id
stringlengths
36
36
exp
stringlengths
41
22.5k
subject_name
stringclasses
21 values
topic_name
stringlengths
3
135
input
stringlengths
35
1.3k
correct_answer
stringlengths
1
287
47d63018-1c57-47b5-84d8-bcad061273da
Answer- B. HLA DR4DR4 is strongly associated with RA (also with Type 1 DM Pemphigus vulgaris).
Pathology
null
To rule out rheumatoid ahriis, most impoant among the followings is - A. HLA DR8 B. HLA DR4 C. HLA DQ1 D. HLA B27
HLA DR4
58a1fa47-304c-4e5e-870f-f22d0d078721
Double rise of temperature in 24 hrs is seen in case of Kala azar. Option 1, 2, 3, 4 1. L. donovani donovani, infection of the classic kala-azar ("black sickness") or dumdum fever type occurs in many pas of Asia, Africa and Southeast Asia. 2. Kala-Azar Fever: In the early stages of the disease, there is a mild irregular fever becoming intermittent at later stage and in 20% cases pyrexia shows a double rise in 24 hrs. Bone marrow involvement leads to: Anemia, leucopenia, thrombocytopenia Hypergammaglobulinemia Spleen |, Liver | Fever and Hyperpigmentation (Indian cases) LN| (African but not in Indian cases)
Microbiology
Parasitology Pa 1 (Protozoology)
Double rise of temperature in 24 hrs is seen in case of - A. Kala azar B. Malaria C. TB D. Hodgkin's lymphoma
Kala azar
5aaba224-3294-414d-86e4-7f37c1839fc7
Glycolysis Site of occurrence Cytosol Aerobic glycolysis Glucose - Pyruvate ; 8 ATP Anaerobic glycolysis Glucose - Lactate ; 2 ATPReaction occurring in aerobic conditions only Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate - 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate Inhibitors Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphateIodo acetate 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate Arsenite Enolase Fluoride Glycolysis TCA cycle Malate shuttle ( Liver , Hea , Kidney )38 ATP / 32 ATP ( new )Glycolysis TCA cycle Glycerophosphate shuttle ( Brain , White skeletal muscles )36 ATP / 30 ATP ( new )Irreversible reactions Reactions Enzymes Glucose - Glucose-6-phosphateHexokinase Fructose-6-phosphate - Fructose-1,6,bisphosphatePhosphofructokinasePhosphoenolpyruvate - Pyruvate Pyruvate kinase Oxidative / Substrate level phosphorylation Reactions Enzymes 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate - 3 phosphoglyceratePhosphoglycerate kinase Phosphoenol pyruvate - Pyruvate Pyruvate kinase DM Vasudevan , Textbook of Biochemistry for Medical Students , 7th ed, page 108
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
Number of ATP molecules and NADH formed in each cycle of glycolysis A. 4,2 B. 2,2 C. 4,4 D. 2,4
2,2
e781c0f5-a8da-42a9-a6ca-1bde50e8712b
Myositis ossificans progressive is a disease of unknown etiology characterised by formation of fibrous tissue and bone within interstitial tissues of muscles, tendons, fascia, ligaments, aponeurosis and even the skin. Most cases of myositis ossificans occur as a result of trauma, and thus the main demographic is young adults.
Pathology
null
For myositis ossificans, main cause is? A. Infection B. Hereditary C. Benign pathology D. Trauma
Trauma
626c6172-a8fe-4cf3-b21e-04ebc547724f
Intellectual disability is a general term used when an individual’s intellectual development is significantly lower than average and his or her ability to adapt to the environment is consequently limited. The condition varies in severity and cause. They were described using the terms Idiot (IQ below 25)  Imbecile (IQ from 25 to 50) Moron (IQ from 50 to 70)
Dental
null
IQ 25-50 is suggestive of: A. Imbecile B. Idiot C. Moron D. Genius
Imbecile
f95d8f54-96e9-49e6-9e2b-90ac0e114973
Ref:Park's Text book of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th ed
Social & Preventive Medicine
obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics
Low bih weight babies are at a higher risk of dying in the firstweek because A. Congenital anomaly,bih injury,infections B. Bih injury,convulsions,asphyxia C. Convulsions,congenital anomaly,hypothermia D. Hypothermia,asphyxia,infections
Hypothermia,asphyxia,infections
7d26d4ae-5aee-4e82-8bd7-2039ec616e2e
Ans. (b) EBV Ref. jawetz 25/e, p 592, 27/e, p 620 Already explained, refer Ans. 46
Microbiology
null
Which of the following has malignant potential: A. HSV -1 B. EBV C. CMV D. Varicella
EBV
6ff90d9f-31ae-48fa-a474-c72dce14de26
OxytocinIn general, oxytocin should be discontinued if the number of contractions persists with a frequency of more than five in a 10-minute period or more than seven in a 15-minute period or with a persistent nonreassuring fetal hea rate pattern.When oxytocin is stopped, its concentration in plasma rapidly falls because of the half-life is approximately 3 to 5 minutes.Ref: William&;s Obstetrics; 25th edition
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
The half-life of oxytocin is A. 2-3 min B. 3-5 min C. 5-6 min D. 7-8 min
3-5 min
5baa9595-0648-4ac9-a100-250fa9c7b127
2,3 DPG is a highly charged anion that binds to beta chain of deoxyHb. One mole of deoxyHb binds to one mole of 2,3 DPG. An increase in concentration shifts the reaction to right causing more O2 to be liberatedRef: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology, 25th edition. page no.641
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
2,3 DPG binds to_____ site of Hb and____ release of O2 A. One, increase B. Four, increase C. One, decrease D. Four, decrease
One, increase
bdb99281-00d9-4835-90cf-992afb0a4280
Order of prognosis from good to bad, catatonic->paranoid->undifferentiated->hebephrenic->simple
Anatomy
All India exam
Schizophrenia with worst prognosis A. Catatonic B. Paranoid C. Hebephrenic D. Undifferentiated
Hebephrenic
7b61302a-1fda-48d9-90c0-611a762e6251
(b) Source: (Hay et al, p 397. Kliegman et al, p 2262. McMillan et al, pp 839-840. Rudolph et al, p 1262.) Pityriasis rosea is a benign condition that usually presents with a herald patch, a single round or oval lesion appearing anywhere on the body. Usually about 5 to 10 days after the appearance of the herald patch, a more diffuse rash involving the upper extremities and trunk appears. These lesions are oval or round, slightly raised, and pink to brown in color. The lesion is covered in a fine scale with some central clearing possible. The rash can appear in a Christmas tree pattern on the back, identified by the aligning of the long axis of the lesions with the cutaneous cleavage lines. The rash lasts 2 to 12 weeks and can be pruritic. This rash is commonly mistaken for tinea corporis, and the consideration of secondary syphilis is important.Treatment is usually unnecessary but can consist of topical emollients and oral antihistamines, as needed. More uncommonly, topical steroids can be helpful if the itching is severe. Lichen planus is rare in children. It is intensely pruritic, and additional lesions can be induced with scratching. The lesion is commonly found on the flexor surfaces of the wrists, forearms, inner thighs, and occasionally on the oral mucosa. Seborrheic dermatitis can begin anytime during life; it frequently presents as cradle cap in the newborn period. This rash is commonly greasy, scaly, and erythematous and, in smaller children, involves the face, neck, axilla, and diaper area. In older children, the rash can be localized to the scalp and intertriginous areas. Pruritus can be marked. Contact dermatitis is characterized by redness, weeping, and oozing of the affected skin. The pattern of distribution can be helpful in identification of the offending agent. The rash can be pruritic; removal of the causative agent and use of topical emollients or steroids is curative. Psoriasis consists of red papules that coalesce to form plaques with sharp edges. A thick, silvery scale develops on the surface and leaves a drop of blood upon its removal (Auspitz sign). Additional lesions develop upon scratching older lesions. Commonly affected sites include scalp, knees, elbows, umbilicus, and genitalia.
Pediatrics
Growth, Development, and Behavior
The adolescent shown presents with a 14-day history of multiple oval lesions over his back. The rash began with a single lesion over the lower abdomen (A); the other lesions developed over the next days (B). These lesions are slightly pruritic. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Contact dermatitis B. Pityriasis rosea C. Seborrheic dermatitis D. Lichen planus
Pityriasis rosea
7ff7370d-20f0-4a5f-badd-a65ed859a90c
At point D, the divergence of veical rays is exactly equal to the convergence of the horizontal rays from the axis. So here the section is a circle, which is called the circle of least diffusion. Mixed astigmatism: refers to a condition where in the light rays in one meridian are focused in front and in other meridian behind the retina. Thus in one meridian eye is myopic and in another hypermetropic. Such patients have comparatively less symptoms as &;circle of least diffusion&; is formed on the retina. Reference :- A K KHURANA; page:-25,26,37
Ophthalmology
Optics and refraction
Because of circle of least diffusion, the distant vision is comparatively good in A. Compound myopic astigmatism B. Mixed astigmatism C. Simple myopic astigmatism D. Compound hypermetropic astigmatism
Mixed astigmatism
81291007-3f01-4284-b3a1-6d9152d3dac5
A i.e. Azoospermia Prolonged administration of testosterone in males causes azoospermiaQ. Testosterone & Male sterility - The fact that intratesticular levels of testosterone need to be greater than 100 folds higher than circulating levels of hormone to maintain normal rates of spermatogenesis; however, it is the circulating levels of testosterone that provide the negative feedback to pituitary & hypothalamus is an impoant loophole in male reproductive axis. This means that exogenous testosterone (T) administration can raise circulating levels of T. sufficient to inhibit LH but not sufficient to accumulate in testis at required concentration for normal spermatogenesis. However, decreased LH levels will fuher diminish intratesticular production of testosterone by Leydig cells resulting in reduced spermatogenesis. - This is the cause for sterility in cases of prolonged testosterone administration or steroid abuse in menQ. And this loophole is recently being researched as a possible strategy for developing male oral contraceptives.
Physiology
null
Prolonged administration of testosterone in a man causes: A. Azoospermia B. Increased GnRH C. Increased sperm mobility D. Increased spermiogenesis
Azoospermia
902f532c-bba9-413b-b1f5-ca2d92dfe190
(D) Spirochetes # Spirochetes: Elongated, motile, flexible bacteria twisted spirally along the long axis are termed 'spirochetes' (from Speira, meaning coil and chaite, meaning hair). They are structurally more complex than other bacteria. A characteristic feature is the presence of varying numbers of endoflagella, which are polar fiagella wound along the helical protoplasmic cylinder, and situated between the outer membrane and cell wall. Endoflagella are believed to be responsible for motility but the exact mechanisms of locomotion are not understood.> Brucellae are coccobacilli or short rods 0.5-0.7 urn x 0.6-1.5 pm in size, arranged singly or in short chains. The cells are so small that they may be mistaken for cocci, as was done by Bruce who called them Micrococcus melitensis. In older cultures, irregular forms appear. They are nonmotile, noncapsulated and nonsporing. They are Gram negative and nonacid fast. Bipolar staining is not uncommon.> Mycoplasmas are the smallest free-living microorganisms, and one of the most pleomorphic.They occur as granules and filaments of various sizes. The granules may be coccoid, balloon, disc, ring or star forms. The filaments are slender, of varying lengths and show true branching. Multiplication is by binary fission, but as genomic.> Chlamydiae occur in two forms, the elementary body and the reticulate body (formerly also called the 'initial body'). The elementary body is the extracellular, infective form. It is a spherical particle, 200-300 nm in diameter, with a rigid trilamirar cell wall similar to the cell walls of Gram negative bacteria, and an electron dense nucleoid. The reticulate body is the intracellular growing and replicative form, 500- 1000 nm in size. Its cell wall is fragile and pliable, leading to pleomorphism.
Microbiology
Misc.
The following organism is motile with NO external flagella A. Brucella B. Mycoplasma C. Chlamydia D. Spirochetes
Spirochetes
d3de8948-34a9-48f9-8fb6-9263610cd668
Ans. a. Proline and hydroxyprolineAMINO ACIDS REQUIRED FOR SPECIAL PRODUCTSSpecial productAmino acid requiredCollagenGlycine +Proline+HydroxyprolineElastinGlycine+Alanine+Valine+ProlineCreatineGlycine+Arginine+MethioninePurineGlycine+Aspartate+Glutamine+SerinePyrimidineAspartate+GlutamineGlutathioneGlycine+Cysteine+GlutamateHistoneArginine+HistidineCarnosineb-alanine+HistidineHemoglobinHistidine+Arginine+LysineKeratinHistidine:Arginine:Lysine=1:12:4CholineMethionine+Glycine+Serine+B6CarnitineLysine+Methionine
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
Collagen most commonly contains which of the following amino acid: A. Proline and hydroxyproline B. Cysteine and cysteine C. Glycine and cysteine D. Methionine and proline
Proline and hydroxyproline
71e8165d-6f61-4f02-9390-a7e8cf28d581
Conduct disorder is characterized by a persistent and significant pattern of conduct in which the basic rights of others are violated or rules of society are not followed (Doesn't care for authority). The characteristic clinical features are frequent lying, stealing or robbery, Physical violence (rape, assault, fire setting, use of weapons, fighting), running away from school (backward in studies), cruelty to animals and people.
Psychiatry
null
Conduct disorder in a child manifests with -a) Disregard for right of othersb) Doesn't care for authorityc) Backward in studiesd) Decreased head circumferencee) Steals things A. bcde B. abcd C. abce D. abde
abce
0a646fb5-1776-4bcd-974f-366c72dfea78
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Community development block o ICDS was launched on 2"d October 1975 in 33 Community development block. o ICDS programme is a globally recognized community based early child care programme, which addresses the basic interrelated needs of yound children, expectant and nursing mothers and adolescent girls across the life cycle, in a holistic manner.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
ICDS was launched at- A. Community development block B. Town level C. City level D. District level
Community development block
ce8f2e63-57fc-483d-88bb-6aa2c81032ed
Paraneoplastic syndromes are common in patients with lung cancer.Endocrine syndromes are seen in 12% of patients.Hypercalcemia resulting from ectopic production of parathyroid hormone(PTH),or more commonly,PTH related peptide,is the most life threatening metabolic complication of malignancy,primarily occuring with squamous cell carcinomas of the lung.Clinical symptoms include nausea,vomiting,abdominal pain,constipation,polyuria,thirst, and altered mental status. Ref:Harrison' s medicine-18th edition,page no:743.
Medicine
Respiratory system
A 60-year old male presents to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain, constipation oand loin pain radiating to the groin of over a week duration. He has a 25-pack year smoking history and is currently being evaluated for a hilar mass picked up on chest radiography. As pa of this work up, the serum calcium was found to The elevated serum calcium level is linked to A. Parathyroid adenoma B. Parathyroid hyperplasia C. Vitamin D intoxication D. Secretion of PTH related peptide
Secretion of PTH related peptide
133c687e-2cbf-453f-b738-9619cf434ab6
(Ref: KDT 6/e p547) It is a vasodilator and can result in reflex tachycardia. All other drugs listed in the question (clonidine, propanolol, reserpine) decrease the activity of sympathetic system and can result in bradycardia.
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
A patient, Sunder is admitted to the emergency with severe bradycardia following drug overdose. The concerned drug was being taken for hypeension. When of the following cannot be the drug? A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Propanolol D. Reserpine
Hydralazine
c8e1e856-9eeb-4201-b462-e6c281e756e4
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Overlapping of skull bones Radiological signs of 1UFDSignInterval (After Death)Robert sign (gas in great vessels)12 hSpalding sign (overlapping of skull bones)1 weekBlair-Hartley/ Ball sign (hyperflexion/ hyperextension of spine with overcrowding of ribs3-4 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
Spalding sign is - A. Overlapping of skull bones B. Hyperflexion of spine C. Gas in great vessel D. Over crowding of ribs
Overlapping of skull bones
43dc9a3e-d543-49be-ac83-c9b56462b808
Ocular albinism is a genetic condition that primarily affects the eyes. This condition reduces the coloring (pigmentation) of the iris, which is the colored pa of the eye, and the retina, which is the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye. Pigmentation in the eye is essential for normal vision. A common myth is that people withalbinism have red eyes. Although lighting conditions can allow the blood vessels at the back of the eye to be seen, which can cause the eyes to look reddish or violet, most people with albinism have blue eyes, and some have hazel or brown eyes.
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous
Specific for albinism - A. Red reflex B. Decreased visual activity C. Photophobia D. Nystagmus
Red reflex
c0f7b4de-0d1d-4d6b-b250-1d87147f3378
Hallucinogens * ALSO CALLED AS Psychotomimetic/ Psychedelic * FIRST Man made HALLICINOGEN ==================== Albe Hoffman * MECHANISM OF ACTION Lysergic acid diethylamide=======serotonin * Introduced by Albe Hoffmann and he himself experienced its effects * Phencyclidine =======NMDA antagonist * Also known as angel dust * Related to ketamine=== dissociative anesthetic * Has anti-suicidal propey Reference:kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition , pg no.649
Psychiatry
Symptoms and signs in psychiatry and classification
Angel dust denotes A. flunitrazepam B. .LSD C. toluene D. phencyclidine
phencyclidine
f84d6be7-5daf-4e79-bc9f-40ffa2c0997a
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Labetelol Combined alpha & beta blockers o Carvedilol o Bucindolol o Nipradilol o Medroxalol o Labetalol o Bevantolol o Dilevalol
Pharmacology
null
Beta blocker with a-blocker capacity is ? A. Atenolol B. Labetelol C. Propanolol D. Metoprolol
Labetelol
f557cac0-df95-4f49-b5f0-cefe16ea6452
ICIDH - international classification of Impairments, Disabilities and Handicaps BINET AND SIMON SERVICE- They used series of tests to Development of intelligence tests and designed Binet -simon scale PQLI - Physical quality of Life Index It involves Life expectancy Literacy Rate Infant moality Rate Human Povey Index ( HPI)- It was an indication of standard of living in a country. HPI - derived separately for developing countries (HPI -1) and a group of high income countries (HPI -2).
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
Which of the following is used to assess disability in children A. ICIDH B. Binet and Simon service C. PQLI D. Human povey index
ICIDH
d5646346-204e-4537-adec-2be72e203785
Ans. A: Pie cha A pie cha/circle graph is a circular cha divided into sectors, illustrating propoion. In a pie cha, the arc length of each sector (and consequently its central angle and area), is propoional to the quantity it represents. It is named for its resemblance to a pie which has been sliced.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Percentage of a data can be depicted on a: September 2009 A. Pie cha B. Bar diagram C. Histogram D. Graph
Pie cha
702bddc9-77ac-45f8-83ee-b277ce61a2f4
The respiratory centres maybe depressed in hypercapnic patients. Breathing may only be occurring due to the activation of peripheral chemoreceptors sensitive to the hypoxia. When pure Oxygen is given to the patients, the stimulus to the peripheral receptors is gone and may result in apnoea.
Physiology
null
Administration of pure O2 to hypoxic patients is dangerous because A. Apnea occurs due to hypostimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors B. Pulmonary edema C. DPG D. Convulsions
Apnea occurs due to hypostimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors
e2b01d97-1f36-4632-8474-286b2afed5c1
Ischaemic time for digits is upto 8 hours ISchemic time for extremities Is 4-6 hours Organ containing bag should be placed in a solution of saline with ice Ref : Essential emergency trauma by kaushal Shah, Daniel Egan, Joshua quaas- 2010 Pgno :679
Surgery
Vascular surgery
Re-implantation time for lower limb is A. 6 hrs B. 4 hrs C. 8 hrs D. 10 hrs
8 hrs
07b0a40b-d7c2-4df2-bd86-7c53841367bc
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Retinal vascular pathology Angiography for fundus examinationo Angiography is used for dynamic flow study of Iris, Retina or choroid. Following types of angiographies are used.Fluorescein Angiography Sodium fluorescein dye is used by injecting it into antecubital vein. It is primarily used for retinal vasculature, but iris & choroid can also be examined.Indocyanine green Angiography It is used primarily for choroidal vasculature, especially in choroidal neovascuiar membranes (CNVM). Therefore, it is used in - i) The identification and delineation of poorly defined or occult choroidal neovascularization, (ii) Retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE) detachments.
Ophthalmology
Techniques of Ocular Examination and Diagnostic Tests
Fluoroscein dye study is done to detect - A. Assess retinal function of babies B. Retinal vascular pathology' C. Macular pathology D. Posterior segment of eye
Retinal vascular pathology'
ba83e1bd-6127-4c18-b7e4-fa2e368c28f8
Torsades-de-pointes is a form of VT seen as a complication of prolonged ventricular repolarisation. It is seeen in hypomagnesemia. It is not seen in hypermagnesemia,metabolic acidosis,metabolic alkalosis Ref Harrison 20th ed pg 1436
Medicine
C.V.S
Torsade-de- pointes is caused by- A. Hypermagnesemia B. Metabolic acidosis C. Hypomagnesemia D. Metabolic alkalosis
Hypomagnesemia
8e812c65-f67e-4497-8d59-af33e9376475
Although a difficult diagnosis to make, pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is the most likely diagnosis in this young woman who has used appetite suppressants. Pulmonary arterial hypertension (also known as primary pulmonary hypertension) has been associated with fenfluramine-type appetite suppressants. The predominant symptom is dyspnea, which is usually not apparent until the disease has advanced. When physical findings, chest x-ray, or echocardiography suggest pulmonary hypertension, recurrent pulmonary emboli must be ruled out. In this case, a normal perfusion lung scan makes pulmonary angiography unnecessary. Right-to-left cardiac shunts cause hypoxia (oxygen desaturation) that characteristically does not improve with oxygen supplementation. Restrictive lung disease should be ruled out with pulmonary function testing but is unlikely with a normal chest x-ray. An echocardiogram will show right ventricular enlargement and a reduction in the left ventricle size consistent with right ventricular pressure overload. Left ventricular dysfunction can cause pulmonary edema but not pulmonary hypertension.
Medicine
Respiratory
A 35-year-old woman complains of slowly progressive dyspnea. Her history is otherwise negative, and there is no cough, sputum production, pleuritic chest pain, or thrombophlebitis. She has taken appetite suppressants at different times. Physical examination reveals jugular venous distention, a palpable right ventricular lift, and a loud P2 heart sound. Chest x-ray shows clear lung fields. Oxygen saturation is 94%. ECG shows right axis deviation. A perfusion lung scan is normal, with no segmental deficits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Pulmonary arterial hypertension B. Recurrent pulmonary emboli C. Right-to-left cardiac shunt D. Interstitial lung disease
Pulmonary arterial hypertension
9d0056a0-bdc3-4baa-879a-8849a11fae7b
Rosai Dorfman disease: Massive cervical lymphadenopathy, usually bilateral and painless, is the most common manifestation. It is generally a benign disorder in spite of its propensity to form large masses and to disseminate to both nodal and extranodal sites.
Pathology
All India exam
Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of Rosai Dorfman disease? A. Tender, red plaques and nodules together with areas of erythema B. Painless cervical lymphadenopathy C. Noncicatricial alopecia D. Recurrent staphylococcal skin infections.
Painless cervical lymphadenopathy
69db890f-2045-476a-98b1-ccb7fc043acc
Ans. (a) Bladder cancer* The IVP cystogram shows a filling defect in left side of bladder.* It looks like a mass like filling defect in TCC bladder
Surgery
Kidney & Ureturs
IVP of an old male 75 years is shown below- Diagnosis is A. Bladder cancer B. BPH C. Calculi in bladder D. Thimble bladder
Bladder cancer
66997980-a4de-4cbb-bf01-4467dcd45183
Treatment for methyl alcohol poisoning includes : (i) Gastric lavage, (ii) Sodium bicarbonate, (iii) Ethanol (ethyl alcohol), (iv) Fomepizole (4 methylpyrazole), (v) Folic acid or folinic acid , and (vi) In severe cases hemodialysis.
Forensic Medicine
null
Which of the following is not used in methyl alcohol poisoning is - A. Gastric lavage B. Dialysis C. Ethyl alcohol D. High dose of vitamin B12
High dose of vitamin B12
69501451-5648-4865-8bee-f370125ee140
C i.e. CreatinineElectrolytes such as sodium (Na+), water and small orgaic compounds like glucose, inulin and creatinine are freely filtered across glomerular capillaries (i.e. filterability =1).As the plasma volume is 3 liters and GFR is 180 L/day (7.5L/h or 125 mL/min) the entire plasma is filltered & processed about 60 times each day.Filterability of 1 means that the substance is filtered as freely as water. Electrolytes such as sodium (Na+) , and small organic compounds such as glucose, inulin are freely filteredQ (filterability = 1).Filterability of solutes is inversely related to their size. As the molecular weight of molecule approaches that of albumin, the filterability rapidly decreases, approaching zero0.75 filterability means that the substance is filtered only 75% as rapid as water. Myoglobin (F = 0.75) and albumin (F = 0.005) are not freely filteredQ.Glomerular filtrate is protein free, and devoid of any cellular element, including RBCQ. The concentration of other constituents including most salts & organic molecules, are similar to the concentration in plasma (i.e., are freely filtered). Exception to this generalization are few low molecular weight substances, such as calcium & fatty acidQ, which are paially bound to plasma proteins and thus not filtered freely.Neutral substances with molecular diameter of < 4 nanometers are filtered freely and filtration of substance > 8 nm approaches zero, as the pores of glomerular membrane are of - 8 nm (80 angstroms) size. Between 4 - 8 nm, filtration is inversely propoional to diameter. However, negatively charged large molecules are filtered less easily than positively charged molecules of equal molecular sizeQ, and even neutral molecule are filtered much more easily than negatively charged molecules of same size. This is because, the negative charges of basement membrane & podocytes restrict and repel large negatively charged and attract positively charged molecules. This explains, only 0.2% filtrability of negatively charged albumin with an effective diameter of - 7 nm.Inulin (a polymer of fructose found in dahalia tubers, MW 5200) that is freely filtered, neither reabsorbed nor secreted in tubules, and creatinine (that is freely filtered, secreted & reabsorbed in some amount) are used to measure glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
Physiology
null
Which of the following is freely filtered by Kidney across glomerular capillaries: A. Albumin (across glomerular capillaries) B. Globulin C. Creatinine D. HCO3
Creatinine
1f433b12-2d0b-458b-a280-b22a22ca6f00
M/c supratentorial tumor in children is craniopharyngioma. It is a suprasellar tumor.arising from embryonic rathkes pouch.
Radiology
null
Most common supratentorial tumor in children A. Craniopharyngioma B. Meningioma C. Astrocytoma D. Oligodendroglioma
Craniopharyngioma
a7040de1-1b1a-4896-967d-aa14ff875988
Enterotoxigenic E. coil Most common cause of traveller's diarrhoae -f Enterotoxigenic E. coli Harrison states "The most- frequently identified pathogen causing traveller's diarrhoea is toxigeic Escherichia coll." Most common cause of traveller's diarhoea Toxigenic E.coli Most common cause of traveller's diarrhea in Campylobacter South East Asia and Africa Most common viruses associated with traveller's --> Rotavirus and Norovirus diarrhea
Microbiology
null
Most common cause of Traveller's diarrhoea A. >Enterotoxigenic E. coli B. >Enterohemorrhagia E. coli C. >Enteropathogenic E. coli D. >Enteroinvasive E. coli
>Enterotoxigenic E. coli
1da21c11-3231-4346-bcc8-b459bbfed6dd
Salicylic acid enhances rate of loss of surface scale( keratolytic agent) and useful in psoriasis. Adapalene is a topical retinoid-like drug (third gen topical retinoid) used in mild to moderate acne. Benzyl benzoate is used for Rx of scabies. Nateglinide is used in type 2 DM in combination with metformin.
Dental
Psoriasis
Local application of which of the following is of benefit in the management of psoriasis: A. Adapalene B. Benzyl benzoate C. Nateglinide D. Salicylic acid
Salicylic acid
2fd58702-776e-4bf8-b9b6-ab9997891f00
Maternal moality in Hea disease complicatin Pregnancy Maternal moality is lowest with rheumatic hea lesions and acyanotic group of hea diseases ie <1% With the elevation of pulmonary vascular resistance especially with cyanotic hea diseases the moality may be raised to 50%( Eisenmengers syndrome) Most of the deaths occur due to cardiac failure and maximum deaths occurs following bih. Management Of Cardiac Failure: The principle if management is same as in the non-pregnant women. A cardiologist should be involved Propped up position O2 Adminstration Monitoring with ECG and pulse oximetry Diuretic: Frusemide (40-80mg) IV - Anticipatory aggresive diuresis is needed to avoid pulmonary congestion. Mechanical Ventilation Injection morphine 15mg IM Digoxin 0.5mg IM followed by Tab.Digoxin 0.25mg P/O Dysrhythmias -Quinidine or electrica cardiaversion Tachyarhymias -Adenosine(3-12mg) IV or DC conversion. Reference: D.C.Dutta's Textbook of Obstetrics; 9th edition; Page no: 258 & 260
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
Patients with organic hea disease in pregnancy most commonly die during A. 20-24 weeks of pregnancy B. First stage of labour C. Soon following delivery D. Two weeks postpaum
Soon following delivery
e84c0e3b-9f05-41c0-a943-00353fce3c94
Median nerve is the most commonly involved nerve in VIC. Other nerve involved is ulnar nerve.
Orthopaedics
null
The most common nerve involved in Volkamaun's ischaemic contracture of forearm includes - A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Posterior nterosseous
Median
70fe741a-ac83-4d40-88c7-6c03cb821c03
Ans. (d) VareniclineRef Harrison 17/e, chapter 390
Pharmacology
C.N.S
Anti-smoking drug is? A. Theophylline B. Biclutamide C. Salmeterol D. Varenicline
Varenicline
2644e59d-a862-4d8d-85a2-88cf6c5a6bf3
Ans. is 'b' i.e., TransitionalUrothelium (transitional epithelium) is found in renal pelvis, calyces, ureter, urinary bladder, proximal pa of urethra.
Anatomy
null
Epithelial lining of urinary bladder ? A. Squamous B. Transitional C. Cuboidal D. Columnar
Transitional
e381c622-15ec-46ab-b9ad-717726373095
B. i.e. (Capsular invasion) (768 - 69- Basic pathology 8th)* The follicular thyroid carcinoma is impossible to distinguish from follicular adenomas on gross examination. This distinction requires extensive histologic sampling of the tumor-capsule- thyroid interface, to exclude capsule and or vascular invasion (768 - Basic pathology 8th)* Extensive invasion of adjacent thyroid parenchyma makes the diagnosis of carcinoma obvious in some cases. Follicular lesions in which the nuclear features are typical of papillary carcinomas should be regarded as papillary cancers* Follicular thyroid carcinoma differs from papillary carcinoma in lacking. Papillae, ground- glass nuclei of tumour cells and psammoma bodies *** Term fetal adenoma is used for follicular adenoma thyroid*** Psammoma bodies are seen in - Papillary carcinoma of thyroid, Meningioma, serous cyst adenoma o fovary**** Mesothelioma is differentiated from adenocarcinoma by presence of long slender microvilli** (Kerala - 08)
Pathology
Endocrine
Follicular thyroid carcinoma is differenciated with follicular adenoma with A. Hurthle cells B. Capsular invasion C. Clear cells D. Hyperchromatic nuclei
Capsular invasion
58b7e378-1c1c-4dec-8f93-26b9090b31fc
Ans. B. Anencephalya. The main sonographic feature of anencephaly is symmetric absence of the skull vault, and the cerebral hemispheres but relative preservation of brainstem and portion of midbrain.b. Although on ultrasonographically the diagnosis can be suspected by 12-13 weeks of gestation, it is more reliable by around 15-16 weeks, when the ossification in normal calvarial bones is more obvious.
Radiology
Miscellaneous
Earliest ANC diagnosis on USG is done for? A. Spina Bifida B. Anencephaly C. Lymphangioma D. Nuchal edema
Anencephaly
9596e7be-0c2c-41ea-86c0-e1cb952e543a
Pigs (Sus scrofa domesticus) are currently thought to be the best candidates for organ donation. The risk of cross-species disease transmission is decreased because of their increased phylogenetic distance from humans. They are readily available, their organs are anatomically comparable in size, and new infectious agents are less likely since they have been in close contact with humans through domestication for many generations. Current experiments in xenotransplantation most often use pigs as the donor, and baboons as human models. Ref : internet
Surgery
Cardio thoracic surgery
For transplantation of hea in human being, which of the animal hea has been used A. Pig B. Horse C. Rabbit D. Sheep
Pig
c935ad2a-3d47-44df-8f9f-3cfc76993155
Ans. is 'd' i.e., GABA o Ivermectin acts through a special type of glutamate gated Cl- channel. Potentiation of GABAergic transmission has also been observed.
Pharmacology
null
Crusted scabies is caused by sarcoptis scabei Ivermectin is used to treat it. It acts by following neurotransmitter - A. Acetylcholine B. Adrenaline C. Noradrenaline D. GABA
GABA
f190d5e3-cbec-4fbc-9e5d-591db9ca946b
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Four times of birth weight AgeWeightBirth3 Kg5 months6 Kg (2 x birth weight)I year9 Kg (3 x birth weight)2 years12 kg (4 x birth weight)3 years15 kg (5 x birth weight)5 years18 kg (6 x birth weight)7 years21 kg (7 x birth weight)10 years30 kg (10 x birth weight)
Pediatrics
Assessment of Growth
What is average birth weight at 2 years? A. Double of birth weight B. Thrice birth weight C. Four times of birth weight D. Six times birth weight
Four times of birth weight
b6aee5bb-5006-40c8-9db4-6064c5efc562
bcl-2 inhibits apoptosis; a (14;18) translocation resulting in overexpression of the bcl-2 protein in B lymphocytes causes apoptosis of neoplastic cells to be permanently inhibited, producing follicular lymphoma. Follicular lymphoma involves the lymph nodes and bone marrow of older people and is characterized by slow, but relentless, growth. Thus, this lymphoma allows a long survival even without any treatment. Indeed, follicular lymphoma is resistant to aggressive therapy because of its low mitotic activity. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a neoplasm of pre-B cells that affects children. Different molecular mechanisms probably account for different cases. Hyperdiploidy, the Philadelphia chromosome, t(12;21), and t(4;11) are variably found in patients with ALL. Burkitt lymphoma occurs in different clinical settings, including the African endemic, sporadic non endemic, and AIDS-associated forms. Histologically, all these forms are identical and are derived from neoplastic transformation of B cells expressing surface IgM. Common to all forms are translocations involving the c-myc oncogene (chromosome 8) and Ig loci (chromosome 14). These translocations lead to overexpression of c-myc, which encodes a nuclear transcription protein, resulting in sustained cell replication. The African form is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. Multiple myeloma is a neoplasm of terminally differentiated B lymphocytes that secrete large amounts of monoclonal Ig or its fragments (light or heavy chains). Approximately 25% of cases have translocations that lead to overexpression of FGFR3, a receptor for fibroblast growth factor implicated in control of cell proliferation.
Pathology
null
Which of the following conditions is associated with overexpression of bcl-2? A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia B. Burkitt lymphoma C. Follicular lymphoma D. Multiple myeloma
Follicular lymphoma
348d90b3-ad84-49de-a9c2-167ee36a56b2
Veebrae level of body of sternum is T5-T9. Ref - medscape.com
Anatomy
Thorax
Veebral level of body of sternum is A. T3 to T4 B. T4 to T5 C. T5 to T7 D. T5 to T9
T5 to T9
361a1b71-90ae-441d-b917-44c2d22c1fd0
MC arrhythmia mechanism is re-entry. Re-entry Circulation of an activation wave around an inexcitable obstacle. It is d/t non-homogeneity in myocardial conduction and recovery propeies. The presence of a unidirectional block with slow conduction to allow for retrograde recovery of the blocked myocardium allows the formation of a circuit Two classic examples of re-entry- VF due to acute myocardial ischemia Polymorphic VT in patients with ion channelopathies such as the Brugada syndrome, LQTS, or catecholaminergic polymorphic VT.
Medicine
ECG and Arrhythmia 2
Which is the most common mechanism of arrhythmia? A. Re-entry B. Early after depolarization C. Late after depolarization D. Automaticity
Re-entry
611bd245-e86d-4a2c-b23b-bdfda797043d
Ref-KDT 6/e p30 Atter filtration from glomerulus, a drug may undergo two processes (tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion) before going out from the body i.e renal clearance. Suppose 100 mg of a drug is filtered by glomerulus and the ren clearance is 150mg,it mean 50mg is coming from somewhere else, i.e. tubular secretion must be present. However,we cannot say that reabsorption is not occuring because if 20 mg is reabsorbed and 70 mg is secreted, same thing can Suppose, 100 mg of a drug is filtered but renal clearance is 50 mg. Therefore, 50 mg must have gone somewhere i.e. tubular reabsorption must be occuring, Again, we cannot say that tubular secretion is not present
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
A drug X is secreted through renal tubles,tubular secretion of this drug can be confirmed if renal cleraclea of drug X is A. More than the GFR B. Equals to the GFR C. Less than the GFR D. More than volume of distrubtion
More than the GFR
4f8091c5-7251-4240-ab61-27bbbbd6b1e3
Ans. (a) Themophilus actinomycetes(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 689; 8th/pg 687)In farmer's lung, inhalation of proteins, such as thermophilic actinomyces bacteria and fungal spores that are present in moldy bedding and feed, are most commonly responsible for the development of Hypersensitivity pneumonitis.
Pathology
Respiration
Causative agent of Farmer's lung is: A. Themophilus actinomycetes B. Aspergillus C. Penicilliumglabrum D. Rhizopus
Themophilus actinomycetes
bd08aa97-2254-411c-824f-1da2265f14b0
Whole body diffusion weighted imaging along with anatomical images such as T1 and T2 can be very useful for the evaluation of malignant tumors/metastasis alternative to PET/CT.The disadvantage is that it is time-consuming investigation The basic principle of DWI is based on the Brownian motion of water molecules which takes place in the body and it utilizes motion sensitizing gradients to study this motion.It provides unique information at a microstructural and functional level which can be used to characterize cellular dense lesions and this has applications in oncology. It can be performed rather quickly and does not require the use of exogenous contrast agents. Diffusion can be assessed both qualitatively and quantitatively. It is quantified by the parameter called Apparent Diffusion Coefficient (ADC).(Ref: Grainger and Allison&;s diagnostic radiology 6th edition, chapter 68)
Radiology
All India exam
Investigation of choice in whole-body imaging in metastasis is A. MRI B. Angiography C. Venography D. CT scan
MRI
4d0e6e5b-b4a9-486f-bf45-85b7b0030858
"Open Pneumothorax is one in which full thickness segment of the chest wall has been destroyed and the negative intrapleural pressure sucks air directly through the chest wall defect rather than through the trachea into the alveoli. It occurs most commonly after shotgun blasts explosion with flying debris. The pt. is stabilized by any mechanical covering over the open wound. As soon as convenient a wateight dressing should be placed and an intercostal catheter inseed into the pleural cavity. Early debridement and formal closure of the wound should then be performed." Ref : Schwaz, 7/e p684
Anatomy
Cardio thoracic surgery
For open pneumothorax which of the following is of choice A. IPPV B. ICD with underwater seal C. Thoracotomy and close the rent D. Wait and watch
ICD with underwater seal
27efd1df-6786-4ea2-a29a-49c9eee57343
Refer Katzung 11/e p824 Resistance to INH occurs due to point mutation in inhA gene Resistance to Rifampicin occurs due to point mutation in rpoB gene Resistance to Ethambutol is due to mutation resulting in over expression of embB gene
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
The bacterial drug resistance in tuberculosis results from A. Transduction B. Transformation C. Plasmid method D. Mutation
Mutation
1a21c6d8-6061-480e-977d-d186a47afbec
Commonest benign orbital tumor among adults with female preponderance(70%) ,is located in the retrobulbar muscle cone Ref: ak khurana 6th edition
Ophthalmology
Tumors
The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults - A. Nerurofibroma B. Meningioma C. Cavernous haemangioma D. Schwannoma
Cavernous haemangioma
36c32315-fe6d-4482-9dd3-636d2d416234
Ans. B. CyclooxygenaseCyclooxygenase is required for the synthesis of prostaglandins by arachidonic acid. Aspirin, indomethacin, brufen, phenyl butazone and other NSAIDS inhibits COX (Cyclooxygenase). Aspirin inhibits COX of both PGHS-1 and PGHS-2 by acetylation
Biochemistry
Enzymes
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits the following enzyme in the formation of eicosanoids: A. Lipoxygenase B. Cyclooxygenase C. Phospholipase-A2 D. Peroxidase
Cyclooxygenase
7c05f117-1e25-40dc-87c8-97789215641e
Sleep terrors/ Night Terrors individual gets up from sleep with a panicky scream and intense anxiety, body motility and autonomic hyperactivity. individual ahs limited recall of the event. Ref: synopsis of psychiatry, 11e, pg 539.
Psychiatry
Sleep disorders and eating disorders
A child wakes up at night sweating and terrified does not remember the episode. Diagnosis ? A. Narcolepsy B. Nightmares C. Night terrors D. Somnambulism
Night terrors
9b6a1637-455b-4cba-a753-defdb6b73a6f
Sirolimus is available only as an oral drug. Its half-life is about 60 hours, while that of everolimus is around 43 hours. Ref: Katzung 11th edition Chapter 61.
Pharmacology
null
Sirolimus is administered by which route? A. Oral B. Inhalation C. Intranasal D. Intravenous
Oral
4c5ba220-47f0-4e32-89cd-f57dba0cc4d2
Ans: A (Inhibits beta myosin heavy chain) Ref: Pal GK, The Thyroid Gland, In: Textbook of Medical Physiology, 2nd ed, Ahuja Publishing House 2011: 46: 352-55Explanation:Physiological Actions of Thyroid HormoneBasal metabolism| rate of oxygen consumption| Na+ K+ ATPase activityThermogenic actionOn nervous systemProliferation of axons, branching of dendritesDevelopment of synapseFormation of neurotransmitter| receptorsMyelinationOn growth and developmentPromoting gene expression for GHLinear growth of bone| osteoid action, bone remodelingTeeth eruption and developmentOn CVS| Heart rate - | number of b receptors on SA node; | sensitivity of b receptor for catecholamine| Myocardial contractilitydeg By inducing expression of myosin heavy chain (| a MHC activity; suppress b MHC activity)deg | Ca ATPase activityBlood pressuredeg | HR, stroke volume - | systolic BPdeg Thermogenic cutaneous vasodilation - |peripheral resistance - | diastolic BPOn metabolismCarbohydratedeg | glucose absorptiondeg | hepatic gluconeogenesisdeg | glycogenolysisFatdeg | lipolysis, stimulate cholesterol synthesis - also |oxidation and bile excretion - net reduction in plasma cholesterol, total lipidProteindeg Proteolysis and turnoverSvnergize net effect of catecholaminesOn respiratory system| oxygen utilizationStimulate erythropoiesisOn GITEnhance the motility| appetite, food intakeSkeletal muscle| expression of MHC genesOn reproductive systemFemale - follicular maturation, ovulationMale - spermatogenesisOn kidney| renal blood flow, GFR
Physiology
Endocrinology metabolism
Function of thyroid hormones: A. Inhibits beta myosin heavy chain B. Increases cholesterol C. Inhibits ovulation D. Increases diastolic blood pressure
Inhibits beta myosin heavy chain
2887846a-fcd9-4144-8b20-e5cddda1815c
Ans: A (Renal clear cell carcinoma) Ref: Campbell Walsh Urology, 10th edition. 2011, Page 1426Explanation: (See table below)Site of origin:Proximal tubule-Conventional (clear cell) RCC and papillary RCCDistal tubule - OncocytomasCollecting duct - Chromophobic and collecting duct RCCCalyceal epithelium near renal papillae - Renal medullary carcinomaConventional (clear cell) RCC:70-80% of RCCsWorse prognosisAggressiveRenal tumorSyndromeChromosomeGeneOther featuresConventional/Von Hippel3p25-26VHLClear cell RCCHemangioblastomas of thecentral nervous systemRetinal angiomas Pheochromocytomaclear cell RCCLindau genePapillary RCC type 1Hereditary papillary RCC7q31c-MET proto- oncogeneType 1 PRCCPapillary RCC type 2FamilialLeiomyomatosis and RCC1q42FumaratehydrataseType 2 PRCCCutaneous and uterineleiomyomasChromophobeRCCBirt-Hogg-Dube17p12q11BHD1geneChromophobe RCCOncocytomaTransitional (hybrid oncocytic) tumorsOccasional clear cell RCCCutaneous fibrofolliculomasLung cystsSpontaneous pneumothoraxOncocytoma 1p-Loss ofY, 14q Rearrang-ements of 11ql3 Spoke-wh eel pattern on angiographyStellate scar on cross-sectional imagingAbundance of mitochondriaAngiomyolipomaWunderlich Tuberous Sclerosis (TSc)TSc - 9 and 16TSc1TSc 2Massive retroperitoneal haemcrrhage(10%)Positive for HMB45Fat (plain CT: <-20 HU within a renal lesion) - diagnostic hallmarkHypervascular3p deletion. VHL gene mutation. Loss of 8p. 9p. 14q and Gain of 5qRespond to immunotherapyChromophilic (papillary) RCC:10-15% of RCCsHvpovascularSeen in End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) and Acquired Renal Cystic Disease (ARCD)Multicentricity is an important feature {40%)Trisomy 7.17. Loss of Y chromosomeType 1: BasophilicType 2: Eosinophilic - aggressiveChromophobic RCC:3-5% of RCCsPrognosis better than conventional RCCHypo vascularMircovesides on electron microscopy - defining featurePlant cell appearancePerinuclear haloPositive for Hale's colloidal iron (indicates presence of mucopolysaccharide) - unique to RCCPositive for cytokeratin; Negative for vimentinLoss of 1.6.8.11,18.21 .Y; VHL mutations and chromosome 3 abnormalitiesCollecting duct (Bellini duct) RCC:1% of RCCsPoor prognosisInfiltrativeAffinity for UlexeuropaceouslectmRenal medullary' carcinoma:Exclusively associated with sickle cell traitInfiltrativeRelatively hypoxic environment plays a role in fumori gene sisOncocytoma:Histology and mean size (4-6 cm) similar to Chromophobe RCCIncreased uptake on Technetium Sestamibi scan - uniqueNumerous large mitochondriaCentral scarLow gradeAngiomyolipoma (AML):Mature adipose tissue, smooth muscle and thick walled vessels seenHMB 45 positiveHyperechoic on ultrasonogramSeen in tuberous sclerosis: 30 years. F:M -- 2:1; multicentric5-6th decade; F>>M (if not associated with TS)Fat on CT (< -20HU) diagnostic of AML and excludes RCCPregnancy increases risk of haemorrhage from AML
Surgery
Renal Tumors
Von Hippel Landau Syndrome is associated with which type of renal neoplasm? A. Renal clear cell carcinoma B. Angiomvolipoma C. Papillary renal cell carcinoma D. Renal medullary carcinoma
Renal clear cell carcinoma
a1b74eb1-72c3-47d4-9f3a-d59f5679d5b4
(D) Glioblastoma multiforme# On MRI, the tumors appear as ring-enhancing masses with central necrosis and surrounding edema.> Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM; malignant glioma) is the highest-grade form of astrocytoma and makes up about two thirds of all brain astrocytomas.> Prognosis for this tumor is at the extreme worst end because of its high-grade status.
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
Tl-weighted axial gadolinium-enhanced MRI demonstrates an enhancing tumor of the right frontal lobe. The most likely diagnosis is A. Oligodendroglioma B. Ependymoma C. PCNSL D. Glioblastoma multiforme
Glioblastoma multiforme
6395bdca-58c0-43ad-aabb-b5310bbc025f
Amygdala has been called the "window" through which the limbic system sees the place of the person in the world because it receives neuronal signals from all poions of the limbic coex, as well as from the neocoex of the temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes, especially from the auditory and visual association areas.
Physiology
Higher Functions
"Window" of the limbic system through which it sees the external world is: A. Hypothalamus B. Amygdala C. Hippocampus D. Thalamus
Amygdala
aae56686-844f-44b4-b2e8-145666a34920
Nigro protocol or Nigro Regime for Anal Carcinoma (Norman Nigro, et al 1974):  * Initial radiotherapy for 3 weeks 3000 rads (30 Gy total) to perineum and pelvis  * Then chemotherapy--5 FU, for 4-5 days; is a radiosensitizer, staed on 1st day of as 1000 mg/m2 continuous infusion. Mitomycin C is 15 mg/m2 as single dose on 1st day of  * Later after 3 weeks abdominoperineal resection (APR) with colostomy in case of persistent or recurrent disease. Reference : page 987 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
Surgery
Urology
Nigro protocol is for which carcinoma A. Anal B. Colon C. Hepatocellular D. Pancreatic
Anal
aee6df80-4318-4346-95d0-d8edbbc8e293
Proteoglycans linked to chondroitin sulfate by the Xyl-Ser O-glycosidic bond are prominent components of cailage. They are located at sites of calcification in endochondral bone and are a major component of cailage. They are found in high amounts in the ECM of the central nervous system and, in addition to their structural function, are thought to act as signaling molecules in the prevention of the repair of nerve endings after injury.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 50; The Extracellular Matrix
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
Glycosaminoglycans located in CNS is A. Hyaluronic acid B. Chondroitin sulfate C. Keratan sulfate 2 D. Heparan sulfate
Chondroitin sulfate
cbbe6292-3ab2-4269-a09f-e2caa38fd534
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Souvenir bullet Projectile is an object propelled by force of rapidly burning gases. In shotgun these are lead shots and pellets (recently steel is also used instead of lead) and in rifled weapons (pistal, rifle, revolver), these are bullets. Tip of the bullet is knwon as nose. Varieties of bullets are :- Incendiary (igniting) bullet : The tip of bullet contains self igniting material e.g. barium nitrate and powdered aluminium and magnesium (in the past, phosphorus was used), so that it catches fire on hitting the target. It is used to cause fire in usually inflammable targets like fuel tanks (of air crafts etc). Explosive bullet : The tip contains a detonator or lead azide, so that the bullet explodes on hitting the target. Dum-dum bullet (expanding bullet): It is a jacketed bullet with is nose tip chiseled or cut off. It is designed to increase in diameter and expand upon striking the target, thus producing larger diameter wounds of limited penetration. Tandem bullet (Piggey tail bullet) : It is called one-behind-other bullet because two bullets are ejected one after the other, when first bullet failed to leave the burrel and is ejected by subsequently fired bullet. Therefore, both enter body through same enterance wound (some times, they may enter through different entries), but the wounds of exit are always two. Tandem (Duplex) caridge is one in which two bullets are present in same caridge. It is used in military rifles. Tracer bullet: It leaves a trace in atmosphere along the path so that a person (gunner) can observe the strike. Burning of barium nitrate produces flame and powdered magnesium along with strontium nitrate are added to give red color to the flame. Tumbling bullet : One that rotates in end on end during its motion. Yawning bullet : One which travels in an irregular fashion and causes a key hole entery wound. Yaw means detion between long axis of bullet and the axis of path of bullet. Souvenir bullet : A bullet left in body for long time and is surrounded by fibrous tissue. Frangile bullet : Designed to fragment upon impact. Mushrooming of bullet : A soft nose bullet, an hitting the target may get deformed to assume the shape of a mushroom.
Forensic Medicine
null
Bullet which is left inside the body for long is referred to as ? A. Souvenir bullet B. Tracer bullet C. Tumbling bullet D. Tandem bullet
Souvenir bullet
f13bf962-e8b8-439b-b024-10b0b072fb95
Acrosome have acrosin enzyme which helps in penetration. Mitochondria is present in middle pa.
Anatomy
Systemic histology
which pa of sperm helps in penetration of zona pellucida ? A. head B. middle piece C. neck D. acrosome
acrosome
5e157779-7d15-479c-94d7-030bcb638f03
Parakeratosis is defined as retention of keratinocyte nuclei within the horny layer cell layer. It can occur in condition with increased epidermal cell turnover or with inflammatory changes in epidermis. Dysplastic epithelial changes such as those occurring in actinic keratoses and Bowens disease are normally accompanied by parakeratosis. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012, Chapter 6; Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, Volume 1 By Tony Burns, Page 31; Eyelid Tumors: Clinical Diagnosis and Surgical Treatment By Jay Justin Older, 2nd Edition Page 58.
Skin
null
In which of the following conditions parakeratosis most frequently occur? A. Actinic keratoses B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Seborrheic keratoses D. Molluscum contagiosum
Actinic keratoses
db26142c-35fd-46fe-b0b8-bc9b0c41473a
Res ipsa loquitur (Latin for "the thing speaks for itself"): * Doctrine that infers negligence from the very nature of an accident or injury itself proves the negligent action of the physician in the absence of direct evidence. Res Judicata * Medical negligence case adjudicated by a cou and therefore may not be pursued fuher by the same paies in another cou. Respondent superior * A doctrine that holds an employer legally responsible for the wrongful acts of an employee, if such acts occur within the scope of the employment
Forensic Medicine
Medical Jurisprudence
Forceps inside the abdomen postoperatively amounts to A. Res ipsa loquitur B. Res judicata C. Respondent superior D. Novus actus interveniens
Res ipsa loquitur
31c3249c-52f0-4dde-978c-bdfe80da6195
Ans. is 'b' i.e., C. burnetii DiseaseAgentInsect vectorMammalian reservoir1. Typhus group a. Epidemic typhusR. prowazekiiLouseHumansb. Murine typhus (Endemic typhus)R. typhiFleaRodentsc. Scrub typhusR. tsutsugamushiMiteRodents2. Spotted fever group a. Indian tick typhusR.conoriiTickRodents, dogsb. Rocky mountain spotted feverR.rickettsiiTickRodents, dogsc. Rickettsial poxR. akariMiteMice3. Others a. Q feverC.burnetiiNilCattle, sheep, goats.b. Trench feverRocholimaca quintanaLouseHumans
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
Q fever is caused by- A. R Quintana B. C. burnetii C. R typhi D. R akari
C. burnetii
84d2ea72-9289-4864-8365-777be862b2e2
Growth hormone, also known as somatotropin, is secreted by somatotroph cells, which account for 50% of the anterior pituitary glands. The release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary is pulsatile in nature, increasing after meals: with exercise, and during slow-wave sleep. Growth hormone, which is necessary for normal growth, exes its effects through mediators such as somatomedins and insulin-like growth factors. In addition to its involvement in growth, somatotropin is involved in stimulating the incorporation of amino acids into protein and inhibiting glucose uptake by tissues. By the latter effect, growth hormone helps restore low blood sugars to normal and is therefore a counterregulatory hormone to insulin. Both hypoglycemia and insulin stimulate growth hormone release, as does the presence of free amino acids such as arginine. Hypothalamic secretagogues also control growth hormone release. These molecules include the stimulatory hormone GHRH and the inhibitory hormone somatostatin (somatotropin release-inhibitory factor). The former is probably more impoant, since sectioning of the pathways between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary results in inhibition of growth hormone release. Other neurotransmitters influence growth hormone release, including hypothalamus-derived dopamine, which stimulates GHRH. -Adrenergic agonists stimulate growth hormone release, and -adrenergic blockers inhibit growth hormone increases. Serotonin agonists stimulate growth hormone release; this perhaps accounts for the nocturnal surge in growth hormone secretion. Ref - Harrison's principles of internal medicine 20e pg 2666t
Medicine
C.N.S
Which of the following inhibits GH secretion from the anterior pituitary gland? A. Somatostatin B. Growth hormone- releasing hormone (GHRH) C. Hypoglycemia D. Arginine
Somatostatin
d3dc9490-ba24-4d36-955a-bbd224441f11
Conjugation: it is the process whereby a male or donor bacterium mates or makes physical contact with a female or recipient bacterium and transfer genetic material into it. This has been considered to be the bacterial equivalent of sexual mating in higher organisms but the analogy is irrelevant as following conjugation the female bacterium is, in turn, conveed into a male cell. Bacterial conjugation was first described by Lederberg and Tatum (1946) in a strain of E.coli called K12 and has been most extensively studied in strain. It takes place between a male cell and a female cell. the maleness or donor status of a cell is determined by the presence in it of a plasmid that coded for specialized fimbriae which project from the surface of the cell. the plasmid DNA replicates and a copy of it passes from the donor to the recipient attains donor status and can in turn conjugated with other female cells.the maleness in bacteria is thus a transmissible or infectious characteristic. Along with plasmid DNA, a poion of the host DNA also are sometimes transferred to the recipient the donor DNA then combines with DNA of the rrecipientaffecting genetic recombination. it was E.coli K12 that the role of the plasmid in conjugation was first recognized the plasmid responsible was termed the sex facto or feility (F)factor. When other similar similar plasmids were also discovered the term transfer factor came to be used for all such plasmids when conferred on their host cells the ability to act as da one in conjugation. REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:65
Microbiology
general microbiology
Conjugation does not involve - A. Bacteriophages B. HFr C. Fr D. Plasmids
Bacteriophages
c823b727-0a73-4c5d-970c-a6145efcffa3
Ans. Subarachnoid hemorrhage due to rupture cerebral aneurysm
Forensic Medicine
null
A 40-year-old hypeensive lady is brought to the emergency room after being unresponsive following a sudden bout of severe headache, vomiting and neck rigidity at work. 0/E her BP is 180/100 mmHg and her respiration is irregular and of Cheyne-Stokes type. She is agitated and doesn't follow commands, but moves her extremities spontaneously. Most likely diagnosis will be: JIPMER 08; AIIMS 13 A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage due to rupture cerebral aneurysm B. Hypoglycemic coma C. Conversion reaction D. Addisonian crisis
Subarachnoid hemorrhage due to rupture cerebral aneurysm
8070fb18-eea7-4a40-b3db-37d724e4ae00
repeated question The risk factors are Constitutional- genetic abnormalities,family history , increasing age, male gender, hyperlipidemia,hypeension,cigaratte smoking, diabetes, inflammation Myocardial infarction is the main condition
Pathology
Cardiovascular system
Atheromatous changes of blood vessels affects early in A. Kidney B. Hea C. Liver D. Spleen
Hea
f472657d-8878-4b3c-8998-bd19b44781b1
For pregnant women and women who have given bih, heparin is the anticoagulant of choice and is recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists. It does not cross the placenta, and therefore is considered to be safe . Ref - Harrisons 20e p848-850
Medicine
Miscellaneous
Which of the following drugs can be safely prescribed in pregnancy - A. Warfarin B. ACE inhibitors C. Heparin D. Beta-blockers
Heparin
6db1fd3e-2800-4144-a9d7-3ba245775bf2
Typical B cell CLL/small lymphocytic lymphoma treatment: The most common treatments for patients with typical B cell CLL/small lymphocytic lymphoma have been chlorambucil or fludarabine. Chlorambucil is the preferred agent in elderly patients. Chlorambucil can be administered orally while fludarabine is administered IV Fludarabine is the more active agent and is the only drug associated with a significant incidence of complete remission. For young patients regimens containing fludarabine are the treatment of choice. Bendamustine also used as the primary agent in treatment. Ref: Harrison, E-18,P-927
Medicine
null
The preferred agent in treatment of typical B cell CLL among elderly patients is: A. Fludarabine B. Chlorambucil C. Cyclophosphamide D. Bendamustine
Chlorambucil
64e2f68f-8b76-4f49-9de9-cee9d169903f
Amino acid Trytophan gives obermeyer test positive. Hartnup's disease is characterised by impaired absorption of neutral amino acids especially tryptophan. Thus Tryptophan gets excreted in large amounts and gives positive obermeyer test.
Biochemistry
null
Obermeyer test comes out to be positive in which disease A. Hartnup's disease B. Phenylketonuria C. Alkaptonuria D. Pellagra
Hartnup's disease
e1f5f86a-d8a5-49a4-8d1c-b4bcf2c6f0e7
The intraembryonic mesoderm splits into:Paraxial which forms SomitesIntermediate plate gives rise to the Genital & Urinary systemLateral plate encloses a cavity called the intraembryonic coelom, which fuher forms the pericardial, peritoneal & pleural cavities
Microbiology
All India exam
Somites are derived from ----- mesoderm A. Intermediate plate B. Lateral plate C. Paraxial D. Extraembryonic
Paraxial
77a99e3e-7282-499b-b887-c2a318df7550
Persistent Generalized Lymphadenopathy HIV patients develop PGL as an early clinical manifestation of HIV infection PGL is defined as presence of >1LN in two or three extra-inguinal sites for >3 months without an obvious cause Enlargement is due to follicular hyperplasia Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno :1232-1233
Anatomy
General anatomy
In AIDS , lymphadenopathy is most often due to - A. Lymphoma B. Non specific enlargement of lymph nodes C. TB D. Kasposi's sarcoma
Non specific enlargement of lymph nodes
06d11afe-3779-4dc9-a4fa-f78bbb2a562d
Mycoplasma organisms do have a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin. Other forms of bacteria that lack a cell wall are spheroplasts and protoplasts, which are formed from gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria, respectively, through the action of penicillin or by other procedures that remove the cell wall or interfere with its formation. The other organisms listed in the question are all susceptible to the action of penicillin. Tetracyclines, erythromycin and the aminoglycosides are effective antibiotics for the treatment of mycoplasmal infections. Ref: Infection and Immunity By Huw Davies, D. H. Davies, Page 34
Microbiology
null
Penicillin would be LEAST effective in treating: A. Syphilis B. Streptococcal pharyngitis C. Pneumococcal pneumonia D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumonia
b033bee1-b28a-4b77-a1ef-1c067830932c
Radio sensitivity of different cells or tissues: White blood cells (lymphocytes) Red blood cells (erythrocytes) Immature reproductive cells Epithelial cells Endothelial cells Connective tissue cells Bone cells Nerve cells Brain cells Muscle Ceells
Radiology
DNB 2018
Which pa is high sensitive to radioactivity: A. Adult bone B. Growing skin C. Pancreas D. CNS
Growing skin
40aa053f-5ebc-47a1-a1b9-639e8c588eca
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Modified macrophages Pathologic Features of Acute Rheumatic Fever :-o Aschoff bodies focal inflammatory lesions seen in acute rheumatic fever consisting of foci of T lymphocytes, occasional plasma cells, and plump activated macrophages,o These activated macrophages called Anitschkow cells (pathognomonic for Rheumatic Fever) have abundant cytoplasm and central round-to- ovoid nuclei (occasionally binucleate) in which the chromatin condenses into a central, slender, wavy ribbon (hence also called "caterpillar cells"),o Pancarditis - During acute RF, diffuse inflammation and Aschoff bodies may be found in any of the three layers of the heart, resulting in pericarditis, myocarditis, or endocarditiso Verrucae are small (1 to 2 mm) vegetations overlying necrotic foci and along the lines of closure of valves,o MacCaUum plaques are irregularly thickened subendocardial lesions usually in the left atrium,o Mitral stenosis - Fish Mouth or Button - Hole stenosis,
Pathology
Rheumatic Fever
Antischkow cells are - A. Modified macrophages B. Modified neutrophils C. Modified B cells D. Modified RBCs
Modified macrophages
24a4dce6-86b2-4729-8889-9d4764cd1f4e
Treatment of cerebral malaria: IV Quinine: Needs continuous cardiac monitoring; can cause QTc prolongation, hypoglycemia IV Artesunate has better efficacy and safer than quinine, 2.4 mg/kg IV BD. then OD Exchange transfusion if parasite index is > 10% Artemisinin (qinghaosu) acts rapidly against erythrocytic stages of malarial parasites. It is effective against complicated and multidrug resistant malaria. Due to their short half life, recrudescence is high if used alone, hence not useful for prophylaxis also. Chloroquine sensitive falci and vivax: Chloroquine l g, 500mg at 6, 24,48 hrs, followed by Primaquine 15mg for 14 days Chloroquine resistant, uncomplicated falciparum: Oral quinine. Mefloquine, Doxy, Clindamycin, Oral Artesunate
Medicine
null
Artemesinin is best used for A. Relapse of malaria B. Chronic malaria C. Cerebral malaria D. Recrudescent malaria
Cerebral malaria
3c0c0148-904b-4130-9368-4e21e6d3549a
Hepatocellular carcinoma has a propensity to invade poal or hepatic veins. Neo vascularity within the thrombus in the poal or hepatic veins on Doppler US is considered diagnostic of hepatocellular carcinoma. Common factors associated with increased risk of developing HCC: Cirrhosis from any cause Hepatitis B or C chronic infection Chronic ethanol consumption NASH/NAFLD Aflatoxin B1 or other mycotoxins AFP is a serum tumor marker for HCC. The other widely used assay is that for des-g-carboxy prothrombin (DCP) which is increased in as many as 80% of HCC patients. It may predict for poal vein invasion. An ultrasound examination of the liver is an excellent screening tool. A helical/triphasic CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis, with fast-contrast bolus technique is done to determine tumor size and extent and the presence of poal vein invasion accurately. Ref: Diagnosis and Therapy of Hepatocellular Carcinoma: Status Quo and a Glimpse edited by Adrian Reuben page 338. Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e chapter 92.
Surgery
null
Which of the following condition has a propensity to invade the poal or hepatic vein? A. Cavernous hemangioma B. Hepatocellular carcinoma C. Focal nodular hyperplasia D. Hepatic adenoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
0ae4e222-57ca-4265-9d04-bc0179166865
FH4 is an intermediate in reactions involving the transfer of one-carbon units from a donor to an acceptor. One-carbon units enter the folate pool principally the serine hydroxymethyltransferase reaction which requires pyridoxal phosphate as cofactor. The most impoant clinically is the methylation of deoxyuridylate to thymidylate, catalyzed by the enzyme thymidylate synthase. This reaction is an essential step in the synthesis of DNA. Metabolic Systems Requiring Folic Acid Coenzymes: Serine ? glycine Thymidylate synthesis Histidine catabolism Methionine synthesis Purine synthesis Ref: Green R. (2010). Chapter 41. Folate, Cobalamin, and Megaloblastic Anemias. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e.
Biochemistry
null
Methylation of deoxyuridylate to thymidylate involve one carbon metabolism. Cofactor in one carbon metabolism is: A. Folic acid B. Thiamine C. Pyridoxine D. Riboflavin
Folic acid
b41c17ed-a275-4203-aaa8-a4c73b33c48f
ref Harrison 18/e 143p -145 Fever is produced in response to substance called pyrogens that acts by stimulating prostaglandins synthesis in vascular and periferal cells of hypothalamus.there are exogenous and endogenous pyogens
Anatomy
General anatomy
Febrile response in CNS is mediated by A. Bacterial toxin B. IL1 C. IL6 D. Interferon
Bacterial toxin
23755aab-9e5a-481e-92ca-52ec4215265a
In District hospital sterilization is done weekly. Govt. of India is promoting FDS approach in sterilization services within public health system with the aim of increasing access to sterilization services. Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21st edition, page-475
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Frequency of sterilization services at different health facilities at "Fixed day static services (FDS)" is given below. Find out the wrong one: A. District hospital - daily B. Sub-district hospital - weekly C. CHC/ Block PHC - fonightly D. 24*7 PHC/ PHC - monthly
District hospital - daily
e9450913-6b7a-46da-b758-bb45def9a060
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Procarbazine Disulfiram like reaction Ceain drugs when taken concurrently with alcohol produce disulfiram like actions. That means these drugs produce similar distressing symptoms as disulfiram, when taken with alcohol - flushing, burning sensation, throbbing headache, prespiration, unesasiness, tightness in chest, vomiting, dizziness, visual disturbances, mental confusion, postural fainting and circulatory collapse. The drugs causing Disulfiram like actions Chlorpropramide Animal charcol Cephalosporins (Cefoperazone, moxalactam, cefamandole) Griseofulvin Metronidazole Procarbazine Citrated calcium carbamide Tinidazine Cynamide
Pharmacology
null
Anticancer drug with disulfuram like action - A. Procarbazine B. Nitrosurea C. 5 FU D. Methotrexate
Procarbazine
374012d8-974e-4996-8b70-ef80023082e1
Colloid (mucinous) carcinoma is an invasive variant. Colloid carcinoma has a glistening surface and mucoid consistencyon cut section Composed ofsmall clusters of epithelial cells,occasionally forming glands,floating in pools of extracellular mucin. In its pure form,colloid carcinomahas a considerablybetter prognosisthaninfiltrating ductal or lobular carcinoma Abundant mucin productionisnot a featureof the other choices. Diagnosis:Mucinous carcinoma of the breast
Pathology
NEET Jan 2020
A middle aged female presented with a 4cm mass in upper outer quadrant of the breast. Biopsy showed densely packed cells within large lakes of mucin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this patient? A. Medullary carcinoma of breast B. Colloid carcinoma of breast C. Tubular carcinoma of breast D. Papillary carcinoma of breast
Colloid carcinoma of breast
eaeeae43-3e18-4df6-a04e-10ecfaba2908
The duration of action of various sulfonylureas is given below: Tolbutamide: 6-8 hours Glipizide: 10-16 hours Glibenclamide: 16-24 hours Chlorpropamide: 30-36 hours
Pharmacology
null
The sulphonylurea with relative longer duration of action is: A. Chlorpropamide B. Tolbutamide C. Glibenclamide D. Glipizide
Chlorpropamide
d99e06db-1769-493c-b42d-cd7316cf59f6
Spectrin causes membrane loss leading to spherical shape of rbc
Anatomy
General anatomy
Heriditory spherocytosis is caused by A. Spectrin deficiency B. Hb deficiency C. Incresed sodium levels D. Increased calcium levels
Spectrin deficiency
5e60bf4c-daba-4cd7-8291-85ed0e0dc73d
The ventral pa of the 6th arch forms the main pa of the pulmonary aery. The dorsal pa on the left side persist as ductus aeriosus which closes after bih and remains as ligamentum aeriosum. The dorsal pa on the right side disappears. Vascular elements of branchial arches:First arch: Maxillary aerySecond arch: Stapedial aeryThird arch: Common carotid and internal carotid aeryFouh arch: On the right side it forms the first pa of subclan aery and on the left side it forms the main pa of arch of aoaRef: Bedside Clinics In Surgery By M.L. Saha page 363.
Anatomy
null
Main pa of pulmonary aery is a derivative of which of the following branchial arch? A. 2nd arch B. 3rd arch C. 4th arch D. 6th arch
6th arch
39c325f4-b6f7-4544-ba54-0a1891b74c49
PH is higher, but CO2 and HCO3 look normal. So look at Anion gap = 20 . But difference in HCO3 = 0  so is a case of High Anion Gap metabolic acidosis + metabolic alkalosis.
Medicine
null
55 year old male patient who is a know case of chronic kidney disease present to emergency with vomiting and Is diagnosed with uremic acidosis. His ABG analysis report is pH= 7.42 pCO2= 40 HCO3= 25 Na+= 140 mmol/L K+= 3 mmol/L Cl-= 95 mmol/L A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory Alkalosis C. High Anion Gap metabolic acidosis + metabolic alkalosis D. High Anion Gap metabolic acidosis + Respiratory Alkalosis
High Anion Gap metabolic acidosis + metabolic alkalosis
3b0b07ed-0234-4f5f-96df-89e55573f016
Adverse effects of progestin only pill (minipill) Menstural irregularities Headache, nausea, dizziners Bloating or weight gain Increased risk of INDDM Ovarian cysts Breast tenderness Acne Ectopic pregnancy Ref : Shaw book of gynecology 8th Ed
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
Which is not a side effect of POP A. Ovarian cysts B. Venous thromboembolism C. Increased risk of diabetes mellitus D. Ectopic pregnancy
Venous thromboembolism
3717fae3-6056-4fdf-a40b-d413ea5e47db
In bullous pemphigoid, there will be large, tense, oval or round blisters arise on normal or erythematous skin which may contain serous or hemorrhagic fluid. Page no.283. Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology
Dental
Vestibulobullous disorders
Tense bullous lesions are seen in - A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Pemphigus foliaceous C. Bu11ous pemphigoid D. Pemphigus vegetans
Bu11ous pemphigoid
c0e9314d-10c3-4adc-b5ef-2aab96d57b71
Ans. A. Capillary hydrostatic pressure and plasma colloid osmotic pressureAll The other possibilities include one minor force for filtration or absorption.
Physiology
Kidneys and Body Fluids
The major pressures that determine filtration and absorption of fluid by capillaries are the: A. Capillary hydrostatic pressure and plasma colloid osmotic pressure B. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure and interstitial hydrostatic pressure C. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure and tissue colloid osmotic pressure D. Capillary hydrostatic pressure and tissue colloid osmotic pressure
Capillary hydrostatic pressure and plasma colloid osmotic pressure
dc9a0ef5-7c1c-4357-a134-969b7efdefbf
(B) Bitemporal hemianopia # Sagittal (central) lesions of the chiasma.These are characterized by bitemporal hemianopia and bitemporal hemianopic paralysis of pupillary reflexes.> Lateral chiasmal lesions: Salient features of such lesions are binasal hemianopia associated with binasal hemianopic paralysis of the pupillary reflexes.> Lesions of optic tract:These are characterized by incongruous homonymous hemianopia associated with contralateral hemianopic pupillary reaction (Wernicke's reaction).
Medicine
Miscellaneous
Suprasellar aneurysms causes A. Binasal hemianopia B. Bitemporal hemianopia C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Congruous homonymous hemianopia
Bitemporal hemianopia
7fb9025b-6880-4f7c-85aa-530d61a77569
Inducing agents of choice patients with hypotension are Ketamine and Etomidate :- (1) If the patient is hypertensive at the time of induction → Etomidate is preferable. (2) If the patient is normotensive or mild hypotensive → Either of two can be used. (3) If the patient is severely hypotensive → Ketamine is preferred.
Anaesthesia
null
A patient presented with blunt trauma to the abdomen to the emergency department. His heart rate is 150/min and his BP is 80/50 mm Hg. He is scheduled to undergo an emergency laparotomy. Which of the following is the anaesthetic agent of choice ? A. Thiopentone B. Midazolam C. Ketamine D. Propofol
Ketamine
38c4b14e-f6f6-4bfb-8b04-04d949be6156
Desquamative interstitial pneumonia is characterized by large collections of macrophages in the airspaces in a current or former smoker. The macrophages were originally thought to be desquamated pneumocytes, thus the misnomer "desquamative interstitial pneumonia."The most striking finding is the accumulation of a large number of macrophages with abundant cytoplasm containing dusty brown pigment (smokers' macrophages) in the airspaces.Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of DIsease; 9th edition; Chapter 15; The lung; Change 682
Pathology
Respiratory system
Macrophages with abundant cytoplasm containing dusty brown pigment are seen in A. Desquamative Interstitial Pneumonia B. Pulmonary Alveolar Proteinosis C. Pulmonary Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis D. Pulmonary Eosinophilia
Desquamative Interstitial Pneumonia
1c5d91d8-3a19-4ce8-b54e-03b163bf8867
- SIDE EFFECTS OF THE DRUG - APLASTIC ANEMIA - AGRANULOCYTOSIS - Hyponatremia - Steven Johnson's syndrome - Liver enzyme elevation - It has teratogenic potential - CLEFT PALATE, FINGER NAIL HYPOLASIA, - SPINA BIFIDA Ref, kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition,pg no.935
Anatomy
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
cleft palate is the side effect of A. carbamezepine B. clozapine C. risperidone D. olanzapine
carbamezepine
1731048d-1f5c-4647-be1d-9ff1507b1459
"Atracurium and cisatracurium are muscle relaxants of choice for both liver and kidney failure".
Anaesthesia
null
A child with bladder exstrophy and chronic renal failure. The Anaesthesia of choice for the child while operating exstrophy is – A. Atracurium B. Mivacurium C. Pancuronium D. Rocuronium
Atracurium