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53992cc3-3882-45b0-a669-85b9b71abb48 | Pneumothorax is defined as the presence of air in the pleural cavity, may be due to traumatic perforation of the pleura or may be spontaneous. Traumatic causes include penetrating wounds of the chest wall (e.g., stab wound or a rib fracture). Pneumothorax causes collapse of a previously expanded lung, a condition that is termed atelectasis. Chylothorax is the accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the pleural space and is a rare complication of trauma. | Pathology | Respiratory Distress Syndrome | A 16-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency room after sustaining a stab wound to the chest during a fight. Physical examination reveals a 1-cm entry wound at the right 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line. His temperature is 37degC (98.6degF), respirations are 35 per minute and blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. A chest X-ray shows air in the right pleural space. Which of the following pulmonary conditions is the expected complication of pneumothorax arising in this patient?
A. Atelectasis
B. Chylothorax
C. Diffuse alveolar damage
D. Pyothorax
| Atelectasis |
1a825afd-0748-4f95-9178-6474cecc1387 | Treatment of septic shock include aggressive fluid resuscitation and oxygen supplementation. If hypotension persists, dopamine is the drug of choice to raise aerial pressure and to maintain BP. When dopamine fails to raise BP, a potent vasopressor like nor-epinephrine is used. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1605; Septic Shock: Current Pathogenetic Concepts, Optimal Management, And Future Perspectives, George H. Sakorafas, 2005 Edition, Page 38; Essentials of Emergency Medicine, Richard Aghababian, 2nd Edition, Chapter 67, Page 333. | Medicine | null | A 70 year old man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Patient goes into renal failure and has a BP of 70/50 mm of Hg. Which of the following drugs could stabilise his blood pressure?
A. Adrenaline
B. Ephedrine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Norepinephrine
| Norepinephrine |
4ca341ca-b23e-46cc-b3c3-c9c986d9db27 | (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae # Causative Organisms of ASOM:> Most common organisms in infants and young children are Streptococcus pneumoniae (30%), Haemophilus influenzae (20%) and Moraxella catarrhalis (12%).> Other organisms include Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus & sometimes Pseudomonas aeruginosa.> In about 18-20%, no growth is seen.> Many of the strains of H. influenzae & Moraxella catarrhalis are ft-lactamase producing. | ENT | Miscellaneous (E.N.T.) | Acute Otitis media in Children is most commonly due to
A. Morexiello catarrhalis
B. H. influenza
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
| Streptococcus pneumoniae |
9470fd74-c4d0-4e9d-8785-3e859dcf7d20 | hydrogenation of ergot alkaloids decrease their vasoconstrictor action and increase the Alpha blocking activity Ref-KDT 6/e p168 | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | dihydroerigotamine differs from ergotamine in the following respect
A. It is more potent oxytocic
B. it has antimetic propey
C. it has high oral bioavailability
D. it is more potent alpha adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor
| it is more potent alpha adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor |
1f3bd4fa-791d-4911-ace5-0f4524cc6133 | No dehydration → Skin goes back immediately.
Some dehydration → There is a slight delay, but the skin has to go back within 2 seconds.
Severe dehydration → The skin goes back after 2 seconds.
From this, we can rule out No dehydration but we cannot differentiate between some dehydration and severe dehydration as the specified time is not given in the question | Pediatrics | null | A girl of 8 years suffering from vomiting and diarrhoea for last 2 days when pinched on the abdomen, skin goes within seconds. she is most likely to be suffering from –a) No dehydrationb) Some dehydrationc) Severe dehydrationd) Skin turgor cannot be commented
A. a
B. bc
C. ac
D. ad
| bc |
1eccf846-e2b1-4845-ab83-a07d86633db1 | Thromboxane A2 secreted by platelets promotes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:563 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Thromboxane A2 causes
A. Vasodilatation and platelet aggregaion
B. Vasodilatation and anti platelet aggregatory
C. Vasoconstriction and anti platelet aggregatory
D. Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregaion
| Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregaion |
fd90e1d2-b8c1-410e-81f0-df13962f6fb0 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cat scratch disease Stellate granulomaso Granuloma with characteristic central neutrophilic abscess surrounded by macrophages and other mononuclear cells are characteristic findings in lymph nodes in cat scratch disease, lymphogranuloma venereum, and tularemia. In these conditions the granulomas are often large and irregular in shape and may exhibit a stellate configuration. | Pathology | Misc. | Stellate granuloma is characteristic pathological feature of?
A. Crohn's disease
B. Cat scratch disease
C. Hodgkin's disease
D. Berrylliosis
| Cat scratch disease |
949ae36a-15fa-4ff5-8b0f-adec10464f85 | For CBD stones, endoscopic papillotomy is the preferred first technique with a sphincterotomy, removal of stones using Dormia basket or balloon catheter.ERCP can be used to remove retained CBD stones in 3 weeks of surgery. Reference: SRB&;s manual of surgery,5th edition, page no:652. | Surgery | G.I.T | The treatment of choice for an 8 mm retained common bile duct (CBD) stone is
A. Laparoscopic CBD exploration
B. Percutaneous stone extraction
C. Endoscopic stone extraction
D. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
| Endoscopic stone extraction |
30637887-5039-49da-8424-e3590a94462e | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Nagpur National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) Headquaer is at Nagpur. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | NEERI headquaer is situated at ?
A. Delhi
B. Cuttack
C. Calcutta
D. Nagpur
| Nagpur |
94acdc73-fd52-46fb-93ff-e9dd99f3290e | Ans. (c) Flocculent amorphous densities in the mitochondria(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 42; 8th/pg 19; Refer to Ans 27)Please note: myelin figures first appear in reversible cellular injury and become more pronounced in irreversible cell injury. Hence if this q was asked in PGI, answer should be both c and d. but if we have to mark one.. mark c. | Pathology | Cellular Pathology | Which finding on electron microscopy indicates irreversible cell injury:
A. Dilatation of endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Dissociation of ribosomes from rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Flocculent amorphous densities in the mitochondria
D. Myelin figures
| Flocculent amorphous densities in the mitochondria |
671b9c89-84d2-479a-9de7-4bbbb4d7ca47 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral rotation of femur Popliteuso Popliteus is a deep muscle of posterior compartment of leg.o Features of popletius are -OriginLateral surface of lateral condyle of femur, origin is intracapsular.Outer margin of lateral meniscus of knee,insertionPosterior surface of shaft of tibia above soleal line.Nerve supplyTibial nerveActionClocks knee joint by lateral rotation of femur on tibia prior flexion.Accessory flexor of knee | Anatomy | Posterior Compartment of Thigh & Popliteal Fossa | Action of popliteus muscle -
A. Medial rotation of femur
B. Lateral rotation of femur
C. L ocking of knee
D. Extension of knee
| Lateral rotation of femur |
9bfbf6d0-192d-49a2-a21a-a58ef334dc63 | Phenylketonuria is caused by deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase & /or dihydrobiopterin (BH2) reductase, which regenerates BH4 from BH2. It presents with mousy (musty) odour in urine and emerald green colour in FeC13 test. The aim of first line therapy is to limit the substrate (i.e. phenylalanine) for deficient enzyme | Biochemistry | null | Mousy odour urine is seen in:
A. Maple syrup urine
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Isovalericaciduria
D. Cystinuria
| Phenylketonuria |
4f0919ed-a427-4c7e-8076-50b2344f25d7 | Rapid (bolus) injection of contrast is preferred method. | Radiology | null | Preferred method for obtaining dense nephrograms
A. Increased concentration of contrast
B. Dehydration
C. Uretric compression
D. Rapid injection of contrast
| Rapid injection of contrast |
8abf06e5-8f22-4eb5-b9ce-ecfe86f2b563 | β-hCG levels are helpful in monitoring:
a. H. mole:
“ A method of detecting the persistent mole and development of choriocarcinoma is by estimating hCG is the serumurine”.
Shaw 14/e, p 231
b. Chorio carcinoma:
β-hCG is a specific marker for choriocarcinoma.
The levels of b-hCG are monitored following chemotherapy and complete regression of tumor is indicated when three consecutive weekly radioimmunoassays of hCG in serum are negative.
Shaw 14/e, p 235
c. Ectopic pregrancy:
In case of unruptured ectopic pregnancy which is managed medically with methotrexate or by conservative surgerymonitoring is done by estimating β-hCG levels.
“Following conservative surgery or medical treatment ,estimation of β-hCG should be done weekly till the value becomes < 5.0 mIU/ml”
Dutta Obs 6/e, p 191
d. Endodermal sinus tumor-
‘These tumors are yolk sac tumors and their markers are Alpha fetoprotein and antityrypsinso their levels and not betahCG. So hCG levels are not used for monitoring.
Shaw 14/e, p 380 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Monitoring of β-HCG Useful in Management ofa) H.moleb) Choriocarcinomac) Ectopic Pregnancyd) Endodermal Sinus Tumor
A. ab
B. abc
C. acd
D. bcd
| abc |
36352ec3-5914-4395-b644-747bc4f1c715 | Atavism means
The appearance of a characterstics presumed to have been present in some remote ancestor due to chance recombination of genes or environmental conditions favourable to their expression in the embryo. | Pediatrics | null | Atavism means child resembles with his –
A. Father
B. Siblings
C. Grand parents
D. Neighbour
| Grand parents |
ecab0549-3640-4530-9573-1aab6c16c355 | At- 15 cm (6 inch) from incisor at cricophyrangeal junction behind the cricoid cailage () At 25 cm Broncho-aoic constriction(23+28[?]50/2[?]25cm) At 40 cm(15 inch) from incisor -esophageal hiatus where it passes through the diaphragm in the posterior mediastinum(T10) At 23 cm(9 inch) from incisor -due to crossing of arch of aoa in front in the superior mediastinum() At 28 cm (11 inch)from incisor -esophagus is compressed by the left main bronchus in the posterior mediastinum() | Anatomy | Umblicial cord and diaphragm | Constrictions of esophagus when measured from upper incisors are present at
A. 15cm, 20cm, 40cm
B. 15cm, 25cm, 40cm
C. 20cm, 30cm, 40 cm
D. 30cm, 40cm, 60 cm
| 15cm, 25cm, 40cm |
71bc8a89-553f-4465-9186-ccc45c0393b9 | Emtricitabine (FTC), with trade name Emtriva (formerly Coviracil), is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NI) for the treatment of HIV infection in adults and children.Emtricitabine is always used in combination with other HIV medicines. Because emtricitabine is also effective against HBV, it may be included in an HIV regimen to treat HBV infection in people with HIV. In addition to emtricitabine, the HIV regimen should include another drug that is effective against both HBV and HIV. Emtricitabine should not be used to treat HBV infection in HIV-infected individuals who are not receiving A. REFERANCE:aidsinfo.nih.gov,en.wikipedia.org | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Antiviral drug having dual antiviral activity against HIV and HBV is:
A. Enfuviide
B. Emtricitabine
C. Abacavir
D. Entecavir
| Emtricitabine |
22de2f9a-9825-4b1c-93eb-4c8bfdf6fdbf | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Secondary cartilaginous Cartilaginous joints1) Primary cartilaginous joints (synchondrosis, or hyaline cartilage joint) : These are :-i) Joint between epiphysis and diaphysis of a growing long bone, i.e. physis.ii) Spheno-occipital jointiii) 1st costostemal joint (1st chondrosternal joint)iv) Costochondral joints2) Secondary cartilaginous joints (Symphyses or fibrocartilaginous joints) : These are:-i) Symphysis pubisii) Sacroccygeal jointiii) Manubriostemal jointiv) Intervertebral discv) Symphysis menti | Anatomy | General | Intervertebral disc is which type of joint -
A. Primary cartilaginous
B. Secondary cartilaginous
C. Pivot
D. Ellipsoid
| Secondary cartilaginous |
27e25086-48b7-4e91-abe7-a9c88f9d1a61 | Succinylcholine is the only muscle relaxant, which stimulates vagus → Bradycardia. | Anaesthesia | null | Bradycardia is common after injection of –
A. Midazolam
B. Succinyl choline
C. Dopamine
D. Isoprenaline
| Succinyl choline |
3cfcb9f6-855d-4b35-a3bf-3d65ddc8a154 | Ans. (a) Gaucher's diseaseRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 251LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE* Lyzosomal storage disorders are a group of approximately 50 rare inherited metabolic disorders that result from defects in lysosomal function.* Lysosomal storage disorders are caused by lysosomal dysfunction usually as a consequence of deficiency of a single enzyme required for the metabolism of lipids, glycoproteins (sugar containing proteins) or so-called mucopolysaccharides.* Gaucher's disease is the most common of the lysosomal storage diseases. It is a form of sphingolipidosis (a subgroup of lysosomal storage diseases), as it involves dysfunctional metabolism of sphingolipids.* The disorder is characterized by bruising fatigue, anemia, low blood platelets, and enlargement of the liver and spleen. | Biochemistry | Lipids | The most common lysosomal storage disorder is
A. Gaucher's disease
B. Taysach's disease
C. Wolman disease
D. Niemann pick's disease
| Gaucher's disease |
089f69a8-8a77-407f-ab11-e0c58cae80e3 | <p> Cluster sampling . Reference: Simple Biostatistics by Indeayan & Indrayan,1st edition,pg no:35-36 and Methods in Biostatistics by Mahajan,7 th edition,pg no:91. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Biostatistics | Sampling method used in assessing immunization status of children under immunization programme is-
A. Systemic sampling
B. Stratified sampling
C. Group sampling
D. Cluster sampling
| Cluster sampling |
81077821-eaa6-492b-b58a-0d0341441a64 | Acute-phase proteins are plasma proteins, mostly synthesized in the liver, whose plasma concentrations may increase several hundred-fold as pa of the response to inflammatory stimuli C-reactive protein (CRP) fibrinogen, serum amyloid A (SAA) protein ref robbins 9th ed page 99 | Pathology | General pathology | Acute phase reactants of inflammation are-
A. C-reactive protein (CRP)
B. haptoglobin
C. Transferrin
D. Prostaglandins
| C-reactive protein (CRP) |
6db89580-4985-4093-bc59-e81da957b943 | Ans. (a) Sum of kinetic energy of flow and pressure energy is constantRef: Ganong, 25th ed/p.571Velocity of blood flow (kinetic energy) and the pressure (potential energy) are interrelated by the Bernoulli's principleBernoulli's principle#States that "The sum of the kinetic energy of flow and the potential energy--is constant"#According to the principle, the greater the velocity of flow in a vessel, the lower the#lateral pressure distending its walls to keep the total energy of the system constant | Physiology | Heart, Circulation, and Blood | Bernoulli's principle states
A. Sum of kinetic energy of flow and pressure energy is constant
B. Low tones producing maximal stimulation at apex of cochlea
C. Magnitude of the sensation felt is proportionate to the intensity of stimulus
D. Force of contraction is proportional to the stretch of cardiac muscle
| Sum of kinetic energy of flow and pressure energy is constant |
179b4288-2815-409b-96bf-d89a24ecd3a0 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Subarachnoid hemorrhage Subarachnoid hemorrhage:* The clinical state of a patient suffering from subarachnoid hemorrhage is highly predictive of the therapeutic outcome.* A grading system has therefore been developed to document the severity of patient's disease in order to guide therapy and prognostication.* The initial clinical manifestations of SAH are graded using the Hunt-Hess or World Federation of Neurosurgical Societies classification schemes.Grading Scales for Subarachnoid HemorrhageGradeHunt-Hess SealsWorld Federation of Neurosurgical Societies (WFNS) Scale1.Mild headache, normal mental status, no cranial nerve or motor findingsGCS* score 15, no motor deficits2.Severe headache, normal mental status, may have cranial nerve dirficitGCS score 13-14, no motor deficits3.Somnolent, confused, may have cranial nerve or mild motor deficitGCS score 13-14 with motor deficits4.Stupor, moderate to severe motor deficit, may have intermittent reflex posturingGCS score 7-12 with or without motor deficits5.Coma, reflex posturing or flaccidGCS score 3-6, with or without motor deficits | Surgery | Nervous System | Hunt Hess scale is used to grade manifestations of -
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Meningioma
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Tuberculous meningitis
| Subarachnoid hemorrhage |
2e5d667e-eef9-4860-9253-6f456c1e689b | Ans. (b) EzetimibeRef'.Harrison's 18/e, ch 356 | Pharmacology | Hypolipidemic | Which drug inhibits absorption of cholesterol from intestine?(DNB 2012-section-1)
A. Resins
B. Ezetimibe
C. Niacin
D. Orlistat
| Ezetimibe |
5bb05983-c2d5-4fd4-bef5-907ec9b1c326 | Biochemical abnormality in congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis is a regular feature of AIIMS and AI examinations it has been repeated several times. The biochemical abnormalities seen are: Hypokalemia Hypochloremia Alkalosis and Paradoxical aciduria Ref : Schwaz 9/e p59 | Anatomy | General surgery | Hypochloremia, hypokalemia and alkalosis are seen in
A. Hirschsprung's disease
B. Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Jejunal atresia
| Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis |
aab036a6-1a30-4907-82eb-f5730bad09cc | HTLV 1 causes adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma | Pathology | Hematology: White Blood Cells (Miscellaneous questions) | Which of the following lymphomas is associated with HTLV virus infection?
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. B-Cell lymphoma
C. Adult T cell leukemia and lymphoma
D. Hodgkin's disease
| Adult T cell leukemia and lymphoma |
a9cf3125-9ffb-47ab-97eb-b045d11b2767 | Primary blast injuries result from the rapid overpressure or shock waves produced by an explosion* These injuries result from the dramatic changes in barometric pressure projected from the point of detonation* Primary blast injuries predominantly cause damage to air filled hollow organs of the body from rapid pressure change (barotraumas).\ * Damage to air filled organs includes middle ear, lungs and GIT. * Most sensitive and most frequently injured hollow organ: Tympanic membrane > Lungs* Blast damage to the lungs is the MC cause of life threatening injury following an explosion. | Surgery | Trauma | In a blast injury , which of the following organ is least involved
A. Lungs
B. Eardrum
C. Liver
D. GI tract
| Liver |
6f9d620d-4afb-4eff-9ad7-893c8214f50e | GVHD Robbins, 7 edition, Page 222 * Runt's disease: is a pathological condition in which cells from the transplanted tissue of a donor initiate an immunologic attack on the cells and tissue of the recipient Complications of small bowel transplantation: * Most of the moality after bowel transplantation is due to sepsis and multiorgan failure. * The risk of infection after small bowel transplantation is heightened by the additional requirements for immunosuppression in order to control graft rejection. * This accounts for the relatively high incidence of Lymphoproliferative disease (around 10%) observed in patients who have undergone small bowel transplantation. * Because of the large amount of donor lymphoid tissue transplanted Graft- Versus-Host Disease (GVHD) may occasionally be an added complication | Surgery | null | Runt's disease is associated with
A. Acute rejection
B. Hyperacute rejection
C. GVHD
D. Chronic rejection
| GVHD |
b8f0b1f8-6995-4a14-b9d3-e303f19f6cb4 | The most accurate evaluation of diaphragmatic rupture is by video assisted thoracoscopy or laparoscopy, the latter offering the advantage of allowing the surgeon to proceed to a repair and additional evaluation of the abdominal organs . Chest X ray with nasogastric tube maybe helpful CT scan and diagnostic peritoneal lavage lack positive or negative predictive value. Reference: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 26th edition, Pg no: 356- 357. | Surgery | Trauma | Diagnosis of traumatic rupture of diaphragm is done by?
A. A.Laparoscopy
B. B.Chest X ray
C. C.Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
D. D.CT scan
| A.Laparoscopy |
df21c703-a2cc-41d9-8500-7d86a1d6e3c9 | Faecal streptococci regularly occur in faeces but in much smaller numbers than E.coli. Finding faecal streptococci in water is regarded as impoant confirmatory evidence of recent faecal pollution of water. Finding faecal Cl. perfringens in water in the absence of other organisms is regarded as impoant confirmatory evidence of remote faecal pollution of water. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 781 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Which of the following is used as an indicator for recent fecal contamination of water ?
A. E. Coli
B. Cornybacterium diptheriae
C. Pseudomonas
D. Streptococci
| Streptococci |
c87b2b91-c8b0-4241-9f1d-af934d617381 | Moro&;s reflex disappears by 3 - 6 months in normal infants. Persistence of the reflex after 6 months is abnormal and is common in children with MR without motor disturbance including Down's syndrome and in children with CP of the athetoid type. It is also sometimes observed in children with a severe brain malformation or with CP of the spastic type, encephalopathy, hydrocephaly, injury of the cerebral or the pyramidal tract. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | New born infants | Persistence of Moro&;s reflex is abnormal beyond the age of ________
A. 3rd month
B. 4th month
C. 5th month
D. 6th month
| 6th month |
a852993f-4404-4401-8b16-6463471d23c4 | Answer is C (3 culture sets separated by at-least 1 hour over 24 hours) Three culture sets separated from one another by at-least I hour should he obtained over 24 hours. in the absence of prior antibiotic therapy three (2-bottled) culture sets separated from one another by at-least 1 hour should be obtained from different venepuncture sites over 24 hours. If the cultures remain negative 48 to 72 hours, two or three additional blood culture sets should be obtained' | Medicine | null | Which of the following is recommended for culture sampling in Infective Endocarditis:
A. 2 culture sets separated by at-least 1 hour over 24 hours
B. 2 culture sets separated by at-least 2 hours over 24 hours
C. 3 culture sets separated by at-least 1 hour over 24 hours
D. 3 culture sets separated by at-least 2 hours over 24 hours
| 3 culture sets separated by at-least 1 hour over 24 hours |
6ee3f046-ae61-4a64-a025-d6b8d8866ede | Long: Principles and Practice of Pediatric Infectious Diseases, (3rd ed chapter 91) writes-
"Diagnosis of infectious complications in a burn victim is challenging. Although fever and elevated peripheral white blood cell count with a left shift are usual indicators of infection, their positive predictive value for diagnosis of infectious complications in burn victims is very low because they are commonly seen in uninfected burned children whose wounds are uncovered. Neither severity of fever (frequently > 39°C) nor response to antipyretic therapy is a reliable indicator of infection. Peak fever in burned children without infection usually occurs on the second day after the burn, with a second peak around the sixth and seventh days. Fever is probably the result of an increase in metabolic rate and an alteration of hypothalamic temperature regulation. Fever usually subsides without specific therapy, coincident with re-epithelialization of the burn wound or successful grafting of all open areas. Thus, fever alone in the burned child is not a reliable indicator of infection or of the need to investigate for infection or prescribe antibiotic therapy." | Surgery | null | Fever in burnt patient is caused by:a) Due to hypermetabolismb) Toxin released by dead tissuec) Infectiond) Dead tissue products
A. a
B. ac
C. ad
D. b
| ac |
d37a1f2f-5e20-46f2-b484-bf8d5b7e328b | Chronic complications of renal transplant - Malignancy -most common lesions are cancers of skin, lips and carcinoma of cervix as well as lyhomas such as non Hodgkin lymphoma. Hypeension Hypercalcemia Anemia Chronic hepatitis -due to hepatitis B and C virus infection Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no 2131 | Medicine | Kidney | Long term complication (>10yr) renal transplantation is/are -
A. Bacterial infection
B. Malignancy
C. Viral infection
D. Acute graft versus host reaction
| Malignancy |
42d54ca9-718b-4acf-9b71-d1404926e9a0 | In Q tip test - A cotton swab is introduced into the urethra following which the patient is asked to perform valsalva manoeuver and the angle of urethra is assessed. An angle of excussion of > 300 from the horizontal indicates urethral hypermobility. Note:- Stress test can also be used to assess urethral hypermobility. Ref: Essentials of Gynaecology by Lakshmi Seshadri, Edition 1, page - 338. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Which among the following simple tests is used to measure/assess urethral hypermobility?
A. Office cystometry
B. Q tip test
C. Voiding diary
D. Postvoid residual urine
| Q tip test |
64cf8c10-abe8-438a-8692-684829970343 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., GTN PHARMACOLQG1CALTREATMENT OF STABLE (CLASSICAL ANGINA)o For immediate pre-cxcrtional prophylaxis and acute attack1. Sublingual glyceral trinitrate (Drug of choice)o Acts by decreasing preload (LV filling pressure - i myocardial oxygen demand),o Also cause redistribution of blood flow to the ischemic zone by dilating conducting coronary vessels.Nifedipine by bite capsuleo Decrease myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing contractility and arterial pressure,o Also dilates coronary artery.o For long term prophylaxisb-blockers (DOC)o They reduces the myocardial oxygen demand by inhibiting the increase in heart rate, arterial pressure and myocardial contractility caused by adrenergic stimulation.CCBso Are used if coronary spasm is suspected or (3-blockers are contraindicated.Long acting nitrateso Usually avoided because of development of tolerance.Nicorandil (Potassium-channel opener)o Decreases preload (venodilatation) and L.V. filling pressure - i myocardial oxygen demand.ACE inhibitorso Particularly useful in patient at increased risk, especially if DM or LV dysfunction is present, and in those who have not achieved adequate control of blood pressure by b-blockers. | Pharmacology | D.O.C | Drug of choice for classical angina attack -
A. CCBs
B. P-blocker
C. GTN
D. Prazocin
| GTN |
c366990e-6f0d-4d4d-9c87-c667db687001 | Menetrier's disease is example of protein losing enteropathy Premalignant condition Rugosities of stomach Foveolar cell hyperplasia (produce excess of mucin) Cerebriform appearance of stomach mucosa. Gastric fold are prominent in body and fundus & spares Antrum. In children's it is caused by CMV and in adult it is unknown. Cytokine responsible for Menetrier's Disease - EGFR Cetuximab is anti EGFR : First line management of Menetrier's disease -We do not use total gastrectomy | Medicine | Inflammatory Bowel Disease | First line management of Menetrier's disease?
A. Cetuximab
B. Octreotide
C. Subtotal Gastrectomy
D. Total Gastrectomy
| Cetuximab |
2c25faac-73da-4798-bf67-df3e7841c148 | Prognosis in eclampsia long interval between onset of fit and commencement of treatment antepaum eclampsia with long delivery interval number of fits more than 10 coma in between fits temperature over 102 degree F with pulse rate above 120/min BP >200mmHg systolic oliguria with proteinuria non response to treatment jaundice D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Pg no;233,7th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy | Which type of eclampsia has the worst prognosis:
A. Antepaum
B. Postpaum
C. Intrapaum
D. Imminent
| Antepaum |
31b0e804-6488-491e-9ad4-3d640f5cb811 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thiamine Wernike's encephalopathyo This is caused by thiamine deficiency.o There are acute degenerative changes in thalamus, hypothalamus and mammillary bodies,o Signs are: confusion, ocular paresis and nystagmus, staggering gait and peripheral neuropathy. | Psychiatry | Drug and Alcohol-Related Conditions | Wernicke's encephalopathy is due to deficiency of -
A. Folic acid
B. Thiamine
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Pyridoxine
| Thiamine |
11a5d2c8-09a9-4726-b91c-628e7f74e72f | OH containing amino acid has maximum tendency to bind phosphate Eg.Tyrosine, Threonine and Serine. | Biochemistry | Basics of amino acids | Which amino acid has maximum tendency to bind phosphate ?
A. Serine
B. Alanine
C. Phenylalanine
D. Tryptophan
| Serine |
369446dc-b1c5-41ad-9904-897892a63cdb | Nebular corneal opacity has maximal visual disability. Type of corneal opacities Nebular: Superficial layers involving upto superficiial stroma. It do more disability of vision owing to the irregular astigmatism. Macular: Upto mid stroma is involved as opacity Leucomatous: Full thickness stromal opacity. Adherent leucoma is iris tissue incarcerated in opacity, seen normally after perforation. Peripheral, mid peripheral and centrocaecal leucomas will not affect the visual axis and hence would not produce visual disability. However a central leucoma would not allow light to pass through and hence would cause maximum visual problems. | Ophthalmology | Diseases of Cornea | Maximum visual impairment occurs in:
A. Leukoma adherens at periphery
B. Centrocaecal leucoma
C. Nebular corneal opacity
D. Med peripheral Leucoma
| Nebular corneal opacity |
392e434d-3202-4d3c-837b-ed0c2a0c1351 | Basic defect in HbS is altered solubility. A molecule of hemoglobin S (HbS) contains two normal a globin chains and two mutant b globin chains- glutamate at position 6 is substituted with valine. This replaces the polar glutamine residue with a nonpolar valine. The replacement of glutamate by valine generates a sticky patch on the surface of HbS. The sticky patch is present on both oxygenated and deoxygenated HbS but deoxygenated HbS also contains a complementary site for the sticky patch. When HbS is deoxygenated the sticky patch present on its surface binds to the complementary patch on another deoxygenated HbS molecule. Binding of a number of deoxygenated HbS leads to formation of long fibrous polymers of HbS. This stiffens and disto the red cells producing rigid misshaped erythrocytes. | Medicine | Sickle Cell Disease, G6PD deficiency and other Hemolytic Anemia | Basic defect in HbS is?
A. Altered function
B. Altered solubility
C. Altered stability
D. Altered O2 binding capacity
| Altered solubility |
abdbb6c9-1a08-49ef-a6fc-ae1d0684cc6a | Vanilloid receptor is a nociceptor. Capsaicin binds to Vanilloid receptor. | Physiology | null | Capsaicin acts on ______
A. Vanilloid receptor
B. Capsaicoid receptor
C. AMPA receptor
D. NMDA receptor
| Vanilloid receptor |
5fa3529b-abd1-4c24-926b-ead59567267f | Mercury
Mechanism of toxicity.
Mercury reacts with sulfhydryl (SH) groups, resulting in enzyme inhibition and pathologic alteration of cellular membranes.
Clinical presentation. Acute inhalation
Severe chemical pneumonitis and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.
Acute gingivostomatitis may also occur.
Chronic intoxication
Classic triad
Neuropsychiatric disturbances
Gingivostomatitis. Metallic taste
Frequent blushing (“erethism”).
Pain in the extremities,often accompanied by pinkish discoloration and desquamation (“pink disease”)
Reference – Poisoning & Drug Overdose by Kent R. Olson 3th- 213 | Unknown | null | Frequent blushing (“erethism”) is associated with : -
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Phenolic acid
D. Carbolic acid
| Mercury |
befeafe6-37cb-4a6f-ab10-8d39b66f1580 | Acetyl CoA is a staing material for Fatty Acid Synthesis, Cholesterol Synthesis & Ketone Body Synthesis (option a, c & d). But Acetyl CoA is never a substrate for Gluconeogenesis i.e. it can never form glucose (option b). Because Acetyl CoA can never be conveed back to Pyruvate as Link reaction or Pyruvate Dehydrogenase is irreversible. However, acetyl-CoA can stimulate gluconeogenesis by activating pyruvate carboxylase (see fig) Extra Edge: Acetyl CoA is NOT:- Not The intermediate of TCA. The first substrate of TCA. The carrier of TCA . | Biochemistry | Fat and Carbohydrate interconversion | Acetyl CoA cannot be conveed to:
A. Fatty Acids
B. Glucose
C. Ketone Bodies
D. Cholesterol
| Glucose |
c3150fd0-4863-4641-8f0a-dc9507531441 | Bifurcation of Trachea is at the level of Body of T6 | Anatomy | null | Bifurcation of Trachea is at the level of
A. Body of T6
B. Lower border of T6
C. Body of T4
D. Lower border of T4
| Body of T6 |
30cfa0f4-3eef-48b9-b297-4fe69d45b9fd | o Tumor cells of sarcoma botryoids are small and have oval nuclei, with small protrusions of cytoplasm from one end, so they resemble a tennis racket. REF: ROBBINS pathology 10th edition | Pathology | All India exam | Tennis racket cells is seen in -
A. Sarcoma botyroides
B. Vaginal adenocarcinoma
C. Leiomyoma uterus
D. Seminoma
| Sarcoma botyroides |
f4704a06-dae7-4278-8c3c-4fcc144104e9 | Yellow color on the new WHO standard mid-upper arm circumference of (MUAC) tape correlates to a MUAC of 11.5 to 12.5 cm. Mid-Upper arm Circumference: Used in children between 6 to 60 months Measured between the acromion and olencranon process It is an age-dependent parameter (between 6-60 months) MUAC tape cut-offs Color Measurements Indication Red <11.5 cm Severe acute malnutrition (SAM) Yellow 11.5 to 12.5 cm Under-nourished Green >12.5 cm Normal Similar methods based on MUAC: Bangle Test: It has an internal diameter of 4 cm Normally, it should not cross the elbow QUAC stick test: Mid-upper arm circumference/Height of child Skinfold thickness Age-independent parameter Triceps skinfold thickness is measured with the help of Haependen caliper Normal: 10mm Severe malnutrition: <6mm Ref: World Health Organization | Pediatrics | Nutrition | Yellow color on the new WHO standard mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) tape correlates to a MUAC of ________
A. 10.5 to 11.5 cm
B. 11.5 to 12.5 cm
C. 12.5 to 13.5 cm
D. 13.5 to 14.5 cm
| 11.5 to 12.5 cm |
026f6c62-a3bc-4860-b28f-e2f75ad296aa | Serratus anteriorREF: Gray's anatomy 39th ed p. 829, 830Movements of scapula:MovementMusclesElevationTrapezius and Levator scapularProtractionSerratous anterior and Pectoralis minorRetractionRhomboids and TrapeziusLateral rotationupper trapezius and lower serratousMedial rotationLevator scapulae , Rhomboids and Pectoralis minor | Anatomy | null | Protractor of scapula is?
A. Serratus anterior
B. Rhomboidis major
C. Deltoid
D. Pectoralis major
| Serratus anterior |
a8eb8efa-cbe1-4b1f-82ff-ec7ced51ce92 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tuberous Sclerosiso Shagreen Patch (connective tissue naevi) are roughened raised leathery lesions with an orange peel consistency that are typically seen in patients with Tuberous Sclerosis. | Medicine | C.N.S. | Shagreen patch is a cha racteristic feature of -
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Sturge weber syndrome
D. Von Hippei-Lindau syndrome
| Tuberous sclerosis |
f346a617-80a0-4928-bdf1-2cc1e4a11cab | Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) is a key inflammatory cytokine and mediator of intestinal inflammation. The expression of TNF is increased in IBD. Infliximab is a chimeric human monoclonal antibody against TNF that is extremely effective in Crohn's disease. Recently adalimumab has also been approved for treatment of moderate to severe crohn disease. Newer Immunosuppressive Agents for IBD Tacrolimus Mycophenolate mofetil 6-Thioguanine Thalidomide | Medicine | Inflammatory Bowel Disease | Which of the following is the established biological therapy for Crohn's disease?
A. Anti TNF a antibody
B. IL - I antagonist
C. IL - 6 antagonist
D. IL - 8 antagonist
| Anti TNF a antibody |
9aef4240-c534-4eb5-b386-66da740c4e07 | ref Harrison 18/e p 387 It is a congenital and not acquired leucocyte function defect CGD Overview. Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is an inherited primary immunodeficiency disease (PIDD) which increases the body's susceptibility to infections caused by ceain bacteria and fungi. Granulomas are masses of immune cells that form at sites of infection or inflammation. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Chronic granulomatous disease is
A. Associated with formation of multiple granulomas
B. A benign neoplastic process
C. A parasitic disease
D. Acquired leukocyte function defect
| Associated with formation of multiple granulomas |
062cca06-4d7a-4524-99c3-d329b3217d87 | Antigen Presenting pa of MHCMHC 1/HLA I:Class 1 molecule consists of three domains of heavy alpha peptide chain (a1; a2; a3) which are non-covalently linked to smaller b2 microglobulin peptide.The distal domain (alpha 1 and alpha 2) of MHC 1 have highly variable amino acid sequences and are folded to form a cavity or groove.Protein antigens are bound to this groove for presentation to CD8 T cells. MHC II/HLA II:MHC II antigens are heterodimer consisting of an alpha and beta chain. Each chain has two domain proximal one is constant and distal one is variable.The two distal domain (alpha 1, beta 1) constitute the antigen binding site, for recognition by CD4 T cells.Both class 1 and class 2 are members of the immunoglobulin gene superfamily.MHC III /HLA III:MHC III are heterogenous they include complement components involved in the formation of C3 convease, heat shock protein and tumor necrosis factor. | Microbiology | All India exam | Which poion of MHC1 complex forms the component of antigen presenting pa?
A. Between alpha 1 and beta 2 microglobulin
B. Distal pa of alpha chain
C. Proximal pa of alpha chain
D. Between alpha 2 and beta 2 microglobulin
| Distal pa of alpha chain |
64539050-ad52-4f92-b23e-c03e1ef85bf3 | Fat necrosis. Saponification of fat derived from peripancreatic fat cells exposed to pancreatic enzymes is a typical feature of fat necrosis. Lipase, released from pancreatic acinar cells during an attack of acute pancreatitis, hydrolyzes fat into fatty acids and glycerol. Free fatty acids bind with calcium to form soaps, which is a process known as saponification. Hypocalcemia is a typical finding in patients who had a recent bout of acute pancreatitis. Fat necrosis in acute pancreatitis- areas of white chalky deposits represent foci of fat necrosis with calcium soap formation (saponification) at sites of lipid breakdown in the mesentery. | Pathology | Irreversible cell Injury/Necrosis | A 50-year-old chronic alcoholic presents to the emergency room with 12 hours of severe abdominal pain. The pain radiates to the back and is associated with an urge to vomit. Physical examination discloses exquisite abdominal tenderness. Laboratory studies show elevated serum amylase. Which of following morphologic changes would be expected in the peripancreatic tissue of this patient?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Caseous necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
D. Fibrinoid necrosis
| Fat necrosis |
2adc7fb6-4e92-4f82-81fc-8e2c311cfb76 | d. TGAChest X-ray showing 'egg on side' appearance in a neonate presenting with heart failure on day 7 of life has TGA (Transposition of great arteries) | Pediatrics | C.V.S. | A neonate presenting with heart failure on day 7 of life has this chest X-ray. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. TOF
B. VSD
C. TAPVC
D. TGA
| TGA |
2c8c3645-6799-4e27-bead-f3c4a4569e64 | Glycerol is release during the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols in adipose tissue and is delivered by the blood to the liver, where it is used in the synthesis of glucose by gluconeogenesis. | Biochemistry | null | Glucose may be synthesised from
A. Glycerol
B. Adenine
C. Guanine
D. Palmitic acid
| Glycerol |
509da9f1-b7f8-45c2-8642-5e9b952ac602 | 0.1 Standard error of mean = Standard detion / lisample size = 1/ V100 = 1/10 = 0.1 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Mean hemoglobin of a sample of 100 pregnant women was found to be 10 mg% with a standard error of 1.0 mg%. The standard error of the estimate would he
A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 1
D. 10
| 0.1 |
b6df9871-0f50-4da1-9d89-26c70340ed05 | ANSWER: (C) 22REF: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 8pt 8px; text-indent: 0">Repeat from December 2009Remember Park 20th ed p. 46 has given only 21 chapters"ICD-10 was endorsed by the Forty-third World Health Assembly in May 1990 and came into use in WHO Member States as from 1994. ICD 10 has 22 chapters"International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems 10th RevisionChapterBlocksTitleIA00-B99Certain infectious and parasitic diseasesIIC00-D48NeoplasmsIIID50-D89Diseases of the blood and blood-forming organs and certain disorders involving the immune mechanismIVE00-E90Endocrine, nutritional and metabolic diseasesVF00-F99Mental and behavioural disordersVIG00-G99Diseases of the nervous systemVIIH00-H59Diseases of the eye and adnexaVIIIH60-H95Diseases of the ear and mastoid processIX100-199Diseases of the circulatory systemXJ00-J99Diseases of the respiratory systemXIK00-K93Diseases of the digestive systemXIIL00-L99Diseases of the skin and subcutaneous tissueXIIIM00-M99Diseases of the musculoskeletal system and connective tissueXIVN00-N99Diseases of the genitourinary systemXV000-099Pregnancy, childbirth and the puerperiumXVIP00-P96Certain conditions originating in the perinatal periodXVIIQ00-Q99Congenital malformations, deformations and chromosomal abnormalitiesXVIIIR00-R99Symptoms, signs and abnormal clinical and laboratory findings, not elsewhere classifiedXIXS00-T98Injury, poisoning and certain other consequences of external causesXXV01-Y98External causes of morbidity and mortalityXXIZ00-Z99Factors influencing health status and contact with health servicesXXIIU00-U99Codes for special purposes | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concept of Health and Disease | ICD-10 has how many chapters?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 22
D. 32
| 22 |
26d7e60f-53f7-4a23-b9c7-382a01a1955d | * SCHIZOTYPAL PERSONALITY DISORDER * Ideas of reference (not delusions) * Odd beliefs and magical thinking * Unusual perceptual disturbances * Paranoid ideation and suspiciousness * Odd thinking and speech without coherence * SUPERSTITIONS/TELEPATHY * ODD DRESSING * ODD SPEECH LACK OF EMOTIONS Ref.KAplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no.744 | Psychiatry | Personality disorders | Magical thinking is seen in which type of personality disorder
A. schizotypal
B. borderline
C. narcisstic
D. histirionic
| schizotypal |
041baefd-4f83-43bf-b11f-887bbff9716d | Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Proper hand w ashing o There are following types of modes of transmission of hospital-acquired infections :Contact transmissionIt is the most common and most preventable means of transmission. It is divided into two types -Direct contact : It involves contact of body surface to body surface with a physical transfer of microorganisms. Hand contact is most common mode of transmission.Indirect contact: It involves body surface contact with a contaminated intermediate object.o As hand contact is the most common mode of transmission, the best preventive measure of nosocomial infection is proper hand hygiene. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health Planning and Management | Most important measure to prevent hospital infection -
A. Use of antibiotics
B. Use of antiseptics
C. Proper hand washing
D. Formalin fumigation
| Proper hand washing |
92d72313-c7c2-473c-b30e-174792bf24ac | Monitoring is the performance and analysis of routine measurements aimed at detecting changes in the environment or health status of population. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Analysis of routine measurement aimed at detecting changes in the environment?
A. Surveillance
B. Isolation
C. Monitoring
D. RCT
| Monitoring |
db0b41ac-b005-4ca5-977d-9dbb35c234c8 | Chondroblastoma [Ref This is the best we could find, after long hours of search. "A chondroblastoma is a rare, usually benign, tumor of bone that accounts .for approximately I% of all bone tumors. In 1931, Cadman classified it as a chondromatous variant of giant cell tumors, when he described these lesions in the proximal humerus. A decade later, Jaffe and Lichtenstein renamed the Codman tumor a benign chondroblastoma to emphasize the chondroblastic genesis of the lesion and to distinguish it .from the classic giant cell tumor of bone."- emedicine.inedscape.com | Surgery | null | Variant of Giant cell tumor is?
A. Ossifying fibroma
B. Non ossifying fibroma
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Chondroblastoma
| Chondroblastoma |
a5e586ee-5df7-433f-a872-94107e4f6d44 | Almost all individuals with celiac disease share the major histocompatibility complex II HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8.
Gliadin is deamidated by the enzyme transglutaminase and deamidated gliadin peptides bind to DQ2 and DQ8.
Recognition of these peptides by CD4+ T cells leads to secretion of IFN-γ, which damages the intestinal wall. | Pediatrics | null | Gluten-sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with –
A. HLA–DQ2
B. BLA–DR4
C. HLA–DQ3
D. Blood group B
| HLA–DQ2 |
249357a0-238b-4166-9367-4ac9d8655da8 | Ans: a (Protein) Ref: Vasudevan 4th ed/p.23, 24. 34.Biuret reaction:-* Cupric ions chelate with peptide bonds of proteins in alkaline medium to produce a pink or violet colour. This needs a minimum of two peptide bonds and so individual amino acids and dipeptides will not answer this test.* Biuret reagent - CuS04, sodium potassium tartarate and potassiumiodide in sodium hydroxide.* The intensity of colour is directly proportional to the peptide bonds and is estimated colourimetrically.Other tests:Fouchet'stest-Bile pigmentsHay's sulphur test- Bile saltsBenedict's test- Blood sugarRothera's test- Ketone bodiesReagentsEhrlich's aldehyde - Porphobilinogen and UrobilinogenFouchet's reagent - Bile pigmentBenedict's reagent - GlucoseSodium nitroprusside - Ketones | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Biuret test is used for detection of:
A. Protein
B. Cholesterol
C. Steroid
D. Sugar
| Protein |
a0eb68fd-ab7f-4f5a-820e-c795fab4c224 | Ans. C. Fibronectin > LamininIntegrins localized in the plasma membrane are the major adhesion receptor connecting cells with components of the extracellular matrix. Integrins interact directly with laminin and mainly fibronectin present in the basal lamina and intracellularly contact actin through intermediate proteins, such as alpha-actinin, vinculin, and talin. Integrins are calcium-independent adhesion molecules. | Pathology | Inflammation & Repair | Integrin connects actin to which macromolecule in ECM?
A. Vitronectin
B. Laminin
C. Fibronectin
D. Collagen
| Fibronectin |
89b37685-6576-40eb-ba9b-0d4d54e393ea | A i.e. Ear ossiclesAuditory (ear) ossicles attain full adult size at (or before) bihQ. Although mastoid antrum (air sinus) is well developed (& of adult size) at bih, but mastoid process & air cells develop later. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following attains adult size before bih:
A. Ear ossicles
B. Maxilla
C. Mastoid
D. Mastoid
| Ear ossicles |
cfd61f88-8885-48fd-ae7f-6b76c44b54e1 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Staphylococcus aureus Toxic shock syndromeo TSS is a potentially fatal multisystem disease characterized by sudden high fever, fainting, watery diarrhea, headache and muscle ache.o There are two types of TSS1. Staphylococcal TSSStaphylococcal TSS results from the elaboration of toxic shock syndrome toxin type-1 (TSST-1) also known as enterotoxin type F or pyrogenic exotoxin C.Enterotoxin B or C may also produce TSS.2. Streptococcal TSSStreptococcal TSS results from the elaboration of pyrogenic exotoxin A. | Microbiology | Staphylococci | Which organism causes toxin shock syndrome -
A. Pneumococcus
B. E. coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Enterococcus
| Staphylococcus aureus |
f0251eb0-f3b6-4281-98c4-8494811a913d | LMA INDICATIONS : .Sho procedures where endotracheal tube is not necessary,Difficult airway , Cardiac arrest ,conduit for intubation, Contraindications Absolute :Complete Upper airway obstruction,Locked jaw relative : increased risk of aspiration like in full stomach, 2nd n 3rd trimester of pregnancy ,morbid obesity,Upper GI bleed, Hiatus hernia, Suspected or known Supraglottic anatomical abnormalities | Anaesthesia | Anaesthetic equipments | Contraindication for laryngeal mask airway is
A. Empty stomach
B. Hiatus hernia
C. Minor surgery
D. Young age
| Hiatus hernia |
526f9a25-6dcb-4856-8c09-63f966a421be | Ans. C. Coeliac DiseaseAutoimmune disease having associated diabetesa. Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis (Hashimoto)b. Celiac disease (Hence celiac disease is also known as diabetic diarrhea)c. Multiple endocrine deficiency syndrome | Medicine | G.I.T. | Which of the following disease is also known as diabetic diarrhea:
A. Whipple disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Coeliac disease
D. Carcinoid Syndrome
| Coeliac disease |
0a207d7e-e9e0-47ff-8dde-e2883de204cf | Reference: Apley's System of Orthopaedics and Fractures 9th edition, Page 743Explanation:Inferior dislocation of the shoulder or luxatio erectaIt is a rare type of dislocation caused by forceful hyper abduction. which causes the humerus to hitch on the acromion and the humeral head to be levered out of its socket and displace into the axilla.The patient presents with the arm held erect in hyper abduction. This is also called subglenoid variety.As the force is of high intensity, the soft tissue injuries are marked and includes avulsion of the capsule and surrounding tendons, rupture of muscles, fractures of the glenoid or proximal humerus and damage to the brachial plexus and axillary artery.The nerve commonly injured here is the axillary which has a short fixed course from the back of the plexus, around the medial side of the neck to the back - a course which makes it difficult for the nerve to escape traction when the humeral head is displaced.Axillary nerve involvement causes paralysis of the deltoid and the teres minor and loss of sensation of skin covering the lateral aspect of the inferior part of the deltoid regimental badge anaesthesia'. | Orthopaedics | Dislocation of Shoulder | Nerve injured in inferior dislocation of shoulder is:
A. Axillary nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Radial nerve
| Axillary nerve |
5a2c00a9-ff88-436a-bad1-f7ef26552698 | History of recurrent episodes of painful edema of face and larynx suggests a diagnosis of hereditary angioneurotic edema which is caused by deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. C1 esterase inhibitor (C1 INH) is an alpha-globulin, which controls the first stage of the classic complement pathway and inhibits thrombin, plasmin, and kallikrein. Deficiency results in spontaneous activation of C1, leading to consumption of C2 and C4. It is decreased in Hereditary angioedema. Ref: Pocket Guide to Diagnostic Tests, 5th Edition By Diana Nicoll, 5th Edition | Medicine | null | A patient presents with history of episodic painful edema of face and larynx. Which of the following is likely to be deficient in this patient?
A. Properidin
B. Complement C3
C. Complement C5
D. CI Esterase Inhibitor
| CI Esterase Inhibitor |
5c37b8e4-4f3d-4f2f-9051-5f7196ec5e45 | Thumb sign is typically seen in acute epiglottitis due to swollen epiglottis. It is better appreciated in lateral view of neck. Normally, the epiglottis is quite thin in the anteroposterior (AP) dimension, resembling a little finger, whereas the abnormal, inflamed epiglottis appears shoer and has an increased AP dimension, resembling a thumb. Acute epiglottitis is usually caused by infection with H influenzae type B. | ENT | null | Which among the following causes 'thumb sign' on an X-ray lateral view of the neck?
A. Acute epiglottitis
B. Acute laryngo trachea bronchitis
C. Acute tonsillitis
D. Acute laryngitis
| Acute epiglottitis |
81824ec1-d6c6-43f6-89d0-e0f5d2b8c400 | Sputum smear microscopy for tubercle bacilli is positive when there are at least 10,000 organisms present per ml of sputum. ZN staining in RNTCP: Acid fast bacilli of TB; 'Rod shaped' with 'beaded appearance'. >10,000 bacilli per ml sputum must be present for a positive result. | Social & Preventive Medicine | RNTCP | For sputum smear to come positive on ZN staining there should be minimum:-
A. 100 bacilli per per ml sputum
B. 1000 bacilli per ml sputum
C. 2000 bacilli per ml sputum
D. 10,000 bacilli per ml sputum
| 10,000 bacilli per ml sputum |
435e1b4f-71fb-43a5-8c02-6b8fde7de1b3 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., A o Here, essential fatty acid has not been provided as an option. So, amongst the given options vitamin 'A' is the best answer. | Pediatrics | null | Toad skin is seen in deficiency of vitamin ?
A. A
B. B2
C. D
D. Biotin
| A |
e4ca7fa0-48a4-4f6e-ac64-fb561ca07a65 | A recent development in the pharmacologic treatment of affective disorders, especially bipolar disorder, has been the use of anticonvulsant drugs. The first to be tried, carbamazepine (Tegretol) often is the next line of treatment for bipolar disorder for persons unresponsive to lithium therapy. Carbamazepine has various side effects, although most are dose related and can be avoided by judicious clinical practice. The most worrisome side effect is aplastic anemia, which occurs very rarely but in an idiosyncratic manner. Ref: Kaplan et al, Page 553- 554 | Psychiatry | null | A 24-year-old woman has clear evidence of bipolar disorder. An adequate trial of lithium therapy has proved unsuccessful. Which of the following drugs would be most reasonable for her psychiatrist to prescribe next?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Carbamazepine
C. Alprazolam
D. Amitriptyline
| Carbamazepine |
8e82f8b6-b5da-4b37-ae8b-0afa1ec214a2 | Trafton&;s recommendation and strive to achieve less than 5 degrees of varus-valgus angulation, less than 10 degrees of anteroposterior angulation, less than 10 degrees of rotation, and less than 15 mm of shoening. | Orthopaedics | All India exam | What is the acceptable angel of reduction for tibial fracture
A. 5
B. 1
C. 15
D. 20
| 5 |
caf3ad71-4fcf-4846-8aa0-22dc167cd724 | Soil is the Reservoir of:
Tetanus
Anthrox
Coccidiomycosis
Mycetoma | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Reservoir of Tetanus infection is
A. Man
B. Soil
C. Pig
D. Plants
| Soil |
4974d6da-cb62-4ffc-b35f-1147b4412ae5 | Leukotrienes B4 obtained during LOX pathway shows chemotaxis and leukocyte adhesion.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolites and their actions in Inflammation:- | Pathology | null | Substance obtained from lipoxygenase pathway and shows chemotaxis to neutrophils is
A. LT B4
B. LX A4
C. Prostacyclin
D. Thromboxane A2
| LT B4 |
99d40741-cd96-4616-949f-66ac1fc8f226 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bacterial activity in milk | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Methylene blue reduction test is done for estimating?
A. Fat content of milk
B. Sugar content of milk
C. Protein content of milk
D. Bacterial activity in milk
| Bacterial activity in milk |
46315b77-4eef-4508-9d9e-260c89ade01b | It is en-bloc removal ,which includes wide excision of primary tumour with hemimandibulectomy and neck block dissection,examples : it is done usually in carcinoma of tongue or floor of the mouth ;it is a composite resection of primary tumour ,mandible and radical neck dissection(RND) SRB,5th,451. | Surgery | Head and neck | Commando's operation is for
A. Mandible
B. Radical mastectomy
C. Leg amputation
D. Oral cancer
| Oral cancer |
149616ec-c147-4dae-8ae4-7b466b7717cd | Hypokalemia is usually observed with chronic toxicity or in patients taking diuretics; it reduces the rate of Na+/K+ ATPase pump turnover and exacerbates pump inhibition due to digitalis. Hyperkalemia is the usual electrolyte abnormality precipitated by digoxin toxicity, primarily in the acute setting Refer kDT 6/e p499 | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Digoxin toxicity is aggrevated by
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypermagnesimaia
D. Hypocalcemia
| Hypokalemia |
a30b7734-81f4-4eca-8d9b-ae55d6630ccc | In the human intestines, Anaerobes out number aerobic bacteria a thousand fold
Among anaerobes Bacteroides are in predominant number in human gut flora. | Microbiology | null | MC commensal gut flora in adult -
A. Lactobacillus
B. Bacteroides
C. E. coli
D. Klebsiella
| Bacteroides |
481d31d7-91a1-4cea-95f3-edb130a47e0d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Diabetes o Maternal diabetes predisposes to HMD. | Pediatrics | null | Which one of the following medical disorders leads to delayed foetal lung maturity -
A. Hea disease
B. Diabetes
C. Thalassemia minor
D. Epilepsy
| Diabetes |
207a668f-8dbc-4423-8e24-537720048cae | preventing channel activation and inhibiting the Na influx associated with membrane depolarization. Local anesthetic binding to Na channels does not alter the resting membrane potential. With increasing local anesthetic concentrations, an increasing fraction of the Na channels in the membrane bind a local anesthetic molecule and cannot conduct Na ions. As a consequence, impulse conduction slows, the rate of rise and the magnitude of the action potential decrease, and the threshold for excitation and impulse conduction increases progressively. At high enough local anesthetic concentrations and with a sufficient fraction of local anesthetic-bound Na channels, an action potential can no longer be generated and impulse propagation is abolished. Ref: Butterwoh IV J.F., Butterwoh IV J.F., Mackey D.C., Wasnick J.D., Mackey D.C., Wasnick J.D. (2013). Chapter 16. Local Anesthetics. In J.F. Butterwoh IV, J.F. Butterwoh IV, D.C. Mackey, J.D. Wasnick, D.C. Mackey, J.D. Wasnick (Eds), Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology, 5e. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following is the mechanism of action of local anaesthetic?
A. Block Na+ channel
B. Block K+ channel
C. Open Na+ channel
D. Block Ca++ channel
| Block Na+ channel |
a3846fcd-cd50-4e38-b68a-632ac3db4df2 | Epoophoron also known as organ of rossenmullar is a vestigal remanat of the cranial end of the mesonephros or the wollfian body. It is situated above the ovary. Caudal end of the wollfian body gives rise to paraoophoron situated between the uterus and ovary. It can form paraovarian cyst. Ref: Testbook of gynaecology By Dutta, 5th Edition, Page 35. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | What is epoophoron?
A. Urogenital sinus
B. Remnants of the wollfian duct
C. Unfused poion of wollfian duct
D. Vestigeal structure of urogenital sinus
| Remnants of the wollfian duct |
baa6e2cf-e425-4ac6-9f72-9d0d4c39dc9c | Answer- B. CaPO4Band keratopathy is characterized by the deposition ofcalcium and phosphorus salts (especially hydroxyapatite) in a bandlike pattern in the anterior layers of the cornea. The keratopathy is usually limited to the interpalpebral area. Symptoms include irritation, injection, and blurring of vision.Chronic eye diseases (most common cause) | Ophthalmology | null | What is deposited in band keratopathy
A. CaSO4
B. CaPO4
C. MgSO4
D. MgPO4
| CaPO4 |
de6b73b8-f9b5-4a8c-b3ff-36959906eea3 | Epigenetics Study of heritable gene expression without change in the nucleotide sequences. Major epigenetic mechanisms: DNA methylation Histone modifications Alteration in Chromatin Structure microRNAs Point mutation Changes the nucleotide sequence. Does not come under the definition of epigenetic change. | Biochemistry | Mendalian Inheritance | Which of the following is not an epigenetic change?
A. Acetylation of histone
B. Methylation of DNA
C. Methylation of histone
D. Point mutation
| Point mutation |
62d3e3b1-631f-47bc-bc5f-e83004cb74dd | Ans. B. 8-16MORULA FORMATIONa. After the zygote formation, typical mitotic division of the nucleus occurs producing two blastomeres.b. The two cell stage is reached approximately 30 hours after fertilization. Each contains equal cytoplasmic volume and chromosome numbers.c. The blastomeres continue to divide by binary division through 4,8,16 cell stage until a cluster of cell is formed which is called' morula, resembling a mulberry. As the total volume of the cell mass is not increased and the zona pellucida remains intact, the morula after spending about 3 days in the uterine tube enters the uterine cavity through the narrow uterine ostium (1 mm) on the 4th day in the 16-64 cell stage. | Anatomy | Embryology | Morula cell stage has how many cells?
A. 8-Jan
B. 16-Aug
C. 24-32
D. >64
| 16-Aug |
e51169e4-6b2d-4d26-b426-bc30fd9a5971 | Low-bih-weight (LBW) infants, including those with very low bih weight (VLBW), should be fed mother&;s own milk.hence,through orogastric tube or directly baby fed In babies weighing <1 kg at bih, sta nutritional feeds at 15-20 mL/kg/day and increase by 15-20 mL/kg/day. If the feedsare tolerated for around 2-3 days, consider increasing faster. For babies weighing >=1 kg at bih, sta nutritional feeds at 30 mL/kg/day and increase by 30 mL/kg/day. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | New born infants | A neonate weighing 1500 grams is delivered at 33 weeks. Which of the following would be most appropriate method of nutrition for the baby?
A. IV fluids and oral feeding
B. Orogastric feeding/alternate oral feeding
C. Total parenteral nutrician
D. IV fluids and assessment / follow - up
| Orogastric feeding/alternate oral feeding |
bcd61d39-abdd-4928-a0ee-d358c9ac11ba | Ans is 'b' i.e. Pterygium Stocker's line is line of iron deposition in the corneal epithelium seen adjacent to the head of the pterygium.Pterygium and Pinguecula are degenerative conditions of the cornea.PingueculaAre areas of bulbar conjunctival thickening, near the limbus in the palpebral fissure area.These are triangular, horizontally oriented with apex away from the cornea.These are white to yellow in color, often having a fatty appearance. (The name pinguecula is derived from fat- pinguis)Usually found in elderly persons, especially those exposed to strong sunlight, dust, wind etc.Usually bilateralUsually nasalEtiology is not well known, however good evidence exists, of an association with increasing age and ultraviolet light exposure.Pinguecula do not cause any symptom, apart from cosmetic defect and sometimes inflammation (pingueculitis). Hence no treatment is required. However rarely, simple excision may be done for cosmetic reasons or for chronic pingueculitis.PterygiumPterygium is a wing shaped fibrovascular growth of the conjunctiva encroaching upon the cornea.It occurs in the palpebral fissure area, usually nasally but may also occur on the temporal side.Elevated whitish opacities ("islets of Vogt") and an iron deposition line ("Stocker") may delineate the head of the Pterygium on the cornea.Like pinguecula, pterygium is associated with ultraviolet light exposure. It occurs at highest prevalence and most severely in tropical areas near the equator and to a lesser and milder degree in cooler climates. The predominantly nasal location is related to reflection of light from the nose onto the nasal conjunctiva.Usually the pterygium is symptomless, so no treatment is required.Indications for surgery are:cosmetic deformityimpaired vision due to encroachment into the pupillary area of the corneasignificant astigmatismrestriction of ocular motilitySimple excision is done.Recurrence of the pterygium after surgical excision is the main problem. Methods to prevent recurrence areconjunctival autografting andmitomycin C application.Is Pinguecula precursor of Pterygium?This is controversial.Parson writes- "A Pterygium frequently follows a Pinguecula"But Yanoff Ophthalmology contradicts this and writes- "Current information, however, suggests that pinguecula does not progress to Pterygium and that the two are distinct disorders."Pterygium and PseudopterygiumPterygium resembles pseudopterygium. Pseudopterygium is conjunctival adhesion to the cornea secondary to previous trauma or inflammation such as peripheral corneal ulceration. A pseudopterygium often has an atypical position and is not adherent at all points, so a probe can be passed beneath it peripherally. | Ophthalmology | Degenerative Conditions | Stocker's line is seen in
A. Pinguencula
B. Pterygium
C. Congenital Ocular Melanosis
D. Conjunctival epithelial melanosis
| Pterygium |
1b595188-8fdf-4fed-9cc4-ea45d42facd1 | Williams-Beuren syndrome is associated with supravalvar aoic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary aery stenosis in the majority of affected individuals. Among patients in whom surgery for supravalvar aoic stenosis is contemplated, stenosis of the branch pulmonary aeries is common Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 450 | Medicine | C.V.S | Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is associated with -
A. Subaoic stenosis
B. Takayasu's aeritis
C. William syndrome
D. Coarctation of syndrome
| William syndrome |
d5c12720-fcdc-4401-b681-9ac65cb7a180 | The findings are consistent with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn's disease would typically have perianal fistulae while ulcerative colitis has periods of acute disease and quiescent periods: the acute periods are severe and may lead to significant impairement. | Surgery | null | A 36-year female complaints of abdominal pain & constipation since 5 years. She has on & off rectal bleed when she tries to defecate forcefully. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Tuberculous intestine
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
| Irritable bowel syndrome |
31388739-d749-4dca-aa93-71d5627574d5 | Vitamin B12 is absorbed bound to intrinsic factor, a small glycoprotein secreted by the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa. Gastric acid and pepsin release the vitamin from protein binding in food and make it available to bind to cobalophilin, a binding protein secreted in the saliva. In the duodenum, cobalophilin is hydrolyzed, releasing the vitamin for binding to intrinsic factor. Pancreatic insufficiency can, therefore, be a factor in the development of vitamin B12 deficiency, resulting in the excretion of cobalophilin-bound vitamin B12. Intrinsic factor binds only the active vitamin B12 vitamers and not other corrinoids. Vitamin B12 is absorbed from the distal third of the ileum receptors that bind the intrinsic factor-vitamin B12 complex, but not the free intrinsic factor or free vitamin. There is considerable enterohepatic circulation of vitamin B12, with excretion in the bile, then reabsorption after binding to intrinsic factor in the ileum. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 558 | Biochemistry | vitamins | Vitamin B12 absorption occurs in
A. Ileum
B. Jejunum
C. Duodenum
D. Colon
| Ileum |
aa53ece1-599f-4f87-8aaf-493f6ed5a5ec | Ans. B. Wrist. (Ref. Essential Paediatrics by Ghai 7th/pg. 4;Parikhys 6/e, pg 2.10; Reddy 28/e, pg 72)To determine the skeletal age:A Radiograph of SHOULDER is most helpful= in infants between 3-9 months.A A single film of HAND & WRIST = adequate in childern between 1-13 years.A Film of ELBOW & HIP = in children between 12-14 years . | Pediatrics | Growth, Development, and Behavior | Which of the following x-ray should be advised for age determination between 1-13 years of age?
A. Shoulder
B. Wrist
C. Elbow
D. Iliac bones
| Wrist |
258085d2-3d82-44b7-80d5-715b439688ed | Klippel- Trenaunay Syndrome: is characterized by Congenital AV fistulas Cutaneous hemangiomas Varicose veins Hyperophy of involved extremity The absence of deep venous system (so pathological superficial veins should not be removed without evidence of an intact deep system) | Surgery | Vascular surgery | A pt presented with pulsating varicose veins of the lower limb. Most probable diagnosis is -
A. RHF
B. Tricuspid regurgitation
C. Klippel trenaunay syndrome
D. DVT
| Klippel trenaunay syndrome |
8ccf4974-760e-41d7-b7b2-1e71faacd331 | Campylobacter difficile causes toxin-mediated pseudomembranous enterocolitis as well as antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis is normally seen during or after administration of antibiotics. One of the few agents effective against C. difficile is vancomycin. Alternatively, bacitracin can be used. | Microbiology | Bacteria | A 12-year-old boy, after a camping trip near a wooded area in Northern California, is taken to the emergency room after complaining of a headache. He has an erythema migrans rash around what appears to be a tick bite. Which of the following is the antibiotic of choice for treating this patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin
| Ceftriaxone |
7ae94a49-9899-433e-a684-43911715a6f9 | Ref: Harsh Mohan, 7th ed. pg. 350Type of Hodgkin's lymphomaNodular sclerosisMost common type of Hodgkin lymphomaLacunar Reed-Sternberg cell variants in a mixed inflammatory background; broad sclerotic bands of collagen usually also presentCD15+, CD30+ Reed- Sternberg cellsMost common in young adults, often arises in the mediastinum cervical lymph nodesMixed celiularity typeSecond most common form of Hodgkin lymphomaFrequent classic Reed-Sternberg cells in a mixed inflammatory backgroundCD15+, CD30+, Reed-Sternberg cellsMost common in men, more likely to present at advanced stages than the nodular sclerosis type EBV+in 70% of cases | Pathology | Hemodynamics | Lacunar Reed Sternberg cell is found in which type of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
A. Mixed cellularity
B. Lymphocyte rich
C. Nodular sclerosis
D. Lymphocyte depleted
| Nodular sclerosis |
c6695aa8-5817-4ea8-a58d-b3119a94c0a9 | Floating tooth sign is seen with Histiocytosis x, because of erosion of bonyalveoli around the teeth. | Surgery | null | Floating tooth sign is seen in:
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Periapical cyst
C. Aphthous ulcers
D. Histiocytosis x
| Histiocytosis x |
3b09b7a8-52e7-48f2-af3b-a217125f70fe | MicroRNAs : Small (22 nucleotides long) Endogenous, Non-coding RNAs Involved in regulation of gene expression by post-transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS)/RNA interference. Dicer is an endonuclease that trims small double-stranded RNA and generates sho, double stranded (ds) miRNA molecules that can block translation. Dicer cleaves the cytosolic dsRNA encoded by the genome or exogenously supplied into oligonucleotides miRNA or siRNA A single strand (the guide or antisense strand) of the ds miRNA associates with RNA-induced silencing complex, or RISC. | Biochemistry | Techniques in molecular biology | What is the approximate size of miRNA molecules produced by Dicer nuclease?
A. 11 bp
B. 22 bp
C. 56 bp
D. 75 bp
| 22 bp |
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