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Hypoxiema independent of | Hb [Ref: Ganong 23/e p617; http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypoxemiaj Hypoxemia is decreased paial pressure of oxygen in blood. It is the oxygen that is dissolved in the blood not attached with hemoglobin; thus it does not depend on Hemoglobin. Hypoxemia is one of the types of Hypoxia kla Hypoxic Hypoxia. The Hypoxia dependent on hemoglobin is anemic Hypoxia. Hypoxia is defined as 0, deficiency at the tissue level. Hypoxia has been divided into four types. (1) Hypoxic hypoxia, in which the P02 of the aerial blood is reduced; (2) Anemic hypoxia, in which the aerial P02 is normal but the amount of hemoglobin available to carry 02 is reduced; (3) Stagnant or Ischemic hypoxia, in which the blood .flow to a tissue is so low that adequate 02 is not delivered to it despite a normal P02 and hemoglobin concentration; and (4) Histotoxic hypoxia, in which the amount of 02 delivered to a tissue is adequate but, because of the action of a toxic agent, the tissue cells cannot make use of the 02 supplied to them. Hypoxic Hypoxia (Hypoxemia) Hypoxic Hypoxia is the most common form of hypoxia seen clinically. Causes: 1.Low inspired paial pressure of oxygen (low Pi02) 2. Alveolar hypoventilation 3.Impairment of diffusion across blood-gas membrane 4.Ventilation-perfusion inequality 5. Shunt In contrast, primary hemoglobin deficiency, e.g. anemia is not a cause, since it doesn't decrease the paial pressure of oxygen in blood. Low inspired oxygen paial pressure (low PiO2) If the paial pressure of oxygen in the inspired gas is low, then a reduced amount of oxygen is delivered to the alveoli of the lung. The reduced oxygen paial pressure can be a result of reduced fractional oxygen content (low Fi02) or simply a result of low barometric pressure, as can occur at high altitudes. This reduced Pi02 can result in hypoxemia even if the lungs are normal. Alveolar hypoventilation If the alverolar ventilation is low, there may be insufficient oxygen delivered to the alveoli each minute. (e.g., airway obstruction, depression of the brain's respiratory center, or muscular weakness). Impaired diffusion Impaired diffusion across the blood-gas membrane in the lung can cause hypoxemia, e.g. pneumonia, pulmonary fibrosis Shunt Shunting of blood from the right side to the left side of the circulation (right-to-left shunt) is a powerful cause of hypoxemia. The shunt may be intracardiac (tong. cyanotic hea disease) or may be intrapulmonary.(Note that Left-toright shunting does not cause hypoxemia.) Ventilation-perfusion inequality Ventilation-perfusion inequality (or ventilation-perfusion mismatch) is a common cause of hypoxemia in people with lung disease. It is the areas of the lung with ventilation/perfusion ratios that are less than one (but not zero) that cause hypoxemia by this mechanism. A ventilation/perfusion ratio of zero is considered a shunt. (Not sure how PCO\\ is linked with hypoxemia or PaO2 ; possibl! hypoxemia causes lryperventilation which leads todecreased alveolar and aeial PCO2) | 155,000 | medmcqa_train |
In a ulcer over skin if there is undermined edges it suggests | Flat sloping venous or septic, often with a transparent healing edge along pa of its circumference. Punched-out syphilitic, trophic, diabetic, ischaemic, leprosy. Undermined tuberculosis, pressure necrosis paicularly over the buttocks, carbuncles. Raised rodent ulcer , often with a slightlyrolled appearance. Raised and eveed carcinoma Hamilton bailey 19th edition Pg 64 | 155,001 | medmcqa_train |
Examination of a patient revealed that he had right sided paralysis of the tongue, left sided hemiparesis and left sided lemniscal sensory loss. Occlusion of which of the following aery result in the following manifestations? | Patient is showing features of medial medullary syndrome. Occlusion of penetrating branch of veebral aery result in medial medullary syndrome. Medial medullary syndrome is characterised by a triad of:Ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve palsyContralateral hemiparesis with loss of deep sensationOcclusion of posterior inferior cerebellar aery result in Lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg syndrome. Patients with occlusion of this vessel develop dysphagia, hoarseness, ipsilateral paralysis of vocal cord, ipsilateral loss of pharyngeal reflex, veigo, nystagmus, ipsilateral facial analgesia and loss of taste on ipsilateral half of tongue posteriorly. Ref: Veigo: Its Multisensory Syndromes By Thomas Brandt page 309. | 155,002 | medmcqa_train |
Franklin disease is? | Answer- C. y-heavy chain diseaseFranklin's disease (gamma heavy chain disease)It is a very rare B-cell lymphoplasma cell proliferative disorder.It may be associated with autoimmune diseases and infection is a common characteristic of the disease. | 155,003 | medmcqa_train |
Liquefactive necrosis is seen in? | Brain tissue is rich in liquefactive enzymes and it lacks stromal support, hence liquefactive necrosis is the type of necrosis that occurs in brain. | 155,004 | medmcqa_train |
A 68-year-old patient developed atrophic gastritis and, 2 years later, developed a macrocytic, hyperchromic anemia. His anemia has most likely occurred due to which one of the following reasons? | This patient has trouble absorbing vitamin B12 for two reasons. The first is that the stomach no longer produces adequate levels of intrinsic factor. Atrophic gastritis leads to the loss of the glandular cells of the stomach and replacement of those cells with intestinal and fibrous tissues. This will lead to a loss of function of the stomach cells, and less intrinsic factor will be produced and secreted. Additionally, B12 bound to proteins in the diet will have difficulty in being removed from their carrier proteins because of the lack of stomach acid. After the body's stores of B12 are exhausted (about 2 years), the anemia will develop because of the inability of reticulocytes to grow and divide. The loss of acid would fail to stimulate pancreatic bicarbonate, so the pH would stay the same in the duodenum and would not increase, such that folate absorption continues normally. The terminal ileum is not involved in atrophic gastritis but can be involved in Crohn disease. Iron deficiency would give a microcytic, hypochromic anemia, not the observed anemia. Heme synthesis is not impaired under these conditions. | 155,005 | medmcqa_train |
First dose of vitamin A should be given at: September 2005 | Ans. C: 9 months National programme for prevention of nutritional blindness focuses on Promoting consumption of vitamin A rich foods by pregnant and lactating women and by children under 5 years of age. Administration of massive doses of vitamin A up to 5 years. First dose of 100,000 IU with measles vaccination at 9 months and subsequent doses of 200,000 IU each, every 6 months up to the age of 5 years should be given. | 155,006 | medmcqa_train |
Tumbling motility is characteristic of the following organism: | Listeria monocytogenes is a Gram-positive rod with some bacteriologic features that resemble those of both corynebacteria and streptococci. Listeria species are catalase-positive, which distinguishes them from streptococci, and they produce a characteristic tumbling motility in fluid media at temperatures below 30degC, which distinguishes them from corynebacteria. Listeria are not difficult to grow in culture, producing small, beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. This species is able to grow slowly in the cold even at temperatures as low as 1degC. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 26. Corynebacterium, Listeria, and Bacillus. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | 155,007 | medmcqa_train |
A 17 year old female patient has hirsutism, hyperglycemia, obesity, muscle wasting, and increased circulating levels of ACTH. The most likely cause of her symptoms is: | This female patient's symptoms are classic for a primary elevation of ACTH (Cushing's Disease). Exogenous steroids would produce similar symptoms, except that circulating ACTH would be low because of negative feedback suppression at both hypothalamic (CRF) and anterior pituitary levels (ACTH). Addison's Disease is caused by glucocoicoid deficiency, not excess. Hypophysectomy would lead to a decrease in ACTH or remove the source of it. | 155,008 | medmcqa_train |
Tennis elbow is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral Epicondylitis o Repeat from previous sessions. | 155,009 | medmcqa_train |
Vague elaborate and circumstantial speech with magical thinking is characteristic of : | Schizotypal (cluster A ) personality is characterized by odd speech that is vague or rambling, discomfo in social situations, strange thinking and lack of emotional appropriateness *Ideas of reference (not delusions) *Odd beliefs and magical thinking *Unusual perceptual disturbances *Paranoid ideation and suspiciousness *Odd thinking and speech without coherence *SUPERSTITIONS/TELEPATHY *ODD DRESSING *ODD SPEECH *LACK OF EMOTIONS Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 | 155,010 | medmcqa_train |
The skin overlying the region where a venous "cut-down" is made to access the Great saphenous vein is supplied by: | The skin overlying the region where a cut down is made to grant access to the great saphenous vein is supplied by the saphenous nerve. The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve. Ref: Textbook of Pediatric Emergency Procedures By Christopher King, Page 273; Clinical Anatomy By Regions By Richard S. Snell, Page 571 | 155,011 | medmcqa_train |
A 10-year-old boy presents with nasal obstruction and intermittent profuse epistaxis. He has a firm pinkish mass in the nasopharynx. All of the following investigations are done in this case except- | Biopsy can cause profuse bleeding, therefore should be avoided.
Investigations used for NFA are :-
Soft tissue lateral film of nasopharynx
X-ray paranasal sinus and base of skull
Contrast CT of skull (investigation of choice)
MRI
Carotid angiography | 155,012 | medmcqa_train |
Hanging in which body is fully suspended & feet are not touching the ground - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Complete hanging Complete hanging: Body is fully suspended and no pa of body touches the ground. Constricting force is weight of body.Incomplete (paial) hanging : 'There is paial suspension and some body pa (usually lower) is touching the ground. Constricting force is weight of the head (5-6 kg). | 155,013 | medmcqa_train |
Forschheimer's sign: | Forschheimer spots are a fleeting enanthem seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate in 20% of patients with rubella Seen during the prodromal period or on the first day of the rash. They precede or accompany the skin rash of rubella. They are not diagnostic of rubella, as similar spots can be seen in measles and scarlet fever. | 155,014 | medmcqa_train |
Phagocytosis in brain is caused by ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Microglia | 155,015 | medmcqa_train |
First branch of the facial nerve is: | (a) Greater petrosal nerve(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 1385)The greater superficial petrosal nerve arises from the geniculate ganglion at the first genu. This is the first branch.The 2nd branch is the nerve to the stapedius given at the pyramid.The 3rd is the chorda tympani given 4-6mm before the exit of facial nerve from stylomastoid foramen.Lesser superficial petrosal nerve is not a branch of facial. It arises from tympanic plexus and supplies the Otic ganglion. Otic ganglion is for the parasympathetic supply to the parotid. Secretomotor fibres to the parotid arise from glossopharyngeal nerve, reach the otic ganglion through the lesser superficial petrosal nerve via the tympanic plexus and then reach the parotid through the auriculotemporal nerve arising from the otic ganglion. | 155,016 | medmcqa_train |
A 26 year male came with hypopigmented macule over chest with scratch sign positive. Diagnosis is: | Hypopigmented patch over chest and trunk with fine scaling and scratch sign positive (i.e appearance of scales on scratching ) is suggestive of Pityriasis versicolor which is a fungal intection caused by Malassezia. | 155,017 | medmcqa_train |
New born babies are able to breathe and suck at the same time due to | Infant&;s larynx is positioned high in the neck, the level of glottis being opposite to C3 or C4 at rest and reaches C1 or C2 during swallowing. This high position allows the epiglottis to meet soft palate and make a nasopharyngeal channel for nasal breathing during suckling. The milk feed passes separately over the dorsum of tongue and the sides of epiglottis, thus allowing breathing and feeding to go on simultaneously. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | 155,018 | medmcqa_train |
Shoest action local anaesthetic: | Shoest Acting LA Chlorprocaine Longest acting LA Dibucaine | 155,019 | medmcqa_train |
Most common adverse effect on eye in contraceptive usage is: | Ans. Optic neuritis | 155,020 | medmcqa_train |
Lisfranc's fracture dislocation involves: | C i.e. Trans MetatarsalRef: Fundamentals of Orthopedics, 2nd edition, Mohindra and Jain, Jay pee Publishers, page 160Explanation:Lisfranc's Fracture DislocationThe Lisfranc joint consists of the tarsometatarsal joint complex, which includes the three cuneiforms, cuboid and their articulations with the five metatarsal bones.Dislocations of the Lisfranc joint are the most common dislocations of the foot*.Mechanism of injury: These injuries usually result from high-energy injuries like:Forced hyperflexion in road traffic accidents (Figure 1).Fall from height.On X-ray, there is increased space between the medial cuneiform and the second metatarsal (due to rupture of Lisfranc ligament that runs between these points) called as Fleck sign*.For treating the dislocation has to be reduced accurately either by closed or open means and has to be fixed with K wires or screws. | 155,021 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is not involved in PQLI? | Ans: c (Per capita income) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 16Physical quality of life index (PQL1) include:1. Infant mortality rate2. Life expectancy at age one3. Literacy rateScale of PQLI varies from 0 to 100.Human Development Index (HDI)It includes:1. Life expectancy at birth (Longevity)2. Knowledge (Adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling)3. IncomeThe HDI values ranges between 0 and 1.Gender related developmental index (GDI) and gender empowerment measure are new indices.HDI measures average achievements in basic dimensions of human development.Human poverty index (HPI) measures deprivation in basic dimensions of human development.Sullivan index:It is the expectation of life free from disability. Calculated by subtracting from life expectancy the probable duration of bed disability and inability to perform major activities.HALE (Health Adjusted Life Expectancy)It is the equivalent number of years in full health that a newborn can expect to live based on current rates of ill health and mortality.DALY (Disability Adjusted Life Year)DALY expresses years of life lost to premature death and year lived with disability adjusted for the severity of the disability.One DALY is "one lost year of healthy life". | 155,022 | medmcqa_train |
A patient suffering from AIDS presents with a history of dyspnea and non-productive cough x-ray shows bilateral perihilar opacities without pleural effusion and lymphadenopathy. Most probable etiological agent is – | Dyspnea with a nonproductive cough, and bilateral perihilar opacities without pleural effusion and lymphadenopathy, in an AIDS patient suggest the diagnosis of P. Carinii pneumonia.
In TB, cough is productive (with sputum) and there is associated lymphadenopathy. Pleural effusion may also occur. | 155,023 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is live attenuated vaccine- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sabin polio vaccineo Vaccine is an immuno-biological substance designed to produce specific protection against a given disease. It stimulates the production of protective antibody and other immune mechanisms. Vaccine may be of following types:-1) Live vaccines# Live vaccines are produced by organisms which are alive but there pathogenicity (virulence) is reduced. Thus these vaccines are called "live attenuated vaccines".# Important examples of live vaccines are BCG, OPV (Sabin oral polio vaccine), measles, mumps, rubella, yellow fever (17D vaccine), typhoid oral (typhoral), chicken pox, influenza, plague, epidemic typhus and hepatitis A.2) Killed vaccines (Inactivated vaccines)# Killed vaccines are prepared by killing (or inactivating) the organism by heat or chemical.# Important killed vaccines are pertussis (whooping cough), IPV (injectable polio vaccine/salk vaccine), cholera, typhoid, plague, influenza, Japanese encephalitis, KFD, meningococcal meningitis, hepatitis A, and rabies. | 155,024 | medmcqa_train |
Most common GI malignancy of childhood | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lymphoma Over all hemangioma is most common Tumor in infant. Hemangioma is usually benign in Nature. Leukemia is most common malignancy in pediatric age gyp. 2"' most common is CNS Tumor = Lymphoma is the most common malignancy of the gastrointestinal tract in children. About 30% of children with non-Hodgkin lymphoma present with abdominal tumors. | 155,025 | medmcqa_train |
True statement regarding 'Fistula in ano' is: | Intersphincteric fistula is the most common type of 'fistula in ano'. Ref: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, Page 1263. | 155,026 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is FALSE regarding Neurofibromatosis inheritance: | NEUROFIBROMATOSIS (NF) NF - 1/Von Recklinghausen's Disease NF-2/Bilateral acoustic neurofibromatosis Most common single gene disorder affecting human nervous system. Peripheral neurofibromatosis, is due to defect in chromosome 17. AD inheritance 100% penetrance Due to defect in long arm of chromosome 22. AD inheritance Musculoskeletal deformities absent 8th nerve vestibular schwannomas Meningioma occur in 50% cases. Note: Usually Skeletal disorders are Autosomal Dominant and Inborn errors of metabolism are autosomal recessive | 155,027 | medmcqa_train |
IPC section for punishment for purjury is | Punishment for perjury is dealt under IPC 193 IPC 191-deals with perjury IPC 192-fabricating false evidence IPC 197-issuing or signaling false evidence Refer :textbook of Forensic Medicine and toxicology PG no 15,2nd edition | 155,028 | medmcqa_train |
Total lung capacity depends on | The extent to which the lungs will expand for each unit increase in transpulmonary pressure (if enough time is allowed to reach equilibrium) is called the lung compliance.The total compliance of both lungs together in the normal adult human averages about 200 milliliters of air per centimeter of water transpulmonary pressure. That is, every time the transpulmonary pressure increases 1 centimeter of water, the lung volume, after 10 to 20 seconds, will expand 200 milliliters.The total lung capacity is the maximum volume to which the lungs can be expanded with the greatest possible effo (about 5800 milliliters); It is equal tothe vital capacity plus the residual volume.Ref: Guyton; 13th edition; Chapter 38 Pulmonary Ventilation | 155,029 | medmcqa_train |
Organophosphates bind to | (Ref: KDT 6/e p99-100) The active region of Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) has two sites i.e. an anionic site and an esteratic site. Anticholinesterase poisoning like Organophosphate compounds binds to esteratic site of AChE. | 155,030 | medmcqa_train |
Necrotizing fascitis is caused by - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beta hemolytic streptococci The spectrum of infections of the deep soft tissues ranges from localized bacterial, viral and parasitic lesions to rapidly spreading, tissue destructive infections such as necrotizing fascitis and myonecrosis. A) Pyomyositis :- It is common in tropics, therefore also called tropical pyomyositis. It is a localized infection of skeletal muscles. It is caused most commonly by staphylococcus aureus. B) Necrotizing fascitis Necrotizing fascitis is an infection of the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, easily spreading across the fascial plane within the subcutaneous tissues. There are two types of necrotizing fascitis :? i) Type 1:- It is a polymicrobial infection, i.e. mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection. It occurs most commonly after surgical procedures in diabetic patients or in those who have peripheral vascular disease. ii) Type 2 :- It is caused most commonly by streptococcus pyogenes (Group A beta hemolytic streptococci). C) Clostridial myonecrosis (Gas gangrene) :- It is characterized by rapid and extensive necrosis of muscle accompanied by gas formation and systemic toxicity. It is caused by C. perfringens (most common), C. novyi, C. septicum and C. histolyticum. It is also called type III necrotizing fascitis. | 155,031 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following tests on maternal serum is most useful in distinguishing between open neural tube defects and ventral wall defects in a fetus? | In patients with elevated amniotic fluid AFP to differentiate between NTD and abdominal wall defect, acetylcholinesterase and pseudocholinesterase are measured: | 155,032 | medmcqa_train |
Intestine get strengulated most commonly in which space | When strangulation occurs, the bility of the bowel is threatened secondary to a compromised blood supply. Causes of strangulation: External # Hernial orifices # Adhesions/bands Interrupted blood flow # Volvulus # Intussusception Increased intraluminal pressure # Closed-loop obstruction Primary # Mesenteric infarction Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1189 | 155,033 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following drug is a Corticosteroid Synthesis Inhibitor? | (A) Metyrapone [?]METYRAPONE is an inhibitor of endogenous adrenal corticosteroid synthesis used in the treatment of hypercortocolism.oMechanism of action: Selectively inhibits11-b-hydroxylase, which converts 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol in the terminal reaction of the glucocorticoid biosynthetic pathway.oBecause of this inhibition, the biosynthesis of cortisol is markedly Impaired, and the levels of steroid precursors (e.g., 11- deoxycortisol) are markedly increased which can be used as a diagnostic test to assess hypothalamic-pituitary ACTH function.oMetyrapone is used: To treat the hypercorticism resulting from either adrenal neoplasms or tumors producing ACTH ectopically. As adjunctive therapy in patients who have received pituitary irradiation or in combination with other agents that inhibit steroidogenesis.oChronic administration of metyrapone can cause hirsutism (due to increased synthesis of adrenal androgens upstream from the enzymatic block) and hypertension, which results from elevated levels of 11-deoxycortisol.oOther side effects include nausea, headache, sedation, and rash.[?]Glucocorticoids antagonistsoMitotane: Structure similar to DDT, used in inoperable adrenal cancer.oMetyrapone: Inhibit 11 b-hydroxylaseoAminoglutethamide: Inhibit conversion of cholesterol to pregnolone, medical adrenelectomyoTrilostane: Inhibit conversion, of pregnolone to progesterone; used in Cushing's syndromeoKetoconazole: Anti-fungal, inhibit CYP450 enzymes, inhibit steroid synthesis in adrenal cortex and testis; used in Cushing's syndrome and carcinoma prostate.oMifepristone: Glucocorticoid receptor antagonists; anti-progesterone, used in Cushing's syndrome | 155,034 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the proteins connect Z lines to M lines? | It is the largest protein.
It binds Z lines to M lines
It prevents overstretching of sarcomere | 155,035 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not transmitted from father to male child: March 2011 | Ans. B: X-linked recessiveAn male affected with X-linked recessive disorder does not transmit the disorder to his son, hut all daughters are carriersX-linked recessive inheritanceIt is a mode of inheritance in which a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome causes the phenotype to be expressed- In males (who are necessarily hemizygous for the gene mutation because they have only one X chromosome) and- In females who are homozygous for the gene mutation (i.e., they have a copy of the gene mutation on each of thee' two X chromosomes).X-linkec inheritance means that the gene causing the trait or the disorder is located on the X chromosome.Females have two X chromosomes, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.Carrier females who have only one copy of the mutation do not usually express the phenotypeGenerally "men are affected and women are carriers" for two reasons.The first is the simple statistical fact that if the X-chromosomes is a population that carry a paicular X-linked mutation at a frequency of 'f' (for example, 1%) then that will be the frequency that men are likely to express the mutation (since they have only one X), while women will express it at a frequency of f2 (for example 1% *1% = 0.01%) since they have two X's and hence two chances to get the normal allele.Thus, X-linked mutations tend to be rare in women.Father can pass only Y-chromosome to his son, which is never involved in X-linked recessive conditions, as the gene, is located on the X-chromosome. Hence disease will not pass from father to son.Most common X-linked recessive disordersColor blindness; a classic example of an X-linked trait because it is relatively common.- 7% to 10% of men are red-green colorblindIts commonness may be attributable to its not being a serious disability in most cases and an actual advantage in some situations (for example, not being distracted by some of the color in color based camouflage).It is also known as daltonism.Hemophilia ADuchenne muscular dystrophy; muscular dystrophy associated with mutations in the dystrophin gene, characterized by rapid progression of muscle degeneration, eventually leading to loss in ambulation, respiratory failure and death.Becker's muscular dystrophy; milder form of Duchenne, causes slowly progressive muscle weakness of the legs and pelvis.Hemophilia B; disorder caused by a mutation of the Factor IX gene, leading to a deficiency of Factor IX. It is rarer than haemophilia A. It's also called Christmas diseaseX-linked ichthyosis; ichthyosis caused by the hereditary deficiency of the steroid sulfatase (STS) enzyme that affects 1 in 2000 to 1 in 6000 males.X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA); XLA patients do not generate mature B cells. B cells are pa of the immune system and normally manufacture antibodies (Immunoglobulins) which defends the body from infections (the humoral response).Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency; may exhibit nonimmune hemolytic anemia in response to a number of causes, most commonly infection or exposure to ceain medications or chemicals. | 155,036 | medmcqa_train |
Percentage of glutaraldehyde used - | 2% glutaraldehyde is standard use in sterilization method Table 3.2 commonly used concentaion of disinfectant REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition pg no:37 | 155,037 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following lesion shows characteristic anagen, catagen and telogen phases? | Kerato acanthoma is a self healing carcinoma.
It shows growth phase, stationary phase, regression phase. | 155,038 | medmcqa_train |
The first change in precancerous lesion on colposcopy is | The first change in precancerous lesion is punctuation | 155,039 | medmcqa_train |
All are true predisposing factors for gallstone formation, except: | All others are true. Estrogens stimulate hepatic lipoprotein receptors, increase uptake of dietary cholesterol, and increase biliary cholesterol secretion, and leads to gallstone formation. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2618, Table 311-1 | 155,040 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a cause of acute laryngotracheal bronchitis? | ANSWER: (B) Parainfluenza virusREF: Anantnarayan 8th ed p. 515* M ost s erious dis ease caused by parammyxovirus is: croup or laryngotracheobronchitis* Most common: parainfluenza type 1* Most common symptom: common cold* Most common symptom: common coldA specific diagnosis is established by detection of virus in respiratory tract secretions, throat swabs, or nasopharyngeal washings. Viral growth in tissue culture is detected either by hemagglutination or by a cytopathic effect. Rapid viral diagnosis may be made by identification of parainfluenza antigens in exfoliated cells from the respiratory tract with immunofluorescence or ELISAMild cases of croup should be treated with bed rest and moist air generated by vaporizers. More severe cases require hospitalization and close observation for the development of respiratory distress. If acute respiratory distress develops, humidified oxygen and intermittent racemic epinephrine are usually administered. Aerosolized or systemically administered glucocorticoids are beneficial; the latter have a more profound effect. No specific antiviral therapy is available | 155,041 | medmcqa_train |
Which medication cannot be given in diarrhea in pregnancy - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Stimulant purgatives Stimulant purgatives* They are powerful purgatives: often produce griping. They irritate intestinal mucosa and thus were thought to primarily stimulate motor activity.* Though some of them do directly increase motility by acting on myenteric plexuses, the more important mechanism of action is accumulation of water and electrolytes in the lumen by altering absorptive and secretory activity of the mucosal cell.* They inhibit Na+ K+ ATPase at the basolateral membrane of villous cells--transport of Na+ and accompanying water into the interstitium is reduced.* Secretion is enhanced by activation of cAMP in crypt cells as well as by increased PG synthesis.* The laxative action of bisacodyl and cascara is shown to be partly dependent upon increased NO synthesis/action in the colon.* Larger doses of stimulant purgatives can cause excess purgation resulting in fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Hypokalaemia can occur on regular intake.* Routine and long-term use must be discouraged, because it can produce colonic atony.* They can reflexly stimulate gravid uterus, therefore are contraindicated during pregnancy.* Subacute or chronic intestinal obstruction is another contraindication.Choice of drugs for common problems during pregnancy Drug class (condition)Safety uncertain/unsafeSafer alternative1.Antiemetics (morning sickness, other types of vomiting)Domperidone (X) ondansetronPromethazine, Doxylamine Dicyciomine, Prochloperazine Meloclopramide2.Drugs for peptic ulcer and GERDCimetidine, lansoprazoleCisapride (X), mosaprideRanitidine, farmotidine omeprazoie pantoprazole3.Laxatives (constipation)Senna, bisacodyl, docusates saline purgativesDietary fibre, Ispaghula lactulose4.Laxatives (constipation)Diphenoxylate atropine lapetamideOral rehydration salts5.Analgesics (headache, bodyache, joint pain, visceral pain)Aspirin, Metamizol, NSAIDsCOX-2 inhibitors, codeine dextropropoxyphene, morphine (X) pethidine, TramadolParacetamol lbuproten (low dose)6.Cold-cough remediesCodeine, dextromethorphan bromhexine, expectorantsXylometazolineOxymetazolineBudesonide}Nasal drops7.AntiallergicsCetirizine, loratadine Fexpfenadine, astemizole (X)Chlorpheniraminepromethazine | 155,042 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not an 'Assisted Reproductive Technique' :- | Assisted Reproductive Technology (A) comprises of a group of procedures done for treatment of infeility that have in common the handling of male and female gametes outside the body. All these procedures involve surgical removal of eggs known as egg retrieval. Assisted Reproductive Techniques A. GIFT - Gametes Intra Fallopian Transfer. This involves egg retrieval and laparoscopic transfer of ova and sperms into each fallopian tube B. ZIFT - Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT). This involves transfer of day 1 feilised eggs (zygotes) into the fallopian tube C. IVF - In Vitro Feilisation. This involves egg retrieval, in vitro feilisation of oocyte and sperm followed by transfer of selected feilised oocytes transcervically into uterine cavity. D. ICSI --> Involves direct injection of sperm into mature egg followed by intra uterine transfer of feilised egg NOTE: Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) does not involve oocyte retrieval, only intrauterine insemination of washed semen is done and is hence not an assisted reproductive technique. | 155,043 | medmcqa_train |
A 37-year-old HIV-positive man has had a relapsing and remitting course of motor and sensory problems for the past year, including difficulty with ambulation as well as symmetric numbness and tingling in all extremities. Nerve conduction studies show findings consistent with demyelination and remyelination. He is treated with plasmapheresis. Which of the following disorders is most likely to cause this man's neurologic disease? | Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) can be seen in patients with immunologic diseases. Treatment may aid recovery, but a chronic course may ensue. Bacterial infections produce signs of acute inflammation with redness and swelling and tend not to involve nerves specifically. Some paraneoplastic syndromes may occur with carcinomas, such as Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, with weakness. Carcinomas are less likely at this age and are not frequent complications of HIV infection. Hyperglycemia is characteristic of diabetes mellitus, and diabetic neuropathy is likely to be progressive and unremitting. Traumatic injury is unlikely to produce such widespread findings and unlikely to be followed by a variable course. | 155,044 | medmcqa_train |
A young runner with history of seasonal running nose, complains of sudden onset dyspnea early morning that improved after 2-3 hours. He has history of similar episodes in the past.on examination, patient is tachypneic, diffuse polyphonic expiatory wheeze heard on auscultation of chest, His x-ray is normal. All except one is true regarding the clinical scenario. | Clinical features are suggestive of Bronchial Asthma. There is no necrosis of airway in Bronchial Asthma. | 155,045 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following are Nada&;s major criteria for clinical diagnosis of congenital hea disease? | Nadas&; Criteria The assessment for presence of hea disease can be done using the Nadas&; criteria. Presence of one major or two minor criteria is essential for indicating the presence of hea disease. Nadas&; criteria for clinical diagnosis of congenital hea disease Major Minor Systolic murmur grade III or more Systolic murmur grade I or II Diastolic murmur Abnormal second sound Cyanosis Abnormal electrocardiogram Congestive cardiac failure Abnormal X-ray Abnormal blood pressure Reference: Essential Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; Page no: 406 | 155,046 | medmcqa_train |
Tubular maximum for glucose is: | Glucose is typical of substances removed from the urine by secondary active transport. It is filtered at a rate of approximately 100 mg/min (80 mg/dL of plasma × 125 mL/min). Essentially all of the glucose is reabsorbed, and no more than a few milligrams appear in the urine per 24 h. The amount reabsorbed is proportional to the amount filtered and hence to the plasma glucose level (PG) times the GFR up to the transport maximum (TmG ). When the TmG is exceeded, the amount of glucose in the urine rises. The TmG is about 375 mg/min in men and 300 mg/min in women.
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology T W E N T Y - F I F T H E D I T I O N page no 680 | 155,047 | medmcqa_train |
All are non-proliferative glomerulonephritis, except: | Conditions with Proliferative Glomerulonephritis : SLE (paicularly class II) HIV Membranoproliferative/Mesangiocapillary glomerulonepritis Neoplasia (CLL and MALT lymphoma) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis Rest all options are the conditions with non proliferative glomerulonephritis. | 155,048 | medmcqa_train |
In plasma, if pH is 5 , what is the fraction of base to acid? | Ans: b (0.1)Ref: Vasudevan 4th ed/p.347According to Henderson-Hasselbach equation,pH = pKa + log (pKa= pH at which the acid is half ionised. It is a constant)The most important buffer system in plasma is bicarbonate- carbonic acid system. pKa for carbonic acid is 6.1 .pH = pKa + log rbasel5 = 6.1 + log log rbasel = -1.1 = log 10'-1 approx. | 155,049 | medmcqa_train |
Moclobemide is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., MAO inhibitor o Moclobemide is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A (RIMA). | 155,050 | medmcqa_train |
Regarding cutaneous amoebiasis, which is not true? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., The infection reaches the skin through the blood streamCutaneous amoebiasis-It is usually seen over the region adjoining a visceral lesion, e.g., area of drainage of liver abscess or colostomy wound or from the rectum perianally. | 155,051 | medmcqa_train |
Content of meningocele? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dura mater [Ref: Ghai 8th/e p. 576)Meningocele* There is protrusion of meninges (dura mater, arachnoid mater) through a defect in neural arch. This contains only CSF. There may be associated genital tract abnormalities, e.g. vaginal septa and rectovaginal fistula.Myelomeningocele (meningomyelocele)* There is protrusion of meninges along with some neural elements, e.g. spinal cord or cauda equina. It is the most severe form. The commonest site of lesion is lumbosacral region.Encephalocele* There is protrusion of brain tissue (cerebral cortex, cerebellum or brainstem) through a cranial defect (cranium bifidum). Most common site is occipital region. Hydrocephalus can occur due to aqueductal stenosis, chiari malformation or Dandy-Walker syndrome. | 155,052 | medmcqa_train |
Maple syrup urine disease is due accumulation of | Maple syrup urine disease is also called branched-chain ketonuria The basic defect is deficient decarboxylation of branched-chain ketoacids.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 230 | 155,053 | medmcqa_train |
During autopsy, if spinal cord is to be examined what is the most commonly used approach: | B ie Posterior For spinal cord autopsy examination body is placed prone on table and incision is made on the back in midline extending from, occipital protuberance to the lower end of sacrum, (posterior approch)Q - Reddy Autopsy of spinal cord can be done either from posterior (most common)Q or anterior approach. High cervical spine injuries are best seen by posterior, and thoracic spine by anterior approch. - Parikh | 155,054 | medmcqa_train |
In which of the following weapons, empty caridge case is ejected after firing | C i.e. Pistol | 155,055 | medmcqa_train |
Which cranial nerve is involved in Weber syndrome? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., III Focal vascular syndromes of the midbrainSyndrome nameRegionVascular supplyAnatomical structure(s)Clinical feature (s)Weber's syndromeMidbrainBranches of PCA and top of basilar arteryOculomotor nerve fasciclesIpsilateral third-nerve palsyClaude's syndromeMidbrain tegmentum nerve palsyBranches of PCA and top of basilar arteryCerebral peduncleOculomotor nerve fasciclesContralateral hemiparesisIpsilateral third-nerve palsy Red nucleus, superior cerebellar peduncle fibersContralaterla ataxiaBenedikt's syndromeMidbrain basis and tegmentumBranches of PCA and top of basilar arteryOculomotor nerve fasciclesIpsilateral third-nerve palsy Cerebral peduncleRed nucleus, substantia nigra, superior cerebellar peduncle fibersContralateral hemiparesisContralateral ataxia, tremor, and involuntary movements | 155,056 | medmcqa_train |
Following result after chronic edema to legs EXCEPT? | Ans. (d) Varicose veinsRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 593/903* Varicose veins are a cause of chronic leg edema and not a result of chronic leg edema.* Edema is defined as a palpable swelling caused by an -increase in interstitial fluid volume. The most likely cause of leg edema in patients over age 50 is venous insufficiency. Venous insufficiency affects up to 30% of the populationywhereas heart failure affects only approximately 1%. The most likely cause of leg edema in women under age 50 is idiopathic edemay formerly known as cyclic edema. Pulmonary hypertension and early heart failure can both cause leg edema before they become clinically obvious in other ways.* Marjolin's ulcer refers to an aggressive ulcerating squamous cell carcinoma presenting in an area of previously traumatized, chronically inflamed, or scarred skin. Histologically, the tumor is a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. This carcinoma is aggressive in nature, spreads locally and is associated with a poor prognosis. Its edge is everted and not always raised.* The IOC is a wedge biopsy. | 155,057 | medmcqa_train |
Railway spine is associated with: March 2013 (d, h) | Ans. B i.e. Railway accidents Railway spine It was a nineteenth-century diagnosis for the post-traumatic symptoms of passengers involved in railroad accidents. The first full length medical study of the condition was John Eric Erichsen's classic book, On Railway and Other Injuries of the Nervous System. For this reason, railway spine is often known as "Erichsen's disease". Railway collisions were a frequent occurrence in the early 19th century. Exacerbating the problem was the fact that railway cars were flimsy, wooden structures with no protection for the occupants Soon a group of people staed coming forward who claimed that they had been injured in train crashes, but had no obvious evidence of injury. The railroads rejected these claims as fake. The nature of symptoms caused by "railway spine" was hotly debated in the late 19th century, notably at the meetings of the (Austrian) Imperial Society of Physicians in Vienna, 1886. Germany's leading neurologist, Hermann Oppenheim, claimed that all railway spine symptoms were due to physical damage to the spine or brain, whereas French and British scholars, notably Jean-Main Charcot and Herbe Page, insisted that some symptoms could be caused by hysteria (now known as conversion disorder). Erichsen observed that those most likely to be injured in a railway crash were those sitting with their backs to the acceleration. This is the same injury mechanism found in whiplash. As with automobile accidents, railway and airplane accidents are now known to cause posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and other psychosomatic symptoms in addition to physical trauma. | 155,058 | medmcqa_train |
Lady with Mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation with full term gestation, obstetrician planning to conduct normal delivery, what would be analgesia of choice? | Pain relief is impoant for hea disease patients as pain can cause tachycardia, which in turn can cause cardiac failure. in hea disease patients vaginal delivery is indicated. C section done for obstetric indications only Epidural and spinal techniques are the most effective means of providing pain relief for labor. These are also known as regional techniques because pain relief is limited to a specific anatomical region. These modalities are also known as neuraxial techniques, since both the approaches involve administration of drugs that exe their effects in the axial poion of the CNS. | 155,059 | medmcqa_train |
Early adolescence age is | Adolescence is the stage of transition from childhood to adulthood. Early adolescence ( 10-13yrs) Mid adolescence ( 14-16yrs) Late adolescence (17-19yrs) Ref: Ghai, 9th edition, Chapter 5 | 155,060 | medmcqa_train |
Specificity of a screening test measures - | Ans. is 'd' i.e. True negatives Repeat from May 06Sensitivity is the ability of test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, i.e. 'true positives'.Specificity is the ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease, i.e. 'true negatives'. | 155,061 | medmcqa_train |
Small pox vaccine was invented by | Small pox vaccine Introduced by Edward Jenner in 1796, was the first successful vaccine to be developed Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition | 155,062 | medmcqa_train |
A 8-year-old boy rapidly develops hypoglycemia after moderate activity. On examination, doll like face and the liver and kidneys are found to be enlarged. Blood examination reveals raised levels of ketone bodies, lactic acid, and triglycerides. Histopathology of the liver shows deposits of glycogen in an excess amount. What is the diagnosis? | Inheritance: Autosomal recessive Definitive diagnosis - liver biopsy Fructose and galactose restriction in the diet is advised. Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 30th Edition Page no 179 | 155,063 | medmcqa_train |
Shortest acting non depolarizing muscle relaxant is- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mivacurium o Suxamethonium (succinylcholine) is the shortest acting skeletal muscle relaxant,o Mivacurium is the shortest acting nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant. | 155,064 | medmcqa_train |
A 5 year old female patient complains of deformed shape of legs. Patient is a strict vegetarian. Lab investigations reveal elevated level of alkaline phosphatase. This patient may be suffering from deficiency of- | Deficiency of vitamin D causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. The weight bearing bones are bent to form bow-legs. In rickets, the plasma level of calcitriol is decreased and alkaline phosphatase activity is elevated.
Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-127 | 155,065 | medmcqa_train |
Incidentally findings, in CT scan, a 3cm adrenal mass, which of the following is NOT- done | (Adrenalectomy) (816- B&L 24th) (812-Baily &Love 25th)* A unilateral non functioning adrenal mass greater than 4cm in diameter is an indication for adrenalectomy. The patient with a mass smaller than 4cm in diameter should undergo repeat CT/MR1 -4-6 months after the previous examinationINVESTIGATIONSFunctioning adrenal tumourA malignant adrenal mass1. 2 x 24 hour urine collection for catecholamines and metanephrines** FNAC* Primary adrenocortical carcinoma -2. Plasma urea and electrolytes, plasma aldosterone and reninIncidentalomas of 4cm or more in diameter carry an increased risk of malignancy3. Basal a-m and midnight plasma cortisol, blood glucose, DHEAS4. 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test* | 155,066 | medmcqa_train |
Which clotting factor is required for stabilization of fibrin clot? | The fibrin is initially a loose mesh of interlacing strands. It is conveed by the formation of covalent cross-linkages to a dense, tight aggregate (stabilization). This latter reaction is catalyzed by activated factor XIII ie XIIIaVIII - Antihemophilic factor (AHF), antihemophilic factor A, antihemophilic globulin (AHG)IX - Plasma thromboplastin component (PTC), Christmas factor, antihemophilic factor BV - Proaccelerin, labile factor, accelerator globulinRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:532 | 155,067 | medmcqa_train |
Name the operation shown here. | Ans. (a) Boari Flap operation* Boari Flap operation - For lower ureteric injuries the bladder is used to reconstruct the gap as shown here.* Ureteric injury must be repaired immediately. | 155,068 | medmcqa_train |
M.C. type of cutaneous T.B. is - | Most common type of cutaneous tb is lupus vulgaris iadvl textbook of dermatology , page 245 | 155,069 | medmcqa_train |
True statement about Kiesselbach's Plexus | Kiesselbach's Plexus
→ Large capillary network in anteroinferior part of vestibule of septum.
→ Contains anastomoses between:
Sphenopalatine artery and its branches.
Superior labial branch of facial artery.
Greater palatine artery.
Anterior ethmoidal artery.
→ This is known as Little's area.
→ Little's area - Common site of epistaxis (bleeding from nose).
→ Artery of epistaxis - Sphenopalatine artery. | 155,070 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following aeries pierces the oblique popliteal ligament of the knee joint? | OBLIQUE POPLITEAL LIGAMENT:- Expansion from the tendon of semimembranosus. Runs upwards and laterally, blends with the posterior surface of the capsule, and is attached to the intercondylar line and lateral condyle of femur. Related to politeal aery. Structures piercing the ligament:-1. Middle Genicular vessels.2. Posterior division of obturator nerve. {Reference BDC 9E } | 155,071 | medmcqa_train |
Hyperacute rejection occurs within: | Ref. Robbins Pathology. 9th edition. Page. 233
Hyperacute Rejection
This form of rejection occurs within minutes or hours after transplantation.
A hyperacutely rejecting kidney rapidly becomes cyanotic, mottled, and flaccid, and may excrete a mere few drops of bloody urine.
Immunoglobulin and complement are deposited in the vessel wall, causing endothelial injury and fibrin-platelet thrombi
Glomeruli undergo thrombotic occlusion of the capillaries, and fibrinoid necrosis occurs in arterial walls.
The kidney cortex then under- goes outright necrosis (infarction), and such nonfunctioning kidneys have to be removed. | 155,072 | medmcqa_train |
A 33-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of seeing "spots" floating around in her eye. Today, she notes streaks of light in the same eye accompanied by a "shadow" in her peripheral vision that moves when looking up and down. Her medical history is significant for migraine headaches; however, she has never had such visual symptoms with her headaches. What is the most likely diagnosis? | Retinal detachment: The history suggests retinal detachment. the vitreous detach from the retina and causes the perception of "floaters" Vitreous detaching from the retina may cause a peripheral "horseshoe" tear in susceptible areas of the retina. The tear allows fluid within the vitreous to accumulate under the retina and cause a detachment. When the retina is paially detached and the eye moves, the patient may notice a "shadow" that corresponds to the torn retina. Retinal detachment is ophthalmic emergency because the detachment can progress to the fovea and threaten central vision. Opthalmic migraine: an eye condition that causes brief attacks of blindness or visual problems like flashing lights in 1 eye. Amaurosis fugax: Condition in which a person cannot see from one or both eyes due to transient failure of blood supply to retina. | 155,073 | medmcqa_train |
All are food fortification except:(1994) | Ans: aRef: Park, 17th ed, p. 453 & 18th ed, p. 480, 481 | 155,074 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following feature is common to both cytotoxic T-cells and NK cells? | Cytotoxic T lymphocytes plays a protective role against virus associated neoplasms (EBV and HPV induced tumors) and have been demonstrated in the blood and tumor infiltrates of cancer patients.NK cells have the innate ability to lyse a variety of tumor cells, virally infected cells and some normal cells without prior sensitization. It is considered to be the first line of defence against neoplasm or viral infections. Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Page 191 and 8th Edition, Page 318 | 155,075 | medmcqa_train |
Defect seen in Vitiligo is: September 2010 | Ans. B: Absent melanocytes Vitiligo is a chronic disorder that causes depigmentation of patches of skin. It occurs when melanocytes, the cells responsible for skin pigmentation, die or are unable to function. The cause of vitiligo is unknown, but research suggests that it may arise from autoimmune, genetic, oxidative stress, neural, or viral causes. | 155,076 | medmcqa_train |
Example of cold burn is /are: | Cold burns include
Freezing injuries (frostbite)
Non-freezing cold injuries e.g. chilblain (localized painful erythema in the fingers, toes or ears produced by cold damp weather)
Trench foot seen in soldiers
Immersion foot occurring in shipwrecked persons. | 155,077 | medmcqa_train |
In metabolic acidosis which of the following changes are seen? | K+ secretion into the renal tubules when the H+ secretion is increased (intracellular Buffering of H+). Thus in metabolic acidosis, there is decreased K+ excretion. Factors afffecting K+ distribution between ECF and ICF concentration Shift Of K+ into the cell - Decrease in ECF K+ Shift Of K+ out of the Cell - Increase in ECF K+ Insulin Insulin deficiency(DM) Aldosterone Aldosterone deficiency (Addison&;s disease) Metabolic alkalosis Hypeonicity (e.g., Hyperglycemia) Diarrhoea Beta Blockers Cell lysis Eg., Intravascular hemolysis, tumor lysis syndrome, rhabdomyolysis Strenous excercise Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 387 | 155,078 | medmcqa_train |
Best index for chronic malnutrition is: September 2010 | Ans. A: Height for age | 155,079 | medmcqa_train |
The highest concentrations of Vitamin A is seen in - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Codliver oil Amongst the given options, cod liver oil has highest concentration. | 155,080 | medmcqa_train |
Break bone fever is ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dengue fever White disease AIDS Povey disease - Cholera Hundred day cough: Peussis (Whooping cough) 5 day fever: Trench fever 8' day disease: Tetanus Black sickness: Kala azar Black death: Plague Cerebrospinal fever: Meningococcal meningitis Breakbone fever: Dengue Koch's phenomenon: Tuberculosis Hansen 's disease: Leprosy Break-bone fever: Dengue Slim disease: AIDS Monkey fever : KFD First disease/ Rubeolla: Measles Second disease: Scarlet fever Third disease/ German Measles: Rubella Fouh disease: Duke's disease Fifth disease: Erythema infectiosum (Parvovirus) Sixth disease/ Baby Measles/ 3-day fever: Exanthem subitum/ Roseola infantum Barometer of Social Welfare (India): Tuberculosis Father of Public Health: Cholera River Blindness: Onchocerciasis | 155,081 | medmcqa_train |
Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, EXCEPT: | Each ureter measures about 10 in. (25 cm) long and resembles the esophagus (also 10 in. long) in having three constrictions along its course. The sites of ureteric constrictions include: where the renal pelvis joins the ureter, where it is kinked as it crosses the pelvic brim, and where it pierces the bladder wall.Ref: Richard S Snell's Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students, 6th Edition, Pages 236, 273 | 155,082 | medmcqa_train |
The virus with smallest genome is ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Parvovirus . Smallest genome ----> Parvovirus . Largest genome --> Poxvirus | 155,083 | medmcqa_train |
The common feature of Nuclear Localization Signals is | Many nuclear proteins contain NLSs that are rich in basic arginine and lysine residues, which may be located anywhere in the polypeptide chain. Reference: Harper; 30th edition | 155,084 | medmcqa_train |
Superior pa of IVC develops from which pa? | Anterior cardinal vein and subcardinal vein will be degenerated during development where as sacrocardinal segment forms the inferior pa. Reference: TEXTBOOK OF CLINICAL EMBRYOLOGY.... VISHRAM SINGH SECOND EDITION....PAGE NO:245 | 155,085 | medmcqa_train |
Apparant volume of distribution of a drug less than 5 liters implies that the drug is predominantly in which of the following compament? | Ans is 'a' i.e., Extracellular fluido A drug with high volume of distribution has more concentration in tissue and less in plasma.o A drug with low volume of distribution has concentration only in plasma (intravascular)Relationship between volume of distribution and extent of distributionVd (L)% body weightExtent of distribution< 57only in plasma5-207-28In extracellular fluid20-4028-56In total body water>40>56In deep tissues; bound to peripheral tissues | 155,086 | medmcqa_train |
Polychromatic luster type of cataract seen in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Complicated cataract o See above explanation | 155,087 | medmcqa_train |
True about Bain circuit – a) Mapleson type Bb) Mapleson type Dc) Can be used for spontaneous respirationd) Can be used for controlled vantilatione) Coaxial | Bain circuit (type D Mapleson) is a co-axial system.
It is the circuit of choice for controlled ventilation.
It can also be used for spontaneous ventilation. | 155,088 | medmcqa_train |
True about fat embolism | B i.e. Patechae | 155,089 | medmcqa_train |
Ultrasonography transducer contain – | Lead zirconate titanate (PZT) is the most widely used material in the ultrasound transducers / probes replacing the firstly discovered barium titanate. | 155,090 | medmcqa_train |
All are true/ except regarding patch test | C. i.e. Angry back lit false negative test The gold standard method for the diagnosis of allergic dermatitis resulting from type IV delayed hypersenstivityQ. Such as allergic contact dermatitis (ACD) & air borne contact dermatitis (ABCD)Q remains the patch test. It is read after 48 hours (2 days)Q Type 1 hypersensitivity (eg atopic dermatitis) is detected by prick test (of debatable significance). And type IV delayed hypersensitivity (eg contact dermatitis) is diagnosd by patch skin test (gold standard). So skin test can be done for Type I (atophy) & type IV (contact dermatitis). Type of hypersensitive reaction Clinical Syndrome Type I : IgE type AnaphylaxisQ AtopyQ (prick test) Type II : Cytolytic & Antibody mediated damage? Cytotoxic Thrombocytopenia- agranulocytosis, hemolytic anemia etc. Type III : Immune Ahrus reaction complex Serum sickness Type IV : Delayed Tuberculosis Hypersensitivity Contact dermatitis (patch test)Q | 155,091 | medmcqa_train |
Voricanazole is not effective against | Refer Harrison 17th/1243 Voricanazole is drug of choice for treatment of Aspergillosis. It can also be used for Candida species Mucormycosis is treated by Amphotercin B.Posaconazole can also be used | 155,092 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following reactions are catalysed by microsomal enzymes except | Ref-KDT 6/e p25 Most of the Phase 1 reactions and Glucuronide conjugation(phase II reaction)are catalysed by microsomal enzymes.these enzyme can be induced or inhibited by drugs .acetylation is carried out by N-acetyl transferase,a non microsomal enzyme | 155,093 | medmcqa_train |
CAP in LAC operon is an example of:(AIIMS Nov 2011, May 2011) | Ans. a. Positive regulator (Ref: Lippincott 4/e p418-420)CAP in LAC operon is an example of positive regulator."CAP-cAMP regulator is a positive regulator for Lac operonQ because its presence is required for gene expression."Operon is the segment of DN A strand, consisting of cluster of several genes involved in metabolic pathway.Operon = structural genes coding for enzymes of metabolic pathway + regulatory genes that determine their transcriptionStructural genes for Lac operonCoded proteinRegulator genes/ proteins and inducersLac Zb galactosidasePositive regulatorCRP = CAP + CAMPLac YPermeaseNegative regulatorLac 1 geneRepressor proteinLac AAcetylaseInducerLactoseIPTG (gratuitous inducer)Jacob and Monod's Operon Concept for Prokaryotic GeneIn prokaryotes, genes involved in a metabolic pathway are often present in a linear array called an operon.The cistron is the smallest unit of genetic expression coding for subunit of a protein molecule (One cistron-one subunit concept)Q.Polycistronie mRNA, predominantly found in prokaryotes is a m-RNA that encodes more than one separately translated proteins.Operon (transcription unit of prokaryotes) consists of structural (coding) genes and regulatory region consistingQ.Structural (coding) genesCarries the codon that code for proteins involved in a particular metabolic pathwayIn lac operon of E coli (responsible for lactose metabolism), 3 structural genes lac Z, lac Y, and lac A code respectively for b-galactosidase, (hydrolyze lactose or b- galactoside to galactose and glucose), permease (responsible for permeation of galactose into cell), and thiogalactosida transacetylaseQ.Inducible regulated genes: Their expression increases in response to an inducer or activator (a positive regulatory signal). In general, inducible genes have relatively low rates of transcriptionConstitutive (house keeping) genes: They are expressed at a reasonably constant rate and are not subjected to regulationQ. The product of these genes are required all the timeQ in a cell. A mutation resulting in constitutive expression of what was formerly a regulated gene is called constitutive mutationRegulatory region consistingPromoter (P) geneOperator (O) genesRegulator (I) genes* It is situated on the upstream (5'- side of transcription start site between operator and regulator gene.* It is the site, where DNA dependent- RNA polymerase (RNP) binds to form pre-initiation complex (PIC)Q, and commence transcription.* Catabolite gene activator protein (CAP) in conjunction with c-AMP (known as c-AMP regulatory protein = CRP) is required for efficient formation of PIC. So it is a positive regulator. Adenylate cyclase which forms c-AMP from ATP, is activated by absence of glucose. So the lac operon transcription only occurs in absence of glucoseQ (catabolite repression). And presence of glucose prevents it by depleting c-AMP.* It is a segment of ds DNA that regulates the activity of the structural genes.* In lac operon, it is 27 bp long segment situated between promoter site (at which RNAP binds) and lac Z (transcription initiation site) and show a twofold rotational symmetry and an inverted palindrome in 21 bp long region* When attached to operator (o) gene, the repressor (Lacl) acts as a negative regulator and prevents transcription of operator and structural (lac Z/Y/A) genesQ.* It is a constitutive gene, that forms subunits of lac repressor (MW 38,000), a lac repressor molecule (Lac I repressor protein) is formed by union of 4 subunits and has high affinity for operator locusQ.* At any time only 2 subunits of repressor binds to operator, mostly in its major groove without interrupting the base paired double helical nature of operator DNA.* Normally 20-40 repressor tetramers, occupy >95% of lac operator, thus ensuring a low lac operon transcription in absence of inducer.* Presence of lactose or gratuitous inducer such as isopropylthio galactoside (IPTG) on bacteria growing on poorly utilized carbon source (e.g. succinate) results induction of lac operon enzymes by de-repression. | 155,094 | medmcqa_train |
Gluten-sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with | Celiac disease (gluten-sensitive enteropathy)*Genetic predisposition: HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8*Pathogenesis: Gluten contains an alcohol-soluble fraction called "gliadin" which resist degradation by gastric, pancreatic and small intestinal proteases. Such gliadins induce CD8+ T cell response and damage epithelial cells. Through the damaged epithelium, other gliadin were transpoed which are deamidated by tissue transglutaminase. Deamidated gliadins interact with HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8 of antigen presenting cells and induce a CD4 response. *Microscopic findings: Villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and intraepithelial lymphocytosis. Based on these 3 findings, celiac disease was typed by Marsh classification.*Most sensitive test: Anti-TTG antibody test*Most specific test: Anti-endomysial antibody test*Most common skin manifestation in celiac disease patients: Dermatitis herpetiformis *Most common celiac disease associated cancer: Enteropathy-associated T cell lymphoma.Ref: Robbins 8/e p795 | 155,095 | medmcqa_train |
Epiphyseal enlargement is seen in: | Ans. Juvenile rheumatoid ahritis | 155,096 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following vessels have the function of capacitation? | Capacitation is the penultimate step in the maturation of mammalian spermatozoa and is required to render them competent to feilize an oocyte. This step is a biochemical event; the sperm moves normally and looks mature prior to capacitation.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no:-423 | 155,097 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a cyanotic hea disease: | CLASSIFICATION OF CONGENITAL HEA DISEASES: Acyanotic hea disease Cyanotic hea disease - VSD - ASD - PDA -TOF -Tricuspid atresia -Pulmonary atresia with intact septum -Transposition of great aeries -TAPVC -Truncus aeriosus -Ebstein anomaly BASED ON PATHOPHYSIOLOGY: | 155,098 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following diseases characteristically causes fatty change in liver? | Fatty liver is also known as hepatic steatosis. It happens when fat builds up in the liver. Having small amounts of fat in your liver is normal, but too much can become a health problem When fatty liver develops in someone who drinks a lot of alcohol, it's known as (AFLD) Refer robbins 9/e | 155,099 | medmcqa_train |
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