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9105fa8d-a25e-46e0-87d4-b8e40109bd4a | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multiple myeloma o Melphalan is an anticancer (alkylating) agent which is most effective in multiple myeloma. | Pharmacology | null | Melphalan is used in -
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Wilm's tumour
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Retinoblastoma
| Multiple myeloma |
b54da3ac-d32d-43c3-8221-6e3b8cb5142d | Halothane is a potent anesthetic with a MAC of 0.74%. Its blood/gas partition coefficient of 2.4 makes it an agent with moderate
induction and recovery time. It is not a good analgesic and its muscle relaxation effect is moderate. | Anaesthesia | null | Minimum Alveolar concentration of halothane is
A. 0.74%
B. 1-2%
C. 6%
D. 2%
| 0.74% |
708e5fd6-3ef0-48cd-a8e5-2f853102204b | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Carcinoma head neck Cancers associated with HPV are :?Cervical carcinomaAnal carcinomaVulvar carcinomaPenile carcinomaVaginal carcinomaOropharyngeal carcinoma (soft palate, base of tongue, tonsils). | Microbiology | null | HPV is associated with ?
A. Carcinoma lung
B. Carcinoma brain
C. Carcinoma kidney
D. Carcinoma head neck
| Carcinoma head neck |
708ab9db-f8ac-4248-96e9-7d46fcca95f8 | Ref: Colour Atlas and Textbook of Medical Microbiology. Elmer W Koneman, 5th edition, Page 195Explanation:Please note that all the bacteria asked in the options are members of the Enterobacteriaceae.Here is a list of enterobacteriaceae members with their motilitv.Motile Enterobacteriaceae aceae membersNon-motile Enterobacteri- membersEscherichia col iShigella spp.Edwardsiella tardaKlebsiella spp.Salmonella spp.Yersinia pestisCitrobacter spp.(Mnemonic: SKY )Enlerobacter spp. Hafnia Panloea Proteus spp. Morganella Providencia spp. Organisms with different motility at two different temperatures:o Enterobacteriaceae member - Yersinia enterocolitica.o Non-enterobacteriaceae member - Listeria monocytogenes. | Microbiology | Enterobecteriaceae | Which of the following bacterium is non-motile? (D. REPEAT 2013)
A. Klebsiella spp.
B. Citrobacter spp.
C. Escherichia spp.
D. Salmonella spp.
| Klebsiella spp. |
abdf0e47-7ea3-41d7-b435-5dd8b3c69047 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., IV calcium gluconate with cardiac monitory | Pediatrics | null | The immediate treatment of 10 kg weight infants presented with tetany -
A. IV Diazepam
B. IV calcium gluconate with cardiac monitoring
C. IV slow phenobarbitone
D. Wait and watch
| IV calcium gluconate with cardiac monitoring |
2fb68cbd-7016-448e-a3dc-96a68ae90acc | Carphologia is seen in Datura poisoning Typical pill rolling movements Pull imaginary threads from fingeips Threads imaginary needles Other sign and symptoms: Dry mouth, irrelevant slurred speech, dry and hot skin, dilated pupils. Physostigmine, a reversible acetylcholine-esterase antagonist, is effective treatment for severe anticholinergic poisoning. | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology - 1 | Carphologia is seen in:
A. Datura poisoning
B. Digitalis poisoning
C. LSD overdose
D. Alcohol withdrawal
| Datura poisoning |
a5534a3b-8d71-4c8b-90fb-e14a574464dc | Test shown in the video is for Supraspinatus (C5,C6) Empty can test: This tests the strength of Supraspinatus . The patient is asked to raise his /her arms to a position of 90-degree abduction,30 degrees of forward flexion and internal rotation(thumbs pointing to the floor, as if emptying an imaginary can) The examiner stands behind the patient and applies downward pressure on both arms, with the patient resisting this force. The result is positive if the affected side is weaker than the unaffected side-tear of the supraspinatus tendon. | Orthopaedics | Nerve Injuries - 1 | Test shown in the video is for which structure & its nerve supply:
A. Infraspinatus C6,C7
B. Subscapularis C5,C6
C. Supraspinatus C5,C6
D. Teres minor C6,C7
| Supraspinatus C5,C6 |
3bcd606b-9813-4466-8263-3d4bfa144f1a | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Seizure Complications of meningitis in children Seizure is the commonest complication of meningitis in children. It occurs in about 30% of patients. o Other common complications of meningitis. 1) Subdural empyema or effusions -- It is commonly seen after meningitis with H. Influenza. 2) Brain Abscesses 3) Neurological impairment --> Hemiplegia, Aphasia, Mental retardation, blindness. 4) Auditory impairment (sensorineural deafness) 5) Hydrocephalus 6) Ventriculitis, Arachnoidits 7) Cranial nerve palsies 8) Thrombosis of dural venous sinuses 9) Transverse myelitis 10) Systemic complication - Shock, Myocarditis, Status epilepticus, Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. | Pediatrics | null | Most common complication of meningitis in children is -
A. Hearing loss
B. Seizures
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Mitral regurgitation
| Seizures |
d1e0f2d1-0396-4f1a-9d0d-9522916eb9ce | Cleans of safe Delivery: &;Five cleans&; (Practices) under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include, Clean delivery surface Clean hands (of bih attendants) Clean cord cut (blade or instrument) Clean cord tie Clean cord stump (no applicant) Ref: National Health Programs of India by Dr. J. Kishore 8th edition Pgno: 128 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Maternal and child care | Which of the following is not included in &;5 cleans&; in conduct of delivery?
A. Clean hands
B. Clean perineum
C. Clean cutting and care of cord
D. Clean surface for delivery
| Clean perineum |
55ce0cbf-12b7-4b34-bb46-c9f2310536dc | Jefferson&;s fracture is the fracture of C1 veebra (atlas). Reference- Maheshwari-9th edn- pg no 3 | Orthopaedics | Management in Orthopedics | Jefferson fracture is -
A. Fracture of atlas
B. Fracture of axis
C. Fracture of spinous process of C7
D. Fracture of any cervical veebra
| Fracture of atlas |
cba257f3-6931-475d-9334-58d01164bf27 | Ans: A. Venturi maskRef: Ajar Yadov, Short Textbook of Anesthesia, 1st edition. pg 37.Explanation:Oxygen delivery SystemsOxygen is given thru fixed and variable performance devices.Fixed performance devices deliver a flow of oxygen equal to or in excess of peak inspiratory flowVariable performance devices use the deadspace of the nasopharynx or face masks as a reservoir of oxygen. They cannot deliver high inspired concentrations of oxygen.The oxygen delivery systems are classified into High flow delivery & low flow delivery systemsHigh flow delivery systemsThese work on Venturi Principle which states that if a gas is passed through a narrow orifice at high pressure it creates shearing forces around the orifice which entrain room air in specific ratio.The inspiratory gas flow should be 3 - 4 times the minute volumeThese high flow system include venture mask which delivers accurate inspired oxygen (FI02) (Error is only 1-2%)Venturi Mask:These are 'Fixed performance' oxygen delivery devices, delivering accurate oxygen concentration.'Fixed performance' because the performance is not affected by changes in patient's tidal volume and respiratory rate.The venture mask are available in different colours:ColourFlow rate of O2 (Litre per min)Delivered O2(FiO2)Blue0224%White0428%Orange0631%Yellow0835%Red1040%Green1560%The maximum oxygen that can be delivered by venture mask is 60%.Low flow oxygen delivery systemsThese includeNasal cannulaSimple mask ('Mary Carterall mask)Oxygen tentsNon rebreathing maskRebreathing maskPoly maskThe advantage is that these are very cheap and can he used in wards, preoperative and postoperative rooms and these are better tolerated by patients as compared to high flow systems.The disadvantage is that the delivered oxygen (FiO2) accuracy cannot be predicted (Compared to venturi mask which delivers accurate concentration)These low flow systems are 'variable performance* devices, since their performance is affected by changes in patient's tidal volume and respiratory rate.Oxygen Mask: Very commonly used in wards. Also known as Mary carterall maskOxygen flow rate/minDelivered oxygen (FiO2>5-6 litres40%6-7 litres50%7-8 litres60% So maximum concentration of oxygen that can be delivered by oxygen mask is 60%Increasing rate beyond 8 litres will not increase the Fi02 to more than 60% Attaching reservoir bag can increase Fi02 to 80%Nasal Cannula: The tip of nasal cannula should lie in nasopharynxFlow rate (litre/min)FiO2124%228%-332%436%540%644%- So. Maximum oxygen w hich can he delivered by nasal cannula is 44%Non rebreathing masks: Can deliver upto 80% of oxygenRebreathing mask: When tightly lit. they can provide 100% oxygen | Anaesthesia | Breathing Systems | Fixed performance device:
A. Venturi mask
B. Nasal cannula
C. Simple mask
D. Non rebreathing mask
| Venturi mask |
1fc7b527-603c-4240-a29b-aa18ba457839 | Rotator cuff impingement syndrome is a painful disorder which is thought to arise from repetitive compression or rubbing of the tendons (mainly supraspinatus) under the coracoacromial arch. Normally, when the arm is abducted, the conjoint tendon slides under the coracoacromial arch. As abduction approaches 90 degrees, there is a natural tendency to externally rotate the arm, thus allowing the rotator cuff to occupy the widest pa of the subacromial space. If the arm is held persistently in abduction and then moved to and fro in internal and external rotation (as in cleaning a window, painting a wall or polishing a flat surface) the rotator cuff may be compressed and irritated as it comes in contact with the anterior edge of the acromion process and the taut coracoacromial ligament. This attitude (abduction, slight flexion and internal rotation) has been called the 'impingement position'. Perhaps significantly, the site of impingement is also the 'critical area' of diminished vascularity in the supraspinatus tendon about 1 cm proximal to its inseion into the greater tuberosity. Reference Apley&;s system of ohopaedics-9th edn -pg no 341. | Orthopaedics | Bony dysplasia and soft tissue affection | Painful arc syndrome is caused by impingement of -
A. Sub acromial bursa
B. Sub deltoid bursa
C. Rotator cuff tendon
D. Biceps tendon
| Rotator cuff tendon |
111e771e-f00d-4056-a982-757d4bd44ab3 | The marked reticulocytosis and marrow hyperplasia indicate that the marrow is responding to a decrease in RBCs. The reticulocytes are larger RBCs that slightly increase the MCV. Anaplastic marrow is very hypocellular and unable to respond to anemia; it is associated with pancytopenia. The normal Coombs test results exclude autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Iron deficiency impairs the ability of the marrow to mount significant and sustained reticulocytosis. Iron deficiency anemia is typically microcytic and hypochromic but could be partially masked here by reticulocytosis, which would not be as marked if iron were not available, but his diet is supplying needed iron. Infiltrative disorders, such as metastases in the marrow, would impair the ability to mount reticulocytosis of this degree. | Pathology | Blood | A 65-year-old man has experienced worsening fatigue for the past 5 months. On physical examination, he is afebrile and has a pulse of 91/min, respirations of 18/min, and blood pressure of 105/60 mm Hg. There is no organomegaly. A stool sample is positive for occult blood. Laboratory findings include hemoglobin of 5.9 g/dL, hematocrit of 18.3%, MCV of 99 mm3, platelet count of 250,000/ mm3, and WBC count of 7800/ mm3. The reticulocyte concentration is 3.9%. No fibrin split products are detected, and direct and indirect Coombs test results are negative. A bone marrow biopsy specimen shows marked erythroid hyperplasia. Which of the following conditions best explains these findings?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C. Chronic blood loss
D. Iron deficiency anemia
| Chronic blood loss |
bcab342f-651d-4789-b874-9b4b36dfec8a | Answer is A (Vitamin B12) Shilling's test is done to determine the cause of cyanocobalamine deficiency (Vitamin B12). Schilling test is abnormal in conditions that affect cobalamine absorption including Pernicious anemia, Chronic Pancreatitis, Bacterial overgrowth syndrome and Heal dysfunction. Conditions with Abnormal Schilling's Test (Abnormal Cobalamine Absorption) Pernicious anemia Chronic Pancreatitis Achlorhydria Bacterial overgrowth syndrome Beal dysfunction Schilling Test: Schilling test is performed to determine the cause of cobalamine malabsorption (Vit B12 malabsorption). Since cobalamine absorption requires multiple steps including gastric, pancreatic and ileal processes, the Schilling test can also be used to assess the integrity of these other organs. The Schilling test is performed by administering Co58-labeled cobalamin orally and collecting urine for 24h 1 mg of cobabmine is administed intramuscularly one hour after ingestion of the Radiolabelled cobalamine. This is done to ensure saturation of cobalamine binding sites in the liver as urinary excretion of cobalamine will reflect cobalamine absorption only provided that intrahepatic binding sites of cobalamine are fully occupied. Once intrahepatic binding sites of cobalamine are saturated all absorbed radiolabelled cobalamine will be excreted in urine. The Schilling test may be abnormal (defined as less than 10 percent excretion in 241i) in conditions that affect cobalamine absorption including Pernicious anemia, Chronic Pancreatitis, Bacterial overgrowth syndrome and Heal dysfunction. The etiology for an abnormal Schilling test may be deduced by administering Co58-labeled cobalamin with intrinsic factor, pancreatic enzymes or after 5 day course of antibiotics. Differential Results of Schilling Test in various diseases associated with cobalamin malabsorption may thus help establish the diagnosis. Diagnosis 58Co-Chl With Intrinsic Factor With Pancreatic Enzymes After 5 Days of Antibiotics Pernicious anemia Reduced Normal Reduced Reduced Chronic pancreatitis Reduced Reduced Normal Reduced Bacterialovergrowth Reduced Reduced Reduced Normal Ileal disease Reduced Reduced Reduced Reduced | Medicine | null | Shilling's test is used to determine deficiency of
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin B6
C. Folic Acid Deficiency
D. Vitamin D Deficiency
| Vitamin B12 |
e36932fa-3662-42de-b87f-121c83fb78db | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Corynebacterium diphtheriae | Microbiology | null | Tellurite stimulates growth of-
A. E.coil
B. Cl. tetani
C. Corynebacterium diptheriae
D. Salmonella
| Corynebacterium diptheriae |
ca09583c-2889-4227-86c3-e2ee0d53f793 | Procedure for prolapse and hemorrhoidectomy- also known as or MIPH - also known as or stapled hemorrhoidectomy MIPH Minimally invasive proctoscopic hemorrhoidectomy - In this procedure a circular cutting stapler is used to excise a sho - Circumferential segment of rectal mucosa proximal to dentate line, thus ligating venules feeding the hemorrhoides. | Surgery | Sutures and Anastomoses | Stapler used for MIPH:-
A. Linear cutting stapler
B. Circular cutting stapler
C. Linear stapler
D. Circular stapler
| Circular cutting stapler |
2d6d5136-8c82-49c9-8b44-de52d0b41db5 | INDEX OF ORTHODONTIC TREATMENT NEED (IOTN):
The Index of Orthodontic Treatment Needs (IOTN) was described in 1989 by R H. Brook and W.C. Shaw to assess orthodontic treatment need from an anatomical and aesthetic perspective.
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
Soben Peter
5th edition | Dental | null | The index described by Brooke and Shaw to assess orthodontic treatment need from an anatomical and aesthetic perspective is:
A. Orthodontic Treatment Priority Index (TPI)
B. Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need (IOTN)
C. Index of Complexity Outcome and Need (ICON)
D. Dental Aesthetic Index (DAI)
| Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need (IOTN) |
56a80513-830f-4347-b16a-7190b4cbbf27 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tc - 99 o The radioisotopes typically used in SPECT to label tracers are Iodine - 123, technetium - 99m, xenon -133, thallium - 201, and fluorine - 18. | Radiology | Positron Emission Tomography of Non-Oncological Disorders | Dye used in SPECT -
A. 0-14
B. Tc - 99
C. Nitrogen - 16
D. Iodine 124
| Tc - 99 |
8fa295a4-2658-4931-8d02-522a1d90dc45 | pilocarpine is directly acting while physostigmine is indirectly acting cholinomimetic and both are used for the treatment of glaucoma. | Pharmacology | null | Directly acting, lipid-soluble cholinomimetic among the following is:
A. Physostigmine.
B. Pilocarpine.
C. Atropine.
D. Neostigmine.
| Pilocarpine. |
e63c9029-c281-4c66-9b4f-460aec613b60 | This is a case of pneumonia due to Legionella pneumophila. Gram stain shows poorly stained gram-negative bacilli. DFA test shows positive test for Legionella. CT scans shows multifocal consolidations- suggestive of pneumonia due to Legionella pneumophila. Legionella pneumonia/ Legionnaires' disease Pulmonary infection primarily with the organism Legionella pneumophila Sometimes classified as atypical pneumonia Hyponatremia is classically seen due to inappropriate ADH secretion. Gram negative bacillus Thin, non-capsulated Best visualized by DFA test Grow on BCYE agar Fastidious organism Spreads by inhalation of aerosols from cooling towers, air conditioners and shower heads. | Unknown | Integrated QBank | A 40-year-old male presented with fever, cough with expectoration and shoness of breath, mild confusion for 1 week. Patient gave history of shower in a public washroom 10 days back. Patient also repoed some episodes of diarrhoea. Sputum sample was taken. And gram staining and direct fluorescent antibody test were done. CT Scan Which of the following lab findings would be most commonly found: -
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypocalcemia
| Hyponatremia |
9cdf237b-12c2-4594-963f-e513e546faaa | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 2005-06 National family health survey (NFHS) Is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India. 3 rounds of the survey have been conducted till date. NFHS-1: 1992-93 NFHS-2: 1998-99 NFHS-3: 2005-06 Goals of NFHS survey: To provide essential data needed by Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and other agencies for policy and programme purposes To provide information on impoant emerging health and family welfare issues Few key findings of NFHS-3, India (2005-06) Literacy rate : Male - 83%, Female - 59%. IMR : 57 per 1000 live bihs. TFR : 2.6 Contraceptive prevalence : 56% (Sterilization 37%) 3 AN check ups : 51%. Took IFA : 65% (Took IFA for 90 days) or more : 23%. Received > 2 TT injections : 76% Institutional deliveries : 41% Delivery assisted by health professionals : 48%. Delivery conducted by a skilled provider : 47%. Anemia - children : 79% Anemia - pregnancy : 58% Women experienced domestic violence : 37% | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | NFHS-3 was conducted in ?
A. 1992-93
B. 1998-99
C. 2005-06
D. 2009-10
| 2005-06 |
1ef2dda2-6126-424c-bc9a-fe5b8af7ff29 | Right middle lobe opacity illustrates the "silhouette sign" on the right hea border. The silhouette sign is is commonly associated with alveolar disease. It consists of obliteration of an anatomic border due to direct contact with an alveolar density. It is also associated with pulmonary collapse, masses and pectus excavatum. Ref: Kritek P., Reilly, J.J. (2012). Chapter e34. Atlas of Chest Imaging. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Radiology | null | If the right cardiac silhouette is obliterated, it means the pathology involves:
A. Right middle lobe
B. Right lower lobe
C. Right atrium of hea
D. Right ventricle of hea
| Right middle lobe |
5c09e7c7-4052-4535-9826-63b3d2ce311d | Upper temporal conjunctiva has minimum number of Goblet cells in Conjunctiva.
Nasal bulbar conjunctiva has maximum number of Goblet cells in Conjunctiva. | Ophthalmology | null | Minimum number of Goblet cells in Conjunctiva is found at
A. Nasal bulbar conjunctiva
B. Lower temporal conjunctiva
C. Upper tarsal conjunctiva
D. Upper temporal conjunctiva
| Upper temporal conjunctiva |
af6f722f-efde-4249-88b1-8b30c09c071b | Answer is A (Anti HBsAg positive) Presence of Anti HBsAg positive status indicates either immunization with HBs Ag or Hepatitis B in the remote past with complete recovery such patients are considered safe fin- blood transfusion. HbsAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBc HBeAg Anti-HBe Interpretation - + IgG - +/- Recovery from hepatitis B - + - - - 1. Immunization with HbsAg (after vacciniation) 2. Hepatitis B in the remote past (?) 3. False-positive | Medicine | null | A person is screened for blood Donation. Which of the following serology is safe for Blood donation.
A. Anti HBsAg positive
B. HBsAg positive
C. Anti HBC positive (IgM)
D. HBcAg positive
| Anti HBsAg positive |
4a52afbb-9cd7-4177-a9f7-fca37b81d2a7 | Dentate nucleus is associated with Cerebrocerebellum which correspond to lateral zone of cerebellum Ref: Ganong , 25th edition/ page 248 | Physiology | All India exam | The lateral zones of cerebellum are associated with
A. Globose nucleus
B. Dentate nucleus
C. Emboliform nucleus
D. Fastigeal nucleus
| Dentate nucleus |
15b9ca11-863a-43a3-b8c3-799cdb3342fe | Ans. (d) AV malformation of brainRef: Sabiston 19/e p 1900-1902* Stereotactic Surgery involves delivery of concentrated dose of RT to a defined volume of brain using Gamma knife or modified linear accelerator* Used in# Metastatic tumors# AV malformations# Benign Cranial nerve lesions# Trigeminal neuralgia | Surgery | Nervous System | Stereotactic radiosurgery is done for:
A. Glioblastoma multiforme
B. Medulloblastoma spinal cord
C. Ependymoma
D. AV malformation of brain
| AV malformation of brain |
49678267-3670-4ad0-b0c8-141539207654 | K.D Tripathy essentials of medical pharmacology 7th edition . *Neurogenic theory consider it to be spreading depression of coical electrical activity followed by vascular phenomena. | Medicine | C.N.S | Migraine is due to
A. Dilatation of cranial aeries
B. Constriction of cranial aeries
C. Coical spreading dissociation
D. Meningial inflammation
| Coical spreading dissociation |
880961e6-e4d2-409e-835f-a3c3fd3ec15d | If a cesarean hysterectomy is planned, the best abdominal entry technique is via midline vertical incision.
This allows retractor placement and optimizes exposure to nearby organs and may facilitate access to the upper abdomen.
This incision is in general preferable to the Pfannenstiel or low transverse (“bikini cut”) incision most commonly used by obstetricians for cesarean delivery due to the limited exposure afforded by this incision.
In rare emergent circumstances, a low transverse incision may need to be converted to a midline vertical incision to enhance exposure, resulting in an inverted T-shaped incision, which is more difficult to close, more painful, less cosmetically acceptable, and may result in a longer recovery time. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A 40-year-old multigravida with multiple fibroids in the lower segment of the uterus in the 3rd trimester. Most appropriate in this case would be?
A. LSCS
B. Classical CS
C. Classical CS with hysterectomy
D. Vaginal delivery
| Classical CS with hysterectomy |
6a8a8d11-5fcb-4aac-9650-e9a139e842f4 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nocardia asterordes [Ref: Previous explanation)o Symptoms of pneumonia by a filamentous acid fast bacterium suggest the diagnosis of Nocardia.NOCARDIAMorphologyo Grant positiveo Acid fast (N. astroides and N. brasiliensis)o Crooked, branching, beaded, filamentous.Cultureo Use paraffin as a carbon source.o Paraffin baiting is used for isolation.o Strict aerobeo They take 2 weeks to appear and show their characteristic appearance at about 4 weeks.Clinical manifestationTreatment* Sulfonamide -Drug of choice* Cotrimoxazole-Equivalent* Minocycline-Best alternative* Amikacin-DOC for parenteral useRemembero N. asteroides is the species most commonly associated with invasive disease. | Microbiology | Bacteria | A 36 years male presented with complain of productive cough and fever for last 2 months. Hehas undergone kidney transplantation 2 years back. His sputum examination revealed a grampositive filamentous bacteria that showed acid fastness with modified Ziehi-Neelsen staining(1% H2S04). The most likely etiological agent is ?
A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Nocardia asteroides
C. Blastomyces dermaiiiidis
D. Crfptospcridium parvum
| Nocardia asteroides |
304a43bb-c15e-432d-9306-3bf43791727a | Ref-KDT 6/e p107 Atropine is a non-selective antagonist of M1, M2, and M3 muscarinic receptors. M2, cholinergic receptors are responsible for bradycardia and blockade of these receptors can result in tachycardia. Atropine initially acts on presynaptic M1, receptors (normally decrease the release of ACh) and result in greater release of ACh which is responsible for bradycardia. Later on, blockade of M2 receptors will lead to tachycardia. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | Intramuscular injection of atropine causes initial bradicardia. The reason for this effective being seen is
A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre
B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia
C. Blockade of ME receptor and SA nodal cells
D. Blockade of muscarinic auto receptor on vagal nerve ending
| Blockade of muscarinic auto receptor on vagal nerve ending |
86fbe4f5-d72c-405a-92ba-028b33296913 | Radiographic contrast is a general term that describes the range of densities on a radiograph. It is defined as the difference in densities between light and dark regions on a radiograph. An image that shows both light areas and dark areas has high contrast; Alternatively, a radiographic image composed only of light gray and dark gray zones has low contrast.
The energy of the x-ray beam, selected by the kVp, influences image contrast. As the kVp of the x-ray beam increases, subject contrast decreases. Similarly, when relatively low kVp energies are used, subject contrast increases. | Radiology | null | In a radiograph, contrast is directly affected by altering:
A. Tube angulation
B. Exposure time
C. Kilovoltage
D. Milliampere
| Kilovoltage |
4f959fa7-b13f-4a20-864b-a034b2c0632b | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Scurvy Radiological features of scurvy The typical radiological features occur at the ends of long bones, paicularly around knee, i.e. lower end of femur and upper end of tibia. Other common site is proximal end of humerus. Features are - Ground glass appearace of bone Pencil thin coex White line offraenkel --> represents well calcified cailage in metaphysis. Wimburger sign --> white ring surrounding the epiphyseal centres of ossification. Winburger sign is also called ring sign as there is white ring surrounding the epiphyseal centers of ossification. Zone of rarefaction under the white line --> represents a linear break in the bone, proximal and parallel to white line and epiphyseal separation may occur along this line. Lateral pa of this rarefaction is seen as a triangular defect. Palkan spur or lateral spur --> lateral prolongation of white line. During healing phase, subperiosteal hemorrhages become calcified and the affected bone assumes a dumbbell or club shape. | Surgery | null | Wimburger sign is seen in ?
A. Scurvy
B. Rickets
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteomalacia
| Scurvy |
21c248f4-d6a4-423f-8f7f-ac6c0e62cc65 | Answer- B. LungAccumulation of fluid in the interlobar spaces of the lung (as a result of CHF) appears as a neoplasm on a radiograph.It is called as Phantom tumor or pseudotumor or vanishing tumor. | Medicine | null | Vanishing tumor is seen in
A. Liver
B. Lung
C. Bone
D. Hea
| Lung |
3ad5676b-88a1-4227-9af5-0c6092f9138f | Using ultrasound to study the uterine aeries, uteroplacental blood flow has been measured to increase progressively during pregnancy from approximately 450 ml/min in mid trimester to nearly 500-700 ml/min at 36 weeks. Ref: Williams Obs 25 e pg 132. | Anatomy | General obstetrics | Uteroplacental blood flow at term is :
A. 300-500 ml/min
B. 500-700 ml/min
C. 700-900 ml/min
D. 900-1100 ml/min
| 500-700 ml/min |
129f2ff3-ad8f-4730-91f3-5f67d982dba8 | B i.e. Diencephalon - Forebrain (prosencephalon) consists of telencephalon (anterior or rostral pa) and diencephalon (posterior or caudal pa). - Telencephalon forms cerebral hemisphere and their cavities -- lateral ventricle and pa of 3rd ventricle- Diancephalon forms - optic cup & stalkQ, pituitary, thalmus, hypothlmus, epithalmus, pineal gland (or epiphysis), & 3rd ventricle (most pa)- Retina develops from walls of optic cupQ. The outer thinner layer becomes retinal pigmented epithelium and inner thicker layer forms neural layer of retina. | Anatomy | null | The retina is an out growth of the :
A. Mesencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Telencephalon
D. Pons
| Diencephalon |
b316b515-0093-4efe-b26a-dac5e7c47978 | Direct immunofluorescence of renal biopsy specimen Direct immunofluorescence with Conjugated antibodies against IgG, IgM, and IgA to detect the presence of "lumpy-bumpy" immune deposits and Linear IgG or IgA antibodies bound to GBM antibodies against trapped complement proteins (C3 and C4). Ref: Harrison-18, P-2339. | Medicine | null | During direct immunofluorescence testing of renal biopsy specimen, lumpy bumby immune deposits are seen with conjugated antibodies against:
A. IgG, IgM, and IgA
B. GBM
C. C3 and C4
D. IgE
| IgG, IgM, and IgA |
28982986-69c7-4abb-8326-964d9eaf5fbb | Crescents are histological characteristic of RPGN. | Pathology | null | Crescents are characteristic of
A. Membranous nephropathy
B. PSGN
C. MPGN
D. RPGN
| RPGN |
0a5e0f10-0061-419b-9ab4-97a359bdf0cd | (Haemorrhoids) (1259-LB) (1256-B &L 25th)Indication of Haemorrhoidectomy* Third degree haemorrhoids* Second degree haemorrhoids which have not been cured by non operative treatments* Fibrosed haemorrhoids* Intero-extemal haemorrhoids when the external haemorrhoids is well definedHaemorrhoidectomy can be performed using an open or closed technique - Open technique is most commonly used in the UK and is known as the Milligan-Morgan operation. In the open technique the anal mucosa and skin are left open to heal by secondary intension, and in the closed technique the wound is sutured.* Delorme's operation used in rectal prolapse (1225-LB) | Surgery | Rectum | Milligan-Morgan operation is indicated in
A. Rectal prolapse
B. Haemorrhoides
C. Anal fissure
D. Fistula in Ano
| Haemorrhoides |
12a57064-cd51-49f8-8ca5-d087803bc8c5 | Where available, a non-contrast helical CT scan with 5 millimeters (0.20 in) sections is the diagnostic modality of choice in the radiographic evaluation of suspected nephrolithiasis. All stones are detectable on CT scans except very rare stones composed of ceain drug residues in the urine, such as from indinavir. | Radiology | null | Which is the most sensitive test for ureteric stone?
A. USG
B. Non contrast CT scan
C. Intravenous pyelogram
D. X- ray
| Non contrast CT scan |
cf69d4dd-4c39-4d61-a287-7bb3bcc40208 | Naegleria fowleri produces primary amoebic meningoencephalitis which typically has headache with history of swimming. The ameba is commonly found in warm freshwater (e.g. lakes, rivers, and hot springs) and soil. Naegleria fowleri usually infects people when contaminated water enters the body through the nose Ref: D.R. Arora.Medical parasitology 4th ed pg. 35 | Microbiology | parasitology | A 20yr old patient with a recent history of swimming in fresh water developed headache, fever, vomiting, seizures.CSF examination revealed motile amoeba which is the probable causative agent?
A. Naegleria
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Balamuthia
D. Entamoeba histolytica
| Naegleria |
a1ebf5bd-1068-4515-ae0c-9cae0a94b1de | Fetus - universal flexion - 1deg curvature After bih - Cervical Lordosis - 2deg curvature begins when child stas to gain head stability lumbar lordosis - convex anteriorly begins to appear when child learns to sit. Cervical lordosis - 2deg Thoracic kyphosis - 1deg Lumbar lordosis - 2deg Sacral kyphosis - 1deg | Anatomy | Back region | Which of these pas of Veebral Canal will show secondary curves with concavity backwards
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Sacral
D. Coccyx
| Cervical |
1e5936e2-6159-4745-a265-16c3a8cde379 | CARPAL TUNNEL:8 carpal bones covered by flexor retinaculum CONTENTS: 9 flexor tendons + median nerve 9 tendons: 4 tendons of flexor digitorumsuperficialis 4 tendons of flexor digitorum profundus 1 tendon of flexor pollicis longus Carpal tunnel syndrome: the overuse of these 9 tendons, causes the inflammation which compresses theMedian nerve causing carpal tunnel syndrome, causing tingling sensation in 3 and 1/2 fingers, including nail beds. Ulnar nerve passes through guyon's canal. | Anatomy | FMGE 2017 | NOT a content of carpal tunnel:-
A. Flexor digitorum superficialis
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Median nerve
| Ulnar nerve |
6f10e58a-d39e-40e0-b2fc-95c51d8f7b0d | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mycobacterium tuberculosis * Spoligotyping (spacer oligotyping) is a type of polymerase chain reaction (PCR).* Compared with other PCR-based methods that combine detection and typing of such DNA, spoligotyping is more sensitive, because it targets the direct repeats (DRs) present in multiple (sometimes up to 60) copies in the genomic DR locus of M. tuberculosis complex bacteria.* The well-conserved 36-bp DRs are interspersed with nonrepetitive spacer sequences of 34 to 41 bp in length (2, 3, 4).* The variation in the presence of these spacer sequences among strains of the M. tuberculosis complex allows for the genotyping of mycobacterial DNA directly isolated from clinical samples without the need to culture these bacteria. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Spoligotyping is done for -
A. Staphylococcus
B. Salmonella
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Brucella abortus
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
1f475f94-0f40-4903-99a4-526466416251 | Pellagra Pellagra occurs due to Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency Pellagra is characterized by by 4D's : 1.Diarrhoea 2.Dermatitis 3.Dementia 4.Death. Skin rash in Pellagra may appear as pigmented and scaly in areas exposed to sunlight. Especially neck when it is known as 'Casal's Necklace' Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 657 Harrison's 15th edition Pgno : 463 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Casal's Necklace is seen in deficiency of
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B3
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin D
| Vitamin B3 |
8a818ddd-6b03-4aa7-8bf8-e3d31da22671 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tobacco use Leukoplakia (from the Greek, ieukos, "white" andplax, "plaque")o Is an asymptomatic white lesion on the surface of a mucous membrane that affects both sexes equally, mostly after the third decade of life.o A variety of diseases are characterized by white plaques on the oral mucosa (e.g., candidiasis, lichen planus, psoriasis, syphilis).o Erythroplakia is the red equivalent of leukoplakia but is less common.o Red areas associated with leukoplakic lesions are referred to as speckled leukoplakia (erythroleukoplakia, speckled mucosa). In contrast to leukoplakia, erythroplakia may represent moderate to severe dysplasia or carcinoma. Not all of these lesions herald malignancy, as many may be inflammatory' in natureo Oral Leukoplakia is the most common potentially malignant Lesion of the oral mucosa. It is seen most frequently in middle-aged and older men, with an increasing prevalence with age. Less than one percent of men below the age of 30 years have oral leukoplakia. The etiology is multifactorial but the most common cause associated with oral leukoplakia is tobacco consumption.Thus, we derive that the most common antecedent of either ery throplakia or leukoplakia in India is tobacco use. | Pathology | Etiology: Carcinogenic Agents | The most common antecedent of erythroplakia and leukoplakia is
A. Diphtheria
B. Tobacco use
C. Alcohol
D. Poor oral hygiene
| Tobacco use |
0d51ed70-e366-4497-b44f-f2717abf67d2 | Botulinum toxin, injected into the lower esophageal sphincter under endoscopic guidance, inhibits acetylcholine release from nerve endings and improves dysphagia in about 66% of cases of achalasia for at least 6 months. This technique is useful only for temporary relief of symptoms, thus associated with high rate of recurrence. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 292 | Surgery | null | Which of the following mode of treatment for achalasia is associated with high rate of recurrence?
A. Pneumatic dilatation
B. Laproscopic myotomy
C. Open surgical myotomy
D. Botullin toxin
| Botullin toxin |
3dffb535-8dd8-44eb-a250-ff8e78c6516e | CSDT says "following injury, neural impulses carried spinothalamic pathways activate the brain stem and thalamic and coical centres, which stimulate the hypothalamus. Hypothalamic stimulation triggers combined neural and endocrine discharges. Norepinephrine is released sympathetic nerve endings, epinephrine from the adrenal medulla, aldosterone from the adrenal coex, ADH from the adrenal coex, ADH from the posterior pituitary, glucagon from the pancreas, and ACTH, TSH and growth hormone from the anterior pituitary. These hormones produce secondary elevation of coisol, thyroid hormone and somatomedins. Hormones Increased In Response to Surgical Stress Catecholamines: The plasma catecholamines increase immediately after trauma and acheive peak concentration in 24-48 hours depending on the severity. Glucagon: Glucagon along with catecholamine and coisol promotes and prolongs the liver glycogenesis. Coisol: Hypothalamus during stress secretes ACTH, which in turn initiates sudden increase in coisol levels. Growth hormone: The secretion of GH is governed by hypothalamic factors, autonomic stimulation and non-hormonal signals. The primary metabolic action of GH during stress is to promote protein synthesis and enhance lipid breakdown, and glucose stores. Vasopressin (ADH) Aldosterone Renin-Angiotensin Plasma concentration of insulin during stress has been noted to be biphasic, characterized by the suppression of insulin secretion followed by a normal secretion. Ref: Bailey 27th edition, Pgno: 7 CSDT 11th edition pgno: 103-105 | Surgery | Trauma | Which of the following occurs in acute trauma?
A. Increase in Insulin
B. Decrease in glucagon
C. Decrease in coisol
D. Increase in thyroxine
| Increase in thyroxine |
db2f88a9-3c04-4f99-bdc9-3ca83ed660e0 | Ans. (d) Veneral conjunctivitisRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /79-80Trachoma: is a chronic keratoconjunctivitis, primarily affecting the superficial epithelium of conjunctiva and cornea simultaneously.# It is one of the leading causes of preventable blindness in the world.Etiology* Causative organism: caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.* The organism is epitheliotropic and produces intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called H.P. bodies.* There are 11 identified serotypes of Chlamydia: A,B, Ba, C,D,E,F,G,H,J and K* Serotypes A, B, Ba and C are associated with hyperendemic (blinding) trachoma* Serotypes D-K are associated with paratrachoma.OPHTHALMIA NEONATORUM* Bilateral inflammation of the conjunctiva occurring in an infant, less than 30 days old.Source and Mode of Infection* Before birth: very rare; through infected amniotic fluid in case of ruptured membranes.* During Birth: most common mode of infection; from infected birth canal when the child is born with face presentation or with forceps.* After birth: Infection during first bath of newborn or from infected clothes or hands.Causative Agents* Chemical conjunctivitis: silver nitrate or antibiotics used for prophylaxis.* Gonococcal infection* Neonatal inclusion conjuncitivitis caused by serotypesD to K of Chlamydia trachomatis is the commonest cause of ophthalmia neonatorum. | Ophthalmology | Inflammations of Conjunctiva - Infective | Ropy discharge is seen in:
A. Conjunctival conjunctivitis
B. Bacterial conjunctivitis
C. Fungal conjunctivitis
D. Veneral conjunctivitis
| Veneral conjunctivitis |
eedfd450-c2e9-46f0-8372-aef7c241cc69 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Subacute cutaneous lupus Anti-RNP SS-A (Ro), SS-B (La) are seen in neonatal lupus with congenital hea block and in subacute cutaneous lupus.These antibodies are associated with decreased risk of lupus nephritis. | Pathology | null | Anti RO antibodies are seen in -
A. Subacute cutaneous lupus
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Systemic sclerosis
D. Mixed connective tissue disorder
| Subacute cutaneous lupus |
75995f7f-5cae-4916-9ef8-bafedde4b664 | It is an inflammatory condition caused by Pseudomonas infection, usually in the elderly diabetics or in those on immunosuppressive drugs. There will be excruciating pain and granulations in the ear canal. Facial paralysis is common. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 55) | ENT | Ear | The cranial nerve most commonly involved in malignant otitis externa is?
A. 3rd
B. 4th
C. 6th
D. 7th
| 7th |
5bb231c6-909d-4c77-9727-12034cae23f3 | The tongue has contributions from all pharyngeal arches which changes with time.
The tongue initially begins as swelling rostral to foramen cecum, the median
tongue bud.
Arch 1 - oral part of tongue (anterior 3/2)
Arch 2 - initial contribution to surface is lost
Arch 3 - pharyngeal part of tongue (posterior 1/3)
Arch 4 - epiglottis and adjacent regions | Anatomy | null | The tongue is formed from
A. I,II,V branchial arches
B. I,III,V branchial arches
C. I,III,IV branchial arches
D. I,II,III,IV branchial arches
| I,II,III,IV branchial arches |
8e6e605d-e947-4f5e-b2c3-e880e1babc34 | (Vitamin A): Ref: (532-Park 20th) Vitamin A intoxicationAcute toxicity: - Increased intracranial pressure vertigo, diplopia, buldging frontanels in children, seizures, and exfoliative dermatitisChronic toxicity: - Dry skin, cheilosis, glossitis, vomiting, alopecia, bone pain hypercalcemia, lymph node enlargement, hyperlipidemia, amenorrhea, features of pseudo tumour cerebri with increased intracranial pressure and papilledema* Liver fibrosis with portal hypertension and bone demineralization may also results Pregnancy: - Spontaneous abortion, craniofacial abnormalities, and valvular heart disease Vitamin E intoxication: - wt. E (> 800 mg/day) may reduce platelet aggregation and with vitamin K metabolism and therefore contraindicated in patients taking Warfarin* Nausea, flatulence and diarrhea have been reported at doses > 1 gm/day Vitamin C intoxication: -* (> 3 gm) elevated blood levels of ALT, lactic acid dehydrogenase and uric acid* Increased prevelance of kidney stones (Preexisting renal disease)* Promote iron overload in patients taking supplemental iron* Hemolysis in patients with G-6PD deficiency Vitamin K Intoxication: -* Hemolytic anemia and hypobilirubinemia in infants* Impair the action of oral anticoagulants. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and Health | Papilledema is caused by:
A. Vitamin A intoxication
B. Vitamin D intoxication
C. Vitamin E intoxication
D. Vitamin B intoxication
| Vitamin A intoxication |
52278a30-23fe-41d6-9fc9-b7a19c6a2304 | Ans. D: Juvenile diabetes Snowflake Cataracts: This type of cataract represents dots of various sizes (and sometimes various colours) distributed throughout the coex surrounding the nucleus for 360deg. This is the most common cataract seen in Down Syndrome (extra copy of chromosome 21 also called trisomy 21) and juvenile diabetes mellitus. These usually have very little effect on vision. Adult diabetic cataract shows coical and/or nuclear and/or subcapsular (same as age related) | Ophthalmology | null | Snowflake cataract is associated with: September 2008
A. Hypeension
B. Adult diabetes
C. Trauma
D. Juvenile diabetes
| Juvenile diabetes |
39eef9f6-07f6-45f5-ad74-8a21e13c23b4 | Hypercalcemia is a highly prevalent complication of sarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis is due to the uncontrolled synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 by macrophages. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 leads to an increased absorption of calcium in the intestine and to an increased resorption of calcium in the bone Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 364 | Medicine | Fluid and electrolytes | Hypercalcemia caused by which one of the following is most likely to respond to treatment with coicosteroids?
A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
B. Milk alkali syndrome
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Paget's disease
| Sarcoidosis |
32332718-33ec-4beb-bc73-325eaec16954 | Rhinoscleroma # Chronic granulomatous infection of nose and upper respiratory tract # Affects adults, mainly in tropical locations # Transmitted by inhalation of Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis # a/w cellular immune defects: inability of macrophages to kill phagocytosed bacteria - Mikulicz cells (large, vacuolated histiocytes containing bacteria) # Three clinical phases: * Catarrhal phase (rhinitis, obstruction from soft tissue edema) * Granulomatous/infiltrative phase (granulomatous nodules in nose/U, epistaxis, dysphonia, anesthesia of soft palate, and Hebra nose) * Sclerotic phase (extensive scarring requires tracheotomy and nasal reconstruction) Histology:- Dense pan-dermal infiltrate of Mikulicz cells containing bacteria (seen w/ Wahin-Starry, Giemsa) and Russell bodies Treatment:- Tetracycline(treatment of choice) for 6 months along with surgical correction of airway; ciprofloxacin is second line. Above picture shows RUSSELL Bodies Ref:- Review of Dermatology by Alikhan; pg num:-299 | Dental | Bacterial infections | Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies are seen in
A. Rhinoscleroma
B. Rhinophyma
C. Rat bite fever
D. Lyme disease
| Rhinoscleroma |
49758846-70aa-472f-b4f6-52716c9e176e | Promoter regions are DNA sequences that define where transcription of a gene should begin.
If mutation occurs in promoter region transcription will get affected. | Biochemistry | null | In case of Duchenne Muscular dystrophy, dystrophin gene mutation occurs in promoter region. What process could get affected
A. Replication of DNA containing dystrophin gene
B. Post transcriptional modification of dystrophin gene.
C. Translation of Dystrophin protein
D. Transcription of Dystrophin gene
| Transcription of Dystrophin gene |
c7efe88b-8c68-4c9d-a965-c16f681a387c | They are the major adhesion complexes in the epidermis. Desmosomes bridge adjacent keratinocytes and allow cells to withstand trauma. Keratinocytes are created in the lower layers of the epidermis and operate with a phospholipid cell membrane, which can be quite permeable. When the keratinocytes are pushed to the stratum corneum, they are transformed into corneocytes with a more durable cell envelope. Ref: Harrison 20th edition pg 1256 | Dental | All India exam | Desmosomes are helpful in connecting
A. Keratinocytes
B. Lichen planus
C. Pemphigus
D. Langerhans cells
| Keratinocytes |
bd54f51b-62b1-4add-b929-cfd14f1d1c74 | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Serial 24 hrs tests for catecholamines, metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid excretion.This topic is one of the favorites of AIIMS ExaminersIt is a case of MEN Type II a i.e.-Medullary Carcinoma thyroid*Hyperparathyroidism *Pheochromocytoma. *Now lets us see which among the following investigation, the surgeon should order prior to thyroid surgery.Measurement of thyroid hormones :In is of no use as in medullary ca, the level of thyroid hormone is not altered.It secretes calcitonin*So the measurement of calcitonin level in serum after calcium or pentagastrin injection is done to diagnose this cancer.Note that the calcitonin level in serum is helpful in the diagnoses of MCT but it offers no specific advantage to the surgeons just before surgery.Serial determination of serum calcium, phosphorus, proteins and alkaline phosphatase :Hyperpara thyroidism is diagnosed by finding hyper calcemia, hypercalciuria, hypophosphatemia parathyroid hormone. But the diagnoses of hyperparathyroidism is not mandatory before performing surgery for MCT.5 HIA A urinary estimation :has no value here as it is done for the diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome*.Serial 24 hrs test for catecholamines, metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid excretion :These are done for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma.Measurement of urinary catecholamine levels is of utmost importance before embarking upon thyroid surgery, because pheochromocytoma secretes large amount of catecholamine which cause hypertension, the secretion is further increased during surgery which causes large swings in B.P and arrhythmias.So if pheochromocytoma is diagnosed before surgery, the dangers may be minimised by preoperative preparation. The effect of catecholamines is blocked by giving a blockers and b blockers prior to surgery.Bailey says "Pheochromocytoma must be excluded by measurement of urinary catecholamine levels in all cases before embracing upon thyroid surgery to avoid the potential hazards associated with this condition. " | Medicine | Endocrinology | A 25 year old young woman has recurrent episodes of headache and sweating. Her mother had renal calculi and died after having a neck mass. The physical exaination reveals a thyroid nodule but no clinical sign of thyrotoxicosis. Before performig thyroid surgery, the surgeon should order :
A. Mesurement of thyroid hormones.
B. Serial determinations of serum calcium, phosphorus protein and alkaline phosphatase.
C. 24-hours urine test for 5 hydroxyindoleacetic acid excretion.
D. Serial 24 hours test for catecholamines, metanephrines and vanillylamandelic acid excertion.
| Serial 24 hours test for catecholamines, metanephrines and vanillylamandelic acid excertion. |
eb26abb7-9a6b-421f-8814-f23351ab3506 | Lab investigations of pediatric TB
ESR and blood count: No value in diagnosis or follow up of TB.
Demonstration of AFB: Children don't expectorate out sputum, but swallow it. Therefore sputum is not available for examination. A laryngeal swab may be obtained for smear and culture examination for mycobacteria. It is customary to examine the gastric lavage in children for bacteriological examination on 3 consecutive days. Aspiration of early morning gastric contents (before breakfast) is done with a Ryle's tube and sent for bacteriological examination. Adding vancomycin to the sample improves the yield of mycobacterium. The CSF, Pleural fluid or bronchial aspirate, urine and discharges from tuberculosis sinuses are examined for tubercle bacilli.
Histopathology: Material for histopathology may be obtained by biopsy or FNAC.
PCR: High sensitivity and specificity for pleural fluid and low for gastric aspirate.
CXR and CT may show characteristic features.
USG may be helpful for the detection of enlarged abdominal lymph nodes.
Serology: Elisa or other methods have no utility in pediatric TB. | Pediatrics | null | Which of the following has no role in the diagnosis of childhood TB?
A. ELISA
B. Mantoux
C. CXR
D. FNAC
| ELISA |
27d4b482-965e-45ca-9405-b3e89b066951 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IUD Barrier methods A variety of barrier or occlusive methods, suitable for both men and women are available. The aim of these methods is to prevent live sperm from meeting the ovum. Barrier methods are less effective than either the pills or IUD. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which is not a barrier method of contraception ?
A. Condom
B. Suppositories
C. Diaphragm
D. IUD
| IUD |
da166fba-20d4-4703-ad7d-47af90d83f3c | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Laser iridotomy Treatment of angle closure glaucomao Definitive treatment (treatment of choice) is surgery. However, intially drugs are used to decrease IOP during an acute attack. Approach of treatment is as follow's:-Start i.v. mannitol or i.v. acetazolamideWhen IOT starts falling, start topical pilocarpine or p-blocker (timolol).Apraclonidine/latanoprost may be added.Once IOT is reduced, surgery' is done.o Topical pilocarpine 2% is the preferred antiglaucomatous drugo After control of IOP, Laser (Nd : YAG) peripheral irodotomy is the definitive management of choice. If laser is not available surgical peripheral iridectomy is the procedure of choice. Other surgical procedures used are fiIteration surgeries (like trabeculectomy , deep sclerotomy, Viscoanulostomy).o Symptomatic treatment during an attack also includes analgesics, antiemetic and topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. Mydriatics (e.g. atropine) are contraindicated as they precipitate glaucomao PACG is a bilateral disease, the fellow eye is at risk of developing an acute attack in 50% cases in future. Therefore a prophylactic peripheral laser iridotomy should be performed in the fellow eye. | Ophthalmology | Primary Angle-Closure Glaucoma | Best laser treatment in early stage of primary angle closure glaucoma (PACG) -
A. Laseriridotomy
B. LASIK
C. PRP
D. Laser trabeculoplasty
| Laseriridotomy |
2fa036ac-6c58-4560-a0d3-23d0c255b2ad | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4000 - 11000The normal range of leucocytes is 4000 - 11000 white blood cells per microliter.Of these, Neutrophils form 50 - 70%, lymphocytes 20 - 40%, monocytes 2 - 8%, eosinophils 1 -4%, basophils 0.4%. | Pathology | null | Normal leucocyte count is ?
A. 8000 -15000
B. 4000 - 11000
C. 5000 - 8000
D. 7000 -14000
| 4000 - 11000 |
e4bfa1e9-1695-487b-ab4b-79792439db77 | Ans. is 'a' ie of Atlas Some common named fractures :Jefferson *-Burst of atlas *Hangman's *- of axis *Clayshovellers *-Spines process of C7 * Smiths *-Reverse of colie's * ( at the cortico cancellus junction of radius with volar tilt of the distal fragment)* Barton 's *-distal radius ( extends from the distal articular surface of the radius to either its ant. or post, cortices)* Monteggia's dislocation*- of proximal half of ulna with dislocation of head of the radius* Galeazzi dislocation *- of the distal half of radius with dislocation of the distal radio-ulnar joint* Chauffer's*-radial styloid process* Aviator's *- neck of talus* Bennett's *- base of first metacarpal intraarticular* Rolando *- base of first metacarpal, extraarticular* Night stick *-Isolated shaft of ulna* Bumper *-comminuted of lateral condyle of tibia* Cotton's-trimalleolar ankle * Pott's *-bimalleolar ankle * March *-stress of shaft of 2nd metatarsal* Jone 's - of the base of the 5th metatarsal | Orthopaedics | Individual Cervical Vertebra Fracture of Interest | Jefferson is:
A. of atlas
B. axis
C. of spinous process of C 7
D. of any cervical vertebra
| of atlas |
e43eac27-3278-4f14-9761-c41bc4afe337 | Ganer duct cysts are uncommon vaginal cysts develop from remnants of the mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts. They are typically asymptomatic and are usually found within the lateral vaginal wall. Symptoms may include dyspareunia, vaginal pain, and difficulty inseing tampons or other vaginal devices. Examination reveals a tense cyst that is palpable or seen to bulge beneath the lateral vaginal wall. Marsupialization or excision may be appropriate for symptomatic Ganer duct cysts. | Anatomy | null | Ganer duct cyst is the remnant of the following embryological structure?
A. Mullerian duct
B. Wolffian duct
C. Cloacal duct
D. Epoophoron
| Wolffian duct |
caf4f9d9-3ccb-456b-a064-e8baa0faedf5 | The Gram stain is the most impoant staining procedure in microbiology. It is used to differentiate between gram positive organisms and gram negative organisms. Hence, it is a differential stain. Gram negative and gram positive organisms are distinguished from each other by differences in their cell walls. Ref: Ananthanarayana & panikers 9th edition | Microbiology | general microbiology | Gram stain is a?
A. Simple stain
B. Differential stain
C. Negative stain
D. Fluorescent stain
| Differential stain |
6b7c33da-7959-4d28-ad59-24eb8692939b | Ans. is 'b' i.e., MEN II About 70% of tumors arise sporadically. The remainder occurs in the rsetting of MEN syndrome 2A or 2B or as familial tumors without an associated MEN syndrome (familial medullary thyroid carcinoma, or FMTC. | Pathology | null | Medullary thyroid carcinoma is associated with?
A. MEN I
B. MEN II
C. MEN III
D. MEN IV
| MEN II |
030f929a-84a2-43a5-baac-66440d9b6bc7 | All the extra ocular muscles except inferior oblique arise from the apex of orbit. Inferior oblique arises from lower and inner orbital walls near the lacrimal fossa and inses in the sclera below and lateral to the posterior pole of the globe. Ref: Parsons' 21st / Pg. 393. | Ophthalmology | null | Name the extra ocular muscle which is NOT arising from the apex of orbit?
A. Superior rectus
B. Superior oblique
C. Inferior rectus
D. Inferior oblique
| Inferior oblique |
2cfdb8e2-112e-49d6-bdb7-a823051315f7 | blood and splenic tissues are the best specimen for the DNA analysis and should be frozen if there is leikely to be any delay before reaching the laboratory,fluid, swabs ,hair.other organs( liver, brain kidney and muscle) however also acceptable. With blood samples, a good HMWDNA recovery from all the bodies investigated was obtained during the first week following the death. In each case, the quality and quantity of the DNA were good enough to realizeDNA fingerprints with the SLP system (data not shown). In liver samples, only bodies of postmoem ages ranging from 1 to 7 days allowed us to obtain HMWDNA. HMWDNA was extracted from kidney samples up to one month after death, but the yield of DNA decreased rapidly, becoming very low beyond a period of one week. Past this period, we did not succeed in obtaining DNA fingerprints from DNA extracted. The extraction of DNA from lymph nodes was satisfactory up to one week. Over a postmoem period of 7 days, the DNA was degraded and unsuitable for blotting. HMWDNA was purified from spleen samples up to one week after death and the DNA present in hea tissue or in muscle cells was stable up to one month postmoem period, allowing us to perform DNA fingerprinting. Finally, out of all tissues tested, the brain coexappeared to be the most stable tissue for DNA recovery, even after long postmoem periods." Ref:MEDSCAPE | Forensic Medicine | Miscellaneous | For DNA testing, which tissue sample is taken in an autopsy-
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Brain
| Spleen |
fb0eca33-aaf7-4ba1-ac12-a0fede14090b | Total dioptric power of this schematic eye is 58.64 [?] 60D Refractive Power of Cornea =+45 D Refractive Power of Lens =+15 D | Ophthalmology | Optics and Errors of Refraction | Power of normal eye is:
A. +6D
B. +10D
C. +16D
D. +60D
| +60D |
4f841ef6-071f-4ce6-942b-1f721df60b7b | Ans is 'b' i.e. Satyriasis * Has been explained in previous sessions. | Psychiatry | Sexual Disorders | Excess sexual desire in male is known as?
A. Nymphomania
B. Satyriasis
C. Sadism
D. Masochism
| Satyriasis |
577f2265-89c6-4ac1-b475-f158a54027d4 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Prolonged starvation o Amongst the given options, DM and starvation are the causes of ketosisDiabetes :- Ketosis with hyperglycemia and glycosuria Prolonged starvation :- Ketosis with low or normal glucose and without glycosuria.o In diabetic Ketoacidosis:- (i) Positive Rothera's test (due to ketone bodies) (ii) Positive Benedict's test (due to presence of reducing sugar in urine)o In Starvation ketosis:- (i) Postive Rothera's test (due to ketone bodies), (ii) Negative Benedict's test (no sugar in urine) | Biochemistry | Oxidation of Fatty acids: Ketogenesis | Ketone body formation without glycosuria seen in -
A. DM
B. DI
C. Prolonged starvation
D. Obesity'
| Prolonged starvation |
9189db57-b2a3-4eb2-9fc0-de15ae479be8 | Myocarditis, aortitis, and pericarditis all have been described in association with Reiter syndrome; the original description included conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthralgias. Although its cause is unknown, Reiter syndrome is associated with HLA-B27 antigen, as are aortic regurgitation, pericarditis, and ankylosing spondylitis.Short stature, webbed neck, low-set ears, and epicanthal folds are the classic features of patients who have Turner syndrome. Persons affected by the syndrome, which is commonly linked with aortic coarctation, are genotypically XO. However, females and males have been described with normal sex chromosome constitutions (XX, XY) but with the phenotypic abnormalities of Turner syndrome. Additional cardiac lesions associated with Turner syndrome include septal defects, valvular stenosis, and anomalies of the great vessels.The Argyll Robertson pupil, a pupil that constricts with accommodation but not in response to light, is characteristic of central nervous system syphilis and is associated with vascular system manifestations of this disease. Treponema pallidum invades the vasa vasorum and causes an obliterative endarteritis and necrosis. The resulting aortitis gradually weakens the aortic wall and predisposes it to aneurysm formation. Once an aneurysm has formed, the prognosis is grave.Massive isolated tricuspid regurgitation produces a markedly elevated venous pressure, usually manifested by a severely engorged (often pulsating) liver. If the venous pressure is sufficiently elevated, exophthalmos may result. Tricuspid regurgitation of rheumatic origin is almost never an isolated lesion, and the major symptoms of patients who have rheumatic heart disease are usually attributable to concurrent left heart lesions. Bacterial endocarditis from intravenous drug abuse is becoming an increasingly important cause of isolated tricuspid regurgitation.A Quincke pulse, which consists of alternate flushing and paling of the skin or nail beds, is associated with aortic regurgitation. Other characteristic features of the peripheral pulse in aortic regurgitation include the water- hammer pulse (Corrigan pulse, caused by a rapid systolic upstroke) and pulsus bisferiens, which describes a double systolic hump in the pulse contour. The finding of a wide pulse pressure provides an additional diagnostic clue to aortic regurgitation. | Surgery | Heart & Pericardium | For the physical finding "Short stature, webbed neck, low-set ears, and epicanthal folds" select the cardiovascular disorder with which it is most likely to be associated. (SELECT 1 DISORDER)
A. Massive tricuspid regurgitation
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
| Coarctation of the aorta |
cc5308b6-0d38-4160-b21c-b0de291e7142 | MAINTENANCE TREATMENT OF OPIOID DEPENDENCE: Opioid Substitution Therapy Methadone Buprenorphine Levomethadyl (LAAM) Opioid Antagonists Naltrexone (oral) Naloxone (injectible, sho acting) | Psychiatry | Substance Related and Addictive Disorders | Which of the following is an alternative to methadone for maintenance treatment of opiate dependence?
A. Diazepam
B. Chloridazepoxide
C. Buprenorphine
D. Dextropropoxyphene
| Buprenorphine |
b5687684-d22b-47ee-a90b-22aec35b0b9c | Milk Ring Test (M) is positive for Brucella. It is used for detection of infected animals in dairy farms, etc. A sample of whole milk is mixed with a drop of Brucella antigen and incubated at 70 degC for 40-50 min. If antibodies are present in the milk the bacilli are agglutinated and rise with the cream to form a blue ring at the top, leaving the milk unstained (M positive). If antibodies are absent, the milk remains uniformly blue (M negative) Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | Microbiology | Bacteriology | A microbiologist carries out milk ring test, which is positive. What is the most likely organism?
A. Salmonella
B. Brucella
C. Bordetella
D. Bacillus anthracis
| Brucella |
2cec2d7b-b170-4e31-a379-156b4a821f74 | Currarino triad: Anorectal malformations + Sacrococcygeal osseous defect + presacral mass | Surgery | Pediatric Surgery | Currarino triad includes:-
A. Pre-sacral meningocele + sacral defect + Tethered cord
B. Ectopic vesicae + Anorectal malformation + Sacrococcygeal ossous defect
C. Anorectal malformations + Sacrococcygeal osseous defect + Presacral mass
D. Tethered cord + Anorectal malformations + Ectopia vesicae
| Anorectal malformations + Sacrococcygeal osseous defect + Presacral mass |
acf8b299-1142-4c6b-a2b6-bfd1ce22e366 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II* Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I is an enzyme of Urea cycle* Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II is an enzyme of Pyrimidine synthesis* Enzymes of Urea cycle are:# Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I# Ornithine Transcarbamoylase# Argininosuccinate synthetase# Argininosuccinate Lyase# Arginase | Biochemistry | Proteins and Amino Acids | Which enzyme is not seen in urea cycle?
A. Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II
B. Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I
C. Argininosuccinate Synthetase
D. Arginase
| Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II |
fef5eae3-1244-47a3-ae1c-51108bfe3d84 | Ans. A. Amyl nitrateAmyl nitrite is one of antidote of cyanide poisoning. It is given via inhalational route. Hydroxocobalamin is also given for cyanide poisoning via intravenous route. | Pharmacology | C.V.S | Which of the following drug is an antidote for cyanide poisoning?
A. Amyl nitrate
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Propranolol
| Amyl nitrate |
3b695361-744a-45cf-b770-b9dcc55681b4 | In posterior dislocation of hip, the limb is held in flexion, adduction and internal rotation. It's the opposite in anterior dislocation. The treatment is emergency reduction of the dislocated hip. Ref: Essential Ohopedics By J Maheswari, 2nd Edition, Pages 181-183 | Surgery | null | Kumar, a 31 yrs old motorcyclist sustained injury over his Right hip joint. X-ray revealed a posterior dislocation of the Right hip joint. The clinical attitude of the affected lower limb will be:
A. External rotation, extension and abduction
B. Internal rotation, flexion and adduction
C. Internal rotation, extension and abduction
D. External rotation, flexion and abduction
| Internal rotation, flexion and adduction |
4c6d9c84-a4e4-432e-abb8-1e881113b388 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., IgMIgM is the most effective antibody to fix complement. | Pathology | null | The complement is fixed best by which of the following immunoglobulins -
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
| IgM |
66dabb84-40bd-436d-8a81-4ba38fec1237 | Immune status of an individual to Corynebacterium diphtheria is assessed by the presence of antitoxin levels or schick test. This test is done by injecting 0.1ml of highly purified toxin into one forearm and 0.1ml of heat inactivated toxin into another forearm as a control. A positive reaction is characterized by a local inflammatory reaction that reaches maximum intensity in 4-7 days and reduces gradually. This indicates absence of immunity to C. diphtheriae. Negative reaction indicates presence of antitoxin in the individual which neutralizes the toxin injected. Such individuals are immune to C diphtheriae infection. Ref: Sherris Medical Microbiology By Kenneth J. Ryan, 5th Edition, Chapter 26 ; Textbook of Microbiology and Immunology By Parija, Page 224 | Microbiology | null | What does a positive schick test indicate?
A. Carrier of diphtheria
B. Immune to diphtheria
C. Susceptible to diphtheria
D. Hypersensitivity to diphtheria
| Susceptible to diphtheria |
3f333ff2-d5a0-461c-9311-bde993587827 | Aboions- MC causes 1st trimester - chromosomal causes 2nd trimester - Anatomical cause | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | FMGE 2018 | A G4P2 lady presented with history of two aboions at 16 weeks and 20 weeks POG. Which of the following could be the most likely reason for these aboions?
A. Chromosomal abnormality
B. Cervical incompetence
C. Placenta pre
D. Thyroid abnormality
| Cervical incompetence |
74cdf2a0-b060-459d-839d-c71dfd9b2eaf | scalded skin syndrome Ritter disease: This is the scalded skin syndrome, a potentially serious side effect of infection with the Staph (Staphylococcus) bacteria that produces a specific protein which loosens the "cement" holding the various layers of the skin together. This allows blister formation and sloughing of the top layer of skin Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1234 | Dental | Bacterial infections | Ritters disease is caused by
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus albus
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
| Staphylococcus aureus |
588bbb2a-06f5-4808-bbc6-557be249d58d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pethidine o Nonselective MAO inhibitors interact with many food constituents and drugs : 1-Cheese reaction o Ceain varieties of cheese, beer, wines, picked meat and fish, yeast extract contain large quantities of tyramine, dopa. o In MAO inhibited patients these indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines escape degradation in the intestinal wall and liver --> reaching into systemic circulation they displace large amount of NA from adrenergic nerve endings Hypeensive crisis, cerebrovascular accidents. This can be treated by Lv. injection of a rapidly acting a-blocker eg, phentolamine. Prazosin and chlorpromazine are alternative. 2. Reserpine, guanethidine, tricyclic antidepressant. o Rise in BP and body temprature can occur when these drugs are given with MAO inhibits --> due to their initial NA releasing or uptake inhibiting action. 3. Levodopa Excitement and hypeension occur due to increase V" of DA that is produced from levodopa. 4. Antiparkinsonism anticholinergic Symptoms of atropine poisoning occur. 5. Brabiturates, opoids, alcohol, antihistamininc o Action of these drugs is intensified and prolonged. 6. Pethidine o High fever, sweating, excitation, delirium, convulsion and respiratory depression occur. o This is due to excess production of norpethidine (normally it is minor metabolites). o MAO inhibitors inhibit hydrolysis but not detmethylation more norpethidine is produced. 7. SSRIs o MAO inhibitors produce serotonine syndrome when given with SSRIs. | Pharmacology | null | MAO inhibitors should not be used with -
A. Buprenorphine
B. Pethidine
C. Pentazocin
D. Morphine
| Pethidine |
ddd49991-ed6e-407b-b1eb-881d74956f8f | The CD4+ T-cell count can define the risk of infection with specific organisms. As a rule of thumb, bacterial and tubercular infections are more likely at higher CD4+ counts (>200 cells/mm3). Pneumocystis pneumonia usually strikes at CD4+ counts below 200 cells/mm3, while cytomegalovirus and Mycobacterium avium complex infections are uncommon until the very late stages of immunosuppression (CD4+ counts <50 cells/mm3). | Unknown | null | Mycobacterium avium complex infections are common when the CD4+ counts in cells/mm3 are
A. 200
B. < 200
C. >50
D. < 50
| < 50 |
c06fc824-89a8-4af8-9f4e-0137a929b123 | Zonular or lamellar cataract is a congenital type Etiology may be either genetic or environmental in origin. Environmental form is associated with: deficiencyof vitamin D hypocalcemia Sometimes maternal rubella infection contracted between 7th and 8th week of gestation may also cause lamellar cataract. | Ophthalmology | Lens | Hypovitaminosis - D causes -
A. Zonular cataract
B. Blue - Dot cataract
C. Rosette cataract
D. Cupliform cataract
| Zonular cataract |
530e3ce3-49c1-4abf-925f-8d8cb77bc557 | Discriminat function of >32 Rx- Predinisolane Discriminant score= 4.6 x + Billirubin ( Normal PT = 11-16) - Alcohol deaddiction - Naltraxone, Acamprosate. - Thiamine - Wernike encephalopathy | Medicine | Hepatitis | Treatment for alcoholic hepatitis with discriminant function of >32 is?
A. Thiamine
B. Prednisolone
C. Disulfiram
D. Acamprosate
| Prednisolone |
2b356a18-4e3b-4356-8345-1c3b4358018b | At Time of bih oocyteis dormant in diplotene stage (resting stage during prophase I) Oocyte and Prenatal period. 3rd month end 5th month 7th month Oogonia are arranged in clusters surrounded by a layer of epithelial cells. Number of germ cells in ovary reaches maximum (7 million) Majority of oocyte degenerate, except few, surviving ones enter prophase I & are surrounded by follicular epithelial cells forming PRIMORDIAL FOLLICLE. Oogonia enters meiosis I before bih. Hence at bih, ovary contains primary oocytes arrested in the diplotene stage of prophase I which gets completed after pubey to form secondary oocyte. This secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase-2 stage of meiosis II which is completed when feilization occurs. | Anatomy | Introduction and gametogenesis. | Oocyte at the time of bih, is present in which of the following stage of meiosis?
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase I
| Prophase I |
82d556f0-9ba8-447b-8dec-530bf810245f | IL-2 produced by TH1 cells induces proliferation of activated T4 cells, Tc cells and some Nk cells. | Microbiology | null | Cytokine produced by TH1 cells
A. IL-2
B. IL-4
C. IL-5
D. IL-6
| IL-2 |
e2f9240b-d64c-40b2-ae98-760abad367df | Death of a foetus weighing 1000g at bih (this is equivalent to 28weeks of gestation.) REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 519 | Social & Preventive Medicine | obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics | To define still bih, period is specified from -
A. 20th week of gestation to 1 week after bih
B. 28th week of gestation to 1 week after bih
C. 20th week of gestation to bih
D. 28th week of gestation to bih
| 28th week of gestation to bih |
ac6b43be-1d48-42c5-aa36-dc907b42eb39 | C i.e., Exposure and response preventionThe treatment of choice for established phobia (eg. agoraphobia) is a combination of exposure to phobic situationsQ with training in coping with panic attacks. | Psychiatry | null | A fifty year old male feels uncomfoable in using lift, being in crowded places and traveling. The most appropriate line of treatment is:
A. Counselling
B. Relaxation therapy
C. Exposure and response prevention
D. Cove sensitization
| Exposure and response prevention |
624335d2-ae39-4f85-81f8-9bdca11bb855 | (A) Magnesium # MAGNESIUM is the second most important intracellular divalent cation and is involved in a variety of metabolic processes including glucose metabolism, ion channel translocation, stimulus-contraction coupling, stimulus secretion coupling, peptide hormone receptor signal transduction.> Normal concentrations of extracellular magnesium and calcium are crucial for normal muscular activity. | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) | The Second most important intracellular cation is
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Iron
| Magnesium |
e218dd97-0e13-4309-aa55-ef265e0312da | A 2-3 cm veical or horizontal skin incision is made midway between the sternal notch and thyroid cailage . It&;s a Open surgical technique. Ref- Dhingra 6th edition, page 317. | ENT | Diagnostic and operative ENT | Tracheostomy done at which level
A. T1
B. T3
C. T4
D. T5
| T3 |
231904e4-67c1-4571-96fc-8643d5537880 | Restrictive disorders are characterized by low lung volumes. Diffusing capacity (DLCO) may or not be decreased in pulmonary fibrosis), a type of restrictive disease. A decrease in the forced expiratory volume in one second-forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) ratio is the hallmark of obstructive, not restrictive, disease & capacity (VC) and airway resistance (Raw) are decreased in-restrictive lung disorders. | Unknown | null | Disease shown in this PFT is best characterized by
A. Low lung volumes
B. A decrease in the l-second forced expiratory volume-forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) ratio
C. An increased vital capacity (VC)
D. A decreased diffusing capacity DLCO)
| Low lung volumes |
f6e8c36d-97cd-4f40-83f7-a08c00bd0eac | EndotheliumDirect injury to endothelial cells causes delayed prolonged bleeding because, endothelial cells are central regulators of hemostasis, the balance between the anti-and prothrombotic activities of endothelium determines whether thrombus formation, propagation or dissolution occurs.Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 79 | Pathology | General pathology | Delayed prolonged bleeding is caused by
A. Histamine
B. Leukocyte dependent injury
C. IL-I
D. Direct injury to endothelial cells
| Direct injury to endothelial cells |
6ef54155-fb34-47b6-ab4c-4a06a6367437 | A. i.e. Peristalsis due to flow of urineUreters are muscular ducts situated retroperitonially & are identified by peristalsisQ | Anatomy | null | Ureters are identified during surgery by :
A. Peristalsis d/t flow of urine
B. Rich aerial plexus
C. Relation to renal vein & aery
D. Relation to lumbar plexus
| Peristalsis d/t flow of urine |
0fb2d6f9-59f9-4f79-8971-755ead0cb680 | ANSWER: (B) Internal iliac arteryREF: BDC 4th edition page 387BRANCHES OF THE INTERNAL ILIAC ARTERY:branches of anterior division: (6 in males, 7 in females)Superior vesicalObturatorMiddle rectalInferior vesical (in males)Vaginal artery (in females)Inferior glutealInternal pudendalUterine artery (in females)Branches of posterior division:IliolumbarTwo lateral sacralSuperior gluteal arteryBRANCHES OF ABDOMINAL AORTA:Ventral branches:Celiac trunkSuperior mesenteric arteryInferior mesenteric arteryLateral branches:Inferior phrenic arteryMiddle suprarenal arteryRenal arteriesTesticular or ovarian arteries.Dorsal arteries:Lumbar arteries - 4 pairs.Median sacral artery (unpaired) | Anatomy | Blood Vessels of Abdomen and Pelvis | Uterine artery is a branch of?
A. External iliac artery
B. Internal iliac artery
C. Aorta
D. Inferior vesical artery
| Internal iliac artery |
52ba4803-6aca-4180-8d65-9ea4354fbf50 | A i.e. Moraxella Angular or diplobacillary conjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella lacunate or axenfeld Q (mostly) or staphylococci Q and presents with hyperemia of bulbar conjunctiva & lid margins near the angles (i.e. outer & inner canthi) with foamy mucopurulent discharge. It is treated with oxytetracycline Q or zinc containing ointment Q | Ophthalmology | null | Angular conjunctivitis is caused by:
A. Moraxella
B. Virus
C. Bacteroides
D. Fungus
| Moraxella |
e29efa78-605d-48ec-b52d-faf03c76ef57 | Karyogram shows 3 chromosomes at 21 instead of a pair. It is called Trisomy 21. Trisomy 21 Synonymous with Down's syndrome Most common of the chromosomal disorders. Major cause of mental retardation. -Other trisomies Edward syndrome (Trisomy 18) Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13) Turners syndrome (45 X0) | Pathology | Genetics | A married middle aged female gives history of repeated aboions for the past 5 years. The prenatal karyogram of the conceptus is given below: This karyogram suggests the following:
A. Klinefelter's syndrome
B. Turner's syndrome
C. Down's syndrome
D. Patau's syndrome
| Down's syndrome |
1a5999cb-c97f-4283-9e33-10a8e559d904 | Early diastolic murmurs sta at the same time as S2 with the close of the semilunar (aoic & pulmonary) valves and typically end before S1. Common causes include aoic or pulmonary regurgitation and left anterior descending aery stenosis. Mid-diastolic murmurs sta after S2 and end before S1. They are due to turbulent flow across the atrioventricular (mitral & tricuspid) valves during the rapid filling phase from mitral or tricuspid stenosis.characteristcs of mitral valve prolapse Late diastolic (presystolic) murmurs sta after S2 and extend up to S1 and have a crescendo configuration. They can be associated with AV valve narrowing.They include mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis, myxoma, and complete hea block Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 435 | Medicine | C.V.S | Which one of the following is characteristic of mitral valve prolapse syndrome -
A. Rough mid diatolic murmur
B. Collapsing pulse
C. Lound first hea sound
D. Mid systolic click
| Rough mid diatolic murmur |
bf3c4bb3-3e75-4d3c-adaf-6ee43cb14ea5 | PAS decreases absorption of Rifampicin and hence can to be used with Refampicin. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the Anti - TB drug can not be used along with Rifampicin
A. Thioacetazone
B. Bedaquiline
C. PAS
D. Ethionamide
| PAS |
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