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1a5356bc-8399-436b-beaf-398ab5469be2 | Haemodialysis is used for the treatment of following poisoning: Salicylates, Boric Acid, Glutathimide,Methanol, Barbitutates, Thiocyanates. | Surgery | null | Haemodialysis is most effective in treating poisoning due to:
A. Amphetamine
B. Cocaine
C. Barbiturates
D. Opium
| Cocaine |
eace862e-cca1-4ff0-829c-f583869ad90d | Ans. B: 10 years Copper-T 380A known as paraguard has a life span of 10 years Lifespan Progestase: 1 year Cu-T 200B: 4 years Nova T and LNG IUCD: 5 years Cu-T 380A: 10 years | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Lifespan of Cu-T 380A is: September 2011, March 2013
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years
| 10 years |
b647bcfd-0a82-4b4e-b87a-2d29fbce576a | Between the circular and longitudinal muscle layer lies the Auerbach plexus/ Myenteric plexus. | Physiology | null | Myentric plexus is present in
A. Muscularis externa
B. Submucosa
C. Mucosa
D. Serosa
| Muscularis externa |
54bf9055-a47b-4923-b1cb-e15a0336c1e0 | Maternal moality associated with Eissenmenger's syndrome is 50%, and is also associated with high perinatal loss. In such cases, termination of pregnancy is indicated. Patients with Eisenmenger's syndrome have pulmonary hypeension with right to left shunt through an open ductus, ASD or VSD. Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C Dutta, 6e page 282. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which of the following cardiac condition has highest maternal moality in pregnancy ?
A. MS
B. MR
C. MVP
D. Eisenmenger syndrome
| Eisenmenger syndrome |
c5074b82-7ba2-469f-8ab0-82d1f2d304e5 | A. i.e. (Gain in weight / Protein consumed) (702- Rana Shinde 7th) (512 - U. satyanarayan 3rd)1. PROTEIN EFFICIENCY RATIO (PER) - consists of feeding weaning (21 days old) albino rats with a 10% test protein diet and recording the gain in body weight for a period of 4 weeks.Gain in weight of young animals per unit weight ofprotein consumed**PER =Gain in body weight (g)Protein consumed (g)The PER for egg protein is 4.5 : for milk protein 3.0 for rice protein 2.22. BIOLOGICAL VALUE - defined % of absorbed nitrogen retained by bodyBV =Nitrogen retained-----------Nitrogen absorbedx 1003. NET - Protein Utilization (NPU) - defined % of food Nitrogen that is retained in the bodyNPU =Digestibility Cofficient x Biological valueProtein intake (gm)4. CHEMICAL SCORE - based on the chemical analysis of the protein for the composition of essential amino acids which is then compared with a reference protein (usually egg protein)Chemical score =mg of the limiting amino acid/g. test proteinmg. of the same amino acid/g.egg proteinx 100 | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Protein efficiency ratio is
A. Gain in weight / protein consumed
B. Product of digestibility coefficient and biological value divided by 100
C. Percentage of nitrogen retained out of nitrogen absorbed
D. Percentage of protein absorbed after digestion
| Gain in weight / protein consumed |
8f1171d8-622f-4700-8749-3148c0b630b2 | (Ascends through the aortic opening in the diaphragm) (213-BDC-l) (128-Snell 7th)AZYGOS VEIN - The origin of the azygos vein is variable. It is often formed by the union of the right ascending lumbar vein and the right subcostal vein. It ascends through the aortic opening in the diaphragm on the right side of the aorta to the level of the fifth thoracic vertebra. Here it arches forward above the root of the right lung to empty into the posterior surface of the superior vena-cava.* In obstruction of the superior or inferior vena cava, the azygos veins provide an alternate pathway for the return of venous blood to the right atrium of the heart. | Anatomy | Thorax | Azygos vein
A. Formed by arch of aorta
B. Opens into inferior vena cava
C. Arches the groove of the left lung
D. Ascends through the aortic opening in the diaphragm
| Ascends through the aortic opening in the diaphragm |
894803f7-5543-477b-b97d-cbde58cbbe80 | The superior and middle turbinates are pas of ethmoid bone whereas inferior turbinate is an independent separate bone. | ENT | Anatomy of Nasal Cavity | Inferior turbinate is a:
A. Pa of maxilla
B. Pa of sphenoid
C. Separate bone
D. Pa of ethmoid
| Separate bone |
30880a44-039a-4a29-9bf8-686f0b4683ea | Cystic Fibrosis cause infections, recurrent pneumonia and bronchiectasis Parathyroid adenoma will cause calcification but not in the airway It causes nephrocalcinosis. Pulmonary lymphangio leiomyomatosis Hyperplasia of smooth muscle. Commonly seen in females Depends on estrogen Present with Pneumothorax, Pleural effusion No calcifications seen TB -Lymph nodes enlarged and calcified- erosion of airways. | Medicine | Tuberculosis | Broncholithiasis is a feature of?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pulmonary lymphangioleiomyomatosis
D. Parathyroid adenoma
| Tuberculosis |
a2619b2e-b465-4dac-8d80-e137521cde06 | Marjolin's Ulcer Low grade SCC, which develops on a chronic benign ulcer or a long standing scar tissue Arises from the edge of the ulcer. Marjolin's ulcer may develop in Post burn scar Long standing venous ulcer Chronic ulcer due to trauma. Chronically discharging osteomyelitis sinus Post - radiation ulcer Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pgno :259 | Surgery | General surgery | The most common malignancy found in Marjolin&;s ulcer is
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
D. Neutrophic malignant melanoma
| Squamous cell carcinoma |
269855f3-f41b-4001-9240-afae12ad2121 | Ans: B (Epidural anesthesia) Ref: Ajay Yadav Short Textbook of Anesthesia,1st edition, pg 123Explanation:Epidural (Extradural) anesthesiaThe epidural space is a potential space.It contains connective tissue, venous plexuses, and adipose tissue.It is found between the connective tissue covering the vertebrae and the ligamentum flavum posteriorly and the dura mater anteriorly.Laterally it is bound by the pedicles and the intervertebral foramina.It extends from the foramen magnum, where the dura is fused to the base of the skull, to the sacral hiatus.The plica mediana dorsalis is a connective tissue hand that may extend from the dura mater to the ligamentum flavum. which divides the posterior epidural space into right and left compartments.Clinically, this is significant because it may affect the spread of epidurally injected medications.IndicationsAll surgeries which can be performed under spinal anesthesia can he performed under epidural blockPlus upper abdominal surgeries, thoracic surgeries and even neck surgeries can be performed under cervical epidural blockMainly used for controlling postoperative painFor painless labourTo control chronic pain due to cancer and chronic pain conditionsAcute occlusive vascular conditionsBlood patch for posispinal headacheSite of action of drugAnterior and posterior nerve rootsMixed spinal nervesDrug diffuses through dura and arachnoid and inhibits descending pathways in spinal cordComplicationsInadequate patch blockHypotensionApnea (higher blocks)Total spinal: Accidental injection into subarachnoid space - presents with marked hypotension, bradycardia, apnea, dilated pupils and comaDural punctureIn vascular injectionLocal anesthetic toxicityHorner's syndrome (Cervical block)Epidural hematomaEpidural abscessAnterior spinal artery syndromeNeedle injury to spinal cordEpiduro-cuteaneous fistulaTrigeminal nerve palsyIntraocular hemorrhageOther methods tried in Obstetric analgesia -Regional nerve blocksSubarachnoid (Spinal) anesthesiaPudendal nerve block | Anaesthesia | Anaesthesia For Special Situations | Best treatment for relieving pain during intrapartum period is:
A. Neuraxial block
B. Epidural anesthesisa
C. IV ketamine
D. General Anesthesia
| Epidural anesthesisa |
72c4cb55-180a-4935-8f37-e7a26e362695 | Water brash is excessive salivation resulting from a vagal reflex triggered by acidification of the esophageal mucosa. This is not a common symptom. Afflicted individuals will describe the unpleasant sensation of the mouth rapidly filling with salty thin fluid, often in the setting of concomitant heaburn.When classic symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux are present, such as water brash and substernal heaburn, presumptive diagnosis andempirical treatment is often sufficient.Ref: Harrison; 19th edition; Page no: 1901 | Medicine | C.V.S | Water brash is a classic symptom of
A. Dyspepsia
B. Indigestion
C. GERD
D. Duodenal ulcer
| GERD |
69b8e45d-98a6-4af5-bc7c-632d2dfc1d20 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thiamine Effect of milling on rice The milling process deprives the rice grain of its valuable nutritive elements | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Nutrient which is lost maximum in polished rice?
A. Proteins
B. Thiamine
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Calcitriol
| Thiamine |
c5703543-c181-4ece-87b6-0926c5c4d602 | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Area Postrema There are four areas which lie outside the blood brain barrier : these areArea postremaOrganum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT)Subfornical organ (SFO)The posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) and the adjacent ventral part of the median eminence of the hypothalamus.These areas are also called as circumventricular organs. | Anatomy | Meninges & Blood Vessels of the Brain | Which area is out of the blood brain barrier
A. Thalmus
B. Cerebral cortex
C. IV ventricle
D. Area postrema
| Area postrema |
ed38a070-5602-44c2-bd75-c92db9e05cef | Mifepristone is anti-progesterone as well as mild glucocoicoid blocker.Ketoconazole, Mitotane, and Trilostane inhibits the synthesis of glucocoicoidsRef: Goodman Gillman 12th ed.Pg: 1184 | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Which among the following is the Glucocoicoid receptor blocker?
A. Mifepristone
B. Ketoconozole
C. Mitotane
D. Trilostane
| Mifepristone |
687972dc-f09c-44b5-841d-52a9572311ee | Drugs that can decrease Angiotensin 2 activity- ACE inhibitors e.g. Enalapril Angiotensin receptor blocker e.g. Valsaan Combination of ACE inhibitor and NEP inhibitors e.g.Omapatrilat. Nesiritide- Recombinant BNP | Pharmacology | CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction | Which of these drugs DOES NOT decrease angiotensin II activity:
A. Enalapril
B. Valsaan
C. Nesiritide
D. Omapatrilat
| Nesiritide |
eefa4f99-fe11-4eec-93eb-e0e0edfc19b1 | Ref: Robbins Pathology, 9th ed. pg. 809* Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant disorder in which patients develop numerous colorectal adenomas as teenagers.* Robbins states: "Colorectal adenocarcinoma develops in 100% of untreated FAP patients, often before age 30 and nearly always by age 50"* As a result, prophylactic colectomy is the standard therapy for individuals carrying APC mutations. Colectomy prevents colorectal cancer, but patients remain at risk for neoplasia at other sites.* FAP is also associated with a variety of extraintestinal manifestations:# Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium# Gardner syndrome and# Turcot syndrome | Pathology | Neoplasia | In a FAP patient which is an important CA risk
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Brain tumor
C. Colorectal CA
D. Prostate CA
| Colorectal CA |
d7f0b096-580a-4bcf-8fc1-eb18c759aaa6 | Ans. C: Traumatic cataract Rosette Cataract: This opacity may occur as a result of concussion injury, under the anterior or posterior coex or both and may be complete or sectored with a flower peddle or feather shape. A very close estimation as to when the injury occurred by viewing the lens with an optic section and determining at which nucleus it appears. | Ophthalmology | null | Rosette shaped cataract in
A. Senile cataract
B. Diabetic cataract
C. Traumatic cataract
D. After cataract
| Traumatic cataract |
69b754b1-1633-47e2-b0a8-10430699d64d | Epithelium of ureter developed from Mesonephric duct as the ureteric bud. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Epithelium of ureter develops from
A. Mesonephros
B. Metanephros
C. Pronephros
D. Paramesonephric duct
| Mesonephros |
c4a35e73-c8b3-48ad-a8d0-86c4ac9f74ee | Ans. (d) Physiological drainage* The image shows Enteric drainage of pancreas.* This is more physiological and there are less urinary complications.* Disadvantage is difficulty in measuring amylase level which is easy in bladder drainage. | Surgery | Transplantation | The advantage of this type of pancreatic drainage in pancreas transplant is:
A. Easy measure of amylase
B. Fast diagnosis of rejection
C. Less amount of leak
D. Physiological drainage
| Physiological drainage |
a5b90d0b-3047-401a-8a8a-c8f1beca4822 | Answer- C. ErythropoetinErytheropoetin InjectionsErythropoietins available for use as therapeutic agents are produced by recombinant DNA technology in cell culture, They are used in treating anemia resulting from chronic kidney disease, chemotherapy induced anemia in patients with cancer, inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis). | Surgery | null | Not used for intravascular volume maintainence is
A. Hydroxy ethyl starch
B. Dextran
C. Erythropoetin
D. Gelatin
| Erythropoetin |
7b6aa345-75df-448f-883a-1a9159b07084 | Behavioral therapy is learning given by BF Skinner , according to him all behaviors are learned phenomenon and thus can be unlearned Positive reinforcement a type of reinforcement when a behavior is rewarded there is more chance that the behavior is repeated Negative reinforcement is that when a behavior is done and an aversive response is removed, the behavior is repeated. When I go and meet my girlfriend, she checks my messages and picks up fight (aversive response) suddenly I delete all messages one day and that day there was no fight (no aversive response) then that behavior is repeated (delete all messages before meeting my girlfriend) Extinction is the type of reinforcement where a behavior is done and a rewarding response is removed the chance is that behavior will not be repeated A child likes to play with children( reward) but when the child fights with other children( undesirable behavior) the child will be removed from playing( removing a reward) , then the child stops fighting with other children( reduction of undesirable behaviour) Ref. kaplon and sadock synopsis, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 | Psychiatry | Treatment in psychiatry | reinforcrmrnt theory in management of behavioral issues was given by
A. lorenz
B. skinner
C. seligman
D. mary ainswoh
| skinner |
5d0eea9e-9b6b-4c78-9117-52edaeb98f2f | Propofol produces quick induction(30 sec) and rapid recovery(4 min)from a single dose. Because of rapid recovery it is preferred for day cases. Thiopentone duration of action is 4-7min. And ketamine10-15min but amnesia lasts for 1-2 hours. From padmaja 4th edition Page no 194, 195, 196 | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | Which of the following agents is used for day care surgery?
A. Propofol
B. Thiopentone
C. Diazepam
D. Ketamine
| Propofol |
bf3ccd04-5eb7-4efa-aad9-c83fae9b934e | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Esmolol Nodalol is longest acting b-blocker. Esmolol is shoest acting b-blocker. Acebutolol possesses all activities i.e., cardioselectivity, paial agonist activity, membrane stablizing activity and lipid insolubility. | Pharmacology | null | Shorest acting beta blocker ?
A. Esmolol
B. Nodalol
C. Acebutolol
D. Sotalol
| Esmolol |
8d10230a-6500-40e7-b6d9-e55f8c5493db | (a) Aspergillus species(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 732)The most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycosis is Aspergillus fumigatus. | ENT | Paranasal Sinuses | Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycosis?
A. Aspergillus species
B. Histoplasma
C. Conidiobolus coronatus
D. Candida albicans
| Aspergillus species |
c9944c68-ad7e-4039-8966-a3ec8eb05c4a | Koilocytes are indicative of HPV-infected epithelial cells. Viral infection causes intracytoplasmic vacuolation that is apparent in cytopathologic and histopathologic preparations. Donovan bodies represent macrophages stuffed with numerous C.(Donovania) granulomatis organisms. Clear cells are characteristic of clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Paget cells are characteristic large cells surrounded by a clear, halo-like area that occur in Paget disease of the vulva and Paget disease of the breast. | Pathology | Female genital Tract | An 18-year-old woman presents for follow-up of an abnormal Pap smear that revealed an abnormality suggestive of HPV infection. Which of the following was the likely cytopathologic finding?
A. Donovan bodies
B. Koilocytes
C. Clear cells
D. Fibroids
| Koilocytes |
f5c17c42-1bb5-405a-8721-cad392e0488f | Case-control study yields only estimate of relative risk Coho study yields incidence rates, relative risks as well as attributable risk (refer pgno:79 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Advantage of case control over coho study
A. Attributable risk can be calculated
B. Odds ratio can be calculated
C. For rare disease
D. Bias is minimum
| Odds ratio can be calculated |
a3dca328-6cdb-4036-bf73-41498f711615 | Ans- B 2 week PUERPERAL SEPSIS DEFINITION Puerperal sepsis is any bacterial infection of the genital tract which occurs after the birth of a baby. It is usually more than 24 hours after delivery before the symptoms and signs appear. Some of the most common bacteria are: streptococci staphylococci escherichia coli (E.coli) clostridium tetani clostridium welchii chlamydia gonococci SYMPTOMS AND SIGNS are fever (temperature of 38degC or more) chills and general malaise lower abdominal pain tender uterus subinvolution of the uterus purulent, foul-smelling lochia. light vaginal bleeding shock. RISK FACTORS Some women are more vulnerable to puerperal sepsis, including anaemia and/or malnourished, protracted labour, prolonged rupture of the membranes, frequent vaginal examinations, a traumatic delivery, caesarean section and retained placental fragments, PPH, diabetes all predispose to puerperal infection. SITES The most common site of infection in puerperal sepsis is the placental site. Other sites of infection are abdominal and perineal wounds following surgery and lacerations of the genital tract, e.g. cervix, vagina and perineum. Following delivery, puerperal sepsis may be localized in the perineum, vagina, cervix or uterus. Infection of the uterus can spread rapidly if due to virulent organisms, or if the mother's resistance is impaired. It can extend beyond the uterus to involve the fallopian tubes and ovaries, to the pelvic cellular tissue causing parametritis , to the pelvic peritoneum, causing peritonitis , and into the blood stream causing septicaemia DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS Fever in the puerperium can also be caused by: urinary tract infection (acute pyelonephritis) wound infection (e.g. scar of caesarean section) mastitis or breast abscess thrombo-embolic disorders, e.g. thrombophlebitis or deep vein thrombosis respiratory tract infections | Unknown | null | Puerperal sepsis/infection occurs up to?
A. 1 week
B. 2 week
C. 3 week
D. 4 week
| 2 week |
4178435a-a846-4002-84de-807d254f4ff1 | Meningiomas are most common primary intracranial tumors which arise from the duramater and more precisely from the arachnoid cells. They are dural based tumors most commonly found adjacent to the venous sinuses and dural infoldings. They are characteristically slightly hyperdense and enhance on contrast administration. The lesion in the question being an intradural enhancing tumor points towards the diagnosis of meningioma. Ref: Microneurosurgery By Mahmut Gazi Ya?argil, Chad D. Abernathey; pages 134 - 138; Ct of the Head and Spine By Norbe Hosten, Thomas Liebig; pages 152 - 156. | Radiology | null | A 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of the lower limb with difficulty in micturition. CT scan shows an intradural mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The likely diagnosis is:
A. Meningioma
B. Intradermal Lipoma
C. Neuroepithelial Cyst
D. Dermoid Cyst
| Meningioma |
3251e3a8-0b23-481c-bd06-49fc4f9b980e | Investigation of choice for pancreatic carcinoma → CT scan (CECT)
Most sensitive test for pancreatic carcinoma → Endoscopic ultrasound. | Radiology | null | Most sensitive investigation of pancreatic carcinoma is –
A. Angiography
B. ERCP
C. Ultrasound
D. CT scan
| Ultrasound |
486aea84-4a31-4192-ac14-fc67f3bdc016 | Filamentous fungi eg.Aspergillus,fusarium,Alternaria,Cephalosporium,Curvularia and Pencillium are septate multicellular fungi.Mucor and rhizopus are non-septate fungi.Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,6th edition,page no.106 | Ophthalmology | Cornea and sclera | Microscopy of corneal ulcer showed branching septate hyphae. The probable diagnosis -
A. Candida
B. Mucor mycosis
C. Aspergillus
D. Histoplasma
| Aspergillus |
fd0d7d5d-d49a-4ce2-a06e-35ab9cbd92d4 | Ans. D. The inter relation and arrangement of a polypeptides in the protein with more than 2 polypeptides chains)a. Protein that contain two or more polypeptide chains associated by non-covalent forces are said tob. exhibit quaternary structure.c. The arrangement sequence of amino-acids in the polypeptide chain -- is primary structure of protein.d. Inter relation of amino-acids in polypeptide chain is -- secondary structure. | Biochemistry | Secondary, Tertiary and Quaternary Structure of Proteins | Quaternary structure of protein is:
A. The arrangement sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain
B. Inter relation between amino acids in a single polypeptide chain
C. Inter relation of amino acid in 2 polypeptide chains
D. The inter relation and arrangement of polypeptides in a protein with more than 2 polypeptides chains
| The inter relation and arrangement of polypeptides in a protein with more than 2 polypeptides chains |
c22cea91-4b68-4a51-b3b0-9332d3464582 | Dense-Deposit Disease (type II MPGN) Resulting in excessive activation of the alternative complement pathway. Normally, this C3 convease is labile, but more than 70% of patients with dense-deposit disease have a circulating autoantibody termed C3 nephritic factor (C3NeF) that binds the alternative pathway C3 convease and protects it from inactivation. | Pathology | Membranous Glomerulopathy and Membranoproliferative Glomerulopathy | C-3 nephritic factor is associated with which of the following conditions?
A. MPGN Type 1
B. MPGN Type 2
C. Membranous nephropathy
D. Minimal change disease
| MPGN Type 2 |
d3f5c16c-f7f7-4848-8c3e-754df71f6520 | Ans: C (DNA damage) Ref: General Principles of Radiation Therapy by Gary J Schreiber, Medscape and Perez and Brady's Principles and Practice of Radiation Oncology, Edited by Edward C. Halperin, 5 Ed, pg 10Explanation:" The exact mechanism of cell death due to radiation is still an area of active investigation. A large body of evidence supports double- stranded breaks of nuclear DNA as the most important cellular effect of radiation. This breakage leads to irreversible loss of the reproductive integrity of the cell and eventual cell deathRef: MedscapeThe biologic effect of ionizing radiation are largely the result of DNA damage, which is caused directly by ionization within the DNA molecule or indirectly from the action of chemical radicals formed as a result of local inoizations in water.The general forms of DNA damage are:A) Base damage DNA protein cross linking Single strand breaksD) Double strand breaksE) Complex combination of all these | Radiology | Physics of Radiotherapy | Principle of Radiotherapy is:
A. Necrosis of cells
B. Coagulation of proteins
C. DNA damage
D. Ionization of tissues
| DNA damage |
214f597d-93de-4b0b-b942-b4b943565626 | Pulse labeling with tetracycline allows detection of rate of formation of osteoid.Two discrete tetracycline lines in tissue section separated in space can reflect the formation of bone that occurred between two oral administrations of tetracycline.The distance between the two labels can be measured and constitute the quantity of mineral deposited between those two lines during the period in which labeling did not take place. This, often referred to as the mineralization rate or calcification rate. Ref: Ohopaedic Pathology By Vincent J. Vigorita, M.D., Bernard Ghelman, M.D., Douglas Mintz, M.D., 2008, Page 106. | Pathology | null | The rate of bone mineralization is identical to the rate of osteoid production. The rate of newly synthesized osteoid is best estimated by:
A. Plain X-ray
B. Tetracycline labeling
C. Alizarin red stain
D. Von kossa for calcium
| Tetracycline labeling |
3590fa04-015c-4b54-b541-408abaebebe3 | Chloral Hydrate is an aldehyde compound that is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase in the liver to its active metabolite, trichloro ethanol. In vitro studies have suggested that trichloroethanol acts upon GABA receptors in a manner similar to barbiturates and benzodiazepines. It is a chemical irritant to the skin and mucous membranes and is associated with a high rate of nausea and vomiting, particularly when administered on an empty stomach. After oral administration, the drug was characterized by a slow onset time (30 to 60 minutes) and had a duration of action of 4 to 8 hours, with an elimination half-life of 8 to 11 hours. Children given chloral hydrate would often enter a period of disinhibition resulting in excitement and irritability before reaching a level of clinically useful sedation. Large doses sensitize the myocardium to the effects of epinephrine, resulting in arrhythmias. The lethal dose of chloral hydrate is stated to be 10 g in adults, yet ingestion of 4 g has been associated with a fatal outcome. Chloral hydrate is no longer available commercially in the United States, but is included here because of its history in pediatric dentistry and references in the pediatric dentistry literature. | Dental | null | A 5 year old male patient presents with a complaint of multiple decayed teeth. His previous dental treatment was deferred because of uncooperative behavior. Which of the following drugs cannot be used for the pharmacological management of the patient’s behavior?
A. Midazolam
B. Chloral hydrate
C. Fentanyl
D. Naloxone
| Chloral hydrate |
f99a343d-140f-43b5-ac18-543381cbbfa6 | Role of different mediators in Inflammation | Pathology | null | Most important mediator of chemotaxis is:
A. C3b
B. C5a
C. C5-7
D. C2
| C5a |
8fe794b8-7cd6-49eb-bdbe-16ea3ee07d57 | Cardiac pacemakers and ferromagnetic hemostatic clips in CNS (aneurysmal clip) are absolute contraindications for MRI. | Radiology | null | Absolute C/I of MRI is – a) Pacemakerb) Pregnancy at 1st trimesterc) Aneurysmal clipd) Phobia
A. a
B. ac
C. ad
D. b
| ac |
df08dc2a-6198-42de-9688-486261432953 | The first human protein produced by rDNA technology is Insulin. Production of recombinant Insulin: NOTE: Gene coding for insulin is localized on 11p15 site of chromosome. | Biochemistry | Techniques in molecular biology | The first human protein produced by rDNA technology:
A. Insulin
B. Growth hormone
C. Albumin
D. Casein
| Insulin |
dfffbc42-51c5-482b-ab55-a65d3cbe38ea | Ans. D: Toxoplasma The most common method of laboratory diagnosis of toxoplasma gondii is by serology like Sabin-Feldman dye test, indirect immunofluorescence, indirect haemagglutination, complement fixation and ELISA. Sabin-Feldman dye test is based on the specific inhibition by antibody of the staining of the trophozoite by alkaline methylene blue. | Microbiology | null | Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of: March 2005, 2009 and September 2007
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Babesia
C. Pneumocystis
D. Toxoplasma
| Toxoplasma |
e742c910-be61-421c-b8e9-e599e091aa98 | Conserved mutation means altered AA has same properties of original AA. e.g. glutamic acid to aspartic acid (both acidic) or alanine to leucine (both aliphatic). | Biochemistry | null | Which of these is a conservative mutator
A. Glutamic acid-glutamine
B. Histidine-glycine
C. Alanine-leucine
D. Arginine-aspartic acid
| Alanine-leucine |
c3d9a8ee-cc55-4343-8f70-67cb1b444cdf | Ans. c (Criminal responsibility). (Ref. Parikh, FMT, 5th ed., 538).The following are the tests for determining criminal responsibility of Insane.1. Me. Naughten Rule: "An accused person is not legally responsible, if it is clearly proved, that at the time of committing the crime, he was suffering from such a defect of reason from abnormality of mind, that he did not know the nature and quality of the act he was doing, or that what he was doing was wrong".This Legal test has been accepted in India as the Law of criminal responsibility and is included in Sec. - 84 IPC2. Durham Rule (1954)3. Curren's Rule (1961)4. The Irresistible Impulse Test5. The American Law Institute Test. | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | McNaughten's rule relates to?
A. Inquest
B. Professional secrecy
C. Criminal responsibility of insane
D. Medical negligence
| Criminal responsibility of insane |
bc9f7f85-860e-442f-9540-4ab88d22feb7 | Sterols are molecules with the cyclopentano-perhydro-phenanthrene (CPP) nucleus Sitosterol Plant (phyto) sterol Ergosterol Fungal (myco) sterol Cholesterol Animal (zoo) sterol Plant sterols (sitosterol) | absorption of cholesterol Sitosterolemia Autosomal recessive disorder Defects in either ABCG5 or ABCG8 | Plant sterol levels Xanthomas Atherosclerosis | Biochemistry | Chemistry of Lipids | Which of the following is a phytosterol?
A. Sitosterol
B. Cholesterol
C. Ergosterol
D. Calcitriol
| Sitosterol |
27521073-b3a3-4600-8569-168b880e850c | Ans. (d) 100(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 809; 8th/pg 820-824)Classic FAP -At least 100 polyps are necessary for a diagnosis QAttenuated FAP-lower number of adenomatous polyps (around 30) | Pathology | G.I.T. | The minimum number of polyps necessary for a diagnosis of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) is:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 50
D. 100
| 100 |
7477d662-1994-4416-a9a2-e5f922a937c1 | Answer- B. Diffusionchondrocytes within the matrix must receive nutrients and oxygen by diffusion from vessels that lie outside the cailage. | Surgery | null | Nutrient and oxygen reach the chondrocytes across perichondrium by -
A. Capillaries
B. Diffusion
C. Along neurons
D. Active transpo
| Diffusion |
6ddae8c9-b3d0-4b7c-8aac-74ad61df9916 | Ans. (a) Fungal corneal ulcerRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. H06, Khurana 4th ed./100* Fungal corneal ulcer aka fungal keratitis is most commonly caused by Aspergillus fusarium. Patient in this condition presents with history of trauma with vegetative matter.* Symptoms shown by patients here are milder than signs. Signs are dry looking, greyish white corneal ulcers with feather finger like extensions (due to hypae)Signs of Fungal Keratitis:* Satellite nodule (satellite lesion present around ulcer)* Large organized hypopion (non-sterile)* Immune ring of pessaryPredisposing factors- topical steroids, organic matter. Worst prognosis.Treatment: 5% natamycin or .2%fluconazole for 6-8 weeks. | Ophthalmology | Inflammations of the Cornea | In which of the following corneal ulcers signs are more than symptoms:
A. Fungal corneal ulcer
B. Bacterial corneal ulcer
C. Viral corneal ulcer
D. Herpetic corneal ulcer
| Fungal corneal ulcer |
afbb5795-23fe-4531-8262-5e7e248ef4ae | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4th archAll cailages of larynx (except arytenoid) are derived from 4th arch - epiglottis, cricoid, thyroid, corniculate and conciform.Arytenoid is derived from 6" arch.See explanation-8 of session-1.NoteDevelopment of laryngeal cailages is controversial. According to some textbooks, all laryngeal cailages are derived from 4th arch, except arytenoids, which is developed from 6th arch. But some other textbooks say that thyroid, epiglottis and cuneiform are derived from 4th arch whereas corniculate, arytenoid and cricoid are derived from 6" arch.However, there is no confusion about following facts :?All cailages of larynx are developed from 4th and 6" arch.Epiglottis, thyroid and cuneiform are derived from 4" arch. | Anatomy | null | Epiglottis is derived from ?
A. 3rdeg arch
B. 4th arch
C. 5th arch
D. 6th arch
| 4th arch |
c9732f2e-e76d-4e1b-a347-f91211902088 | Suicide is a psychiatric emergency. Suicide is preventable and can be identified early using a scale called as SAD PERSONS scale. Other impoant psychiatric emergencies are neuroleptic malignant syndrome Serotonin syndrome Agitated patient Ref.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 763 | Psychiatry | Treatment in psychiatry | Which of the following is a psychiatric emergency
A. Capgras syndrome
B. Suicide
C. Acute schizophrenia
D. Cocaine use
| Suicide |
40b45dd5-4c82-4f83-a79e-84b84412ea24 | Ans. B. Rate of absorptionCSF pressure depends primarily upon Rate of absorption because the rate of the formation is fairly constant. | Physiology | Nervous System | CSF pressure depends primarily upon?
A. Rate of formation from choroid plexus
B. Rate of absorption
C. Cerebral blood flow
D. Blood pressure
| Rate of absorption |
f95e98e7-2cf2-4d66-805c-e66ab18e8383 | Marked structures are as follows: A: Posterior arch of atlas; B: Foramen transversarium; C: Anterior arch; D: Superior aicular facet. Veebral aery has 4 pas: V1 - Preforaminal (from subclan aery to transverse foramen of C6) V2 - Foraminal (through the transverse foramina of C6 to C2) V3 - Extradural (from the transverse foramen of axis to the veebral canal) V4 - Intradural (from the veebral canal to the inferior border of pons) The given diagram is atlas veebra (superior view) and marker A shows the posterior arch of atlas, which is related to the third pa of veebral aery. | Anatomy | Head and neck blood supply and scalp | Third pa of veebral aery is related to which marked area in the following diagram
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
| A |
7f9c34b6-da51-4091-8a43-62c347d738c7 | <img src=" /> Image ref - Harrison internal medicine 20e p541 | Medicine | Oncology | Which one of the following is not a non-metastatic complication of malignancies -
A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Elevated ALP
C. Cerebellar digeneration
D. Polymyositis
| Elevated ALP |
3743f9b6-55d8-4570-9ae8-a6a6eff9ed5d | Ans. a. Malignant otitis externa Presence of a painful lesion in the external ear with the evidence of granulation tissue and associated cranial nerve palsies (VII nerve) in a diabetic (or immunocompromised) patient suggest a diagnosis of malignant otitis externa. | ENT | null | A 68-year-old diabetic male presents with persistent ear discharge with fever and headache. He complained of pain out of propoion. On examination, granulations and tenderness are observed on the floor of the external auditory canal along with facial nerve palsy. He is not responding to antibiotics. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Malignant otitis externa
B. Malignant disease of middle ear
C. Malignant disease of nasopharynx
D. Chronic otitis externa
| Malignant otitis externa |
7967fa7f-d04f-4e69-8294-b03a45831284 | Ans. (b) Ornithine* Polyamines like spermine, spermidine and putrescine metabolite are produced from L-ornithine by action of ODC (ornithine decarboxylase).* S-Adenosylmethionine, the methyl group donor for many biosynthetic processes, also participates directly in spermine and spermidine biosynthesis. | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Polyamine like putrescine is derived from:
A. Arginine
B. Ornithine
C. Yohimibine
D. Arginosuccine
| Ornithine |
4420be68-9847-44e1-bdf6-5f3f77dd5bc2 | Most of the side effects of steroids are mainly hoarseness, oropharyngeal candidiasis, decreased growth in children with adrenal suppression.
• The plausible explanation is that since these drugs are inhaled, they avoid the first pass metabolism that orally administered steroids undergo and hence have a preponderance to cause the usual manifestations of steroid toxicity. | Pharmacology | null | Which is the most common side effect of inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate:
A. Oropharyngeal candidiasis
B. Pneumonia
C. Atrophic rhinitis
D. Pituitary adrenal suppression
| Oropharyngeal candidiasis |
42565e78-1a10-4ea7-8be5-17ab9071578e | Granuloma with necrosis
TB → caseous necrosis
Syphilis → caseous necrosis
Coccidiodomycosis → caseous necrosis
Histoplasmosis → caseous necrosis
Wegner’s granulomatosis – Non-caseous necrosis | Pathology | null | Lung granuloma with necrosis are seen in -a) PANb) TBc) Histoplasmosisd) Cryptococcosise) Wegener's granulomatosis
A. bce
B. bc
C. acd
D. ace
| bce |
679de40e-f99a-4754-977c-709e449f77af | Family Togaviridae includes Genus Alphavirus --> Western Equine Encephalitis (WEE) , Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE) , Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis (VEE) and Chikungunya fever (CGF) Genus Rubivirus --> Rubella Rubella: Aka German measles. I.P - 14-21 days Source : cases Mode of transmission : Respiratory / air droplets Period of communicability: 1 week before symptoms & 1 week after rash. Vaccine: Live attenuated; RA 27/3 strain | Social & Preventive Medicine | NEET 2019 | Rubella is caused by
A. Ohomyxovirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Toga virus
D. Arbovirus group B
| Toga virus |
89d575df-be3e-45e7-9cd8-ffca62b43d45 | Cardiac motion is visible when embryo reaches length of 5mm. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Cardiac motion is visible with trans vaginal imaging when the embryo length has reached
A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm
| 5 mm |
5da95ef6-58ce-4a7b-a615-bada03ae000f | according to scott Brown 7/e,p 1441 M/C Organism causing sinusitis in adults is also Streptococcus pneumoniae followed by H.influenza. In childreb M/C is streptococcus pnuemonia followef by both H.influenza and moraxella catarrhalis. | ENT | Nose and paranasal sinuses | Common organisms causinh sinusitis:
A. pseudomonas
B. Moraxella catarrhalis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. H.influenza
| Streptococcus pneumoniae |
cf9575c8-de22-456e-be6b-bcb00eeb6fb5 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., MGIT o Mycobacterial growth indicator tube (MGIT) is an automated liquid culture method. It contains 7 ml of modified Middle brook 7 H9 Broth base.Media for tubercular bacilliSolid mediaLiquid mediao L.J. mediumo Dorset mediumo Petragnini mediumo Loeffer mediumo Tarshis mediumo Duboso Middle brook'so Sula'so Sautan'so Proskauer and Beck's | Microbiology | Mycobacteria | Liquid medium for tuberculosis -
A. LJ medium
B. Dorset medium
C. Loeffler's medium
D. MGIT
| MGIT |
40e079b4-fa2d-40fd-9b98-a7f9aa9138b9 | C i.e. Pauciaicular JRA Anterior Uveitis is more common in pauciaicular seronegative (i.e. RA factor negative) IRA Q than in polyaicular JRA or systemic JRA. Seropositivity for ANA factor in pauciaicular JRA predisposes to uveitis. Most of the times the term "Seronegative" or "Seropositive" is used in relation to RA factor. Juvenile Idiopathic Ahritis (JIA) Juvenile idiopathic ahritis (JIA) is an chronic inflammatory ahritis of 6 weeks (Kanski)/at least 3 months (Yanoff) duration in a child younger than 16 years of age, when all other causes of ahritis (eg infection, metabolic, neoplasm etc) have been excluded. Females are more commonly affected (F:M 3:2). JIA is not the same as juvenile rheumatoid ahritis (]RA); the former is negative for rheumatoid factor whereas JRA is positive. JRA is rheumatoid ahritis that occurs before the age of 16 years. HA is the most common disease associated with childhood anterior uveitisQ which is usually asymptomatic, bilateral, chronic and nongranulomatous anterior uveitisQ. | Ophthalmology | null | Uveitis is associated most commonly with:
A. Rheumatoid ahritis
B. Systemic JRA
C. Pauciaicular JRA
D. Polyaicular JRA
| Pauciaicular JRA |
63ab01b7-a1c5-4512-827c-3f4c35f4480e | Endotoxins heat stable lipopolysaccharides which form an integral pa of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. Their toxicity depends on the lipid component. They are released only by the disintegration of the cell wall. They cannot be toxoided. They are poor antigens and their toxicity is not completely neutralized by the homologous antibodies. They are active only in relatively large doses Diagrammatic representation of lipopolysaccharide has been given Above Ref: Ananthanarayan & paniker's Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition pg no 74 | Microbiology | general microbiology | The Endotoxin from the gram-negative organism is -
A. Polysaccharide
B. Glycoprotein
C. Lipoprotein
D. Lipopolysaccharide
| Lipopolysaccharide |
dfab15b9-6f3e-4e79-9673-a06e444aae69 | Ans. B: Bacillus cereus and D: Staphylococcus Incubation period of food poisoning due to: Clostridium perfringenes: 6-24 hours Bacillus cereus-It produces atleast 2 distinct enterotoxins. One, the emetic form with a sho incubation period (1-6 hours) characterized by predominantly upper gastrointestinal tract symptoms, rather like staphylococcal food poisoning. The other, the diarrheal form, with a longer incubation period (12-24 hours) characterized by predominantly lower intestinal symptoms like clostridium perfringenes food poisoning. The toxins are preformed and stable. Salmonella typhi- 12-24 hours Staphylococcus- 1-6 hours. The incubation is sho because of preformed toxins. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | A person has episodes of vomiting 6 hrs after consuming milk. Organism responsible for this may be: March 2009
A. Clostridium perfringenes
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Staphylococcus
| Bacillus cereus |
8c175844-e64d-4b1d-8593-2796cf77f8b0 | Answer A. Squamous-cell carcinomaSquamous-cell carcinoma is the correct answer. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common risk factor for squamous-cell carcinoma of the penis, as is the case here. HPV can also cause cervical cancer in women. The presence of metastasis to the inguinal lymph nodes is a poor prognostic factor for survival. Primary prevention, education, and vaccination are important to reduce the occurrence of HPV infection and its associated cancers. | Medicine | Miscellaneous | What is the most likely diagnosis of this penile lesion found in a 54-year-old man with lymphadenopathy and weight loss?
A. Squamous-cell carcinoma
B. Syphilis
C. Extramammary Paget disease
D. Condyloma acuminatum
| Squamous-cell carcinoma |
22fb5177-95b8-4a83-a4d9-9a0482f9e3cc | The tentorium cerebelli is a tent-shaped fold of dura mater, forming the roof of the posterior cranial fossa.It separates the cerebellum from the occipital lobes of the cerebrum and broadly divides the cranial cavity into supratentorial and infratentorial compaments. The infratentorial compament, in other words, is the posterior cranial fossa containing the hindbrain and the lower pa of the midbrain. The posterior cranial fossa is supplied chiefly by recurrent branches from first, second and third cervical spinal nerves and paly by meningeal branches of the ninth and tenth cranial nerves. Ref: BD Chaurasia; Volume 3; 6th edition; Page no: 92 | Anatomy | Head and neck | The infratentorial dura is supplied by branches of the
A. Upper cervical spinal nerves and the vagus nerve
B. Accessory and upper cervical nerve
C. Only upper cervical nerves
D. Only vagus nerve
| Upper cervical spinal nerves and the vagus nerve |
f1816e09-9f74-4aff-9c2d-42e3cce27cf3 | Malassezia furfur does not grow on regular sabouraud's medium.
It requires complex media to grow
M. furfur is a lipid-dependent fungus and 1% emulsified olive oil is added to sabouraud medium for its cultivation
Two media are now widely employed for all Malassezia species.
Dixon medium
Modified Dixon medium | Microbiology | null | Which of the following fungi is/are difficult to isolate culture -
A. Candida
B. Dermatophytes
C. Cryptococcus
D. Malassezia furfur
| Malassezia furfur |
737ca460-3caa-4150-a6cc-d8d8cdafcf67 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pneumococcus o Most common infection after splenectomy is by - streptococcus pneumoniae ( -50-90% of cases )o Other common bacteria! infections:Haemophilous influenzae type BMeningiococcusGroup A streptococcuso Common Protozoan inf. after splenectomy are:BabesiaEhrlichiaMalariao No increased risk of viral infection has been noted with splenectomy.o Reason for increased infectionThis occurs because the spleen looses its ability to filter and phagocytose bacteria and parasitized blood cells.Splenectomy also results in loss of significant source of antibody production.o Also knowo Hematological effect of splenectomy -Immediatley after splenectomyLeucocytosisThrombocytosis# These levels return to normal within 2-3 weeksChronic manifestationsAnisocytosis and poikilocytosisHowell jelly bodies (nuclear remnants)Heinz bodies (denatured hemoglobin)Basophilic stipling and occasional nucleated erythrocyteo Contraindication to splenectomy : presence of marrow failure: here the enlarged spleen is the only source of hematopoietic tissue. | Surgery | Consequences and Complications of Splenectomy | Asplenic pt-more susceptible to-
A. Staphylococcus
B. Pseudomonas
C. Neisseria
D. Pneumococcus
| Pneumococcus |
03b3a6eb-ff90-4808-9f9e-62e5b15cf1cc | ADVERSE EFFECT OF PHENYTOIN: H - Hirsutism , Hyperophy of gums O - Osteomalacia T - Teratogenicity M - Megaloblastic anemia A - Ataxia and nystagmus L - Lymphadenopathy I - Inhibits insulin release (hyperglycemia) K - Vitamin K deficiency A - Arrhythmias | Pharmacology | Epilepsy | Which of the following antiepileptic drugs can cause hirsutism in a 30 year old woman?
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Valproate
D. Ethosuximide
| Phenytoin |
11799786-9b3e-44bc-a5a9-aded5b690bbb | Domperidone crosses blood brain barrier poorly. The anti-emetic action is exeed mainly through CTZ which is not protected by blood brain barrier. Because of poor entry into CNS, it does not block the therapeutic effect of Levodopa in Parkinsonism, but counteracts its dose limiting emetic action. It is a D2 receptor antagonist, chemically related to haloperidol, but pharmacologically related to Metoclopramide. | Pharmacology | Sedative-Hypnotics and Parkinsonism | DOC for Levodopa induced vomiting is?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Ondansetron
C. Doxylamine
D. Domperidone
| Domperidone |
62b825ee-10b5-4196-a508-aa1d59f07d8c | No atrial activity is detected. The ventricular rate is slightly irregular. Beat number 4 is a ventricular premature contraction. The T waves are tall and markedly peaked. This type of T wave is characteristic of hyperkalemia, as is absence of visible atrial activity.The potassium level was 8.2mmol/L. | Medicine | C.V.S. | A 78-year-old man with advanced renal disease has the ECG shown in Figure below (lead II). What is the diagnosis?
A. hyperkalemia
B. hypercalcemia
C. hypernatremia
D. pericarditis
| hyperkalemia |
4090f8ed-606f-4080-bd3b-a0951aa35d82 | Mass peristalsis Gastrocolic reflex: Facilitates appearance of mass movements after a meal. Ex., For gastrocolic reflex - Seen in early infancy. | Physiology | null | 'Gastrocolic reflex' is related with?
A. GERD
B. Mass peristalsis
C. Duodenual reflex
D. Rectoanal refelx
| Mass peristalsis |
26f9c2e9-ae0d-4f45-bdeb-811b6d06504d | Refer kDT 6/e p 102 Physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid, specifically, a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor. It occurs naturally in the Calabar bean and the Manchineel tree. The chemical was synthesized for the first time in 1935 by Percy Lavon Julian and Josef Pikl. | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | Which of the following anticholinesterase is derived from natural source
A. Physostigmine
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Neostigmine
D. Tacrine
| Physostigmine |
9e738053-13ac-47aa-b9ca-b17df28c0dde | Inapparent infection is one where the clinical effects are not apparent. the term subclinical infection is often used as synonym. Japanese encephalitis is a serious illness and there have been outbreaks in india.the disesa is abrupt in onset with fever,headache and vomiting,followed by signs of encephalitis. In epidemic the moality may approach 50%. convalescence maytake many weeks with residual neurological damage in up to 50% of cases. The disease is prevented by control of mosquitoes and locating pig farms far from human habitation. there is no satisfactory vaccine REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 8th Edition pg no :76 & 523 | Microbiology | general microbiology | Subclinical infection is common in-
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Japanese encephalitis
| Japanese encephalitis |
ba12ec5f-858f-4492-aba0-240ebddf921b | Flaccid bullae with involvement of oral mucosa suggest the diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris.
In pamphigus, there is intercellular deposition of IgG in fish-net pattern. | Dental | null | Flaccid bullae lesions with oral mucosal lesions. The finding in immunoflourescence is –
A. Fish net IgG in epidermis
B. Linear IgG in DEJ
C. Granular IgA in dermal papillae
D. Linear IgA in reticular dermis
| Fish net IgG in epidermis |
01c2c5e0-3ebf-4287-ac86-4b3ffdbec128 | Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. | Psychiatry | null | Mode of action of fluoxetine -
A. GABA agonist
B. GABA antagonist
C. Inhibit uptake of 5-HT
D. Increase uptake of 5-HT
| Inhibit uptake of 5-HT |
d828d406-81e9-4dbc-b16e-3cc8cca54904 | in Tricuspid stenosis The jugular veins are distended, and in patients with sinus rhythm there may be giant a waves. The v waves are less conspicuous, and because tricuspid obstruction impedes RA emptying during diastole, there is a slow y descent. In patients with sinus rhythm there may be prominent presystolic pulsations of the enlarged liver as well. ( Harrison&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition,pg no.1946 ) | Medicine | C.V.S | Giant&;a&;wave in JVP is seen in-
A. Junctional rhyth
B. Tricuspid regulation
C. Complete hea block
D. Tricuspid stenosis
| Tricuspid stenosis |
22765da7-fc24-447a-b705-cb0ed026521a | Retinoic Acid has a Role in the Regulation of Gene Expression and Tissue Differentiation. A major role of vitamin A is in the control of cell differentiation and turnover. All-trans-retinoic acid and 9-cis-retinoic acid regulate growth, development, and tissue differentiation Like the thyroid and steroid hormones and vitamin D, retinoic acid binds to nuclear receptors that bind to response elements of DNA and regulate the transcription of specific genes Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 550 | Biochemistry | vitamins | Which of the following vitamin has a role in the regulation of gene expression and tissue differentiation?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin B12
| Vitamin A |
8b24e102-6972-472a-ab51-6eced94758e6 | Although initially only slightly motile, spermatozoa obtains full motility in the epididymis Development of the spermSpermatogenesis is the process of spermatagonia (diploid) mature into spermatozoa (haploid).Spermioogenesis is a pa of spermatogenesis where round spermatids mature into the mature spermatozoa form.Spermatozoa acquire some motility only after passing through the epididymisThe secretions of the epididymis, seminal vesicle and the prostate have a stimulating effect on sperm motility, but the sperm becomes fully motile only after ejaculationContinuously throughout life occurs in the seminiferous tubules in the male gonad-testis.At pubey spermatagonia activate and proliferate (mitosis).About 48 days from entering meiosis until morphologically mature spermatozoaAbout 64 days to complete spermatogenesis, depending reproduction time of spermatogoniaFollicle stimulating hormone (FSH) - stimulates the spermatogenic epitheliumLuteinizing-hormone (LH) - stimulates testosterone production by Leydig cells Stages of spermatozoa developmentSpermatogonia - are the first cells of spermatogenesisPrimary spermatocytes - large, enter the prophase of the first meiotic divisionSecondary spermatocytes - small, complete the second meiotic divisionSpermatid - immature spermatozoaSpermatozoa - differentiated gamete | Anatomy | null | Sperm attains motility in:
A. Vas deferens
B. Rete testis
C. Seminal vesicle
D. Epididymis
| Epididymis |
5f90dad9-a2bc-483e-9de1-34263af11a68 | Ans. is `d' i.e., Vitamin B12 'Vitamin B is absorbed from the body in the end pa of small intestine (terminal ileum). Because this pa of the bowel is seldom damaged - by celiac disease, Vitamin Bit deficiency is not common in this condition' | Medicine | null | Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is uncommon in celiac disease
A. Vitamin D
B. Folic Acid
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin B12
| Vitamin B12 |
883d25ef-9eb3-4fd2-8ca4-b17c37214f3b | Fluoride concentration of human milk ranges from 5-10 µg/L.
These levels are found in nursing mothers living both in non-fluoridated and fluoridated areas.
Cow's milk contains 30-60 µg/L of fluoride.
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
Soben Peter 5th edition | Dental | null | The fluoride concentration of human milk ranges from:
A. 5-10 µg/L
B. 2-8 µg/L
C. 3-12 µg/L
D. 2-10 µg/L
| 5-10 µg/L |
182b4632-1826-4cf5-aef0-a8362baaeb08 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gastric Pathology Anemias of Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Pernicious Anemia Pernicious anemia is a specific form of megaloblastic anemia caused by an autoimmune gastritis that impairs the production of intrinsic factor, which is required fir vitamin B12 uptake from the gut. Histologically, there is a chronic atrophic gastriti smarked by loss of parietal cells, prominent infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells, and megaloblastic changes in mucosal cells. | Pathology | null | Pernicious anemia associated with ?
A. Gastric pathology
B. Renal pathology
C. Esophageal pathology
D. Oral pathology
| Gastric pathology |
b9217df5-0ab0-4afa-ba86-7842daf2f4e2 | Atropine is longest acting (5-6 days) whereas tropicamide is the shortest acting (15-60 min) mydriatic. | Pharmacology | null | Which is the shortest acting mydriatic ?
A. Atropine
B. Tropicamide
C. Cyclopentolate
D. Homatropine
| Tropicamide |
43ef2f8d-f6c0-473c-9d73-cac0c1ba2e00 | .Lithotomy position used for all perineal surgeries like for fissure, piles, fistula, and APR. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 913 | Surgery | Urology | The most common position adopted for surgical procedures is
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Lithotomy position
C. Supine position
D. Prone position
| Supine position |
cae5abcc-253c-43e2-9d29-f231e46007d8 | Emphysematous pyelonephritis is a form of acute necrotizing pyelonephritis secondary to a gas-producing bacteria (E coli in 66% of cases and Klebsiella in 26%). It is commonly seen in patients with poorly controlled diabetes (over 90% of cases) or in patients with upper urinary tract obstruction. The diagnosis is made by the usual signs of acute pyelonephritis and by the presence of gas in the renal collecting system and parenchyma seen on plain films, ultrasound, or CT. The condition is life threatening. Operative treatment, including nephrectomy and drainage along with antibiotics, decreases the moality rate. Ref: Cooper C.S., Joudi F.N., Williams R.D. (2010). Chapter 38. Urology. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | Microbiology | null | The MOST common organism isolated in emphysematous pyelonephritis is:
A. E. coli
B. Proteus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella
| E. coli |
fee2bf81-e87a-4744-a10e-5a7773be445d | Definitive sign of scurvy in X-rays of long bones is the white line of Frenkel,an irregular thickened line at the metaphyses representing calcified cailage at the zone ofcalcification.Other characteristic findings are ground glass appearance with thinning of coex and a zone of rarefaction under the white line of metaphysis,as a linear break in the bone running proximally and parallel to the white line.There may be spurs at the level of the white line. There may also be white rings surrounding the epiphyseal centres of ossification. Reference :Essential pediatrics-Ghai,8th edition,page no:120,121. | Pediatrics | Metabolic disorders | Definitive sign of scurvy in X-ray ?
A. Ringed epiphysis
B. Ground glass appearance
C. White line in metaphysis
D. Thin coex
| White line in metaphysis |
717245ef-a3e3-4dac-b69e-0c09992a78f8 | When will you stop the treatment in COVID 19 patient ? Two consecutive negative PCR repos atleast 24 hours apa WITH Clinico-radiological improvement | Medicine | viral infection | As a junior resident , you are managing a patient of COVID-19 . When will you stop the treatment in COVID 19 patient ?
A. Two consecutive negative PCR repos atleast 48 hours apa with Clinico-radiological improvement
B. 2 consecutive negative PCR repos atleast 24 hours apa with Clinico-radiological improvement
C. 3 consecutive negative PCR repos atleast 48 hours apa with Clinico-radiological improvement
D. 3 consecutive negative PCR repos atleast 24 hours apa with Clinico-radiological improvement
| 2 consecutive negative PCR repos atleast 24 hours apa with Clinico-radiological improvement |
4559c602-720e-4659-a495-5d6ca01e5c82 | Answer is A (Left Axis Detion): Detion of the cardiac axis more negative than -30 (Between -30 to -90) indicates Left Axis Detion. | Medicine | null | 30 To -60 degree axis detion indicates:
A. Left Axis Detion
B. Right Axis Detion
C. Extreme Right Axis Detion
D. Normal Cardiac Axis
| Left Axis Detion |
c7b5890e-a124-4891-8232-0d8d9c8da6e1 | Ans is 'b' ie. Splenic flexure "Although splenic flexure is the most common site of ischemic colitis, any segment of colon may be affected. The rectum is relatively spared because of its rich collateral circulation." | Surgery | null | Commonest site for ischemic colitis is -
A. Hepatic flexure
B. Splenic flexure
C. Descending colon
D. Ascending colon
| Splenic flexure |
78325813-54dc-497a-983b-bfc61f1c7a82 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Obesity Risk factors for hypertensionModifiableNon - modifiableo Obesity'o Salt intakeo Saturated fato Dietary fibreo Alcohol intakeo Physical activity'o Environmental stresso Socio-economic statuso Ageo Sexo Genetic factorso Ethnicity | Social & Preventive Medicine | Non-Communicable Diseases | Modifiable risk factors for hypertension is ?
A. Genetic factors
B. Age
C. Sex
D. Obesity
| Obesity |
bae3e031-c0a7-491d-beaf-4369a62dd436 | <p> Abdominal aoic aneurysm: Most commonest type of large vessel aneurysm. 95% have associated atheromatous change. 95% occur below renal aeries. Symptomatic aneurysms may cause minor symptoms such as back and abdominal discomfos, before severe sudden abdominal pain due to rupture develops. Asymptomatic aneurysms are found accidentally on physical examination. Abdominal aoic aneurysms csn rupture into anteriorly into peritoneal cavity (20%) or posterolaterally to retroperitoneal space (80%). Anterior rupture leads to free bleeding into peritoneum whereas posterior rupture leads to retroperitoneal haematoma. The patient remain conscious but in severe pain. If no operation is performed , death is inevitable. Indications for surgery:- 1. Asymptomatic aneurysm more than 5.5 cm 2. Growth rate more than 0.5 cm per year. 3. Painful tender aneurysm 4. Thrombosed aneurysm, aneurysm with distal emboli. {Reference: SRB&;s manual of surgery, 5th edition , page no. 198} | Surgery | Vascular surgery | In abdominal aoic aneurysm indication of operation is when size of aneurysm is ?
A. >4 cm
B. >5.5 cm
C. >6 cm
D. 6.6 cm
| >5.5 cm |
fda657e3-8d1b-4379-813c-7175b8f14ba3 | Psychotherapy(Dialectical behaviour therapy) is most effective in treatment of Borderline PD. Apa from it antidepressants , antipsychotics and carbamazepine can be used. Psychotherapies for Borderline Personality Disorder: Dialectical Behavior Therapy Mentalization Based Therapy (NIMHANS 2018) Transference Focused Psychotherapy | Psychiatry | Personality Disorders | Which of the following therapy is used in treatment of borderline personality disorder?
A. Modeling
B. Cognitive behavioural therapy
C. Dialectical behaviour therapy
D. Exposure and response prevention
| Dialectical behaviour therapy |
59c64d4d-7fc1-4af9-99df-eb3f3e497747 | Vaccinia infected cells show rather small multiple inclusions known as Guarnieri bodies. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:444 | Microbiology | Virology | Inclusion bodies of vaccina is known as -
A. Guarnieri bodies
B. Negri bodies
C. Asteroid bodies
D. Schuffner dots
| Guarnieri bodies |
0acd7e2a-378b-4191-9c6c-1b9885cee942 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beckwith-Wiedman syndrome o Beckwith-Wiedman syndrome has been explained -3 See wilms tumor. | Pediatrics | null | A 2 day old newborn baby presented with microcephaly, macroglossia, visceromegaly and a blood glucose level of 20 mg/d1. What is the most likely diagnosis
A. Prader-Willi syndrome
B. Beckwith Wiedman syndrome
C. Werner syndrome
D. Cockayne syndrome
| Beckwith Wiedman syndrome |
00a43ef3-ea12-4d3f-92da-546473a496cc | Severe malaria is indicated by Hyperparasitaemia (>5% parasitized RBCs in low endemic and >10% in hyperendemic areas) Ref: | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Severe malaria is indicated on peripheral smear by:
A. >2% parasitized RBCs in low endemic
B. >5% in hyperendemic areas
C. >5% parasitized RBCs in low endemic
D. >15% in hyperendemic areas 18 months
| >5% parasitized RBCs in low endemic |
eedd1645-dead-42f4-8201-6cae3c33a730 | Ans. B. Neuroleptic malignant syndromeNeuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication. Symptoms include high fever, confusion, rigid muscles, variable blood pressure, sweating, and fast heart rate. Complications may include rhabdomyolysis, high blood potassium, kidney failure, or seizures.Any medications within the family of neuroleptics can cause the condition, though typical antipsychotics appear to have a higher risk than atypicals. Onset is often within a few weeks of starting the medication but can occur at any time. Risk factors include dehydration, agitation, and catatonia. Rapidly decreasing the use of levodopa may also trigger the condition. | Psychiatry | Pharmacotherapy In Psychiatry | A 30 year old male patient who has taking haloperidol for the past 1 month is brought to the emergency department with a temperature of 103.5degF, blood pressure of 176/100 mmHg, rigidity and confusion. Which one of the following seems to be the most likely possibility?
A. Restless Legs Syndrome
B. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
C. Serotonin Syndrome
D. Malignant Hyperthermia
| Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome |
2d30c31f-4406-4202-82d3-f60bf8f78c97 | Ans. (a) ChaperonesRef Harper's Biochemistry 28/e, ch. 45y Table 45-5y & Table 45-6 | Biochemistry | Molecular Genetics | Unfolded proteins are handled by?
A. Chaperones
B. Histones
C. Proteases
D. Proteosomes
| Chaperones |
02d69a9b-99e3-4350-a029-339143244ff3 | Fragile X syndrome, the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, is caused by expansion of a CGG trinucleotide repeat in a noncoding region immediately adjacent to the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome. In a poorly understood manner, the expanded CGG repeat silences the FMR1 gene by methylation of its promoter. The abnormal repeat is associated with an inducible "fragile site" on the X chromosome, which appears in cytogenetic studies as a nonstaining gap or chromosomal break. The male newborn afflicted with the fragile X syndrome appears normal, but during childhood, characteristic features appear, including an increased head circumference, facial coarsening, joint hyperextensibility, enlarged testes, and abnormalities of the cardiac valves. Mental retardation is profound, with IQ scores varying from 20 to 60. A significant proportion of autistic male children carry a fragile X chromosome. The other choices do not cause fragile X syndrome.Diagnosis: Fragile X syndrome | Pathology | Genetics | A 25-year-old man with a history of autism and mental retardation is seen by a genetic counselor. The man has coarse facial features, an increased head circumference, and macro-orchidism. His maternal uncle is similarly affected. After further evaluation, a diagnosis of fragile X syndrome is rendered. What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's genetic disease?
A. Chromosomal nondisjunction
B. Chromosome inversion
C. Expansion of trinucleotide repeat
D. Frame-shift mutation
| Expansion of trinucleotide repeat |
854401b0-8079-4793-a19d-12dabf3504b0 | Thymus is abnormal in 75% patients with MG; 65%is hyperplastic and 10 % have thymic rumours or thymomas These patients may present with cough, chest pain, superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome, dysphagia, and hoarseness if the recurrent laryngeal nerve is involved. One third of cases are found incidentally on radiographic examinations during a workup for myasthenia gravis (MG). Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2789 | Medicine | C.N.S | Thymoma commonly presents with
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Renal failure
C. Hepatic failure
D. Testicular fiminization
| Myasthenia gravis |
772c363f-7420-4e0a-beea-5e554011b2b3 | Ans. c.18 years (Ref: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Criminal_Law_(Amendment)_Act,_2013)According to the 2013 amendment, the age for sexual consent is 18 years."The age of consent in India has been increased to 18 years, which means any sexual activity irrespective of presence of consent with a woman below 18 years of age will constitute rape.""Section 375 Sexual Assault: Sexual assault means with or without the complainant's consent, when such complainant is under eighteen years of age."The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act. 2013The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 19 March 2013. and by the Rajya Sabha on 21 March 2013. making certain changes from the provisions in the Ordinance.The Bill received Presidential assent on 2 April 2013 and came into force from 3 April 2013.The changes made in the Act in comparison with the Ordinance is listed as follows:OffenceChangesAcid attack* Fine shall be just and reasonable to meet medical expenses for treatment of victim, while in the Ordinance it was fine up to Rupees 10 lakhs.Sexual harassment* "Clause (v) any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature" has been removed.* Punishment for offence under clause (i) and (ii) has been reduced from five years of imprisonment to three years. The offence is no longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a woman.Voyeurism* The offence is no longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a woman.Stalking* The offence is no longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a woman. The definition has been reworded and broken down into clauses. The exclusion clause and the following sentence has been removed or watches or spies on a person in a manner that results in a fear of violence or serious alarm or distress in the mind of such person, or interferes with the mental peace of such person, commits the offence of stalking".* Punishment for the offence has been changed; A man committing the offence of stalking would be liable for imprisonment up to three years for the first offence, and shall also be liable to fine and for any subsequent conviction would be liable for imprisonment up to five years and with fine.Trafficking of person* "Prostitution" has been removed from the explanation clauseRape* The word sexual assault has been replaced back to rape. The offence is no longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a woman.* The clause related to touching of private parts has been removed. | Forensic Medicine | Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn | According to the 2013 amendment the age for sexual consent is:
A. 15 years
B. 16 years
C. 18 years
D. 20 years
| 18 years |
be30d004-8196-44bc-b9df-187f2d987704 | Ans. is d, i.e. Habitual abortionRef: Munrokers Operative Obstetrics 10th/ed, pl92-193; Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p204; Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p418Management: Bicornuate uterus requires surgical treatment only when it causes habitual abortions.Q"When a bicornuate or septate uterus has caused not less than 3 miscarriages and no pregnancy has resided in a viable child, surgery may be indicated." - Ref: Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p204"Surgical reconstruction of the bicornuate uterus has been advocated in women with multiple spontaneous abortions and in whom no other causative factors are identified." - Ref: William Gynae 1st/ed, p418Surgery done is: Unification surgery where an incision is made over the uterus and the 2 horns are sutured together to form a single cavity.After such a surgery: If woman conceives she should be taken up for elective LSCS at 38 weeks of gestation.Q These days hysteroscopic metroplasty is being done. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Malformation of the Female Generative Organs | The most important indication for surgical repair of a bicornuate uterus is:
A. Infertility
B. Dysmenorrhea
C. Menorrhagia
D. Habitual abortion
| Habitual abortion |
848d52f2-733f-4ed0-9c5b-8038b01ba69a | In BLL RLN palsy - VC is in median position, so speech preserved has stridor and dysphoea. | ENT | null | In Bilateral palsy of recurrent larygeal nerve there is
A. Complete loss of speech with steidor and dysphonia
B. Comlete loss of speech but no difficulty in breathing
C. Preserved speech with severe stridor and dyspnocr
D. Pressure speech with no difficulty of breating.
| Preserved speech with severe stridor and dyspnocr |
ad52c550-a6ac-4ad3-81d3-94a17615af85 | Ans. is 4d' i.e., Temazepam o BZDs with significant anticonvulsant property are diazepam, clonazepam, nitrazepam, lorazepam andflurazepam.Effects of benzodiazepineso In contrast to barbiturates, BZDs are not general depressant, but exert relatively selective anxiolytic, hypnotic, muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant effects.o The antianxiety action of BZDs is not dependent on their sedative property - with chronic administration relief of anxiety is maintained, but drowsiness wanes off due to development of tolerance.o Stage 2 sleep is increased, while REM, Stage 3 & 4 sleep are decreased,o Nitrazepam is the only benzodiazepine, which increases REM sleep.o Clonazepan and diazepam have more marked muscle relaxant property.o Clonazepam, diazepam, nitrazepam and flurazepam have more prominent anticonvulsant activity than other BZDs.o Diazepam (but not other BZDs) has analgesic action.o Diazepam produces short lasting coronary dilatation on Lv. injection.o Diazepam decreases nocturnal gastric secretion and prevents stress ulcers. | Pharmacology | C.N.S | Benzodiazepine without anticonvulsant property is -
A. Nitrazepam
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Temazepam
| Temazepam |
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