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A patient presents with sudden headache and vomiting and unconciousness. The diagnosis is | Sub Arachnoid Hemorrhage Most common cause : Trauma >Spontaneous rupture of Berry aneurysm Clinical features Sudden transient loss of consciousness (occurs in nearly half of the patients) Excruciating severe headache: presenting complaint in 45% of cases (worst headache of patients life) more common upon regaining consciousness when loss of consciousness is associated. Neck stiffness and vomiting are common associations Focal neurologicalal deficit : uncommon Sudden headache in the absence of Focal neurological deficit is the Hallmark of aneurysmal rupture Associated prodromal symptoms (suggest location of progressively enlarging unruptured aneurysm) Third nerve cranial nerve palsy :Aneurysm at junction of PCS and ICA Sixth nerve palsy :Aneurysm in cavernous sinus Occipital and posterior cervical pain: Inferior cerebellar aery aneurysm Pain in or behind the eye :MICA aneurysm Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1918 | 155,400 | medmcqa_train |
Pseudoarthrosis of Tibia is classical feature of? | Pseudoarthrosis of Tibia and scoliosis are classicle feature of NF 1. | 155,401 | medmcqa_train |
Costochondral joint is an example of | Primary Cailaginous joint The bones are united by a plate of hyaline cailage so that the joint is immovable and strong These joints are tempory in nature because after a ceain age the cailaginous plate is repalced by bone (synostosis) Ref :BD CHAURASIA S Handbook of General Anatomy Fouh edition Page no 63 | 155,402 | medmcqa_train |
Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by? | ANSWER: (A) CulexREF: Park 20th ed p. 676Also asked in June 2011See APPENDIX-43 below for list of medically important "Mosquitos" APPENDIX - 43Mosquito AnophelesCulexAedesMansoniaA.K.A Nuisance mosquitoTiger mosquito Egg layingSingly on waterIn small dusters of 200-300 on waterSingly on damp soilIn star shaped clusters/Rafts on under surface of aquatic plantsEgg shapeBoat shaped2 Lateral floats +Trabeculated surface +Raft shape No lateral floatsCigar shapedNo lateral floatsStar shapedNo lateral floatsDesiccationCannot surviveCannot surviveCan surviveCannot surviveLarva (Wrigglers) 5-7 daysHorizontal floating Surface feeders.Mo siphon tubeHead down at an angle of 45deg parallel to the surface of 'water.Bottom feeders. Siphon tube 8th segment of abdomenHead down at an angle of 45deg parallel to the surface of water.Bottom feeders. Siphon tube 8th segment of abdomenHead down at an angle of 45'' parallel to the surface of water. Bottom feeders. Siphon tube 8th segment of abdomenPupa/T umblers 1-2 daysTrumpet/siphon tube broad & shortTrumpet/ siphon tube long & narrowTrumpet/ siphon tube long & narrowTrumpet/ siphon tube long & narrowAdult (2 weeks)Body inclined with surface at rest. Wings spotted Long palpi in both sexes.Body parallel to surface at rest. Wings not spotted. Short palpi in females.Body parallel to surface at rest. Wings not spotted. Short palpi in females.Body parallel to surface at rest.Wings not spotted. Short palpi in females.Feeding habitNight bitersNight biters Biting peak at MidnightDay time bitersNight bitersBreeding habitClean waterDirty and polluted waterArtificial collection of waterAquatic vegetationVector ofMalariaFilaria (not in India)Bancroftianfllariasis, Japanese encephalitis, west Nile feverYellow fever (not in India), Dengue, Chikungunya, Rift valley fever, Filaria (not in India)Malayan (Brugianfllariasis),ChikungunyaEggs hatch in 48 hoursPupa is resting stage, moves actively but do not feed Eggs to adult = 7-10 daysDuring growth, the larva molts (sheds its skin) four times. The stages between molts are called instars Life span of mosquito varies from 8-34 days (2 weeks average), males are short lived.Males never bite (feed on nectar). Females need blood meals every 2-3 days for development of eggs | 155,403 | medmcqa_train |
Most sensitive test for detection of argemone oil – | Paper chromatography is the most sensitive test. | 155,404 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following structure does not pass through the parotid gland ? | Facial aery does not pass within the parotid gland. Structures passing through parotid gland are: External carotid aery Retro-mandibular vein Sympathetic plexus Facial nerve Passes in the middle of gland Do not supply parotid gland Creates a surgical plane - Deep : Lymph node are less - Superficial : Lymph node are more | 155,405 | medmcqa_train |
All are steroids except | Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 8th Edition, Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, Rana Shinde, page no: 589,590 | 155,406 | medmcqa_train |
Tic douloureux is facial pain traveling through the _____ nerve? | Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition. * Trigeminal neuralgia(Tic douloureux) is characterised by excruciating paroxysms of pain in lips , gums, cheek or chin and very rarely in distribution of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve. | 155,407 | medmcqa_train |
HHH syndrome is due to a defect of which pathway? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Urea cycle* In urea cycle, as the enzyme ornithine transcarbamylase is present in mitochondria, ornithine should be taken into mitochondria. Ornithine then reacts with carbamyl phosphate to form citrulline within mitochondria. After citrulline is formed, it should leave the mitochondria to reach cytoplasm.* Hence ornithine should get into mitochondria and citrulline should leave the mitochondria. This is by ornithine citrulline transporter.* Defect of ornithine citrulline transporter results in HHH syndrome characterised by# Hyperammonemia (as ornithine can not get into mitochondria, urea cycle is inhibited and hence ammonia accumulates)# Hyperornithinemia (as ornithine is not being utilised for urea cycle)# Hyperhomocitrullinemia (when carbamyl phosphate of urea cycle does not find ornithine within mitochondria, it reacts with lysine to form homocitrulline and hence homocitrullinemia)* Thus HHH syndrome or Hyperammoniemia Hyperornithinemia Hyperhomocitrullinemia is caused by Ornithine Citrulline transporter present in mitochondrial membrane. | 155,408 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is/are not the features of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)? | c. Thrombocytopenia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1612, Ghai 8/e p 632)HSP is characterized by a tetrad of palpable purpura, arthritis, glomerulonephritis and abdominal painLess common skin lesions are macules, vesicles, bullous lesions, splinter hemorrhage and ulcerations; Rarely, epistaxis may occur. | 155,409 | medmcqa_train |
Lateral surface of cerebral hemisphere is supplied mainly by? | The lateral surface of the hemisphere is mainly supplied by the middle cerebral aery. This includes the territories of the motor and somatosensory coices which represent the whole of the body, apa from the lower limb, and also the auditory coex and language areas.Ref: Gray's anatomy 40th edition, Chapter 17. | 155,410 | medmcqa_train |
Critical temperature for liquid nitrogen is ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., -147deg C Critical temperature (Tc) of a substance is the temperature at and above which vapour of that substance can not be liquified, no matter how much pressure is applied (Note : Below critical temprature a substance can exist as a liquid or gas depending on pressure). Critical temperature of N2 is -146.9deg C; that means N2 can be liquified below -146.9deg C --> So, liquid nitrogen must be stored below -146.9deg C. | 155,411 | medmcqa_train |
True about Peutz jegher syndrome | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Most common site is small intestine; 'b' i.e., Polypectomy on colonoscopy is treatment of choice; 'c' i.e., Hamaomatous polyp Peutz -Jeghers syndrome o It is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by :? 1. Hamaomatous polyps in Small intestine -4 100% Colon --> 30% Stomach --> 25% 2. Extraintestinal carcinomas of pancreas, breast, ovary, lung and uterus. 3. Mucocutaneous pigmentation o Approximately 3% of patients develop intestinal adenocarcinoma. o The condition is caused by a mutation in the LKB1/STK11 gene which codes for a serine - threonine kinase that is thought to play a role in apoptosis. Clinical features o Most common age of involvement is between 20-30 years. o The major symptoms depend on the intestinal location of the polyps (i.e. small intestine, colon, stomach) :- (i) Intestinal obstruction & intussusception (43%) (ii) Abdominal pain (23%) (iii) Hematochezia (14%) (iv) Prolapse of colonic polyps (7%) o There may be mucocutaneous pigmentation :- (i) Cutaneous pigmentation :- Perioral & perinasal region, finger, toes (ii) Mucous membrane pigmentation :- Buccal mucosa o Other manifestations include precocious pubey, rectal mass (rectal polyp), testicular mass, gynecomastia and growth acceleration (due to seoli cell tumor). Treatment o Treatment consists of identification of the syndrome and careful monitoring of the tissues that are at risk for cancer development. o Intestinal polyps are usually removed (polypectomy) when discovered during colonoscopy. | 155,412 | medmcqa_train |
A 8 year old male had non blanching rashes over the shin and swelling of knee joint with haematuria+++ and protein +. Microscopic analysis of his renal biopsy specimen is most likely to show | Probable diagnosis is Henoch-Schonlein purpura . Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a small-vessel vasculitis caused by immune complex deposition following an infectious trigger. It is predominantly a disease of children and young adults. The usual presentation is with purpura over the buttocks and lower legs, accompanied by abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding and ahralgia. Nephritis can also occur and may present up to 4 weeks after the onset of other symptoms. Biopsy of affected tissue shows a vasculitis with IgA deposits in the vessel wall. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is usually a self-limiting disorder that settles spontaneously without specific treatment. Glucocoicoids and immunosuppressive therapy may be required in patients with more severe disease, paicularly in the presence of nephritis. Ref - davidsons 23e p1043 | 155,413 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following specimens should never be refrigerated | H.influenzae ishighly sensitive to low temperature. | 155,414 | medmcqa_train |
Which one is not associated with peptic ulcer - | Conditions also. with peptic ulcer have already been described. Plummer Vinson Paterson Kelly syndrome consists of :- Iron deficiency anemia Dysphasia atrophic oral mucosa, glossitis brittle spoon-shaped fingernails. Typically pts are Woman over 40 yrs of age. Its a Pre-malignant condition* for both oral cavity & esophagus. Ref : S Das textbook, 3/e, p818 | 155,415 | medmcqa_train |
In Japanese Encephalitis, pigs acts as - | Pigs acts as an amplifier host REF:<\p> ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.521(epidemiology) | 155,416 | medmcqa_train |
A 17-year-old girl was evaluated for complaints of weight gain, hair loss, constipation and weakness. Her free T4 level was low and TSH was increased. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | The patient is having symptoms of hypothyroidism and thryoid profile reveals primary hypothyroidism. Analyzing all options, Graves' disease and McCune-Albright syndrome are associated with hypehyroidism. (excludes 'a' & 'b') In pituitary adenoma/TSH-secreting pituitary tumor - increased TSH with increased T3/T4 would be seen. (option 'c' excluded) Primary hypothyroidism is d/t defect in thyroid gland itself; associated with high TSH & low free T4 levels. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is a cause of primary hypothroidism. | 155,417 | medmcqa_train |
Recommended vaccines for rabies - | HDCV, PCEC, PVC vaccines are currently used for immunization REF:<\p> ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.535 | 155,418 | medmcqa_train |
C-peptide occurs in | C-peptideA biologically inactive residue of insulin formation in the beta cells of the pancreas. When proinsulin is conveed to insulin, an equal amount of C peptide, a chain of amino acids, is also secreted into the bloodstream. Beta cell secretory function can be determined by measuring the C peptide in a blood sample.Proinsulin is a precursor of insulin, having low biologic activity.Glucagon is a polypeptide hormone secreted by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans in response to hypoglycemia or to stimulation by growth hormone.Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that contains iodine and is a derivative of the amino acid tyrosine, occurring naturally as l-thyroxine; its chemical name is tetraiodothyronine.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no-433 | 155,419 | medmcqa_train |
The finding in nerve conduction study to suggest axonal neuropathy among the following is: | To classify neuropathy into axonal degeneration or segmental demyelination the most helpful test is: NCS-Nerve conduction study. MUST KNOW: Findings to suggest axonal neuropathy in NCS: Relatively preserved distal latencies, conduction velocities, and late potentials. Fibrillations on needle EMG Findings to suggest demyelination in NCS: Slow conduction velocities, Prolonged distal latencies Late potentials Relatively preserved amplitudes Absence of fibrillations on needle EMG Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page- 3448 | 155,420 | medmcqa_train |
Incidence can be calculated by - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Prospective study | 155,421 | medmcqa_train |
Approximate distance of diphragmatic constriction from nostril & incisor are | C i.e. 17" & 16" | 155,422 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true about P. falciparum ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Accole forms are seen The parasite often attaches itself to the margin or the edge of the host cell, the nucleus and a small pa of the cytoplasm remaining almost outside. This is known as form applique or accole. | 155,423 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about anopheles type of mosquito Except - | Anopheles mosquito: Causes malaria and filaria Breeding habitat: Clean water Eggs laid singly with boat-shaped lateral floats Larvae have no Siphon tube; rest parallel to the undersurface of water Pupae have a broad and sho siphon tube Adults are inclined at an angle to the surface and with spotted wings Can fly 3-5 km Sophisticated mosquitoes Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 831 | 155,424 | medmcqa_train |
Virus infected cells killed by? | Natural killer cells: Natural killer (NK) cells are morphologically described as large granular lymphocytes. These cells are called natural killer cells due to their ability to kill ceain virally infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization. Functions of natural killer cells: Kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by secreting cytotoxins, such as perforins and granzymes similar to those of cytotoxic T lymphocytes and also by FasL-mediated apoptosisby a mechanism called ADCC (antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity) Both IL-12 and gamma interferons are potent activators of NK cells. Nonspecific killing of virus-infected cells and tumor cells. Killing is independent of antigen presentation by MHC proteins. Mechanism of killing is by perforins and granzymes, which cause apoptosis of target cell. Plasma cells- involved in antibody formation B-cells- humoral immunity | 155,425 | medmcqa_train |
18 year old girl with circumscribed bald patch with no organic disease & no behavioural disorder has ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trichotillomania As there is no organic or behavioral disorders, this girl is suffering with impulse control disorder of compulsive hair pulling, known as Trichotillomania. Impulse control disorder These disorders are characterized by failure to resist an impulsive behavior that may be harmful to self or others. There may be a feeling of release of tension by doing the act and a feeling of guilt after the act is over. Impoant impulse control disorder are : - Pyromania (Pathological fire setting) Kleptomania (Pathological stealing) Trichotillomania (Compulsive hair pulling) Pathological gambling Intermittent explosive disorder Impulse control disorder not otherwise specified Oniomania (Compulsion to shop/buying) Internet compulsion (Internet addiction) Cellular or Mobile phone compulsion Compulsive sexual behavior (sexual addiction). | 155,426 | medmcqa_train |
Pseuddogia Fantastica is seen in | Patients with "Factitious disorder or Munchausen syndrome" distart the history and there will be discrepancy between history, examination and reports which is termed as "Pseudologia Fantastica". | 155,427 | medmcqa_train |
Gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., HLA - DQ2o Almost all individuals with celiac disease share the major histocompatibility complex II HLA-DQ 2 or HLA - DQ8. o Gliadin is deamidated by the enzyme transglutaminase and deamidated gliadin peptides bind to DQ2 and DQ8. o Recognition of these peptides by CD4+T cells leads to secretion of IFN-y, which damages the intestinal wall. Pathophvsiologv o Celiac disease is caused by action of acidic peptides containing the gliadin fraction of wheat.The basic abnormality is thought to be an increased rate of loss of epithelial cells. Crypt cells show increased activity. This causes hyperophy of crypt. But even this increased activity cannot keep pace with loss of cells, resulting in progressive decrease in height of villi causing villous atrophyThe epithelial cells show decreased cytoplasm and mucusThe intestinal biopsy shows a decreases in the villus: crypt ratio. Normally the villi are 3-4 times the height of the crypts (ratio of 3-4 : 1); in celiac disease, the ratio decreases progressively (paial, subtotal and total villous atrophy). Total villous atrophy is seen in severe celiac ds and is quite characteristic of celiac ds (paial villous atrophy may be seen in many other conditions). | 155,428 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is the main content of lipid bilayer of cell membrane in animal cells? | The most common sterol in the membranes of animal cells is cholesterol, which resides mainly in their plasma membranes, but can also be found in lesser quantities in mitochondria, Golgi complexes, and nuclear membranes. Cholesterol intercalates among the phospholipids of the membrane, with its hydroxyl group at the aqueous interface and the remainder of the molecule within the leaflet. Ref: Murray R.K., Granner D.K. (2011). Chapter 40. Membranes: Structure & Function. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | 155,429 | medmcqa_train |
With regards to G6PD deficiency, which of the following in false | Ans. is 'd' i.e., X-linked recessive disorder that does not affect heterozygous famales Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, an X-linked disorder, is the most common enzymatic disorder of red blood cells in humans, affecting 400 million people worldwide. Clinical spectrum The clinical expression of G6PD variants encompasses a spectrum of hemolytic syndromes The four forms of symptomatic G6PD deficiency : Acute hemolytic anemia Favism Congenital nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia G6PD deficiency is expressed in males carrying a variant gene that results in sufficient enzyme deficiency to lead to symptoms. Acute hemolytic anemia Almost all individuals with the most prevalent G6PD variants, G6PD A- and G6PD Mediterranean, are asymptomatic in the steady state. They have neither anemia, evidence of increased red cell destruction, nor an alteration in blood morphology,. o However sudden destruction of enzyme deficient erythrocytes can be triggered by ceain drugs or chemicals, by selected infections, and rarely by metabolic abnormalities (eg, diabetic ketoacidosis). Clinical course At two to four days after drug ingestion, there is the sudden onset of jaundice, pallor, and dark urine, with or without abdominal and back pain. This is associated with an abrupt fall in the hemoglobin concentration of 3 to 4 g/dL, during which time the peripheral blood smear reveals red cell fragments, microspherocytes, and eccentrocytes or "bite" cells. The anemia induces an appropriate stimulation of erythropoiesis, characterized by an increase in reticulocytes that is apparent within five days and is maximal at 7 to 10 days after the onset of hemolysis. Even with continued drug exposure, the acute hemolytic process ends after about one week, with ultimate reversal of the anemia. Inciting events Patients with class II or III variants develop intermittent hemolysis only after one or more of the following inciting events. Infection Oxidant drugs Chemical agents (eg, moth balls, aniline dyes, henna compounds) Diabetic ketoacidosis Ingestion of a beans Drugs and chemicals Primaquine, dapsone, and a number of other drugs can precipitate hemolysis in G6PD deficient subjects. Foods: a beans and bitter melon G6PD deficiency can also be precipitated by the the ingestion of fresh a beans (ism). Manifestation ofism begins 5-24 hrs after a bean ingestion and include headache, nausea, back pain. Congenital nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia Patients with class I G6PD variants have such severe G6PD deficiency that lifelong hemolysis occurs in the absence of infection or drug exposure. Such patients fall under the category of having congenital nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia. These G6PD variants have low in vitro activity and/or marked instability of the molecule, and most have DNA mutations at the glucose-6-phosphate or NADP binding sites. These sites are central to the function of G6PD, which oxidizes glucose-6-phosphate and reduces NADP to NADPH. It is presumed that the functional defect is so severe that the red cells cannot withstand even the normal oxidative stresses encountered in the circulation. Anemia and jaundice are often first noted in the newborn period, and the degree of hyperbilirubinemia is frequently of sufficient severity to require exchange transfusion. After infancy, hemolytic manifestations are subtle and inconstant. Most individuals have mild to moderate anemia (hemoglobin 8 to 10 g/dL) with a reticulocyte count of 10 to 15 percent. Pallor is uncommon, scleral icterus is intermittent, splenomegaly is rare, and splenectomy generally is of little benefit. Hemolysis can be exaggerated by exposure to drugs or chemicals with oxidant potential or exposure to a beans. Some drugs with relatively mild oxidant potential that are safe in patients with class II or class III G6PD variants may increase hemolysis in patients with class I variants. Neonatal hyperbilirubineinia The clinical picture of neonatal jaundice due to G6PD deficiency differs from neonatal jaundice seen in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) associated with Rh(D) incompatibility in two main respects. G6PD deficiency-related neonatal jaundice is rarely present at bih; the peak incidence of clinical onset is between days two and three. a There is more jaundice than anemia, and the anemia is rarely severe. The severity ofjaundice varies widely, from being subclinical to imposing the threat of kernicterus if not treated | 155,430 | medmcqa_train |
Surgical management of a case of undescended testis is indicated at which age? | Optimum age for surgical correction of undescended test is between 9-15 months. The surgical procedure done is called Orchidopexy. Ref: Nelson Text Book of Pediatrics, 17th Edition, Page 1817; Nursing Care of The Pediatric Surgical Patient By Nacy TKacz Browne, Page 147-8. | 155,431 | medmcqa_train |
Marsh's test is used for detection of | A i.e. Arsenic | 155,432 | medmcqa_train |
True about acute pancreatitis | Gall stones are the most common cause, alcohol being IInd most common. Ultrasound is often the first imaging investigation but CT is the best imaging investigation. Serum amylase is the most widely used laboratory test because of its simplicity. It lacks the specificity to pancreas and may be raised in a multitude of condition causing high false positive reactions. Moreover there can be cases of acute pancreatitis with normal serum amylase levels. Serum amylase level usually return to normal after 48 to 72 hrs of acute episode, fuher limiting its usefulness. Serum Lipase is now the single best enzyme to measure for the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Its level remains elevated for much longer duration of time (7 to 14 days) Other specific serum markers for acute pancreatitis are: - pancreatic isoamylase - trypsinogen One more fact about serum amylase is woh mentioning There is no significant correlation between the magnitude of serum amylase elevation and severity of pancreatitis, in fact, a milder form of acute pancreatitis is often associated with higher levels of serum amylase as compared with that in a more severe fonn of the disease. Surgical treatment is needed rarely in acute pancreatitis. The disease is self-limited in --85% to 90% of patients and subsides within 3-7 days. Surgical management is needed in cases of necrotic pancreatitis, pancreatic abscess and intervention in gall stone pancreatitis. Grey Turners sign is bluish discolouration seen at the flanks Bluish discolouration around the umbilicus is known as Cullen's sign. Mnemonic: GF Grey Turner's sign - Flanks Cullen's sign - Umbilicus Both of these signs indicate severe necrotizing pancreatitis. Ref : Harrison 17/e p2002 , Schwaz 9/e p1181 | 155,433 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following about PDA are true except ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., It is more common in males than females PDA is more common in females than males - Nelson Lesions more common in girls Lesions more common in boys ASD PDA TGA VSD Pulmonic stenosis Left sided obstructive lesions | 155,434 | medmcqa_train |
For maturity estimation, amniotic fluid cells are stained with : | Nile blue sulphate | 155,435 | medmcqa_train |
Select the true statements : | A i.e. Imipramine is used in endogenous depression - PimozideQ & Loxapine are hetrocyclic antipsychotics. Fluoxitine (SSRI), Amitryptyline (TCA) & Trazadone (atypical) are antidepressants. - Imipramine is TCA & used in endogenous depression. Increased appetite & weight is seen in TCAs but not with SSRI (eg. fluoxetine). Fluoxetine lit weight lossQ Thioridazine is potent central anticholinergicQ drug with S/E of male sexual dysfunction (impaired ejaculation)Q - BZ's have lower abuse liability than barbiturates. | 155,436 | medmcqa_train |
Drug that do not increase QT interval: | Ans is 'c' i.e. Digitalis o Digitals causes shoening of QT intervalo Other drugs (given in options) cause prolongation of QT interval. | 155,437 | medmcqa_train |
FSH and LH concentrations at birth | FSH and LH concentrations rise abruptly in response to fall in placental oestrogen levels, and are highest in first 3 months of life. | 155,438 | medmcqa_train |
Acitomycin D interferes with enzyme induction by combining with - | B i.e. DNA | 155,439 | medmcqa_train |
Antiglaucoma drug contraindicated in acute uveitis | Answer- A. PilocarpineCholinomimletic (Pilocarpine) :- Uveitis | 155,440 | medmcqa_train |
Concurrent flexion of both wrists in response to electrical stimulation is characteristic of which area of the nervous system | A few of the fibers of pyramidal tract do not cross to the opposite side in the medulla but pass ipsilaterally down the cord in the ventral coicospinal tracts. Many, if not most, of these fibers, eventually cross to the opposite side of the cord either in the neck or in the upper thoracic region. These fibers may be concerned with control of bilateral postural movements by the supplementary motor coex.The supplementary motor area tends to produce bilateral motor responses when stimulated. The other areas would tend to produce unilateral responses.Ref: Guyton; 13th edition; Chapter 56; Coical and Brain Stem Control of Motor Function | 155,441 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not true regarding Insulinoma - | Hypoglycemic attacks are part of Whipple's triad
Insulinoma is usually solitary (~90%)
Only 5 to 15% are malignant | 155,442 | medmcqa_train |
True about autism - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Stas before 2-3 years of age Autism o Autism is a neurologic disroder characterized by ? Qualitative impairment in social interaction Qualitative impairment in communication. Restricted repetitive and streotyped patterns of behaviour, interests, and activities. Onset of symptoms is usually before 3 years of age. 3-5 times more common in boys, but more severe when occurs in girls. o More common among low socio-economic groups. Clinical features Impairment in communication Impairment in social interaction Inability to concentrate Restricted repetitive and streotypes patterns of behaviour, interests and activities. Failure to acquire speech. Approximately 75% of children with autism are mentally retarded. Epilepsy develops in approximately one-fifth to one-third individuals. Half of autistic patients have abnormalties on EEG. | 155,443 | medmcqa_train |
The operation that precipitates portosystemic encephalopathy is | Portosystemic encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric syndrome, It most often results from high gut protein or acute metabolic stress
(eg, GI bleeding, infection, electrolyte abnormality) in a patient with portosystemic shunting.
In portosystemic shunting, absorbed products that would otherwise be detoxified by the liver enter the systemic circulation and reach the brain, causing toxicity, particularly to the cerebral cortex. | 155,444 | medmcqa_train |
A pt. presented with renal cell carcinoma invadvin IVC and the renal vein. False statement is: | Answer is B (IVC involvement indicates inoperability): Extension of tumor into IVC does not indicate inoperability. 'Extension into renal vein or inferior vena cava does not preclude resection even if cardiopulmonary bypass is required. Half of these patients have prolonged survival' - Harrison | 155,445 | medmcqa_train |
Typical silvery scales of psoriasis are absent in – | Scaling is absent or minimal
Flexures (Groins, axillae, infra - mammary folds, vulva, gluteal cleft)
Glans in uncircumcised patients (in circumcised patients scales are present on glans
Guttate psoriasis | 155,446 | medmcqa_train |
Population growth is said to be less than adequate requirement when NRR is | Net reproductive rate is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her life time assuming fixed age specific feility and moality rates It is a demographic indicator NRR of 1 is equivalent to attaining approximately the 2 child norm If NRR is less than 1, then the reproductive performance of the population is said to below replacement level Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 489 | 155,447 | medmcqa_train |
Aschoff's nodules are seen in - | • Aschoff’s bodies are characteristic focal inflammatory lesion of acute rheumatic fever found in any of the three layers of the heart. | 155,448 | medmcqa_train |
Issuing false ceificate is punishable under Sec 197 IPC for imprisonment upto | Issuing false ceificate is punishable under Sec 197 IPC : imprisonment upto 7 years and fine and erasure of name from medical register. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 11 | 155,449 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following drugs can cause cholestatic jaundice EXCEPT: | The above drugs erythromycin, oc pills, chlorpromazine effects the liver and damage it leading to cholestasis. Mostly because all these drugs are metabolized and excreted bile and hence during bile formation, they damage the liver but isoniazid an antitubercular drug is extensively metabolized in liver but excreted in the urine. It mostly induces peripheral neuritis rather than cholestatic jaundice ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMACOLOGY SEVENTH EDITION -K D TRIPATHI Page:753,321,766.413 | 155,450 | medmcqa_train |
Karyotyping under light microscopy is done by | G-banding, G banding, or Giemsa banding is a technique used in cytogenetics to produce a visible karyotype by staining condensed chromosomes.It is useful for identifying genetic diseases through the photographic representation of the entire chromosome complement. | 155,451 | medmcqa_train |
In Neurogenic shock true is: | Ans. A. Hypotension with bradycardiaIn neurogenic shock, main pathology is stretching of neural pathways in spinal cord. In this type of shock, low blood pressure & slowed heart rate occurs due to disruption of autonomic pathways in spinal cord. | 155,452 | medmcqa_train |
All are complication of Typhoid ulcer EXCEPT - | complications include: Intestinal:perforation,hemorrhage ExtraIntestinal:encephalopathy,meningitis,seizures,endocarditis,myocarditis,pneumonia etc GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY RAMDAS NAYAK PAGE NO:394 | 155,453 | medmcqa_train |
Anti Ul-RNP antibody is seen in? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., MCTDo Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is characterized serologically by high titers of antibodies to ribonucleoprotein paicle-containing Ul ribonucleoprotein (Anti-Ul RNP) | 155,454 | medmcqa_train |
In a patient with multiple bilateral nasal polyps with X-ray showing opacity in the paranasal sinuses. The treatment consists of all of the following, except: | Bilateral ethmoidal polypi are either the result of long-standing nasal allergy or fungal sinusitis. Opaque paranasal sinuses can result in both. Treatment therefore can include antihistamines, steroids and. if fungal, amphotericin-B. Epinephrine (adrenaline) has no role. | 155,455 | medmcqa_train |
Which hormone act on intracellular receptors- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thyroxine Hormones with intracellular receptors (Group I hormones)* Cytoplasmic Glucocorticoids (cortisol/cortisone), mineralocorticoids, androgens, progestins.* Nucleus Estrogen, Thyroid hormones (T3 T4), retinoic acid, Vitamin D (Calcitriol or 1,25 (OH)2 D3). | 155,456 | medmcqa_train |
Changes in middle ear after bih are observed in? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Werdin's test Werdin's test: Before bih middle ear contains gelatinous embryonic tissue which is replaced by air after respiration. | 155,457 | medmcqa_train |
True about rotavirus vaccine: | Ans. c. Pentavalent vaccine | 155,458 | medmcqa_train |
Scar endometriosis can occur following : | Ans. is d i.e. All of the above Endometriosis sometimes occurs in abdominal wall scars following operations on uterus or tubes and is known as Scar endometriosis. Operations most likely to be followed by scar endometriosis Hysterotomydeg * Classical cesarean sectiondeg Myomectomydeg * Ventrofixationdeg Following operations for section of Fallopian tubedeg * Following operations for removal of pelvic Episiotomydeg endometriosisdeg | 155,459 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the most common predisposing factor for placenta accreta? | Placenta accreta is the attachment of placenta directly to the myometrium without any intervening decidua basalis Impoant risk factor : * Placenta pre ( most common ) * Prior cesarean section | 155,460 | medmcqa_train |
What is the best characterizes of the sinusoids | sinusoids - In some tissues the 'exchange' network is made up of vessels that are somewhat different from capillaries, and are called sinusoids. Sinusoids are found typically in organs that are made up of cords or plates of cells. These include the liver, the adrenal coex, the hypophysis cerebri, and the parathyroid glands. Sinusoids are also present in the spleen, in the bone marrow, and in the carotid body. The wall of a sinusoid consists only of endothelium suppoed by a thin layer of connective tissue. The wall may be incomplete at places, so that blood may come into direct contact with tissue cells. Deficiency in the wall may be in the form of fenestrations (fenestrated sinusoids) or in the form of long slits (discontinuous sinusoids, as in the spleen). At some places the wall of the sinusoid consists of phagocytic cells instead of endothelial cells. Sinusoids have a broader lumen (about 20 um) than capillaries. The lumen may be irregular, Because of this fact blood flow through them is relatively sluggish. REF: Inderbir Singh's Textbook of Human Histology, seventh edition, pg.no.,218. | 155,461 | medmcqa_train |
The chest CXR of patient shows? | CXR shows the presence of reticular nodular shadows in both lung fields. Choice A is ruled out since emphysema shows hyperinflation with flattening of the diaphragm. Choice C and D are associated with increased CT ratio and cardiac borders can be ruled out. Hence answer by exclusion is choice B | 155,462 | medmcqa_train |
Elschnig&;s pearls are a sign of | After cataract It is also known as 'secondary cataract'. It is the opacity which persists or develops after extracapsular lens extraction. Causes: (i) Residual opaque lens matter may persist as after cataract when it is imprisoned between the remains of the anterior and posterior capsule, surrounded by fibrin (following iritis) or blood (following hyphaema). (ii) Proliferative type of after cataract may develop from the left-out anterior epithelial cells. The proliferative hyaline bands may sweep across the whole posterior capsule. Clinical types: After cataract may present as thickened posterior capsule, or dense membranous after cataract. Soemmering's ring: which refers to a thick ring of after cataract formed behind the iris, enclosed between the two layers of capsule. pearls: in which the vacuolated subcapsular epithelial cells are clustered like soap bubbles along the posterior capsule. Ref:- A K Khurana; pg num:-201 | 155,463 | medmcqa_train |
Regarding urinary bladder stone one is Not true ? | Answer is 'b' i.e. Uric acid stones are dropped from above It is the oxalate stones that are usually dropped from above (i.e. formed in the kidney and dropped in the bladder through ureter). Uric acid stones are mostly formed within the bladder. In general most of the bladder calculi are formed within the bladder itself. Only some stones are formed in the kidney and pass into the bladder, where they grow by additional deposition of crystals. Etiology for Bladder calculi Bladder outlet obstruction is the most common cause of vesical calculi in adults. Other causes are - neurogenic bladder leading to urinary stasis - a foreign body eg. Foley catheter and forgotten DJ stent, which serve as nidi for stones. - bladder diveicula Bladder stones are commonly seen in older men (>50 yrs.) usually because of bladder outlet obstruction In the Western world bladder stones are rare in pediatric population but bladder stones are endemic in children in underdeveloped nations (in Noh Africa, Thailand, Burma, Indonesia i.e. found near the tropics). This is because of low-protein, high carbohydrate diet and chronic dehdyration. These are usually ammonium urate stones. Common vesical stones are Uric acid stones & Struvite stones Other less common stone types are Oxalate stones Cystein stones Struvite stones are also known as 'Jack stones' because of their rough surface as against the smooth surface of uric acid stones. Struvite stones are composed of ammonium, magnesium and calcium phosphates and occurs in urine infected with urea-splitting organisms, eg. proteus. Bladder stones are usually solitary but may also be multiple. | 155,464 | medmcqa_train |
Fluoresciene stain is used in the eye to stain ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cornea Impoant corneal examinations Keratometry, Corneal topography Specular microscopy Slit lamp Pachymeter Placido's disc Fluorescein, Alacian blue & Bengal rose stain Window reflex, slit lamp biomicroscopy, Placidos' disc Used for Curvature of cornea Corneal endothelial density Corneal opacity Thickness of cornea Corneal sheen Corneal staining Corneal surface | 155,465 | medmcqa_train |
Hea failure cells are - | Ans. is `b' i.e., Pigmented alveolar macrophageso Hea failure cells (siderophages) are hemosiderin containing macrophages in alveoli that are seen in left ventricular failure and denote previous episodes of pulmonary edema.Left sided hea failure o The major morphological and clinical effects of LVF are due increased back pressure in pulmonary circulation and the consequences of diminished peripheral blood pressure and flow.o The extracardiac organs involved commonly are ?1. Lung (most common)2. Kidney3. BrainLungo Pressure in the pulmonary veins increases and transmitted retrogradely to capillaries and aeries. o This results in pulmonary congestion and pulmonary-edema --> Wet lung.o There is perivascular and interstitial transdate, paicularly in the interlobular septa --> responsible for kerley's `B' lines on X-rays.o Edematous fluid accumulates in alveoli.o Iron containing proteins and hemoglobin leak out from the capillaries, and are phagocytosed by macrophages and conveed to hemosiderin.o Hemosiderin - containing macrophages in the alveoli (called siderophages, or hea failure cells) denote previous episodes of pulmonary edema.o The clinical manifestations of LVF are primarily due to these changes in lungs Dysnea, ohopnea, paroxysomal nocturnal dysnea.Kidneyo Decreased cardiac output causes a reduction in renal perfusion.o If it is severe enough to impaire the excretion of nitrogenous product (BUN, Creatinine), Prerenal ARF (Prerenal azotemia) may be precipitated.Braino Reduced perfusion to brain may cause hypoxic / ischemic encephalopathy. | 155,466 | medmcqa_train |
Submental lymph nodes drains from - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Centre of lower lips Submental lymph nodeso These lymph nodes lie on the mylohyoid in the submental triangle. The receive afferents from superficial tissue below chin, central part of lower lip, adjoining gums, anterior part of the floor of the mouth and tip of the tongue. These nodes, themselves, drain into (efferent) into submandibular nodes. | 155,467 | medmcqa_train |
Amoebic liver abscess most commonly affects - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Right lobe of liver Amoebic Liver abscesso Caused by Entamoeba histolytica whose cysts are acquired through the feco-oral route and their trophozoites reach the liver through portal venous systemo Like pyogenic abscess they are also common in rt. lobe of livero Clinical Picture# the typical clinical picture is of a patient 20-40 yrs of age who has travelled to an endemic area, presents with fever, chills, anorexia, rt. upper quadrant pain.# although liver abscess results from an obligatory colonic infection, a recent history of diarrhoea is uncommon.# jaundice is rare. (c.f. in pyogenic abscess jaundice is seen in -25% of pts.)o Liver function tests may show mild abnormalities, hyperbilirubinemia is uncommono CT > U/S are the mainstay of investigation.o Diagnosis is confirmed by serological tests (enzyme immuno assay) for antiamoebic antibodieso Cultures of amoebic abscess are usually negativeo Treatment# Metronidazole is the mainstay of t/t and is curative in over 90% of patients.(other nitroimidazoles i.e. secnidazole, tinidazole, are also effective)#Therapeutic needle aspiration is avoided. Done only wheno pt. fails to respond to metronidazoleo high risk of ruptureo abscess secondarily infected with pyogenic organismo Complications may occur uncommonly; these are# rupture into the peritoneum, pleural cavity or pericardium. | 155,468 | medmcqa_train |
Apple-jelly nodules is/are seen in: | Ans: A (Lupus vulgaris) Apple jelly nodules:characterized by yellow-brown nodules with tiny darker granules. On probing, the noduies are soft jelly-like"- Neena Khanna 3rd/217Lupus Vulgaris Neena Khanna 3rd/217MorphologySingle (or few) lesions.Well demarcated, annular or arcuate plaques which slowly extend centrifugally. Periphery' shows erythematous to brownish, deep seated nodules which on diascopy9 may stand out as apple jelly nodules..Over period of time, the center becomes atrophic (paper thin), depigmented and scarred. Characteristically, new nodules may appear within area of scarringFeatures of Psoriasis are: Isomorphic phenomenon for Koebner's phenomenon), ring of Woronoff, (a hypopigmented halo surrounding plaque), silvery scales, positive grattage test, Auspitz sign, Munro's micro-abscesses etc- Neena Khanna 3rd/40-41Psoriasis Neena Khanna 3rd/38It is a chronic dermatosis characterized by an unpredictable course of remissions and relapses and presence at typical sites of papules and plaques which are:Well definedErythematous.Surmounted with large, silvery, loose scales.DLE Neena Khanna 3rd/ 186Characteristic lesion is a well demarcated coin shaped (discoid), annular, erythematous plaque with adherent scalesWhen the scale is removed, its undersurface show's keratotic spikes which have occupied the dilated pilosebaceous canals (carpet tack sign)Features of Licken planus are: Isomorphic phenomenon (or Koebner's phenomenon), Wickham's striae (surface has white streaks when viewed under a magnifying lens)- Neena Khanna 3rd/ 52 | 155,469 | medmcqa_train |
Both PT and APTT are prolonged in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Factor II deficiencyo Prolongation of both PT and A PPT is typically seen in deficiency of involoved in the common pathway, namely factor //, factor V and factor X (and fibrinogen).o Heparin in clinical concentrations is typically associated with isolated prolongation of APTT while PT is normal be cause heparin acts on the intrinsic pathway. (However Heparin at very high concentrations within the sample may cause prolongation of both PT & APTT). | 155,470 | medmcqa_train |
At which level the somites initially form- | The first pair of somites develop a short distance posterior to the cranial end of the notochord, and the rest of the somites from caudally. | 155,471 | medmcqa_train |
An infant has papulovesicular lesions on palms, soles, face and trunk. The diagnosis would he | Ans. a. Scabies Scabies: Primary lesions are of three types:Q Burrow: Serpentine (S-shaped) path traversed by parasite in stratum corneumQ. It is pathognomic of lesion. Papules and papulovesicles: Due to hypersensitivityto the mite Fine pin head size follicular papules Scalp, face, palms and soles are characteristically spared in adultsQ. In infants, scalp, face, palms and soles are typically involvedQ. Atopic dermatitis: In order to qualify as a case of atopic dermatitis with the UK refinement of Hanifin and Rajka's diagnostic criteria for atopic dermatitis, the child must have An itchy skin condition (or parental repo of scratching or rubbing in a child)plus Three or more of the following: Onset below age 2 years (not used if child is under 4 years) History of skin crease involvement (including cheeks in children under 10 years) History of a generally dry skin Personal history of other atopic disease (or history of any atopic disease in a first degree relative in children under 4 years) Visible flexural dermatitis (or dermatitis of cheeks/forehead and outer limbs in children under 4 years) Uicaria: Present with wheals, angioedema or both. Wheals is the descriptive term for transient, well-demarcated, superficial erythematous or pale swellings of the dermis, which are usually very itchy and are associated with a surrounding red flare initially. Angioedema swellings affect the deeper dermal, subcutaneous and submucosal tissues. They are usually painful rather than itchy, poorly defined, and pale or normal in colour Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: Occurs on hairy sites, flexures or on central trunk Characterized by itching or burning, severe dandruff, greasy yellow scales (stuck on appearance) | 155,472 | medmcqa_train |
Blood supply of femoral head is: | B i.e. Obturator aery | 155,473 | medmcqa_train |
Hyperpolarization is due to | In hyperpolarization the membrane becomes more negative It is due to continued potassium efflux or chloride ion influx. Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:67,68,69 | 155,474 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following cancer makes up the majority in reproductive tract neoplasms during pregnancy? | Cancer in the reproductive tract may also complicate pregnancy and of these cervical neoplasia makes up the majority.Cervical > Ovary > Uterus, Vulva or Vagina(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | 155,475 | medmcqa_train |
Resistance to acyclovir is most commonly due to mutation in a viral gene that encodes a protein that: | (Ref: KDT 6/e p768) Nucleoside/tide analogues (like acyclovir) act by conveing to NTPs. First phosphorylation step occurs inside the virs and resistance occurs if there is mutation in this gene. | 155,476 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following stages of gypsum expansion shows initial crystal growth? | Imagine that the initial mix is represented in the figure (stage I) by the three round particles of hemihydrate surrounded by water.
Under normal setting conditions, the crystals of the dihydrate begin to form on the nuclei. The water around the particles is reduced by hydration and these particles are drawn more closely together because surface tension of the water keeps the water surface area at a minimum (stage II).
As the crystals of dihydrate grow, they contact each other and the water around the particles again decreases (stage III).
Further dihydrate growth consumes more water and should draw the crystals together as before, but the outward thrust of the growing crystals opposes this contraction (stage IV).
Eventually, the crystals become intermeshed and entangled (stage V).
Key Concept | 155,477 | medmcqa_train |
In neonates, spinal cord ends at:March 2010 and 2012, March 2013 | Ans. C: L3 | 155,478 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the most important interaction in the formation of cell membrane lipid bilayer and in lipid-protein interaction? | Interactions in the cell membrane.
- Hydrophobic (most important)–
Between lipids- Information of lipid bilayer
Transmembrane proteins and lipids
- Van der walls interaction
Between lipids- Information of lipid bilayer
Transmembrane proteins and lipids
- Electrostatic bonds
Between transmembrane and peripheral proteins
- Hydrogen bonds
Between transmembrane and peripheral proteins
- Covalent bond (least important)
Peripheral protein with the hydrophilic end of phospholipid | 155,479 | medmcqa_train |
Spot the diagnosis in the following IVU | Note the ectopic kidney seen in the pelvis on left side above the urinary bladder. This patient had solitary right kidney, which was normal in position. Ectopic kidneys are found in one in 1000 people, usually on the left near the pelvic brim. The other kidney is generally normal. A diseased ectopic kidney may present diagnostic problems and may be mistakenly excised as an unexplained pelvic mass. | 155,480 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true regarding the principle of use of MRCP | MRI cholangiography and MRI cholangiopancreaticography (MRCP) are imaging techniques used to evaluate the biliary system. Heavily T2- weighted images are used to provide an overview of the biliary system and pancreatic duct Excellent diagnostic - quality images are obtainable, with high sensitivity and specificity for evaluation of biliary duct dilation, strictures and intra ductal abnormalities Ref: Blumga surgery of liver, biliary tract and pancreas 5th edition Pgno : 315 | 155,481 | medmcqa_train |
A 5 years old boy presents with hepatomegaly, hypoglycaemia, ketosis. The diagnosis is: | Ans. B. Glycogen Storage Disorder(Ref: Nelson 20e Chapter 715 Defects in metabolism of Carbohydrates)Patients with type IGSD may present in the neonatal period with hypoglycemia and lactic acidosisThese children often have doll-like faces with fat cheeks, relatively thin extremities, short stature, and a protuberant abdomen that is due to massive hepatomegaly; the kidneys are also enlarged, whereas the spleen and heart are normal.The biochemical hallmarks of the Type Ia GSD (Von Gierke's) disease are hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, and hyperlipidemia | 155,482 | medmcqa_train |
Early fusion of coronal suture along with other skull sutures is seen in: | Premature closure of the coronal suture results in a ahigh, tower-like cranium, called oxycephaly or turricephaly. It is more common in females. | 155,483 | medmcqa_train |
In Hanup's disease, the following amino acids are excreted into the urine | Hanup disease reflects impaired intestinal and renal transpo of tryptophan and other neutral amino acids.The defect limits tryptophan availability for niacin biosynthesis and accounts for the pellagra-like signs and symptomsHarper 30th edition Pg: 308 | 155,484 | medmcqa_train |
Malleus and Incus are derived from? | A i.e. First arch | 155,485 | medmcqa_train |
A farmer is found convulsing in the farm. Diarrhea, sweating and urination are apparent. Pupils are pin point. Drug poisoning is suspected. Most probable cause is: | Ans. C. Organophosphate poisoningThese are characteristic features of anti-cholinesterase (organophosphate and carbamate) poisoning.A. Symptom due to muscarinic actions: (DUMBELS)* Diarrhoea, Diaphoresis* Urination* Miosis* Bronchoconstriction* Excitation CNS* Lacrimation,* SalivationB. Symptom due to nicotinic action:Skeletal muscle fasciculations, weakness leading to (diaphragmatic) paralysis and deathTwo kinds of poisonings result in pin point pupil i.e. Opioids Poisoning and Organophosphate Poisoning | 155,486 | medmcqa_train |
In post-ductal coarctation of aoa, collaterals may be formed by which of the following: | Suprascapular aery, Subscapular aery, Posterior intercostal aery and Veebral Aery may all form channels for collateral ciculation in coarctation of aoa. The veebral aery is probably the least prominent pathway for collateral circulation amongst the options provided and hence may be accepted as the single best answer by exclusion. Ref: Moss and Adams' hea disease, 7th Edition, Page 990; Gray's Anatomy, 36th Edition, Page 710, 40th Edition, Page 984, 985; Radiology of Peripheral Vascular Diseases By Zeitler, Ammann, 2000, Page 324; Aoic Diseases : Clinical Diagnostic Imaging Atlas By Hutchison (Elsevier), 2008, Page 273. | 155,487 | medmcqa_train |
Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immortaity of cancer cells | Prevention of telomere shortening with every cell division, due to activity of telomerase is the cause of immortality in cancer cells, germ cells, and stem cells as it protects from cellular aging and apoptosis. | 155,488 | medmcqa_train |
Because of an inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's disease) and a small bowel obstruction leading to bowel ischemia, an elderly woman requires bypass of her ileum and jejunum and is scheduled for a gastrocolostomy. The surgeon will ligate all aeries that send branches to the stomach. Which of the following aeries may be spared? | The inferior pancreaticoduodenal aery does not supply the stomach. All the other aeries supply the stomach. | 155,489 | medmcqa_train |
Multiple drug resistance is transferred through - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Conjugation Resistance to multiple drugs is transmitted by R factor (plasmid) o R factor is transferred from one bacterium to other by conjugation. o Transduction and mutation usually cause resistance to one drug. o Transformation is not involved significantly in drug resistance. | 155,490 | medmcqa_train |
Which line of death ceificate represent major antecedent cause of death - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ic International death ceificate The basis of moality data is death ceificate. For ensuring national and international comparability, it is necessary to have a uniform and standardized system of recording and classifying deaths. For this purpose WHO has recommended international death ceificate. Consist of four lines: Line Ia: Disease or condition directly leading to death Line Ib: Antecedent/ underlying cause Line Ic: Main antecedent / underlying cause Line II: Other significant conditions contributing to death but not related to disease/ condition causing it Example of a death ceificate: Line Ia: Renal failure Line Ib: Diabetic nephropathy Line Ic: Diabetes mellitus Line II: Hypeension Concept of underlying cause, Line Ic is the most impoant line in death ceificate, thus also known as `Essence of Death Ceificate'. | 155,491 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not associated with mucous secretion? | Panthet cells are not associated with mucous secretion, it secretes lysozyme and also has some phagocytic functions. Goblet cells are specialized mucus secreting cells present throughout the intestine. Brunners glands are found in the submucosa of small intestine, they produce viscid, mucoid, alkaline secretion which neutralize acid chyme. Crypts of Lieberkuhn secretes mucus, electrolytes and water. | 155,492 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following cranial nerves do not carry parasympathetic outflow | Parasympathetic cranial nerves are 3-occulomotor 7-facial 9-glossopharyngeal 10-vagus Refer kDT 7/e p78 | 155,493 | medmcqa_train |
A hospitalized patient has an ejection fraction of 0.4, a hea rate of 95 beats/min, and a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min. What is the patient's end-diastolic volume? | First, calculate stroke volume from the cardiac output and hea rate: Cardiac output = stroke volume x hea rate; thus, stroke volume = cardiac output/ hea rate = 3500 mL/95 beats/min = 36.8 mL. Then, calculate end-diastolic volume from stroke volume and ejection fraction: Ejection fraction = stroke volume/end-diastolic volume; thus end-diastolic volume = stroke volume/ejection fraction = 36.8 mL/0.4 = 92 mL. | 155,494 | medmcqa_train |
Phantom limb is an example of disorder of: | Perception is defined as any information which is perceived through sensory organs In phantom limb, the patient feels sensations in the amputated limb which in reality is not present. Hence, it's a disorder of perception. | 155,495 | medmcqa_train |
The most common prescription medication for sialorrhea | Traditional medications for the treatment of drooling target the reduction of saliva production using anticholin- ergic mechanisms. While they will reduce salivary output, they do not treat the underlying neuromuscular problems, so some patients may find the anticholinergic side effects out - weigh the benefit of the drug. Additionally, the drying effect these medications have can lead to xerostomia, especially if the patient has a constant open mouth. Glycopyrrolate is the most common prescription medication for sialorrhea and drooling , with atropine sulfate, scopolamine, amitriptyline, and benztropine also being reported in the literature. OnabotulinumtoxinA (Botox ) injections into salivary glands with ultrasonic guidance have shown to be of some benefit in patients who have failed or are intolerant to anticholinergics | 155,496 | medmcqa_train |
True about Measles rash appearance: | RASH IN MEASLES Stas 12-24 hours after appearance of Koplik spots. Retro -auricular origin spreads to other pas of body (fades in opposite direction). Takes 1 - 2 days to cover body * Fever is highest and patient is sickest on day of rash. | 155,497 | medmcqa_train |
Grading disease severity as mild, moderate, severe is an example of which scale? | There are characteristics that should be measured in terms of quantities but nonavailability of a good instrument compels measure in terms of what is called an ordinal scale. Example is disease severity measured as mild, moderate or severe. Ref: Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 99 | 155,498 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic | Refer KDT 6/e p743 Streptomycin and Ethambutol are not hepatotoxic Read carefully option (c) is Ethionamide AMD not Ethambutol | 155,499 | medmcqa_train |
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