query
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| pos
stringlengths 1
22.5k
| idx
int64 0
161k
| task_name
stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|
a1 -antitrypsin deficiency chromosome is located at: | B i.e. 14Robbins Pathology, 9th edition, page 850Explanation:Alpha 1-Antitrypsin Deficiency:a1-Antitrypsin deficiency is an autosomal recessive disorder of protein folding marked by very low levels ofcirculating a1-Antitrypsin (a1AT).a1AT deficiency leads to the development of pulmonary emphysema, because the activity of destructive proteases is not inhibited.It also causes chronic liver disease as a consequence of hepatocellular accumulation of the misfolded protein.Cutaneous necrotizing panniculitis also occurs in a minor subset of patients.The gene, located on chromosome 14.The most common clinically significant mutation is PiZZ; homozygotes for the PiZZ protein have circulating a1AT levels that are only 10% of normal.a1AT deficiency is characterized by the presence of round-to-oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions in hepatocytes, which on routine hematoxylin and eosin stains are acidophilic, but are strongly periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive and diastase-resistant. | 154,700 | medmcqa_train |
Name the instrument shown here: | Ans. (c) Proctoscope* The scope used to examine anus and distal rectum is proctoscope.* We cannot examine proximal rectum with this - hence it is a misnomer to name it as proctoscope. | 154,701 | medmcqa_train |
Chikungunya is transmitted by - | Vector Diseases transmitted Culex Bancroftian filariasis JE West Nile Fever Anopheles Malaria Filaria (outside India) Aedes Yellow fever Dengue Chikungunya Rift Valley Fever Mansonia Brugian filariasis and Chikungunya REF: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 832 | 154,702 | medmcqa_train |
A term baby girl has two episodes of bile-stained emesis at 24 hours after bih. There is a history of excessive amniotic fluid volume. The most appropriate diagnostic test is? NOT RELATED - MEDICINE | . | 154,703 | medmcqa_train |
According to WHO clinical staging of HIV in children oral hairy leukoplakia belongs to which clinical stages? | Oral hairy leukoplakia belongs to Clinical stage 3. | 154,704 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest cause of hea failure in infancy is - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Congenital hea disease Congestive hea failure o Congestive hea failure is state in which the hea cannot produce the cardiac out required to sustain the metabolic needs of the body, without evoking ceain compensatory mechanism. o The most common cause of CHF in infants --> Congenital hea disease. o The most common cause of CHF in the older children --> Rheumatic fever & rheumatic hea disease. | 154,705 | medmcqa_train |
Which of these is not a marker of active replicative phase of chronic hepatitis B? | Ans. (c) Anti-HBC Anti-HBC has no relation with viral replication HBV DNA, HBV DNA polymerase represent active viral replication Level of HBV DNA correlates well with the degree of liver injury as suggested by raised AST, ALT It is not compulsory in chronic active hepatitis that HBeAg is positive. Infact HBeAg negative chronic hepatitis B is more dangerous. | 154,706 | medmcqa_train |
Trochlear and abducent nerve pass through | Optic nerve runs backwards and medially, and passes through the optic canal to enter the middle cranial fossaInferior orbital fissure transmits maxillary nerve, the zygomatic nerve etc.Infraorbital foramen transmits the infraorbital nerve and vessels | 154,707 | medmcqa_train |
Upper limb counterpa of dorsal spinocerebellar tract is: | Dorsal spinocerebellar tract carries - touch, pressure & unconscious proprioception from the lower body. Cuneo- cerebellar tract is considered as the upper limb equivalent of the dorsal spinocerebellar tract Ventral spinocerebellar tract - composite pathway carrying proprioception. Vestibulo cerebellar tract - carries fibers from the vestibular nuclei to regulate equilibrium & balance | 154,708 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is not an autoimmune disease? | Ans. (d) Sickle cell diseaseRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /211-15, 635* Sickle cell disease is a genetic condition which is characterized by mutation in beta globin chain of hemoglobin (glutamic acid is replaced with valine in the 6th position of beta chain).* Other given choices like SLE, Graves and MG are all autoimmune conditions. | 154,709 | medmcqa_train |
The requirement of potassium in a child is – | The recommended daily dietary intake of potassium in a child is 1- 2 meg/kg
`Dietary consumption varies considerable even though 1- 2 meg/kg is the recommended intake' | 154,710 | medmcqa_train |
The chosen method for measurement of obesity is - | Chosen method for measurements of obesity 1. A large propoion of total body fat is located just under the skin. Since it is the most accessible, the method most used is the measurement of skinfold thickness. It is a rapid and non invasive method for assessing body fat. Ref- Park&;s textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 24th edition. . | 154,711 | medmcqa_train |
A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is-( | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bacillus anthracis . Mc Fadyean's reaction is used for the presumptive diagnosis of anthrax. . History of skinning a dead animal, development of pustule, the presence of gram (+)ve bacilli in long chains with positive Mc Fadyean's reaction are suggestive of "anthrax" caused by Bacillus anthracis. | 154,712 | medmcqa_train |
Hind milk is richer in: | c. Fat(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 286-290, Ghai 8/e p 150-161)CharacteristicsFore milkHind milkWhat is it?Milk released at beginning of feedMilk released towards the end of feedRicher inWater, vitamins, minerals, proteinsFatSatisfiesThirst of babyHunger of baby | 154,713 | medmcqa_train |
True about kala-azar- | Kala-azar There are varity of animal reservoirs, eg., dogs, jackals, foxes, rodents, and other mammals. Males are affected twice as often as females. In India, Kala-azar is endemic in 52 districts. Incubation period, generally 1 to 4 months ; range is 10 days to 2 yrs. Ref:PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition page: 305 | 154,714 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is least likely to cause constrictive pericarditis | Causes of constrictive pericarditis include: Tuberculosis Incomplete drainage of purulent pericarditis Fungal and parasitic infections Chronic pericarditis Postviral pericarditis Postsurgical, streptococcal effusion Following MI, post-myocardial infarction In association with pulmonary asbestos Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1456 Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 463 | 154,715 | medmcqa_train |
Sinus of highmore is? | ANSWER: (B) Maxillary sinusREF: Dhingra 4th ed page 178See APPENDIX-49 "PARANASAL SINUSES" APPENDIX - 49Paranasal Sinuses:Paranasalsinus(PNS)Status at birth1stRadiologicalEvidenceBestradiologicalviewAdult sizeDrains intoCommentsMaxillaryPresent4-5 monthsWaters'view/Ocdpitomental/nose-chinposition15 yearsMiddle meatusLargest PNS, capacity of 15 ml in an adult, Antrum of HighmoreEthmoidPresent1 yearCaldwellviewSizeincreases until teensAnterior & middle Etbmoid= middle meatus, Posterior Ethmoid= Superior meatusNumber varies from 3 to 18FrontalAbsent6 yearsCaldwellview7 years,Middle meatus6-7 ml capacitySphenoidAbsent4 yearsWater's view with open mouthBetween 15 years to adult ageSphenoethmoidalrecess2.2 cm x 2 cm x 2.2 cm.Also know:Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common organism implicated to acute sinusitis in both adults and childrenIn children with cystic fibrosis, most common organism implicated to sinusitis is staphylococcus aureus.Chronic sinusitis is most commonly associated with s. aureus and <2 hemolytic streptococciAspergillus mucormycosis is the most common organism implicated to fungal sinusitis with maxillary sinus most frequently involvedWagner's granulomatosis is the most common granulomatous sinusitis with maxillary sinus most commonly involved.Acute sinusitis almost always involves single sinus, with ethmoid sinus being most common in children and maxillary in adults.Maxillary sinus is the most common location of chromic sinusitis in both children and adults closely followed by ethmoid sinus.(Note: To he more particular "Anterior ethmoid cells'' are most common site of chronic sinusitis in children but comparing sinuses as a whole maxillary becomes more common than ethmoid)Mucous retention cyst (different from mucocele) is most commonly found at maxillary sinus.Most common site of mucocele is frontal sinus (60%), least common at sphenoid sinus.Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor of sinuses with maxillary sinus most commonly involved (80%)Most common site of adenocarcinoma of sinus is ethmoid sinus.Brain abscess is the most common intracranial complication of sinusitis (as a whole)Meningitis is the most common intracranial complication of acute sinusitis.Orbital complication is the most common extracranial an overall complication of sinusitis | 154,716 | medmcqa_train |
A patient Parul gives you the history that she has missed a single dose of her combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following will you advise her? | * If a woman misses one pill of OCP, she should take 2 pills next day and then continue one pill a day as usual. * If the pills have been missed for 2-3 days, then the course should be stopped-->mechanical barriers (like condom) should be used and the next course should sta from next menstrual cycle. | 154,717 | medmcqa_train |
The critical angle of cornea-air interface is | Critical angle refers to the angle of incidence in the denser medium, corresponding to which angle of refraction in the rare medium is 90deg. At the tear-air interface, the critical angle is approximately 46deg. Made use of in construction of gonio lenses where this interface is changed and as a result critical angle becomes larger allowing for the reflected light to escape the eye and get reflected on the gonio mirrors which helps the examiner visualize the angle of the eye | 154,718 | medmcqa_train |
Activation of which of the following receptor cause vasoconstriction? | Ans: d (ETa receptor) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 600ET receptors:ETa - specific for endothelin 1 - G coupled- vasoconstrictionETb- Responds to all 3 endothelins - G1 coupled - vasodilatationM3 receptors cause vasodilatation by release of NO & visceral smooth muscle contraction.Nm - They are present in skeletal muscle & cause constriction but not vasoconstriction.Na - They are present on ganglionic cells not on vascular smooth muscle. M,m2m3SITEAutonomic ganglia,Gastric glandsCVSVisceral smooth muscleExocrine glandsVascular endothelium (vasodilator)AGONISTOxotremorineMethacholineBethanecholANTAGONISTPirenzepine,TelenzepineMethoctramineTripitamineHexahydrosiladifendiolDarifenacin (All India) NmNnSITESkeletal muscleAutonomic gangliaAdrenal medullaAGONISTPTMANicotineDMPPNicotineANTAGONISTTubocurarinea bungarotoxinHexamethoniumTrimethophan | 154,719 | medmcqa_train |
Local anaesthetic agent which has antimuscarinic action on hea muscle receptors is | Cocaine is a sympathomimetic (and thus antimuscarinic) local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it. | 154,720 | medmcqa_train |
Histopathology of a lung cancer shows 'Clara cells' probable diagnosis is - | Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
It is a histological type of adenocarcinoma.
It occurs in the pulmonary parenchyma in the terminal bronchioloalveolar pattern.
The tumor is almost always in the peripheral portion of the lung.
More often it occurs as multiple diffuse nodules that sometimes coalesce to produce a pneumonia-like consolidation.
The key feature of bronchioloalveolar carcinomas is their growth along preexisting structures without destruction of the alveolar architecture. This growth pattern has been termed "lepidic" an allusion to the neoplastic cells resembling butterflies sitting on a fence.
Stromal, vascular or pleural invasion is characteristically absent.
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma consists of mucin-secreting bronchiolar cells, Clara cells, or rarely type II pneumocytes.
These tend to have aerogenous spread and patient usually dies of suffocation (not by metastatic spread).
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma has two subtypes -
i) Non-mucinous → Rare aerogenous spread and therefore amenable to surgical resection.
ii) Mucinous → Tend to spread aerogenously, forming satellite tumors. | 154,721 | medmcqa_train |
A vaccine which requires stringent condition for storage is | (Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24thedition, pg no: 222) | 154,722 | medmcqa_train |
Miltefosine is used in treatment of: | Miltefosine (hexadecylphosphocholine) is an oral drug that was originally studied as an antitumor agent. Subsequent to the serendipitous laboratory finding that miltefosine was active against Leishmania in vitro and, after oral administration in laboratory animals, the drug was developed in a public-private panership for the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis or kala-azar. Ref: | 154,723 | medmcqa_train |
A 54-year-old man presents with 7 weeks of facial flushing and diarrhea. His symptoms began intermittently but are becoming more constant. A 24-hour urine collection reveals an elevated level of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA), a metabolite of serotonin. An abdominal CT scan shows a 2-cm mesenteric mass in the ileum and likely metastatic tumors in the liver. What is the likely diagnosis? | One of the main secretory products of carcinoid tumors involved in the carcinoid syndrome is serotonin , which is synthesized from tryptophan. Serotonin production is characteristic of gut carcinoid tumors. Serotonin is metabolized to 5-HIAA. Therefore, finding high levels of 5-HIAA in a 24-hour urine collection in a patient with flushing or other symptoms is highly suggestive of the diagnosis. Serotonin has numerous biologic effects, including stimulating intestinal secretion with inhibition of absorption, stimulating increases in intestinal motility, and stimulating fibrogenesis. In various studies 56-88% of all carcinoid tumors were associated with serotonin overproduction; however, 12-26% of the patients did not have the carcinoid syndrome. In one study platelet serotonin was elevated in 96% of patients with midgut carcinoids, 43% with foregut tumors, and 0% with hindgut tumors. In 90-100% of patients with the carcinoid syndrome there is evidence of serotonin overproduction. Serotonin is thought to be predominantly responsible for the diarrhea because of its effects on gut motility and intestinal secretion, primarily through 5-HT3 and, to a lesser degree, 5-HT4 receptors. Ref: Papadakis MA, McPhee SJ, "Carcinoid Syndrome, Malignant." Quick Medical Diagnosis & Treatment ; Jensen R.T. (2012). Chapter 350; Endocrine Tumors of the Gastrointestinal Tract and Pancreas. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | 154,724 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not diagnostic of antemoem drowning? | SIGNS OF ANTEMOEM DROWNING External findings: Cadaveric spasm holding grass, gravel and sand in hand Fine, white lathery froth in mouth & nose. Internal findings Presence of froth mixed with sand paicles in the trachea & bronchi (paicularly in the lower airways) Mud in the upper airway alone may be seen in post-moem drowning as well. Presence of water in stomach & small intestine Presence of water and hemorrhage in middle ear Non specific signs: Cutis anserina Washerwoman's hands | 154,725 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following vitamins are antioxidants EXCEPT: | Ans. (b) Vitamin BRef: K. Park 23rded. 1626* Antioxidants are substances which are both nutrients and non-nutrients.* These anti-oxidants reduce the toxic effects of reactive oxygen species and nitrogen species which are generated during physiological or pathological conditions and result in oxidant damage* Vitamins which acts as antioxidants are remembered as ACE: vitamin A, C and E* Other vitamins which acts as anti-oxidants are: Selenium, Glutathione* Non-nutrient products that also act as anti-oxidants are: Plant phenols, Flavonoids, Coumarins, caffeic, benzyl isothiocyanates, gallic and ellagic acid.* Vitamin B is not an anti-oxidant. | 154,726 | medmcqa_train |
Gastric carcinoma involving the antrum with lymph node involvements. The pancreas, liver, peritoneal cavity are normal. Most appropriate surgery is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above Most appropriate surgery is -3 Radical subtotal gastroectomy | 154,727 | medmcqa_train |
Chlorine demand of water determined by - | Horrock &;s water testing apparatus is designed to find out the dose of bleaching powder required for disinfection of water Contents 6 white cups One black cup with a circular mark inside 2 metal spoons 7 glass stirring rods One special pipette Two droppers Starch-iodine indicator solution Instruction folder (refer pgno:729 park 23rd edition) | 154,728 | medmcqa_train |
Surface Immunoglobulin is found in which cell?' | Ans is 'b' i.e. B-cell o B cells recognize antigen via the B-cell antigen receptor complex. Ig M and Ig D, present on the surface of all naive B cells, constitute the antigen binding component of B-cell receptor complexo After antigenic stimulation, B cells form plasma cells that secret immunoglobulin. | 154,729 | medmcqa_train |
Estrogen dependent conditions are all except : | Ca. Cervix | 154,730 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following infections have a well recognized association with nephropathies; except: | Staphylococcus epidermidis is the commonest infection of ventriculo-atrial shunts; mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis (GN) may result. Salmonella typhi infection can be complicated by glomerulonephritis, which may be mesangial proliferative, diffuse proliferative, or IgA nephropathy. Chronic hepatitis B virus - Membranous GN Hepatitis C - Membrane-proliferative GN associated with mixed essential cryoglobulinemia Nephropathy with hepatitis A is rare. The nephropathy associated with Legionnaire's disease is interstitial nephritis or tubular necrosis. | 154,731 | medmcqa_train |
Causes of floaters in DM is: (PGI May 2010) | Ans: A (Vitreous hemorrahage) "Sometimes the onset of new floaters is secondary to Vitreous hemorrahage, often caused by advanced Diabetic retinopathy"- Parson 20th/88Vitreous detachment also cause floaters (But as Q is specifically asked about cause in MD, so should not be marked as answer)Floaters20th/88-89& www.diife.com/diabetes/information//.../chous_ march06It occur when the vitreous, a gel-like substance that fills about 80 percent of the internal eye, slowly shrinks. As the vitreous shrinks, it becomes somewhat stringy, and the strands can cast tiny shadows on the retina.In most cases, floaters are part of the natural aging process and simply an annoyance. Over time, they tend to settle to the bottom of the eye, becoming less bothersomeFloaters are more likely to develop as we age and are more common in people who are very nearsighted, have diabetes, or who have had previous eye surgeryQ.There are other, more serious causes of floaters, including infection, inflammation (uveitis), hemorrhaging, retinal tears, and injury to the eye.People with diabetes tend to have more floaters because high blood glucose alters the chemical composition of the vitreous, causing it to shrink more rapidly. Also, people with diabetes are more likely to have bleeding inside the eyes as a result of diabetic retinopathy, and patients will sometimes visualize individual red blood cells floating around within their vitreous (sort of looks like hundreds of discrete, little peppercorns.)Patients with severe diabetic retinopathy (proliferative diabetic retinopathy) are especially at risk for a retinal detachment, as abnormal blood %ressels growing into the vitreous are more firmly attached to the retina, pulling it away as the vitreous shrinks (like wall paper being pulled off a wall). If left untreated, a retinal detachment can lead to permanent visual impairment or blindness within a few' days or even hours.Sometimes, a section of the vitreous pulls away (detaches) from the retina all at once, rather than gradually, causing many new floaters to appear suddenly. This is called a vitreous detachment, w'hich in most cases is not sight- threatening and requires only close observation, not treatment.However, a sudden increase in floaters, possibly accompanied by light flashes or peripheral (side) vision loss, could indicate a retinal detachmentFig.: illustration of a floater within the vireousposterior vitreous detachment (PVD) is a condition of the eye in which the vitreous humour separates from the retina | 154,732 | medmcqa_train |
Stenosing tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon sheath is also known as: | Stenosing tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon sheath, also known as trigger finger, is one of the most common upper limb problems to be encountered in hand surgery practice. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 44. | 154,733 | medmcqa_train |
Highly selective proteinuria is seen in | Loss of glomerular basement membrane (GBM) polyanion has been proposed as a cause of the selective proteinuria in minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS).The exact role of charge selectivity in the pathogenesis of nephrotic proteinuria remains controversial Proteinuria that is more than 85% albumin is selective proteinuria. Nonselective proteinuria, being a glomerular leakage of all plasma proteins, would not involve changes in glomerular net charge but rather a generalized defect in permeability Ref Harrison20th edition pg 287 | 154,734 | medmcqa_train |
Witness interested in concealing the truth or the part of truth is Known as: | Ans. b (Hostile witness) (Ref. Reddy FMT 23rd/pg. 10, 11)TYPE OF WITNESSHostile witness# As per sec. 191 IPC, the one who is supposed to have some interest or motive for concealing th? truth or the part of truth, or for giving completely false evidence. Both expert and common witnesses may turn out hostile.Expert witness# Person who has been trained or is skilled in technical and scientific subjects, and capable of draw\ng opinions and conclusions from the facts observed by himself, or noticed by others, e.g., doctor, fireexperts, fingerprint experts, handwriting experts etc (S 45 IEA)Common witness (witness of fact, occurrence witness)# Person who gives evidence about the facts observed or perceived by him.# He must show that he was capable of perceiving the fact by one of his own senses, and he actually observed this fact.# This is known as the "firsthand knowledge" rule, which may be used to establish the exact circumstance of the case for the court.Also know:As per Sec. 191 and 192 IPC and 344 CrPC a witness will be charged for perjury when he/she gives deliberate false/ fabricated evidence or fails to tell what he knows or believes to be true under oath. | 154,735 | medmcqa_train |
Food dependent Cushing's syndrome is a result of the aberrant expression of: | Glucose dependent insulinotropic polypeptide-Gastric inhibitory peptide ( GIP) In adipocytes - augments triglyceride storage It play role in obesity and insulin resistance GIP receptors aberrantly expressed in adrenal coex result in food dependent cushing syndrome. Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, Edition-9, Page-8 | 154,736 | medmcqa_train |
Monro-kellie doctrine is related to injury of - | Ans. (a) Head(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.603)Monro - Kellie doctrine states that the skull comprises of three components namely blood, CSF and cerebral parenchyma.If any of the component increases, it is always at the cost of others.For example, if there is obstruction to CSF flow, then CSF pressure rises and it automatically compress brain parenchyma and blood flow | 154,737 | medmcqa_train |
Mucopolysaccharide that does not contain Uronic acid residue is: | Ans. D. Keratan SulphateGAG with no Uronic Acid: Keratan SulphateGAG with no Sulfate group: Hyaluronic AcidGAG not covalently linked to Protein: Hyaluronic Acid | 154,738 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not seen in WV involvement of CNS - | Inclusion bodies [Ref : Bobbin's Thie p. 13751 Involvement of C.N.S. is a common and impoant manifestation of AIDS. In addition to the lymphoid system the nervous system is a major target of HIV infection. Macrophages and microglia cells in the central nervous system that belongs to the monocyte and macrophages lineages are the predominant types in the brain that are infected with HIV. It is widely believed that HIV is carried into the brain by infected monocytes. Ninety percent of patients demonstrate some form of neurological involvement at autopsy. C.N.S. involvement in AIDS usually produces AIDS dementia complex. The pathology associated with AIDS related congnitive motor complex sometimes called subacute encephalitis is located mainly in subcoical areas with relative sparing of cerebral coex. Between 10 and 20% of I-UV-infected patients present with neurologic signs as their first clinical manifestation of infection. In some, no other signs of AIDS develop. Between 50 and 70% of all AIDS patients eventually develop some features of what is called AIDS dementia or the AIDS related cognitive-motor complex. -This term is used to describe the characteristic pattern of cognitive, motor, and behavioral dysfunction, including mood disturbances, seen in AIDS patients. At autopsy, between 60 and 90% of AIDS patients brains show some .form of pathology. Pathologic changes directly due to HIV infection (subacute encephalitis) The pathology associated with the AIDS-related cognitive-motor complex, sometimes called subacute encephalitis, is located mainly in subcoical areas, with relative sparing of cerebral coex. Microscopic changes include : - Diffuse white matter pallor - Perivascular infiltrates of lymphocytes and macrophages - Foci of necrosis, gliosis, and/or demyelination Microglial nodules, macrophages and multinucleated cells Remember, Vasculitis is characteristically absent in CNS involvement in AIDS. The virus enters the brain, probably primarily by way of nacrophages, as HIV has been localized in CNS, mainly in macrophages, microglia and multinucleated giant cells. The virus is able to reproduce in the brain. Vacuolar myelopathy - Is sometimes seen in the spinal cord. This change consists of white matter vacuolation in posterior and lateral columns, and is mainly due to swelling within mhyelin sheaths. Peripheral nervous system pathology - PNS damage is seen in some HIV-infected patients. Inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy is the primary PNS pathology. | 154,739 | medmcqa_train |
Daily salivary secretion is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1000-1500 ml Daily secretion of intestinal juicesDaily volume (ml)pHSaliva10006.0-7.0Gastric secretion15001.0-3.5Pancreatic secretion10008.0-8.3Bile10007.8Small intestine secretion18007.5-8.0Brunner's gland secretion2008.0-8.9Large intestinal secretion2007.5-8.0Total6700 | 154,740 | medmcqa_train |
Lateral internal sphincterotomy is the treatment of choice for | ANAL FISSURE Definition An anal fissure (synonym: fissure-in-ano) is a longitudinal split in the anoderm of the distal anal canal, which extends from the anal verge proximally towards, but not beyond, the dentate line. Operative measures Historically, under regional or general anaesthesia, forceful manual (four- or eight-digit) sphincter dilatation was used to reduce sphincter tone; however, this was achieved in an uncontrolled fashion with potential disruption at multiple sites of the internal (and even external) sphincter. The risk of incontinence following this procedure has now made it unpopular, although more conservative controlled stretching is still practised in young men with very high sphincter tone. Fissure healing can also be achieved by a posterior division of the exposed fibres of the internal sphincter in the fissure base, but this is associated with prolonged healing, as well as passive anal leakage thought mainly to be due to the resulting keyhole gutter deformity; however, it may be indicated if there is an associated intersphincteric fistula. Lateral anal sphincterotomy In this operation, the internal sphincter is divided away from the fissure itself - usually either in the right or the left lateral positions (Notaras). The procedure can be carried out using an open or a closed method, under local, regional or general anaesthesia, and with the patient in the lithotomy or prone jack-knife position. The distal internal sphincter is palpated with a bivalved speculum at the intersphincteric groove. In the closed method, a small longitudinal incision is made over this, and the submucosal and intersphincteric planes are carefully developed to allow precise division of the internal sphincter with a knife or scissors to the level of the apex of the fissure; the wound is then closed with absorbable sutures. Alternatively, either plane can be entered using a scalpel , with the blade advanced parallel to the sphincter and then rotated such that the sharp edge faces the internal sphincter, which can then be divided along its distal third. Pressure should be applied to the wound for a few minutes to prevent haematoma formation. In the open technique, the anoderm overlying the distal internal sphincter is divided longitudinally to expose the sphincter, which is divided, and the wound is closed with absorbable sutures. Although the fissure needs no specific attention, problematic papillae and external tags can be excised concomitantly. Early complications of sphincterotomy include haemorrhage, haematoma, bruising, perianal abscess and fistula. Despite low recurrence rates, the most impoant complication is incontinence of a variable nature and severity, which may affect up to 30% of patients, paicularly women, who have weaker, shoer sphincter complexes and in whom there may already have been cove sphincter compromise incurred by childbih. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1352 | 154,741 | medmcqa_train |
In case of female commonest hernia is ? | Ans is 'b' ie Indirect Inguinal hernia | 154,742 | medmcqa_train |
For a screening test, 90% specificity means that 90% of non diseased persons will give a - | a 90% specificity means that 90%of the non diseased persons will give "true negative result",10% of non diseased people screened by the test will be wrongly classified as &;;diseased" when they are not. ref:park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,22nd edition,pg no 131 | 154,743 | medmcqa_train |
The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes | In severe kyphoscoliosis RV is normal TLC decreased FRC decreased/normal FVC decreases | 154,744 | medmcqa_train |
All the following statements about atrial myxomas are true, except | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1577:289e-1 In contrast to sporadic tumors, familial or syndromic tumors tend to occur in younger individuals, are often multiple, may be ventricular in location, and are more likely to recur after initial resection. | 154,745 | medmcqa_train |
Use of tamoxifen for breast cancer can cause all ofthe following adverse effects, exceptaEUR' | Carcinoma in contralateral breast [Ref. KDT 6/e p. 304; Goodman & 10/e p. 1440,14411 Tamoxifen is associated with reduced risk of cancer in the contra- lateral breast. - It helps in preventing the recurrence and also helps to prevent the development of new cancers in the other breast. When used as an adjuvant chemotherapy it is usually taken for 5 years. When taken for 5 years it reduces the chance of original breast cancer coming back in the same breast or elsewhere. It also reduces the risk of developing secondary primary cancer. Tamoxifen may lead to endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer -Tamoxifen is an SERM i.e. it has selective action on estrogen receptors. It will stimulate estrogen receptors in some organs while it will antagonize the estrogen receptors in other organs. - While tamoxifen blocks estrogen receptors on the breast, it stimulates these receptors in the uterus (because tamoxifen is a paial against of ER) Stimulation of estrogen receptors in the uterus may predispose the patients to endometrial hyperplasia and for endometrial cancer. Tamoxifen usage may lead to cataracts (occasional) 'Tamoxifen causes retinal deposites, decreased visual acuity and cataracts in occasional patients' - Goodman Gillman 117h/e p. 1557 Tamoxifen usage may lead to thromboembolism Tamoxffen increases the risk of thromboembolic events' - Goodman Gillman 1 | 154,746 | medmcqa_train |
Death caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriage is punishable by | Section 314 in The Indian Penal Code: Death caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriage. Whoever, with intent to cause the miscarriage of a woman with child, does any act which causes the death of such woman, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine. If the act was done without woman's consent, shall be punished either with or with the punishment above mentioned. Ref - Krishnan Vij 5th edition , <a href=" | 154,747 | medmcqa_train |
What is the ideal method to remove a retained Foley's catheter if its balloon does not deflate? | The ideal method to remove a retained Foley's catheter if its balloon does not deflate is by USG guided rupture of balloon after inflating it with 20ml water. It should be followed by a cystoscopic examination to rule out any fragments which can lead to bladder stones. | 154,748 | medmcqa_train |
CD 4 is not impoant for which of the following - | Opsonisation | 154,749 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following families of glycoproteins plays the most impoant role in regulating the migration and differentiation of leukocytes and connective tissue cells during wound healing in a 34-year-old woman who has a benign nevus removed from her back under local anesthesia ? | The locomotion of leukocytes is powered by membrane extensions called lamellipodia. Slower moving cells, such as fibroblasts, extend fingerlike membrane protrusions called filopodia. The leading edge of the cell membrane adheres to the extracellular matrix through transmembrane adhesion receptors termed integrins -Cadherins (choice A) are cell-cell adhesion molecules. -Fibrillins (choice B) are structural molecules that interact with elastic fibrils. -Laminins (choice D) are basement membrane glycoproteins. Diagnosis: Wound healing | 154,750 | medmcqa_train |
Rheumatoid factor is: | Answer is D (IgM): Rheumatoid factor is. an IgM antibody directed against the Fc fragment of IgG | 154,751 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following Lymphomas is associated with HTLV-virus infection? | (C) Adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma # HTLV-1 is associated with adult T-cell leukemia / lymphoma> Tropism for CD4+T cells> Human infection by Sexual intercourse Blood products Breast-feeding> Leukemia develop in only 3% to 5% of the infected individuals after a long latent period of 40 to 60 years. HTLV-1 is also associated with a demyelinating neurological disorder: Tropical Spastic Paraparesis and some form of Uveitis Arthritis> HTLV-1 is associated with adult T-cell leukemia / lymphoma> Tropism for CD4+T cells> Human infection by Sexual intercourse Blood products Breast-feeding> Leukemia develop in only 3% to 5% of the infected individuals after a long latent period of 40 to 60 years. HTLV-1 is also associated with a demyelinating neurological disorder: Tropical Spastic Paraparesis and some form of Uveitis Arthritis. | 154,752 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are features of thyrotoxicosis, except: | CVS FINDINGS IN THYROTOXICOSIS
Most common cardiovascular manifestation is sinus tachycardia, often associated with palpitations, occasionally caused by supraventricular tachycardia.
Exertional dyspnea.
Hyperactive precordium with loud first heart sound, an accentuated pulmonic component of the second heart sound, and a third heart sound.
Systolic ejection click.
The high cardiac output produces a bounding pulse, widened pulse pressure and an aortic systolic murmur and can lead to worsening of angina or heart failure in the elderly or those with preexisting heart disease.
Atrial fibrillation is more common in patients >50 years of age.
A systolic scratch, also known as Means-Lerman scratch, is occasionally heard in 2nd left intercoastal space during expiration.
Systolic hypertension. | 154,753 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs is used to prevent the mother-to-child transmission of HIV? | Ans. b. Nevirapine (Ref: Goodman and Gilman 12/e p1643; COGDT 10/p e692-693; Dutta 7/e p301-302; Williams 23/e p1248; Park 21/e p321; Nelson 18/e p1430-1431)Nevirapine is used to prevent the mother-to-chiid transmission of HIV."Single-dose nevirapine has been commonly used in pregnant, HIV-infected women to prevent mother-to-child transmission. A single oral intrapartum dose of 200 mg nevirapine followed by a single dose given to the newborn reduced neonatal infection by 13% compared with 21.5% infection with a more complicated zidovudine regimen, as studied by Sheran and co-workers in 2005. One important study in Uganda demonstrated that a single dose of nevirapine given to the mother at the onset of labour followed by a single dose to the new horn within 72 hours of birth decreased transmission by 50% compared with a regimen of zidovudine to the mother. The cost of this regimen is much cheaper than that of zidovudine and thus is being used increasingly in developing countries for prevention of mother to child transmission."- Goodman and Gilman 12/e p1643"Antiretrovirals used for preventing mother-to-child transmission of HIV-Zidovudine and Nevirapine."Mother to Child Transmission (MTCT) of HIVMTCT in developing countries (India): 30%QMTCT in developed countries: 20%TimingTransmission RateDuring Pregnancy5-10%QDuring labour and delivery10-15%QDuring breast feeding5-20%QOverall without breast feeding15-25%QOverall with breast feeding up to 6 months20-35%QOverall with breast feeding up to 18-24 months30-45%Q Prevention of MTCTModalityDose/ typeReduction in MTCT byPost-modality MTCT in IndiaZidovudineMother: 300 mg BD from 36 weeks POG + 300 mg 3h during deliveryChild: 2 mg /kg 6h X 6 weeks66%Q10%NevirapineSingle oral doseMother: 200 mg at labour onsetChild: 2 mg/ kgQ within 72 hours of birthQ50%Q15%QCaesarean sectionElective CS50%15% | 154,754 | medmcqa_train |
In patients who present with a penetrating chest injury, injury to the heart is most likely when the following physical sign(s) is/are present: | Hypotension, increased venous pressure (distended neck veins), and decreased heart sounds make up the classic Beck's triad associated with cardiac tamponade. If these three findings are present in a person who has a penetrating chest wound, intracardiac injury is almost certain and operative intervention is mandatory. | 154,755 | medmcqa_train |
IPC 304B is for - | Ans is 'b' i.e. Dowry deatho 304-BIPC: Dowry death : 10 years of imprisonment which can extend to life.o 498-A IPC: Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives.Dowry deatho In some cases newly married girls are abused, harassed, cruelly treated and tortured by the husband, in-laws and their relatives for or in connection with any demand for dowry. In extreme cases, the woman is killed by burning or some other method. Law in relation to dowry death are:-Low prescribing punishment and definition (section 304 B IPC)o Husband or (his any) relative will be tried under section 304B, IPC and shall be deemed to have caused her death, if a woman dies due to bodily injury or bums or otherwise in suspicious circumstances with in 7 years of marriage and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to harassment or cruelty by them, in connection with, any demand for dowry. Such death shall be called dowry death. Punishment includes imprisonment of not less than 10 years, but which may extend to life imprisonmentLow prescribing punishment for causing cruelty to a married women (Sec. 498A, IPC)o Husband or (his any) relative will be tried under section 498A, IPC for causing cruelty to a married woman. Cruelty is defined as any willful conduct which drives the woman to commit suicide or grave physical or mental injury to her or harassment of the women with a view to coerce (intimidate) her for dowry. Punishment includes imprisonment which may extend upto 3 years and fine. | 154,756 | medmcqa_train |
A 36 year old woman has noticed, absence of menses for the last 4 months. A pregnancy test is negative. Serum levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone are elevated and the serum estradiol levels is low. These findings suggest : | Premature menopause | 154,757 | medmcqa_train |
Serotonin (5-HT) is one of several mediators of the signs and symptoms of carcinoid tumor. When released from this neoplasm, most of the manifestations of 5-HT are the result of activation of the 5-HT2 receptor. These manifestations are therefore likely to include which of the following effects? | - 5-HT2 receptors mediate smooth muscle contraction and thus cause bronchospasm and diarrhea, not constipation.- Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are relatively insensitive to 5-HT.- Peptic ulceration is not mediated in pa by 5-HT; the autacoid actually reduces acid secretion. | 154,758 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not a part of proximal row of carpal bones? | Ans. D HamateRef: Kulkarni Clinical Anatomy, 2nd ed. pg. 80Proximal row of carpals (Lateral to Medial): Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetral and Pisiform. | 154,759 | medmcqa_train |
Epiphyseal enlargement occurs in | Epiphyseal enlargement - juvenile rheumatoid ahritis , hypehyroidism, rickets, spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia. EPIPHYSEAL dysgenesis/ fragmented or punctuate epiphysis - Hypothyroidism. | 154,760 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following agents do not act GABAA Cl- channel complex receptors? | Zopiclone (non benzodiazepine hypnotics ),benzodiazepine ,thiopentone(barbiturates) all act on GABA-Cl channel ,whereas promethazin is a antihistamine drug that acts on histaminergic receptors which causes high sedation. Ref: KD Tripathio 8th ed. | 154,761 | medmcqa_train |
30 year old woman's PAP smear is given below. What is your next approach | The pap smear shows:
→ Dysplastic squamous cells
→ High N:C ratio
→ Irregular nuclear membrane
→ Coarse chromatin
All these suggest high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) | 154,762 | medmcqa_train |
A problem village is one wrhere - | Ans. is i.e., All of the above o A problem village has been defined as oneWhere no source of safe water is available within a distance of 1.6 km, or Where water is available at a depth of more than IS meters, orWhere water source has excess salinity, iron, fluorides and other toxic elements, orWhere water is exposed to the risk of cholera. | 154,763 | medmcqa_train |
Rice grains appearance with passage of proglottids in stool is seen in | (T. saginata) (144-Panikar 6th)* Most common presenting finding is the passage of proglottids in the stool in T. saginata (1315-CMDT-08).* T. solium - Autoinfection with eggs can progress to cysticercosis.* T. saginata - Commonly lives in Jejunum (Unarmed tapeworm).* The larva of T. saginata (cysticercus bovis) is not found in humans.* Niclosamide and praziquantel are effective treatment. | 154,764 | medmcqa_train |
Most commonly used method of display of ultrasound is | Applications- A-Mode- Commonly used for orbital biometry,Axial Length of eyeball. B-Mode (Brightness) : Most commonly used mode. M-mode (motion): Used for valvular morphology and motion,Echocardiography and Fetal Hear Rate monitoring. | 154,765 | medmcqa_train |
The personnel involved in the integrated child development program of WHO is: | Anganwadi worker will guide ASHA in performing following activities:
Organizing Health Day once/twice a month. On health day, the women, adolescent girls and children from the village will be mobilized for orientation on health-related issues such as the importance of nutritious food, personal hygiene, care during pregnancy, the importance of antenatal check-up and institutional delivery, home remedies for minor ailment and importance of immunization, etc. AWWs will inform ANM to participate and guide organizing the Health Days at Anganwadi centre.
AWWs and ANMs will act as resource persons for the training of ASHA.
IEC activity through the display of posters, folk dances, etc. on these days can be undertaken to sensitize the beneficiaries on health related issues.
Anganwadi worker will be depot holder for drug kits and will be issuing it to ASHA. The replacement of the consumed drugs can also be done through AWW.
AWW will update the list of eligible couples and also the children less than one year of age in the village with the help of ASHA.
ASHA will support the AWW in mobilizing pregnant and lactating women and infants for nutrition supplements. She would also take initiative for bringing the beneficiaries from the village on specific days of immunization, health check-ups/health days, etc. to Anganwadi centres.
lt is involved in the integrated child development program of WHO. | 154,766 | medmcqa_train |
Arrange the following tumors according to the increasing age they affect. 1. Ewings sarcoma 2. Osteosarcoma 3. Osteoclastoma 4. Multiple Myeloma | AGE Tumors 1st Decade Ewing's sarcoma (Can be 5-20 years), Unicameral Bone Cyst Retinoblastoma Rhabdomyosarcoma Metastasis from Neuroblastoma 2nd Decade Osteosarcoma (Can affect all ages) Aneurysmal Bone Cyst Giant cell tumor (20-40 years-classical is 30 years) Adamantinoma Enchondroma After 40Yrs Multiple myeloma >Chondrosarcoma. | 154,767 | medmcqa_train |
A 16 years boy is accused of rape to a 12 years old girl. By which of the following, the boy can prove that he is innocent -a) No abrasion in body & genitaliab) Absence of blood & semen in cloth & genitaliac) Absence of saliva in cheekd) Age of the boy 16 yearse) Presence of smegma in penis & corpora granulosus | The absence of signs of struggle (injuries to body and vagina) and absence of exchange (blood and semen in cloth and genitalia) may be used as evidence in defences, as their presence is suggestive of rape.
Presence of smegma under prepuce is inconsistent with recent intercourse as it may be rubbed during intercourse and it takes 24 hours to accumulate.
In India, the law does not presume any age limit below which a boy is considered physically incapable of committing rape. | 154,768 | medmcqa_train |
After 8 weeks of visit to female sex worker male patient develops painless ulcer over penis that bleeds on touch without any lymphadenopathy, diagnosis is? | Donovanosis (Granuloma Inguinale ) Chronic, progressively destructive bacterial infection of the genital region caused by K. granulomatis. Intracellular, gram-negative, pleomorphic, encapsulated bacterium. Genital ulcers: Single Base is beefy red, bleeds easily and painless. Indurated and elevated margins | 154,769 | medmcqa_train |
Ear ossicles are | Ear ossicles are malleus, incus, and stapes | 154,770 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is not a feature of Phenylketonuria? | Ans. is `b' i.e., Reduced tendon reflexesReflexes are hyperactive. | 154,771 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is least likely to cause constrictive pericarditis? | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1575 When pericarditis occurs in the absence of any obvious underlying disorder, the diagnosis of SLE may be suggested by a rise in the titer of antinuclear antibodies. Acute pericarditis is an occasional complication of rheumatoid ahritis, scleroderma, and polyaeritis nodosa, and other evidence of these diseases is usually obvious. | 154,772 | medmcqa_train |
During the treatment of septic shock, a 28-year-old male remains hypotensive despite adequate volume replacement; PA occlusion pressure is 18 mm Hg. When dopamine is staed , ventricular tachycardia develops and this is unresponsive to lidocaine. The V-tach conves back to sinus rhythm once the dopamine is stopped. At this point, which of the following treatments are most appropriate for this hypotensive patient? | Dopamine activates b1-receptors and this was probably the reason for the arrhythmia. Amrinone will inhibit phosphodiesterase and result in an increased cyclic AMP level, producing the same result as b-receptor stimulation. Dobutamine and epinephrine also stimulate the b- receptors. The only choice which stimulates only a-adrenergic receptors is phenylephrine. Intraaoic balloon pump is invasive, therefore, less appropriate as a choice. | 154,773 | medmcqa_train |
A 12-year-old boy presents with hematemesis, melena and mild splenomegaly. There is no obvious jaundice or ascites. The most likely diagnosis is: | Most likely diagnosis is Extrahepatic Poal Vein Obstruction Differences b/w EHPVO and NCPF EHPVO - Extra hepatic poal venous obstruction- usually seen in 1st to 2nd decade; splenomegaly is less common & if its present, It is only mild/moderate NCPF - Non-Cirrhotic poal fibrosis - in 2nd -4th decade; Splenomegaly is M/C & If present, it is moderate to severe ;hematemesis present , no obvious jaundice & ascites . | 154,774 | medmcqa_train |
All are features of mania, except: MP 07; Maharashtra 11; PGI 14 | Ans. Low self-esteem | 154,775 | medmcqa_train |
Leishmania is cultured in ..... ...media? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., N.N.N. . L. donovani can be cultured in N.N.N. (Novy, Macneal and Nicolle) medium. . In N.N.N. medium amastigote form changes into promastigote form. | 154,776 | medmcqa_train |
Brush burn is: AP 09 | Ans. Graze abrasion | 154,777 | medmcqa_train |
According to the WHO , what is the minimum bacteriological standard for drinking water - | Must not detect E. coli or thermotolerant bacteria in any 100 ml sample. Total coliform bacteria should be nil in any 100 ml sample Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 782 | 154,778 | medmcqa_train |
This technetium-99m sulfur colloid scan was performed after the patient presented with abdominal pain. Howell-Jolly bodies were present on a peripheral-blood smear. What is the diagnosis? | Answer D. Pelvic spleenAbdominal imaging after injection of technetium-99m revealed a normal liver and a pelvic spleen. Pelvic spleen can be complicated by torsion of the pedicle. Howell-Jolly bodies suggest functional asplenia. | 154,779 | medmcqa_train |
Tap water scotochromogen is | M.gordonae often found in tap water (hence called 'the tap water scotochromogen'), is a common contaminant in clinical specimens and a rare cause of pulmonary disease. It differs from scrofulaceum in failing to hydrolyse urea, nicotinamide and pyrazinamide. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 367 | 154,780 | medmcqa_train |
Most common tumor of pineal gland is: | Ans: B (Germinomas) Ref: Robbia's Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th ed, Pg: 1163Explanation:PINEAL GLANDThe rarity of clinically significant lesions (virtually only tumors) justifies brevity in the consideration of the pineal gland.It is a minute, pinecone-shaped organ , weighing 100 to 180 mg and lying between the superior colliculi at the base of the brain.It is composed of a loose, neuroglial stroma enclosing nests of epithelialappearing pineocytes, cells with photosensory and neuroendocrine functions (hence the designation of the pineal gland as the "third eye").Silver impregnation stains reveal that these cells have long, slender processes reminiscent of primitive neuronal precursors intermixed with the processes of astrocytic cells.The principal secretory product of the pineal gland is melatonin, which is involved in the control of circadian rhythms, including the sleep-wake cycle; hence the poputar use of melatonin for the treatment of jet lag.All tumors involving the pineal are rareMost (50% to 7(1 %) arise from sequestered embryonic germ cells.They most commonly take the form of so-called germinomas. resembling testicular seminoma or ovarian dysgerminoma.Other lines of germ cell differentiation include embryonal carcinomas, choriocarcinomas, mixtures of germinoma. embryonal carcinoma, and choriocarcinoma, typical teratomas (usually benign).Whether to characterize these germ cell neoplasms as pinealomas is still a subject of debate, but most "pinealophiles" favor restricting the term pinealoma to neoplasms arising from the pineocytes. | 154,781 | medmcqa_train |
Otitis and osteomyelitis is seen in | The most serious complication of BCG vaccination is disseminated BCG infection.The most frequent disseminated infection is BCG osteomyelitis (0.01-43 cases per million doses of vaccine administered) which usually occurs 4 months to 2 years after vaccination.Fatal disseminated BCG infection has occurred at a rate of 0.06-1.56 cases per million doses; these deaths occurred primarily among immunocompromised persons.BCG otitis - A form of acute otitis media occasionally observed in infants after oral administration of BCG tuberculosis vaccine.In pus and granulation of the ear in a number of patients detected acid-bacteria vaccine strain BCG. Typically imperceptible onset at normal temperature, the growth of granulation tissue, for lingering, long-term, but beneficial. | 154,782 | medmcqa_train |
Felon is | (C) Terminal pulp space Infection # Infection of the terminal pulp space (syn. Felon) Pulp-space infection is the second most frequent infection of the hand (about 25 per cent of all cases ).> Index finger and the thumb are affected most often.> Origin of the infection is usually a prick.> Many hand infections will settle if conservative treatment is initiated (elevation of hand, splinting and antibiotics) within 24-48 hours.> But if pus appears I & D should be done (at point of maximum tenderness)> Antibiotics changed> Splinting is done in Edinburgh position. | 154,783 | medmcqa_train |
All are grass root worker's except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Health assistants Gross root level workers are health workers at the lowest level, i.e., at village level. Health assistant work at subscentre and PHC levels. Primary health care in India Primary health care can he divided into followin2 levels ? 1. Village level (Grass root level) To implement policy at village level, the following schemes are in operation. a) Village health guides scheme b) Training of local Dais c) ICDS scheme A ngann.udi worker. d) ASHA scheme Sub-centre level Primary health centre level Community health centres level. | 154,784 | medmcqa_train |
The staging system for thymoma was developed by: | The staging system for thymoma was developed by Masaoka The stage is increased on the basis of the degree of invasiveness. The 5-year survival in stage I, 96%; stage II, 86%; stage III, 69%; stage IV, 50%. The French Study Group on Thymic Tumors (GETT) has modified the Masaoka scheme based on the degree of surgical removal. Ref: Harrison, E-18, chapter e-20. | 154,785 | medmcqa_train |
Hemodialysis associated amyloid is deposited in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Knee joint Hemodialysis associated amyloid is deposited in synovium, Joints and tendon sheath. | 154,786 | medmcqa_train |
Most common lymph node involved in Hodgkin's lymphoma is? | Ans. (b) CervicalRef: Wintrobe's clinical hematology 12/e, chapter 96, Table 96.3, William's hematology 8/e, ch 99 | 154,787 | medmcqa_train |
In which TNM staging of glottis carcinoma, cancer limited to larynx w ith vocal cord fixation? (D. REPEAT 2012) | Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat by Dhingra, 5th edition. Chapter on Cancer LarynxExplanation:TNM STAGING OF CANCER GLOTTIS ( AMERICAN JOINT COMMITTEE ON CANCER,GlottisTl: Tumour confined to vocal cords with normal mobilityConfined to one vocal cord.Extending to both vocal cords.T2: Supraglottic or subglottic extension of tumour with normal cord mobility.T3: Tumour confined to lary nx w ith vocal cord fixation.T4: Massive tumour with thyroid cartilage destruction and/or extension to confines of larynx.Regional Lymph Nodes (N)NX:Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed (e.g. Previously removed).N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node. 3 cm or less.N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more than 3-6 cm.N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm. Distant Metastasis (M)MX: Distant metastasis cannot be assessed.M0: No distant metastasis.M1: Distant metastasis. | 154,788 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Buspirone | 154,789 | medmcqa_train |
Women undergoing infertility treatment are advised to avoid NSAIDs in preovulatory period because | Prostaglandin stimulates smooth muscle contraction in ovary, contributing to ovulation. prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors if taken in pre ovulatory period can cause luteinized unruptured follicle syndrome (LUFS). | 154,790 | medmcqa_train |
The opioid contraindicated in patients on MAO inhibitor is | Some opioid analgesics are associated with a risk of serotonin syndrome in combinations with MAOIs due to their serotonergic propeies. 1. Dextromethorphan, 2. methadone, 3. pethidine, 4. tramadol or 5. fentanyl should be avoided in patients on MAO inhibitor. | 154,791 | medmcqa_train |
Mallet finger is due to - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Avulsion of extensor tendon from base of distal phalynx Mallet finger (Base ball finger)* Sudden passive flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint (as by a ball striking the tip of the finger) may rupture the extensor tendon at the point of its insertion into the base of distal phalanx.* Sometimes, a fragment of bone is avulsed from the phalanx.* Clinically, distal phalanx is in slight flexion and patient is unable to extend DIP joint fully.* Treatment is by immobilizing the DIP joint in hyperextension with the help of an aluminium splint (finger extension splint) or plaster cast. | 154,792 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the most common extra-renal involvement in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease? | Hepatic cysts are the most common extrarenal manifestations of Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease. | 154,793 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug is useful in the treatment of Malathion Poisoning: | Pralidoxime is cholinesterase reactivator which is useful for the treatment of organophosphate poisoning. | 154,794 | medmcqa_train |
A patient presented with Tongue deviation on right side with ipsilateral atrophy. Which cranial nerve is damaged? | (A) Ipsilateral XII # CN XII Hypoglossal Nerve:> Origin: Medulla> Innervation: Muscles of the tongue except Palatoglossus> Function: Movement of the tongue> Dysfunction: Unilateral lesions can cause paresis, atrophy, furrowing, fibrillation and fasciculation on the affected half.> On protrusion tongue deviates towards the affected side due to unopposed action of the Contralateral Genioglossus> Flaccid Paralysis: Dysphagia Dysarthria Dyspnea Difficulty chewing food# XII Cranial nerve controls all tongue movements.> Nuclear or intranuclear lesions produce paralysis, atrophy, and fasciculations of the tongue on involved side.> Supranuclear lesions produce mild to moderate contralateral weakness that may be transient.> Bilateral supranuclear lesions, seen in pseudobulbar palsy, produce moderate to severe inability of the tongue to function> The transient nature is usually the clue> Nuclear lesions produce atrophy, weakness, or paralysis and fasciculations. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and polio are two causes.> Syringobulbia, infarction, and intraspinal tumors are other etiologies.> Nuclear lesions are often bilateral because of the closeness of the two nuclei in the medulla.> Hypoglossal nerve involvement after the individual fibers exit from the medulla is seen with many of the lesions that affect the spinal accessory nerve.> Tumors can compress the nerve in the hypoglossal canal and in the jugular foramen.> Basilar meningitis, due to granulomatous infection or carcinoma, can produce hypoglossal lesions.> Unilateral twelfth nerve palsy has been reported as one of the more common cranial mononeuropathies due to metastases | 154,795 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not seen in Secondary Adrenal insufficiency | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pigmentation Addison's disease The predominant manifestations in Addison's disease occur due to mineralocoicoid deficiency but the symptoms are also contributed by glucocoicoid deficiency and increased ACTH FEATURES OF :- Mineralocoicoid deficiency Lack of aldosterone secretion greatly decreases renal tubular sodium reabsorption and consequently allows sodium ions, chloride ions and water to be lost into urine in great profusion. The net result is greatly decreased extracellular fluid volume. Fuhermore, hyponatremia!, hyperkalemiae and mild acidosise develop because of failure of potassium and hydrogen ions to be secreted in exchange for sodium reabsorption Adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) Glucocoicoid deficiency Fatigue, lack of energy o Weight loss, anorexia o Myalgia, joint pain Fever Anemia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia Slightly increased TSH (due to loss of feedback inhibition of TSH release) Hypoglycemia (more frequent in children) Low blood pressure, postural hypotension oHyponatremia (due to loss of feedback inhibition of AVP release) Mineralocoicoid deficiency Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting Dizziness , postural hypotension Salt craving Low blood pressure, postural hypotension Increased serum creatinine (due to volume depletion) Hyponatremiayperkalemia deficiency Lack of energy Dry and itchy skin (in women) Loss of libido (in women) o Loss of axillary and pubic hair (in women) Symptoms Hyperpigmentation (primary Al only) oAlabaster-colored pale skin (secondary Al only) (due to deficiency of POMC-derived peptides) REMEMBER The clinical features and laboratory features described above are characteristically seen only in primary addison's disease because in primary addison's disease both aldosterone and glucocoicoid are deficient, whereas In secondary addison's disease only glucocoicoid deficiency is seen. ALSO KNOW The basis for acute adrenal deficiency or addisonian crisis During conditions of physical or mental stress, large amount of glucocoicoids are secreted to cope up with the situation. But in persons with addison:s. disease, the output of glucocoicoids does not increase during stress. Thus the deficiency of glucocoicoids, when a person actually has acute need for the excessive amount of glucocoicoids produces addisonian crisis. The manifestations are produced due to extracellular fluid dehydration and low blood volume leading to circulatory shock. | 154,796 | medmcqa_train |
Somatic efferent does not include | Somatic efferent nerves, also called as general somatic efferent (GSE) nerves, supply skeletal muscle of somatic origin ( muscles of eye and tongue).
Somatic efferent nerves include,
Oculomotor nerve - 3rd nerve
Trochlear nerve - 4th nerve
Abducent nerve - 6th nerve
Hypoglossal nerve - 12th nerve | 154,797 | medmcqa_train |
Granular casts in urine are? | On microscopic examination of urine, presence of granular cast ,RBC ,bacteria glucose, albumin, ketone bodies is abnormal granular cast are the hyaline casts embedded with RBC or WBC or these are degenerate glomerular cells or tubular epithelial cells in large number Their presence indicates renal destruction of glomerular tubular cells. Ref: page no 575 Textbook of physiology Volume 1 AK Jain 7th edition | 154,798 | medmcqa_train |
The drug which is not suitable for patients with acute porphyria for intravenous induction is: | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thiopentone sodium It has been repeated so many times that barbiturates can induce fatal attacks of porphyria in patients with acute intermittent or variegate porphyria and are contraindicated in such patients.Also know | 154,799 | medmcqa_train |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.