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Terminal stage of pneumonia is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Resolution | 154,600 | medmcqa_train |
T.T.K.G >8 is seen in all except: | Transtubular potassium gradient > 8 is associated with hyperkalemia. Choices 1, 2, 3 lead to hyperkalemia. Choices 1 and 2 lead to kidney damage. Choice 3 due to aldosterone deficiency leads to potassium excess due to inability to loose potassium the collecting duct. Cushing syndrome has excess of coisol, which stimulates the mineralocoicoid receptors to cause hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. | 154,601 | medmcqa_train |
Endophenotypic markers of schizophrenia include all except? | Endophenotypic markers of schizophrenia include: Oculomotor abnormalities Smooth pursuit eye movement alterations Saccadic eye movement disinhibition Prepulse inhibition(PPI) of stale response paradigms Deficits in sensorimotor gating, measured with electroencephalography-based event-related potential (ERP): standardauditory"paired stimuli" paradigm, so called "P50" response amplitude. | 154,602 | medmcqa_train |
Retraction of scapula is by: | Ans. B. Middle fibres of trapeziusThe trapezius is a large paired surface muscle that extends longitudinally from the occipital bone to the lower thoracic vertebrae of the spine and laterally to the spine of the scapula.The trapezius has three functional parts: The upper fibers elevate the scapulae, the middle fibers retract the scapulae, and the lower fibers depress the scapulae. | 154,603 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are the clinical feature of thromboangitis obliterence, EXCEPT: | Clinical features of Thromboangiitis obliterans includes a triad of claudication of the affected extremity, Raynaud's phenomenon, and migratory superficial vein thrombophlebitis. The physical examination shows normal brachial and popliteal pulses, but reduced or absent radial, ulnar, and/or tibial pulses. Claudication usually is confined to the calves and feet or the forearms and hands as it primarily affects distal vessels. In the presence of severe digital ischemia, trophic nail changes, painful ulcerations, and gangrene develop at the tips of the fingers or toes. Ref: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapter 23; Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 249 | 154,604 | medmcqa_train |
This serum immunoglobulin constitutes 80% of immunoglobulins in our body is | 80% of immunoglobulins in our body is IgG -major ig Half-life is 23 days Transpoed through placenta Ref: Text book of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 99 | 154,605 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the largest pathogenic bacillus ? | Ans: D (Bacillius anthracis) Ref: Ananthnarayan R. Paniker CKJ. Textbook of Microbiology. 8th Edition. Hyderabad: Universities Press; 2009. Pg. 242Explanation:Bacillus anthracisConsiderable historical interest is attached to the anthrax bacillus.First pathogenic bacterium to be observed under the microscopeFirst communicable disease shown to be transmitted by inoculation of infected bloodFirst bacillus to be isolated in pure culture and shown to possess sporesFirst bacterium used for the preparation of an attenuated vaccineThe anthrax bacillus is the largest of pathogenic bacteria, measuring 3-10 mm x 1-1.6 mm.Characteristics of Bacillus anthracisBamboo stick appearancePolypeptide capsule - M'Fadyeans reaction {stain with Polychrome Methylene blue)Edge of colony under dissecting Microscope shows Medusa Head appearance"Nutrient agar -Frosted glass appearanceBlood Agar - No or Minimal HemolysisSelective Medium - PLETmedium (Polymyxin, Lysozyme, EDTA, thallous acetate)Gelatin Stab Culture - Inverted Fir Tree appearance"String of Pearls" - media with .05 - .5 U PenG/ ml | 154,606 | medmcqa_train |
Adenoidectomy with Grommet insertion is treatment of choice for: | Ans. (b) Serous otitis media in childrenRef: Dhingra 5th edp. 71-72* Serous otitis media is also known as Glue ear.* It is an insidious condition characterized by accumulation of non-purulent effusion in the middle ear cleft.* One of common causes of serous otitis media (Glue ear) in children is blockage of Eustachian tube secondary to adenoid hyperplasia.* Therefore, the treatment aims at removal of adenoid (adenoidectomy) and drainage of middle ear by grommet.# Grommet is a small tube inserted in tympanic membrane to drain the middle ear.* Serous otitis media in adults should arouse suspicion of nasopharyngeal carcinoma and hence the treatment aims at removal of carcinoma* Adenoiditis is an acute condition and requires treatment conservatively. | 154,607 | medmcqa_train |
Sodium fluoride inhibits which enzyme in Glycolysis | Inhibitors
Enzyme Inhibited
Iodoacetate
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase
Arsenate
1,3 BPG Kinase
Sodium fluoride
Enolase. | 154,608 | medmcqa_train |
A Toddler has few drops of blood coming out of rectum. Probable diagnosis is | Ans is 'a' i.e. Juvenile Rectal Polyp "The aetiology and management of rectal bleeding depends on the age of the child, the type and quantity of bleeding and the associated symptoms. Unlike adults, malignancy is exceptionally rare. In infants, an anal fissure, necrotizing enterocolitis, intussusception and allergic enterocolitis are possible causes. In older children, more common causes include an anal fissure, a juvenile polyp and certain gastroenteritides (e.g. Campylobacter infection); Meckel's diverticulum, duplication cyst and inflammatory bowel disease are less common. Bailey and LoveJuvenile polyps are the most common type of childhood polyp, occurring in up to 1% of preschool children. They are usually solitary polyps found in the rectum which most commonly present with rectal bleeding.These are hamartomatous polyps, which are usually pedunculated but can be sessile. "The typical child with a juvenile polyp is 4 to 6 years of age, presents with intermittent painless rectal bleeding with bowel movements. Rudolph's PediatricsJuvenile polyps are usually are not premalignant.Because the gross appearance of these polyps is identical to adenomatous polyps, these lesions should also be treated by polypectomy.Juvenile polyposis is a term used when more than 5 to 10 juvenile polyps develop.Juvenile polyposis coli applies if the polyps are limited to the colon, whereas generalized juvenile polyposis describes the presence of polyps throughout the GI tract. Both have a significant malignant potential.Other mentioned options are rare in children.Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) patients present in Td to 3rd decade.Rectal ulcer (solitary rectal ulcer) is commonly seen in 20 to 40 yrs age group.Piles are rare in children. (Ref: Rudolph's Pediatrics, 21/e Chapter 17.22) | 154,609 | medmcqa_train |
Inferior thyroid aery arises from : | B i.e. Thyrocervical Trunk of 1't pa of subclan aery | 154,610 | medmcqa_train |
Most common site a spontaneous rupture of esophagus is | MC site: left posterolateral side of the distal esophagus | 154,611 | medmcqa_train |
A child is born with a single functional copy of a TSG. At the age of 5, the remaining normal allele is lost through mutation. As a result, the ability to control transition from G1 to S phase of cell cycle is lost. Which neoplasm is mot likely to arise in this child? | . | 154,612 | medmcqa_train |
The end product of one stage fermentation is ? | D i.e. EthanolAerobic glycolysis in cells with mitochondria & adequate oxygen supply PyruvateQ is the end product and NADH enters oxidative phosphorylation for ATP productionAnaerobic glycolysis in cells that lack mitochondria (eg RBCs) or deprived of sufficient 0, LactateQ is the end product as NADH formed in glycolysis is reoxidized by reducing pyruvate to lactate.Fermentation in yeast & some other microorganismsEthanolQ is the end product as pyruvate is decarboxylated & reduced into it | 154,613 | medmcqa_train |
Name the incision | This is Chevron incision or roof-top incision or bilateral subcostal incision. Used in PancreaticoduodenectomyKochers is right subcostal incision, for open cholecystectomyLanz incision used in appendicitisMaylard for pelvic surgeries, rectus muscle is cut in this | 154,614 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following take pa in the pathogenesis of CME in diabetic retinopathy except: | A i.e., Retinal pigment epithelial (RPE) dysfunction | 154,615 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following organism can cause acalculous cholecystitis? | Precipitating factors for acalculous cholecystitis are vasculitis, obstructing adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder, diabetes mellitus, torsion of the gallbladder, "unusual" bacterial infections of the gallbladder (e.g., Leptospira, Streptococcus, Salmonella, or Vibrio cholerae). Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2621 | 154,616 | medmcqa_train |
Increased density in skull vault is seen in -a) Hyperparathyroidismb) Multiple myelomac) Fluorosisd) Renal osteodystrophy | All the causes of generalized increased in bone density can cause increased density of skull vault — Practical imaging 2nd /e 73
Fluorosis and secondary hyperparathyroidism (renal osteodystrophy) cause increased density of skull vault. | 154,617 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is a rare complication of the use of hormonal contraceptives - | Adverse affects of combined Oral contraceptive pills (OCP'S) 1. Cardiovascular effects (Due to oestrogenic component) Myocardial infarction Cerebral thrombosis Venous thrombosis (with or without pulmonary embolism) Hypeension 2. Carcinogenesis Cervical cancer (increased risk). Breast cancer. 3. Metabolic effects (Due to progesterone component) Elevated blood pressure (hypeension) Altered lipid profile (reduced HDL) Blood clotting Hyperglycemia and increased plasma insulin. 3. Hepatocellular adenoma. 4. Gallbladder disease 5. Cholestatic jaundice 6. Monolial vaginitis (candidiasis) 7.Decline milk volume during lactation 8. Slight delay in return of feility (upon discontinuity) 9. Depression 10. Fetal bih defects. 11. General effects Breast tenderness Weight gain (due to water retention) Headache and migraine Bleeding disturbances Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 535-536 | 154,618 | medmcqa_train |
Number of Golgi tendon organs per 100 extrafusal muscle fibres | About 1 golgi tendon organ is responsible for 10 to 20 extrafusal fibers Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:689 | 154,619 | medmcqa_train |
Remote after Loading is done is? | Remote afterloading is done in Brachytherapy in which the system automatically administer a radioisotope directly to cancerous tissue, thereby minimizing the radiation dose to surrounding tissue and eliminating the radiation exposure to hospital staff. In brachytherapy, a radioisotope is placed onto or inside the patient. The source of radiation is put inside a sealed capsule ,which prevents it from moving or dissolving in body fluids but allows the emission of ionising radiation to the surrounding tissues. | 154,620 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following anticoagulant is safest in pregnancy? | Oral anticoagulants like warfarin, phenindione and dicumarol can cross placenta and produce teratogenicity if used during pregnancy. Heparin does not cross placenta and is safe in pregnancy. | 154,621 | medmcqa_train |
Specific stain for myeloblasts is ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., MyeloperoxidaseMyeloperoxidase stainDistinguishes between the immature cells in acute myeloblastic leukemia (cells stain positive) and those in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (cells stain negative).Sudan black B stainThis stain distinguishes between acute lymphoblastic leukemia (cells stain positive) and acute myeloblastic leukemia (cells stain negative).Periodic acid-Schiff stain (PAS) Is primarily used to identify erythroleukemia, a leukemia of immature red blood cells.Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase stain (TdT) Differentiates between acute lymphoblastic leukemia (cells stain positive) and acute myelogenous leukemia (cells stain negative).Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)Is used to determine if an increase of cells is due to chronic myelogenous leukemia or a noncancerous reaction to an infection or similar conditions. Cells from a noncancerous reaction stain positive with many intense blue granules; cells from chronic myelogenous leukemia have few blue granules.Tarate-resistant acid phosphatase stain (TRAP)Is primarily used to identify hairy cell leukemia cells.Leukocyte specific esteraseThis stain identifies granulocytes, which show red granules. | 154,622 | medmcqa_train |
Interventional study is used for:- | CLASSIFICATION OF EPIDEMIOLOGICAL STUDIES: 1. OBSERVATIONAL STUDIES: - Descriptive studies - Hypothesis formation is done - Analytical studies - Hypothesis testing is done by coho study/ case-control / cross-sectional/ Ecological studies. 2. EXPERIMENTAL/ INTERVENTIONAL STUDIES: - Hypothesis confirmation is done - Done by clinical trials/ RCT's / Field trials/ Community trials. | 154,623 | medmcqa_train |
Tuohy's needle is used for: | This is tuohy needle used for epidural anaesthesia | 154,624 | medmcqa_train |
A person presented with a tumour at the base of the tongue. What will be the treatment of choice | TONGUE CANCER Management of the neck in early stage oral cavity cancer, including the oral tongue, has been discussed above; however, consideration for elective management of the node-negative neck should be made in all instances. When performing surgical excision of the primary tumour, a 1 cm margin in all planes should be attempted in seeking a complete excision with pathologically clear (>5mm) margins. Resection resulting in paial or hemiglossectomy can be performed with either a cutting diathermy or laser if available. Advanced tumours (T3 and T4) often encroach upon the floor of the mouth and, occasionally, the mandible. In these circumstances a resection of the tongue and floor of the mouth and mandible is required. T4 tumours of the oral tongue may cross the midline, for which (sub)total glossectomy is the only option to achieve adequate tumour clearance. Decisions regarding elective neck dissections on the contralateral side will be dictated by radiological and clinical findings, in paicular proximity of the tumour to the midline. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 769 | 154,625 | medmcqa_train |
A Warthin's tumour is: | Ans. is 'a' i.e. An adenolymphoma of parotid gland Warthin's tumourIt is also called papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum because, histologically it consists of papillary cystic pattern with marked lymphoid component.Other important characteristics of Warthin's tumour.2nd most common* benign tumour of parotid gland (Ist is pleomorphic adenoma)*They are usually cysticTypically occur in 6th and 7th decades*More common in males*B/L in about 10%*Histological feature : -Consists of papillary cystic pattern with marked lymphoid component.Unlike all other neoplasms which form a 'cold' spot the adenolymphoma produces a 'hot spot' in a 99mTc - pertechnetate scan*, so that a firm preoperative diagnosis is possible without biopsy. | 154,626 | medmcqa_train |
Causative organism for botryomycosis? | S.aureus is the most common agent for botryomycosis. It is a mycetoma-like condition. | 154,627 | medmcqa_train |
Scaphoid fracture is most common in - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Waist * Most common site of scaphoid fracture is the waist of the scaphoid (70%).* Other sites of fracture are proximal pole (20%), distal body (10%), tuberosity, osteochondral fracture. | 154,628 | medmcqa_train |
Thiopentone in contraindicated in all except - | Thiopentone is an barbiturate and being barbiturate it is enzyme inducers thus can precipitate porphyria But depending on enzyme affected it has been found to be safe in Porphyria cuneata tarda and absolutely contraindicated in Acute intermittent Porphyria. fuher being cardiovascular unstable it is contraindicated in shock. it is bronchoconstrictor so contraindicated in asthmatic patients . | 154,629 | medmcqa_train |
BP tracking means? | Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. IF blood pressure levels of individuals were followed up over a period of years from early childhood into adult life, then those individuals whose pressure were initially high in the distribution would probably will continue in the same tract as adults. Low blood pressure levels tend to remain low and high level tend to become higher as individuals grow older.this phenomenon of persistence of rank order of blood pressure has been described as tracking.. | 154,630 | medmcqa_train |
In which of the following conditions oxygen delivery is least to muscles? | In person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning , perfusion to the muscle is least Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:353,354,355 | 154,631 | medmcqa_train |
Sphingomyelinase deficiency is characteristic of? | Ans. D. Niemann Pick diseaseSphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in Niemann Pick disease. The enzymes deficient in the other disease are:a. Fabry disease - alpha galactosidaseb. Krabbe's disease - beta galactosidasec. Tay Sachs disease - Hexosaminidase A | 154,632 | medmcqa_train |
CSF pressure (lumbar) - | A i.e. 70-180 mm CSF | 154,633 | medmcqa_train |
True regarding haemangioma of the spleen: March 2005 | Ans. B: May transforms into a haemangiosarcoma Haemangioma of the spleen is the most common benign tumour of the spleen and may develop into a haemangiosarcoma | 154,634 | medmcqa_train |
Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except: | Ref: KDT 6/e p457 Head injury is an absolute contra- indication to morphine use. Hypothyroidism and asthma are relative contra indication. | 154,635 | medmcqa_train |
Under the RNTCP, for diagnosis of MDR TB, currently drug sensitivity testing is done for: | Presently conventional solid egg-based Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) media will be used for primary culture at the RNTCP accredited laboratory. DST will be performed for streptomycin (S), isoniazid (H), rifampicin (R) and ethambutol (E) only. Pyrazinamide (Z) sensitivity testing may be included at a later period of DOTS-Plus implementation. Ref: | 154,636 | medmcqa_train |
Cataract is cases of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of - | In diabetic cataract the mechanisms are belived to be glycation, carbamylation of crystallins and increased oxidative damage. IMG REF | 154,637 | medmcqa_train |
A pragnant woman is diagnosed to suffering form Grave's disease. The most appropriate therapy for her would be- | The antithyroid drugs like carbimazole, methimazole crosses the placenta (transplacental passage) and produce fetal hypothyroidism and goiter if the maternal dose is excessive. However, oral propylthiouracil would be the most appropriate therapy in early gestation at low doses as its greater protein binding allows less transfer to the foetus. Carbimazole and methimazole are also associated with rare cases of fetal aplasia cutis and other defects, such as choanal atresia. Thyroidectomy and Radioactive Iodine I131 are contraindicated during pregnancy. Reference : page 254 Essentials of Medical Pharmacology K D Tripathi 7th edition and page 2297 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition | 154,638 | medmcqa_train |
Yergason's supination sign is seen in lesion of which muscle? | Bicipital tendinitis, or tenosynovitis, is produced by friction on the tendon of the long head of the biceps as it passes through the bicipital groove. When the inflammation is acute, patients experience anterior shoulder pain that radiates down the biceps into the forearm. Abduction and external rotation of the arm are painful and limited. The bicipital groove is very tender to palpation. Pain may be elicited along the course of the tendon by resisting supination of the forearm with the elbow at 90deg (Yergason's supination sign). | 154,639 | medmcqa_train |
Loading of dose of a drug primarily depends on: | Ans. A. Volume of distributionLoading dose is dependent on volume of distribution; whereas maintenance dose depends on the clearance.Loading doseMaintenance dose* It is the initial high dose which is given to achieve the desired plasma concentration after saturating (loading) the tissue binding sites.* Just enough drug is given in each dose to replace the drug eliminated* When time to reach steady state is long, as it is for drugs with long half-lives, it is desirable to give a loading dose that promptly raises the concentration of drug in plasma * LD=Vdx Desired plasma concentration (mg/L)* MD = Clearance x Desired plasma concentration (mg/L) | 154,640 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is also known as the labourer's nerve? | Median nerve- Labourer’s nerve- involved in coarse movements of hands.
Ulnar nerve- Musician nerve- involved in fine movements of hands. | 154,641 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the ATT drugs is not hepatotoxic? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Streptomycin Important educational points* First line antitubercular drugs causing hyperuricemia - Ethambutol, pyrazinamide.* Drugs causing peripheral neuropathy - streptomycin, INH, Ethambutol, ethionamide.* Drugs causing hepatitis - INH, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethionamide.* Optic neuritis - INH, ethambutol, ethionamide.* First line antitubercular drugs which are not hepatotoxic (does not require dose adjustment in liver diseases) - streptomycin, ethambutol.* Drugs not requries dose adjustment in renal failure - rifampicin, rifabutin rifapentine.* Hypothyroidism can be caused by - PAS, ethionamide.* Ethambutol and streptomycin do not cross BBB.* Active against extracellular mycobacteria: Rifampicin (Tuberculocidal), INH (tuberculocidal), streptomycin (tuberculocidal)* Active against intercellular mycobacteria: Rifampicin (Tuberculocidal), INH (tuberculocidal), Pyrazinamide (tuberculocidal) | 154,642 | medmcqa_train |
Free fatty acids in blood are carried by? | Free fatty acids (FFAs)/ Nonesterified (NEFA) fatty acid : Not esterified with fatty acids. Long-chain free fatty acids Transpoed by albumin. Hydrophobic clefts in the albumin binds to albumin. Sho chain fatty acids (butyrate ) More water-soluble Exist as the unionized acid/ fatty acid anion. | 154,643 | medmcqa_train |
What is the function of single strand binding proteins (SSBs) during DNA replication | Option a: Topoisomerases
Option b: DNA polymerases
Option d: DNA ligase. | 154,644 | medmcqa_train |
In normal X-ray of shoulder which is superior most structure - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Coracoid processo From superior to inferior (important structure on X-ray sholder) Clavicle : Acromian : Coracoid : Superior margin of humeral head : greater tuberc le : anatomical neck : surgical neck. | 154,645 | medmcqa_train |
What is the recommended dose of steroids for attaining fetal lung maturity? | b. Inj Betamethasone 12mg for 2 doses 24 hours apart(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 852)Inj Betamethasone 12mg IM 2 doses, 24 hrs apart or Inj Dexamethasone 6mg IM every 12 hrs for 4 doses can be used | 154,646 | medmcqa_train |
A male patient suffering from headache, profuse sweating, palpitations and BP.160/110. The drug which will be useful is? | Ans- D Phenoxybenzamine Ref - Practice Essentials A pheochromocytoma (see the image below) is a rare, catecholamine-secreting tumor that may precipitate life-threatening hypertension. The tumor is malignant in 10% of cases but may be cured completely by surgical removal. Although pheochromocytoma has classically been associated with 3 syndromes--von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome, multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2), and neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)--there are now 10 genes that have been identified as sites of mutations leading to pheochromocytoma. Axial, T2-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan showing large left suprarenal mass of high signal intensity on a T2-weighted image. The mass is a pheochromocytoma. View Media Gallery Signs and symptoms Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests as spells with the following 4 characteristics: Headaches Palpitations Diaphoresis Severe hypertension Typical patterns of the spells are as follows: Frequency may vary from monthly to several times per day Duration may vary from seconds to hours Over time, spells tend to occur more frequently and become more severe as the tumor grows The following may also occur during spells: Tremor Nausea Weakness Anxiety, sense of doom Epigastric pain Flank pain Constipation Clinical signs associated with pheochromocytomas include the following: Hypertension: Paroxysmal in 50% of cases Postural hypotension: From volume contraction Hypertensive retinopathy Weight loss Pallor Fever Tremor Neurofibromas Tachyarrhythmias Pulmonary edema Cardiomyopathy Ileus Cafe au lait spots See Clinical Presentation for more detail. Diagnosis Diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma include the following: Plasma metanephrine testing: 96% sensitivity, 85% specificity 24-hour urinary collection for catecholamines and metanephrines: 87.5% sensitivity, 99.7% specificity Test selection criteria include the following: Use plasma metanephrine testing in patients at high risk (ie, those with predisposing genetic syndromes or a family or personal history of pheochromocytoma) Use 24-hour urinary collection for catecholamines and metanephrines in patients at lower risk Imaging studies should be performed only after biochemical studies have confirmed the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Studies are as follows: Abdominal CT scanning: Has accuracy of 85-95% for detecting adrenal masses with a spatial resolution of 1 cm or greater MRI: Preferred over CT scanning in children and pregnant or lactating women; has reported sensitivity of up to 100% in detecting adrenal pheochromocytomas Scintigraphy: Reserved for biochemically confirmed cases in which CT scanning or MRI does not show a tumor PET scanning: A promising technique for detection and localization of pheochromocytomas Additional studies to rule out a familial syndrome in patients with confirmed pheochromocytoma include the following: Serum intact parathyroid hormone level and a simultaneous serum calcium level to rule out primary hyperparathyroidism (which occurs in MEN 2A) Screening for mutations in the ret proto-oncogene (which give rise to MEN 2A and 2B) Genetic testing for mutations causing the MEN 2A and 2B syndromes Consultation with an ophthalmologist to rule out retinal angiomas (VHL disease) See Workup for more detail. Management Surgical resection of the tumor is the treatment of choice and usually cures the hypertension. Careful preoperative treatment with alpha and beta blockers is required to control blood pressure and prevent intraoperative hypertensive crises. Preoperative medical stabilization is provided as follows: Start alpha blockade with phenoxybenzamine 7-10 days preoperatively Provide volume expansion with isotonic sodium chloride solution Encourage liberal salt intake Initiate a beta blocker only after adequate alpha blockade, to avoid precipitating a hypertensive crisis from unopposed alpha stimulation Administer the last doses of oral alpha and beta blockers on the morning of surgery See Treatment and Medication for more detail. | 154,647 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following antibodies is positive in Primary Biliary cholangitis (PBC) | Anti mitochondrial antibodies are a signature autoantibody of PBC and are detected in sera of 95% patients. | 154,648 | medmcqa_train |
Tretment of pernicious anemia patient with folic acid will improve all except | B 12 resevers will be used up for rbc maturation leaving less of neuronal fuction leading to nerve lesions | 154,649 | medmcqa_train |
Standing increases murmur intensity in | The classic ECG finding in hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is large dagger-like "septal Q waves" in the lateral -- and sometimes inferior -- leads due to the abnormally hyperophied interventricular septum.. Wolff-Parkinson-White, or WPW, syndrome can be associated with HOCM The murmur that is pathognomonic for HCM is a crescendo-decrescendo holosystolic murmur best heard at the left sternal boarder. The murmur classically increases with standing and valsalva, while it decreases with squatting, hand-grip, and passive leg lift . Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 463 | 154,650 | medmcqa_train |
All are diagnostic criteria for irritable bowel syndrome except: | The diagnostic criteria for irritable bowel syndrome is - Recurrent abdominal pain or discomfo for at least 3 days per month associated with > 2 or more of the following features - Pain improvement with defecation Onset with change in form / appearance of stool Onset with change in frequency of stool Nocturnal diarrhea or pain is not a feature of irritable bowel syndrome and is seen with Diabetic neuropathy. Bleeding is also not a feature. ROME CRITERIA FOR DIAGNOSIS OF IBS | 154,651 | medmcqa_train |
True about Splenunculi: | Ans. (a) It is encapsulatedRef: Bailey and love, 27th ed; pg. 1178* Splenunculi or Accessory spleen is the most common of all splenic anomalies accounting for 10-30% of population* Formed due to incomplete fusion of embryologic splenic tissue during 5th week leading to the formation of accessory spleen, which is more common or always on the left side of abdomen.* It is encapsulated just like the normal spleen and contains normal splenic tissue and are more commonly identified during radiological investigations and intraoperatively for other conditions* They are mostly multiple, located in the hilum of spleen (50%), tail of pancreas (30%)* They are more prone for torsion and needs emergency resection in such cases. | 154,652 | medmcqa_train |
who gave the concept of saftey needs in the heirachy of motivation | ABRAHAM MASLOW Gave the hierarchy of needs It is also called as hierarchy of motivation According to Maslow the basic needs should be met to move on to the next stage Once the basic step is attained, we work on to the higher stage The final stage is self-actualization, that is acceptance of your positives, negatives, sho comings, doing things that you are good at and working with satisfaction. Ref, kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 485 | 154,653 | medmcqa_train |
"Snowflakes" cataract is seen | A. (Diabetes) (181 - Khurana 4th)True Diabetic Cataract - It is also called "snow- flake cataract" or "snow storm cataract". It is rare condition usually occurring in young adults due to osmotic overhydration of the lens. Initially a large number of fluid vaccoules appears underneath the anterior and posterior capsules. Which is soon following by appearance of bilateral "snow - flake white opacities in the cortex* Clasical diabetic cataract consists of snow flake cortical opacities occurring in young diabetics (166 - K)* Galectosaemic cataract - bilateral cataracts oil droplet central lens opacities*** Wilson's disease - "Sunflower cataracts"*** Dystrophia - myotonica - "Christmas tree" patternTreatment of advanced diabetic retinopathy include - Seal the tear and reattach the retina, vitrectomy, exophotocoagulation*** | 154,654 | medmcqa_train |
A 60-year-old female presented to the OPD with complaints of left jaw pain along with fever. On examination, Poor dentition Area of purulent drainage in the mouth Right sided facial swelling Diffuse mandibular tenderness Medication history includes alendronate and lisinopril. Microscopic examination of the purulent secretions is done. What is the most appropriate drug for the above condition: - | This is a case of osteonecrosis of jaw which is a risk factor for Actinomyces infection. 1st image shows lesions from bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw at extraction sites of upper central incisors. Microscopy shows chronic inflammatory changes with Sulphur granules. Actinomyces It has propensity to infect the jaw. Risk factors are: - Abnormal bone due to radiation Osteonecrosis of jaw Gram staining shows intense positive staining at the centre with branching rods at the periphery. It is very sensitive to penicillin therapy. | 154,655 | medmcqa_train |
In a worker engaged in stone breaking with a chisel and hammer, the most common foreign body which can be lodged in his eye is: | Ans. Paicle from the chisel | 154,656 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for primary open angle glaucoma: | Prostaglandin analogues are now the drug of choice for open angle glaucoma and normal tension glaucoma. | 154,657 | medmcqa_train |
Vegetations on undersurface of A.V. valves are found in: | Answer is B (Libman Sacks Endocarditis) Vegetation on under-surface of AV valves are typically seen in Libman Sacks Endocarditis (SLE). | 154,658 | medmcqa_train |
Colopotomy is done to treat - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pelvic abscess | 154,659 | medmcqa_train |
Bilateral lymphadenopathy , along with non caseating granulomas is a characteristic feature of | Patients are usually evaluated for possible sarcoidosis based on two scenarios .In the first scenario, a patient may undergo biopsy revealing a noncaseating granuloma in either a pulmonary or an extrapulmonary organ. In the second scenario, signs or symptoms suggesting sarcoidosis such as the presence of bilateral adenopathy may be present in an otherwise asymptomatic patient or a patient with uveitis or a rash consistent with sarcoidosis. Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 2205-2206 | 154,660 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of Papillary Ca of Thyroid with bony metastasis | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Near total thyroidectomy with radioiodine & radiotherapy As already mentioned in previous question, Total or Near total thyroidectomy is t/t of choice in PTC and also FTC (except minimally invasive cancer). Radioactive iodine '3'1is used post-operatively to detect and destroy any metastatic disease. It is also advised by some expes to do a routine 1311scan and therapy for all patients of differentiated thyroid cancer, postoperatively (except those with occult or minimally invasive disease). Screening with RAI is more sensitive than chest x-ray or CT scanning for detecting metastases; however, it is less sensitive than Tg measurements for detecting metastatic disease in most differentiated thyroid cancers except Huhle cell tumors. External beam radiotherapy is used to treat bone metastasis (to prevent fracture or to control pain). It is also occasionally used to control unresectable, locally invasive or recurrent thyroid carcinoma. There is no role for routine chemotherapy in differentiated thyroid cancers. Other Postop management in differentiated thyroid cancers Thyroid Hormone T4 is given as replacement therapy in patients after total or near-total thyroidectomy, and has the additional effect of suppressing TSH and reducing the growth stimulus for any possible residual thyroid cancer cells. TSH suppression reduces tumor recurrence rates. Thyroglobulin measurement Thyroglobulin (Tg) is produced only by thyroid follicular cells. Following total thyroidectomy, it should be undetectable in serum and any detectable level then indicates the persistence or recurrence of neoplastic disease. This is the basis for the use of Tg as a post-operative tumor marker in the follow-up of thyroid cancer patients Tg levels in patients who have undergone total thyroidectomy should be <2 ng/mL when the patient is taking T4 , and <5 ng/mL when the patient is hypothyroid. | 154,661 | medmcqa_train |
In recent memory loss, probable lesion is in | The Neuropsychology of Autobiographical Memory The medial temporal lobe memory system includes the hippocampus formation and the adjacent parahippocampal and perirhinal coices. The hippocampus is not the place where the content of memories is stored, but rather appears to contain a set of neural links to the content, which is distributed widely throughout the coex. Memories of an episode in one's life typically contain information from more than one modality: vision, hearing, and even taste, touch, and smell. Each of these components is stored in a unimodal sensory area, for example, the visual components of an episodic memory are stored in the visual coex in the occipital lobe, while the auditory components are stored in the auditory coex in the temporal lobe. These distributed representations are linked to a central index in the hippocampus. When recent episodes are retrieved, the index is reactivated, causing activation to spread to each of the associated unimodal areas. This is more correct of recent episodes, however. Once a representation of an episode has been fully consolidated, activation can spread between the separate features themselves, so that hippocampal activation is no longer needed. We are also beginning to gain an understanding of the brain areas that comprise the frontal components of the medial temporal lobe memory system. Medial temporal and hippocampal regions tend to be more involved in spatial context memory, while the frontocoical region, the diencephalon, and the temporal lobes are involved in temporal context memory. Much has also been learned about the neural bases of sho-term memory systems located in the frontal lobes. Psychologists have had trouble determining whether there is one type of sho-term memory, or several. The time span involved - exactly what 'sho' means - is also not widely agreed upon. In the 1980s, however, neuroscientists began exploring a large area in the dorsolateral poion of the prefrontal lobes. This area seems to be responsible for a so of memory that has been called 'working memory' - a concept that at least overlaps with the psychologist's concept of sho-term memory. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2235 | 154,662 | medmcqa_train |
Cranial nerve related to apex of the petrous temporal bone | In the intraneural course,the fibres of VI nerve runs veically and downwardsthrough the trapezoid body,medial lemniscus and basilar pa of the pons to reach the lower border of the pons. The nerve is attached to the lower border of the pons,opposite the upper end of the pyramid of the medulla. The nerve then runs upwards,forwards and laterally through the cristerna pontis and usually dorsal to the anterior inferior cerebellar aery to reach the cavernous sinus. The ebducent nerve enters the cavernous sinus by piercing its posterior wall at a point lateral to the dorsum sellae and superior to the apex of the petrous temporal bone. As the nerve crosses the superior border of the petrous temporal bone,it passes beneath the petrosphenoidal ligament,and bends sharply forwards. In the cavernous sinus,at first it lies lateral to the internal carotid aery and then inferolateral to it. The abducent nerve enters the orbit through the middle pa of the superior orbital fissure. Here it lies inferolateral to the occulomotor and nasociliary nerves. In the orbit,the nerve ends by supplying only the lateral rectus muscle. It enters the ocular surface of the muscle. Ref BDC volume 3.6th edition pg 365 | 154,663 | medmcqa_train |
Hepatotoxic inhalational agent | All inhalational agent cause maild hepatotoxicity by decreasing hepatic blood flowIsoflurane is the agent of choice in liver disease as it has least effect on Hepatic blood flowDirect hepatotoxicity (Hepatitis, hepatic necrosis) is caused by- halothane, chloroform, trilene, methoxyflurane(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no. 167-169) | 154,664 | medmcqa_train |
True about subcutaneous nodule in Rheumatic fever ________ | Subcutaneous nodule in RHD is seen in 3 to 20% cases,non tender,on bony prominence like elbow,shine,occiput ,mostly associated with carditis. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition ,p.no:436 | 154,665 | medmcqa_train |
Which vaccine gives herd immunity- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., OPV o The vaccine progeny of OPV is excreted in the faeces and secondary spread occurs to household contacts and susceptible contacts in the community. o Non-immunized persons may therefore, be immunized. o Thus widspread "herd immunity"results, even if only approximately 66% of the community is immunized. | 154,666 | medmcqa_train |
A 50-year-old lady sprained her ankle 2 months back from which she made a steady recovery. 2 months after the injury she gradually developed severe pain in her right ankle with the significant limitation of ankle movement. Clinical examination reveals oedema and shiny skin. What is the likely diagnosis? | COMPLEX REGIONAL PAIN SYNDROME (ALGODYSTROPHY)
Sudeck, in 1900, described a condition characterized by painful osteoporosis of the hand. The same condition sometimes occurs after fractures of the extremities and for many years it was called Sudeck’s atrophy. It is now recognized that this advanced atrophic disorder is the late stage of a post-traumatic reflex sympathetic dystrophy (also known as algodystrophy), which is much more common than originally believed (Atkins, 2003) and that it may follow a relatively trivial injury. Because of continuing uncertainty about its nature, the term complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) has been introduced. Two types of CRPS are recognized:
TYPE 1
a reflex sympathetic dystrophy that develops after an injurious or noxious event.
TYPE 2
causalgia that develops after a nerve injury. The patient complains of continuous pain, often described as ‘burning’ in character. At first, there is local swelling, redness and warmth, as well as tenderness and moderate stiffness of the nearby joints. As the weeks go by the skin becomes pale and atrophic, movements are increasingly restricted and the patient may develop fixed deformities. X-rays characteristically show patchy rarefaction of the bone. | 154,667 | medmcqa_train |
True about subendocardial hemorrhage is all except | Subendocardial hemorrhages (SEH) occur after cardiac injuries and resuscitation as well as secondary to noncardiac injuries comprising head injuries, infectious diseases, intoxications, hemorrhagic diathesis, abdominal trauma, asthma, and hypovolemic shock. In paicular, the common incidence of SEH in intracranial lesions led to the suggestion that the phenomenon is mediated by the autonomic nervous system hypersecretion of catecholamines Ramdas Nayak page no. 303 | 154,668 | medmcqa_train |
Antihormone used in Infeility is: | Clomifene citrate : Anti-estrogenic -effects on the Hypothalamic axis which promotes release of FSH and LH which induces folliculogenesis and ovulation. Finasteride: Competitive inhibitor of enzyme 5 alpha reductase. with anti androgenic propeies Mifepristone: antiprogesterone used for inducing aboions Danazol: antiestrogen, weak androgen, weak progesterone action. Used in endometriosis and abnormal uterine bleeding | 154,669 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is related to floor of middle ear? | The floor or Jugular Wall of the middle ear is formed by a thin plate of bone which separates the middle ear from the superior bulb of the internal jugular vein. This plate is a pa of the temporal bone, Near the medial wall, the floor presents the tympanic canaliculus which transmits the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve to the medial wall of the middle ear. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. | 154,670 | medmcqa_train |
Therapy of choice for sleep-apnea syndrome is | Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition. * Majority of patients need to use continuous positive airway pressure(CPAP) delivered by a nasal mask every night to splint the upper airway open. | 154,671 | medmcqa_train |
Serious infections can occur when absolute neutrophil count decreases below | . | 154,672 | medmcqa_train |
Osteochondritis in Kohler&;s disease affects which bone ? | types of osteochondritis Bones affected Kohler Navicular Keinbock Lunate Pehes Femur head Johanson- Larsens lower pole of patella REF : MAHESWARI 9TH ED | 154,673 | medmcqa_train |
Esthesioneuroblastoma arises from: | Ans. (a) Olfactory epitheliumRef: Dhingra's ENT 6th edJ 204* Esthesioneuroblastoma usually arise from the olfactory epthelium . It's a rare tumor of any age group .* Presentation of tumor: cherry red, polypoidal spots mass in upper third of nasal cavity. It is a vascular tumor that bleeds profusely on biopsy. | 154,674 | medmcqa_train |
A patient 45 years of age, non diabetic, presents with chronic pelvic pain of 1 year duration. She also complains of frequency, urgency and a sense of incomplete evacuation since 1 year without any significant finding on her past ultrasounds, urine examination and urine and high vaginal swab cultures. On pelvic examination there is no significant vaginal discharge. Cystoscopy is normal. Most probable diagnosis is | Urethral syndrome Urethral syndrome is defined as a symptom complex including dysuria, frequency, urgency, suprapubic discomfo , post void fullness and dyspareunia in the absence of any abnormality of urethra or bladder. Cause is unceain and is attributed to subclinical infection, urethral obstruction, psychogenic and allergic factors. It is a diagnosis of exclusion, after ruling out UTI, malignancy, vulvovaginitis. Cystoscopy to rule out urethral diveiculum, stones and malignancy. Management: multidisciplinary approach, antibiotics for sterile pyuria. Post menopausal women may benefit from local estrogen. Physical therapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy and psycological suppo. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is ruled out with normal urine culture, Cystitis with normal urine r/m, c/s, and USG. Vulvovaginitis is ruled out by the given symptoms and normal local examination | 154,675 | medmcqa_train |
Shoest acting anticholinesterase is ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Edrophonium Edrophonium is the shoest acting anti-ChE. When carbamates (other than edrophonium) and organophophates react with cholinesterase, they form covalent bond at esteratic site, which is considerably resistant to hydrolysis. In contrast, edrophonium binds electrostatically and by hydrogen bonds at anionic site (not at esteratic site) of cholinesterase. The enzyme inhibitor complex does not involve a covalent bond and is correspondingly sho lived (2-10 minutes). So edrophonium is also called as noncovalent inhibitor. | 154,676 | medmcqa_train |
True about myasthenia gravis | *The weakness increase during repeated use and may improve following sleep or rest.only 10% of cases are associated with thymomas 65% with hyperplasia of thymus. Edrophonium test is positive. In electrodiagnostic testing MG patients show a rapid reduction of >10-15% in the amplitude of evoked response. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2445 | 154,677 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true about Facial recess? | O Facial recess or posterior sinus is a depression in posterior wall lateral to pyramid. O It is bounded medially by the veical pa of Facial nerve, inferiorly by the chorda- facial angle and superiorly by fossa incudis. O Surgically, facial recess is impoant, as direct access can be made through this into the middle ear without disturbing posterior canal wall (Posterior Tympanotomy) | 154,678 | medmcqa_train |
The risk of neonatal chicken pox is the maximum, if maternal infection occurs : | Risk of neonatal chicken pox is maximum if maternal infection occurs near delivery (5 days before delivery or 48 hours after). | 154,679 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following condition is using laparoscopy as the diagnostic tool of investigation? | Laparoscopy is the primary method used for diagnosing endometriosis. Laparoscopic findings are variable and may include discrete endometriotic lesions, endometrioma, and adhesion formation. The pelvic organs and pelvic peritoneum are typical locations for endometriosis. Lesions are variable colors, which may include red, white, and black. Laparoscopic visualization of ovarian endometriomas has a sensitivity and specificity of 97 percent and 95 percent, respectively. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 10. Endometriosis. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | 154,680 | medmcqa_train |
Timolol can produce which of the following effect in an asthmatic patient? | Timolol is a non-selective Beta blocker (1st generation) It is used for treatement of primary open angle glaucoma. It can cause bronchoconstriction (by blocking beta 2 receptors) paicularly in asthmatics. | 154,681 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is ideal as overdenture abutments in maxillary arch? | Central incisors have the ideal location that provides the protection of the premaxilla. | 154,682 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is not used to treat leishmaniasis ? | Pentamidine inhibits growth of protozoa by interacting with trypanosomal kinetoplast DNA and interferes with polyamine synthesis by a decrease in the activity of ornithine decarboxylase. Miltefosine has antiproliferative activity against leishmaniasis as well as against other trypanosome parasites.Mechanism is likely due to inhibition of phospholipid and sterol biosynthesis interference with cell signal transduction pathways. Dapsone is used for cutaneous leishmaniasis. Cyclosporine is an immune suppressant and is not used to treat leishmaniasis. | 154,683 | medmcqa_train |
2 years old child can do - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Climb up and downstairs with one each step time o A child can ride a tricycle by 3 years. o A child can walk up and downstairs with one step at a time by 2 years. o A child knows his sex and age by 3 years. o A child can feed himself with spoon without spilling its contents by 15 months. o A child can tell a story by 4 years. | 154,684 | medmcqa_train |
Prognosis of lymphoma depends on all of the following except: March 2011 | Ans. D: Associated symptoms | 154,685 | medmcqa_train |
Contraction of uterine pain is carried by | In the early stages of labour pains are mainly uterine in origin because of painful uterine contractions It is distributed along the cutaneous nerve distribution of T10 - L 1. In the later stages pain is due to cervical dilatation This pain is referred to back through sacral plexus. Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 112. | 154,686 | medmcqa_train |
Ribonuclease-P is | Ribonuclease P (EC 3.1.26.5, RNase P) is a type of ribonuclease which cleaves RNA. RNase P is unique from other RNases in that it is a ribozyme - a ribonucleic acid that acts as a catalyst in the same way that a protein-based enzyme would. Its function is to cleave off an extra, or precursor, sequence of RNA on tRNA molecules. Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e p403 | 154,687 | medmcqa_train |
Total lung capacity depends upon | TLC = (IRV + TV + ERV + RV) When a person inspires maximally, the lungs are at TLC. This total volume of inspired air (3000 + 500) would depend on the distensibility of the lungs. Greater the compliance, more is the distensibility and greater the amount that can be inspired. Conversely, if the compliance is reduced (as in fibrosis), the lungs cannot be distended to a great extent and TLC will be less. TLC is greater in emphysema,Due to incomplete expiration and air trapping beyond compressed airways, residual volume is increased. It may contribute to increase in TLC. However, TLC does not depend on residual volume | 154,688 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following type of odontoid fracture is considered unstable? | Odontoid fractures usually result from flexion forces. Odontoid fractures are classified as type I, II, or III. Type I fracture involves the tip only. Type II fracture passes through the base of the odontoid process. Type III fracture passes through the body of C2. Types II and III are considered unstable and should be externally immobilized by a halo vest or fused surgically. Surgery often is undeaken for widely displaced fractures (poor chance of fusing) and for those that fail external immobilization. Type I fractures usually fuse with external immobilization only. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 42. | 154,689 | medmcqa_train |
Glasgow coma scale in death is: | (D) 3 > Note that a motor response in any limb is acceptable.> The scale is composed of three tests: eye, verbal and motor responses.> The three values separately as well as their sum are considered.> The lowest possible GCS (the sum) is 3 (deep coma or death), while the highest is 15 (fully awake person).GLASGOW COMA SCALE 123456EyeDoes not open eyesOpens eyes in response to painful stimuliOpens eyes in response to voiceOpens eyes spontaneouslyN/AN/AVerbalMakes no soundsIncomprehensible soundsUtters incoherent wordsConfused, disorientedOriented, converses normallyN/AMotorMakes no movementsExtension to painful stimuli (decerebrate response)Abnormal flexion to painful stimuli (decorticate response)Flexion / Withdrawal to painful stimuliLocalizes painful stimuliObeys commands | 154,690 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of these is NOT associated with decrease in Residual Volume? | (A) Emphysema# RESIDUAL VOLUME is the amount of gas remaining in the lungs at the end of a maximal exhalation.> Residual Volume is important because it prevents the lungs from collapsing.> Even after we have expelled as much air as possible (expiratory reserve volume) gaseous exchange is still occurring by residual volume in the lungs. It also prevents the inner surfaces of the lungs sticking together.# In Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema:> Increase in Residual volume> Peak Expiratory flow rate usually reduced.> VA/Q i.e., ventilation perfusion ratio is a poor indicator of the severity of the disease.TypeExamplesDescriptionFEV1/FVCRestrictiveLungDiseases Pulmonary fibrosis, Infant Respiratory Distress syndrome, Weak respiratory muscles, PneumothoraxVolumes are decreasedOften in a normal range (0.8 to 1.0)ObstructiveLungDiseases Asthma or COPD or EmphysemaVolumes are essentially normal but flow rates are impededOften low (Asthma can reduce the ratio to 0.6, Emphysema can reduce the ratio to 0.78 to 0.45) | 154,691 | medmcqa_train |
Blood born spread is a feature of? | Sarcoma REF: Robbins 7 ed page 270 "Hematogenous spread is typical of sarcomas and Lymphatic spread is typical of carcinomas" However the above is not a rule and there are sarcomas that spread through lymphatics. The sarcomas that spread through lymplatics are: Mnemonic: SAME CoLouR (CLR) S- Synol cell sarcoma A- Angiosarcoma M- Malignant fibrous Histocytoma E- Epithelial sarcoma C- Clear cell sarcoma L- Lymphosarcoma R- Rhabdomyosarcoma | 154,692 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of mucinous carcinoma of Gallbladder confined to the lamina propria | Ans. (a) Simple CholecystectomyRef: Sabiston 20th edition Page 1512-1514* T1 a is confined to lamina propria- Just simple cholecystectomy is enough. | 154,693 | medmcqa_train |
Ipratropium bromide used in bronchial asthma is: | CLASSIFICATION of asthma drugs1.Bronchodilators - a)Sympathomimetics: Salbutamol, Terbutaline, Bambuterol, Salmeterol, Formoterol, Ephedrine. b)Methylxanthines: Theophylline (anhydrous), Aminophylline, Choline theophylline, Hydroxyethyl theophylline, Theophylline ethanolate of piperazine, Doxophylline. c)Anticholinergics: Ipratropium bromide, Tiotropium bromide. 2.Leukotriene antagonists: Montelukast, Zafirlukast. 3.Mast cell stabilizers: Sodium cromoglycate, Ketotifen. 4.Coicosteroids - a)Systemic: Hydrocoisone, Prednisolone and others. b)Inhalational: Beclomethasone dipropionate, Budesonide, Fluticasone propionate, Flunisolide, Ciclesonide. 5.Anti-lgE antibody :Omalizumab ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY 7TH EDITION KD TRIPATHI PAGE NO:222 | 154,694 | medmcqa_train |
A Down syndrome child is mentally retarded. All cytogenetic abnormalities may occur except? | a. Deleted chromosome 21(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 610-615, Ghai 8/e p 637-639)An extra copy of chr 21 is required to cause trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), so deletion of chr 21 will not cause it. | 154,695 | medmcqa_train |
Feature of NF 1 are- | *Common autosomal dominant disease caused by loss of function mutation in NF1 gene located at 17q11.2. multiple neurofibromas in combination with 6 or more CALM measuring >1.5cm,axillary freckling and multiple Lisch nodules are seen in NF1. It is associated with variety of tumours malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor,gliomas of optic nerve,o ther hilal tumours and hamaomatous lesions and pheochromocytomas. Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is a complex multi-system human disorder caused by the mutation of a gene on chromosome 17 that is responsible for production of a protein called neurofibromin which is needed for normal function in many human cell types Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2376 | 154,696 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following anesthetic agent is not painful on intravenous administration? | Ketamine: Sho acting, non barbiturate anaesthetic induces a dissociated state in which the patient is unconcious and does not feel pain. This dissociative anaesthesia provide sedation, amnesia and immobility. Not painful on IV administration Propofol: potent anaesthetic but a weak analgesic . Maximum pain on injection. Etomidate:- Hypnotic agent used to induce anaesthetic but lacks analgesic activity. Usually only used for patient with coronary aery diseases or cardiovascular dysfunction. Methohexital:- Barbiturate derivative, sho acting and has rapid onset of action. | 154,697 | medmcqa_train |
Yuzpe and lance regimen should be administered within maximum ------- | Yuzpe and Lance Method : Combined Oral pills are generally accepted as the preparation of choice for post coital (emergency) contraception, as it is less likely to cause adverse side effects. Regimens. Current recommendation (pills with 30mcg oestrogen) : 4 pills immediately followed by 4 pills 12 hours later. Standard method : (pills with 50 mcg oestrogen) : 2 pills immediately followed hy 2 pills 12 hours later Pills with 200 mcg oestrogen : 1 pill immediately followed by 1 pill 12 hours later Regimens should be completed within 72 hours of coitus The sooner staed, the more effective it is and the effectiveness more than 72 hours after sexual intercourse is greatly reduced Method is not guaranteed to prevent pregnancy A test should be carried out if the period is >3 days late The regimen does not protect against STD Phrase 'morning after pill' is figurative : Combined OCP's can be used for upto 72 hours after sexual intercourse MC side effect repoed by users of emergency contraceptive pills :Nausea Ref : Park 25th edition Pgno : 535 | 154,698 | medmcqa_train |
A 49-year-old man suffering from carcinoma of the prostate was x -rayed. He showed areas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae in x-ray. The spread of this cancer to the above vertebrae was through - | Prostatic cancer spreads to the bones through blood vessels; first into Batson's periprostatic venous plexus and then into the internal vertebral plexus of veins.
This metastasis is possible because of valveless communication between the periprostatic and vertebral plexus of veins. | 154,699 | medmcqa_train |
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