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Elderly man with long-standing mole over the face which is increasing in size and showing irregular border. Diagnosis: | Lentigo maligna- occur on face sun exposed areas of older individuals,long standing cases,manifests as a flat,dark,variably pigmented lesion,with irregular borders and a history of slow development,best prognosis Superficial spreading melanoma- m/c type , m/c site torso/trunk Nodular- most malignant,veical growth phase + Acral melanoma-least common ,m/c site great toe nail | 155,300 | medmcqa_train |
Histological changes in lens induced uveitis include: | Ans. Giant cell reaction | 155,301 | medmcqa_train |
In a patient with head injury black eye associated with subconjunctival haemorrhage occurs when there is - | This is k/a racoon sign. | 155,302 | medmcqa_train |
A drug X is useful in the treatment of rheumatoid ahritis. It is available only in parenteral formulation and its mechanism of action is antagonism of tumor necrosis factor. Which of the following can be X? | Infliximab and Etanercept are TNF-aantagonists useful for the treatment of rheumatoid ahritis. These are administered by parenteral route. TNF-a antagonists can cause reactivation of latent tuberculosis. Phenylbutazone -can precipitate the acute attack of asthma | 155,303 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a lyase | All of the above i.e. Fumarase, Aldolase, Decarboxylase are Lyases. Lyases are enzymes which can either break a bond or make a bond but they do not require water or ATP. The EC No. is 4. Fumarase is a Lyase (also known as Hydratase enzyme which can add or remove water but bond is not broken). Aldolase A & B both are Lyases. Simple Decarboxylases are Lyases. EXTRA EDGE: The other examples of Lyases are: Synthase - Link two molecules without involvement of ATP. Desulfhydrase - Remove H2S from substrate. Enzyme of Oxidative decarboxylation is a Dehydrogenase, so belongs to EC No.= 1 as compared to simple decarboxylases which are Lyases. | 155,304 | medmcqa_train |
A person has an injury in the forefinger with glass and it is suspected that he has a retained piece of glass in his finger. What is the first investigation you will do? | Ans. c. Plain radiograph 'Plain films can be clinically beneficial in locating glass foreign bodies in deep wounds with or without exploration.' Glass Foreign Body Patients with glass embedded in a wound are more likely to repo the sensation of foreign bodies. In patients with sensation of foreign body, superficial wounds that have been adequately explored do not require radiography. Plain films can be clinically beneficial in locating glass foreign bodies in deep wounds with or without explorationQ In patients without sensation, the history can guide the decision for fuher investigation. All glass is radiopaque; however, there is limited ability for radiography to detect glass fragments smaller than 2 mm. Glass is ine and can be left in place if it is difficult to locate or remove. | 155,305 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a side effect of long-term use of PPI? | Ans. a. Hypothyroidism | 155,306 | medmcqa_train |
A patient is advised to avoid strenous activity following herniorrhaphy for a period of - | Ans. is 'None' | 155,307 | medmcqa_train |
The sputum specimen of a 70 year old male was cultured on a 5% blood agar. The culture showed the presence of a-hemolytic colonies next day. The fuher processing of this organism is most likely to yield:- | Sputum sample is taken for diagnosis of URIs and LRIs. Option 1 Viridians Streptococci Gram-positive cocci in sho chains, Catalase negative and bile resistant Viridans streptococci are pa of a normal oral flora. cause of dental caries and subacute bacterial endocarditis. Option 2 Pneumococcus Gram-positive cocci in pairs, catalase negative and bile soluble form a-hemolytic colonies (Greenish colonies) on blood agar and optochin sensitive . responsible for the majority of community-acquired pneumonia. Gram staining of sputum = S. pneumoniae (gram positive diplococci with capsule) Optochin sensitivity = Pneumococcus on Blood agar showing a- Hemolysis (Paial hemolysis) with sensitivity to optochin disk. Option 3 S. aureus Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive coagulase positive Option 4 Brucella Gram-negative coccobacilli catalase positive and oxidase positive | 155,308 | medmcqa_train |
Which vitamin deficiency is seen in vegetarians especially - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vitamin B12* Dietary sources of vitamin B12 are of animal origin only and include meat, eggs, milk, diary products, fish, poultry etc. Vitamin B12 is absent in plant foods. Small amount of vitamin B12 is synthesized in the intestine by the action of intestinal flora. | 155,309 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is found more in aqueous humor than in plasma: | Lactate is found more in aqueous humor than in blood. Concentration More in Aqueous Humor More in Plasma Lactate Protein Ascorbate Urea Pyruvate Glucose | 155,310 | medmcqa_train |
Which of this is not a sign of increased ICT? Copper beaten appearance | Ans. Ballooning of sella | 155,311 | medmcqa_train |
Gleasons Scoring is done for which of the following malignancy? | Gleason scoring system is used in prostate cancer to measure the extent of histological aggressiveness. This system relies upon the low-power appearance of the glandular architecture under the microscope. While assigning a grade to a given tumor, pathologists assign a primary grade to the pattern of cancer that is most commonly observed and a secondary grade to the second most commonly observed pattern in the specimen. Grades range usually from 1 to 5. If the entire specimen has only one pattern present, then both the primary and secondary grade are repoed as same grade. The Gleason score or Gleason sum is obtained by adding the primary and secondary grades together. Gleason grades range from 1 to 5, and Gleason scores or sums range from 2 to 10. Ref: Smith's General Urology, 17e, chapter 22 | 155,312 | medmcqa_train |
Cheiloscopy is the study of prints of? | LIPPRINTS: (CheiloscopyQ): Lip prints are divided into different patterns which are specific to the individual. Lip print Patterns: Veical, branched, intersected, reticular patterns & unidentified patterns. Palatoscopy - Study of rugae in hard palate Podogram - Study of footprints | 155,313 | medmcqa_train |
'SEPS' is a surgical procedure used in the treatment of which of the following condition: | Subfascial endoscopic perforator vein surgery (SEPS) is done in patients with documented perforator incompetence. It is a minimally invasive technique performed in patients with advanced chronic venous insufficiency. The objective of this operation is to interrupt incompetent medial calf perforating veins to decrease venous reflux, and to reduce ambulatory venous hypeension in critical areas above the ankle where venous ulcers most frequently develop. Patients with stasis skin changes and healed or active ulcerations are candidates of operations. Ref: Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation: Principles and Practice By Joel A. DeLisa, Nicholas E. Walsh, Volume 1, Page 801 | 155,314 | medmcqa_train |
Complications arising out of A - V fistula done for renal failure include the following EXCEPT ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Necrosis of the distal pa | 155,315 | medmcqa_train |
Muscle attached to lateral surface of greater trochanter | GREATER TROCHANTER:- Quadrangular prominence located on upper pa of the junction of neck with the shaft.Attachments:-1. Apex-pyriformis 2. Anterior surface-gluteus minimus3. Medial surface- obturator internus and two gamelli.4. Trochanteric fossa- obturator externus.5. Lateral surface-gluteus medius. <img src=" /> {Reference: BDC 6E pg no. 16} | 155,316 | medmcqa_train |
Granulomatous uveitis is seen in all of the following except: | Ans. Uveitis with ankylosing spondylitis | 155,317 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug has the least Marrow suppression | Mitotic Spindle Inhibitors:Vincristine binds to the tubulin dimer with the result that microtubules are disaggregated. This results in the block of growing cells in M-phaseVincristine is metabolized by the liver, and dose adjustment in the presence of hepatic dysfunction is required. It is a powerful vesicant, and infiltration can be treated by local heat and infiltration of hyaluronidase. At clinically used intravenous doses, neurotoxicity in the form of glove-and-stocking neuropathy is frequent. Acute neuropathic effects include jaw pain, paralytic ileus, urinary retention, and the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Myelosuppression is not seen.Reference: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 103e; Principles of Cancer treatment | 155,318 | medmcqa_train |
Structures passing through the inguinal canal are all EXCEPT: | Inferior epigastric aery is a branch given by external iliac aery, which ascends supero-medially, becomes medial relation of deep inguinal ring, and subsequently enters rectus sheath. It is not a content of inguinal canal. Lymphatics from uterus follow the round ligament of uterus through the inguinal canal | 155,319 | medmcqa_train |
Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and phaeochrornocytoma may be associated with: | Clinical presentation Type 1 MEN * Hyperparathyroidism is most common initial clinical manifestation of type s multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN). * Some patients may manifest findings of ZES before they have hyperparathyroidism. * Symptoms of gastrinoma may become clinically apparent either with abdominal pain and diarrhea or with complications such as ulcer perforation or bleeding. Type 2A MEN * All patients develop MTC on the basis of C-cell hyperplasia. * About 5o% of patients with MTC manifest pheochromocytomas (usually late in life), and 2o% of patients have hyperparathyroidism. Type 2B MEN * Pheochromocytomas occur earlier than in patients with type 2A MEN. Ref : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21st ed | 155,320 | medmcqa_train |
In a population of 1000, there are 200 eligible couples. 30 out of them use condom, 20 use IUCD, 20 use OC pills while 70 have undergone female sterilization. The rest do not use any method. Calculate Couple protection rate. | - Given, total eligible couples = 200 ; eligible couples protected by any of approved methods = 30+20+20+70 =140 - CPR = Total no. of eligible couples protected by any of approved methods/Total no. of eligible couples in the communityx100 =140/200 = 70% Approved methods of Family planning Sterlization IUD Condom Oral pills | 155,321 | medmcqa_train |
POSTERIOR COMMUNICATING aery is a branch of | Posterior communicating aery is a branch of cerebral pa of internal carotid aery. It arises close to its termination. It runs backwards and anastomoses with proximal pa of posterior cerebral aery.Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head neck, and brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.406 | 155,322 | medmcqa_train |
Following is true about Focal nodular hyperplasia Except | It&;s a benign condition of unknown aetiology, seen in females showing focal overgrowth of functioning liver tissues with fibrous stromal suppo and also it presents as a solitary nodule. Reference : SRB edition :5 page no: 607& 608 | 155,323 | medmcqa_train |
Behcet's disease is characterised by all of the following except: | Ans. Unilateral granulomatous uveitis | 155,324 | medmcqa_train |
Following are criminal responsibility of insaneexcept- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Rule of nine Criminal responsibility of insane is judged by following rules : 1. Mc Naughten rule (legal test or right or wrong test) : It states that an accused person is not legally responsible, if it is clearly proved that at the time of commiting the crime, person was suffering from such a defect of reason from abnormality of mind that he didn't know the nature and quality of act he was doing or that what he was doing was wrong i.e. a person is not responsible if he is not of sound mind. It is accepted in india as law of criminal responsibility and is embodied in section 84 1PC as - "nothing is an offence which is done by a person, who at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing the nature of act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law". 2. Doctrine of paial responsibility - If a person is suffering from some weakness or aberration of mind (though not completely insane), he is only paially responsible for his actions, e.g. obsession states or depressions. 3. Durhan rule- Accused is not responsible for the act, if his act resulted from mental disease or defect. 4. Currens rule- A person is not responsible if at the time of committing the crime, he did not have the capacity to regulate his conduct according to the requirements of law, as a result of his mental disease or defect. 5. American law institute test-Insane lacks the capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to confirm to the requirements of law, therefore he is not responsible for crimes committed. 6. Norwegion system-No defendant considered insane or unconscious at the time of offence, may be punished | 155,325 | medmcqa_train |
Porencephaly seen in – | Porencephaly is the presence of cyst and cavities in the brain.
It is due to infarction.
In Dandy - walker syndrome also cyst occurs in brain due to expansion of 4th ventricle. | 155,326 | medmcqa_train |
Patient of exudative retinopathy of coats presents with leukocoria, needs to be differentiated from ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Retinoblastoma EXUDATIVE RETINOPATHY OF COATS Coats' disease is a severe form of retinal telengiectasia (idiopathic congenital vascular malformation), which typically affects one eye of boys in their first decade of life. In early stages it is characterised by large areas of intra and subretinal yellowish exudates and haemorrhages associated with overlying dilated and touous retinal blood vessels and a number of small aneurysms near the posterior pole and around the disc. It may present with visual loss, strabismus or leukocoria (whitish pupillary reflex) and thus needs to be differentiated from retinoblastoma. The condition usually progresses to produce exudative retinal detachment and a retrolental mass. In late stages complicated cataract, uveitis and secondary glaucoma occur, which eventually end in phthisis bulbi. Treatment Photocoagulation or cryotherapy may check progression of the disease if applied in the early stage. However, once the retina is detached the treatment becomes increasingly difficult and success rate declines to 33 percent. | 155,327 | medmcqa_train |
What is the clearance of a substance, if its concentration in plasma in 10 mg% concentration in urine is 100mg% and urine flow is 2 ml/min? | The amount of such a substance in the urine per unit of time must have been provided by filtering exactly the number of milliliters of plasma that contained this amount. Therefore, if the substance is designated by the letter X, the GFR is equal to the concentration of X in urine (UX) times the urine flow per unit of time (V*) divided by the aerial plasma level of X (PX), or UXV*/PX. This value is called the clearance of X (CX). PX is, of course, the same in all pas of the aerial circulation, and if X is not metabolized to any extent in the tissues, the level of X in peripheral venous plasma can be substituted for the aerial plasma level. C= 2*100/10 = 20ml/min Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology,23rd edition, page: 645 | 155,328 | medmcqa_train |
A 45-year-old female with a long history of progressive myopia develops sudden patchy loss of vision in her right eye. She is very alarmed and rushes to her family doctor. Funduscopic examination reveals a large retinal detachment in the right eye. The retina in the left eye is normal. When the pupillary light reflex is tested by shining a light in the right eye, the physician would likely note? | This patient is exhibiting the Marcus-Gunn phenomenon. When light strikes the retina, the pupillary light reflex is automatically triggered, leading to simultaneous constriction of both pupils. In the absence of adequate light entering the eye, for example following retinal detachment or optic neuritis, paradoxical dilatation of the pupils occurs. The retina receives far less light than it normally would, and the pupils dilate in order to absorb as much light as possible. | 155,329 | medmcqa_train |
A hypeensive individual had a sudden headache and became unconscious within a few minutes. On regaining consciousness, there was complete flaccid hemiplegia with no involvement of upper face, absence of tendon reflexes and a positive Babinski sign. Which one of the following aeries could have ruptured : | Answer is A (Lateral striate branch of middle cerebral): This is a case of hypeensive intracerebral haemorrhage affecting the basal ganglia. Basal ganglia is supplied through medial and lateral striate branches of middle cerebral aery. Lateral striate branch of middle cerebral aery is thus the site of rupture Hypeensive hemorrhage almost always occurs while the patient is awake and sometimes when stressed. It generally presents as severe headache along with abrupt onset of focal neurological deficit. The focal deficit typically worsens steadily and is associated with a diminishing level of consciousness and signs of increased ICP, such as headache & vomiting. The focal neurological signs vary according to the site of the hemorrhage Basal ganglia Thalamus Pons Cerebellum Aeries involved Aeries involved Aeries involved Aeries involved Medial & lateral striate branches of Middle cerebral aery. Perforating branches of posterior cerebral aery Basilar aery Cerebellar aeries - Superior cerebellar - Ant. inferior - Post. Inferior Manifestations Manifestations Manifestations Manifestations * Contralateral hemiparesis * Hemisensory loss involving all modalities * Quadriplegia * Occipital headache is the sentinel sign * Contralateral hemiparesis * Deep coma * Vomiting * Paralysis may worsen sensory loss > motor loss * Decerebrate * Gain ataxia until the affected limbs * Several typical ocular disturbances: rigidity Q * Dizziness or veigo become flaccid or extend - down & inward detion of eyes ** Pinpoint pupil * Ocular changes rigidly - unequal pupils with loss of light reflex that react to light - paresis of conjugate gaze * When haemorrhage is - skew detion with eye opp. * Impairment of - forced detion of eyes large signs of brainstem haemorrhage deted down and reflex eye to opposite side compression may appear - Coma medially - I/L homers syndrome movement on head turning - I/L 6th nerve palsy * Dysahria - Cheyne Stokes respiration - Dilated & fixed ipsilateral pupil - Absence of convergence - Paralysis of veical gaze - Retraction nystagmus * Contralateral pain syndrome (Deferne- (doll's head or occulocephalic maneuver) * Hyperapnea * Dysphagia * Stupor & coma if brainstem compression occurs - Decerebrate rigidity Roussy syndrome) * Hypeension * Aphasics * Hyperhydrosis | 155,330 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about culture media except | (A) (Mac- Conkey agar prevent growth of G-ve bacteria) (45, 46- Bevja 4th; 42-43- Ananthanarayan 9th)Mac-Conkev agar* Mainly used to differentiate between varius Gram negative rod shaped organisms* It is also used to inhibit growth of gram positive organism thus it is both differential and selective media.Mac-conkey medium which consists of peptone, lactose agar, neutral red and taurocholate shows up lactose fermenters as pink colonies while non-lactose fermenters are coloumess or pale. This may also be termed indicator medium.Composition and uses of Liquid MediaMediumCompositionUses1. Peptone waterPeptone - 1% Na Ci- 0.5%water- 100 ml (PH 7.4)Routine culture, sugar fermentation tests2. Nutrient brothPeptone water + Meat extract- 1 % 3. Glucose brothNutrient broth + Glucose- 0.5%Blood culture, culture of certain organisms e,g, Streptococci4. Enrichment media i) Alkaline peptone waterPeptone water (p H 9.0)Culture of vibrioii) Selenite F brothPeptone water, sodium seleniteCulture of faeces for salmonellae and shigellaeiii) Tetrathionate brothNutrient broth, sodium thiosulphate, calcium carbonate, iodine solutionCulture of faeces especially for salmonellaeiv) Cooked meat broth (CMB) Rebertson's cooked meat broth (RCM)Nutrient broth, predigested cooked meat of ox heartCulture of anaerobic bacteriaComposition and uses of Solid MediaMediumCompositionUses1. Simple medium i) Nutrient agarNutrient broth Agar (2-3%)Routine culture2. Enriched media i) Blood agarii) Chocolate agariii) Loeffler's serum slope (LSS)Nutrient agar, Sheep blood (5-10%)Heated blood agar (55degC X2 hr)Nutrient broth Glucose, Horse serumRoutine cultureCulture of Neisseria H, influenzaCulture of C diphtheria3. Indicator medium i) MacConkey's mediumPeptoneLactoseSodium taurocholateAgarNeutral redCulture of Gram negative bacilli4. Selective media i) Deoxycholate citrate agar (DCA)ii) Bile salt agar (BSA)Nutrient agar, Sodium deoxycholate, sodium citrate, Lactose, Neutral redNutrient agar, Sodium taurocholate (0.5%) pH 8.2Culture of salmonellae and ShigellaeCulture of vibrio choleraKEY POINTS1. Culture media are required to grow the organisms from infected material to identify the causative agent2. The basic constituents of culture media are water, electrolyte, peptone, meat extract, blood or serum and agar.3. When basal medium is added with some nutrients such as blood, serum of egg, it is called enriched medium.4. Some substances are incorporated in the liquid medium which have a stimulating effect on the bacteria and be growth or inhibits the competitors. Such media are called enrichment media, e,g, selenite broth.5. Selective media contain substances that inhibit all but a few types of bacteria and facilitate the isolation of a particular species. Example is bite salt agar (BSA).6. Differential medium contains substances which help to distinguish differing characteristics of bacteria. Example is MacConkey's medium7. Indicator media contain an indicator which changes colour when bacterium grows in them. macConkey's medium is differential as well as an indicator medium8. Anaerobic media are used for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria, e,g, cooked meat broth (CMB | 155,331 | medmcqa_train |
In primary health care, ABC and VED are related to | Of all the inventory control systems ABC and VED matrix is most suitable for medical stores. Hence the coupling of ABC and VED matrix for drug inventory in a hospital.ABC analysis is popularly known as "Always Better Control" is a very useful approach to material management based on Pareto&;s principle of "Vital few and tril many" based on the capital investment of the item. According to Pareto&;s theory O10% items consume about 70 % of the budget (Group A). OThe next 20% consume 20 % of financial resources (Group B) andOremaining 70 % items account for just 10% of the budget (Group C). VED analysis is based on the criticality of an item. O"V" is for vital items without which a hospital cannot function, O"E" for essential items without which an institution can function but may affect the quality of the services andO"D" stands for desirable items, unavailability of which will not interfere with functioning.(Refer: style="font-family:Cambria;font-size:13px;"> and Immunization Handbook for medical officers) | 155,332 | medmcqa_train |
Organ of corti is situated in | Basilar membrane which support the organ of corti. | 155,333 | medmcqa_train |
Femoral hernia is characteristically ... the pubic tubercle - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lateral and below | 155,334 | medmcqa_train |
All are seen in primary extraglandular Sjogren's syndrome except - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rheumatoid arthritis o Primary Sjogren syndrome is not associated with other autoimmune disorders, e.g. Rheumatoid arthritis,o Sjogren syndrome occurs in elderly (50-60 yrs) female.o Primary' Sjogren syndrome (Sicca syndrome) has two types of clinical manifestationsSjogren SyndromeInvolvement of exocrine glandExtraglandularo Exocrine glands are the primary targeto Most common glands involved are -1. Lacrimal glands - dry eyes (Keratoconjunctivitis sicca)2. Salivary glands - dry mouth (Xerostomia)o Occurs in 1/3 rd patientso Raynaud's phenomenono Vasculitiso Arthralgia/Arthritiso Lymphadenopathyo Lymphomao Splenomegalyo Lung involvemento Kidney involvemento Peripheral neuropathyo Myositiso Liver involvemento In Sjogren syndrome, there is increased risk of development of marginal B-cell lymphoma.o Amongst the extraglandular manifestations, Arthralgia/Arthritis is most common.Remembero The biopsy of the lip to examine minor salivary glands is essential for the diagnosis of Sjogren syndrome.o The characteristic decrease in tears and saliva is the result of lymphocytic infiltration and fibrosis of lacrimal and salivary gland.o Anti SS-A (Ro) and anti SS-B (La) antibodies are the serological markers of Sjogren syndrome. | 155,335 | medmcqa_train |
Both hard and soft exudates are seen in | Ref AK khurana 6/e p 275 | 155,336 | medmcqa_train |
Structure over bicipital aponeurosis in cubital fossa- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Veins | 155,337 | medmcqa_train |
A 29-year-old male is suspected of having viral encephalitis. Which of the following is the most likely result from CSF analysis? | VIRAL encephalitis N Glucose n or slightly | Protein || Lymphocytes Spinal Fluid Analysis for Meningitis Etiology Opening Pressure WBC Count Protein Glucose CSF/Serum Glucose Ratio Normal <180 mm H2O <=5 cells/mm3 15-45 mg/dL 45-80 mg/dL 0.6-0.7 Bacterial >180 mm H2O >100 cells/mm3 PMNs predominant >45 mg/dL <40 mg/dL <0.4 Viral,Borrelia burgdorferi,Treponema pallidum,Baonella henselae <180 mm H2O 25-500 cells/mm3 Lymphocyte predominant 15-45 mg/dLor slightly raised 45-80 mg/dL 0.6-0.7 Fungi,Mycobacterium tuberculosis, sarcoid, lymphoma, leptomeningeal metastases, paially treated bacterial meningitis Normal or increased 25-500 cells/mm3 Lymphocyte predominant >45 mg/dL <40 mg/dL <0.6 | 155,338 | medmcqa_train |
A 40 year old male smoker was diagnosed to have carcinoma of the right lung. Bronchogram showed the presence of a tumor, causing paial occlusion of the epaerial bronchus. Which of the following bronchopulmonary segments receive decreased airflow? | The epaerial bronchus supplies the right upper lobe, which includes the segments : apical, posterior and anterior. Bronchopulmonary segments Lobe Right lung Left lung Superior lobe I. Apical II. Posterior III. Anterior I. Apical II. Posterior III. Anterior IV. Superior lingual V. Inferior lingual Middle lobe IV. Lateral V. Medial Inferior lobe VI. Superior (apical) VII. Medial basal VIII. Anterior basal IX. Lateral basal X. Posterior basal VI. Superior (apical) VII. Medial basal VIII. Anterior basal IX. Lateral basal X. Posterior basal Ref: Gray's Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 958 | 155,339 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are contra-indications for trial labour except: | Primi gravida | 155,340 | medmcqa_train |
Non-sterile vegetations are seen in - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Infective endocarditis o As the name suggests, non-sterile means presense of organism in the vegetation that is the characteristic feature of infective endocarditis. o Vegetation of infective endocarditis has following characteristics Large, bulky, friable and irregular Multiple Present on upper surface of the cusps. o Vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms (non-sterile) and scant inflammatory cells. o Aoic and mitral valves are the most common sites of infection. o In intravenous drug users, valves of right side are involved. o Vegetations sometimes erode into the underlying myocardium to produce an abscess cavity --> Ring abscess. Why hea valve is the most common site of infective endocarditis ? Lets see o As the valves of hea do not actually receive any supply of their own, defensive immune mechanism (such as WBCs) cannot approach the valves. o So, if an organisms (such as bacteria) establishes a hold on the valve forming a vegetation, the body cannot get rid of them. | 155,341 | medmcqa_train |
A person knows the truth & willfully concealed the truth & gives false evidence in the cou of law. He will be punished under which IPC - | Perjury is dealt with in 193 IPC. Wilful giving of false evidence by a witness while under oath. He can be imprisoned for 7 years. Perjury can be asked leading questions by same side lawyer. HOSTILE WITNESS: Is a person who is supposed to have some interest or motive for concealing pa of the truth, or for giving completely false evidence. REF: Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 7. | 155,342 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true regarding LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin) except | Ans. (b) It acts by inhibiting both factor IIa and factor XaRef: KDT 6th ed./ 1599-600* Low molecular weight heparin inhibits only factor Xa whereas unfractionated heparin inhibits both factor Ila and factor Xa. | 155,343 | medmcqa_train |
Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in human is most commonly because of - | Tuberculosis is transmitted mainly by droplet infection and droplet nuclei generated by sputum positive patients with pulmonary tuberculosis . Ref:PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition , Page :181 | 155,344 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the BEST to assess the state of protein nutrition? | Serum albumin is the best test of measure of body protein status. Other tests include total body nitrogen, mid arm circumference, serum transferrin, creatinine and height index. A serum albumin value of more than 3.5 g/dl indicates normal nutrition. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 563 | 155,345 | medmcqa_train |
ELISA for virulence marker antigen (VMA) is done to detect virulence in - | EIEC :clinically EIEC resembles shigellosis ranging from mild diarrhoea to frank dysentry and occur in childrenas well as in adults. For lab diagnosis of EIEC ,the Sereny test used to be employed. Mice may be used instead of guinea pig. Cell penetration of HeLa or HEP-2 cells in culture is a more human diagnostic test. This ability to penetrate cells is determined by large plasmid, detection of which can also be a diagnostic test. The plasmid code for outer membrane antigens called the virulence marker antigen (VMA) which can be detected by ELISA (VMA ELISA) test REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 8th Edition pg no : 277 | 155,346 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following represents the clinical presentation of a patient with critical lower limb ischemia? | Patient with critical limb ischemia has insufficient perfusion to sustain limb at rest, if left untreated such patients require amputation in 6 months. They experience pain at rest, ulcers and ischemic gangrene. Rest pain is exacerbated when lying supine and is improved by dangling the feet. Narcotics can also relieve the pain. Ref: Noninvasive Cardiovascular Imaging: A Multimodality Approach By Mario J. Garcia, Page 123; Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapter 23 | 155,347 | medmcqa_train |
Benign hyperplasia (excessive growth of cells) of which pa of the male reproductive system would be most likely to interfere with the passage of urine? | Remember that the prostatic urethra travels through the prostate gland. So, if the periurethral zone of the prostate hyperophied, the nearby prostatic urethra would be occluded. The central and peripheral zones of the prostate are not as close to the urethra. If they enlarged, they would not restrict the flow of urine quite as much. The ejaculatory duct is the duct formed once the ductus deferens joins with the duct of the seminal vesicle. It passes through the prostate gland, but its enlargement would have no effect on the prostate or the urethra. Ref: La Rochelle J., Shuch B., Belldegrun A. (2010). Chapter 40. Urology. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | 155,348 | medmcqa_train |
Putrefaction is a : | D i.e. Late sign of death | 155,349 | medmcqa_train |
Terlipressin is preferred over vasopressine for esophageal varices because of - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Less side effects o Terlipresin is preferred over vasopressine because: -i) Fewer adverse effectsii) Greater convenience in use | 155,350 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following drugs are used as immunosuppressants except - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cephalosporin Immunosuppressant drugs:-These are drugs which inhibit cellular / humoral or both immune response.They have their major use in organ transplantation and autoimmune disease.These drugs are:ImmunosuppresantsCalcineurin inhibitors(specific T cell inhibitors)Antiproliferative drugs(cytotoxic drugs)GlococorticoidsAntibodiesCyclosporineTacrolimusAzathioprineCyclophosphamideMethotrexateChlorambucilMycophenolateMofetilPrednisolone & othersMuromonab CD3Antithymocyte globulin(ATG)Rho (D) immunoglobulin | 155,351 | medmcqa_train |
A person was diagnosed with Gout. You will suggest the patient to avoid which of the following food product in his diet? | Ans. D. ALLFoods rich in purine are:1. Vegetarian - spinach, peas, cauliflower, mushrooms2. Non- vegetarian- meat, liver, fish (tuna)Also alcohol & heavy exercise should be avoided in patients of gout, because they cause Lactic acidosis & Hyperuricemia. | 155,352 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus? NOT RELATED-MEDICINE | . | 155,353 | medmcqa_train |
ATP is generated in ETC by | ATP SYNTHASE (COMPLEX V) It is a protein assembly in the inner mitochondrial membrane. It is sometimes referred to as the 5th Complex (Figs 19.14 and 19.15). Proton pumping ATP synthase (otherwise called F1-Fo ATPase) is a multisubunit transmembrane protein. It has two functional units, named as F1 and Fo. It looks like a lollipop since the membrane-embedded Fo component and F1 are connected by a protein stalk. Fo Unit: The "o" is pronounced as "oh"; and not as "zero". The "o" stands for oligomycin, as Fo is inhibited by oligomycin. Fo unit spans inner mitochondrial membrane. It serves as a proton channel, through which protons enter into mitochondria (Fig.19.14). Fo unit has 4 polypeptide chains and is connected to F1. Fo is water-insoluble whereas F1 is a water-soluble peripheral membrane protein. F1 Unit: It projects into the matrix. It catalyses the ATP synthesis (Fig. 19.14). F1 unit has 9 polypeptide chains, (3 alpha, 3 beta, 1 gamma, 1 sigma, 1 epsilon). The alpha chains have binding sites for ATP and ADP and beta chains have catalytic sites. ATP synthesis requires Mg++ ions. Mechanism of ATP synthesis: Translocation of protons carried out by the Fo catalyses the formation of the phospho-anhydride bond of ATP by F1. Coupling of the dissipation of proton gradient with ATP synthesis (oxidative phosphorylation) is through the interaction of F1 and Fo.Ref: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 232 | 155,354 | medmcqa_train |
Amyloid is best identified by - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Green birefringence of stained amyloid when viewed by polarizing microscope | 155,355 | medmcqa_train |
Postoperative third-space accumulation should be managed by intravenous | Normal saline Third-space fluid accumulation should be managed by replacement with normal saline. This may produce an edematous patient, but it maximizes protection of reral function and produces more rapid recovery. Intravenous administration of non-solute containing fluids compounds the problem. Administration of potassium-containing fluids may lead to cardiac irregularity, and fluid restriction makes the renal problems worse. | 155,356 | medmcqa_train |
One of the following is the t/t of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis: | Ans. a. DapsoneTOC for dermatitis herpetiformis is gluten free diet DOC Dapsone | 155,357 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following differentiates Hodgkin's lymphoma from non Hodgkins lymphoma? | ANSWER: (D) Reed stern berg cellsREF: Robbing 7th ed p. 669The differentiation between Hodgkin and non Hodgkin can be reliably done by histopathological examination and Reed Sternberg cells Is very characterstic of hodgkins lymphoma.* The clinical features of both the diseases can be very similar and distinction is difficult to be made on clinical grounds alone at times. Both types of lymphoma may also be associated with general symptoms of weight loss, fevers, and night sweatsDIFFERENCES BETWEEN HODGKIN'S AND NON HODGKIN'S DISEASE:Hodgkin'sNon hodgkin s* Less common* Bimodal distribution , more common in young* More often localised to single group of axial lymph nodes ( cervical , mediastinal , para aortic )* Orderly spread by contiguity * Mesentric and waldeyer's nodes rarely involved* Extranodal involvement uncommon* Reed stern berg cell seen* More common* Occurs in elderly only* Multiple periferal nodes* Non contigous spread* Commonly Involved* Extranodal involvement common* Reed stemberg cell not seen | 155,358 | medmcqa_train |
A rikshaw ran over the body of an 8 year old child leaving distinct markings of the tire treads. Marking's of the rikshaw tire over the child's body are best defined as: | Impact and pressure abrasions reproduce the pattern of the object causing it and are called patterend abrasions. They are produced when the force is applied at right angle to the surface of skin. When the skin is struck with a weapon having patterned surface, ridges of object damage the epidermis, and skin may be compressed into the cavities of the pattern causing intradermal bruise, eg imprint of bicycle chain, weave of coarse fabrics. Marking's of the rikshaw tire over the child's body are best defined as patterned abrasion. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 27th Edition, Pages 156-159; Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology: Principles and Practice by Vijay, 5th Edition, Page 215 | 155,359 | medmcqa_train |
A 6 yr old child presenting with recurrent episodes of gross hematuria for 2 yrs, is likely to have: | Recurrent episodes of painless gross hematuria represent the classic clinical presentation of IgA nephropathy. All other conditions may cause microscopic hematuria but gross hematuria in children is charecteristic of IgA Nephropathy. Ref: O P Ghai 6th Edition, Page 446, 448, 573, 574; Harrison 17th Edition, Page 1788; Rudolph Pediatrics 21st Edition, Page 1682 | 155,360 | medmcqa_train |
A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural-based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is NOT RELATED-RADIOLOGY | . | 155,361 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest extradural spinal tumour is - | • MC spinal tumor: Metastasis
• MC primary spinal tumor: Nerve sheath tumor
• MC intramedullary tumor: Astrocytoma
• MC site of primary spinal tumor: Intradural extramedullary | 155,362 | medmcqa_train |
Most sensitive test for Treponoma: | Ans. (c) FTA-ABS ' Most sensitive test for syphilis: FTA-ABS Most specific test for syphilis: TPI Note Treponemal test are likely to remain reactive even after adequate treatment and cannot differentiate past from current trepon mal infection. | 155,363 | medmcqa_train |
It is true about formalin : | B i.e. Never used as a preservative for chemical analysis | 155,364 | medmcqa_train |
Ligature material in case of hanging is kept preserved as ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ligature is cut away from the knot For removal and preservation of the ligature from the dead body in case of hanging it is cut away from the knot and the cut ends are tied with string or wire. | 155,365 | medmcqa_train |
Smoking is a risk factors for all the carcinoma except | Ref Robbins 9/e p415 Genetic Factors. Distinct molecular events are involved in the pathogenesis of the four major variants of thyroid cancer. As stated, medullary carcinomas do not arise from the follicu- lar epithelium. Genetic alterations in the three follicular cell- derived malignancies are clustered along two oncogenic pathways--the mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase pathway and the phosphatidylinositol-3-kinase (PI-3K)/AKT pathway (Fig. 19-13). In normal cells, these pathways are transiently activated by binding of soluble growth factor ligands to the extracellular domain of receptor tyrosine kinases, which results in autophosphorylation of the cytoplas- mic domain of the receptor, permitting intracellular signal transduction. In thyroid carcinomas, as with many solid cancers (Chapter 5), gain-of-function mutations along components of these pathways lead to constitutive activation even in the absence of ligand, thus promoting carcinogenesis. Environmental Factors. The major risk factor predispos- ing to thyroid cancer is exposure to ionizing radiation, paicularly during the first 2 decades of life. In keeping with this finding, there was a marked increase in the incidence of papillary carcinomas among children exposed to ionizing radiation after the Chernobyl nuclear disaster in 1986. Defi- ciency of dietary iodine (and by extension, an association with goiter) is linked with a higher frequency of follicular carcinomas. | 155,366 | medmcqa_train |
True about spleen is all except | The long axis of the spleen lies along the tenth rib. The spleen plays multiple suppoing roles in the body. It acts as a filter for blood as pa of the immune system. Old red blood cells are recycled in the spleen, and platelets and white blood cells are stored there. The spleen also helps fight ceain kinds of bacteria that cause pneumonia and meningitis Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e | 155,367 | medmcqa_train |
In cholesterol synthesis, which is rate limiting amino acid: | A i.e. HMG COA reductase | 155,368 | medmcqa_train |
Lymphatic filariasis is not caused by- | Lymphatic filariasis- infection with the filarial worms Wuchereria bancrofti & Brugia malayi is associated with clinical outcomes ranging from subclinical infection to hydrocele & elephantiasis. Loiasis is caused by Loa loa ,which is characterised by calabar swelling,an intense,tense,localised swelling that may be painful ,especially if it is near a joint. Reference Harrison20th edition pg 1123 | 155,369 | medmcqa_train |
Recommended maximum dose of Lignocaine + adrenaline for peripheral nerve shock. | Local Anesthetic Maximum dose Over 24 hours Plain With Adrenaline Lidocaine 300mg 4.5mg/kg 500mg 7mg/kg Mepivacaine 300mg 4.5mg/kg 500mg 7mg/kg Prilocaine 600mg 8mg/kg 600mg 2-chloroprocaine 800mg 12mg/kg 1000mg Bupivacaine 175mg 3mg/kg 225mg 400mg Levobupivacaine 150mg 400mg Ropivacaine 225mg 3mg/kg 800mg maximum dose of plain lidocaine is mentioned differently in different anesthesia books - 3mg/kg BW ( Miller TEXT BOOK of Anesthesia) or 4.5 mg/kg BW (Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology) | 155,370 | medmcqa_train |
Volume of lung after maximal forceful expiration - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Residual volume Respiratory Volumes and Capacities for an Average Young Adult MaleMeasurementTypical valueDefinition Respiratory volumes1. Tidal volume (TV)500 mlAmount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during relaxed, quiet breathing2. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)3000 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal inspiration that can be inhaled with maximum effort3. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)1200 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal expiration that can be exhaled with maximum effort4. Residual volume (RV)1200 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration, keeps alveoli inflated between breaths and mixes with fresh air on next inspiration Respiratory Capacities5. Vital capacity (VC)4700 mlAmount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration (ERV-TV-IRV); used to assess strength of thoracic muscles as well as pulmonary function6. Inspiratory capacity (IC)3500 mlMaximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration (TV + IRV)7. Functional residual capacity (FRC)2400 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal expiration (RV - ERV )8. Total lung capacity (TLC)5900 mlMaximum amount of ai r the lungs can contain (RV + VC) | 155,371 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following in not a cause of death due to suffocation | Suffocation is a general term used to indicate a form of asphyxia where entry of air to the lungs is prevented by any means other than pressure on the neck or drowning. Smothering is caused by closing the external respiratory orifices either by hand or by other means. Gagging is closing of mouth & nose by cloth or soft object & Chocking is caused by obstruction within airway. But throttling is an asphyxia produced by compression of the neck by human hands so it is by means of pressure on the neck. Ref: The synopsis of forensic medicine & Toxicology 28th edition pg: 185,188&189 | 155,372 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following statement are true regarding silicosis, except: | Silica occurs in both crystalline and amorphous forms, but crystalline forms (including quaz, cristobalite, and tridymite) are much more fibrogenic. After inhalation, the paicles are phagocytosed by macrophages. The phagocytosed silica crystals activate the inflammasome, leading to the release of inflammatory mediators, paicularly IL-1 and IL-18. As the disease progresses, these nodules coalesce into hard, collagenous scars. Histologic examination reveals the hallmark lesion characterized by a central area of whorled collagen fibers with a more peripheral zone of dust-laden macrophages. | 155,373 | medmcqa_train |
The initial investigation of choice for a post cholecystectomy biliary stricture is: | Ans. is ' d' i.e. ie Magnetic resonance cholangiography The initial investigation of choice for a post cholecystectomy stricture would be an MRCP. It is a non-invasive modality and provides high resolution images of the entire biliary tree. "PTC is the imaging method of choice for most postoperative biliary strictures, but expeise with this is not available at all centers. ERCP may be easier to obtain in a patient with a biliary stricture and cholangitis who requires urgent cholangiography and biliary decompression. However, ERCP is only useful in patients with bile duct continuity."- An ultrasound or a CT can also be used as initial study but an MRCP would be better, as it would provide better anatomic information about the location and the degree of stricture. Management of biliary strictures Schwaz 9/e p11.58 writes- "Percutaneous or endoscopic dilatation and/or stent placement give good results in more than one half of patients. Surgery with Roux-en-Y choledochojejunostomy or hepaticojejunostomy is the standard of care with good or excellent results in 80 to90% of patients." | 155,374 | medmcqa_train |
A 66-year-old woman collapses while shopping and expires suddenly of cardiac arrest. Her past medical history is significant for long-standing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her relatives note that she had complained of chest heaviness and shoness of breath for the past 2 weeks. Sterile fibrinous pericarditis and pericardial effusion are observed at autopsy. What additional finding would be expected during autopsy of this patient? | Fibrinous pericarditis may develop 2 to 10 weeks after a transmural myocardial infarction. Patients with long-standing diabetes mellitus are paicularly susceptible to coronary atherosclerosis and myocardial infarction. One fouh to one half of all nonfatal myocardial infarctions are asymptomatic. In such patients, sudden death usually reflects a cardiac arrhythmia. | 155,375 | medmcqa_train |
Patient wants to scratch for itching in his amputated limb is an example of ? | Ans. C. Phantom limb hallucinationPhantom limb hallucination - The person feels his body pas intact in their respective places even after they are lost through amputation or injury.In the question given patient feels itching in the amputated limb and tries to scratch the limb. Thus it is an example of phantom limb hallucination. | 155,376 | medmcqa_train |
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a disease affecting _____. | Ehlers-Danlos syndromes are characterized by defects in collagen (i.e., connective tissues). | 155,377 | medmcqa_train |
A 52-year-old recent immigrant from Vietnam complains of abdominal swelling, weight loss, and upper abdominal pain of 3 weeks in duration. His past medical history includes malaria and infection with the liver fluke Clonorchis sinensis. The liver is hard on palpation. An abdominal CT scan shows a hypo-attenuated mass with lobulated margins in the liver. A biopsy discloses well-differentiated neoplastic glands embedded in a dense fibrous stroma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Carcinoma originates anywhere in the biliary tree. Cholangiocarcinoma:- Arising within the liver Associated with substantial fibrosis Confused with metastatic carcinoma and reactive fibrosis. These tumors occur at an increased frequency in persons infected with the liver fluke C. sinensis The other choices are not associated with a history of C. sinensis infestation. | 155,378 | medmcqa_train |
Sensory nerve supply above the level of vocal cords is: | Sensory nerve supply to larynx above the level of vocal cords is superior laryngeal nerve, while below the cords it is recurrent laryngeal nerve. Superior laryngeal nerve is a branch of vagus. It divides into two branches - external laryngeal supplying motor fibres to cricothyroid muscle and an internal laryngeal nerve which runs submucosally in pyriform fossa and supplies the larynx. | 155,379 | medmcqa_train |
Action of truncal vagotomy is equal to that of | (C) Proton pump inhibitors> In addition to Truncal vagotomy, the antrum of stomach was removed, thus eradicating the source of gastrin, and the gastric remnant was joint to the duodenum.> Proton pump inhibitors can effectively render a patient achlorhydric and all benign ulcers will heal using these drugs. | 155,380 | medmcqa_train |
Patey's modification of mastectomy is | Ans. (b) Total mastectomy with Level 1 through 3 axillary LN with pectoralis minor resection(Ref. Operative Surgery Fischer 55)* Patey procedure - Pectoralis muscle is removed from coracoid process* Auchincloss - Pectoralis muscle is retracted* Scanlon - Pectoralis muscle is divided | 155,381 | medmcqa_train |
Somatic innervation to the pelvic organs is | For most of its pelvic course, the femoral nerve (L2, L3, L4) travels within the substance of the psoas muscle and then exits its lateral side to pass under the inguinal ligament. It supplies sensation to the anterior thigh and motor innervation to the extensors of the knee. | 155,382 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are features of constrictive pericarditis except | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1576 The patient often appears chron- ically ill, and in advanced cases, anasarca, skeletal muscle wasting, and cachexia may be present. Exeional dyspnea is common, and ohop- nea may occur, although it is usually not severe. Acute left ventricular failure (acute pulmonary edema) is very uncommon. The cervical veins are distended and may remain so even after intensive diuretic treatment, and venous pressure may fail to decline during inspiration (Kussmaul's sign). The latter is common in chronic pericarditis but may also occur in tricuspid. | 155,383 | medmcqa_train |
Most important buffer system in human blood: | Ans. a (Bicarbonates); (Ref. Ganong, Physiology, 21st ed., 736; Satyanarayan, Biochemistry 2nd ed. - 525)PRINCIPAL BUFFERS IN BODY FLUIDSBlood1. H2CO3 K H+ +HCO-3 (Bicarbonate buffer) =>>most predominant buffer of ECF. especially blood plasma.2. HProt K H+ + Prot- & HHb K H++ Hb- (Protein buffer)3. H2PO4 - KH-+ HPO42- (Phosphate buffer)Interstitial fluid1. H2 CO3 K H+ + HCO-3Intracellular fluid1. HProt K H+ + HCO 32. H2PO4 - KH-+ HPO42- | 155,384 | medmcqa_train |
The earliest sign of papilloedema - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Blurring of disc margin Ophthalmoscopic signs of papilloedema o Blurring of disc margin o Venous :- Engorgment, congestion, loss of pulsation (first sign) o Hyperemia of the disc with capillary dilatation. o Filling of physiological cup with gradual obliteration of physiological cup. o Gradual elvetion of disc (mushroom or dome shaped) with sharp bending of vessels over its margins. o Cotton- wool spots (soft exudates) and both flame shaped (superficial) and punctate (deep) hemorrhages o Macular fan or macular star due to hard exudates. o Late findings in long standing (vintage) papilloedema :- Markedly elevated disc with champagne cork appearance, post neuritic optic atrophy,corpora amylacea deposits on disc margin, generalized retinal pigmentation. | 155,385 | medmcqa_train |
On 3 phase 99mTc-MDP bone scan, which of the following bone lesions will show least osteoblastic activity. | D i.e. Fibrous coical defect | 155,386 | medmcqa_train |
What is not seen in Reiters syndrome? | A. i.e. Subcutaneous nodules | 155,387 | medmcqa_train |
The following primary tumours are common in the vulva except : | Invasive lesions of vulva : Squamous cell carcinoma--most common 90% Melanoma 1-5% Adenocarcinoma 1% Sarcoma 2% Rodent ulcer or basal cell carcinoma 1%. Reference: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology 16th edition page no 475 | 155,388 | medmcqa_train |
A patient presented with clinical features of ataxia and in-coordination. It is most likely due to involvement of which aery among the following | Clinical features of ataxia and in-coordination belong to cerebellar pathology, which might arise if there was involvementof superior cerebellar aery. Cerebral aery involvement (anterior, middle or posterior) does not usually present with cerebellar sign and symptoms. | 155,389 | medmcqa_train |
A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed for how many days for residual weakness in poliomyelitis? | Poliomyelitis is an acute viral infection caused by a RNA virus which is primarily an infection of the gastro-intestinal tract affecting the central nervous system. Acute flaccid paralysis is a common presentation of poliomyelitis where the patient presents with paralysis of acute onset (less than 4 weeks) and affected limbs are flaccid with decreased tone and diminished or absent deep tendon reflexes. Surveillance is done for all cases of AFP, where patients less than 15 years of age are investigated and should be kept under observation for a minimum of 60 days to check if there is any residual paralysis. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th Edition, Pages 166-172; Epidemiology and Demography in Public Health By Japhet Killewo, Kristian Heggenhougen, Stella R. Quah, Pages 98-99; Recent Advances in Paediatrics, Pages 91-97; Approach to Practical Pediatrics By Narang, Pages 262-268. | 155,390 | medmcqa_train |
Atropine is used in all EXCEPT ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glaucoma Atropine increases 'OP, therefore is contraindicated in glaucoma. | 155,391 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true about multiple sclerosis except | . *Multiple sclerosis is characterised by prominent nystagmus which is observed in the abducting eye,along with a small skew detion . *A bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia is paicularly suggestive of MS *Other common gaze disturbances in MS include (1) horizontalgaze palsy (2)a "one and half"syndrome (3)acquired pendular nystagmus . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2567 | 155,392 | medmcqa_train |
Memory T cell can be identified using the following marker | . | 155,393 | medmcqa_train |
False statement about duodenal atresia is | OPTION 1 : Correct Duodenum is M/C site of intestinal atresia . Duodenal atresia is M/C cause of neonatal intestinal obstruction . OPTION 2 : Incorrect Type 1 - Mucosal web (windsock deformity) Type 2 - Two ends are separated by fibrous cord . Type 3 - Complete separation of two ends . OPTION 3 : Correct Vomiting is bilious as obstruction is distal to ampulla of vater . OPTION 4 : Correct Double Bubble sign is seen in :- Annular Pancreas / Duodenal atresia | 155,394 | medmcqa_train |
All are associated with endocarditis except: | Ans. D. ESKAPE groupESKAPE group (Enterococcus, Serratia, Klebsiella, Acinetobacter, Pseudomonas, Enterobacter) are associated with healthcare associated infections | 155,395 | medmcqa_train |
Inguinal ligament forms the boundries of - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Both border of SartoriusMedial border of adductor longusInguinal ligamentPoint where medial and lateral boundaries meetInferior epigastric artery Lateral border of rectus abdominisInguinal legament | 155,396 | medmcqa_train |
Hasse's formula used in pregnancy to? | ANSWER: (A) Estimate fetal ageREF: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Nagesh Kumar Rao - Page 321Hasse's formulaIf the crown heel length is known then the intrauterine age of fetus is calculated as:If CH length is up to 25 cm thenIU age = Square root of CH lengthIf the CH length is > 25 cm thenIU age = 1/5 of CH length | 155,397 | medmcqa_train |
Zoonotic diseases are - | Ans. is 'All | 155,398 | medmcqa_train |
The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular plaque on the face is: | B i.e. KOH mount Trichophyton rubrum is most common cause of tinea corporis (body), t. cruris, t. pedis, t. manuum & t.unguiumQ. Diagnosis is made by KOH wet mount. | 155,399 | medmcqa_train |
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