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Loss of heterozygosity associated with | Ref Robbins 9/e p292_293 familial case of retinoblastoma 1 defective and 1 normal gene at bih (heterozygous) second mutation causes both genes to be defective loss of heterozygosity Increased chances of cancer sporadic case of retinoblastoma both normal gene at bih _ homogeneous normal genes Both mutations occur somatic Ally within a single cell (homozygous abnormal genes ) increased chances of cancer | 155,200 | medmcqa_train |
JE virus life cycle in nature run between? | -Japanese encephalitis virus infect several extra human host, animals and birds. - The basic cycles of transmission are from pig to mosquito. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:285 <\p> | 155,201 | medmcqa_train |
Fever is due to: | Interleukin-1 | 155,202 | medmcqa_train |
Caseous necrosis is seen in? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Treponemal infection o Caseous necrosis is a feature of syphilis which is caused by tremonemal infection.Caseous necrosiso It is a variant of coagulative necrosis. It is most commonly encountered when cell death is attributable to certain organisms e.g., mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB), syphilis and fungi (Histoplasma, Coccidioidomycosis).o In contrast to coagulative necrosis where tissue architecture is maintained, in caseous necrosis, the tissue architecture is completely obliterated. So, it has been called caseous because of its cheesy white appearance of the area of necrosis. | 155,203 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a component of Reynolds' Pentad in toxic cholangitis? | Reynold's pentad of acute obstructive cholangitis(suppurative cholangitis) includes - persistent right upper quadrant pain,persistent fever,persistent jaundice,shock(toxicity) and altered mental status. Reference:SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:651. | 155,204 | medmcqa_train |
A 34 year old lady, Ruchi, with a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder was admitted to the medicine casualty with claims of consumption of some form of poison following an argument with her husband. She was reluctant to disclose the nature of the consumed substance. She was initially treated with stomach wash and IV fluids. She developed jaundice followed by ascites and encephalopathy after 1 week. What is the likely poison that is responsible for acute liver failure? | Ethylene glycol intoxication causes metabolic acidosis, cardiovascular dysfunction, and finally acute kidney failure. Zinc phosphide used for rat poisoning can cause fatal acute liver necrosis. This condition is not rare in India. Carbamate poisoning is like organophosphorous poisoning. | 155,205 | medmcqa_train |
The colour of bag used to dispose sharp wastes is: (2014 Feb REPEAT) | Ans: B > A (Blue white translucen > Red)Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 22nd edition, pg: 739Explanation:Colour Coding for Various Categories of Biomedical Wastes and Disposal MethodsColourCodingType of containerWaste categoryDisposalMethodYellowPlastic bag* Category 1: Human anatomical waste (Human tissues, organs, body parts etc)* Category 2: Animal waste (Animal tissues, organs, body fluids etc)* Category 3: Microbiology and Biotechnology waste (waste from lab, cultures, vaccines etc)* Category 6: Solid waste contaminated with blood and body fluids (cotton, dressing material etc)* Incineration* Deep burialRedDisinfected container.'' Plastic bag* Category 3: Microbiology and Biotechnology waste (waste from lab. cultures, vaccines etc)* Category 6 and 7: Alt Solid waste (Items contaminated with blood and body fluids, Disposable item wastes)* Autoclaving* Microwaving* Chemical treatmentBlue 1 White translucentPlastic bag/Puncture proof container* Category 4: Sharp wastes (needles, syringes, scalpel, blade etc)* Category 7: Solid waste from Disposable items (tubings, catheters, IV sets etc)* Autoclaving* Microwaving* Chemical treatment* ShreddingBlackPlastic bag* Category 5: Discarded medicines and Cytotoxic drugs* Category 9: Incineration Ash (Ash from any biomedical waste)* Category 10: Chemical used in disinfectants* Disposal in secured landfillNote:Recent amendment (2011) of the biomedical management rules says Red bin for Category 4 (sharps), but this amendment is yet to be implemented.Also, one of the options, blue white translucent is not there in new amendment. So, I assume the question was based on old BMM rules. So the best option is blue with white translucent.Main Features of the New Amendment:Scope of BMW rules extended to all health facilities (occupier) irrespective of number of patients attending.New rule says compulsory authorization from prescribed authority (CPCB) to start any new health facility is required with regard to its biomedical waste disposal plans. Earlier only facility which caters to more than 1000 patients per month was required to get authorization.There are only 8 categories (old 10 categories) (liquid waste and ash is removed, chemical waste is made as 8* category)New bins are yellow, red, blue and black.There is an overlapping of category 3 and 6 which can be put either red or yellow as per existing rule, but new amendment exclusively say 3 in red and 6 in yellow. Category 7 in overlap was there earlier, nut new rule says it should go to red bin.Sharps in red bin as per new rules.Black bin-general waste.New rules applies only to biomedical waste and not for other waste like radioactive and chemical waste.Note:Liquid waste generated from laboratory, washing, cleaning, house keeping and disinfecting activities shall be treated so as to meet the discharge standards stipulated under these rules.Incineration ash (Ash from incineration of any Biomedical waste) shall be disposed through secured landfill, if toxic or hazardous constituents are present beyond the prescribed limits as given in Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules (2008). | 155,206 | medmcqa_train |
The marker for B lymphocyte is: | Answer is A (CD19) : CD 19 is a marker fir B lymphocytes. Primarily B cell associated antigens include CD10 and CD19 to CD23 i.e. CD10, CD19, CD20, CD21, CD22, CD23 Primarily T cell associated antigens include CD1 to CD8 with the exception of CD6 i.e. C'D1, CD2, CD3, CD4, CD5, CD6, CD7, CD8. Primarily monocyte macrophage associated antigens CD13 to CD15 and CD33 i.e. CD13, CD14, CD15, CD33. Primarily NK cell associated antigens includeQ CD16 and CD56. (Do remember the antigens associated with NK cells. CD] 6 and CD56 being the primary ones, and also CD2 which is found expressed in a subset.Q) | 155,207 | medmcqa_train |
Cervical lymph node involvement in papillary ca thyroid, best treatment is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Radical neck dissection "Lymph node metastasis in the lateral neck in patients with papillary carcinma usually should be managed with modified radical or functional neck dissection." - Schwaz Though the option mentions 'Radical neck dissection', not 'modified radical neck dissection, it still is the best choice among given option. Also know Modified radical neck dissection is done in any type of thyroid cancer with palpable or involved cervical lymph nodes (cervical lymph nodes are frequently involved in Papillary, Medullary Huhle cell and anaplastic carcinomas) It can also be done prophylactically in medullary carcinoma when the thyroid lesion is larger than 1 cm. | 155,208 | medmcqa_train |
Latest drug used for treatment of MDR TB patients is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bedaquiline Bedaquiline* It is a diaryl quinolone.* It acts by inhibiting M. tuberculosis adenosine triphosphate synthase.* It demonstrates significant potency against M. tuberculosis infection, both drug susceptible and multidrug resistant strains as well as many other mycobacteria.* It has potential to shorten the duration of drug therapy for management M. tuberculosis infection.* It is associated with nausea, increased QT interval.* FT, has approved bedaquiline for the management of drug resistant tuberculosis with a black box warning, relating to possible cardiac toxicity and sudden death.Note:DELAMANID:* It is also a new agent derived from nitrodihydro-imidazooxazole class of compounds.* It inhibits mycolic acid synthesis, and has shown potent in vitro and invivo activity against both drug susceptible and drug resistant M. tuberculosis strains. | 155,209 | medmcqa_train |
This ECG is of a 23 year old medical student who complained of an irregular heabeat. Other than an irregular pulse, his hea was clinically normal. What does the ECG show? | The ECG shows a hea rate of 100/min with normal axis. P wave and PR interval are in normal limits. Wide complex qRS is noted in lead II, III indicating Ventricular extra-systoles or premature ventricular contractions. ST segment and QT interval are within normal limits. In young and asymptomatic individuals extra-systoles do not indicate any significant hea disease. | 155,210 | medmcqa_train |
Patient suffering from lesions over axilla, groin and trunk. Lesions show central clearing with surrounding papulovesicular margin progressively increasing at borders. Which will be the preferred investigation among the following? | Ans. b. 10% KOH mountExplanation: Central clearing is associated with tinea corporis (dermatophytic fungal infection). So, answer will be KOH mount. | 155,211 | medmcqa_train |
Biondi Ring Tangles (BRTs) are found in - | BRT are intracellular inclusion bodies found in choroidal epithelial cells of choroid plexus. It consists of a lipid droplet surrounded by a ring shaped bundle of filaments. | 155,212 | medmcqa_train |
Mass movements are often stimulated after a meal by distention of the stomach (gastrocolic reflex) and distention of the duodenum (duodenocolic reflex). Mass movements often lead to which of the following? | Mass movement is a modified type of peristalsis in the colon,propelling the fecal material in this segment en masse fuher down the colon and force feces into the rectum. When the walls of the rectum are stretched by the feces, the defecation reflex is initiated and a bowel movement follows when this is convenient. | 155,213 | medmcqa_train |
Hand-Foot-Mouth disease (HFMD) is caused by | Ans. d (Enterovirus-71) (Ref. Ananthanarayan, Microbiology, 8th/p. 491).Hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD), is a contagious enteroviral infection occurring primarily in children and characterized by a vesicular palmoplantar eruption and erosive stomatitis. It is caused by enterovirus-71 & coxsackie A5, 7, 9, 10, 16, Bl, 2, 5, with coxsackie A16 being the most common cause. Coxsackie viruses are typical enteroviruses. Enteroviruses are believed to spread via fecal-oral and perhaps respiratory routes.Coxsackie viruses also cause:# Herpangina# Aseptic meningitis# Bornholm disease (epidemic pleurodynia)# Myocarditis/ Pericarditis# Juvenile diabetes# Orchitis# Post viral fatigue synd. Educational PointsThe 72 Enteroviruses include:1 to 3 - 3 - Polio4 to 27 - 24 - Coxsackie A (Coxsackie A 23 is same as ECHO 9)28 to 33 - 6 - Coxsackie B34 to 67 - 34 - ECHO (ECHO 10 is Reo, ECHO 28 Rhino 1 A, ECHO 34 is Coxsackie A24)68 to 72 - 5 - Enterovirus 68 to 72 (Entero Virus 72 is Hepatitis A Virus) | 155,214 | medmcqa_train |
ORS new osmolarity is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 245 o Because of the improved effectiveness of reduced osmolarity ORS solution, WHO and UNICEF are recommending that countries manufacture and use the following formulation in place of the previously recommended ORS solution.Composition of reduced osmolarity ORSReduced osmolarity ORSgrams/litreSodium chlorideGlucose, anhydrousPotassium chlorideTrisodium citrate, dihydrateTotal weight2.613.51.52.920.5Reduced osmolarity ORSmmol/litreSodiumChlorideGlucose, anhydrousPotassiumCitrateTotal osmolarity7565752010245 | 155,215 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following pigments are involved in free radical injury - | Ans. is 'a' i.e. LipofuscinPigments are colored substances. Which may be : ?Endogenous pigmets --> Synthesized in the body itself.Exogenous pigments --> Coming from out side the body.Endogenous pigments LipofuscinIt is an insoluble pigment, also known as lipochrome and wear or tear or aging pigment.o Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.o Its impoance lies in being the tell-tale sign of free radical injury and lipid peroxidation.o It is seen in cells undergoing slow, regressive changes and is paicularly prominent in the liver and hea of aging patients or patients with severe malnutrition and cancer cachexia.o Lipofuscin is composed of polymers of lipids and phospholipids complexed with proteins, suggesting that it is derived through lipid peroxidation of polyunsaturated lipids of subcellular membranes.o On electron microscopy, the granules are highly electron dense, often have membranous structure in their midst and are usually in perinuclear location.o In tissue section it appears as yellow brown pigment.o Deposition of lipofuscin in the hea is referred as brown atrophy.Melanino It is an endogenous, non hemoglobin derived brown-black pigment.o Melanin is the only endogenous brown black pigment.HemosiderinIt is hemoglobin derived, golden yellow to brown, granular or crystalline pigment in which form iron is stored in cells.o When there is local or systemic excess of iron, ferritin forms hemosiderin granules.o Thus hemosiderin pigment represents aggregrates of ferritin micelles.o Under normal conditions small amounts of hemosiderin can be seen in the mononuclear phagocytes of the bone marrow, spleen and liver, all actively engaged in red cell breakdown.BilirubinIt is the normal major pigment found in bile.o It is derived from hemoglobin but contains no iron.o Its normal formation and excretion are vital to health and jaundice is a common clinical disorder caused by excesses of this pigment within cells and tissues.Exogenous Pigments Carbon or Coal dusto It is the most common exogenous pigment.o Accumulation of this pigment blacken the tissue of lung (anthrocosis) and lymph nodes.Tattoingo It is a form of localized pigmentation of the skin.o The pigments inoculated are phagocytosed by dermal macrophages, in which they resides for the remainder of the life. | 155,216 | medmcqa_train |
Millet seed like pattern is seen in | - Miliary Tuberculosis- Due to Hematogenous spread of infection - At first, the chest radiograph may be normal, but then small, discrete nodules, 1-2 mm in diameter, become apparent, evenly distributed throughout both lungs. - other causes of Miliary shadows seen on Chest X-ray: Tuberculosis Histoplasmosis Sarcoidosis Healed varicella | 155,217 | medmcqa_train |
Stool osmotic gap is calculated by using the formula: | Stool osmotic gap is calculated by using the formula : 2 x (stool + stool ) stool osmolality When it is >50, an osmotic gap is present, suggests diarrhea is due to a non absorbed dietary nutrient, e.g., a fatty acid and/or carbohydrate. When this difference is <25, a dietary nutrient is not responsible for the diarrhea. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2460. | 155,218 | medmcqa_train |
Sallick's manouvere is used for – | Sellick's manoeuvre is the application of back-ward pressure on cricoid cartilage to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and its leaking into respiratory tract. | 155,219 | medmcqa_train |
Bacitracin sensitivity is used to differentiate - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Group A streptococcus from other Beta hymolytic streptococci o Lets discuss each option one by oneStaphylococci and streptococci are differentiated by catalase test.Bacitracin sensitivity is used to differentiate streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus) from other beta hemolytic streptococci.Alpha hemolytic and Gamma hemolytic streptococci are differentiated from Beta hemolytic streptocci, on the basis ofhemolysis.Following flow chart will help in the diagnosis of gram (+)ve cocci. | 155,220 | medmcqa_train |
Candle wax dripping sign is seen in | Answer- A. SarcoidosisCondle wax chipping sign is a feature of occular Sarcoidosis. | 155,221 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for essential tremors | Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed pg no:189 Nonselective beta blockers are used for essential tremors they occur due to contraction of skeletal muscles (beta 2 receptors) cardioselective beta blockers are not useful | 155,222 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest site of herpes Gestationis is? | A. i.e. Periumblical region Spontaneous remissions & recurrences are very common in herpes gestationis which typically presents with abrupt onset, intensily pruritic uicarial lesions mostly on abdomen, often periumblical during late pregnancyQ. | 155,223 | medmcqa_train |
Galantamine is used in? | Ans. (a) Alzheimer's diseaseRef: Goodman & Gillman llthed /. 132 | 155,224 | medmcqa_train |
Delusional belief that one is dead called | Cotard delusion delusion that he is dead. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 359 | 155,225 | medmcqa_train |
An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, except - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autosomal dominant disorder In Autosomal dominant disorders individuals are affected in successive generations. The disease does not occur in the offspring of unaffected individuals' ? Autosomal dominant o If both parents are normal, the disease cannot be autosomal dominant because it is manifested in Heterozygous state, So, even a single gene affection amongst the allel will cause the disease to be manifested. To be normal, a person should have normal copy of both allel. If both parents are normal, that means there is no abnormal gene. Autosomal recessive o In autosomal recessive disorder, if both parents are carrier (phenotypically normal) 25% of child will develop disease. Polygenic disorder o A trait is called `polygenic' if multiple genes on thought to contribute to the phenotype. o Polygenic disorders include Hypeension Diabetes, Asthma o A male infant with asthma or diabetes may will be born to normal parents Veically transmitted disorder o Passage of disease causing agent (pathogen) `veically' from mother to baby during the perinatal period is called 'veical transmission'. o A veically transmitted agent might lie dormant in the mother and not manifest in her clinically (normal mother) but may manifest in the child. | 155,226 | medmcqa_train |
Opening of the nasolacrimal duct is in | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Inferior meatus Openings in the lateral wall of nasal cavity *Inferior meatus : Nasolacrimal duct*Middle meatus : Anterior ethmoidal sinus*Frontal sinus*Maxillary sinus*Superior meatus : Posterior ethmoidal sinuses*Sphenoethmoidal recess : Sphenoid sinus*Note: that the nasolacrimal duct opens into the inferior meatus but if its blocked and a DCR (Dacryocystorhinostomy) operation is performed the new opening is in the middle meatus* | 155,227 | medmcqa_train |
Management for CSF rhinorhoea is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Antibiotics and observation "Early cases of post-traumatic CSF rhinorrhoea are managed conservatively by placing the pt. in the semisitting position, avoiding blowing of nose, sneezing and straining. Prophylactic antibiotics are also administered to prevent meningitis." - Dhingrao Traumatic rhinorrhea often stops spontaneously. Conservative treatment consists of 1-2 weeks trial of-i) Subarachnoid drainage through a lumbar catheter, ii) Strict bed rest, iii) Head elevation, iv) Stool softeners, v) Advising patient to avoid coughing, sneezing, nose blowing, and straining, vi) Prophylactic antibiotics, o Surgical repair is generally advocated in patients with large fistulae especially in the presence of pneumocephalus. | 155,228 | medmcqa_train |
Seen in trachoma | In trachoma there is both follicular and papillary reaction papillary hyperophy follicles pannus formation Herbe pits ropy discharge all are seen in trachoma Khurana 6th edition page number 65 | 155,229 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is more prone to produce mesothelioma? | Ans: b (Crocidolite) Ref: Davidson, 20th ed, p. 72; 19th ed, p. 573Crocidolite is the most potent cause of mesotheliomaTypes of Asbestos:Serpentine (curly and flexible fibres) e.g., chrysoliteAmphibole (straight stiff and brittle) e.g., crocidolite.Amphiboles are more pathogenic than chrysoliteThe greater pathogenicity of amphibole is apparently related to their aerodymanic properties and solubility. The straight stiff amphiboles may align themselves in the airstream and are delivered to the deeper long tissues, where they can penetrate epithelial cells and reach interstitium.AsbestosisCaused by chrysolite, amosite, anthophyllite and crocidolite. Crocidolite or blue asbestos exposure is the most dangerous. Length of amphibole also plays a role in pathogenicity, those longer than 8 micrometer and thinner than 0.5 micrometer being more injurious than shorter thicker ones.Occupational exposure in - mining, milling, pipe fitters and boiler makersPathologyDiffuse interstitial fibrosis is mainly seen in the lower lobe.Asbestos bodies - Golden brown, fusiform or beaded rods (ferruginous) with translucent centre with asbestos fibres coated with an iron containing proteinacious material.Asbestos exposure causes pulmonary fibrosis (asbestosis) and carcinoma of lung, pleura (mesothelioma) and peritoneum.Atleast 10 years of exposure is needed for Asbestosis to manifest.But the disease may manifest many years after leaving the exposure site (similar to silica and coal)Lung cancer in asbestos exposure is associated with a minimum lapse of 15-19 years between first exposure and development of the disease.Mesothelioma is not associated with smoking (i.e., smoking does not increase the risk of mesothelioma in asbestos exposure)Radiological featuresCalcification of parietal pleura along the lower lung field, the diaphragm and the cardiac border.Ground glass appearance of the lung fields may be seen. | 155,230 | medmcqa_train |
All show iceberg phenomenon except ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chicken pox In some disease, a great deal of subclinical infection occurs ? i) Rubella iii) Polio v) Japanese encephalitis vii) Influenza ii) Mumps iv) Hepatitis A and B vi) Diphtheria In chickenpox -Inapparent infection is estimated to occur in no more than 5% of susceptible children". | 155,231 | medmcqa_train |
External cephalic version is contraindicated in all except: | Breech | 155,232 | medmcqa_train |
Short acting anti-histamine is: | Ans: B (Promethazine) Ref: Goodman & Gilman s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12th ed, 2011, Pg 921-922.Explanation:Hydroxyzine, is a long acting first generation antihistamine used in the treatment of skin allergies. It acts for a duration of 6-24 hrs.Cetirizine a second generation antihistamine acts for 12-24 hrs.Acrivastine belongs to second generation antihistamine and acts for a duration of 6-8 hrs.Promethazine, a first generation antihistamine acts for a duration of 4-6 hrs.Among the first generation antihistamines longer acting drugs include doxepin (6-24 hrs), chlorpheniramine (24 hrs) and meclizine (12-24 hrs ). Of the 2nd generation antihistamines longer acting drugs are cetirizine (12-24 hrs). levocetirizine (12-24 hrs), azelastine (12-24 hrs). loratadine (24 hrs). desloratadine (24 hrs). ebastine (24 hrs), mizolastine (24 hrs), and fexofenadine (12-24 hrs). | 155,233 | medmcqa_train |
Sensory nerve supply to angle of jaw is through | The trigeminal nerve through its three branches is the chief sensory nerve of the face. The skin over the angle of the jaw and over the parotid gland is supplied by the great auricular nerve (C2,C3) | 155,234 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of rolandic epilepsy is: | Paial idiopathic epilepsy with rolandic spikes Also called benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes They are seizures while falling asleep or on awakening Focal sharp waves in centrotemporal location are seen on EEG. Carbamazepine is the most frequently used 1st line drug, but valproate, phenytoin, gabapentin and levetiracetam have been found effective as well. | 155,235 | medmcqa_train |
Investigations in a clinically suspected case of tuberculosis | The diagnostic procedures in a clinically suspected case of TB include AFB microscopy of sputum using Ziehl-Neelsen basic fuschsin stain;Mycobacterium culture using Lowenstein-Jensen or Middlebrook medium;nucleic acid amplifications using PCR,BACTEC;radiographic procedures like chest X ray with classic picture of upper-lobe disease with infiltrates & cavities,CT;Tuberculin skin testing with purified protein derivative which is a screening for latent M.tuberculosis infection Reference:Harrison's Medicine-18th edition,page no:1350,1351. | 155,236 | medmcqa_train |
Urea,Creatine and Nitric oxide are synthesized from? | AMINO ACID DERIVED PRODUCTS Phenyl alanine Tyrosine->Melanin,Dopa,Dopamine,Norepinephrine,Epinephrine Tryptophan Niacin,Seratonin->Melatonin Histidine Carnosine,Histamine,Anserine Glycine Heme Glutamate GABA,Glutathione Arginine Urea,creatine,Nitric oxide Serine Ethanolamine,choline Lysine cadaverine Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition | 155,237 | medmcqa_train |
In well fed state gluconeogenesis in liver is inhibited by | C i.e. ADP level | 155,238 | medmcqa_train |
F factor integrates with bacterial chromosome to form - | Factor: The F factor is the transfer factor that contains the genetic information necessary for the synthesis of sex pilus and for self-transfer but is devoid of other identifiable genetic markers such as drug resistance. Cells carrying the F factor have no distinguishing feature other than their ability to mate with F - cells and render them F+. he F factor is actually an episode and has the ability to exist in some cells in the integrated data or inseed into the host chromosome. Such cells are able to transfer the chromosomal gene to recipient cells with high frequency and are known as Hfr cells. following conjugation with an Hfr cell an F- only rarely becomes F+ though it receives chromosomal genes from the donors. REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:65 | 155,239 | medmcqa_train |
The most specific antibody for Rheumatoid ahritis is? | Anti-CCP is the most specific antibody for rheumatoid ahritis with specificity of 95%. 20% patients have elevated ANA and ESR. CRP levels are elevated propoional to disease activity. | 155,240 | medmcqa_train |
Hand and foot syndrome is seen with: | Ans. A. 5- fluorouracilHand and land foot syndrome is peculiar feature of 5- fluorouracil. Bleomycin is known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, Etoposide cause alopecia and GIT disturbances. Doxorubicin is highly cardiotoxic drug. | 155,241 | medmcqa_train |
During rape on a virgin, rupture of hymen occurs at the following degree: | Tearing of hymen in a virgin during rape usually occurs posteriorly at the sides, in the 4 or 8 O'clock position, or in the middle line of the hymen. More than two tears are unusual. Tears usually occur in the posterior midline of the hymen because the hymen lies suspended across a potential space, whereas anteriorly the periurethral tissues buttress the hymen. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by K S Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 356. | 155,242 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements about hematochromatosis is not true | Ans. is'd' i.e., Desferrioxamine is treatment of choice | 155,243 | medmcqa_train |
Lifespan of fetal RBC is- | Ans. (d) 2/3 of adult RBCRef: Ganong, 25th ed/p.555Life span of fetal RBCs is 60 to 90 days. It is about 2/3rd of adult RBCs life span | 155,244 | medmcqa_train |
Reed Sternberg cells are: | Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells are the malignant cells in Hodgkin Lymphoma which is a malignancy of germinal center mature B lymphocytes. These are large cells with abundant cytoplasm with bilobed and/or multiple nuclei These comprise less than 1% of the cellular infiltrate in the lymphoma tissue. | 155,245 | medmcqa_train |
Danger space of pharynx is bounded by | Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-268 | 155,246 | medmcqa_train |
What is the name of the procedure shown here, used to resolve head entrapment? | Ans. C. Duhrssen's incisionsIncising the cervix - Duhrssen's incisionsa. If the head fails to deliver despite additional manoeuvres, then consideration should be made for performing cervical incisions. These are known as Duhrssen's incisions.b. Cervical incisions should be made a 2 'o clock and 10 'o clock to avoid lateral extension of the incision involving the descending cervical vessels. An additional incision at 6 'o clock position is rarely needed.c. The main difficulties when performing cervical incisions for head entrapment at breech delivery are achieving adequate analgesia and exposure. There is a significant risk of haemorrhage, the cervical incision may extend upwards within the broad ligament causing broad ligament haematoma. | 155,247 | medmcqa_train |
Corneal transparency is maintained by: | The primary mechanism controlling stromal hydration is a function of the corneal endothelium which actively pumps out theelectrolytes and water flows out passively. Endothelium consists of a single layer of flat polygonal (mainly hexagonal) epithelial cells (misnamed as endothelium) which on slit-lamp biomicroscopy appear as a mosaic. | 155,248 | medmcqa_train |
A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of - | Chronic myelogenous (or myeloid or myelocytic) leukemia (CML), also known as chronic granulocytic leukemia (CGL), is a cancer of the white blood cells. It is a form of leukemia characterized by the increased and unregulated growth of predominantly myeloid cells in the bone marrow and the accumulation of these cells in the blood. CML is a clonal bone marrow stem cell disorder in which a proliferation of mature granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils) and their precursors is found. It is a type of myeloproliferative disease associated with a characteristic chromosomal translocation called the Philadelphia chromosome. CML is now largely treated with targeted drugs called tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) which have led to dramatically improved long-term survival rates since the introduction of the first such agent in 2001. These drugs have revolutionized treatment of this disease and allow most patients to have a good quality of life when compared to the former chemotherapy drugs. In Western countries, CML accounts for 15-25% of all adult leukemias and 14% of leukemias overall (including the pediatric population, where CML is less common | 155,249 | medmcqa_train |
"White centered retinal haemmorrhage" is seen in | (D) All of the above # White centered superficial retinal hemorrhages (Roth's Spots) or Haemorrhagic cotton-wool spot:> First described by Roth's in 1872, thought to be pathognomonic for subacute bacterial endocarditis.> Etiology as per Roth Suggestion: Focal abscess from bacterial emboli lead to erosion of the capillary endothelium and resultant retinal haemorrhage which is then filled with RBC and WBC.> Other possibilities are: ; Coagulated albuminous material; Necrotic nerve structures. ; Cytoid bodies ; Focal nerve fibre layer infarcts ; Antigen-antibody complexes ; Fibrin and platelet deposits, Central clearing of previous hemorrhageROTH'S SPOTS DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSISInfectionsNon-Infections* Bacterial endocarditisLeukemias* Septicemia (bacterial or fungalAnemias* HIV retinitisMultiple myelomas* CMV retinitisDiabetic retinopathy* ToxoplasmosisHypertensive retinopathy* RetinochoroditisCRVO/BRVO* TB retinal vasculitisSarcoidosis Vasculitis* Sypilitic retinitisRadiation retinopathy Shakon Bay syndrome* Viral pneumoniaPurtscher's retinopathy* Candida albicansLupus retinopathy; Retinal phlebitis | 155,250 | medmcqa_train |
Sodium 2-mercapto ethane sulfonate (mesna) is used as a protective agent in - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cancer chemotherapy o Mesna is used to block the cystitis caused by Cyclophosphamide and Ifophosphamide. o Note -- Acetylcysteine can also be used for this purpose. Folinic acid AllopurinolLithium carbonate Ondensetron Other drugs used for toxicity amelioration in cancer therapy For preventing methotrexate toxicity To prevent hyperuricemia caused by rapid destruction of cells during cancer chemotherapy It has stimulant effect on bone marrow, so used during myelosuppresive drug therapy. For controlling cytotoxic drug induced vomiting. | 155,251 | medmcqa_train |
Tinel's sign is: | Procedure
Patient is seated, elbow in flexion.
Evaluator grasps wrist and taps the ulnar notch with reflex hammer.
Positive Test
Athlete complains of tingling sensation along forearm hand and fingers.
Indicates ulnar nerve compromise. | 155,252 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following statements about parvovirus B - 9 are true except: | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Crosses placenta in only < 10% of cases (Ref: Jawetz, 24th/e, p. 414, 417)* Maternal infection with B19 virus may pose a serious risk to the fetus, resulting in hydrops fetalis and fetal death due to severe anemia. Fetal loss occurs in fewer than 10% of primary maternal infections and death occurs most commonly before the 20th week of pregnancy. Although there is frequent intrauterine transmission of human parvovirus (with estimates of vertical transmission rates of 30% or higher). | 155,253 | medmcqa_train |
Neovascular glaucoma is caused by: | Ans. D: All of the above Although NVG primarily effects the front pa of the eye (anterior chamber), its cause usually is associated with a lack of oxygen to the retina in the posterior region (vitreous chamber). The technical term for this lack of oxygen is retinal hypoxia. Conditions leading to retinal hypoxia include diabetic retinopathy and central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO). These two diseases account for about two-thirds of all NVG cases. The predisposing condition for diabetic retinopathy obviously is diabetes. With respect to CRVO, predisposing conditions include elevated intraocular pressure and systemic hypeension (high blood pressure). The remaining one-third of NVG cases has less-common causes. Among these are: Central retinal aery occlusion (CRAO) Carotid aery obstructive disease Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment (a tear in the retina with fluid accumulating underneath that can fuher separate the pigment layer from other layers). Choroidal melanoma beneath a retinal detachment. Sickle-cell retinopathy Carotid-cavernous fistula A causative condition for NVG that is not associated with retinal hypoxia, is chronic anterior uveitis (irritation of the middle layer of the eye). | 155,254 | medmcqa_train |
The repolarization phase of an action potential is due to | There is a decrease in sodium permeability (inactivation of the sodium channels) and a delayed increased in potassium permeability during the repolarization phase of the action potential. The pump plays no direct role in the action potential. | 155,255 | medmcqa_train |
Duret hemorrhages are found in: PGI 08,10,11; Kerala 11 | Ans. Brain | 155,256 | medmcqa_train |
Investigstions in a clinically suspected case of | standard dose of 5 tuberculin units (TU - 0.1 ml), according to the CDC, or 2 TU of Statens Serum Institute (SSI) tuberculin 23 in 0.1 ml solution, according to the NHS, is injected intradermally (between the layers of dermis) and read 48 to 72 hours later. This intradermal injection is termed the Mantoux technique. A person who has been exposed to the bacteria is expected to mount an immune response in the skin containing the bacterial proteins. The reaction is read by measuring the diameter of induration (palpable raised, hardened area) across the forearm (perpendicular to the long axis) in millimeters. If there is no induration, the result should be recorded as "0 mm". Erythema (redness) should not be measured. A positive result indicates TB exposure. 5 mm or more is positive in An HIV-positive person Persons with recent contacts with a TB patient Persons with nodular or fibrotic changes on chest X-ray consistent with old healed TB Patients with organ transplants, and other immunosuppressed patients 10 mm or more is positive in Recent arrivals (less than five years) from high-prevalence countries Injection drug users Residents and employees of high-risk congregate settings (e.g., prisons, nursing homes, hospitals, homeless shelters, etc.) Mycobacteriology lab personnel Persons with clinical conditions that place them at high risk (e.g., diabetes, prolonged coicosteroid therapy, leukemia, end-stage renal disease, chronic malabsorption syndromes, low body weight, etc.) Children less than four years of age, or children and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories 15 mm or more is positive in Persons with no known risk factors for TB A tuberculin test conversion is defined as an increase of 10 mm or more within a two-years period, regardless of age. Alternative criteria include increases of 6, 12, 15 or 18 mm Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1011 | 155,257 | medmcqa_train |
Renal TB mode of infection | Answer- C. HematogenousGenitourinary tuberculosis is always secondary to pulmonary infection, though in many cases, the primary focus has healed or is quiescent.Infection occurs the hematogenous route | 155,258 | medmcqa_train |
Gut tube develops from which germ layer? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Endoderm * The gut is endodermal in origin and is derived from yolk sac. | 155,259 | medmcqa_train |
Adverse effects of insulin include all of the following except: | Hypoglycemia is the most frequent and potentially the most serious relationship of insulin therapy. Some patients develop sho lived dependent edema. Lipodystrophy occur at the site of injection after a long time. weight gain can occur due to insulin not weight loss (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 262) | 155,260 | medmcqa_train |
A 29 year old man with ruptured appendix is sent to the emergency depament for surgery. To cut off the blood supply to the appendix (if collateral circulation is discounted), a surgeon should ligate which of the following aeries? | * Appendix is supplied by appendicular aery which is branch of ileocolic aery * Middle colic and right colic supply ascending colon and transverse colon 2/3 * Left colic supplies transverse colon 1/3 and descending colon and sigmoid colon. | 155,261 | medmcqa_train |
A patient presents with diplopia. O/E adduction deficit is seen in one eye and abducting saccades in the other eye. Convergence is preserved. What is the likely diagnosis? | Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO): defect of horizontal gaze, caused due to lesion in medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF). MLF connects 6th nerve nucleus to 3rd nerve nucleus of the opposite side. Thus, in INO, during lateral gaze these features are seen:* The adducting eye fails to move because 3rd nerve nucleus does not receive any input* The abducting eye moves laterally but suffers from abducting saccades* Convergence is normal as the pathway for convergence is completely different. The pathway for horizontal gaze may be summarized as: PPRF | 6th nerve nucleus of same side |MLF 3rd nerve nucleus of opposite side. Duane retraction syndrome (DRS): restrictive type of strabismus, co-contraction of medial and lateral rectus muscles due to anomalous innervation of one of extra ocular muscle antagonists during embryo-genesis | 155,262 | medmcqa_train |
The site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is | C i.e. Mammilary body | 155,263 | medmcqa_train |
Prehn sign is positive in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute epidydimoorchitis Prehn's sign on elevation of testis the:* pain is not relieved in torsion (test is negative)* pain relieved in epidydimoorchitis (test is positive) | 155,264 | medmcqa_train |
If carbamazepine is added to valproate, which side effect of valproate can increase? | Valproate is metabolized by cytochrome P450 and produce a metabolite which is hepatotoxic Carbamazepine is enzyme inducer which cause the induction of its metabolism and produce more metabolite, thus causing hepatotoxicity | 155,265 | medmcqa_train |
Anaesthetic agent used in ECT is: | Methohexital is most commonly used as an anesthetic agent because of its shoer duration of action and lower association with postictal arrhythmias. | 155,266 | medmcqa_train |
Pituitary tumor most responsive to medical therapy is- | For prolactinoma dopamine agonist are the treatment of choice Ref - ( Harrison 17 pg 2204) | 155,267 | medmcqa_train |
Which end product of the citric acid cycle is used in detoxification of ammonia in the brain | First read the reaction by which ammonia is detoxified in the brain. | 155,268 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are true regarding Crohn's disease except? | In Crohn's disease, the inflammation can be in multiple patches or one large patch,and may involve any area through out the entire digestive tract, often affecting the last pa of the small intestine (terminal ileum). | 155,269 | medmcqa_train |
Leptospirosis is transmitted by - | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Rat Transmission of leptospireso Leptospirosis has been associated writh three lR's.1. Rats-# Rodents, especially rats, are the most important reservoir.2. Rice fields-# Farm workers represent the group at highest risk - Green wrood 1 b'Ve 356 # Certain occupational groups such as agricultural workers in rice or cane fields, miners and sewer cleaners are more often exposed to infection. - Ananthanarayan 7th/e 3923. Rain-Heavy rains are likely to have increased level of leptospiral contamination in the water, thus increase the chances of transmission as human are infected by contaminated water.o Leptospirosis is the most widespread zoonoses.o Transmission of leptospires may follow' direct contact with urine, blood or tissue from an infected animal.o When people come into contact with water which is contaminated by infected urine of animal carriers, the leptospires enter the body through abraded skin or intact mucous membranes, especially the conjuctiva and the lining of the oro and nasopharynx.o Drinking of contaminated water may introduce leptospires through the mouth, throat, or esophagus.o High risk groups are -# Farmworker# Workers in fishing industries# Veterinarians# Sewage worker# Slaughterhouse employees# Coal - miner | 155,270 | medmcqa_train |
True about non-competitive inhibition is | Km V max Competitive | - Non-Competitive - | UN Competitive | | | 155,271 | medmcqa_train |
The police brought a person from railway platform. He was talking irrelevant, had dry mouth with hot dry skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. Most probable diagnosis is: WB 07 | Ans. Dhatura poisoning | 155,272 | medmcqa_train |
The normal cellular counterpas of oncogenes are impoant for the following functions, except ? | o Normal cellular counterpa of oncogene is protooncogene.o The functions of protooncogene is to code forGrowth factorsGrowth factor receptorsProteins involved in signal transductionNeuclear regulatory proteins (transcription factors)Cyclins/CDKso All these lead to cell proliferation and progression of cell cycle.o When any of these protooncogenes becomes oncogene by mutation / overexpression, there is uncontrolled proliferation of cell and development of cancer.This proliferation is autonomous, i.e. without physiological stimulus. | 155,273 | medmcqa_train |
An infant, seen in the Emergency room, presents with the fever and persistent cough. Physical examination and a chest X-ray suggest pneumonia. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this infection? | Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the most impoant cause of pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants. The infection is localized to the respiratory tract. The virus can be detected rapidly by immunofluorescence on smears of respiratory epithelium. In older children, the infection resembles the common cold. Aerosolized ribavirin is recommended for severely ill hospitalized infants. Rotavirus causes diarrhea. Coxsackievirus causes hand, foot, and, mouth disease. | 155,274 | medmcqa_train |
Obscuration of left hea border is suggestive of | Silhouette sign : Obscuration of a mediastinal border occurs by a pathology which is in close anatomical contact with it Obscuration of Rt Hea Border Rt Middle Lobe Pathology Obscuration of Left Hea Border Lingular Pathology Obscuration Of Aoic Knuckle Left Apicoposterior pathology Obscuration of Hemidiaphgrams Lower lobe pathologies | 155,275 | medmcqa_train |
What is the most common position of appendix? | Retrocecal is the most common position of the appendix. Positions of appendix: Retrocecal: 74% Subcecal: 1.5% Pelvic: 21% ref : BD chaurasia 21st ed. Post-ileal: 0.5% Pre-ileal/retro-ileal: 1% | 155,276 | medmcqa_train |
Obstruction in pulmonary stenosis may occur at the following sites ___________ | In PS obstruction can be supravalvular,valvular, subvalvular. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics eighth edition, p.no:433 | 155,277 | medmcqa_train |
True about shunt vessels: | Play a role in thermoregulation Cutaneous shunt vessels have a role in thermoregulation The cutaneous microcirculation can be divided into thermoregulatory shunt vessels and nutritive skin capillaries. These shunt vessels have impoant role in thermoregulation. Nutritive function is performed by skin capillaries and not by shunt vessels. Cutaneous shunt vessels are under the control of Autonomic nervous system Like all other vessels, cutaneous shunt vessels also receive a sympathetic innervations. Cutaneous shunt vessels are not evenly distributed throughout the skin Rich A-V anastomoses are .found in. fingers, toes, ear lobules and nose. | 155,278 | medmcqa_train |
Radiation dose in mammography | Mammography Soft tissue radiographs are taken by placing the breast in direct contact with ultrasensitive film and exposing it to low-voltage, high-amperage x-rays. The dose of radiation is approximately 0.1 cGy and, therefore, mammography is a very safe investigation. The sensitivity of this investigation increases with age as the breast becomes less dense. In total, 5% of breast cancers are missed by population-based mammographic screening programmes; even in retrospect, such carcinomas are not apparent. Thus, a normal mammogram does not exclude the presence of carcinoma. Digital mammography is being introduced, which allows manipulation of the images and computer-aided diagnosis. Tomo-mammography is also being assessed as a more sensitive diagnostic modality. Ref:Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :861 | 155,279 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of gas gangrene ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CI welchii Most common cause of gas gangrene is Cl perfringens (Cl welchii) causing 80% of cases of gas gangrene. Other causes are Cl septicum, Cl novyi and Cl histolyticum. | 155,280 | medmcqa_train |
A case of murder with gunshot is repoed. A metal bullet is recovered from the body. Primary and Secondary markings on a metal bullet can be used for | A i.e. Identification of weapon - Primary markings (class characteristics) and secondary markings (metallic fouling, individual or accidental characteristics) on a bullet can be used for identification of weaponQ. - Bullet is picked up with handsQ. Gunshot residue on hands can be detected by Dermal nitrate testQ. | 155,281 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with leprosy had slightly erythematous, anesthetic plaques on the trunk and upper limbs. He was treated with paucibacillary multidrug therapy (PB-MDT) for 6 months. At the end of 6 months, he had persistent erythema and induration in the plaque. The next step of action recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO) in such a patient is | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Stop antileprosy treatment o WHO recommends that "In paucibacillary leprosy, the multidrug therapy is stopped after 6 months of treatment regardless of the presence of clinically active disease". o According to Indian leprologists "The t/t with both Rifampicin and dapsone must be continued till all signs of activity have been subsided". o It is believed that these patients are viually always cleared of ble bacteria in 6 months with the WHO-MDT regime. o Therefore the attainment of clinical inactivity should not be the condition guiding the continuation of multidrug therapy in paucibacillary leprosy. o The lesions may be present but they will be cleared of all the organisms. o The clinical activity dos not correlate with bacterial multiplication. o Incidence of relapse in paucibacillary patients is very low and follow up studies in paucibacillary patients demonstrates that complete clearing of lesions takes 1-2 years after t/t discontinuation. | 155,282 | medmcqa_train |
The most common complication of hypermature sclerotic cataract is: | A i.e. Dislocation of lens | 155,283 | medmcqa_train |
Opsoclonus is associated with - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neuroblastoma o Opsolonus is seen primarily in Neuroblastoma.o Neuroblastoma is embryonal cancer of peripheral sympathetic nervous system,o Thirst most common childhood cancer (lst - leukemia, 2nd - Brain tumor),o MC diagnosed neoplasm in infancy.o Arises in abdomen either in adrenal gland or retroperitoneal sympathetic ganglion,o Superior cervical ganglion involvement produce Horner syndrome,o Can present as Paraneoplastic as ataxia or opsomvoclonus.o Optoclonus also seen sometimes in encephalitis. | 155,284 | medmcqa_train |
Kala-azar is found in all endemic areas, except: | Ans. d. AssamRef: Parks Text book of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th Ed; Page No-322Kala-azar caused by Leishmania donovani; transmitted by female phlebotomine sandfly.It is endemic in 54 districts of Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh.Incubation period 1-4 months3 types of leishmaniasisVisceral leishmaniasisCutaneous leishmaniasisMucocutaneous leishmaniasis | 155,285 | medmcqa_train |
AGN is diagn osed by - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., RBC cast R.B.C. Castso In a normal healthy person, no casts are seen in low power fields Q.o An urinary sediment is microscopically examined under both the low power field and high power field.o Low power field is used to detect castsr while high power field is used to detect RBC's, WBC's and bacterias.Reference valueRBCsQ-0-3/(high power field)RBC castQ-0/ LPF (Low power field)o RBC casts indicate acute inflammatory or vascular disorder in the glomerulus and are found in:Glomerulonephritis QRenal infarction QLupus nephritis QGoodpasteur s syndromeQSevere pyelonephritis QCongestive heart failureRenal vein thrombosisAcute bacterial endocarditisMalignant hypertensionPeriarteritis nodosa | 155,286 | medmcqa_train |
Diene’s method is used for : | • Colonies of mycoplasma are typically biphasic, with a fried egg appearance.
• Colonies are best studied after staining by Dienes method . | 155,287 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following psychotherapy are used to treat anxiety disorder except | Sensate focus therapy is used to treat premature ejaculation. | 155,288 | medmcqa_train |
Punishment for criminal aboion for the women who gives consent and the performer are covered under IPC section ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 312 Punishment for performing criminal aboion with the consent of women; both for the women and performer is included in IPC Section 312. | 155,289 | medmcqa_train |
In a case of endometrial cancer, if metastasis is seen in the vagina, what FIGO stage it would be : | Stage IV a | 155,290 | medmcqa_train |
Breast CA with best prognosis | Ans. (a) Mucinous(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 1064-65)*Histological type: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type; NST) carries poor prognosis.*Tubular, mucinous, lobular, papillary, adenoid cystic has better prognosis#Metaplastic carcinoma or micro-papillary carcinoma have a poorer prognosis QRemember mucinous > lobular | 155,291 | medmcqa_train |
In a case of Plasmodium falciparum malaria, the peripheral blood smear does not demonstrate trophozoites and schizonts. The reason for this is: | -Plasmodium falciparum is associated with infected red cells expressing PfEMP (Plasmodium falciparum erythrocyte membrane protein) leading to their attachment to the endothelial cells. -This leads to sequestration of infected red cells in the capillaries. -That's the reason for the non-appearance of trophozoites and schizonts in the peripheral blood smear. | 155,292 | medmcqa_train |
Intelligence quotient is calculated as: | Ans. A. Mental age/ Chronological age x100An intelligence quotient (IQ) is a total score derived from several standardized tests designed to assess human intelligence. The intelligence quotientIntelligence quotient (IQ) refers to mental age (MA) expressed as a ratio of chronological age (CA) multiplied by 100. Intellect comprises perception, memory, recognition, conceptualization, convergent and divergent reasoning, verbal ability and motor competence. . There are various intelligence tests that have been devised. Few of them are Phataak adaptation of Bayley scale, Kulshrestha adaptation of Standford Binet test. | 155,293 | medmcqa_train |
Killer cells & helper cells are pa of - | The category of effector T cell is a broad one that includes various T cell types that actively respond to a stimulus, such as co-stimulation. This includes helper, killer, regulatory, and potentially other T cell types. Reff: Ananthanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg: 135 | 155,294 | medmcqa_train |
D-dimer is the sensitive diagnostic test for | The sensitivity of the d-dimer is >80% for DVT (including isolated calf DVT) and >95% for PE. The d-dimer is less sensitive for DVT than for PE because the DVT thrombus size is smaller.A normal d-dimer is a useful "rule out" test. However, the d-dimer assay is not specific. Levels increase in patients with myocardial infarction, pneumonia, sepsis, cancer, and the postoperative state and those in the second or third trimester of pregnancy.Ref: Harrison's 19e pg: 1632 | 155,295 | medmcqa_train |
TRUE regarding carcinoid of appendix is | Carcinoid tumours arise in argentaffin tissue (Kulchitsky cells of the crypts of Lieberkuhn) and are most common in the vermiform appendix.The tumour can occur in any pa of the appendix, but it is frequently found in the distal third.Unlike carcinoid tumours arising in other pas of the intestinal tract, carcinoid tumour of the appendix rarely gives rise to metastases. Appendicectomy has been shown to be sufficient treatment. Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1217 | 155,296 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is the most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis? | Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (MG) History:--diplopia, ptosis, weakness, fluctuation, and fatigue, worse with activity, improved by rest Physical examination:--ptosis, diplopia, motor power survey--quantitative testing of muscle strength, forward arm abduction time (5 min), vital capacity, the absence of other neurologic signs. Laboratory testing:--anti-AChR radioimmunoassay--85% positive in generalized MG, 50% in ocular MG, the definite diagnosis of positive; negative results do not exclude MG, 40% of AChR antibody-negative patients with generalized MG have anti-muscle antibodies. Repetitive nerve stimulation, the decrement of>15% at 3Hz: highly probable. Single fiber electromyography: blocking and fitter, with normal fiber density; confirmatory, but not specific. Endorphin chloride--(Tensile) 2 mg + 8 mg IV: highly probable diagnosis if unequivocal positive. For ocular or cranial MG, exclude intracranial lesions by CT or MRI. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 3233-3235, 3234t, 3237t | 155,297 | medmcqa_train |
The following statements are true regarding neutrophil extracellular trap | Ans. (d) All the above(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 81)Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) are extracellular fibrillar networks that provide a high concentration of antimicrobial substances at sites of infection and prevent the spread of the microbes by trapping them in the fibrils. They consist of a viscous meshwork of nuclear chromatin that binds and concentrates granule proteins such as antimicrobial peptides and enzymes | 155,298 | medmcqa_train |
Tone of the anal sphincter in maintained by | The anal sphincters and puborectalis are the primary muscles responsible for continence. There are two sphincters: the internal anal sphincter, and the external anal sphincter. The internal sphincter is responsible for 85% of the resting muscle tone and is involuntary. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg413-416 | 155,299 | medmcqa_train |
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