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Short chain fatty acid produced by bacteria are maximally absorbed in | Acetate, propionate and butyrate are short chain fatty acids formed in the colon by action of bacteria. They are reabsorbed in the colon itself. | 154,900 | medmcqa_train |
All are added to PCR, except: | Ans. B. Dideoxynucleotide(Ref: Tietz Textbook of Clinical Chemistry 4fe page1446)Pre requisites of PCRSample DNA to be amplifiedDeoxynucleotides.Thermostable Polymerase--Taq Polymerase obtained from Thermus Aquaticus found in hot springs.Primer.Mgcl2 , KCl | 154,901 | medmcqa_train |
Wallarian degeneration is seen in - | Ans. is 'a- i.e., Distal to injuryo Part distal to the injury - Wallarian degeneration or secondary degeneration,o Part proximal to the injury - Primary degeneration or retrograde degeneration.Degeneration of the distal part (Antegrade)Degeneration of proximal part (Retrograde)Stage of regenerationo Degeneration of distal part (distal to cut) is called Wallerian degeneration.o Within 24 hours histological and chemical changes occur.o The axon cylinder swells up and breaks down into small rodlets.o Myelin sheath breaks down into oily droplets, It occurs 8-32 days after injury.o Cells of the sheath of Schwann-divide mitotically and form cords of cells lying within the endoneurial tube (neurilemma) - macrophages remove the degenerating myelin and axis cylinder - thus schwann cell cytoplasm gradually fills the neurilemma, this process is completed by 3 months.o Hollow tube of neurilemma remains Intact and known as ghost tube.o Same as distal generation but unto nearest node of ranvier (nearest collateral),o Changes in the cell body:# Within 48 hours of injury the nissl grannies begins to disintegrate (known as chromatolysis).# Golgi apparatus fragments.# Cells swell.# Neurofibril disappear and nucleus displaced to cell margin.o Axis cylinders from stumps grows and sprout out (pseudopod like structure of fibril).o After 2-3 weeks peripheral endoneural tube, contian varying number of developing fibril.oMedullary sheath begins to develop in about 15 days and completed within one year.o Repair of cell body (i.e. Nissl granules and golgi apparatus) - begins about 20 days after nerve section and is completed in 80 days.1st change in cut nerve is - Axonal degeneration2nd change in cut nerv e is - Myelin degeneration | 154,902 | medmcqa_train |
Flaky paint appearance of skin is seen in? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Kwashiorkor | 154,903 | medmcqa_train |
To diagnose anemia in age group 2 years to 5 years, level of hemoglobin should be? | ANEMIAS IN CHILDREN (WHO DEFINITION): - Children of age - Hb < 11 g/dl - Children of age - Hb < 11.5 g/dl - Children of age - Hb < 12 g/dl | 154,904 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are viral inclusion bodies, EXCEPT: | Psammoma bodies are nonrefractile calcified concretions with concentric lamellations that are sometimes found in association with papillary adenocarcinoma, both primary and metastatic. Molluscum bodies or Henderson-Patterson bodies are seen in molluscum contagiosum which is caused by a pox virus. They are intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions. Negri bodies are intracytoplasmic inclusions that are pathognomonic of rabies. They are found in the pyramidal cells of the hippocampus and the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum. Bollinger bodiesare intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in epithelial cells, seen in fowlpox. | 154,905 | medmcqa_train |
Not true about superior vena cava | SVC opens in to right atrium (not right ventricle).Superior vena-cava SVC collects blood from the upper half of the body and drains into the right atrium. It is formed by the union of two brachiocephalic veins at the level of lower border of 1" right costal cailage. It passes veically downwards behind the right border of sternum and piercing the pericardium at the level of the second costal cailage, enters the upper border of the right atrium to end in the upper and posterior pa of sinus venorum at the lower border of third right costal cailage (opposite Ts veebra).Behind the sternal angle (T4 veebral level), SVC receives the azygos vein.SVC is divided into two pas -i) Upper half (extrapericardial) ii) Lower half (intrapericardial) | 154,906 | medmcqa_train |
Most common malignancy in a longstanding goiter is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Follicular Carcinoma "An increased incidence of cancer (usually follicular) has been reported from endemic areas. Dominant or rapidly growing nodules in longstanding goiters should always be subjected to aspiration cytology." - Bailey & LoveAbout Follicular Carcinoma (FTC)o FTC are second most common thyroid malignancies, more common in iodine-deficient areaso More common in women (Female: Male ratio of 3:1)o Mean age of presentation is later than papillary Ca (~ 50 yrs)o Multiple foci are rarely seen and lymph node involvement is much less common than in papillary carcinomao Blood borne metastasis is common with spread to bone, lungs, liver and elsewhere.o In less than 1% of cases, follicular cancers may be hyperfunctioning (warm nodule on scintiscan), leading to symptom of thyrotoxicosis. | 154,907 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not a method of gene therapy? | Ans. A. FISHa. FISH is fluorescent -in-situ hybridization and is a method of detection and not related with gene therapyb. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is a very sensitive technique that is also used for this purpose.c. This often places the gene at a location on a given band or region on the chromosome.d. Some of the human genes localized using these techniques are listed.e. This table represents only a sampling, since thousands of genes have been mapped as a result of the recent sequencing of the human genome.f. Once the defect is localized to a region of DNA that has the characteristic structure of a gene, a synthetic gene can be constructed and expressed in an appropriate vector and its function can be assessed--or the putative peptide, deduced from the open reading frame in the coding region, can be synthesized.g. Antibodies directed against this peptide can be used to assess whether this peptide is expressed in normal persons and whether it is absent in those with the genetic syndrome. | 154,908 | medmcqa_train |
The side effects of clomiphene because of which its use should be immediately stopped : | Visual symptoms are rare; 1-2%; but if present treatment with clomiphene should be stopped immediately Ref: Clinical Gynecologic Endocrinology and Infeility; Eighth Edition; Chapter 27 | 154,909 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following presents with macronodular cirrhosis | Wilson's disease presents with macronodular cirrhosis.
(Nodules size > 3 mm is diameter)
Option a,b,c presents with micronodular cirrhosis. | 154,910 | medmcqa_train |
Which compound shifts the Oxygen dissociation curve to the right: | B i.e. 2,3, DPG | 154,911 | medmcqa_train |
Which diagram represents the changes (after osmotic equilibrium) in extracellular and intracellular fluid volumes and osmolarities after the infusion of 3% NaCl? | A 3% solution of NaCl is hypeonic, and when infused into the extracellular fluid, it would raise osmolarity, thereby causing water to flow out of the cells into the extracellular fluid until osmotic equilibrium is achieved. In the steady state, extracellular fluid volume would increase, intracellular fluid volume would decrease, and osmolarity of both compaments would increase. | 154,912 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following structures press over the oesophagus, EXCEPT? | Anteriorly the normal esophagus is indended from above downwards by three impoant structures that cross it, the arch of aoa, left bronchus and left atrium. Various structures that may press on the oesophagus and cause obstruction are:Enlarged left atriumBronchial carcinomaEnlarged lymph nodes at the hilum of lungDilated aoaCongenital abnormalities of the main thoracic aeriesThe 4 constrictions of the oesophagus are:First constriction is at the pharyngoesophageal junctionSecond constriction is produced by the arch of aoa as it crosses the anterior and lateral aspects of oesophagusThird constriction is produced by the left bronchus as it crosses the oesophagusFouh constriction is at the oesophageal opening in the diaphragm. | 154,913 | medmcqa_train |
Most impoant clinical feature of primary biliary cirrhosis | Primary biliary cirrhosis Believed to be an autoimmune etiology, leading to progressive destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts More common in females Associated with autoimmune disorders (CREST, Sicca syndrome, Autoimmune thyroiditis, Renal tubular acidosis) Clinical features Most patients are asymptomatic, pruritus the commonest and earliest symptom. Pruritus precedes jaundice in PBC, Pruritus is most bothersome in evening Jaundice, fatigue, melanosis (gradual darkening of exposed areas of skin), deficiency of aft soluble vitamins due to malabsorption Xanthomas and xanthelesmas due to protracted elevation of serum lipids Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 639 | 154,914 | medmcqa_train |
A person get infected in a hospital and clinical manifestation appear after he is discharged this is called - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nosocomial infection . The term hospital infection, hospital -acquired infection or nosocomial infection are applied to infections developing in hospitalized patients, not present or in incubation at the time of their admission. . Such infections may become evident during their stay in hospital or, sometimes, only after their discharge. | 154,915 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following condition is not associated with elevated serum total lactate dehydrogenase level? | Acute MI causes an increase in LDH in 12-24 hours, attains peak value in 48 hours and returns to normal in 1-2 weeks. Because of high concentration of LDH in the RBC, lysis of RBCs causes elevation of LDH levels. Muscle injuries and liver diseases like hepatitis can also cause raised LDH levels. Stroke is not associated with raised LDH levels. Ref: Pocket Guide to Diagnostic Tests By Diana Nicoll, 5th Edition | 154,916 | medmcqa_train |
Pigment seen in malarial parasite is formed from which of the following? | Hematin globin is formed as a result of incomplete metabolism of hemoglobin by malarial parasite. Malaria parasites are from the genus Plasmodium, malaria is caused by P. falciparum, P. malariae, P. ovale, P. vivax. Among those infected, P. falciparum is the most common species identified (~75%) followed by P. vivax (~20%). P. falciparum accounts for the majority of deaths. | 154,917 | medmcqa_train |
Sinus venosus receives blood from all EXCEPT | Right & left sinus venosus each receives the union of the corresponding: Umbilical vein Vitelline vein Common cardinal vein Right vitelline vein forms the poal venous circulation and the hepatic poion of IVC. Common cardinal veins - forms neck veins. The umbilical veins degenerate. | 154,918 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is an example of learned tolerance? | Learned tolerance refers to the reduction of the effect of a drug due to compensatory mechanisms that are learned. An example is walking a straight line despite the motor impairment caused by alcohol. This likely represents both acquisition of motor skills and the learned awareness of one's deficit; thus the person walks more carefully. | 154,919 | medmcqa_train |
A 20-year-old man suffered a significant closed head injury after a diving accident. He is left with minor memory impairment but makes a full recovery. A few months later, he has a witnessed loss of consciousness with some arm and leg twitching. After the event, he is disoriented for 2 hours and then gradually returns to baseline. There was no incontinence or tongue biting, and his examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | This man had a generalized posttraumatic seizure. The prolonged confusion after the event suggests seizure rather than syncope. In the majority of cases, seizures do not develop until several months after the injury, 6-18 months being the most common interval. The more severe the injury, the greater the likelihood of seizures. For severe injuries, some authorities recommend prophylactic anticonvulsants for 1-2 years. There is no firm evidence for this, however. | 154,920 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of psoriasis | Ans A (autoimmune) Ref IADVL text book of Dermatology P1022, Harrisons 17th ed pg 315,It is a T cell mediated autoimmune chronic inflammatory disease.The evidence implicating a key role for an immune pathogenesis relates to:*the association with certain HLA groups (HLA Cw6)*the success of certain immunosuppressive drugs (such as cyclosporin) in improving the clinical state of the disease*reports of the development of psoriasis in recipients of bone marrow transplants from donors with a history of psoriasis.Over 50% of patients with psoriasis report a positive family history.Psoriatic lesions demonstrate infiltrates of activated T cells that are thought to elaborate cytokines responsible for keratinocyte hyperproliferation, which results in the characteristic clinical findings.The etiology of psoriasis is still poorly understood, but there is clearly a genetic component to the disease.Type I (Heriditary)Strong HLA association (HLA CW6)Severe course and early onset, arthropathy more common.Type IISporadicHLA unrelatedMild course and late onsetThe number of cycling cells are increased 7 fold in psoriasis. There is no shortening of the cell cycle.The most important locus for psoriasis susceptibility is Psors 1 (psoriasis susceptibility locus on chr 6p 21.3.T cells(helper) are fundamental in activating the disease process.The trigger to their activation may be conventional antigens or bacterial superantigens.Clinical features of psoriasis-imp featuresMost common clinical type is chronic plaque type.Salmon coloured papules and plaques with silvery scales.Auspitz sign- multiple bleeding points on scraping of psoriatic plaques.Candle sign- charecteristic coherence of scales in psoriasis causes a feeling as if scraping on a candle.The halo ring ofworonoff- around the psoriaric plaque due to deficiency of pgE2.Annulus migrans-mucus membrane lesion in psoriasis.Most common nail change is pitting.Pustular psoriasis- most severe type is von-zumbushtype of generalized pustular psoriasis. It gets precipitated by treatment with irritants& sudden withdrawal of corticosteroids.Skin gets studded with minute sterile pustules which later may fuse to form lakes of pus.Histopathology of psoriasisParakeratosisMicro munro abscess- collection of neutrophils in stratum comeumSpongiform pustules of kogoj- aggregates of neutrophil in stratum spinosum.Acanthosis with regular elongation of rete ridges- camel foot appearance.Edema of dermal papillae with dilated& tortuous capillaries.Treatment of choice for generalized pustular psoriasis & psoriatic erythroderma is-AcetretinBiological therapy of psoriasisDirected at selected targets integral to the pathogenesis of psoriasis.The hyperproliferation seen in psoriasis is due to activated T cells & their cytokines. Biological agents are also used in rheumatoid arthritis, crohn's disease.T cell targetingAlefacept,Efalizumab,Daclizumab,BasiliximabCytokine blockersInfliximab, EtanerceptEtanercept-Human dimenc fusion protein -Anti TNF agentInfliximab-Chimeric monoclonal antibody.For further explanation refer PG HUNT p183, 2008 skin, 2005 Q258 | 154,921 | medmcqa_train |
Homer Trantas nodules are seen in: | Vernal conjunctivitis | 154,922 | medmcqa_train |
In community acquired pneumonia out patient treatment Is: (PGI June 2007) | Ans,: A (Azithromycin) As Q is mentioned only simple community acquired pneumonia (Not MRS A or Pseudomonas; so aminoglycosides & vancomycin are not given in answer), so give outpatient treatment given in Harr/son tableTable (Harrison 17th/1623): Empirical Antibiotic Treatment of Community'-Acquired PneumoniaOutpatientsPreviously healthy and no antibiotics in past 3 monthsA macrolide orDoxycycline (100 mg PO bid)Comorbidities or antibiotics in past 3 months: select an alternative from a different classA respiratory' fluoroquinolone orAb lactam plus a macrolideQIn regions with a high rate of "high-level" pneumococcal macrolide resistance/ consider alternatives listed above for patients with comorbidities.Inpatients, non-ICUA respiratory fluoroquinolone , gemifloxacin (320 mg PO od), levofloxacin (750 mg PO or IV od)]A biactam' plus a macrolidet Inpatients, ICUA biactam' (cefotaxime (1-2 g IV q8h), ceftriaxone (2 g IV od], ampicillin-sulbactam (2 g IV q8h}] plusAzithromycin or a fluoroquinolone (as listed above for inpatients. non-ICU)Special concernsIf Pseudomonas is a considerationAn antipneumococcal, antipseudomonal p lactam plus either ciprofloxacin (400 mg IV ql2h] or levofloxarin (750 mg IV od)The above piactams plus an aminoglycoside The above piactamsf plus an aminoglycoside plus an antipneumococcai fluoroquinoloneIf Community acquired -SIRSA is a considerationAdd Einezolid (600 mg IV ql2h) or vancomycin (1 g IV ql2h) | 154,923 | medmcqa_train |
Maggots in a dead body do not appear before: | D i.e. 48 hours | 154,924 | medmcqa_train |
In severe acute malnutrition, arm circumference is less than (in cm): | In children who are 6-59 months of age, severe acute malnutrition is defined asWeight-for-height <= -3 Z-score, orMid-upper-arm circumference <11.5 cm, orPresence of bilateral edema(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 301) | 154,925 | medmcqa_train |
Obesity is associated with decreased risk of - | The major factors considered in past for obesity as protective factor for osteoporosis include increased load on the coical skeleton, direct stimulation of bone formation by leptin, greater aromatase activity, increased estradiol leading decrease bone resorption, and stimulation of bone formation . The ongoing debate regarding the previous concept, that obesity is protective for osteoporosis may not stand same in view of the new concept of obesity of bone (adipogenesis), which is considered detrimental for bone health. ref - ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 987 | 154,926 | medmcqa_train |
The CNS tumor present with calcification ? | Ans. is 'a' Oligodendroglioma Although many intracranial tumors show calcification, oligodendroglioma shows calcification in 70-90% of cases. | 154,927 | medmcqa_train |
Tritanopes have defective assessment of whichcolor ? | Ans. is `b' i.e., Blue Colour Defective Absent GreenRedBlue DeuteranomalousProtanomalousTritsnomalous DeuteranoPtaProtanopiaTritanopia | 154,928 | medmcqa_train |
Burst abdomen is seen after how many days of surgery | In 1-2% of cases, mostly between the sixth and eighth day after operation, an abdominal wound bursts open and viscera are extruded. This is called burst abdomen or abdominal wound dehiscence. The sutures apposing the deep layers (peritoneum, posterior rectus sheath) tear through or even become untied.Reference : page 986 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 25th edition | 154,929 | medmcqa_train |
Fasciculation are caused by – | Fasciculation is characteristic of depolarizing block (sch). | 154,930 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about Duret hemorrhage, EXCEPT: | Duret haemorrhage: "Progressive rise in ICP cause fuher downward herniation into the foramen magnum or coning. This result in shearing of perforators supplying the brain stem causing haemorrhage known as duret haemorrhage. Tractional damage to pituitary stalk can result in diabetes insipidus. With progressive herniation the pupils become midsize & non reacting. These are invariably irreversible events leading to brainstem death". In case of increased ICP downward herniation of brainstem occur, which cause stretching of perforators of basilar aery & may results in bleed (duret haemorrhage). The local syndrome may include cushing's triad (aerial hypeension, bradycardia & respiratory irregularity). Duret haemorrhage is small area of bleeding in ventral & paramedian pa of upper brainstem (midbrain and pons). It usually indicates a fatal outcome, however survival has been repoed. Diagnosis is made on CT or MRI". Ref: Love & Bailey, 24th Edition, Page 611; Operative Neurological Techniques by Henry, 5th Edition, Page 35 | 154,931 | medmcqa_train |
In a monkey temporal lobectomy was done. What is not seen? | Memory and language problems after temporal lobectomy. Temporary double vision after temporal lobectomy. Increased number of seizures after corpus callosotomy, but the seizures should be less severe. Reduced visual field after a hemispherectomy. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 835,836,837 | 154,932 | medmcqa_train |
All the following signs could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus except - | In CST, there is loss of direct and consensual light reflex on the same side. So, there will be no pupillary constriction in response to light.
Retinal veins are engorged and congested in later stages.
Ptosis (due to 3rd nerve involvement) and opthalmoplegia (due to 3rd, 4th, 6th nerve involvement) occur in CST. | 154,933 | medmcqa_train |
What are the objectives of furcation therapy: | The objectives of furcation therapy are to
Facilitate maintenance
Prevent further attachment loss and
Obliterate the furcation defects as a periodontal maintenance problem. The selection of therapeutic mode varies with the class of furcation involvement, the extent and configuration of bone loss, and other anatomic factors. | 154,934 | medmcqa_train |
Emysema aquosum is found in: NEET 13 | Ans. Dry drowning | 154,935 | medmcqa_train |
Insect in ear can be killed by: | Removal of Insect from ear canal Tilt the person's head so that the ear with the offending insect is upward. Try to float the insect out by pouring mineral oil, olive oil or baby oil into the ear. The oil should be warm but not hot. While pouring the oil, ease the entry of the oil by straightening the ear canal. Pull the earlobe gently backward and upward for an adult, backward and downward for a child. The insect should suffocate and may float out in the oil bath. Don't use oil to remove any object other than an insect. Do not use this method if there is any suspicion of a perforation in the eardrum -- pain, bleeding or discharge from the ear. | 154,936 | medmcqa_train |
A 27-year-old man and his 24-year-old wife have been trying to conceive a child for 6 years. Physical examination shows he has bilateral gynecomastia, reduced testicular size, reduced body hair, and increased length between the soles of his feet and the pubic bone. A semen analysis indicates oligospermia. Laboratory studies show increased follicle-stimulating hormone level and slightly decreased testosterone level. Which of the following karyotypes is this man most likely to have? | Klinefelter syndrome is a relatively common chromosomal abnormality that occurs in about 1 of 660 live-born males. The findings can be subtle. The 46, X, i (Xq) karyotype is a variant of Turner syndrome (seen only in females), caused by a defective second X chromosome. The 47, XYY karyotype occurs in about 1 in 1000 live-born males and is associated with taller-than-average stature. A person with a mosaic such as 46, XX/47, XX, +21 has milder features of Down syndrome than a person with the more typical 47, XX, +21 karyotype. The 22q11 deletion syndrome is associated with congenital defects affecting the palate, face, and heart and, in some cases, with T cell immunodeficiency. | 154,937 | medmcqa_train |
One TB unit is recommended for how much population in Hilly areas - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 250,000Infrastrucilure in RNTCPOne microscopy center100,000 population in planes50,000 population in hilly/mountain areasOne Tuberculosis unit500,000 population in planes250,000 population in hilly/tribai areasOne district tubercular center (DTC)Per revenue districtOne state drug store (SDS)50 million populationOne senior TB laboratory supervisor (STLS)Every 5 microscopy centers (5 lac population) | 154,938 | medmcqa_train |
Antagonist of heparin is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Protamine | 154,939 | medmcqa_train |
Side effect of salmeterol is- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 'tremor o Tremor and palpitations are most common side effects. | 154,940 | medmcqa_train |
Meniere's disease is characterised by all except: | (a) Diplopia(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2331)The patient is fully conscious and oriented during an attack of Meniere.Meniere being a disturbance of peripheral vestibular system is therefore not characterised by any focal (such as diplopia, dysarthria, paresthesia, etc.) or generalised neurological symptoms like loss of consciousness, seizures, etc.The neurological symptoms accompany a central vestibular disturbance.However, vertigo of Meniere may be associated with vagal symptoms i.e. diaphoresis, pallor, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhoea and bradycardia. | 154,941 | medmcqa_train |
Auditory hallucinations not seen in: | C. i.e. Hysteria | 154,942 | medmcqa_train |
ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in: March 2007 | Ans. C: Renal Aery Stenosis Renal aery stenosis is the narrowing of the renal aery, most often caused by atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia, impeding the blood flow to the target kidney. Diagnosis of renal aery stenosis: Refractory hypeension - high blood pressure that cannot be controlled adequately with antihypeensives Auscultation reveals a bruit ("rushing" sound) on affected side, inferior of the costal margin Captopril challenge test Captopril test dose effect on the differential renal function as measured by MAG3 scan. Renal aery aeriogram Deterioration in renal function may develop if both kidneys are poorly supplied, or when treatment with an ACE inhibitor is initiated. Hence ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in renal aery stenosis. | 154,943 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following has epiphysis at BASE: | Epiphysis is present on the heads of all metacarpals, except first metacarpal (Thumb) epiphysis is at the base. If Epiphysis is present at the head of the first metacarpal bone it is called as aberrant epiphysis which is a detion from the normal (and rarely found). | 154,944 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the most common central nervous system parasitic infection - | Neurocysticercosis (NCC) is the most common form and accounts for 60–90% cases of Cysticercosis.
NCC is considered as the most common parasitic CNS infection of man and most common cause of adult onset epilepsy throughout the world. | 154,945 | medmcqa_train |
Primary objective of the use of atropine in anterior uveitis - | Ans. is 'a' i.e rest to ciliary muscles Kanski writes: 3 main indications of mydriatics in uveitisTo give comfort by relieving spasm of the ciliary muscles and sphincter of the pupil which occurs in severe acute anterior uveitis.To prevent the formation of posterior synechiae by using a short-acting mydriatic which keeps the pupil mobile ( Note that atropine is not a short-acting mydriatic )To break down synechiae.By reading these indications it appears that the primary objective of atropine is to give rest to ciliary muscles. Moreover to prevent posterior synechiae formation a short-acting mydriatic is used which keeps the pupil mobile. A long-acting mydriatic like atropine can keep pupils dilated for long durations and posterior synechiae can form in the dilated position. | 154,946 | medmcqa_train |
The mode of inheritance of incontinentia pigment is – | Incontinentia pigmenti is an X-linked dominant disorder | 154,947 | medmcqa_train |
Water lily sign on chest X ray is seen in - | Ans. is 4b' i.e., Hydatid cysto Radiological signs of hydatid cyst of lungMeniscus signWater-lilly signCamalote signRising sun signSerpent signEmpty cyst sign | 154,948 | medmcqa_train |
All are diseases of defective DNA repair except | Human Diseases of DNA Damage Repair Repair Defective Nonhomologous End Joining Repair (NHEJ) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) Radiation sensitive severe combined immunodeficiency disease (RS-SCID) Defective Homologous Repair (HR) AT -like disorder (AT LD) Nijmegen breakage syndrome (NBS) Bloom syndrome (BS) Werner syndrome (WS) Rothmund-Thomson syndrome ( S) Breast cancer susceptibility 1 and 2 (BRCA1, BRCA2) Defective DNA Nucleotide Exicision Repair (NER) Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) Cockayne syndrome (CS) Trichothiodystrophy (TT D) Defective DNA Base Excision Repair (BER) MUTYH-associated polyposis (MAP) Defective DNA Mismatch Repair (MMR) Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) Harper30e pg: 390 | 154,949 | medmcqa_train |
Which fungus appears as single budding cell in culture at 370 C and the bud and the parent yeast have a characteristic wide base of attachment? | This is the characteristic appearance of B. dermatitides | 154,950 | medmcqa_train |
Investigation of choice for assessing a child with vesicoureteric reflux is: | Ans. Micturating cystourethrogram | 154,951 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of embolic stroke is? | *approximately 20% of ischemic strokes are due to embolism from the hea. the most common causes are atrial fibrillation,prosthetic hea valves,other valvular abnormalities and recent myocardial infraction. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345 | 154,952 | medmcqa_train |
Horner Tranta's spots are seen in: | Ans. Vernal conjunctivitis | 154,953 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about Iron deficiency of anemia EXCEPT | B. i.e. (Sideroblasts) (369- 373- Harsh Mohan 5th) (435 - Basic pathology 8th)* "Sideroblast are reduced or absent in iron deficiency "IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA* *Common cause of nutritional anemia* *S. ferritin is good indicator of the adequacy of body iron stores* **Biochemical findings - S. iron levels |. TIBC |. S. ferritin || red cell protoporphyrin ||, Erythropoietin|* **Microcytic hypochromic - MCV, MCH, MCHC are all reduced. Eg Iron deficiency anemia, sideroblastic anemia thalassaemia, anemia of chronic disorders,* Extra medullary hematopoiesis is uncommon* Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, Target cells, elliptical forms and polychromatic cells are often present* Thrombosthenin is - contractile protein*** Hypothalamus is not rich in thromboplastin** | 154,954 | medmcqa_train |
Saccharolytic reaction in cooked meat broth is produced by | CMB also called Robesons cooked meat -contains nutrient broth and cooked meat of ox hea Saccharolytic reaction positive for cl.perfringes Proteolytic reaction positive for cl.tetani Ref: CP Baveja 4th ed Pg:51 | 154,955 | medmcqa_train |
Congenital rubella syndrome is most prominent in an infant when a pregnant woman becomes infected? | The route of infection of rubella virus is the respiratory tract, with spread to lymphatic tissue and then to the blood (viremia). Maternal viremia is followed by infection of the placenta, which leads to congenital rubella. Many organs of the fetus suppo the multiplication of the virus, which does not seem to destroy the cells but reduces the rate of growth of the infected cells. This leads to fewer than normal numbers of cells in the organs at bih. Therefore, the earlier in pregnancy infection occurs, the greater the chance for the development of abnormalities in the infected fetus. A vast percentage of maternal infections that occur during the first trimester of pregnancy result in such fetal defects as pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, cataracts, glaucoma, deafness, mental retardation, and other maladies. Ref: Brooks G.F. (2013). Chapter 40. Paramyxoviruses and Rubella Virus. In G.F. Brooks (Ed), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e. | 154,956 | medmcqa_train |
A 25 year old man presented with fever, cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enchanced computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lesions and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?Sarcoidosis | B i.e. Tuberculosis Expectoration is a common manifestation in tuberculosis. It is usually not associated with sarcoidosis, silicosis & lymphoma. B/L Upper lobe fibrosis makes lymphoma unlikely. It may be seen in other conditions and m.c. in tuberculosis. Diagnosis of silicosis is based on relevant occupational history (10-12 years exposure is usually necessary). Radiological features of | 154,957 | medmcqa_train |
DEEP PETROSAL nerve arises from | The deep petrosal nerve, sympathetic in nature is a branch of the sympathetic plexus around the internal carotid aery. It contains postganglionic fibres from the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion. The nerve joins the greater petrosal nerve to form the nerve of the pterygoid canal. The sympathetic fibres in it are distributed through the branches of the pterygopalatine ganglion. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. | 154,958 | medmcqa_train |
Withdrawal bleeding following administration of progestogen in a case of secondary amenorrhea indicates all except | Ans. is d, i.e. Defect in pituitary gonadal axisRef: Dutta Gynae 6th/ed, p467; Leon Speroff 7th/ed, p404-409Withdrawal bleeding following administration of progesterone suggests:* The uterus is sufficiently primed with estrogen, i.e. production of endogenous estrogen is normal which means. Ovaries and hypothalamic pituitary axis are functioning normally.* The outflow tract (uterus) is normal and endometrium is responsive to estrogen.* There is a defect in production of progesterone (so pregnancy ruled out). | 154,959 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is NOT secreted by adrenal medulla: | The adrenal medulla secretescatecholamines which include epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine. About 80% of adrenal medullarycatecholamine is epinephrineand rest is norepinephrine. Apa from catecholamines, the adrenal medulla also contains small amounts of dynorphins, neurotensin, encephalin, somatostatin and substance P. Synthesis of catecholamines include four steps: 1. Conversion of tyrosine to DOPA 2. Conversion of DOPA to dopamine 3. Conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine 4. Conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine | 154,960 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the most common site of peripheral aneurysm? | MC site of peripheral aneurysm: Popliteal aneurysm MC site of Splanchnic Aneurysm: Splenic Aery Aneurysm. MC vessel involved in aneurysm: Circle of Willis MC location of extra- cranial aneurysm: Aoa > Iliac > Popliteal > Femoral (AIPF) MC site of extra- cranial aerial aneurysm is infrarenal aoa | 154,961 | medmcqa_train |
Sabin Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of: | Ref. Textbook of Microbiology and Immunology BY Parija. Page. 500
Toxoplasma:
Tests include
Sabin-Feldman dye test, which tests for IgG antibodies
ELISAs targeted at IgM, IgA and IgE
Differential agglutination tests and IgG avidity tests.
Sabin Feldman Dye test
The test measures the total amount of antibody in serum which is capable of complement mediated killing of toxoplasma tachyzoites.
Serum is diluted across a microtitre plate and the end point is the dilution at which 50% of the tachyzoites are dead | 154,962 | medmcqa_train |
Primary amoebic meningitis caused by - | Naegleria fowleri, the only pathogenic species of naegleria Human infection comes from water containing the amoebae and usually follows swimming or diving in ponds. Patients are mostly previously healthy young adults or children. The amoebae invade the nasal mucosa, pass through the olfactory nerve branches in the cribriform plate into the meninges and brain to initiate an acute purulent meningitis and encephalitis (primary amoebic meningoencephalitis). The incubation period is 2 days to 2 weeks. The disease almost always ends fatally within a week TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY,CKJ PANIKER,6TH EDITION,PAGE NO 31 | 154,963 | medmcqa_train |
This milestone is achieved by the age of _________ | At 4 months Lifts head and chest, with head in an approximately veical axis. legs extended Reaches and grasps objects and brings them to mouth Enjoys sitting with full trunkal suppo When held erect pushes with feet Laughs out loud Excites at sight of food Ref : Nelson 20th edition pg:67 | 154,964 | medmcqa_train |
During gluconeogensis reducing equivalents from mitochondria to cytosol are transpoed by | A i.e. MalateMallate shuttle is a system by which reducing equivalents (NADH) produced in glycolysisQ are transferred from cytosol to mitochondria to yield energy.NADH produced in the glycolysisQ, is extramitochondrial where as the electron transpo chain, where NADH has to be oxidized to NAD+ is in the mitochondria (Oxidation of 1 NADH yields 3 ATP/2.5 ATP). NADH is impermeable to mitochondrial membrane, so to enable transfer of NADH inside mitochondria Shuttle system is utilized. | 154,965 | medmcqa_train |
Epinephrine action in liver: | A i.e. Glycogenolysis | 154,966 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is involved in gradenigo's syndrome? | Headache and earache are the most frequent symptoms of transverse sinus thrombosis. A transverse sinus thrombosis may also present with otitis media, sixth nerve palsy, and retroorbital or facial pain (Gradenigo's syndrome). Sigmoid sinus and internal jugular vein thrombosis may present with neck pain. Ref Harrison 20th edition page 1018 | 154,967 | medmcqa_train |
The white matter of cerebellum is well myelinated at | The white matter of cerebellum is well myelinated at 1 month.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology, 23rd edition, Page no:254 | 154,968 | medmcqa_train |
All are mechanism of defence except: | B i.e. Transference | 154,969 | medmcqa_train |
Which is associated with alcohol related cardiomyopathy | Dilated cardiomyopathy Restrictive cardiomyopathy Hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy Left ventricle is enlarged resulting in reduced systolic function Walls of ventricles become rigid resulting in decreased compliance. Asymmetrical septal hyperophy resulting in Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction Sub valvular AS Causes: Toxin - alcohol Sequalae to coxsackie-B myocarditis Sarcoidosis Duchenne's muscular Dystrophy Causes: Amyloidosis Sarcoidosis Radiation Endomyocardial fibroelastosis Hyper-eosinophilia Cause: b-myosin gene defect | 154,970 | medmcqa_train |
Christmas tree appearance of urinary bladder is seen in | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neurogenic bladder Christmas tree appearance of the bladder is seen in neurogenic bladder caused by detrusor hyperreflexia. Detrusor hyperreflexia is caused by lesions of the spinal cord above the sacral segments but below the pons. Such patients have noperception of bladder filling or emptying and voluntary voiding is not possible. Voiding when it does occur is involuntary with simultaneous contractions of the detrusor and external sphincter muscles. Common neurological condition resulting in detrusor hyperreflexia include Multiple sclerosis Myelodysplasia, Spinal cord trauma Spinal cord tumours, A-V malformatio not the spinal cord Radiologically, patients with long terms untreated detrusor hyperreflaxia have characteristic changes of the urinary tact. Bladder is veically oriented, with an irregular contours, consistent with trabeculation. There are frequently multipel diveicula, Such a bladder is referred to as a christmas tree. Automatic bladder Autonomous bladder Lesion site Above T5 or higher Cauda equina damage / lower motero neuron Manifestation Small spastic bladder damage Large flaccid bladder Why this name urge comes again and again due to repeated contractions and hence empties repeatedly after some time Has no urge sensation and continuous DRIBBLING occurs, So it is like the bladder is working all the time but Brain has no control over it and hence called autonomous bladder Radiological data Christmas tree appearance No VUR but still bladder is large and holds lots of residual urine | 154,971 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for Acute Adrenal Crisis is: | Answer is B (Hydrocoisone): The treatment of choice for acute adrenal insufficiency is Glucocoicoid Replacement Therapy. Hydrocoisone is the preferred steroid fir Glucocoicoid replacement therapy in acute adrenal crisis since it has both glucocoicoid and mineralocoicoid actions. In cases where the diagnosis of acute adrenal insufficiency is suspected (not confirmed) Dexamethasone is preferred as the initial steroid of choice because Dexamethasone does not compete with the coisol assay. 'Glucocoicoid replacement should be initiated by bolus injection of 100 mg Hydrocoisone, followed by the administration of 100-200mg hydrocoisone over 24 hours either by continuous infusion or provided by several IV or IM Injections. Mineralocoicoid replacement can be initiated once the daily hydrocoisone dose has been reduced to less than 50 mg because at higher doses hydrocoisone provides sufficient stimulation of glucocoicoid receptors' | 154,972 | medmcqa_train |
Telefono means ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Beating on ears Telefono : Simultaneous beating of both ears with the palm of hands. This may lead to rupture of tympanic membrane, causing pain, bleeding and hearing loss. It is difficult to detect this. The external ear may also get torn during pulling of the ears. Falanga : beating of soles with blunt object. It is the most common type of toure. It can cause immediate & long term consequences, even disability | 154,973 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum tissue reaction in associated with which suture material? | Ans. D. Plain catgut. (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/pg. 36. Table 18.1).While plain Catgut or Chromic catgut often causes bacterial infection due to inflammatory tissue reaction. Reaction to catgut depends on the stage of absorption and is mainly histocytic in type. Nonabsorbable sutures are encapsulated by a rim of connective tissue, while near the suture histocytes, giant cells and lymphocytes are found. This is most marked with silk and cotton, less so with Dacron, and least with nylon and wire.# All the natural sutures, silk, cotton, linen and catgut, are being replaced by polymeric synthetic materials that cause minimal inflammatory reactions, are of predictable strength and absorb at an appropriate rate. They can be manufactured as monofilaments or braids, and can be coated with wax, silicone or polybutyrate to allow them to run smoothly through tissues and to knot securely. The absorbables cause a minimal tissue reaction as they are resorbed. To aid in the prevention of postoperative infection, particularly after prosthetic surgery, absorbable synthetic sutures may be impregnated with an antiseptic (Vicryl Plus, a polyglactin, is impregnated with triclosan).# The integrity of some synthetic non-absorbables in holding healing tissues together can last indefinitely, such as the use of polypropylene in arterial anastomosis. Polyamide (nylon) is slowly biodegradable and therefore not suitable for this purpose. Many nonabsorbables are presented as monofilaments, which eliminates interstices in the thread and makes knots less likely to be a nidus for infection by reducing the risk of bacterial biofilms and adherence, but requires more skill in tying secure knots# Polyglyconate is newest synthetic monofilament absorbable suture. It is sterile, noncollagenous, nonantigenic, nonpyrogenic. It elicits only slight tissue reaction during absorption, absorption is by nonenzymatic hydrolytic process.Absorbable suturesSutureTissue reactionHow suppliedCommon indicationsContraindicationsCatgut plainHigh6/0-1 with needles; 4/0-3 without needlesLigate superficial vessels, suture subcutaneous tissuesStomas and other tissues that heal rapidlyNot for use in tissues which heal slowly and require prolonged supportCatgut chromicModerate6/0-3 with needles;5/0-3 without needlesAs for plain catgut PolyglactinMild8/D--2 with needles;5/0-2 without needlesGeneral surgical use where absorbable sutures required, e.g. gut anastomoses, vascular ligatures. Has become the 'workhorse' suture for many applications in most general surgical practices, including undyed for subcuticular wound closures. Ophthalmic surgeryPopular in some centres as an alternative to Vicryl and PDS.Not advised for use in tissues which require prolonged approximation under stressPolyglyconateMild7/0-2 with needles Not advised for use in tissues which require prolonged approximation under stressPolyglycolic acidMinimal9/0-2 with needles;9/0-2 without needlesUses as for other absorbable sutures, in particular where slightly longer wound support is requiredNot advised for use in tissues which require prolonged approximation under stressPolydioxanone (PDS)MildPolydioxanone suture (PDS) 10/0-2 with needlesUses as for other absorbable sutures, in particular where slightly longer wound support is requiredNot for use in association with heart valves or synthetic grafts, or in situations in which prolonged tissue approximation under stress is requiredPolyglycaproneMild8/0-2 with needlesSubcuticular in skin, ligation, gastrointestinal and muscle surgeryNo use for extended suppNon-absorbable suturesSutureTissue reactionCommon usesContraindicationsSilkModerate to high.Not recommendedConsider suitable absorbable or non-absorbableLgation and suturing when long-term tissue support is necessary for securing drains externallyNot for use with vascular prostheses or in tissues requiring prolonged approximation under stress Risk of infection and tissue reaction makes silk unsuitable for routine skin closureLinenModerateLigation and suturing in gastrointestinal surgery. No longer in common use in most centresNot advised for use with vascular prosthesesSurgical steelMinimalClosure of sternotomy wounds, Previously found favour for tendon and hernia repairsShould not be used in conjunction with prosthesis of different metalNylonLowGeneral surgical use, e.g. skin closure, abdominal wall mass closure, hernia repair, plastic surgery, neurosurgery, microsurgery, ophthalmic surgeryNonePolyesterLowCardiovascular, ophthalmic, plastic and general surgeryNonePolybutesterLowExhibits a degree of elasticity. Particularly favoured for use in plastic surgeryNonePolypropyleneLowCardiovascular surgery, plastic surgery, ophthalmic surgery, general surgical subcuticular skin closureNone | 154,974 | medmcqa_train |
The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate body to visual coex carries signals for detection of | Parvocellular pathway carries signal for detection of colour vision, texture, shape, fine detail. Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 193 | 154,975 | medmcqa_train |
A 42-year old man was referred with a 2 week history of fever weakness and bleeding gum. Peripheral smear showed pancytopenia. The bone marrow examination revealed 26% blasts frequency exhibiting Auer rods and mature myeloid cells. An occasional neutrophil with pseudo Pelger-Huet anomaly was also detected. Which of the following cytochemical stains is most likely to be positive? | Patient here gives a sho history (acute onset) of development of pancytopenia (fever; weakness and gum bleeding suggest leucopenia; anemia and thrombocytopenia respectively). The presence of 26% blasts in the bone narrow suggests the development of acute leukemia and the presence of Auer rods means that the diagnosis is most likely AML. Pseudo Pelger Huet cells are neutrophils having greater than 2 nuclear lobes and are usually seen in myelodysplastic syndrome. In 10% patients, MDS can give rise to AML. So, the AML in question may have developed from MDS. The chief cell in AML is myeloblast for which the staining is positive for myeloperoxidase. Note: Acid phosphatase is useful for lymphoblasts which are seen in ALL Other options: Toluidine blue stain mast cells red-purple (metachromatic staining) and the background blue (ohochromatic staining). Non-specific esterase: AML M4 ,M5. | 154,976 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is vitamin K-dependent clotting factor? | Ans. (A) Factor VII(Ref: Ganong, 21/e p547)Vitamin K-dependent factors are clotting factor II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X and anti-clotting factors protein C and protein S. | 154,977 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following can be used safely in renal failure? | Pefloxacin It is the methyl derivative of norfloxacin; more lipid soluble, completely absorbed orally, penetrates tissues better and attains higher plasma concentrations. Passage into CSF is higher than other FQs-preferred for meningeal infections. It is highly metabolized-paly to norfloxacin which contributes to its activity. Pefloxacin has longer tYz: cumulates on repeated dosing achieving plasma concentrations twice as high as after a single dose. Because of this it is effective in many systemic infections in addition to those of the urinary and g.i. tract, though the in vitro activity is similar to norfloxacin. Dose of pefloxacin needs to be reduced in liver disease, but not in renal insufficiency. Pefloxacin is an alternative to ciprofloxacin for typhoid. However, it is less effective in grampositive coccal and Listeria infections. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:691 | 154,978 | medmcqa_train |
The maximum motility of the colon is seen in | The maximum motility of the colon is seen in the sigmoid colon. The rate of BER at sigmoid colon is 6/min. Rate of basal electric rhythm in various regions Segment Rate of BER Stomach 4/min Duodenum 12/min Distal ileum 8/min Cecum 2/min Sigmoid 6/min Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology 26th edition Pgno: 486 | 154,979 | medmcqa_train |
Class I histocompatibility antigens are expressed on all except | Class I histocompatibility antigens are expressed on all nucleated cells and platelets | 154,980 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following have poor penetration in brain and eyes except | Glycopyrrolate, Tiotropium bromide, Isopropamide are Atropine substitute Quaternary compounds. These compounds are lipid insoluble and therefore have poor penetration in brain and eyes. Glycopyrrolate blocks the peripheral muscarinic side effects(caused by increased Ach levels) without causing unwanted central anticholinergic effects. Pilocarpine and Arecoline being teiary aminesare readily absorbed and can cross the blood-brain barrier. | 154,981 | medmcqa_train |
Central placenta under the classification of placenta pre depending on the extension of the placenta into the lower segment comes under __________ | Older classification of placenta pre (Browne&;s) Type Position Definition Type 1 Lateral Placenta dipping into lower segment but not reaching upto the os Type 2 Marginal Placental edge reached the os Type 3 Incomplete central Placenta covers the internal os when closed, but not when fully dilated Type 4 Central Placenta covers the internal os even when fully dilated Ref: Practical guide to High-risk pregnancy 3rd edition Pgno: 152 | 154,982 | medmcqa_train |
The energy requirement of women are increased in first 6 months of lactation is | (550 kcal) (552- Park 20th)* Recommended daily intake of energy GroupBody weightEnergy allowance per day KgKcalMJAdult Ref Males(Light work)60242510.1 (Moderate work) 287512.0 (Heavy work) 380015.8Ref Females(Light work)5018757.8 (Moderate work) 22259.3 (Heavy work) 292512.2Pregnancy + 300+ 1.25Lactation (First 6 months) + 550+ 2.3 (6-12 months) + 400+ 1.68 | 154,983 | medmcqa_train |
The most common type of emphysema associated with a-1 antitrypsin deficiency - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Panlobular | 154,984 | medmcqa_train |
Endodermal sinus tumor is characterised by | Refer Robbins page no 977Also known as endodermal sinus tumor, yolk sac tumor is of interest because it is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3 years of age. In this age group it has a very good prognosis. In adults the pure form of this tumor is rare; instead, yolk sac elements frequently occur in combination with embryonal carcinoma. | 154,985 | medmcqa_train |
What is the root value of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh? | Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh- S1,2,3 | 154,986 | medmcqa_train |
Resting muscle length means? | Resting length: The length of the muscle fiber at the onset of contraction which is required to attain maximum active tension It is about 2 micrometers. Also known as optimum length. At this state, the ends of actin filaments extending from 2 successive Z disks barely overlap one another. | 154,987 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a common association with Celiac sprue ? | Both Celiac sprue and dermatitis herpetiformis are associated with HLA DQ2 and HLA DQ8 | 154,988 | medmcqa_train |
Semen squeeze | * Squeeze Technique: * Variation of the Masters and Johnson method. * As a man approaches climax, either he or his paner squeezes the tip of the penis just below the head of the penis as he approaches the point of climax. * Pressure is held there until the sensation of impending orgasm diminishes. * This pressure can even be held until there is some reduction in erection. * The process can then be staed over again so that over time a man prolongs the time period until he reaches ejaculation. * Useful to treat cases of premature ejaculation REF : HARRISON 21ST ED | 154,989 | medmcqa_train |
The most common pre-malignant condition of oral carcinoma is ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Leukoplakia o There are two premalignant lesions for oral Cancer ? i) Leukoplakia ii) Erythroplakia o Leukoplakia is the most common premalignant lesions. o But, the risk of malignant transformation of erythroplakia is much higher than that seen with leukoplakia. o The most common predisposing factor for both these conditions is smoking. | 154,990 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the hormone secretion is increased if pituitary stalk is transected? | Ans. a (Prolactin) (Ref. H - 18th/pg. 50, 351)Pituitary stalk transection syndrome is relatively frequent and should be suspected after cranial trauma or fetal distress syndrome. The outcome is progressive evolution towards panhypopituitarism and these patients require regular clinical survey and hormonal controls.The following are causes of increased prolactin secretion:1. Pregnancy2. Stress or anxiety3. Pituitary stalk compression4. Estrogen therapyPituitary stalk transection is a non-negligible cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency. | 154,991 | medmcqa_train |
Affiliation refers to | Affiliation orders are legal documents declaring that a man is the father of a child under question. | 154,992 | medmcqa_train |
Function of the maxillary sinus is: | Functional Importance and Clinical Considerations
Many functions are attributed to maxillary sinus. Being an air space it lessens the weight of skull, gives resonance to the voice and protects the skull against mechanical shock. It warms and moistens the inspired air. The lysozyme it produces is bactericidal and thus contributes to the defense against bacterial infections. | 154,993 | medmcqa_train |
Glasgow coma scale (GCS) in case of mild head injury: September 2011 | Ans. B: 14/ 15 with loss of consciousness GCS in mild head injury: 14 or 15 with loss of consciousness | 154,994 | medmcqa_train |
Given the chest x-ray of a 45 years old man complaining of cough for the past 6 months. The patient gives a history of working in a construction factory for the past 15 years. what could be the probable Diagnosis? | Calcified pleural plaques is most common radiological manifestation of asbestosis. Pleural plaques typically arise from the parietal pleura, most frequently from the lower poions of the chest, sparing the apices and costophrenic angles. | 154,995 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following immunoglobulins increased in primary bacterial infections is | B. i.e. (IgM) (89- Ananthanarayan 7th)* IgM is the first immunoglobulins synthesized in the antibody response (Primary response) and its presence in the serum indicates recent infections. Since it cannot cross the placenta, presence of IgM antibody in serum of foetus or new born indicates intrauterine infections. IgM is also a major component of rheumatoid factor (auto antibodies)**, primary biliary cirrhosis.**A single immunoglobulin is - 2 light chain, 2 heavy chain** IgA increased in respiratory & GIT infections* The most avidly complement fixing antibody is - IgM** (Opsonization) | 154,996 | medmcqa_train |
Which ECG findings represents a characteristic manifestation of digitalis toxicity? | Digitalis glycosides are effective in increasing myocardial contractility and in the treatment of certain atrial tachyarrhythmias. However, digoxin actually increases myocardial automaticity (increase in premature beats) and facilitates reentry (atrial tachycardias). Digoxin also slows conduction through A V nodal tissue and has central effects that can mimic vagal influence on the heart and thus may produce sinus arrest. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with variable block represents the classic rhythm of digitalis intoxication. Digoxin is profibrillatory, but its administration should not lead to atrial flutter. Therapeutic levels of digitalis generate characteristic ST - segment and T-wave changes in most individuals taking the drug. These changes are known as the digitalis effect and consist of ST -segment depression with flattening or inversion of the T wave. The digitalis effect is most prominent in leads with tall R waves. The digitalis effect is normal and predictable and does not require discontinuation of the- drug. | 154,997 | medmcqa_train |
Macrosomia is seen in all except | Risk factors associated with macrosomia : Maternal diabetes Multiparity Increased maternal age Maternal obesity Prolonged gestation Male fetus Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 263. | 154,998 | medmcqa_train |
Ulcerative colitis involves | Answer 'c' i.e. Mucosa Ulcerative colitis involves mucosa and superficial submucosa with deeper layers unaffected except in fulminant disease. | 154,999 | medmcqa_train |
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