor muscleLipolysis, thermogenesis Bladder relaxGs | Pharmacology | A.N.S. | Which of the following sympathetic receptors acts as vasoconstriction and vasodilatation:
A. Alpha 1 and Alpha 2
B. Alpha 1 and Beta 1
C. Alpha 1 and Beta 2
D. Beta 1 and Beta 2
| Alpha 1 and Beta 2 |
6341b0d7-1872-4896-99c8-e069115a71de | H Indications symptomatic women who suffer from oestrogen defeciency(therapeutic) high risk cases for menopausal complications like cardiovascular disease,osteoporosis,stroke,alzheimers disease,colonic cancer(prophylactic) premature menopause,spontaneous or following surgery(tubectomy,hysterectomy) gonadal dysgenesis in adolescents(therapeutic0 women demanding H as prophylaxis. SHAW'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:70,16 th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Menopause and HRT | Hormone replacement therapy (H) is indicated in:
A. women with breast cancer
B. Osteoporosis
C. women with uterine cancer
D. previous history of thromboembolic episode
| Osteoporosis |
a580c38a-c307-41f6-96de-79a69bac897a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ca cervix o This question is tricky one and is different from previous one. o In this question examinar is asking about the cancers which can be prevented by screening. o The cancers, which have well known precancerous condition, can be diagnosed and treated at pre-cancerous stage to prevent the development of cancer : - i) Cervix --> CIN ii) Colon ---> Polyp o On the other hand, in previous explanation, examinor had asked about the cancers for which survival can be prolonged by screening. This is done by early diagnosis and treatment of cancer which has already been developed. o So, two different questions can be framed : ? 1) Screening can increase the survival (screening is useful) in : - Colon (Colorectal) carcinoma Breast Carcinoma } Greatest Cervical carcinoma Prostate carcinoma l Moderate Kidney carcinoma 2) Screening can prevent Colon carcinoma Cervical carcinoma Breast, Prostate and kidney cancers cannot be prevented by screening, however, the survival rate can be increased by screening which caught them in early stage. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which of the following can be prevented by screening -
A. Ca cervix
B. Ca breast
C. Ca prostate
D. Ca Lung
| Ca cervix |
20d215b8-3d20-4860-9c89-2fe06e2c242e | (Give hypotonic saline) (758- 61 - CMDT- 08) (277-79, 2223-2224-Hl7th)* Treatment consist of replacement of lost volume with isotonic or half normal (0.45%) saline or lactated Ringer *s infusion in hypovolemic Hypotonic Hyponatremia* Asymptomatic hyponatremia - water restriction, 0.9% saline Demeclocycline. Fludrocortisone, selective renal vasopressin V2 antagonists (conivaptan. Mozavaptan, tolvaptan)* Hypervolemic hypotonic hyponatremia - water restriction Diuretics and V2 antagonists. Hypertonic (3%) saline | Medicine | Fluid & Electrolyte | A 25 year male presented with nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, Na+ level is 125 meq/L. Treatment start with
A. Give hypotonic saline
B. Ultra centrifugation
C. Haemodialysis
D. High protein diet
| Give hypotonic saline |
cd66ffab-b469-4ab6-b703-7f9591da88ad | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multiple myeloma * Serum b2 microglobulin is increased in multiple myeloma and is the most important prognostic factor and can substitute for staging.* b2 Microglobulin level:a) < .004g/L - Median survival of 43 months.b) .004 g/L - Median survival of only 12 months. | Pathology | Blood | Beta-2 microglobulin is a marker for?
A. Multiple Myeloma
B. Mycosis fungoides
C. B-Cell lymphoma
D. Mantle cell lymphoma
| Multiple Myeloma |
2dfb2fe9-bc49-4ea8-bf1b-202b1145c491 | Ans. is `b' i.e., Hashimoto ThyroiditisPathological features of Hashimoto's thyroiditis 1. Cross featuresDiffuse symmetrically enlarged thyroidAlthough the gland is symmetrically enlarged, the accentuation of lobulations may make the gland appear lobular on gross examination.Capsule is intactCut surface is pale, yellow firm and lobulated.2. Microscopic featuresAtrophy of thyroid follicles (atrophic follicles)Extensive lymphoplasmocytic infiltrate with abundant small lymphocytes and plasma cells with destruction of follicles.Oncocytic metaplasia (Huhle cell metaplasia) - The surviving follicular epithelial cells are commonly transformed into large cells with abundant pink cytoplasm and are known as Huhle cells.Oncocytic metaplasia (Huhle cell metaplasia) is also known "oxyphilic change" in epithelial cells and is considered the hallmark of Hashimoto's thyroiditis.Varying degree of fibrosis and foci of squamous metaplasia within atrophic follicles.Interstitial connective tissue is increased and may be abundant. | Pathology | null | Huhle cells seen in ?
A. Papillary carcinoma
B. Hashimoto Thyroiditis
C. Granulomatous thyroiditis
D. Thyroglossal cyst
| Hashimoto Thyroiditis |
e219e5e2-9c2f-4fa1-baba-94fe6c0c11d5 | Ans. is d i.e. Apply MC Donald stitch In this question : A gravida 3 female is presenting with 2 previous 2nd trimester losses and with funneling of cervix at 22 weeks of gestation which means that the patient has incompetent cervix. Management of this condition as discussed in previous question is application of Mc Donald stitch Women who may have incompetent cervix and require treatment can be divided into 4 groups : Extra Edge Women presenting with acute presentation of incompetent cervix i.e. ? Complain of Pelvic / Rectal pressure of recent onset Increased mucous vaginal discharge. No contractions Remember * Most common factors associated with failure of rescue cerclage are -- Nulliparity -- Prolapsed membranes -- WBC > 14,000/mm3. -- CRP > 4 mg /dl -- Cervical dilatation > 4 cm -- Cervical length < 0.5 cm Contractions present | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A gravida 3 female with kilo 2 previous 2nd trimester aboion presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of cervix Most appropriate management would be:
A. Administer dinoprostone and bed rest
B. Administer misoprostol and bed rest
C. Apply fothergill stretch
D. Apply McDonald stitch
| Apply McDonald stitch |
4f829ae3-a8ea-4f69-840a-210b1033d3d8 | Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Lamina terminalisThe cranial open end of neural tube is called as rostral (anterior) neuropore which closes on or before day 26 giving rise to lamina terminalis of brain. | Anatomy | null | Remnant of rostral neuropore is -
A. Septum transversum
B. Ligamentusteres
C. Lamina terminalis
D. Cerebellum
| Lamina terminalis |
ba1d41c2-0475-48e9-bb81-7df2eac73af2 | Lymphatic drainage of anal canal is through the mesorectal (also known as inferior rectal) nodes to the inguinal and femoral nodes. Anal cancers are more likely to produce inguinal adenopathy, with internal iliac adenopathy also occurring when the tissues near the anorectal junction are involved. ref : bailey and love | Surgery | All India exam | patient having inguinal mass likely diagnosis ?
A. anal ca.
B. prostate ca.
C. testiclar ca.
D. penile ca.
| anal ca. |
797c702f-9803-4b31-b3c6-4b1b42d5cf72 | Metabolic syndrome/Syndrome X: Central obesity: Waist circumference >102cm in males,>88cm in females. Hyperiglyceridemia: >150mg% Low HDL cholesterol: <40mg%I(male), <50mg% (female) Hypeension: >130/80 mmHg Fasting blood glucose >100 mg% / previously diagnosed type 2 diabetes. NOTE:Raised LDL is NOT a feature of Metabolic syndrome. | Medicine | NEET Jan 2020 | Which of the following is not the criteria for diagnosis of Metabolic syndrome?
A. Hypeension
B. Central obesity
C. Hyperiglyceridemia
D. High LDL
| High LDL |
709b6efb-d722-49b1-86d3-e41243f83f36 | Cluster samples may be chosen where individuals fall naturally into groups or clusters. In the above scenario, a sample of the clusters is chosen at random, and then a random sample of units is chosen from within this selection of clusters. The villages are naturally formed groups or clusters in the region. Ref: Encyclopaedic Companion to Medical Statistics, Editors Brian S. Everitt and Christopher R. Palmer, Second Edition; Oxford Handbook of Medical Statistics, By Janet L. Peacock, Philip J. Peacock, Oxford University Press 2011, Page 55. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A region is divided into 50 villages for the purpose of a survey. 10 villages are then selected randomly for the purpose of a study. This type of sampling is termed as:
A. Simple Random sampling
B. Stratified sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Systematic Sampling
| Cluster Sampling |
1a71f0a7-1287-4972-a6f3-eab66233d69f | Under orable conditions of temperature and food supply, the life cycle from the egg to adult is complete in 7-10 days. Normally the adult mosquito lives for about 2 weeks. The males are generally sho-lived Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Life span of mosquito is?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 1 year
| 2 weeks |
b817e041-479b-4667-99e3-0de31f108fe4 | A. i.e. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve | Anatomy | null | Cremasteric muscle is supplied by:
A. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
B. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
C. Lateral femoral nerve
D. Ilio-inguinal nerve
| Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve |
f01e7ee2-e9b0-429a-b81f-cc46ddd9ce5a | Breast milkCan be stored at room temperature for 8-10 hoursIn a refrigerator for 24 hoursIn a freezer for 3 months(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 286 - 290) | Pediatrics | All India exam | Breast milk at room temperature stored for
A. 4 hrs
B. 8 hrs
C. 12 hrs
D. 24 hrs
| 8 hrs |
9ca0f832-703b-4a74-842c-4304cd28b8b0 | Fracture of the neck of fifth metacarpal occurs usually due to striking the closed hand against a firm surface(Boxer's fracture) occurs in boxers. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 179 | Anatomy | Special topics | Fracture of the neck of fifth metacarpal occurs in
A. Hangman's fracture
B. Jefferson's fracture
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Boxer's fracture
| Boxer's fracture |
a234c907-fa4b-4fb7-819d-e446843dde47 | Ans: A (Descemet's membrane) Ref: BASAK Essentials of Ophthalmology. 5th edition, pg no 163Explanation: (See the following table)In KF ring, the copper deposits are seen in the vertical meridian (6 &12o'clock position) in the early stages.It is seen in all Wilson's patients if CNS is involvedWith penicillamine therapy . it disappears.Other manifestations of Wilson's disease are sunflower cataract & defective accommodation. | Ophthalmology | Cornea | KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of:
A. Descemet's membrane
B. Epithelium
C. Endothelium
D. Stroma
| Descemet's membrane |
25d670fc-4958-4e5c-9906-99ff737f4a08 | In the given question there is enlargement of local lymph nodes near the infected wound. Histologically:- Presence of Macrophages, Lymphocytes, Lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of Plasma cells. It is because the antigens from the wound are going to be drained to the lymph node. These antigens will cause B cell activation, once the B cell are going to be activated, they are going to get conveed into the Plasma cell and that is responsible for causing enlargement of the lymph node. Therefore, after any kind of infection or any kind of inflammation the reactive lymph node enlargement will occur and this is explained on the basis of Antigen stimulation. | Pathology | Basic Concepts | Local lymph nodules are enlarged near the infected wound. Increased amount of macrophages, lymphocytes, lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of plasma cells were revealed on histological examination. What process in the lymphatic nodules represent these histological changes?
A. Antigen stimulation
B. Acquired insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue
C. Tumour transformation
D. Innate insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue
| Antigen stimulation |
cf0d13de-51aa-4aa3-98bd-112f6acac032 | Chloroquine, proguanil, and mefloquine are considered compatible with breastfeeding. The Center for Disease Control and Prevention indicates that atovaquone may be used during breastfeeding where the infant weighs at least 5kg. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Infectious disease | Which one of the following antibacterial antibiotics are not recommend for lactating mothers ?
A. Cephaslosporins
B. Anti tubercular drugs
C. Quinolones
D. Aminoglycoside
| Quinolones |
744c1ab4-dfbe-4098-bc5e-e846640856fe | With respect to cancer, when tumor cells divide rapidly their telomeres often shorten.
Such telomeres (usually detected in leukocytes because of ease of obtaining them) have been implicated as a risk factor for many, but not all, solid tumors (eg, breast cancer).
Short telomeres appear to be of predictive value regarding the progression of chronic inflammatory diseases (such as ulcerative colitis and Barrett esophagus) to cancer.
The activity of telomerase, the main enzyme involved in synthesizing telomeres, is frequently elevated in cancer cells, providing one mechanism for overcoming telomere shortening.
Selective inhibitors of telomerase have been considered as possible drugs for treating cancer, but have not as yet been translated into successful clinical usuage.
Key Concept:
Telomerase is the main enzyme that is seen elevated in cancer cells.
Ref : Harper’s illustrated biochemistry, 31st edition. | Biochemistry | null | Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immortality of cancer cells?
A. DNA reverse transcriptase
B. RNA polymerase
C. Telomerase
D. DNA polymerase
| Telomerase |
c51c4278-1071-420f-92a4-7d9e0baeaca9 | (A) Nucleus accumbens# NUCLEUS ACCUMBENS has a significant role in the cognitive processing of motivation, pleasure, and reward and reinforcement learning, and hence has significant role in addiction. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | "Reward pathway" is associated with
A. Nucleus accumbens
B. Nucleus ambiguous
C. Dentate nucleus
D. Substantia nigra
| Nucleus accumbens |
1cad8398-611f-4100-8b4c-c8c113e66b6c | Ans. is d, i.e. HPV 6Ref: Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p619"Low Risk HPV types 6 and 11 cause nearly all genital warts." - Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p67Genital Warts:* Genital warts are lesions created from productive infection with HPV (most common type 6 and 11).* They display various morphologies and appearances ranging from flat papules to the classic verrucous, polyphytic lesions, termed "condyloma acuminata".* Sites: External genital warts may develop at sites in the lower reproductive tract, urethra, anus, or mouth.* Diagnosis: They are typically diagnosed by clinical infection, and biopsy is not required unless co-existing neoplasia is suspected. HPV serotyping is not required for routine diagnosis.Treatment:* Condyloma acuminata may remain unchanged or resolve spontaneously.* Effect of treatment on future viral transmission is unclear. However, many women prefer removal, and lesions can be destroyed with sharp or electrosurgical excision, cryotherapy, or laser ablation. In addition, very large, bulky lesions may be managed with cavitational ultrasonic surgical aspiration.Medical Management of Genital Warts:* Topical 5-percent imiquimod cream (immunomodulator)* Podophyllin (antimitotic agent)* Trichloroacetic acid (proteolytic agent)* Bichloroacetic acid (proteolytic agent)* Intralesion injection of interferonNote: Intralesion injection of interferon has high cost, is painful and is inconvenient to administer, So this therapy is not recommended as a primary modality and is best reserved for recalcitrant cases.Therapy of choice: No data suggest the superiority of one treatment. Thus in general treatment should be selected based on clinical circumstances and patient and provider preferences. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Carcinoma Cervix | Which is most commonly implicated in genital (vulval) warts?
A. HPV 16
B. HPV 18
C. HPV 31
D. HPV 6
| HPV 6 |
a192cfc9-e0fa-4ca2-b411-d65e4d79b655 | Most common type of optic nerve glioma is juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma. | Ophthalmology | null | Most common type of optic nerve glioma is –
A. Gemistocytic
B. Fibrous
C. Protoplasmic
D. Pilocytic
| Pilocytic |
1c979ff4-1058-41eb-8d14-bbd339e4bf99 | Drugs controller General of India GUIDELINES FOR OPENING AND LICENSING OF BLOOD BANK Blood Bank: - Blood bank means, a centre within an organisation or an institution for collection, grouping, cross-matching, storage, processing and distribution of Whole Human Blood or Human Blood Products from selected human donors. Licensing policy and legal framework for Blood Banks:? An adequate legal framework has been provided in Schedule X B of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act/Rules published in The Gazette of India: Extraordinary (Pa II-Sec.3 (i) which stipulates mandatory testing of blood for Blood transmissible Diseases, including HIV. The rules provide for adequate testing procedures, quality control, standard qualifications and experience for blood bank personnel, maintenance of complete and accurate records, etc. The Drugs Controller General (India) is the Central Licence Approving Authority whereas the regulatory control remains under the dual authority of the State and the Central Government. The blood banks under the Act require a manufacturing licence. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | License to blood bank is given by:
A. Drugs controller General of India
B. Director General of Health Services
C. Director General, Indian Council of Medical Research
D. Director General Blood Bank Services
| Drugs controller General of India |
4bb4e158-6349-412c-b907-fe6639638608 | NON NEOPLASTIC POLYPSPOLYPSLOCATIONHISTOLOGICAL TYPERISK OF MALIGNANCYASSOCIATED LESIONSHyperplastic polypscolonHyperplastic colonic epithelial celssRareJuvenile polypsLarge and small intestine, stomachHamaomasrarePeutz jeghers syndromeJejunum(mainly)hamaomasrarePigmentation in the mouth.tumours of the ovary, breast, endometrium, and pancreas.NEOPLASTIC POLYPSTubular adenomatous polypsLarge and small intestine, stomachadenoma1-3%Villous adenomasLarge intestineadenoma40%Familial polyposis coliLarge intestineadenoma100%Gardner's syndromeLarge and small intestineadenoma100%Bone and soft tissue lesions, ampullary cancer, congenital hyperophy of pigment epitheliumTurcot's syndromeLarge intestineadenoma100%Brain tumors(Ref: Harrison's 18/e768,769,7770) | Medicine | All India exam | Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in
A. Peutz-Jegher's polyp
B. Familial polyposis coli
C. Juvenile polyposis
D. Hyperplastic polyp
| Familial polyposis coli |
96a821c7-4e75-44cb-be99-385adef32da6 | The average number of adult female mites on an individual suffering from the common form of scabies is about 12. Only in crusted (Norwegian) scabies are large numbers of mites present. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, 8th edition Pg 38.37. | Skin | null | The average number of adult female mites on an individual suffering from the common form of scabies is about:
A. 2
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
| 12 |
a2fcbed8-9d0d-4217-8e91-b4103451516b | 1 lac IU @ 9 months age.
2 lac IU every 6 months therefter, till the age of 5 years. | Medicine | null | What is the total dose of Vitamin - A given under national immunisation schedule
A. 16 Lac IV
B. 17 Lac IV
C. 18 Lac IV
D. 20 Lac IV
| 17 Lac IV |
b336ba52-abcc-4b89-8d28-2027b8516b38 | In myelography the contrast agent is injected into the subarachanoid space. | Radiology | Fundamentals in Radiology | I/V contrast is not used in -
A. CT scan
B. MRI
C. IVP
D. Myelography
| Myelography |
034a2abd-700d-4f33-8275-ba908bb8da60 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lipofuscin o It is an insoluble pigment, also known as lipochrome and wear or tear or aging pigment. Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.Lipofuscino It is an insoluble pigment, also known as I and wear or tear or aging pigment. Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.o Its importance lies in being the tell-tale sign of free radical injury and lipid peroxidation.o It is seen in cells undergoing slow, regressive changes and is particularly prominent in the liver and heart of aging patients or patients with severe malnutrition and cancer cachexia,o On electron microscopy, the granules are highly electron dense, often have membranous structure in their midst and are usually in perinuclear location. In tissue section it appears as yellow brown pigment.o Deposition of lipofuscin in the heart is referred as brown atrophy | Pathology | Cellular Aging | Old age pigment is?
A. Hemosiderin
B. Melanin
C. Lipofuscin
D. Bilirubin
| Lipofuscin |
5b2c853c-4b7e-4cd8-b5b1-e6b190928585 | The S2 heart sound refers to the second (dub) heart sound. This sound is produced by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves. The closure of mitral/bicuspid and tricuspid valves produce the first S1 (lub) heart sound. | Anatomy | Thorax | A 35-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a complaint of shortness of breath. During physical examination it is noted that there is wide splitting in her S2 heart sound. Which of the following valves is/are responsible for production of the S2 heart sound?
A. Mitral valve
B. Pulmonary and aortic
C. Aortic and mitral
D. Tricuspid
| Pulmonary and aortic |
46386f50-fb35-4bbc-b092-fad0ff7aa0d7 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1823 o Edward Jenner was born on 17 may 1749 and died on 26 January 1823. o Edward Jenner discovered samll pox vaccine in 1796, which was the first ever vaccine to be discovered. o Edward Jenner also coined the term 'vaccine'. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Edward Jenner died in -
A. 1749
B. 1775
C. 1823
D. 1920
| 1823 |
198f6e22-b5a3-4c60-bf40-4479ce5762d9 | In normal person, LDH-2 is more than LDH-1 in serum. BUT in myocardial infarction, LDH-1>>LDH-2. This is known as Flipped ratio of LDH in Myocardial Infarction. ADDITIONAL EDGE ON ISOENZYMES OF LDH: LDH-2 is raised in haemolytic anemia. (LDH-2 is mainly found in blood (Both WBC and RBC; WBC conc. > RBC conc.) | Biochemistry | Enzyme uses | Which of the following flipped pattern of LDH is seen in myocardial infarction:
A. LDH 1>2
B. LDH 2> 1
C. LDH 3>4
D. LDH 5> 4
| LDH 1>2 |
5fbb31e0-d613-4b22-8769-1886f13b5f35 | Functional anatomy of the liver is based on couinaud's division of liver into eight (subsequently nine) functional segments, based upon the distribution of poal venous branches and location of hepatic veins in the parenchyma Couinaud 1957 | Anatomy | G.I.T | The couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of the
A. Hepatic veins and poal vein
B. Hepatic veins and biliary ducts
C. Poal vein and biliary ducts
D. Poal vein and hepatic aery
| Hepatic veins and poal vein |
316ef201-16fd-464d-adcf-501b00d1fe7a | Roll over phenomenon:- it is seen in retro cochlear hearing loss . With increase in intensity above paicular level phonetically balanced score (PB score) falls rather than maintain a plateau as in cochlear type of sensineural hearing loss . | ENT | Ear | Rollover phenomenon in audiometry is seen in
A. Cochlear lesions
B. Retro-cochlear lesions
C. Lesion in inferior colliculus
D. Lesion in medial geniculate body
| Retro-cochlear lesions |
706d3bd8-7c74-4527-9be9-d4f73809b9cd | - asbestos enters the body by inhalation and fine dust may be deposited in the alveoli. - the dust deposited in the lungs causes pulmonary fibrosis leading to respiratory insufficiency and death. - it also causes mesothelioma of the pleura or peritoneum. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:807 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health | Diffuse mesothelioma is seen with -
A. Asbestos
B. Arsenic
C. Tobacco use
D. TB
| Asbestos |
6b832f26-ba8d-422a-8f34-f6e36704ad4f | Rhinosporidiosis -common in India, Srilanka .pt presents with multiple friable polyps in nose, mouth or eye. It is a chronic granulomatous disease Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 552 | Microbiology | mycology | A 42 yr old male from srilanka presented with multiple polyps in nose .the causative agent might be
A. Histoplasma
B. Rhinospiridium
C. Coccidiodes
D. Mucor
| Rhinospiridium |
795f366d-19f2-4725-b0d3-a4262ff688a2 | Waters view-
The image receptor is placed in front of the patient and perpendicular to the midsagittal plane. The patient’s head is tilted upward so that the canthomeatal line forms a 37-degree angle with the image receptor. If the patient’s mouth is open, the sphenoid sinus is seen superimposed over the palate.
White and Pharoah, Oral radiology, ed 7th, pg-161 | Radiology | null | A 50 year old male patient complains of heaviness of face, headache and blocked nose. Patient gives history of chronic sinusitis. Waters view x-ray was taken. If the patient’s mouth is open during x-ray, the sphenoid sinus is seen superimposed over-
A. Nasal bone
B. Coronoid process
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Palate
| Palate |
16b739ad-e657-499d-9b15-0c83c65f9e2a | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyrogenic exotoxin . Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome ---> Pyrogenic exotoxin 'A' . Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome -Toxic shock Syndrome Toxin Type - 1 (TSST-1) also known as enterotoxin-F or Pyrogenic exotoxin C. Rarely enterotoxin B or C may also cause TSS. | Microbiology | null | Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is due to liberation of-
A. TSS - 1
B. Enterotoxin
C. Pyrogenic exotoxin
D. Endotoxin
| Pyrogenic exotoxin |
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