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Open Question Answering | Yes, public schools can censor student speech to some extent. However, the censorship must be based on legitimate concerns of disruption or harm to others, and it cannot suppress students’ viewpoints simply because they are unpopular or controversial.
For those who require additional information
Public schools have the authority to censor student speech to a certain extent, but this censorship is subject to specific limitations and restrictions. In order to understand the scope of this issue, it is important to delve into the legal framework surrounding student speech in the educational context.
The landmark Supreme Court case Tinker v. Des Moines Independent Community School District in 1969 established the constitutional rights of students in public schools. In this case, the Court ruled that students do not “shed their constitutional rights to freedom of speech or expression at the schoolhouse gate.” However, it also recognized that school administrators have the authority to regulate speech that “materially and substantially disrupts the work and discipline of the school.” This ruling set the foundation for defining the parameters of student speech in public schools.
Due to my practical knowledge, it is important to note that public schools can indeed censor student speech if there are legitimate concerns of disruption or harm to others. Examples of such instances may include offensive or derogatory language, threats of violence, or disruptive behavior that significantly interferes with the learning environment. In these cases, schools have the responsibility to maintain a safe and conducive educational environment for all students.
However, it is crucial to highlight that schools cannot censor student speech solely because it is unpopular or controversial. The First Amendment protects the rights of individuals to express their viewpoints, including those that may challenge the prevailing norms or opinions. As Justice William J. Brennan Jr. noted in the Supreme Court case Texas v. Johnson (1989), “If there is a bedrock principle underlying the First Amendment, it is that the government may not prohibit the expression of an idea simply because society finds the idea offensive or disagreeable.”
To provide further clarity and add depth to this discussion, here are some interesting facts on the topic:
According to a 2017 survey conducted by the Knight Foundation, 91% of high school students believe that they should be allowed to voice their opinions about social issues on campus. The Supreme Court has ruled that school-sponsored activities, such as student newspapers or theatrical productions, may have different standards for censorship than general student speech. The legal standards regarding student speech may differ between primary and secondary schools versus colleges and universities. Higher education institutions generally have more lenient standards and greater respect for students’ freedom of speech rights. In conclusion, public schools have the authority to censor student speech to some extent, but it must be based on legitimate concerns of disruption or harm to others. Censorship solely on the grounds of unpopularity or controversy is unconstitutional. As Justice Louis Brandeis once stated, “If there be time to expose through discussion the falsehood and fallacies, to avert the evil by the processes of education, the remedy to be applied is more speech, not enforced silence.” It is essential for schools to strike a balance between maintaining a safe and respectful environment while fostering the principles of free expression and intellectual exploration among students.
See more answers from the Internet This ruling said that public school students retain their right to free speech in school, so
schools can’t censor just because they think something could be disruptive. It’s up to the school to prove that you’ll be disrupting the learning process. More importantly,
schools can censor student speechwhich is likely to substantially disrupt school operations (Tinker v. Des Moines Independent Community School District (1969)). Teachers and other school authorities are
allowed to censoror change what students write or say in school-sponsored publications (like an official school newspaper or yearbook), school plays, or other activities that involve the expression of ideas and are essentially part of the curriculum.
The Supreme Courtacknowledged that schools have some authority to regulate off-campus speech and expression by their students. For instance, the Court suggested that schools may punish off-campus speech that: Is Harassing; Is Threatening; Contains security violations; or Causes a concrete, substantial interference with school activities.
Yes, the school can probably do something about the student’s potentially disruptive speech. If this student’s speech is making you and others feel unsafe, the school can discipline the student. Response to your question in video format
Public schools in America have the authority to censor student speech, but only if it disrupts classwork or infringes on the rights of others. This rule was exemplified in the case of Mary Beth and John, two high school students in Des Moines who were suspended for wearing black armbands to protest the Vietnam War, despite the school’s ban on them. The students took their case all the way to the U.S. Supreme Court, which ruled in their favor. The court stated that students have the right to freedom of speech and expression at school, unless there is reasonable evidence that it would interfere with education. Since there was no such evidence in this case, the school violated the students’ First Amendment rights.
Also people ask Also to know is, Can schools censor student speech? Response will be: Although students do not “shed their constitutional rights to freedom of speech or expression at the schoolhouse gate,” school administrators must have the ability to restrict speech that is harmful to other students, in this instance promoting illegal drug use.
Beside this, What circumstances might require a school to censor student speech? If your school thinks your speech likely encourages illegal activities or a substantial disruption of school operations, or it infringes on the rights of other students, it may have the right to censor your speech. You may have to go to court to get a final decision.
Beside this, Can schools limit a student’s freedom of speech? As an answer to this: The Supreme Court ruled in 1969 that students do not "shed their constitutional rights to freedom of speech or expression at the schoolhouse gate." This is true for other fundamental rights, as well.
Similarly one may ask, Can schools legally limit speech that interferes with? Typically, student speech, including student expression, is protected as long as it doesn’t cause a disruption at school or interfere with the rights of others. But schools can prohibit speech that’s vulgar or offensive, and sometimes even restrict speech that’s considered “inappropriate."
Keeping this in view, Can a school censor your speech? As a response to this: They appealed their punishment all the way to the Supreme Court and won. This ruling said that public school students retain their right to free speech in school, so schools can’t censor just because they think something could be disruptive. It’s up to the school to prove that you’ll be disrupting the learning process.
Do public school students have freedom of speech? As an answer to this: Public school students generally have the same First Amendment rights to freedom of speech as everyone else when they’re at school and during school activities. But the U.S. Supreme Court has carved out some exceptions when it comes to protecting student speech because of the need to provide a safe and orderly school environment.
Also to know is, Can school officials stop student speech? The Supreme Court decided that school officials can prevent student speech if it’s “inappropriate" and part of a class or school-sponsored activity. And yet another exception came about in 2007 when the Supreme Court decided schools could also put a stop to student expression that seems to promote illegal drug use. In Morse v.
Secondly, Does censorship affect elementary and secondary education? Response to this: Many national and international organizations concerned with elementary and secondary education have established guidelines on censorship issues. While each organization addresses censorship a little differently, each is committed to free speech and recognizes the dangers and hardships imposed by censorship.
Can a school censor your speech? They appealed their punishment all the way to the Supreme Court and won. This ruling said that public school students retain their right to free speech in school, so schools can’t censor just because they think something could be disruptive. It’s up to the school to prove that you’ll be disrupting the learning process.
Just so, Do public schools have a right to free speech? Public schools must respect students’ rights to freedom of expression, guaranteed under the First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. But those rights aren’t absolute. In addition to the general exceptions to First Amendment protection, students often face restrictions on their speech that are particular to the school setting.
Keeping this in view, Can school officials stop student speech? Response: The Supreme Court decided that school officials can prevent student speech if it’s “inappropriate" and part of a class or school-sponsored activity. And yet another exception came about in 2007 when the Supreme Court decided schools could also put a stop to student expression that seems to promote illegal drug use. In Morse v.
Is online censorship a problem for students? Answer: Students are no exception to the use of that platform. Student online expression is highly susceptible to misinterpretation—which can lead to overreaching censorship by public school authorities. When someone says, “It’s da bomb!” face to face in school, everyone knows they are just expressing enthusiasm. |
Open Question Answering | Vent flappers can be really annoying with the frequent noise on a windy day. The banging sound just won’t stop and you’ve finally had enough of it. It’s time to fix this loud mess.
How to fix vent flapper noise?
You can try three methods to get rid of the flapper noise. You can apply weatherproof foam tape to where the flapper meets the metal parts. Adding weight to the flapper is also effective. For a long-term solution, we suggest changing the damper with a spring-loaded backdraft damper.
That was the solution method in a nutshell, but that’s not all. We’ve explained the noise preventing methods in detail for you.
Are you curious? Then keep up with us till the end.
Why Vent Flappers Make Noise? A vent has one main purpose and that is ventilation. Some houses have ductwork installed in the home. But adding a vent in the existing ductwork would boost the ventilation better.
House vents are usually installed in the kitchen, toilets, and storage. They come with or without an exhaust fan. But most vents have metal flappers attached to the outside area of the vent. When steam or air forms these flappers fly open and let the air out.
But when the air is windy vent flappers sometimes make an unpleasant noise. Because the flappers on the vent frequently clash with the metal frame.
It produces quite a loud banging noise. The sound could be so frequent that it’s unbearable not to fix it. The problem is similar to extractor vents rattling sound.
But the good news is, this problem can be dealt with some changes. You won’t need to remove the entire vent for it. In our next segment, we’ll be talking about the solution methods.
How To Get Rid Of Vent Flapper Noise? Before we get onto our solution methods, it’s important that you use safety gear. These processes might need to be done from the attic. So, you must be careful throughout the process.
Method-1: Using Sound Absorbing Method For this process you’re gonna need some waterproof tape. There are many waterproof tapes like Teflon and Delrin.
But for vent flappers, you’d need foamy tapes to reduce the sound. This is why weatherproof foam tape is the best choice.
You can choose from these weatherproof foam tapes for your vent flapper-
Product 1 Product 2
Got the tapes? If yes, let’s get to work.
Apply the tapes on the end edge of the vent flappers. The tape should be in the position where it hits the metal parts.
This will work as a barricade to stop metal clashes, reducing any loud sound. This is the easiest and cheapest process to get rid of the flapper noise.
Method-2: Adding Weight To The Flappers The goal is to add some weight to the vent flappers. This way the wind can’t frequently move them up and down easily. But it can’t be too heavy if we want the vent to work properly.
For this method, we’re gonna use some wheel weight. Make sure the wheel weight comes with strong adhesives that can resist the wind.
For starters, go with a ¼ oz wheel weight. See if the sound has gone down than before. Add a little weight at a time, if you think adding more weight would be better. Keep the weight minimal so that the flappers work properly.
Method-3: Damper Replacement For vent flapper noise a long-term solution is to replace the damper. The vent damper is an automatic device that is connected to the airflow pipe. it shuts off the flow pipe when the burner stops running.
Rather than using normal vent dampers use a spring-loaded backdraft damper. It contains a rubber gasket inside. It generates an airtight seal when the flapper closes.
This seal prevents any unwanted air from entering the vent since it stays shut. It prevents the flapper noise plus it prevents any leak.
To install a spring-loaded backdraft damper you’re gonna need these tools-
Roof sealer Utility knife Caulking gun New spring-loaded backdraft damper Got all of them? If so, follow these steps to replace the vent damper.
Step-1: Remove The Old Vent Damper Firstly, detach the screws from the vent tube with a screwdriver. You might have to do it from the roof. Then try to lift the shingles of the vent.
Use a utility knife to cut off any sealant on it. Remove the screws on the vent. Now it’s detached from the wall.
Step-2: Replace The Damper Carefully take out the old damper and position the new damper into its place. Make sure the spring-loaded damper is in the right size with the vent.
Put the shingles to their position and screw them properly now. Use the caulking gun to seal the gaps around the dryer vent edges.
Step-3: Connect The Vent Tube Go back to the roof and screw the vent tube back together. Check if it’s making loud noises like before. You may have to wait for a windy day to see the full result.
That’s it! Hopefully, you’ve found the right method for your vent flappers.
FAQs Question: What if the vent makes noise even without airflow?
Answer: If it has an exhaust fan then maybe the noise is coming from the fan. For vents without an exhaust fan, the problem could be within the pipe inside.
Question: Are exhaust fans necessary for all types of vents?
Answer: It depends on the place. For example, the kitchen and toilet should have an exhaust fan. Normal vents may not be enough to remove moistures, steam, and odors.
Question: How big should a vent pipe be?
Answer: vent pipes should not be smaller than 32 mm or 11/14” in diameter. The length should be around 40 feet. But it can exceed 40 mm if necessary.
Signing Off Hopefully, you’ve got the right method to fix your vent flapper noise . All three methods are effective depending on their appliance.
That’s all for today. Until next time stay happy stay safe! |
Open Question Answering | ⌟ Saving Solution Long-term care involves a variety of services designed to meet a person’s health or personal care needs during a short or long period of time. These services help people live as independently and safely as possible when they can no longer perform everyday activities on their own.
Most Care Provided at Home
Long-term care is provided in different places by different caregivers, depending on a person’s needs. Most long-term care is provided at home by unpaid family members and friends. It can also be given in a facility such as a nursing home or in the community, for example, in an adult day care center.
The most common type of long-term care is personal care — help with everyday activities, also called “activities of daily living.” These activities include bathing, dressing, grooming, using the toilet, eating, and moving around — for example, getting out of bed and into a chair.
Services Long-term care also includes community services such as meals, adult day care, and transportation services. These services may be provided free or for a fee.
Long-term care insurance is a type of policy which is designed to provide for the financial welfare of an individual beyond a certain period. An example of this can be seen when a common disability package is replaced with its long-term counterpart. Such a plan is commonly seen with individuals who may have chronic illnesses (such as COPD or emphysema) and those who have become physically handicapped. This insurance policy exists in the United States, Canada and the United Kingdom. It can be known by its acronym LTCI or simply as LTI (Long-Term Insurance).
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Q : How to Switch Banks?
A: If you’re going to write checks or use online bill pay, start writing checks from the new account and fund those payments by transferring money from your old account.
Q : Why should I spend money on a financial advisor?
A: Most commonly, individuals seek the help of a financial advisor for retirement planning. But they can do much more than that. You can get help with college savings, work on household finances and even get out of debt with the help of a financial advisor.
Q : Can I get help with my credit card debts from a financial advisor?
A: Absolutely. Clients can work with a licensed financial advisor to pay off their debts and get back on track financially. Financial advisors have access to programs most individuals can’t get into on their own, and they have connections in the financial industry most of us simply don’t have.
Q : I am already in debt. How can I afford a financial advisor?
A: The help of a financial advisor may be less expensive than you might think. Depending on the help you are looking for, you could be looking at a fee only situation or commission based pricing. |
Open Question Answering | Plotter printers HP Latex 700, 800 or R-series: Which is right for you? Whether you’re looking to expand your production line or need to add new capabilities to meet your client’s demands, there’s an HP Latex large-format printer for you. Let’s dive in and compare three of our most popular options—the HP Latex 700, HP Latex 800, and HP Latex R Printer series—and explore how they can each bring something unique to your workflow.
HP Latex 700 Printer series: Grow with high-value jobs
Deliver vivid colors and sharp 4-pt text, and get saturated color up to 334 ft2/hr outdoor1 with the HP Latex 700 series. Plus, with the 700 W model, you can extend your portfolio to the highest value flexible applications with the whitest white.2 What’s more, you can take advantage of HP Latex sustainability and safety features—no HAPs,3 odorless prints,4 and compatibility with eco-conscious media.5
HP Latex 800 Printer series: Expand into high-value jobs with high-productivity printing
The HP Latex 800 series has all the same features as the HP Latex 700 series, but it also offers additional productivity features–ideal if you’re aiming to squeeze every ounce of productivity out of your print machinery. The 800 W model also comes with white ink, so you can expand your portfolio to high-margin applications with the whitest white.6 But the biggest advantage of the HP Latex 800 large-format printer is undoubtedly its focus on volume. You can maximize your efficiency by setting up longer runs that get the most out of your materials and energy usage with the following productivity features:
Drive high productivity with saturated color at speeds up to 388 ft2 /hr (36 m²/hr) outdoor, and easy spindle-less loading7 Help reduce running costs with cost-effective 3-liter HP Ink Cartridges, changed while the printer runs When selecting the right printer for your needs, remember that both the HP Latex 700 and 800 Printer series are 64.4-in (1.64-m) roll-to-roll printers to print on flexible media applications such as: Banners; Displays; Exhibition and event graphics; Exterior signage; Indoor posters; Interior decoration; Light boxes - film; Light boxes - paper; Murals; POP/POS; Posters; Textile; Vehicle graphics; Window graphics; Stickers.
HP Latex R Printer series: Amazing colors on both rigid and flexible media
So now we’ve covered both the 700 and 800 series, how does the HP Latex R Printer series differ? The answer lies in its application. A true hybrid solution, the R-Series enables you to print on both rigid and flexible media on a single device, bringing unprecedented quality and colors8 with it.
Plus, with the HP Latex R Printer series you can also enjoy HP Latex White Ink, so you get high-quality prints, every time, on both rigid and flexible substrates.
It is specifically designed to boost your productivity9 . Thanks to proactive alerts and preventive services, the R-Series helps you maximize uptime and meet production peaks—without compromising quality.
And if you’re looking to enhance your sustainable offering, the HP Latex water-based inks can help. With odorless prints10 , you can reach more indoor spaces and unlock new revenue streams.
Which HP Latex Printer is your perfect fit? Let’s find out and see.
What next? Made your decision already? Or want to check out the options in more depth? Read our other posts on the HP Latex 700, 800, and R-Series:
CTA 1: HP Latex 700 and 800: Win big with roll to toll printing 64.4in (1.63m) CTA 2: HP Latex R-Series: Sharpen the quality of rigid and flexible media
Footnotes
[1] Outdoor mode (Banner) 4-pass, 100%. Indoor mode (SAV) 6-pass, 100%. Based on internal HP testing in September 2020 on Avery 3001. Print speed may vary due to the adaptive printing mechanism to avoid image quality defects.
[2] Whitest white based on ISO/DIS 23498 compared to competitive alternatives using solvent and UV technologies under $50,000 USD as of May, 2020. Test performed on black opaque self-adhesive vinyl (L*:4.16 – a:0,48-b:2,34) with 160% UF printmode using HP 832 1-liter White Latex Ink Cartridge. Visual opacity = 91%.
[3] HP Latex Inks were tested for Hazardous Air Pollutants, as defined in the Clean Air Act, per U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Method 311 (testing conducted in 2013) and none were detected.
[4] There is a broad set of media with very different odor profiles. Some of the media can affect the odor performance of the final print.
[6] Whitest white based on ISO/DIS 23498 compared to competitive alternatives using solvent and UV technologies under $50,000 USD as of May, 2020. Test performed on black opaque self-adhesive vinyl (L*:4.16 – a:0,48-b:2,34) with 160% UF printmode using HP 873 3-liter White Latex Ink Cartridge. Visual opacity = 91%.
[7] Outdoor mode (Banner) 4-pass, 100%. Based on internal HP testing in September 2020 on Avery 3001. Print speed may vary due to the adaptive printing mechanism to avoid image quality defects.
[8] Most vibrant colors based on internal HP testing, January 2018 compared to leading competitive printers with CMYK configuration under $350,000 USD. Tested in High Quality print mode on rigid (white acrylic 12-pass, 6-color, 120%). Internal HP testing with HP GamutViewer, Alpha Shapes=50000.
[9] More productivity enabled with a high-accuracy belt-driven system for continuous loading workflow, along with automatic maintenance, smart vacuum, and assisted loading.
[10] There is a broad set of media with very different odor profiles. Some of the media can affect the odor performance of the final print.
Réserver une démonstration Bien que nous ne puissions pas nous rencontrer en personne, pourquoi ne pas assister à une démonstration de produit en direct ou à une présentation en direct de nos experts.
Pour la programmer à l’avance, il suffit de cliquer sur le bouton correspondant ci-dessous. |
Open Question Answering | Hangzhou EPG Co.,Ltd. , was established in November, 1997. With its five wholly owned subsidiaries.
Overview
Rapid Particulars
Gearing Arrangement: Worm
Output Torque: 2.six-1195N.M
Rated Electricity: .06-15KW
Enter Pace: 750~3000rpm
Output Velocity: .64-350rpm
Spot of Origin:Zhejiang, China Design Quantity: NMVF
Brand name Name: OEM
Shade: Blue, Silver Or On Consumer Ask for
Materials: Aluminium Alloy
Ratio: five-one hundred
Mounting Placement: Flange Mounted
Enter Type: IEC Flange
Source Capability
Supply Ability: 15000 Piece/Pieces per Thirty day period Packaging & Delivery
Packaging Information Each and every in carton box ,then in wooden circumstance. Port HangZhou Online Customization
Product Description
Woruisen VF series aluminum alloy gearbox worm equipment reducer
The VF worm gearbox is the equivalent as NEPGV worm gearbox.All techinical is the same apart from outer physical appearance.
Product:
NMVF 030, 044, 049, 063, 072, 090, one hundred ten, 130, a hundred and fifty
Ratio:
one:five,7.5,10,fifteen,20,twenty five,thirty,40,fifty,60,80,100
Shade:
Blue, Silver Or On Client Request
Enter Electrical power:
.06kw, .09kw, .12kw, .18kw, .25kw, .37kw, .55kw, .75kw, one.1kw, one.5kw, 2.2kw, 3kw, 4kw, 5.5kw, seven.5kw, 11kw, 15kw
Sounds:
reduced noise (<50DB)
Bearing:
C&U Bearing
Certifications
Packing & Shipping
Exhibition Show
Associated Goods
FAQ
Q: Are you trading company or maker ? A: One particular professional manufacturing unit with several years knowledge Q: How prolonged is your supply time? A: Normally it is five-10 days if the goods are in stock. or it is fifteen-20 times if the merchandise are not in inventory, it is according to quantity. Q: Do you offer samples ? is it free of charge or further ? A: Of course, we could provide the sample , Sorry, require to charge sample cost and freight. Q: What is your conditions of payment ? A: Payment=1000USD, thirty% T/T in progress ,stability prior to shippment. |
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Germany and Netherlands are semi-finalists on the FIH Odisha Hockey Males’s World Cup 2023 incomes wins towards England and Korea of their respective quarterfinals. Within the semi-finals, Australia will face Germany, whereas Belgium will tackle Netherlands, on 27 January, within the Kalinga Stadium, Bhubaneswar.
Match 1: England vs Germany 2-2 (SO: 3-4)
Germany have been faster off the blocks within the first quarter dominating possession and territory within the English half. They created the primary large likelihood of the sport as Mats Grambusch’s good work on the left noticed Zwicker deflect his move into the circle, onto the trail of Trompertz, however his shot on the reverse sailed excessive and vast of the purpose. Because the time moved ahead, England began to seek out their rhythm and a free hit simply exterior the circle was performed into the circle by Calnan and his move in was lifted by Rushmere and on the finish of his 3d talent transfer, the ball fell within the air to Zach Wallace and his volleyed effort discovered the again of the purpose to open the scoring for the English.
Germany have been measured of their assault within the second quarter, because the menace England possessed on the counterattack was evident. Zach Wallace practically doubled England’s lead within the twenty first minute on one such counter as he beat two defenders on the high of the circle with silky touches, earlier than unleashing a shot, however his shot hit teammate Ansell’s foot earlier than it may attain Stadler within the purpose. Germany gained two late penalty corners within the quarter, however their first was a variation that was nicely learn and intercepted by Albery and the second, taken by Peillat, was stopped and kicked out quite simply by the in-form Ollie Payne.
Germany have been all the way down to 10 gamers early within the third quarter as Oruz was given a inexperienced card for a deliberate foul to cease an English counter assault. England made good use of the participant benefit to win three fast penalty corners they usually doubled their lead on the third try as a misplaced injection by Condon compelled Ansell to improvise with a flat hit and he positioned it into the underside left nook to perfection. As time began to wind down within the third quarter, issues began to get a bit fiery. Christopher Rühr earned himself a 5-minute suspension for an aggressive deal with in the midst of the sector. Germany’s seek for a purpose to get again into the sport was nicely stuffed out by some terrific defensive work by the likes of Alberry and Waller.
England continued to play calmly and stuffed German assaults within the midfield within the first half of the ultimate quarter. Germany subbed Stadler out for an additional outfield participant and with a little bit underneath 5 minutes to go, gained a penalty stroke. Christopher Rühr stepped as much as take it, however his try hit the crossbar and England survived. Germany lastly managed to attain as Trompertz despatched in a cross that discovered Mats Grambusch on their own on the far publish and he lifted the ball into an open purpose. England then went all the way down to 10 gamers as Zach Wallace bought himself a inexperienced card with just a bit over 2 minutes to go. England then conceded one other penalty stroke as a shot by Wellen appeared destined to enter the purpose however as an alternative hit an English physique. Tom Grambusch who takes penalty strokes for Germany, when on the pitch, was accessible this time and despatched Payne the unsuitable solution to full the comeback for the Honamas and ship the sport right into a shoot-out.
Germany, who had gained 7 out of the 9 shoot-outs over the previous 4 years, have been excellent within the shoot-out, scoring all 4 of their makes an attempt. David Goodfield missed England’s third try and Danneberg, who was within the purpose as an alternative of Stadler for the shoot-outs, saved the ultimate English try by Ansell to present the Honamas a well-known win, and their first semi-final look on the World Cup since 2010! Mats Grambusch was awarded participant of the match and stated: “My legs are nonetheless shaking, that was a fantastic comeback, actually happy with the workforce. We have been higher within the second half and to come back again and draw the sport within the ultimate 2 minutes was simply unimaginable.”
Match 2: Netherlands vs Korea 5-1
Netherlands and Korea performed a captivating first quarter within the final quarterfinals match on the FIH Odisha Hockey Males’s World Cup 2023. It was finish to finish motion as each groups appeared to play on counter-attacks and managed to seek out areas via the midfield to efficiently penetrate opposition circles. Each groups additionally gained 2 penalty corners every, however all 4 penalty corners amounted to little or no, due to some courageous primary operating from the defences. Netherlands had the perfect likelihood from open play as Pieters went on a fantastic run from his personal circle all the way in which to the Korean circle, however his shot was nicely saved by Jaehyeon Kim.
The second quarter was a lot of the identical because the groups traded possession on counter-attacks. Korea had a fantastic likelihood on one in all their assaults launched from a turnover they compelled on the midway line. Hwang’s pushed move into the circle practically discovered the diving Junwoo, however Lars Balk bought an important contact proper earlier than the move bought to Junwoo to ship the ball out over the baseline. Netherlands opened the scoring within the twenty seventh minute as Thierry Brinkman lower via the Korean defence from the proper and his tried move was virtually intercepted Jungjun, however he didn’t make a clear connection on the ball and Koen Bijen was there proper behind him to latch on to the unfastened ball and put it at the back of the purpose to present Netherlands the lead they’d carry into the interval.
Netherlands gained an early penalty nook to start out the second half and whereas Kim saved Jansen’s flick, the rebound was collected brilliantly by Bijen and he tapped the ball on the reverse to double the Dutch lead. Netherlands sensed the momentum shift they usually stored the strain up on the Koreans. The Dutch strain paid off quickly as they scored a 3rd purpose when Jip Janssen’s slap move was deflected in from the highest of the circle by Justen Blok, who scored his second consecutive purpose, after discovering the web in Netherland’s earlier recreation towards Chile.
Netherlands added a fortuitous purpose early within the ultimate quarter as an tried interception by Seunghoon on a move by Heijningen, ended up looping the ball over the keeper and into the purpose. Korea would lastly finish Netherlands’ run of 15 consecutive quarters with out conceding a purpose via Website positioning Inwoo, however with a 4 purpose deficit, a comeback appeared unlikely. Netherlands added the ultimate purpose of the competition within the 58th minute as Teun Beins put away a penalty nook gained by captain Thierry Brinkman to present the Dutch a snug 5-1 win and take them to their 4th consecutive semi-finals at an FIH Hockey Males’s World Cup.
Koen Bijen, scorer of the primary two targets for the Dutch, was awarded participant of the match and stated: “25+ targets scored and 1 conceded exhibits now we have had a fantastic event. Our defence is de facto strong and units us as much as construct in assault. Congratulations to Korea as nicely. They performed a very good event and performed very nicely on this recreation too. We take pleasure in taking part in towards Belgium, we play them fairly incessantly in Europe, so deliver on the semi-finals!”
FIH Odisha Hockey Males’s World Cup 2023 Bhubaneswar-Rourkela
25 January 2023 Outcomes
Outcome: Match 1
England 2-2 Germany (SO: 3-4)
Participant of the Match: Mats Grambusch (GER)
Umpires: Steve Rogers (AUS), Jakub Mejzlik (CZE), Marcin Grochal (POL-video)
Outcome: Match 2
Netherlands 5-1 Korea
Participant of the Match: Koen Bijen (NED)
Umpires: Ben Goentgen (GER), Gareth Greenfield (NZL), Dan Barstow (ENG-video)
#HWC2023
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Open Question Answering | Q: Our Bible study today is Philippians 2. Verse 9 speaks about the Name that our Father gave to our Lord. How is His Name above every name? And in verse 10 it says every knee should bow. the word should is far different from will bow?
I am very grateful, always, that you taught me His Name. I have very much more to say and think about.
A: How did your study go? I know many will say that the name of our Lord must be JESUS today becaise that is the most popular name today so this verse must be saying the name above every name is JESUS. But does that verse really say that? Let's use a little common sense and let the Spirit talk to us and see the error in this faulty reasoning.
The verses in quesiton :
(Php 2:9-11 KJV)
Wherefore God also has highly exalted Him, and given Him a Name which is above every name: That at the Name of YaHshua every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; And that every tongue should confess that YaHshua is Christ (Messiah) Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
It is very plain, and does not need any interpretation. The only problem is deciding on the Name that our God in Heaven, His Heavenly Father, gave Him. One thing is sure, it could not have been the name, JESUS, because that name never existed at the time the letter to the Philippians was written. And if we go back to the to the Gospels we find Gabriel telling Mary and Joseph the Name they were to Name Him, and this Name comes from His Heavenly Father. Again, the name JESUS did not exist at that time. In Acts 4:12 we are told that the Name He was Named is a Name found among men -- a name already in use, here on earth, the Name He chose to Name His First Born Son. When we look in the OT record we find this Name, a name that became popular among the Jews, a Name that belonged to a person that was responsible for leading the people of God into the Promised land, the Promised Kingdom. In the English we see this name as JOSHUA, pronounced, YaHshua.
This Name has been around since before our Lord came in the flesh. This Name "becomes" above every name, on the day He decided to Name, or give, His Son that Name, and it is a very appropriate Name. Later when the Temple was being rebuilt and the King of Persia was allowing people to return to Jerusalem, a Priest was consecrated as High Priest and this same man was also crowned, at the same time as King -- a King Priest, and this man was chosen by YaHWeH, and this man's' name was, and is, YaHshua (Old English transliteration Joshua). Both of these men were types of Christ's for their people, and in these we see the Name, YaHshua, had already been determined to Name the coming Messiah.
And, of course, this Name means, YaH is Savior, or is Salvation. One of the reasons the Jews, then and now, become so sensitive to anyone trying to suggest anyone is the fulfillment of what that Name is declaring.
Looking into this further we find that the "...should bow ..." leaves and opening for some who, in the future, would not bow -- the problem is this word "should" is not actually in the original Greek copies. The correct translation should be, "will bow", as this agrees with the verse in the OT from which this is quoted.
(Isa 45:23 KJV)
I have sworn by Myself, the word is gone out of My mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That unto Me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear. (Rom 14:11 KJV)
For it is written, As I live, says the Lord, every knee shall bow to Me, and every tongue shall confess to God. In Philippans 2:10, Stong's Greek Dictionary gives us the answer: G2378, is "bend" -- every knee will bend. The word "bend" stands by itself and the word "should" has been added. The New American Standard version has corrected to to say, "... every knee will bow ..." This is still not very good wording. The Greek says, "bend", as a knee cannot "bow". A person can "bow" but a knee "bends". When anyone comes before a King it is proper to bow, as a sign of respect, but in this case the person coming before the King of Kings will fall to his or her knees willingly or be forced to. "...every knee will bend .." -- bend or be broken. He has clear "sworn by Himself" that this would take place and this command comes from His Mouth to our ears -- Strong's H3766, to bend -- here too, in the Hebrew it is to "bend", not "bow". To bend the knee is more drastic than a mere mild curtsy.
Every knee will bend and every mouth will confess YaHshua as Messiah, Son of the Living God. Every knee will bend and every tongue will confess His Name, YaHshua. How many other ways can it be said. HalleluYaH
www.servantsofyahshua.com
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Open Question Answering | Q: Why does my water appear milky or cloudy?
A: A milky or cloudy appearance is usually caused by air bubbles in the water, which pose no health risk. If the water is allowed to sit, the air will dissipate and the water will clear. If the cloudiness does not disappear, please contact us so that we may investigate.
Q: What causes the spots on my dishes?
A: Spots are caused by hard water, or minerals that remain after the water has evaporated. Spots can be eliminated through use of a dishwasher rinse agent.
Q: Should I buy a water softener?
A: The hardness of water varies with the water’s source. The choice to buy a softener is an aesthetic one, since hard water is not harmful to health. However, water softeners typically increase the sodium content of the water, a factor that should be considered by people on low-sodium diets.
Q: Should I buy a home filtration unit?
A: According to the United States Environmental Protection Agency, home treatment units are rarely necessary for health reasons. Most often, water treatment units are used to remove substances that affect the aesthetic qualities of the water. If you do choose to install a home treatment unit, it is important to follow the manufacturer’s maintenance instructions, because improperly maintained units can actually cause water quality problems.
Q: What should I do if my coffee has an oily appearance?
A: Clean your coffee maker with vinegar and water as directed by the manufacturer.
Q: What causes odor in the hot water?
A: The most common cause of odor in hot water is the water heater. If your cold water smells fine, check your water heater to ensure that the temperature setting is correct. Water heaters also need to be maintained (see manufacturer’s instructions). Please contact us if the odor persists or if it is present in both the hot and cold water.
Q: What causes some water to be discolored?
A: Color in water is usually caused by naturally occurring organic matter, minerals, or mineral build-up in the pipes. We flush our water system regularly to clean mineral build-up and other sediment from the pipes. If you receive discolored water, you should let your faucets run until the water is clear. Such substances typically do not pose a health hazard; however, we ask that you please report any instances of discolored water so that we may investigate.
Q: Is bottled water higher quality than tap water?
A: Tap water providers and bottled water providers must meet the same water quality standards. In fact, tap water providers are required to conduct more frequent water quality testing and reporting than bottled water providers. Some consumers prefer the taste of bottled water, and some choose bottled water because they have special health needs. But tap water is a much better deal at costs of 1,000 times less than bottled water.
Q: Why do our employees open fire hydrants?
A: We conduct regular water system flushing to remove any mineral build-up and sediment from the pipes and also to ensure that water circulates adequately throughout the system. Fire hydrants may also be opened to conduct fire-flow capability tests.
Q: Why does water need to be disinfected?
A: Disinfectants are required because they prevent the spread of germs that cause diseases. Years ago, before disinfectants were used for drinking water, diseases such as cholera, typhoid fever, and dysentery were common. Drinking water disinfection has vastly improved the quality and safety of drinking water.
Q: Why does my water have a chlorine taste (or smell)?
A: We disinfect your water to ensure that it is free of harmful bacteria. To reduce any chlorine taste or smell, try refrigerating your water before drinking. |
Open Question Answering | What is NETWORKDAYS.INTL function in Excel? NETWORKDAYS.INTL function is one of Date and Time functions in Microsoft Excel that returns the number of whole workdays between two dates using parameters to indicate which and how many days are weekend days. Weekend days and any days that are specified as holidays are not considered as workdays.
Syntax of NETWORKDAYS.INTL function NETWORKDAYS.INTL(start_date, end_date, [weekend], [holidays])
The NETWORKDAYS.INTL function syntax has the following arguments:
Start_date and end_date: The dates for which the difference is to be computed. The start_date can be earlier than, the same as, or later than the end_date.Weekend (Optional): Indicates the days of the week that are weekend days and are not included in the number of whole working days between start_date and end_date. Weekend is a weekend number or string that specifies when weekends occur.Weekend number values indicate the following weekend days:Weekend number Weekend days 1 or omitted Saturday, Sunday 2 Sunday, Monday 3 Monday, Tuesday 4 Tuesday, Wednesday 5 Wednesday, Thursday 6 Thursday, Friday 7 Friday, Saturday 11 Sunday only 12 Monday only 13 Tuesday only 14 Wednesday only 15 Thursday only 16 Friday only 17 Saturday only
Weekend string values are seven characters long and each character in the string represents a day of the week, starting with Monday. 1 represents a non-workday and 0 represents a workday. Only the characters 1and 0 are permitted in the string. Using 1111111 will always return 0.
For example, 0000011 would result in a weekend that is Saturday and Sunday.
Holidays Optional. An optional set of one or more dates that are to be excluded from the working day calendar. holidays shall be a range of cells that contain the dates, or an array constant of the serial values that represent those dates. The ordering of dates or serial values in holidays can be arbitrary. NETWORKDAYS.INTL formula explanation If start_date is later than end_date, the return value will be negative, and the magnitude will be the number of whole workdays. If start_date is out of range for the current date base value, NETWORKDAYS.INTL returns the #NUM! error value. If end_date is out of range for the current date base value, NETWORKDAYS.INTL returns the #NUM! error value. If a weekend string is of invalid length or contains invalid characters, NETWORKDAYS.INTL returns the #VALUE! error value. Example of NETWORKDAYS.INTL function
The following NETWORKDAYS.INTL examples would return:
=NETWORKDAYS.INTL(A2,B2)Result:10 (assumes that the weekends fall on Saturday and Sunday) =NETWORKDAYS.INTL(A2,B2,1)Result:10 (uses the weekend parameter of 1 that says that the weekends fall on Saturday and Sunday) =NETWORKDAYS.INTL(A2,B2,15)Result:12 (uses the weekend parameter of 15 that says that the weekends fall only on Thursday) =NETWORKDAYS.INTL(A2,B2,15,E4)Result:11 (because it would use the weekend parameter of 15 that says that weekends fall on Thursday, and it excludes Easter Monday which is stored in cell E4) =NETWORKDAYS.INTL(A2,B2,15,DATE(2013,4,1))Result:11 (because it would use the weekend parameter of 15 that says that weekends fall on Thursday, and it excludes Easter Monday which is equal to the DATE(2013,4,1) formula) =NETWORKDAYS.INTL(A2,B2,15, E2:E4)Result:10 (because it would use the weekend parameter of 15 that says that weekends fall on Thursday, and it excludes Good Friday and Easter Monday) =NETWORKDAYS.INTL(DATE(2013,3,24),DATE(2013,4,6))Result:10 |
Open Question Answering | Q1.Are you a manufacturer or a trading company? A:Our shanghai office is mainly doing export.We have our own factory in Wenzhou,Zhejiang Province.
Q2.What is the machine warranty?
A:One year.After the warranty,we still provide technical support tobuyer at low cost.
Q3.What is the production time while placing order?
A:Normally about 10-20 days.
Q4.What is the delivery time?
A:15-30days after deposit.
Q5.Can your company handle shipping for customers?
A:Yes,just give us destination sea port or container yard.
Q6.Does the packing strong?
A:Yes.Adopts moisture-proof and shock-proof packaging which issuitable for long-distance road transportation and various types ofweather conditions.A full set of maintenance and operation manuals is included.
Q7.How about the machine installation and training?
A:1)We provide training in our factory for free;
2)We can send technicians (engineers) to your factory forinstallation and training.
You shall pay the round trip air fare and accommodations,plus eachtechnician charges USD100/per day.
Q8.Do you have machines in stock?
A:For standard model,we have a large quantity in stock.For special model,we need 20-30 days to produce it for you.
Q9.How can you assure the machines’ quality?
A:Each machine will be test running at least 24 hours beforedelivery to assure the quality.
And during the warranty,we will give spare parts for free ifmachine has any problem.
Q10.Do you inspect machines or test running before packing?
A:Of course we do.We have QC department to debug the machine beforepacking.
If you want to use specific material to do the test running,youneed to pay for the cost of the material.
Q11.What’s the payment term?
A:T/T 30% in advance,the balance shall be paid before delivery.We also accept payment by West Union or L/C at sight.
Q12.Do you accept factory visiting?
A:Warmly welcome for your visiting.
Q13.How many years are you in printing field?
A:The Shanghai company since in 2008,the factory is more than25years.
Q14.How many clients do you have?
A:We have sold our machines to about 60 countries.We have agents in South Africa,Morocco and Italy. |
Open Question Answering | I wrote this article for friends who have asked for advice or help in preparing for the exams that social workers must pass to become licensed. I’ve described the strategies I used in my own preparation, but I’d also encourage you to gather ideas from others who have taken the exam.
Use Great Care in Preparing Your Application Package Before you take the licensing exam, you'll have to apply to your state licensing board for permission to take the exam. At least in Maryland, the Board of Social Work Examiners is renowned as a stickler for detail. The essentials include the following.
Read the instructions carefully before beginning. Use the most recently available forms. (See exception below.) All forms must be filled in using blue ink. Check your math for the hours and weeks entered the supervision verification form and summary sheet. Do not use whiteout or make other kinds of corrections. Be sure to review your paperwork and fill out clean forms if necessary. The exception to using the most recent forms is the contract for supervision. Those contracts should be on the forms that were current at the time you entered into supervision with each supervisor.
Several times, when my supervisors and I were filling out the forms, we found errors and had to redo them. As one of my supervisors explained, your goal is to avoid attracting the board’s attention to any irregularity that might spur an audit of your supervision hours or clinical hours. An audit would greatly extend the length of time and the amount of effort required to receive the board's approval to take the licensing exam. The approval process at each stage will likely take several weeks, and longer if the board requests further information.
Study One of the Exam Prep Guides To begin preparing, I studied an exam prep guide by LEAP, which provided a detailed and comprehensive review of the material that is included on the exam. Compared to the study aids offered by other companies, LEAP was relatively helpful. (I have also heard positive comments on Linton Hutchinson’s exam prep materials, but I haven’t used them.) There are less helpful study guides. Some companies, for example, provide fussy practice exam questions unlike any I’ve seen on the real exam and some of their supposed correct answers are clearly wrong.
Studying an exam prep guide is useful, not just as a way to review the material you learned in social work school, but also to fill in any gaps in your formal education. I learned a lot by studying the guide. Much of what I learned will strengthen my work as a psychotherapist. Thus, studying a guide may offer benefits beyond just passing the exam.
I took several of the practice exams that are usually included in exam prep guides. If I realized that I didn't know a topic well, I researched it in books or online. In particular, I read a lot in the DSM‑5 at this stage, especially on differential diagnosis. You can download this blank answer sheet as a Word Docx, if you need one.
Do You Need to Remember Every Detail? The social work exams cover a huge range of material. ASWB provides lists of the content areas and relative weight of each area on its exams: www.aswb.org/exam-candidates/about-the-exams/exam-content-outlines/
It may be tempting to use the non-ASWB study materials because they tend to be very comprehensive. In my experience, it may not be necessary to know the minutia. Although the LEAP study guide was interesting and beautifully summarized, very little of the LEAP materials appeared on my actual exam. My concern is that worrying about learning the details related to so many topics may create unnecessary anxiety. Although my exams asked very few content-oriented questions, some of my friends have reported otherwise. Apparently, every test-taker will take very different exam, with questions selected randomly from a large set of potential questions. You will have to decide how much energy to spend learning comprehensive, detailed content. I don’t have a photographic memory, so I chose to learn the major points in order to reduce stress and cognitive overload.
Getting Some Questions Wrong is Normal and Not a Problem You only have to answer correctly between 93 and 106 of the 150 scored items. (There are 20 additional questions that are not scored. This document has a more detailed explanation: www.aswb.org/exam-candidates/about-the-exams/exam-scoring/) You may find it reassuring to remember that you will pass even if you get no more than 71% correct. Missing a few questions about esoteric topics won’t matter. Use this fact to help you relax while studying and during the exam.
Consider Taking an Exam Prep Class I also took a two-day exam prep class offered by NASW-MD and taught by Corey Beauford, LICSW. The main thing I learned in the class was to separate “exam world” from “real world.” There are two aspects to this advice. First, when a question presents you with a scenario, do not insert details you know from your work experience. Only use the information specifically provided in the question. Second, the ASWB may have very different beliefs about correct clinical practice compared to you have seen in your clinical experiences. This is why I recommend below that you take the ASWB practice exam so you can learn to think like the ASWB question writers.
Many exam prep classes include a set of study materials and practice tests. The study guide I received in my class was useful because the author did not try to be comprehensive, but pointed out what material would be most likely to be on the exam.
Study the NASW Code of Ethics Although the code of ethics is a very short document, it is highly important on the exam. www.socialworkers.org/pubs/code/code.asp?print=1 I recommend learning the code of ethics well because it is by far the easiest 18% of the clinical exam to prepare for. Ethics is even more important on the master’s level exam, where it comprises 27% of the content.
Know the "First/Next" and "Best/Most Reasonable" Acronyms The tests I took had many “What would you do first?” and “What would you do next?” questions. To help with those questions, you can use the FAREAFI acronym.
F: Feelings of client must be acknowledged first. Begin building rapport. A: Assess R: Refer E: Educate A: Advocate F: Facilitate I: Intervene To use this acronym, your goal is to select the response that is closest in hierarchy to the first letter/item of FAREAFI. I don't think my exam required any answers past FAR.
A similar acronym is AASPIRINS, which is used in the same manner for questions asking "What is the best action?" or "What is the most reasonable action plan?"
A: Acknowledge client. Begin building rapport. A: Assess S: Start where the patient is at P: Protect life. Determine/prevent danger to client and others. I: Intoxicated do not treat. Refer. R: Rule out medical issue I: Informed consent N: Non-judgmental stance S: Support patient self-determination I didn’t memorize the acronyms, but I did remember the gist of them, which helped me answer a number of questions. There is additional instruction on using these acronyms here: www.socialwork.career/2011/10/two-acronyms-you-must-know-for-lmsw.html
Take the ASWB Online Practice Exam For me, the most helpful step was taking the ASWB online practice exam. Most importantly, passing the practice test gave me confidence in knowing that I was probably going to pass the exam. In addition, for both the masters and clinical exams, some of the real exam questions on my exams were very similar to those on the online practice exam. After you take the ASWB online practice exam, be sure to study the ASWB’s explanations for the “correct” answers on the practice exam. That will help you get into the mindset that the ASWB uses when they create exam questions.
Take the online practice exam at least a week before the real exam so you’ll have enough time to reschedule the actual exam if you decide that you’re not ready. There is no penalty or cost for rescheduling, as long as you do so within the permitted time frame.
If I Pass the Practice Exam Will I Pass the Real Exam? Although most who pass the practice test also pass the real exam, a few don’t. This could occur because your actual test contained very different questions from those on the practice test. Or it may happen because you changed your test-taking behaviors for the real test.
Should You Change Your Answers? During the exam, you will be able to mark questions for later review. The first time through the questions, you will hopefully read each of the questions carefully and consider each possible answer. If you believe that you may become impulsive when you go over those questions a second time, you may not want to review any questions. Or you may want to commit to marking for review only a few questions. In that case, choose only those about which you are most uncertain. That will give you the time you’ll need to carefully re-read the entire question and reflect before choosing a final answer.
You May Be More Prepared Than You Realize The actual tests I took struck me as an attempt to measure our ability to think logically about difficult situations. You have already developed that basic skill because you’ve been building the skill in your internships and supervised employment.
For many of us, the clinical level exam seemed easier than the master’s level exam. Maybe that’s because we’re more accustomed to thinking like clinical social workers by the time we take the clinical exam.
Seek Social Support The licensing process may feel like it requires an overwhelming amount of document preparation, waiting on bureaucrats, and study. We’re social animals, so don’t go through this alone. Seek out opportunities to study with friends or ask for advice. Even brief interactions will create positive feelings for both of you. Friends may also have study materials they’d be happy to lend you. I can’t think of one good reason to slog through the licensing process alone.
Before the Exam If you aren’t familiar with the location of the exam site, drive by a few days before the exam to be sure you can find the building easily. Fill the gas tank a day or two before the exam so you won’t be rushing around the day of the exam. On the day of the exam, give yourself extra time to get to the examination location so you won’t become anxious if there are traffic delays. Be sure to get a good night’s sleep the night before your exam.
According to staff at my testing center, the ASWB has changed its policy and no longer allows test takers to access any of their belongings, including snacks, during the exam. You will be required to empty your pockets before entering the exam room. You are, however, allowed to take breaks to visit the bathroom and drink their water. All of this means that you’ll want to eat a healthy meal before the test so you don’t get hungry or sleepy during the exam. (If you believe you’ll need a snack during the test, you may be able to apply to ASWB and your local board for a medical accommodation.)
Use Positive Self-Talk at Each Step of Preparing and Taking the Exam As you study for the exam, before you go into the testing center, and during the exam, breathe deeply and give yourself positive self-talk. You’ve done a lot that should give you confidence. Celebrate each step and each success: You’ve completed the application packet; you’ve studied; you’ve taken pencil and paper practice exams; and you’ve passed the online practice exam. Remind yourself of each success and your readiness to pass the real exam.
On the day of the exam, you could tell yourself something such as, "I feel good about myself. I worked hard in preparing for the exam. I passed the online practice test. I’m ready to take the test. Missing a few questions didn’t matter then and won’t matter this time. I'm going to use as much of my test time as I need and I’m going to read each question carefully. With difficult questions, I’ll use the test prep tools I’ve been learning and my intuitive sense of social work practice. I expect to pass, but even if I don't get a passing grade this time, it won’t be the end of the world. Okay, breathe deep... let’s do it!"
After the Exam Let your friends know that you passed! They’ll want to celebrate with you. You may want to support others in preparing to pass the exam, too.
Good luck! You can do it!
Feel free to leave a message if you have any questions or comments. |
Open Question Answering | February 10, 2023
Securities and Exchange Commission
Division of Corporate Finance
100 F Street, NE
Washington, DC 20549
Attn: Scott Anderegg and Dietrich King
Re:ATIF Holdings Ltd
RegistrationStatement on Form S-3
FiledDecember 21, 2022
FileNo. 333-268927
Gentlemen:
Onbehalf of our client, ATIF Holdings Ltd (the “Company ”), we set forth below the Company’s responses to the letter,dated January 12, 2023, containing the comments of the Staff of the Division of Corporation Finance (the “Staff ”) ofthe Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission ”) with respect to the above-referenced Registration Statementon Form S-3 (File No. 333-268927) filed by the Company on December 21, 2022 (the “Registration Statement ”).
In order to facilitate your review of our responses, we have restated each of the Staff’s comments in this letter, and we have numbered the paragraphs below to correspond to the numbers in the Staff’s letter. For your convenience, we have also set forth the Company’s response to each of the Staff’s comments immediately below the corresponding numbered comment.
Inaddition, the Company has revised the Registration Statement in response to the Staff’s comments and is publicly filing a reviseddraft of the Registration Statement on Form S-3/A (the “Amendment ”) concurrently with this letter, whichreflects these revisions and clarifies certain other information. Page numbers in the text of the Company’s responses correspondto page numbers in the Registration Statement. Unless otherwise indicated, capitalized terms used herein have the meanings assigned tothem in the Amended S-3.
Registration Statement on Form S-3 filed December21, 2022
Prospectus Cover Page, page i
1. It is not clear from your disclosure where your clients are located. To the extent applicable, please provide prominent disclosure about the legal and operational risks associated with having the majority of the company’s business or customers being located in China or Hong Kong. Your disclosure should make clear whether these risks could result in a material change in your operations and/or the value of the securities you are registering for sale or could significantly limit or completely hinder your ability to offer or continue to offer securities to investors and cause the value of such securities to significantly decline or be worthless. Your disclosure should address how recent statements and regulatory actions by China’s government, such as those related to data security or anti-monopoly concerns, have or may impact the company’s ability to conduct its business. Your prospectus should address, but not necessarily be limited to, the risks highlighted on the prospectus cover page.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the cover page and pages 13, 14 and 15 of the Amendment for details.
2. Please provide a description of how cash is transferred through your organization. State whether any transfers, dividends, or distributions have been made to date between the holding company, its subsidiaries, or to investors, and quantify the amounts where applicable. Provide a cross-references to the consolidated financial statements.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the cover page and page 4 of the Amendment for details.
3. To the extent you have cash management policies that dictate how funds are transferred between you, your subsidiaries, or investors, please summarize the policies on your cover page and in the prospectus, and disclose the source of such policies (e.g., whether they are contractual in nature, pursuant to regulations, etc.); alternatively, state on the cover page and in the prospectus that you have no such cash management policies that dictate how funds are transferred. Provide a cross-reference on the cover page to the discussion of this issue in the prospectus.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the cover page and page 4 of the Amendment for details.
The Company, page 2
4. We note disclosure here that you are now headquartered in California, USA and that your “goal is to become an international financial consulting company with clients and offices throughout North America and Asia.” Please disclose where your officers, directors and key employees are located. In addition, please disclose where your clients are located. Finally, with a view towards disclosure, please tell us how much of your current business activity is connected with China or Hong Kong. In this regard, we note that revenues recognized from activities in China represent 83.5%of your total net revenues for the year ended July 31, 2021.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the cover page and pages 2 and 5 of the Amendment for details.
5. To the extent one or more of your directors, officers or members of senior management are located in the PRC/Hong Kong, please include a new “Enforceability” section, consistent with Item 101(g) of Regulation S-K, and please add a new risk factor addressing the challenges of bringing actions and enforcing judgments/liabilities against such individuals.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the page 10 of the Amendment for details.
Corporate Structure, page 3
6. Please revise the corporate structure diagram on page 3 to show the owners of the remaining equity interests in ATIF Southern LLC and ATIF-1 LP.
Response: We have revised the corporatestructure in accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the page 3 of the Amendment for details.
Please note that we have removed ATIF SouthernLLC from such diagram in the Amendment. On September 27, 2022, the Company entered into a business collaboration agreement (the "CollaborationAgreement") with an individual to form ATIF Southern LLC ("ATIF Southern"), pursuant to which, upon the formation of ATIFSouthern, the Company was supposed to owned 60% of the membership interest in ATIF Southern. However, the two parties decided not tocontinue the operations of ATIF Southern and thereafter on November 3, 2022 entered into a cancellation agreement (the "CancelationAgreement"), pursuant to which the Collaboration Agreement was rendered null and void in its entirety. It is for the aforesaid reasonthat we have removed ATIF Southern from the corporate structure.
7. Please provide a clear description of how cash is transferred through your organization. Quantify any cash flows and transfers of other assets by type that have occurred between the holding company, and its subsidiaries, and the direction of transfer. Quantify any dividends or distributions that a subsidiary have made to the holding company and which entity made such transfer, and their tax consequences. Similarly quantify dividends or distributions made to U.S. investors, the source, and their tax consequences. Your disclosure should make clear if no transfers, dividends, or distributions have been made to date. Describe any restrictions on foreign exchange and your ability to transfer cash between entities, across borders, and to U.S. investors. Describe any restrictions and limitations on your ability to distribute earnings from the company, including your subsidiaries to the parent company and U.S. investors.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the cover page and pages 4 and 6 of the Amendment for details.
Recent Regulatory Development, page 4
8. As applicable, please disclose each permission or approval that you, or your subsidiaries, are required to obtain from Chinese authorities to operate your business. State whether you, or your subsidiaries, are covered by permissions requirements from the China Securities Regulatory Commission (CSRC), Cyberspace Administration of China (CAC) or any other governmental agency that is required to approve your operations, and state affirmatively whether you have received all requisite permissions or approvals and whether any permissions or approvals have been denied. Please also describe the consequences to you and your investors if you, or your subsidiaries: (i) do not receive or maintain such permissions or approvals, (ii) inadvertently conclude that such permissions or approvals are not required, or (iii) applicable laws, regulations, or interpretations change and you are required to obtain such permissions or approvals in the future.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the cover page and pages 6 and 7 of the Amendment for details.
Summary Consolidated Financial and OperatingData, page 5
9. According to your Form F-1, Amendment 1, your “revenues recognized from activities in China represent 83.5%, 94% and 100% of our total net revenues for the years ended July 31, 2021, 2020 and 2019…” For the financial year ended July 31, 2021, which are incorporated by reference into your filing, we note that the consolidated VIEs constitute a material part of your consolidated financial statements. Please provide in tabular form a condensed consolidating schedule that disaggregates the operations and depicts the financial position, cash flows, and results of operations as of the same dates and for the same periods for which audited consolidated financial statements are required. The schedule should present major line items, such as revenue and cost of goods/services, and subtotals and disaggregated intercompany amounts, such as separate line items for intercompany receivables and investment in subsidiary. The schedule should also disaggregate the parent company, the VIEs and its consolidated subsidiaries, the WFOEs that are the primary beneficiary of the VIEs, and an aggregation of other entities that are consolidated. The objective of this disclosure is to allow an investor to evaluate the nature of assets held by, and the operations of, entities apart from the VIE, as well as the nature and amounts associated with intercompany transactions. Any intercompany amounts should be presented on a gross basis and when necessary, additional disclosure about such amounts should be included in order to make the information presented not misleading.
Response: Following the termination ofour VIE agreements with Qianhai Asia Times (Shenzhen) International Financial Services Co., Ltd., on February 3, 2021, we do not havea VIE structure in our business operation. Therefore we have revised the Amendment to include the consolidated financial statement asof the year ended July 31, 2021, only. Please see the cover page and pages 11 and 12 of the Amendment for details.
Risk Factors, page 10
10. As applicable, in your risk factors, disclose the risks of having the majority of the company’s operations in or revenues from China or Hong Kong poses to investors. In particular, describe the significant regulatory, liquidity, and enforcement risks with cross- references to the more detailed discussion of these risks in the prospectus. For example, specifically discuss risks arising from the legal system in China, including risks and uncertainties regarding the enforcement of laws and that rules and regulations in China can change quickly with little advance notice; and the risk that the Chinese government may intervene or influence your operations at any time which could result in a material change in your operations and/or the value of the securities you are registering for sale.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the pages 13 and 14 of the Amendment for details.
11. Given the Chinese government’s significant oversight and discretion over the conduct of your business in China, please revise to highlight separately the risk that the Chinese government may intervene or influence your operations at any time, which could result in a material change in your operations and/or the value of the securities you are registering.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the page 14 of the Amendment for details.
12. In light of recent events indicating greater oversight by the Cyberspace Administration of China (CAC) over data security, particularly for companies seeking to list on a foreign exchange, please revise your disclosure to explain how this oversight impacts your business and your offering and to what extent you believe that you are compliant with the regulations or policies that have been issued by the CAC to date.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the page 15 of the Amendment for details.
13. Please disclose the risks associated with winding-up your VIE structure.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment. Please see the page 15 of the Amendment for details.
Exhibit Index
Exhibit 5.1, page II-2
14. Please have counsel revise the legal opinion to also state that the warrants will be binding obligations under the law of the jurisdiction governing the warrant agreement. Refer to Staff Legal Bulletin No. 19 for guidance.
Response: We have revised the Amendmentin accordance with the Staff’s comment and included a revised legal opinion as Exhibit 5.1 to the Amendment.
Should you have any questions regarding the foregoing, please do not hesitate to contact me at (212) 930-9700.
Very truly yours, By: /s/ Huan LouName: Huan Lou On behalf of ATIF Holdings Limited
1185 Avenue of the Americas | 31st Floor| New York, NY | 10036
T (212) 930 9700 | F (212) 930 9725 | WWW.SRF.LAW
6 |
Open Question Answering | Gujarat Board GSEB Class 12 Commerce Accounts Important Questions Part 1 Chapter 5 Admission of a Partner Important Questions and Answers.
GSEB Class 12 Accounts Important Questions Part 1 Chapter 5 Admission of a Partner Answer the following questions in short :
Question 1. Why does new partner has to bring capital ? Answer: To get the profit sharing right in the firm, new partner brings the capital in the firm.
Question 2. What is it called when the new partner brings more cash over and above the capital, which is distributed among old partners in their sacrifice ratio ? Answer: To compensate the sacrifice of old partners, money received by old partners from new partner is known as premium.
Question 3. What is goodwill premium ? Answer: When a new partner is admitted, old partners sacrifice some part of profit in favour of new partner. The compensation paid in cash by new partner for this sacrifice of old partner is known as goodwill premium.
Question 4. According to accounting standard 26, when should the amount of goodwill not shown in books of accounts ? Answer: According to accounting standard 26, when the firm has made internally generated goodwill, it should not be shown in accounts of the firm.
Question 5. According to accounting standard 26, when should the amount of goodwill be shown in the books of accounts of the firm ? Answer: According to accounting standard 26 when any amount is paid against goodwill then it can be shown in accounts of the firm.
Question 6. While admitting new partner, how will the goodwill amount shown in old balance sheet of the firm reflected ? Answer: While admitting new partner, the goodwill of old balance sheet is distributed among old partners in their old profit sharing ratio.
Question 7. What would be the accounting effect, if the new partner gives amount of goodwill to old partner in cash outside the business ? Answer: There will be no accounting effect in the books of the firm if the new partner pays goodwill amount in cash to old partners outside the business.
Question 8. Give the accounting effect, when new partner brings the amount of goodwill in cash ? Answer: The accounting effect goodwill when new partners brings it in cash is
Question 9. Give the accounting effect, when new partner does not bring the amount of goodwill in cash ? Answer: When new partner does not bring the amount of goodwill premium in cash, then the journal entry is.
Question 10. In which ratio the goodwill premium is distributed among the old partners ? Answer: The goodwill premium is distributed among old partners in their sacrificing ratio.
Question 11. Where is the amount of profit or loss shown arising out of change in values of assets and liabilities on admission of a new partner ? Answer: The amount of profit or loss arising out of change in values of assets and liabilities on admission of an new partners is shown in capital account of old partners in their old profit sharing ratio.
Question 12. When memorandum revaluation account is prepared ? Answer: At the time of admission of a new partner when firm decides to show the assets and liabilities at old value in the books of new firm then to record the changes in value of assets and liabilities memorandum revaluation account is prepared.
Select the appropriate option for each questions :
Question 1. How can a new partner be admitted in the existing partnership firm ? (A) The existing partnership can take decision of admitting new partner with majority. (B) If there is a provision in the partnership deed then abiding by it. (C) If there is no partnership deed, then by following Partnership Act 1932. (D) By taking permission of partners who are managing the firm. Answer: (B) If there is a provision in the partnership deed then abiding by it.
Question 2. While admitting new partner, where are preliminary expense and advertisment suspense account shown ? (A) Revaluation Account (B) Capital account of new partner (C) Capital account of old partner (D) Profit and Loss account Answer: (C) Capital account of old partner
Question 3. While admitting new partner where is the amount of general reserve shown ? (A) Revaluation Account (B) Capital account of old partner (C) Capital account of new partner (D) Capital account of new and old partners Answer: (B) Capital account of old partner
Question 4. What is worker profit sharing fund for the firm ? (A) Asset (B) Income (C) Debt (D) Expense Answer: (C) Debt
Question 5. Where is workers profit sharing fund shown after the admission of new partner ? (A) Revaluation Account (B) Partners capital account (C) On liabilities side of Balance Sheet (D) On Assets side of Balance Sheet. Answer: (C) On liabilities side of Balance Sheet
Question 6. Where would the amount of bad debts reserve be shown while admitting a new partner ? (A) Debit side of Revaluation account (B) Liabilities side of Balance Sheet (C) Credit side of Revaluation Account (D) Debit side of current or capital account of partners. Answer: (A) Debit side of Revaluation account
Question 7. After admission of new partner, profit of the firm will be distributed in which ratio ? (A) Old ratio (B) Ratio of capital (C) New ratio (D) Equally Answer: (C) New ratio
Question 8. The balance of revaluation account is transferred to which account ? (A) Profit and loss account (B) Current/capital account of partners (C) Profit and loss appropriation account (D) Liabilities side of Balance Sheet Answer: (B) Current/capital account of partners
Question 9. What is the sacrifice of old partners in favour of new partner known as ? (A) Income (B) Expenditure (C) Premium (D) Profit Answer: (C) Premium
Question 10. How is ‘Goodwill’ shown in Balance Sheet distributed among partners on admission of a new partner ? (A) Equally among all the partners (B) Among all partners in new ratio (C) Among old partners in their old ratio (D) Among old partners in their sacrifice ratio. Answer: (C) Among old partners in their old ratio
Question 11. If the new admitted partner bring the amount of goodwill in cash, then that is distributed among old partners in which ratio ? (A) Equally (B) New ratio of profit sharing (C) Old ratio of profit sharing (D) Sacrifice Ratio Answer: (D) Sacrifice Ratio
Question 12. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are partners of a firm sharing profit and loss in the ratio of 3 : 2. They decided to admit ‘C’ as a new partner with \(\frac {1}{5}\) share. What would be the new profit sharing ratio of the firm ? (A) 12 : 8 : 5 (B) 8 : 12 : 5 (C) 12 : 5 : 8 (D) 8 : 5 : 12 Answer: (A) 12 : 8 : 5
Question 13. Amar and Akbar are partners having equal profit sharing ratio. They decided to admit Anthony as a new partner with \(\frac {1}{4}\) share in profit. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of partners. (A) 2 : 3 : 3 (B) 3 : 3 : 1 (C) 3 : 3 : 2 (D) 1 : 1 : 1 Answer: (C) 3 : 3 : 2
Question 14. Priyam and Devam are partners sharing profit and loss in the ratio of 3 : 5. They have admitted Shivam as a new partner in their firm. The new profit sharing ratio is 3 : 2 : 1. Calculate the sacrifice ratio of Priyam and Devam. (A) 5 : 7 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 7 : 5 (D) 2 : 3 Answer: (A) 5 : 7
Question 15. Rajan and Sajan are equal profit sharing partners of a firm. They have admited Kajal with \(\frac {1}{5}\) share as a new partner of the firm. Calculate the sacrifice ratio of Rajan and Sajan. (A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 1 Answer: (C) 1 : 1 |
Open Question Answering | Here is an outline for AWS VMware Cloud for AWS:
I. Introduction – Definition of AWS VMware Cloud for AWS – Benefits of using AWS VMware Cloud for AWS
II. Features of AWS VMware Cloud for AWS – Integration with existing VMware infrastructure – Elasticity and scalability – High availability and disaster recovery – Security and compliance – Hybrid cloud capabilities
III. Use cases for AWS VMware Cloud for AWS – Migration of on-premises VMware workloads to AWS – Development and testing in a hybrid cloud environment – Disaster recovery and business continuity – Data center consolidation
IV. Getting started with AWS VMware Cloud for AWS – Prerequisites for using AWS VMware Cloud for AWS – Setting up the environment – Deploying and managing workloads
V. Pricing and billing for AWS VMware Cloud for AWS – Overview of pricing – Factors that impact pricing – Understanding billing and cost management
VI. Best practices for AWS VMware Cloud for AWS – Security best practices – Performance optimization – Cost optimization – Disaster recovery and backup best practices
VII. Conclusion – Recap of key points – Potential next steps for using AWS VMware Cloud for AWS
AWS VMware Cloud for AWS is a service offered by Amazon Web Services (AWS) that enables businesses to seamlessly integrate their existing VMware workloads with the AWS Cloud. This service essentially allows businesses to run their VMware-based applications on AWS infrastructure without the need for any major architecture changes, thereby providing a hybrid cloud environment.
This service is important for businesses for several reasons. Firstly, it provides a simplified and streamlined way to migrate and manage VMware workloads on the cloud, thereby reducing the need for complex and time-consuming infrastructure changes. Secondly, it enables businesses to take advantage of the scalability, flexibility, and cost-effectiveness of the AWS cloud while still maintaining the familiarity and consistency of their existing VMware environment. Finally, it provides businesses with increased agility, security, and resilience, allowing them to better meet the demands of their customers and stay ahead of their competition.
AWS VMware Cloud for AWS is a powerful solution that integrates the VMware virtualization technology with the vast capabilities of the AWS Cloud. This unique combination enables businesses to enjoy a wide range of benefits, including:
Seamless Integration: With AWS VMware Cloud for AWS, businesses can seamlessly extend their on-premises VMware environments to the cloud without any changes to their existing applications, tools or processes. This makes it easier for businesses to migrate and manage their existing workloads in the cloud. Flexible Scaling: The solution provides businesses with the flexibility to scale their workloads up or down as needed, without any hardware constraints. This means businesses can easily support their changing business needs and avoid the expenses of over-provisioning hardware. Improved Efficiency: AWS VMware Cloud for AWS provides businesses with a unified management experience, enabling them to manage their on-premises and cloud environments through a single interface. This simplifies IT operations and improves efficiency by reducing the need for multiple tools and systems. Cost Savings: By leveraging the AWS Cloud, businesses can take advantage of on-demand, pay-as-you-go pricing models that help them reduce their infrastructure costs. AWS VMware Cloud for AWS also helps businesses optimize their resources, reducing the need for expensive hardware and infrastructure. Enhanced Security: AWS VMware Cloud for AWS provides businesses with a range of security features that help protect their workloads, applications, and data. These features include network isolation, encryption, and access controls, among others. Overall, AWS VMware Cloud for AWS is an ideal solution for businesses looking to migrate their existing VMware workloads to the cloud, improve their efficiency, and reduce their infrastructure costs.
AWS VMware Cloud for AWS is a popular solution that allows businesses to seamlessly migrate their on-premises VMware workloads to the AWS Cloud. Here are some examples of how businesses are using this solution:
Disaster Recovery: Businesses can use AWS VMware Cloud for AWS to build a disaster recovery (DR) solution in the cloud. By creating a replica of their on-premises VMware environment in the AWS Cloud, businesses can quickly recover their workloads in the event of a disaster. Data Center Migration: Businesses can use AWS VMware Cloud for AWS to migrate their on-premises VMware workloads to the cloud. This solution enables businesses to migrate their workloads without the need for refactoring or rearchitecting their applications. Hybrid Cloud Scenarios: Businesses can use AWS VMware Cloud for AWS to build a hybrid cloud environment. This solution enables businesses to run their applications on both their on-premises VMware environment and the AWS Cloud, providing them with the flexibility to choose the best environment for their workloads. Overall, AWS VMware Cloud for AWS is a powerful solution that enables businesses to take advantage of the benefits of the cloud while still leveraging their existing VMware investments.
AWS VMware Cloud for AWS is a fully managed service that enables customers to run their VMware workloads on the AWS Cloud. Here are some of its features:
Seamless Integration: AWS VMware Cloud for AWS integrates seamlessly with other AWS services like Amazon S3, Amazon RDS, and Amazon DynamoDB, providing customers with access to a wide range of AWS services. VMware Compatibility: It is a VMware Cloud Verified solution, which means that it is fully compatible with existing VMware technologies and tools, allowing customers to use their existing VMware skills and tools. Scalability: The service is highly scalable, allowing customers to add or remove resources as per their business needs. Security: AWS VMware Cloud for AWS provides a secure and compliant environment for running VMware workloads. It follows industry-standard security practices and provides built-in security features like encryption, network isolation, and access control. Customization: The service is highly customizable, allowing customers to configure it to meet their specific business needs. Customers can choose from a range of instance types, storage options, and networking configurations. In addition to these features, AWS VMware Cloud for AWS also provides customers with access to a wide range of AWS services like AWS CloudFormation, AWS CloudTrail, and AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM), allowing them to manage and deploy their VMware workloads with ease.
Overall, AWS VMware Cloud for AWS is a powerful solution that enables customers to run their VMware workloads on the AWS Cloud with ease, while also providing them with access to a wide range of AWS services and the ability to customize the service to meet their specific business needs.
AWS VMware Cloud for AWS is a service that enables you to run your VMware workloads natively on the AWS Cloud. Here are the steps to get started with AWS VMware Cloud for AWS:
First, you need to sign up for an AWS account if you don’t have one already. You can do this by visiting the AWS website and clicking on the “Create an AWS Account” button. Once you have an AWS account, you can sign up for VMware Cloud for AWS. To do this, go to the VMware Cloud for AWS website and click on the “Get Started” button. Follow the instructions to create a VMware Cloud for AWS SDDC (Software-Defined Data Center). You will need to select the AWS region where you want to run your SDDC, choose the hardware specifications for your SDDC, and provide some basic networking information. After you have created your SDDC, you can start migrating your VMware workloads to the AWS Cloud. You can do this using VMware vSphere, which is the same tool you use to manage your on-premises VMware environment. Once your workloads are running on the AWS Cloud, you can take advantage of all the benefits of AWS, such as scalability, flexibility, and cost savings. Here are some resources for learning more about AWS VMware Cloud for AWS:
VMware Cloud on AWS Learning Center: This is a comprehensive resource that includes videos, whitepapers, and other materials to help you learn about AWS VMware Cloud for AWS. AWS VMware Cloud for AWS documentation: This is the official AWS documentation for AWS VMware Cloud for AWS. It includes user guides, API references, and other technical documentation. AWS re:Invent sessions: AWS re:Invent is an annual conference where AWS announces new services and features. There are several sessions related to AWS VMware Cloud for AWS on the re:Invent website. AWS VMware Cloud for AWS blog: The AWS VMware Cloud for AWS blog is a great resource for keeping up-to-date with the latest news and updates about the service. Conclusion: In conclusion, AWS VMware Cloud on AWS is a powerful solution that brings together the best of both worlds – the flexibility and scalability of AWS and the reliability and familiarity of VMware. This solution provides businesses with a seamless migration path to the cloud, without having to invest in new hardware or rewrite applications.
Some of the key benefits of AWS VMware Cloud on AWS include faster time-to-market, better resource utilization, simplified operations, and improved security. By leveraging this solution, businesses can focus on their core competencies and leave the management of their infrastructure to AWS and VMware experts.
We strongly encourage readers to consider using AWS VMware Cloud on AWS for their business needs. With its rich feature set, ease of use, and cost-effectiveness, this solution can help businesses accelerate their digital transformation journey and stay ahead of the competition. |
Open Question Answering | Alfalfa Hay Field Flaming Alfalfa Flaming Kills Weeds, Grasses and Weevil the safe, natural way while increasing yields of weed free hay and saving you money over other methods of weed and weevil control.
Also effectively treats field dodder.
Red Dragon Alfalfa Flamers offer producers a single solution for what is usually a two part problem. One flame application replaces insecticide treatment for weevil and replaces herbicide treatment for unwanted weeds and grasses.
Due to the fact that weevil lay eggs all winter, flaming is normally done in late winter or early spring, just before or during greenup. Flaming usually takes between 20 and 30 gallons of propane per acre, depending on the outside temperature when flaming. A second application may be done, if necessary, immediately following the first cutting. This will not hurt the alfalfa but may delay the second cutting by a few days.
Flame Engineering’s Patented liquid propane spray process was developed in the 1960’s and still works today. By directing the spray at ground level, all plants and insects are subjected to high temperature thus burning out old growth, making way for new growth while eliminating weevils. It takes just a split second to kill weeds, grasses and insects. Tall stubble will, however, require slower ground speeds and higher fuel pressures.
Red Dragon Alfalfa Flamers are Safe and Easy to Use. Flamers are designed to skid behind the tank cart (tank and cart are not included) and come with either electronic solenoid or pull valve allowing the operator control of the liquid spray from the drivers seat. Each unit flames a 12′ swath – to connect two or more, call for advisement on pressures, ground speeds and capabilities.
The Red Dragon Alfalfa Flamer is Lightweight, Durable, Easy to Assemble and Burns Clean Efficient Propane.
IMPORTANT NOTE ABOUT LP TANKS:Always consult your propane dealer about purchasing the proper tank or have them check your existing tank to make sure it is clean and safe before you begin flaming. You MUST use a propane tank equipped with a Liquid Withdrawal Valve. Do NOT use a bottom withdrawal valve as any possible debris or scale may plug torches or solenoids down the line. We recommend a top-mounted, liquid withdrawal valve with a dip tube which reaches close to, but does not rest on the bottom of the tank. Clean fuel and tank are critical for optimum performance of all flaming equipment.
TD-12 LPS ALFALFA FLAMING UNITS INCLUDE:
• Complete control head assembly with either electronic solenoid valve or manual pull valve.
• Cab control box with master shut-off switch (solenoid units).
• (2) LT 3-12 T Liquid Pilot Torches
• All necessary hoses cut to length with brass fittings.
Alfalfa Flaming FAQs
Question: What is the average fuel consumption and cost per acre?
Answer: You can expect to use between 20 and 30 gallons an acre. The cost per acre depends on the price of propane.
Question: When is the best time to flame alfalfa?
Answer: The best time to flame is in the late winter or early spring, when you see the first signs of growth in your alfalfa.
Question: Will flaming hurt my alfalfa?
Answer: No. If the alfalfa is green, it will only slow growth for a few days, but there will be no adverse effects.
Question: Can I flame between cuttings?
Answer: You may flame between cuttings if necessary. Typically, this will delay the next cutting by 3-5 days.
Question: What size tank is recommended?
Answer: No specific tank size is needed. The tank size is determined by how long you want to operate between refills. Using 500 to 1000 gallon tanks is common.
Question: Can more than one unit be hooked together to cover a wider swath?
Answer: Yes. 2 or 3 TD12LPS units can be connected to make a 24′ or 36′ set-up. The producer is responsible for the additional plumbing and fabricating to make this possible.
Question: How fast can I travel while flaming?
Answer: Ground speed around 5 miles per hour is recommended. Speed will vary depending on the air temperature. Higher temperatures allow faster speeds while lower temperatures require slower speeds.
Made in the U.S.A. |
Open Question Answering | Lead2pass 2017 August New Cisco 300-175 Exam Dumps!
100% Free Download! 100% Pass Guaranteed!
Good news, Lead2pass has updated the 300-175 exam dumps. With all the questions and answers in your hands, you will pass the Cisco 300-175 exam easily.
Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: https://www.lead2pass.com/300-175.html
QUESTION 41 Drag and Drop Question This question concerns the installation of a Cisco Unified Computing System blade server AC power supply. Drag the options on the left to the right side in the correct order when performing the installation. Note: Not all of the steps on the left will be used.
Answer:
QUESTION 42 Drag and Drop Question Drag the characteristic on the left to the most appropriate Cisco unified Computing System 62XX Fibre Channel switching mode on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION 43 Drag and Drop Question Drag the upgradeable type of firmware on the left to the appropriate Cisco UCS component on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION 44 Which ports can access the Cisco IMC if you select Shared LOM NIC mode in the Cisco IMC Configuration Utility for a Cisco UCS C-Series server?
A. the ports on an installed Cisco network adapter card B. the two 1-Gb Ethernet ports C. the two 10/100 management ports D. the two 10/100 management ports, but each port has a default setting
Answer: B
QUESTION 45 Which NIC redundancy modes allow the LOMs to be discovered by the operating system or hypervisor?
A. Dedicated mode B. Active/Active C. Active/Standby D. Cisco Card Mode
Answer: A
QUESTION 46 Which two are true with respect to the unified ports on the Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. The port mode is automatically discovered after plugging in a LAN or Fibre Channel-attached cable. B. By default, unified ports that are changed to Ethernet port mode are set to uplink Ethernet port type. C. Ethernet ports must be grouped together in a block and must start with the first port and end with an odd numbered port. D. Alternating Ethernet and Fibre Channel ports is supported on the expansion module. E. After making port mode changes on an expansion module, the module will reboot. F. In a standalone configuration, making port mode changes to the fixed module will not cause the fabric interconnect to reboot.
Answer: CE
QUESTION 47 Which two are true with respect to the switching modes on the Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. End-host mode presents a link to a northbound uplink switch as a host trunk with loop detection that is provided by STP. B. For northbound traffic, server MAC addresses are statically pinned to an uplink; the return path is controlled by the unified fabric switches. C. A fabric interconnect port in Ethernet switching mode appears to the uplink switch as a host with many MAC addresses. D. Server-to-server traffic on a common VLAN are locally switched by the fabric interconnect and not the northbound switches. E. A MAC forwarding table is not used to forward traffic to the uplink switch. F. A MAC address forwarding table is maintained for server-to-server communications across VLANs.
Answer: DE
QUESTION 48 What is true statement concerning port personalities on the Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnect?
A. Fibre Channel uplink ports must operate in Fibre Channel switching mode. B. The fabric interconnects use native FCoE storage ports to directly attach to the SAN infrastructure. C. By default, all Fibre Channel ports are unconfigured. D. The Fibre Channel uplink ports do not support VSAN trunking and Fibre Channel port channels. E. The Fibre Channel storage ports support VSAN trunking and Fibre Channel port channels.
Answer: C
QUESTION 49 What is a true statement concerning automatic Fibre Channel pinning on a Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnect?
A. By default, uplink Fibre Channel interfaces are configured for VSAN trunking. B. Using NPV, each downstream server will be pinned to an uplink port that is based on a PIN group. C. The Fibre Channel pinning process is implemented differently than end-host MAC address pinning. D. With VSAN trunking, the automatic pinning of server traffic to Fibre Channel uplink ports will be based on the server WWN.
Answer: D
QUESTION 50 The Cisco UCS administrator has the chassis discovery policy set to “2-link”. The administrator connects a new chassis to the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects using four links. Which option about link utilization is true?
A. The Cisco UCS will use two links until the chassis is reacknowledged, after which it will use all four links. B. The Cisco UCS will use all four links for discovery. C. The Cisco UCS will use only two links. The other two links are unusable. D. The Cisco UCS will use only two links. However, the administrator can manually pin traffic to the extra links by using service profiles.
Answer: A
QUESTION 51 Which policy is used to update adapter firmware?
A. adapter policy B. host firmware policy C. management firmware policy D. network control policy
Answer: B
QUESTION 52 Which options are valid port types when configuring fixed 10-Gb LAN interfaces on the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects? (Choose three.)
A. monitoring port B. server port C. uplink Ethernet port D. FEX port E. Fibre Channel storage port
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 53 When cabling a Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnect to disjoint Layer 2 networks, which option must be considered?
A. The fabric interconnect must be in switching mode. B. You must first configure a LAN pin group. C. Each VLAN is allowed across multiple disjoint uplinks. D. Each vNIC can communicate to a single disjoint network.
Answer: D
QUESTION 54 Which two items represent the features of Call Home on the Cisco Unified Computing System? (Choose two.)
A. syslog B. send fault details to Cisco TAC C. SNMP trap receiver D. send email alerts to administrators E. central repository of normalized fault data
Answer: BD
QUESTION 55 Which three items represent message formats that are available to send fault data using Cisco Call Home? (Choose three.)
A. short text B. long text C. HTML D. SOAP API E. XML F. Java
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 56 Which BIOS setting is required for a VMware ESXi 5.0 host to support Cisco VM-FEX universal pasthrough mode?
A. VT for Directed IO B. ACPI 10 Support C. VEMDPA Agent D. Execute Disabled Bit E. Processor C State
Answer: A
QUESTION 57 What are the three main components of the VM-FEX environment? (Choose three.)
A. Red Hat Network Satellite server B. ESX host with Cisco UCS M81KR VIC C. ESX host with Cisco UCS M72KR CAN D. VMware vCenter E. VMware Update Manager F. Cisco UCS Manager G. Cisco VSG
Answer: BDF
QUESTION 58 Which two policies can be configured in a port profile for VM-FEX high-performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. QoS policy B. network control policy C. adapter policy D. BIOS policy E. vNIC connection policy
Answer: AC
QUESTION 59 Which three options are true regarding port profiles in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Port profiles define operating-system kernel parameters. B. Port profiles are represented as a port group in vCenter. C. Port profiles can be used by more than one DVS. D. Port profile parameters are visible on vCenter. E. Port profile parameters can be modified from vCenter. F. Port profiles can be modified only from Cisco UCS Manager.
Answer: BCF
QUESTION 60 Which two options are valid modes for VM-FEX in a Cisco UCS Manager port profile? (Choose two.)
A. transparent B. bypass C. standard D. advanced E. high-performance F. low-pass
Answer: CE
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Open Question Answering | With a 96-point season in the books, and after a 25-point improvement in the standings, it was as positive of a campaign as the Montreal Canadiens could’ve put together without making the playoffs.
As a team, they finished with 44 wins and the 14th-best record in the National Hockey League. They ran the sixth-best 5-on-5 offence, ranked 12th in goals against and finished 13th on the penalty kill. And along the way, a dozen players set new career-highs in either goals, assists, or points, and a couple more tied their best in one or more of the categories.
With a closer look at those individual performances, here are our player grades for the 2018-19 Canadiens.
[relatedlinks]
Carey Price: GP: 66 | Record: 35-24-6 | SV% .918 | GAA 2.49
Our grade: A
Justification : A big bounce back from what was statistically the worst season of his career in 2017-18. Broke the record for franchise wins along the way, and put up the second-most wins in the NHL and a .925 save percentage from Dec. 1 onward.
One thing to improve on : Start to the season. With the Canadiens jumping out to a 6-2-2 start, Price was steady but not the difference in any of their wins. His 3-5-2 November, with a .886 save percentage and 3.81 goals-against average, was the one blemish keeping him from an A+ grade.
Antti Niemi: GP: 17 | Record: 8-6-2 | SV% .887 | GAA 3.78
Our grade: F
Justification : The one player told by Bergevin he won’t be back next season, and it’s no surprise since he was pulled from two of his last four starts and closed out the year with four straight losses, allowing 14 goals in the process.
One thing to improve on : Consistency. Niemi’s play was unpredictable this season. He had a career night, with a 53-save win over the Florida Panthers on Jan. 15, and he followed it up with those last four games.
Max Domi, GP: 82 | G: 28 | A: 44 | P: 72
Our grade : A+
Justification : He scored 10 more goals, eight more assists and 20 more points than in any one of his previous three seasons, and he managed to do it while exclusively playing centre at this level for the first time in his career.
One thing to improve : Faceoffs. He won just 447 of the 996 draws he took, finishing off with a 44.9% efficiency rating.
Tomas Tatar, GP: 80 | G: 25 | A: 33 | P: 58
Our grade : A
Justification : He put up six more assists and two more points than he had in any of his previous eight seasons, and he was equally effective on the defensive side of the puck—posting a team-high plus-21.
One thing to improve : Power play scoring. Had he just hit his career-average of nine power play goals, he’d have notched the first 30-goal season of his career. Instead he finished with his lowest total (four) since his rookie season.
Jonathan Drouin, GP: 81 | G: 18 | A: 35 | P: 53
Our grade : D
Justification : Despite setting a new career-high in assists and tying his previous high in points, he fell three goals short of his best and failed to produce when it mattered most—managing just one goal and two assists over the final 18 games while the Canadiens were fighting for a playoff spot. This was supposed to be a breakout season for Drouin, but he got stuck in neutral for too much of it.
One thing to improve : Consistency. As captain Shea Weber put it on Tuesday, "I think if he’s consistently at that level, and he’s playing his best game, I think even he knows he wants to be more consistent and contributing the way he knows he can every night."
Phillip Danault, GP: 81 | G: 12 | A: 41 | P: 53
Our grade : A+
Justification : Danault shattered previous highs in assists and points while establishing himself as an elite shutdown centre, one who worked his way into the Selke Trophy conversation.
One thing to improve : Needs to shoot more. Danault finished with just 132 shots on net, or less than any other Canadiens forward to have played at least 50 games.
Brendan Gallagher, GP: 82 | G: 33 | A: 19 | P: 52
Our grade : A
Justification : After scoring 31 goals a year ago, the beating heart of the Canadiens found the net 33 times. He also led the NHL’s forwards in 5-on-5 shot attempts (420) and finished sixth in shots on net (302).
One thing to improve : Play on the power play. He registered 26 shots less on the power play than he did a year ago and as a result finished with half as many goals (4) in the category.
Andrew Shaw, GP: 63 | G: 19 | A: 28 | P: 47
Our grade : A+
Justification : Beat his career-high in points by eight and did it in 17 less games. Not bad for a player who missed all of training camp after coming back from knee surgery a full month sooner than expected. Not even a mid-season neck injury that induced concussion symptoms slowed this guy down, with 45 of his 47 points coming over his last 52 games. Simply put, an outstanding season.
One thing to improve : That temper. He just can’t help himself sometimes.
Jeff Petry, GP: 82 | G: 13 | A: 33 | P: 46
Our grade : A+
Justification : What else are you supposed to give a guy who notched career-highs in goals, assists and points and finished 15th among defenceman in scoring? Without the work Petry did in Shea Weber’s absence through to late November, the Canadiens wouldn’t have been in the playoff race—and certainly not in it all the way until the penultimate night of the regular season.
One thing to improve : Hit the net. Of the 408 shots Petry attempted, only 172 were on net.
Jesperi Kotkaniemi, GP: 79 | G: 11 | A: 23 | P: 34
Our grade : B
Justification : All in all, a solid season for the NHL’s youngest player, but no goals on the road, and the wall hit full force with about 15 games remaining, making it less than perfect. Still, the potential is clear; he’s going to be an A-level player for years to come.
One thing to improve : That skating stride. It’s unconventional at best and choppy at worst. Some muscle added in the summer should make it more explosive, but it can use some refining.
Shea Weber, GP: 58 | G: 14 | A: 19 | P: 33
Our grade : B+
Justification : A 33-year-old player jumps into the season 24 games in, coming off major surgery on both legs and a near year-long break from hockey, and manages to score the eighth-most goals among defencemen in the league? Tremendous. If not for a lull in late-Feburary/early March, where his ice-time needed to be reduced, it was a near perfect season for the captain of the Canadiens.
One thing to improve : Less giveaways. Weber had 12 more than his career average, but in 24 less games than usual.
Paul Byron, GP: 56 | G: 15 | A: 16 | P: 31
Our grade : A
Justification : If not for injuries, Byron was on pace to beat career highs in every relevant category. He still came close to tying his bests but in 36 less games.
One thing to improve : Sorry, we don’t have a single suggestion. We’d say shoot more, but he’s a career 17 per-cent shooter because he only really elects to shoot from in close.
Artturi Lehkonen, GP: 82 | G: 11 | A: 20 | P: 31
Our grade : C
Justification : He’s better than what he showed this year, in almost every way. Granted he does all the important little things, but 11 goals with that shot? Not good enough. Not even close. If his responsible play continues to earn him top-six minutes, he’s going to have to produce much more.
One thing to improve : Poise. A guy who misses this many high-danger chances (he had 73 high-danger shot attempts according to natturalstattrick.com ) is a little too jittery in the crunch. Meditate, Artturi. Visualize the puck going in, and get back to doing what you know how to do, what got you to the NHL in the first place.
Joel Armia, GP: 57 | G: 13 | A: 10 | P: 23
Our grade: C –
Justification : Technically, Armia set a new career-high in goals and did so in 22 less games. But a guy with his remarkable puck-protection skills, his heavy shot, his quick release, his puck-stealing stick and his instincts should be scoring double. A knee injury knocked him out of 25 games, and he deserves some slack for how he looked for the first couple of weeks post-return, but this guy has more to give in almost every department.
One thing to improve : That one-timer. Unofficial statistic, but he surely led the team in fanned shots on one-timers.
Jordie Benn, GP: 81 | G: 5 | A: 17 | P: 22
Our grade : B+
Justification : He matched his career-high in assists and beat his personal bests in goals and points, and we’re talking about a player who’s known strictly for his defence. Benn finished plus-15, had a 53.4 per cent corsi for and blocked more shots than any other player on the team. That’s as good as it gets for a third-pairing defenceman.
One thing to improve : Playing the left side. He’s far more effective on the right, and because the Canadiens are thin on the left he’s forced to play there more often. It’s a problem he might not have to worry as much about if he ends up signing elsewhere this summer.
Brett Kulak, GP: 57 | G: 6 | A: 11 | P: 17
Our grade : B
Justification : Kulak took a giant step forward and established himself as an NHL regular after playing 70 games in Calgary last season and starting off this one in Laval. He put up career-highs in every category and played steadily in a role that’s well above his paygrade (a $900, 000 top-four defenceman).
One thing to improve : Needs to be stronger on the puck. Was knocked off of it too easily at times.
Victor Mete, GP: 71 | G: 0 | A: 13 | P: 13
Our grade: A –
Justification : Emerged as a legitimate top-four defenceman, played against top opposition every night and was over 50 per cent in corsi. At 20-years-old, the party is just getting started for this 5-foot-9 speedster.
One thing to improve : His shot. If it was better, he’d not own the NHL’s longest goal drought (120 games and counting).
Mike Reilly, GP: 57 | G: 3 | A: 8 | P: 11
Our grade : D-
Justification : Reilly has the speed, the passing ability and the shot to be a legitimate offensive defenceman. But if he doesn’t provide offence—he didn’t provide enough of it in the 57 games he played—he doesn’t do enough to justify his place in the lineup. His inconsistency put him out of favour with coach Claude Julien, and Christian Folin’s acquisition at the trade deadline put him out of a job.
One thing to improve on : Decision making. He showed flashes of brilliance playing as simply as he possibly could. It was when he was thinking about what to do that he complicated matters beyond repair.
Jordan Weal, GP: 16 | G: 4 | A: 6 | P: 10
Our grade : A
Justification : In a limited sample size, after he was acquired from the Arizona Coyotes for Michael Chaput at the trade deadline, Weal proved worthy of a new contract with the Canadiens. He got his opportunity and took advantage of it, and he gave the lifeless power play a boost.
One thing to improve on : His shot can use some work, but we’re nitpicking.
Matthew Peca, GP: 39 | G: 3 | A: 7 | P: 10
Our grade : F
Justification : Peca got the opportunity of his career when he signed a one-way, two-year, $2.6-million contract with the Canadiens following just 20 games played at this level. The fourth-line centre position was his to lose, and lost it, he did. Just like he quickly lost his job as a fourth-line winger. In the end, he was scratched for all but a couple of the 43 games he missed.
One thing to improve on : Anything. If he’s not going to be a secondary scorer, he has to be an elite penalty killer. If he’s not going to be counted on to play in an offensive role, he can’t be a minus-11 from the fourth line. Peca needs to find a specialty fast or he’ll be playing in another league by this time next year.
Nate Thompson, GP: 25 | G: 1 | A: 6 | P: 7
Our grade : B
Justification : He did exactly what was expected of him after he was acquired from the Los Angeles Kings in February. A steady faceoff man who helped the penalty kill tremendously and brought experience to one of the youngest teams in the league.
One thing to improve on : At age 34, he might just be done with the improvement process. But if he remains in as good shape as he appeared to be in with Montreal, he should get a contract somewhere this summer.
Charles Hudon, GP: 32 | G: 3 | A: 2 | P: 5
Our grade : F
Justification : After working so hard to finally break through with the Canadiens a year ago—notching 30 points in 70 games as a rookie—Hudon took his foot off the gas. Playing seven more games than Thompson and registering two fewer points says everything about his play. We felt as bad as anyone seeing him choke back tears as he discussed his murky future in Montreal when he met reporters earlier this week, but he was his own worst enemy this season. Bad offensive-zone penalties, bad puck management, and a lack of speed put him in Julien’s doghouse.
One thing to improve : Be the hungriest player at training camp next fall. Canadiens general manager Marc Bergevin said on Tuesday that he hasn’t thrown in the towel on you, Charles. Show him what kind of player you can be.
Nicolas Deslauriers, GP: 48 | G: 2 | A: 3 | P: 5
Our grade : D-
Justification : A strong showing in a couple of important games down the stretch saved Deslauriers from a failing grade, but his production was a quarter of what it was a year ago. A facial injury hurt his game out of the gate and he never really found his best self at any point. He was slow in all facets and lacking in the type of energy that made him effective in his debut season with the Canadiens.
One thing to improve on : Execution. It’s as simple as getting pucks out and getting pucks in, being hard on the forecheck and responsible on the backcheck. If it doesn’t improve, his place in the NHL—even as a depth option—belongs to someone else.
Christian Folin, GP: 19 | G: 0 | A: 4 | P: 4
Our grade : C+
Justification : Half his games since coming over from the Philadelphia Flyers in February made it hard to justify his presence in the lineup. In the other half, the 6-foot-3, 204-pounder threw his weight around and played quite steadily at both ends on the third pair with Benn.
One thing to improve on : Playing on his toes. Without an explosive skating stride, he needs to be in perpetual motion, trying to be the aggressor as much as possible.
Dale Weise, GP: 9 | G: 0 | A: 0 | P: 0
Our grade : F
Justification : He came to Montreal from Philadelphia with a real desire to show his best self, to get back to the player he was before he was traded away from the Canadiens in 2016, but nothing happened with him on the ice. No goals, no assists, no points. Weise had just five shots in nine games.
One thing to improve on : Get that edge back. If he really wants it bad enough, he can get back to being an effective, irritating player to play against. He has a chance to prove he can be that player, with one year remaining on his contract.
Ryan Poehling, GP: 1 | G: 3 | A: 0 | P: 3
Our grade : A+
Justification : He played just one game after leaving St. Cloud State University, but it might go down as the best game he ever plays. The Canadiens are certainly hoping that doesn’t prove to be the case.
One thing to improve on : Pace. Not that he looked a step slow in his magical game against Toronto, but we’d imagine it’ll be a focal point of his summer training to do everything a little faster before showing up to camp next fall. |
Open Question Answering | Q.101 Why do the hair of a shaving brush cling together when taking out of water?
Answer: When the brush is taken out of water, thin water film is formed at the tips of the hair. It contracts due to surface tension and so the hair cling together.Q.102 A needle floats on the surface of pure water but goes down when detergent is added to water. Why?
Answer: Due to addition of detergent, the surface tension and hence the reaction of surface tension decreases. Hence the needle sinks due to smaller upward reaction.Q.103 Why it becomes easier to spray the water in which some soap is dissolved?
Answer: When soap is dissolved in water, the surface tension of water decreases and so less energy is needed for spraying the water i.e., spraying of water in which soap is dissolved becomes easier.Q.104 The clothes are better cleaned with hot water than with cold water. Why?
Answer: Surface tension decreases with the increase of temperature. Lesser the surface tension, more is the wetting (and hence the washing) power of water.Q.105 How does soap help us to remove dirt better in washing clothes?
Answer: With the addition of soap, the surface tension of water decreases. The decrease in surface tension results in greater wetting and hence washing power.Q.106 A oil drop on a hot cup of soup spreads over when the temperature of the soup falls. Why?
Answer: The surface tension of hot water is less than that of oil and hence oil drop does not spread over hot water. When water is cooled, its surface tension decreases. At low temperature, the surface tension of water becomes greater than that of oil and hence oil drop starts spreading over it.Q.107 Glass marbles are made by heating the end of a glass rod until drops of molten glass fall. Explain.
Answer : When drops of molten glass fall freely, they are in state of weightlessness. As only the force of surface tension acts on them, so they acquire spherical shape which on solidification become glass marbles.Q.108 Oil is sprinkled on sea waves to calm them. Why?
Answer: When oil is sprinkled, the breeze spreads the oil on the sea-water in its own direction. The surface tension of sea-water (without oil) is greater than oily water. Hence the water without oil pulls the oily water against the direction of breeze, and the sea waves become calm.Q.109 A tiny liquid drop is spherical but a larger drop has oval shape. Why?
Answer: In the case of a tiny drop, the force of surface tension is large compared to its weight, so the drop has spherical shape. A large drop has oval shape because the force of gravity (weight) exceeds the force of surface tension.Q.110 Why does a small piece of camphor dance about on the water surface?Answer: Due to its irregular shape, the camphor piece dissolves more rapidly at some points than at others. Where it dissolves, the surface tension of water is reduced. As the force of surface tension reduces by different amounts at different points of the camphor piece, a resultant force acts on it which makes it dance about on water surface.
Answer: The addition of flux reduces surface tension of the molten tin. This helps it spread easily over the area of soldering.Q.112 The paints and lubricating oils have low surface tension. Why?
Answer: The paints and lubricating oils having low surface tension can spread over a large surface area.Q.113 Why are the droplets of mercury when brought in contact pulled together to from a bigger drop? Also state with reason whether the temperature of bigger drop will be the same, or more, or less than the temperature of the smaller drops?
Answer: Due to surface tension, liquid drops tend to have minimum surface area. When mercury droplets are brought in contact, they form one drop thereby decreasing the surface area. Due to decrease in surface, surface energy is lost by the bigger drop which appears as heat. So its temperature increases.Q.114 The angle of contact for a solid and a liquid is less than 90 ∘. Will the liquid wet the solid? Will the liquid rise in the capillary made of that solid?
Answer: The liquid will wet the solid and will rise in the capillary tube made of that solid.Q.115 Write down formula for excess pressure inside (i) a liquid drop (ii) a soap bubble.
Answer: (i) For a liquid drop: p= 2σ/R (ii) For a soap bubble: p= 4σ/R where σ is surface tension.Q.116 Why excess pressure in a soap bubble is twice the excess pressure of a liquid drop of the same radius?
Answer: A soap bubble has two free surfaces, one internal and another external; whereas liquid drop has only one outer free surface.Q.117 Two soap bubbles of unequal sizes are blown at the ends of a capillary tube. Which one will grow at the expense of the other and what does it show?
Answer: The bigger one will grow at the expense of the smaller one. This is because excess pressure is inversely proportional to radius and air flows from higher pressure to lower pressure.Q.118 What is the importance of (i) wetting agents used by dyers, and (ii) water proofing agents?
Answer: (i) They are added to decrease the angle of contact between the fabric and the dye so that the dye may penetrate well. (ii) They are used to increase the angle of contact between the fabric and water to prevent the water from penetrating the cloth.Q.119 Teflon is coated on the surface of non-sticking pans. Why?
Answer: When the surface of a pan is coated with teflon, the angle of contact between the pan and the oil used for the frying purpose becomes obtuse. Thus the frying pan becomes non-sticking.
Q.120 What makes water-proof rain coat water-proof?
Answer: The angle of contact between water and the material of the raincoat is obtuse. So the rainy water does not wet the raincoat i.e., the raincoat is water-proof.Q.121 How does the ploughing of fields help in preservation of moisture in the soil?
Answer: This is done to break the tiny capillaries through which water can rise and finally evaporate. The ploughing of field helps the solid to retain the moisture.Q.122 How does the cotton wick in an oil-filled lamp keep on burning?
Answer: The narrow spaces between the threads of the wick serve as capillary tubes through which oil keeps on rising due to capillary action.Q.123 Why sand is drier than clay?
Answer: Due to narrow pores in clay, water rises in the clay due to capillary action and keeps it damp. Practically no pores or capillaries exist in sand and hence water cannot rise in sand. So sand is drier than clay.Q.124 Why undergarments are usually made of cotton?
Answer: Cotton threads have large number of capillaries between them. These capillaries help to absorb sweat from the surface of the body due to capillarity action.Q.125 A piece of chalk immersed in water emits bubbles in all directions. Why?
Answer: A chalk piece has a large number of capillaries. As it is immersed in water, water rises due to capillary action. The air present in the chalk is expelled out in the form of bubbles in all directions.Q.126 Why new earthen pots keep water cooler than the old one?
Answer: Due to capillary action, water oozes out of the pores of the new earthen pot. This water takes latent heat from the pot to evaporate and so the water in the pot gets cooled. In old pots, most of the capillaries are blocked. So the cooling is not so effective.Q.127 Why is the tip of the nib of a pen split?
Answer: The split in the tip of the nib acts as a capillary tube. The ink rises up in the nib due to capillary action. Hence we are able to write with the pen.Q.128 Water rises in a capillary tube, whereas mercury falls in the same tube. Why?
Answer: In a capillary tube, a liquid rises to a height h given by For water, θ is acute, cosθ is positive and hence h is positive. So water rises in the capillary tube. For mercury, θ is obtuse, cosθ is negative and hence h is negative. So mercury gets depressed in the capillary tube.Q.129 Why is it difficult to make mercury enter a fine thermometer tube?
Answer: The meniscus of mercury in a glass tube is convex. Since there exists an excess pressure (p=2σ/r) on the concave side of the curved liquid surface, the pressure below the meniscus is greater than the atmospheric pressure. This excess pressure has a very large value for a tube of fine bore. As the pressure of mercury inside the tube is greater than that outside it, mercury instead of entering into the tube tends to flow out.Q.130 Water gets depressed in a glass tube whose inner surface is coated with wax. Why?
Answer: The angle of contact between water and wax is obtuse. So cosθ is negative and hence capillary rise: h=2σcosθ/rρg is also negative. That is why water gets depressed.Q.131 If a capillary tube is immersed at first in cold water and then in hot water, the height of capillary is smaller in the second case. Why?
Answer: The height up to which a liquid rises in a capillary tube is given by The surface tension (σ) of hot water is less than that of cold water. Moreover, capillary tube expands in hot water, so its radius r increases. So capillary rise h is smaller in hot water than in cold water.Q.132 If a capillary tube is put in water in a state of weightlessness how will the rise of water in a capillary tube be different to one observed under normal conditions?
Answer: In normal conditions, when the force of surface tension (due to which water rises in capillary) becomes equal to the weight of the water column raised in the tube, water stops rising. In the state of weightlessness, the effective weight of water column raised is zero. Hence water will rise up to the other end of the capillary, however long the capillary is. Water will not overflow, its surface will become flat (its radius of curvature will become infinity)Q.133 How is the rise of liquid affected, if the top of the capillary tube is closed?
Answer: As the liquid rises in the capillary tube, the air gets compressed between the top end of the tube and the liquid meniscus. The compressed air opposes the rise of liquid due to surface tension. The liquid rises till the two opposing forces just balance each other. Hence if the top end of the capillary tube is closed, the liquid rises to a smaller height.Q.134 A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises up to 8 cm. If the entire arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator, what will be the length of water column in the capillary tube?
Answer: In the freely falling elevator, the entire arrangement is in a state of weightlessness, i.e., g= 0. So water will rise in the tube to fill the entire 20 cm length of the tube.Q.135 Spherical balls of radii R are falling in a viscous fluid of viscosity η with a velocity υ. How does the retarding viscous force acting on a spherical ball depend on R and υ?
Answer: F=6πηRυi.e., retarding viscous force is directly proportional to both R and υ.Q.136 Why do air bubbles in a liquid move in upward direction?
Answer: The density of air bubble is less than that of liquid. Initially, the resultant of up thrust and the viscous force is greater than the weight of the air bubble. So, the air bubble experiences a net upward force. Then bubble soon attains a terminal velocity in the upward direction.Q.137 Explain why some oils spread on water, when others float as drops.
Answer: If the surface tension of oil is less than that of water, then it spreads on water. If the surface tension of oil is more than that of water, then it floats as drops on water.Q.138 What happens when a capillary tube of insufficient length is dipped in a liquid?
Answer: When a capillary tube of insufficient length is dipped in a liquid, the liquid rises to the top. The radius of curvature of the concave meniscus increases till the pressure on its concave side becomes equal to the pressure exerted by the liquid column of insufficient length. But the liquid does not overflow.Q.139 Problem 1. Explain why : (i) A balloon filled with helium does not rise in air indefinitely but halts after a certain height (Neglect winds). (ii) The force required by a man to raise his limbs immersed in water is smaller than the force for the same movement in air.
Answer: (i) A balloon filled with helium goes on rising in air so long as the weight of the air displaced by it (i.e., up thrust) is greater than the weight of filled balloon. We know that the density of air decreases with height. Therefore, the balloon halts after attaining a height at which density of air is such that the weight of air displaced just equals the weight of filled balloon.
(ii) Water exerts much more up thrust on the limbs of man than air. So the net weight of limbs in water is much less than that in air. Hence the force required by a man to raise his limbs immersed in water is smaller than the force for the same movement in air.Q.140 What height of water column produces the same pressure as a 760 mm high column of Hg?
Answer: Pressure exerted by h height of water column =Pressure exerted by 760 mm of Hg column ∴h×1000×9.8=0.760×13.6×103 ×9.8 [P=hρg] orQ.141 A small ball of mass m and density ρ is dropped in a viscous liquid of density ρ. After some time, the ball falls with a constant velocity. Calculate the viscous force on the ball.
Answer: Volume of the ball, V= m/ρ Mass of the liquid displaced, m′=Vρ0 =m/ρ .ρ0 When the body falls with a constant velocity, Viscous force = Effective weight of the ball F=Weight of the ball ? Up thrust =mg−m′g or
Q.142 A tank filled with fresh water has hole in its bottom and water is flowing out of it. If the size of the hole is increased what will be the change in: (a) Volume of water flowing out per second? (b) Velocity of the out coming water? (c) If in the above tank, the fresh water is replaced by sea water, will the velocity of out coming water change?
Answer: (a) The volume of water flowing out per sec will increase as its volume depends directly on the size of hole.
(b) The velocity of outflow of water remains unchanged because it depends upon the height of water level and is independent of the size of the hole.
(c) No, though the density of sea water is more than that of fresh water, but the velocity of outflow of water is independent of the density of water.Q.143 In a bottle of narrow neck, water is poured with the help of an inclined glass rod. Why?
Answer: If water is directly poured into a bottle of narrow neck, the stream of water blocks the neck due to the pressure of inside air and the strong force of adhesion between glass and water. If a small part of the glass rod is placed inside the bottle and water is poured along the length of the rod outside the bottle, water molecules cling to the glass rod and the force of gravity pulls down these molecules into the bottle.Q.144 The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is thrice the excess pressure inside a second soap bubble. What is the ratio between the volume of the first and the second bubble?
Answer: Given: P1 =3P2 or r2 =3r1
Q.145 The viscous force 'F' acting on a body of radius 'r' moving with a velocity ' υ' in a medium of coefficient of viscosity ?η? is given by F=6πηrυ. Check the correctness of the formula.
Answer: [F]=[MLT−2 ] [6πηrυ]=[ML−1 T−1 ][L][T−1 ]=[MLT−2 ]
∴ Dimensions of LHS = Dimensions of RHS.
Hence the given formula for viscous force F is dimensionally correct.Q.146 A tornado consists of rapidly whirling air vortex. Why is the pressure always much lower in the centre than at the outside? How does this condition account for the destructive power of tornado?
Answer: The angular velocity of air in a tornado increases as it goes towards the centre. As the air moves towards the centre, its moment of inertia (I) decreases and to conserve angular momentum (L=Iω), the angular velocity co increases. Because of the enormous increase in velocity of inner layers, the air pressure at the centre reduces greatly in accordance with Bernoulli's theorem. This sudden reduction in pressure may prove highly disastrous both for life and property in the vicinity of a tornado.
1. What are the mechanical properties of fluids?
2. How does viscosity affect the flow of fluids?
3. What is the significance of surface tension in fluids?
4. How does density affect the buoyancy of objects in fluids?
5. What is the difference between compressibility and elasticity in fluids? |
Open Question Answering | In Swift, closures are self-contained blocks of functionality that can be passed around and used in your code. They are similar to blocks in C and Objective-C or lambdas in other programming languages. This article will explore the different aspects of closures in Swift, including their syntax, capture and storage of constants and variables, and use cases.
Closures in Swift can capture and store references to variables and constants from the surrounding context in which they are defined. This is known as capturing values . Swift handles all memory management of capturing for you, so you don’t have to worry about memory leaks.
There are three types of closures in Swift:
Closure expressions have a clean, clear syntax with optimizations that encourage minimalism. The syntax for a closure expression is as follows:
{ (parameters) -> ReturnType in statements}
Here’s an example of a simple closure that takes two integers and returns their sum:
let addIntegers = { (a: Int, b: Int) -> Int in return a + b}print(addIntegers(3, 5)) // Output: 8
Swift’s type inference system allows for further simplification of closure syntax. If the types of the closure parameters and return type can be inferred from the context, they can be omitted:
let addIntegers: (Int, Int) -> Int = { a, b in return a + b}
Additionally, if the closure consists of only a single expression, the return
keyword can be omitted:
let addIntegers: (Int, Int) -> Int = { a, b in a + b }
If a closure expression is the last argument of a function, and the closure expression is lengthy, you can write it as a trailing closure for improved readability. A trailing closure is written after the function call’s parentheses, even though it is still an argument to the function. Here’s an example:
func performOperation(_ a: Int, _ b: Int, operation: (Int, Int) -> Int) -> Int { return operation(a, b)}let result = performOperation(10, 5) { (a, b) in return a * b}print(result) // Output: 50
Closures can capture and store references to constants and variables from the surrounding context in which they are defined. This allows the closure to have access to and modify these values even after the context has been exited. Here’s an example:
func makeIncrementer(incrementAmount: Int) -> () -> Int { var total = 0 let incrementer: () -> Int = { total += incrementAmount return total } return incrementer}let incrementByTwo = makeIncrementer(incrementAmount: 2)print(incrementByTwo()) // Output: 2print(incrementByTwo()) // Output: 4
In this example, incrementByTwo
captures and stores a reference to the total
variable and incrementAmount
constant. Even though the context they were created in has been exited, the closure can still access and modify their values.
An autoclosure is a closure that is automatically created to wrap an expression that’s passed as an argument to a function. It doesn’t take any arguments, and when called, it returns the value of the expression that’s wrapped inside of it. This is useful for delaying the evaluation of the expression until it’s needed. You can mark a function parameter as an autoclosure by writing @autoclosure
before its typeannotation:
func delayedPrint(_ message: @autoclosure () -> String) { print("Performing some tasks...") print("Message: \(message())")}let name = "John Doe"delayedPrint("Hello, \(name)")
In this example, the message
parameter is marked with the @autoclosure
attribute. This means that when calling the delayedPrint
function with a string, Swift automatically converts the string into a closure that takes no arguments and returns the string when called. The evaluation of the message
closure is delayed until it’s actually called inside the delayedPrint
function.
Closures are widely used in Swift programming for various purposes. Some common use cases include:
Asynchronous programming: Closures are often used as completion handlers for asynchronous tasks, such as networking requests or animations.
Higher-order functions: Functions that take other functions as input parameters or return them as output are called higher-order functions. Many Swift functions in the standard library, such as map
, filter
, and reduce
, utilize closures to manipulate collections.
Callbacks: Closures can be used as a way to pass around blocks of code that can be executed at a later time or in response to specific events.
Custom sorting: Closures can be used to provide custom sorting logic when sorting collections.
Here’s an example of using a closure with the filter
function on an array:
let numbers = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10]let evenNumbers = numbers.filter { $0 % 2 == 0 }print(evenNumbers) // Output: [2, 4, 6, 8, 10]
In this example, the closure provided to the filter
function checks if a number is even by using the shorthand argument syntax $0 % 2 == 0
.
Closures are a powerful and flexible feature in Swift that enables you to write concise, expressive, and efficient code. They allow you to capture and store references to constants and variables from the surrounding context, and their lightweight syntax makes them easy to use in various situations. Whether you’re working with asynchronous tasks, higher-order functions, or custom logic, closures can help you write cleaner and more maintainable code in Swift. |
Open Question Answering | You are reading the article How Does C++ Search() Work With Examples updated in September 2023 on the website Uyenanhthammy.com. We hope that the information we have shared is helpful to you. If you find the content interesting and meaningful, please share it with your friends and continue to follow and support us for the latest updates. Suggested October 2023 How Does C++ Search() Work With Examples
Syntax:
Below given is the basic syntax of C++ search() algorithm function:
1. Syntax of C++ search() function with equality ( ==) operator
ForwardIterator1 search (ForwardIterator1 frst1, ForwardIterator1 lst1, ForwardIterator2 frst2, ForwardIterator2 lst2);
where,
frst1: It is the forward iterator of the first element of the sequence [frst1, lst1) in which the subsequence is searched into.
lst1: It is the forward iterator of the last element of the sequence [frst1, lst1) in which the subsequence is searched into.
frst2: It is the forward iterator of the first element of the subsequence [frst2, lst2) which is to be searched.
lst2: It is the forward iterator of the last element of the subsequence [frst2, lst2) which is to be searched.
2. Syntax of C++ search() function with predicate
ForwardIterator1 search (ForwardIterator1 frst1, ForwardIterator1 lst1, ForwardIterator2 frst2, ForwardIterator2 lst2, BinaryPredicatepred);
where,
frst1, lst1, frst2, lst2: Are the same arguments as defined above.
pred: It is a binary function that basically takes 2 arguments and returns a value that is convertible to bool. The elements which are used as arguments are taken one from each of the containers. Predicate function needs to be declared and defined in the code separately.
How search() Function Works in C++?The search() function searches in the sequence defined in [frst1, lst1) for the subsequence defined in [frst2, lst2). This function returns an iterator and considered to be true (a match) if all the elements of [frst2, lst2) matches with the [frst1, lst1). One of the most important things to be kept in mind while working with it is the return element.
It returns the lst1, i.e. the last element of the sequence 1 (on which searching is to be done into), if no occurrences are found.
It returns the iterator to the first element of the first occurrence of subsequence [frst2, lst2) in [frst1, lst1) if the occurrences are found (or the whole subsequence is matched).
As discussed above in syntax, by default, search() function works with the quality operator ( = =) if anything is not defined but it can also be used with the predicate (which returns a boolean value or a value convertible to boolean and works according to the predicate function defined).
Examples of C++ search() Example #1Using default std:search() function (using equality == operator)
Code:
using namespace std; intmain() { itr = std::search(vec1.begin(), vec1.end(), vec2.begin(), vec2.end()); if (itr != vec1.end()) { cout<< “Hello vector 2 is present in vector 1 at position: ” << (itr – vec1.begin()); } else { cout<< “Sorry vector 2 is not found in seq vector 1”; } return 0; }
Output:
Code Explanation: In the above example, we have declared two vectors ‘vec1’ and ‘vec2’ are declared with the values defined. Iterator ‘itr’ is declared to store the result as the search() function returns an iterator value. search() function is defined with the parameters as mentioned in the above syntax. Iterator value returned is checked using the if and else statement and the output is printed on the console accordingly. The position of the string matching is calculated using the function ‘itr – vec1.begin()’
Example #2Code:
using namespace std; bool predic_func(int num1, int num2) { return (num1 == num2); } intmain() { int num1, num2; itr = std::search(vec1.begin(), vec1.end(), vec2.begin(), vec2.end(), predic_func); if (itr != vec1.end()) { cout<< “Hello vector 2 is present in vector 1 at position: ” << (itr – vec1.begin()); } else { cout<< “Sorry vector 2 is not found in seq vector 1”; } return 0; }
Output:
Code Explanation: Code is the same as the one described above with the default equality operator with the only difference being the predicate defined in it. Predicate function ‘predic_func’ function is defined at the starting of the code returning the boolean value. In the search() function, predic_func() is added as an argument and the results are returned according to the search() conditions. In the above code, as the range does not match, it will not return the position.
Conclusion Recommended ArticlesThis is a guide to C++ search(). Here we also discuss the definition and how does c++ search() work? along with different examples and its code implementation. You may also have a look at the following articles to learn more –
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QUESTION 301 Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the effect of this configuration?
A. It implements Cisco United CME redundancy. B. It creates dial peers. C. It configures failover. D. It configures a standby Cisco Unified CME. E. It implements HSRP. F. It implements Cisco IOS redundancy.
Answer: A
QUESTION 302 On which two call legs is the media encryption enforced in a Collaboration Edge design? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C to Cisco Unified Communications Manager B. Expressway-C to Expressway-E C. Expressway-E to outside-located endpoint D. Expressway-E to Cisco Unified Communications Manager E. Expressway-C to internal endpoint
Answer: BC
QUESTION 303 Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP. C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061. D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS. E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate. F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On. G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 304 Which three options describe the main functions of SAF Clients? (Choose three.)
A. registering the router as a client with the SAF network B. providing publishing services to the SAF network C. subscribing to SAF network services D. registering Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscribers with the publisher E. starting Cisco Unified Communications Manager services throughout the cluster F. integrating with Cisco IM and Presence for additional services
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 305 Which option indicates the best QoS parameters for interactive video?
A. 1% Max Loss, 150 ms One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning B. 5% Max Loss, 5 s One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning C. 0% Max Loss, 100 ms One-way Latency, 30 ms Jitter, 20% Overprovisioning D. 1% Max Loss, 160 ms One-way Latency, 60 ms Jitter, 10% Overprovisioning
Answer: A
QUESTION 306 Which three configuration settings are included in a default region configuration? (Choose three.)
A. Audio Codec B. Video Call Bandwidth C. Link Loss Type D. Location Description E. Immersive Bandwidth F. Real Time Protocol
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 307 Which three items must you configure to enable SAF Call Control Discovery? (Choose three.)
A. the SIP or H.323 trunk B. hosted DN groups C. hosted DN patterns D. route patterns E. a calling search space F. translation patterns
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 308 Which two statements about SAF service identifier numbers are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated in the format service:sub- service:instance.instance.instance.instance. B. They are 16-bit decimal identifiers. C. They are generated in the format data-source:sub-service:instance.matrix.fifty.saf. D. They are 32-bit decimal identifiers. E. They are generated in the format [email protected]. F. They are generated in the format telco.cisco.saf-forwader.db.replicate.data.local.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 309 A voice engineer is enabling video capabilities between H.323 and SIP endpoints. Which component allows for standardized caller addresses between the endpoints?
A. search rules B. SIP route pattern C. policy service D. transform
Answer: D
QUESTION 310 Which two statements about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility are true? (Choose two.)
A. After an autogenerated device profile is created, you can associate it with one or more users. B. An autogenerated device profiles can be loaded on a device at the same time as a user profile. C. A device can adopt a user profile even when no user is logged in. D. A device profile has most of the same attributes as a physical device. E. Devices can be configured to allow more than one user to be logged in at the same time.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 311 When you configure a globalized dial plan, in which three ways can you enable ingress gateways to process calls? (Choose three.)
A. Configure the called-party transformation settings for incoming calls on H.323 gateways. B. Configure translation patterns in the partitions used by the gateway calling search space. C. Configure SIP trunks between Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters. D. Configure a remote site device pool. E. Configure a hunt group. F. Configure the gateway with prefix digits to add necessary country and region codes.
Answer: ABF Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/8x/uc8x/dialplan.html#wp115316
QUESTION 312 How many nodes can a phone establish a connection to at the same time?
A. 4 B. 3 C. 1 D. 2
Answer: D
QUESTION 313 Company X has a primary and a backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager instance. The administrator had to do maintenance on the primary node and did a shutdown, which resulted in a failover to the backup node. What happens when the primary node comes back online?
A. The primary node becomes the backup node. B. Endpoints detect that the primary is back and reregisters automatically. C. The backup node must be shut down first to allow the endpoints to realize that the primary node is online again. D. Nothing, the endpoints only failover when the node they lose connection to their registered node.
Answer: B
QUESTION 314 Company X has deployed a VCS Control with a local zone and a traversal client zone. To facilitate external calls, VCS Expressway is deployed and traversal server zone is set up there. Video endpoints inside Company X have registered, but are unable to receive calls from outside endpoints. Which option could be the cause of this issue?
A. The traversal zone on the VCS Control does not have a search rule configured. B. The access control list on the VCS Control must be updated with the IP for the external users. C. When a traversal zone is set up on VCS Control only outbound calls are possible. D. The local zone on the VCS Control does not have a search rule configured.
Answer: A
QUESTION 315 Which two options are requirements for hardware MTP on Cisco IOS routers? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM or DSP resource B. LTI local transcode resource C. ref2833 D. one audio codec E. T1 PRI card
Answer: AB
QUESTION 316 The Cisco Unified Communications system of a company has five types of devices:
•Cisco Jabber Desktop •CP-7965 •DX-650 •EX-60 •MX-200
Which two types of devices are affected when an engineer changes the DSCP for Video Calls service parameter? (Choose two.)
A. DX-650 B. Cisco Jabber Desktop C. CP-7965 D. EX-60 E. MX-200
Answer: AB
QUESTION 317 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer receives a ticket to troubleshoot a one-way audio issue with these symptoms:
– User A can hear user and vice versa. – User A can hear user C, however user cannot hear user A. – User can heat user C, however user cannot hear user .
Which two properties are the most likely reasons for this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco EX60 default gateway of User C is missing from the network configuration. B. The NAT device is allowing only RTP/RTCP ports from the internal network to the DMZ. C. The Cisco EX60 of User C is not responding to requests coming from the TMS server. D. The Cisco VCS Expressway is not responding to the SIP INVITE coming from the Cisco VCS Control. E. The router does not have a route back from the DMZ to the internal network.
Answer: BE Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/voice-quality/5219-fix-1way-voice.html
QUESTION 318 Which message does a Cisco VCS use to monitor the Presence status of endpoints? A. start-call B. in-call C. end-call D. call-ended E. call-started F. registration
Answer: F
QUESTION 319 Which three steps configure Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony for SIP phones? (Choose three.)
A. Configure voice register pool. B. Configure voice register global dn. C. Configure an SRST reference. D. Configure a phone NTP reference. E. Configure the SIP registrar. F. Configure telephony service.
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 320 Which three options are overlapping parameters for roaming when a device is configured for Device Mobility? (Choose three.)
A. device pool B. location C. network locale D. codec E. MRGL F. extension
Answer: BCE Explanation: The overlapping parameters for roaming-sensitive settings are Media Resource Group List, Location, and Network Locale. The overlapping parameters for the Device Mobility-related settings are Calling Search Space (called Device Mobility Calling Search Space at the device pool), AAR Group, and AAR Calling Search Space. Overlapping parameters configured at the phone have higher priority than settings at the home device pool and lower priority than settings at the roaming device pool. https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/77096/device-mobility
QUESTION 321 An engineer is working on a Cisco VCS Control routing configuration and wants users to be able to dial ccnpcollab and have calls routed to [email protected]. Which option achieves this aim?
A. search rules B. transforms C. access rules D. call policy
Answer: B Explanation: Although Call Policy could be used, typically this type of alias change is done using transforms (either pre-search transforms or search rule transforms). Call Policy could be justified as the correct answer based on how the question is interpreted. If this change is only intended for the ccnpcollab alias being dialed, and not for other aliases that might be dialed without a domain, then call policy makes since. Still, I would never use Call Policy in this capacity, nor does Cisco recommend this.
QUESTION 322 An administrator is setting up analog phones that connect to a Cisco VG310. Which type of gateway or trunk on Cisco Unified Communication Manager for the Cisco VG310 must the administrator set up to allow the phones to have the call pickup feature?
A. H.323 gateway B. SCCP gateway C. H.225 trunk D. MGCP gateway E. SIP trunk
QUESTION 323 An engineer must enable video desktop sharing between a Cisco Unified Communications Manager registered video endpoint and a Cisco VCS registered video endpoint. Which protocol must be enabled in SIP profile for VCS SIP trunk on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. RDP B. H.264 C. H.224 D. H.263 E. BFCP
Answer: E
QUESTION 324 An engineer must resolve a “VIDEO” call failure issue. When using RTMT, the engineer notices that the Location Bandwidth Manager-OutOfResources counter is showing a positive value. Which option is the cause of the call failure?
A. lack of audio bandwidth B. lack of video bandwidth C. lack of transcoding resources D. lack of audio or video bandwidth E. lack of conferencing resources
Answer: B
QUESTION 325 While troubleshooting a connectivity issue between Cisco Unified Communications Manager, Expressway-C, and Expressway-E, an engineer sees this output in the Expressway-E logs.
Event=”Authentication Failed” Service=”SIP” Src-ip=”10.50.2.1″ Src-port=”25723″ Detail=”Incorrect authentication credential for user” Protocol “TLS” Method=”OPTIONS” Level=”1″
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The Expressway-C Traversal Server username/password do not match the Expressway-E Traversal Zone username/password. B. The Expressway-C Traversal Client username/password do not match the Expressway-E Traversal Server username/password. C. The Expressway-C Traversal Zone username/password do not match the Expressway-E Traversal Zone username/password. D. The Expressway-C Traversal Zone username/password do not match the Expressway-E Traversal Client username/password. E. The Expressway-C Traversal Server username/password do not match the Expressway-E Traversal Client username/password.
Answer: B
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QUESTION 85Which type of information does the DHCP snooping binding database contain?
A. untrusted hosts with leased IP addressesB. trusted hosts with leased IP addressesC. untrusted hosts with available IP addressesD. trusted hosts with available IP addresses
Answer: AExplanation:DHCP snooping is a security feature that acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers. The DHCP snooping feature performs the following activities:Validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid messages.Rate-limits DHCP traffic from trusted and untrusted sources. • Builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses.Utilizes the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts.Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/snoodhcp.pdf
QUESTION 86Which switch feature determines validity based on IP-to-MAC address bindings that are stored in a trusted database?
A. Dynamic ARP InspectionB. storm controlC. VTP pruningD. DHCP snooping
Answer: AExplanation:Dynamic ARP inspection determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP-to-MAC address bindings stored in a trusted database, the DHCP snooping binding database. This database is built by DHCP snooping if DHCP snooping is enabled on the VLANs and on the switch. If the ARP packet is received on a trusted interface, the switch forwards the packet without any checks. On untrusted interfaces, the switch forwards the packet only if it is valid. Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-3750-series-switches/72846-layer2-secftrs-catl3fixed.html
QUESTION 87Which command is needed to enable DHCP snooping if a switchport is connected to a DHCP server?
A. ip dhcp snooping trustB. ip dhcp snoopingC. ip dhcp trustD. ip dhcp snooping information
Answer: AExplanation:When configuring DHCP snooping, follow these guidelines:DHCP snooping is not active until you enable the feature on at least one VLAN, and enable DHCP globally on the switch.Before globally enabling DHCP snooping on the switch, make sure that the devices acting as the DHCP server and the DHCP relay agent are configured and enabled.If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP server, configure the port as trusted by entering the “ip dhcp snooping trust” interface configuration command.If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP client, configure the port as untrusted by entering the no ip dhcp snooping trust interface configuration command.Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/snoodhcp.html
QUESTION 88When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?
A. promiscuousB. communityC. isolatedD. trunked
Answer: AExplanation:There are mainly two types of ports in a Private VLAN: Promiscuous port (P-Port) and Host port. Host port further divides in two types Isolated port (I-Port) and Community port (C-port). Promiscuous port (P-Port):The switch port connects to a router, firewall or other common gateway device. This port can communicate with anything else connected to the primary or any secondary VLAN. In other words, it is a type of a port that is allowed to send and receive frames from any other port on the VLAN.Host Ports:– Isolated Port (I-Port): Connects to the regular host that resides on isolated VLAN. This port communicates only with P-Ports.– Community Port (C-Port): Connects to the regular host that resides on community VLAN. This port communicates with P-Ports and ports on the same community VLAN.
http://en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/Private_VLAN.
QUESTION 89When you configure a private VLAN, which type of port must you configure the gateway router port as?
A. promiscuous portB. isolated portC. community portD. access port
Answer: AExplanation:There are mainly two types of ports in a Private VLAN: Promiscuous port (P-Port) and Host port. Host port further divides in two types Isolated port (I-Port) and Community port (C-port). Promiscuous port (P-Port):The switch port connects to a router, firewall or other common gateway device. This port can communicate with anything else connected to the primary or any secondary VLAN. In other words, it is a type of a port that is allowed to send and receive frames from any other port on the VLAN.Host Ports:– Isolated Port (I-Port): Connects to the regular host that resides on isolated VLAN. This port communicates only with P-Ports.– Community Port (C-Port): Connects to the regular host that resides on community VLAN. This port communicates with P-Ports and ports on the same community VLAN.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Private_VLAN
QUESTION 90Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol is an IEEE Standard?
A. GLBPB. HSRPC. VRRPD. OSPF
QUESTION 91Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about SW1 are true? (Choose two)
A. InterfaceGi5/1 is using a Cisco proprietary trunking protocolB. On Interface Gi5/1, all untagged traffic is tagged with VLAN 113C. The device is configured with the default MST regionD. Interface Gi5/1 is using an industry-standard trunking protocolE. Interface Gi6/2 is the root port for VLAN 36F. On interface Gi6/2, all untagged traffic is tagged with VLAN 600
Answer: CDExplanation:Note: Answer F is not correct because VLAN 600 is the native VLAN on Gi6/2 does not mean untagged traffic is tagged with this VLAN. It only means “all untagged traffic belongs to VLAN 600”.
QUESTION 92Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two.)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0B. spanning-tree mst1 root primaryC. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority rootD. spanning-tree mst1 priority 4096E. spanning-tree mst1 priority 1F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Answer: BD
QUESTION 93Which gateway role is responsible for answering ARP requests for the virtual IP address in GLBP?
A. active virtual forwarderB. active virtual routerC. active virtual gatewayD. designated router
Answer: CExplanation:GLBP Active Virtual Gateway Members of a GLBP group elect one gateway to be the active virtual gateway (AVG) for that group. Other group members provide backup for the AVG in the event that the AVG becomes unavailable. The AVG assigns a virtual MAC address to each member of the GLBP group. Each gateway assumes responsibility for forwarding packets sent to the virtual MAC address assigned to it by the AVG. These gateways are known as active virtual forwarders (AVFs) for their virtual MAC address. The AVG is responsible for answering Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests for the virtual IP address. Load sharing is achieved by the AVG replying to the ARP requests with different virtual MAC addresses.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2t/12_2t15/feature/guide/ft_glbp.html
QUESTION 94Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router masterB. virtual router backupC. virtual router activeD. virtual router standby
Answer: AExplanation:VRRP DefinitionsVRRP Router A router running the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol. It may participate in one or more virtual routers.Virtual Router An abstract object managed by VRRP that acts as a default router for hosts on a shared LAN. It consists of a Virtual Router Identifier and a set of associated IP address(es) across a common LAN. A VRRP Router may backup one or more virtual routers.IP Address Owner The VRRP router that has the virtual router’s IP address(es) as real interface address (es). This is the router that, when up, will respond to packets addressed to one of these IP addresses for ICMP pings, TCP connections, etc. Primary IP Address An IP address selected from the set of real interface addresses. One possible selection algorithm is to always select the first address. VRRP advertisements are always sent using the primary IP address as the source of the IP packet.Virtual Router Master The VRRP router that is assuming the responsibility of forwarding packets sent to the IP address(es) associated with the virtual router, and answering ARP requests for these IP addresses.Note that if the IP address owner is available, then it will always become the Master.
http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc3768.txt
QUESTION 95Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Answer: AExplanation:The default decrement value for HSRP standby tracking is 10. There is no need to explicitly state the value if the desired value is the default value.
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Open Question Answering | In Excel, <> means not equal to. The <> operator in Excel checks if two values are not equal to each other. Let’s take a look at a few examples. 1. The formula in cell C1 below returns TRUE because the text value in cell A1 is not equal to the text value in cell B1. 2. …
The OR function in Excel returns TRUE if any of the conditions are TRUE and returns FALSE if all conditions are false. Combine the OR function with other functions and become an Excel expert. 1. For example, take a look at the OR function in cell D2 below. Explanation: the OR function returns TRUE if the first score is …
Use the IFS function in Excel 2016 when you have multiple conditions to meet. The IFS function returns a value corresponding to the first TRUE condition. Note: if you don’t have Excel 2016, you can nest the IF function. 1a. If the value in cell A1 equals 1, the IFS function returns Bad. 1b. If the value in cell A1 …
Excel SWITCH function compares an expression to a list of values and returns the corresponding result. This example teaches you how to use the SWITCH function in Excel 2016 instead of the IFS function. 1a. For example, the IFS function below finds the correct states. Explanation: cell A2 contains the string 85-UT. The RIGHT function extracts the 2 rightmost …
This example illustrates the IFERROR function and how to return blank in place of #DIV/0! error in Excel. 1. For example, Excel displays the #DIV/0! error when a formula tries to divide a number by 0. 2. Use the IFERROR function. If a cell contains an error, an empty string (“”) is displayed.
Logic Functions in Excel check the data and return the result «TRUE» if the condition is true, and «FALSE» if not. Here’s a full list of Built-In Logical Functions in Excel and their Descriptions below: Click each of the function link to see detailed example. Boolean Operator Functions AND Tests a number of user-defined conditions and …
This Excel tutorial explains how to use the NOT function with syntax and examples. Excel NOT Function Description The Excel NOT function returns the opposite to a supplied logical value. That is, If supplied with the value TRUE, the Not function returns FALSE; If supplied with the value FALSE, the Not function returns TRUE. Excel …
This Excel tutorial explains how to use the TRUE function with syntax and examples. Excel TRUE Function Description The Excel True function returns the logical value TRUE. The function takes no arguments and therefore, the syntax is simply: TRUE() Note that you can also get the same result by simply typing the text ‘True’ into …
This Excel tutorial explains how to use the XOR function with syntax and examples. Excel XOR Function Function Description Excel XOR function performs what is called “exclusive OR”. The XOR function returns the Exclusive Or logical operation for one or more supplied conditions. With two logical statements, XOR returns TRUE if either statement is TRUE, but returns …
This Excel tutorial explains how to use the AND function with syntax and examples. Excel AND Function Description Microsoft Excel AND function tests a number of supplied conditions and returns TRUE if all conditions are TRUE. It returns FALSE if any of the conditions are FALSE. That is; TRUE if ALL of the conditions evaluate to TRUE or FALSE otherwise …
This Excel tutorial explains how to use the OR function with syntax and examples. Excel OR Function Description The Excel OR function tests a number of supplied conditions and returns TRUE if any of the conditions are TRUE. Otherwise, it returns FALSE. That is; TRUE if ANY of the conditions evaluate to TRUE or FALSE otherwise (i.e. if ALL of the conditions …
This Excel tutorial explains how to use the Excel FALSE function with syntax and examples. Excel FALSE Function Description The Excel False function returns the logical value FALSE. The function takes no arguments and therefore, the syntax is simply: FALSE() Note that you can also get the same result by simply typing the text ‘False’ into your …
What is NOT function in Excel? NOT function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that is used when you want to make sure one value is not equal to another. Examples of NOT function Examples Here are some general examples of using NOT by itself, and in conjunction with IF, AND and OR. Formula Description =NOT(A2>100) A2 is NOT greater than 100 …
What is AND function in Excel? AND function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that is used to determine if all conditions in a test are TRUE. Examples of AND function Here are some general examples of using AND by itself, and in conjunction with the IF function. Formula Description =AND(A2>1,A2<100) Displays TRUE if A2 is greater than …
Learn how to use Excel’s logical functions such as the IF, AND, OR and NOT function. If The IF function checks whether a condition is met, and returns one value if true and another value if false. 1. For example, take a look at the IF function in cell C2 below. Above Case Study Explanation: if the …
IF function is one of the most used functions in Excel. This page contains many easy to follow IF examples. Simple If Examples The IF function checks whether a condition is met, and returns one value if true and another value if false. 1a. For example, take a look at the IF function in cell B2 below. …
What is OR function in Excel? OR function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that determines if any conditions in a test are TRUE. Illustration of OR function Example Here are some general examples of using OR by itself, and in conjunction with IF. Formula Description =OR(A2>1,A2<100) Displays TRUE if A2 is greater than 1 OR less than 100, otherwise …
What is SWITCH function in Excel? SWITCH function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that evaluates one value (called the expression) against a list of values, and returns the result corresponding to the first matching value. If there is no match, an optional default value may be returned. Syntax of SWITCH function In its simplest …
What is TRUE function in Excel? TRUE function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that returns the logical value TRUE. You can use this function when you want to return the value TRUE based on a condition. For example: =IF(A1=1,TRUE()) You can also enter the value TRUE directly into cells and formulas …
What is XOR function in Excel? XOR function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that returns a logical Exclusive Or of all arguments. Syntax of XOR function XOR(logical1, [logical2],…) The XOR function syntax has the following arguments. Logical1, logical2,… Logical 1 is required, subsequent logical values are optional. 1 to 254 conditions you …
What is IFNA function in Excel? IFNA function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that returns the value you specify if the formula returns the #N/A error value; otherwise returns the result of the formula. Syntax of IFNA function IFNA(value, value_if_na) The IFNA function syntax has the following arguments. Value Required. The argument …
What is IFERROR function in Excel? IFERROR function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that returns a value you specify if a formula evaluates to an error; otherwise, returns the result of the formula. Use the IFERROR function to trap and handle errors in a formula. Syntax of IFERROR function IFERROR(value, value_if_error) The …
What is FALSE function in Excel? FALSE function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that returns the logical value FALSE. Syntax of FALSE function FALSE() The FALSE function syntax has no arguments. FALSE formula explanation You can also type the word FALSE directly onto the worksheet or into the formula, and Microsoft Excel …
What is IFS function in Excel? IFS function is one of the Logical functions in Microsoft Excel that checks whether one or more conditions are met, and returns a value that corresponds to the first TRUE condition. IFS can take the place of multiple nested IF statements, and is much easier to read with multiple conditions. …
What is IF function in Excel? IF function is one of logical functions in Microsoft Office Excel that returns one value if the condition is TRUE, or another value if the condition is FALSE. Syntax of IF function The syntax for the IF function in Microsoft Excel is: IF( condition, value_if_true, [value_if_false] ) IF formula explanation condition The value …
To confirm two ranges of the same size contain the same values, you can use a simple array formula based on the AND function. See illustration below: Formula {=AND(range1=range2)} Explanation In the example shown, the formula in C9 is: {=AND(B5:D12=F5:H12)} Note: this is an array formula and must be entered with control + shift + enter. How …
This tutorial shows how to calculate IF with wildcards in Excel using the example below; Formula =IF(COUNTIF(A1,”??-????-???”),””,”invalid”) Explanation The IF function doesn’t support wildcards, but you can combine IF with COUNTIF or COUNTIF to get basic wildcard functionality. In the example shown, the formula in C5 is: =IF(COUNTIF(B5,”??-????-???”),””,”invalid”) How this formula works Unlike several other frequently used functions, …
This tutorial shows how to calculate IF with boolean logic in Excel using the example below; Formula = IF(criteria1*criteria2*criteria3,result) Explanation In the example shown, the formula in F8 is: {=SUM(IF((color=”red”)*(region=”East”)*(quantity>7),quantity))} Note: this is an array formula, and must be entered with control + shift + enter. How this formula works Note: This example demonstrates how to replace a nested …
This tutorial shows how to calculate Nested IF function example in Excel using the example below; Formula =IF(T1,R1,IF(T2,R2,IF(T3,R3,IF(T4,R4,R5)))) Explanation In the code above, T1-T5 represents 5 different logical tests, and R1-R5 represents 5 different results. You can see that each IF function requires it’s own set of parentheses. This article describes the Excel nested IF construction. Usually, …
This tutorial shows how to calculate Return blank if in Excel using the example below; Formula =IF(A1=1,B1,””) Explanation To return a blank result using the IF function, you can use an empty string (“”). In the example shown, the formula in D5 (copied down) is: =IF(B5=1,C5,””) How this formula works This formula is based on the IF function, …
This tutorial shows how to calculate Invoice status with nested if in Excel using the example below; Formula =IF(balance=0,”Paid”,IF(current_date<due_date,”Open”,”Overdue”)) Explanation To determine invoice status (i.e. paid, open, overdue), you can use a nested IF formula and the TODAY function. In the example shown, the formula in G5 is: =IF(F5=0,”Paid”,IF(TODAY()<C5,”Open”,”Overdue”)) How this formula works Note: the “current date” …
This tutorial shows how to calculate Extract multiple matches into separate rows in Excel using the example below; Explanation To extract multiple matches to separate cells, in separate rows, you can use an array formula based on INDEX and SMALL. In the example shown, the formula in E5 is: {=IFERROR(INDEX(names,SMALL (IF(groups=E$4,ROW(names)-MIN(ROW (names))+1),ROWS($E$5:E5))),””)} This is an … |
Open Question Answering | Idle Transformation Mod Apk creatures and the products of our minds that they are have always been the subject of many movies, shows, and games. There are many conspiracy theories about the existence of these objects that confuse many people. But one thing is for sure, they are fun to play with!
Don't you love it when your favorite character suddenly transforms into something more powerful - let's say a creature? What if you could transform into not one but many characters in one game? Now, thanks to passive transformation, you don't even have to imagine! Can you collect all the mythical animal heroes in this game?
Idle Transformation Mod Apk is a simulation game that allows players to turn ordinary humans into yeti, werewolves, mummy, and more! Transform into your favorite hero now! Of course, you can change only one part of the body at first, then you can gradually upgrade all of them until you reach the maximum point.
About Idle Transformation Mod Apk Get ready to make a difference - play now to achieve your ultimate hero! In each scene, you simulate the transformation from human to your next evolutionary option: werewolf, yeti, alien, mummy, and things you could only imagine. The game is a feast for fans of mythical beasts and those curious about what transformation looks like.
Idle Transformation Mod Apk is always interesting to see mythical creatures in movies, shows, and games. Even though they are bad guys, they are fun to watch because they are powerful and exciting in action. But have you ever wondered what it takes to turn an ordinary person into yourself? Here you can gradually build your legendary beast while buying cells to level it up.
Thanks to passive transformation, you no longer have to imagine! Because in this game you transform man into countless mythical beasts! The way it works is that you first need to earn money to create the cells needed for conversion. Although you can't fight it, you can show it off to everyone and brag about it!
Idle Transformation Mod Apk Features A unique simulation - there were many games in which mythical creatures were in action. However, not many mobile games have simulations that allow you to simulate the transformation of a mythical creature into a human, do they? That's why passive change is here!
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Go to "Unknown Sources" in Settings. After that, go to Security and enable the Security option. Go to the download manager of your Android device and click on Idle Transformation Mod. Now it's time for you to download it. Two options can be found on the mobile screen. There are two ways to install an operating system and all you have to do is boot it quickly on your Android device. You will see a popup with options on your mobile screen. You have to wait a while for it to appear. When all downloads and installations are complete, just click the "Open" option and open the screen on your mobile device. What are the profits and consequences of downloading the Idle Transformation Mod Apk File directly? Pros: You can download any version of the application directly from the third-party website. You can have the app archives of most versions and you can download them according to your needs. Unlike Play Store, downloading is instant, you don't have to wait for the review process, etc. After downloading, there is an APK file on your memory card/system memory. So you can uninstall and reinstall them many times without downloading. Cons: Downloading apps from third-party sources are not usually checked by Google. So it can be harmful to your phone. APK files may contain viruses that steal data from your phone or damage your phone. Your apps won't automatically update because they don't usually have access to the Google Play Store Screenshot and Image Frequently Asked Questions Q: How can ApkResult.com guarantee 100% security for the Idle Transformation Mod App?
A: If someone wants to download an APK file from ApkResult.com, we check the relevant APK file on Google Play and allow users to download it directly (of course they are cached on our server). The APK file will be found in our cache if it does not exist in Google Play.
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After you download the new version of the app, an update will begin immediately.
Q: How come Android App Permission is required in order to download Idle Transformation Mod Apk?
A: Applications need to access certain devices' systems. As soon as an application is installed, you will be informed of all the permissions it requires.
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Descargar Idle Transformation Mod APK se encuentra en la categoría Simulation y fue desarrollado por MOONEE PUBLISHING LTD's. La calificación promedio en nuestro sitio web es 4,6 de 5 estrellas. Sin embargo, esta aplicación tiene una calificación de 3 de 5 estrellas según diferentes plataformas de calificación. También puede responder Idle Transformation Mod APK en nuestro sitio web para que nuestros usuarios puedan tener una mejor idea de la aplicación. Si desea saber más sobre Idle Transformation Mod APK, puede visitar el sitio web oficial del desarrollador para obtener más información. La calificación promedio es evaluada por 25929 usuarios. La aplicación fue calificada con 1 estrella por 33 usuarios y 5 estrellas por 4991 usuarios. La aplicación se ha descargado al menos veces, pero el número de descargas puede llegar a . Descargar Idle Transformation Mod APK Si necesita una aplicación gratuita para su dispositivo Action, pero necesita la versión Android 5.0+ o más alto para instalar esta aplicación. |
Open Question Answering | If you take your SEO – and users – seriously, you’ll be working on a kick-ass site structure. But, setting up a decent site structure can be difficult. Maintaining a solid site structure when your site is growing, is even harder. It’s easy to overlook something or make a mistake. In this post, I will share 5 common site structure mistakes people often make. Make sure to avoid all of these!
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#1 Hiding your cornerstones Your most important articles – your cornerstones – shouldn’t be hidden away. Cornerstone articles are the articles that you’re most proud of; that most clearly reflect the mission of your website. But some people forget to link to their most precious articles. That’s not good: if an article receives no or few internal links, search engines will find it less easily (as search engines follow links). Google will regard articles with few internal links as less important, and rank them accordingly.
Solution: link to your cornerstones Ideally, you should be able to navigate to your cornerstone articles in one or two clicks from the homepage. Make sure they’re visible for your visitors, so people can easily find them.
Most importantly, link to those cornerstone articles. Don’t forget to mention them in your other blog posts! Our internal linking tool can help you to remember your cornerstones at all times.
#2 No breadcrumbs Breadcrumbs are important for both the user experience and the SEO of your website. And yet, some people do not use them. Breadcrumbs show how the current page fits into the structure of your site, which allows your users to easily navigate your site. Breadcrumbs also allow search engines to determine the structure of your site without difficulty.
Solution: add those breadcrumbs No excuses here! Just add those breadcrumbs. Yoast SEO can help you do that!
#3 HUGE categories Categories should be relatively similar in size. But, without noticing, people can sometimes write about one subject way more often than about another. As a result, one category can slowly grow much larger than other categories. When one category is significantly larger than other ones, your site becomes unbalanced. You’ll have a hard time ranking with blog posts within a very large category.
Solution: split categories If you’ve created a huge category, split it in two (or three). To keep categories from growing too large, check the size of your categories every now and then, especially if you write a lot of blog posts.
#4 Using too many tags Don’t create too many tags. Some people want to make tags very specific. But if every post receives yet another new unique tag, you’re not adding structure, because posts don’t become grouped or linked. So, that’s pretty much useless.
Solution: use tags in moderation Make sure that tags are used more than once or twice, and that tags group articles together that really belong together. You should also ensure that visitors can find the tags somewhere, preferably at the bottom of your article. Tags are useful for your visitors (and not just for Google) to read more about the same topic.
Read more: Using category and tag pages for SEO »
#5 Not visualizing your site structure A final site structure mistake people make is forgetting to visualize their site’s structure. Visitors want to be able to find stuff on your website with ease. The main categories of your blog should all have a place in the menu on your homepage. But don’t create too many categories, or your menu will get cluttered. A menu should give a clear overview and reflect the structure of your site. Ideally, the menu helps visitors understand how your website is structured.
Solution: dive into UX To create a good and clear overview of your site, you should dive into those aspects of User eXperience (UX) that could use improving on your site. Think about what your visitors are looking for and how you could help them to navigate through your website. You could, for instance, start with reading our blog posts about User eXperience (UX).
Fix your site structure mistakes! Site structure is an essential aspect of an SEO strategy. The structure of your website shows Google what articles and pages are most important. With your site’s structure, you can influence which articles will rank highest in the search engines. So, it’s important to do it right. Especially if you’re adding a lot of content, the structure of your site could be changing quickly. Try to stay on top! And if your site’s structure is starting to look good, you can check for other common SEO mistakes as well.
Did we forget a site structure mistake that you encounter often? Please share it with us in the comments!
Keep reading: Site structure: the ultimate guide » |
Open Question Answering | What Does Bank Reconciliation Mean? Bank reconciliation is a must in accounting. It ensures the accuracy and consistency between a company’s financial records and its bank statements. Comparing and matching the transactions recorded in the company’s books to those reported by the bank is the goal. Discrepancies are investigated and resolved.
To perform a bank reconciliation, both the company’s records and the bank statements for a specified time must be gathered. The process involves comparing every transaction, such as deposits, withdrawals, fees, and interest, listed in the company’s books with those reflected in the bank statements.
Discrepancies may occur for various reasons. These can include timing differences between when a transaction is recorded by the company and when it is processed by the bank. Errors may also happen due to data entry mistakes or incomplete information from either party. By identifying these discrepancies, businesses can fix any errors or fraud.
Pro Tip: Regular bank reconciliations help with accurate financial reporting and fraud detection and prevention. It is vital for businesses to have strong internal controls to protect their assets and prevent potential monetary losses due to inaccurate records or malicious activities.
Importance of bank reconciliation in accounting Bank reconciliation is an essential part of accounting. It ensures that the company’s records are in sync with the bank’s, spotting discrepancies and errors. By comparing transactions and balances, it gives financial reporting transparency and accuracy. It helps detect fraud, avoid cash leakage, and secure a reliable financial position.
Reconciliations lessen the risk of bookkeeping mistakes. With regular reconciliations, unrecorded transactions or errors in amounts can be quickly identified. This not only saves time but also prevents potential money losses by tackling issues before they become major problems.
Plus, bank reconciliation can discover fraudulent activities. By examining the company’s records and the bank statements, any unauthorized transactions or odd patterns can be discovered early. This serves as a preventative measure against potential frauds that could damage the company financially.
Moreover, bank reconciliation assists businesses track cash flow accurately. It provides an opportunity to review the company’s inflows and outflows by comparing the recorded transactions with those shown in bank statements. This enables better financial planning and decision-making.
Process of bank reconciliation: Bank reconciliation is the process of comparing a company’s records with its bank statement. This ensures that they match and is important for detecting any discrepancies or errors in the financial transactions. To help you through the process, follow these five steps:
Get the needed documents. Collect the bank statement and the company’s own record of transactions, such as receipts and invoices.Compare deposits. Match the deposits listed on the bank statement to those in your company’s records. Look for any discrepancies or missing deposits.Match withdrawals. Compare the withdrawals listed on both the bank statement and your company’s record. Ensure all withdrawals are accounted for and recorded accurately.Reconcile outstanding items. Identify any outstanding checks or deposits that have yet to clear on either side. Adjust your records accordingly.Verify balances. Make sure your company’s ending balance and the bank statement’s ending balance match after considering all reconciling items.It’s also important to review other details during this process. Analyzing bank fees and interest gives insight into additional expenses or income affecting your accounts.
In 2008, a financial institution discovered a major discrepancy when their internal records showed a higher balance than what was reflected in their bank statement. This discrepancy led to an investigation that uncovered fraudulent activities within the organization and ultimately resulted in major changes in their accounting procedures.
Bank reconciliations are crucial for uncovering errors, detecting fraudulent activities, and ensuring accurate financial reporting within businesses.
Example of bank reconciliation: Bank reconciliation is the practice of matching a company’s inner financial records with their bank statement. To show how it works, let’s take XYZ Corp. Their bank statement says they have $10,000 at the end of the month, but their records say they have $9,500.
They can reconcile these figures by comparing their records to the transactions on the bank statement. For example:
Transaction Type Date Amount Cash Deposit 1st June 2022 $2,000 Cash Withdrawal 5th June 2022 $500 Cheque Deposit 10th June 2022 $3,000 Total Internal Records:Inflows: $5,000
Outflows: $500
Net Balance: $4,500
Bank reconciliation also includes recognizing checks or deposits that have not been processed yet. This helps to make sure both sides of the balance are accurate and can locate mistakes or fraud. Regularly reconciling helps companies keep good financial records.
To make bank reconciliation easier, businesses should follow these tips:
Keep accurate records: Enter transactions quickly and correctly to reduce discrepancies. Reconcile often: Do bank reconciliation monthly to discover errors and fraud quickly. Investigate differences: Investigate when reconciliation finds issues to fix any mistakes or fraud. Stay in touch with the bank: Speak to the bank if there are unusual transactions or discrepancies. By doing this, businesses can ensure accurate reconciliation and great financial records.
Benefits of regularly performing bank reconciliation Doing bank reconciliation regularly offers numerous gains for improving a company’s financial management. It helps:
Spot errors and differences – between the firm’s records and the bank statement. This assists in correcting mistakes quickly and ensuring correct financial reporting.Find fraudulent activities – by reconciling bank statements, any unapproved transactions or questionable activities can be found. This safeguards the company’s finances and stops potential fraud.Manage cash flow better – it gives a clear understanding of the company’s cash position. This aids in monitoring cash inflow and outflow, ensuring enough funds are accessible to meet obligations and make sensible financial choices.Moreover, bank reconciliation makes sure that all transactions are recorded accurately, enhancing the overall quality of financial data. By regularly doing this essential task, businesses can keep up efficient financial operations.
To further emphasize the significance of bank reconciliation, here’s a real story. A small business owner once failed to do bank reconciliation over an extended period. Consequently, huge errors went undetected in their records, leading to wrong financial reports being filed with tax authorities. This oversight resulted in penalties and extra taxes being imposed on the business. Regular bank reconciliation could have averted this unfortunate incident.
By recognizing the importance of doing bank reconciliation regularly, businesses can efficiently manage their finances, detect errors or fraudulent activities promptly, and ensure accurate reporting for more informed decisions.
Conclusion: Importance of accurate bank reconciliation in maintaining financial records. Accurate bank reconciliation is essential for keeping financial records. It ensures transactions in the company’s books match with the bank statement. This helps detect issues, like mistakes or fraud, and businesses can update their records.
By performing regular reconciliations, companies can understand their financial position. They can spot any unauthorized transactions and avoid losses. Also, bank reconciliation gives assurance to stakeholders that the company’s financial records are dependable.
Moreover, bank reconciliation is key in avoiding errors in financial reporting. A small mistake in recording a transaction can give wrong financial statements, which can mislead investors and other stakeholders. Companies must do proper reconciliations to correct errors quickly and guarantee accuracy in their financial reports.
An example: A small business owner once had an issue between his bank balance and the company’s accounting records. He decided to investigate and perform a bank reconciliation. He saw a deposit that wasn’t noted in the books. Fixing this error corrected his financial records and prevented problems with tax authorities. This showed him the value of accurate bank reconciliation for preserving reliable financial records.
Frequently Asked Questions Q: What is bank reconciliation in accounting?
A: Bank reconciliation is the process of comparing the balances in a company’s accounting records with the balances shown on its bank statement.
Q: Why is bank reconciliation important?
A: Bank reconciliation is important because it helps identify any discrepancies between the company’s records and the bank’s records, such as errors or fraudulent activities.
Q: How is bank reconciliation done?
A: Bank reconciliation involves comparing the company’s cash account balance, adjusted for any outstanding checks or deposits in transit, with the balance shown on the bank statement, adjusted for any bank errors or transactions not yet recorded by the company.
Q: What are some common reasons for discrepancies in bank reconciliation?
A: Some common reasons for discrepancies in bank reconciliation include outstanding checks, deposits in transit, bank errors, incorrect recording of transactions, and fraudulent activities.
Q: What are the benefits of regularly performing bank reconciliation?
A: Regularly performing bank reconciliation helps ensure the accuracy of a company’s financial records, improves cash flow management, detects errors or fraudulent activities, and enhances decision-making based on reliable financial information.
Q: Can you provide an example of bank reconciliation?
A: Sure! Let’s say a company’s accounting records show a cash balance of $10,000, but its bank statement shows a balance of $9,500. Through bank reconciliation, it is discovered that there is an outstanding deposit of $1,000 and outstanding checks totaling $500. After adjusting for these items, the adjusted cash balance in the company’s records will match the bank statement balance. |
Open Question Answering | Contact Details
Foshan Hongshuo Environmental Technology Investment CO.,LTD
Place of Origin: China Brand Name: Hongshuo Certification: CE Model Number: L001
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Q3. What is your terms of delivery? A: FOB, CFR, CIF.
Q4. How about your delivery time? A: Generally, it will take 15 to 30 days after receiving your advance payment. The specific delivery time depends on the items and the quantity of your order.
Q5. Can you produce according to the samples? A: Yes, we can produce by your samples or technical drawings. We can build the molds and fixtures.
Q6. Do you test all your goods before delivery? A: Yes, we have 100% test before delivery
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Contact Person: sales |
Open Question Answering | from a handpicked tutor in LIVE 1-to-1 classes
Decimals Decimals are used to express the whole number and fraction together. Here, we will separate the whole number from the fraction by inserting a ".", which is called a decimal point. For example, let's say you are going to take a cone of ice cream. The vendor tells you that the price of ice cream is $2 and 50 cents. Now, if you want to express this amount in one figure, you will say that the price of the ice cream cone is $2.50. There are many such real-life situations in which you might be using decimals without even realizing it.
1. What are Decimals? 2. Decimals in Expanded Form 3. Rounding Decimals to the Nearest Tenth 4. Comparing Decimals 5. Types of Decimals 6. FAQs on Decimals
What are Decimals? Decimals are a set of numbers lying between integers on a number line. They are just another way to represent fractions in mathematics. With the help of decimals, we can write more precise values of measurable quantities like length, weight, distance, money, etc. The numbers to the left of the decimal point are the integers or whole numbers and the numbers to the right of the decimal point are decimal fractions. If we go right from ones place, the next place will be (1/10) times smaller, which will be (1/10)th or tenth place value. For an instance, observe the place value chart of decimals given below for the number 12.45.
Decimals Place Value Chart In the case of decimals, for the whole number part, the place value system is the same as the whole number. But after the decimal point, there is a different world of numbers going on in which we use decimal fractions to represent the value. When we are going towards the left, each place is ten times greater than the previous place value. So, to the right of ones place, we have tenths (1/10) and to the right of tenths, we have hundredths (1/100), and so on. Let us look at some examples of decimal place values for more clarity. The place values of each digit of the numbers 73.789, 8.350, and 45.08 are shown.
Tens
Ones
Tenths
Hundredths
Thousandths
7 3 . 7 8 9 8 . 3 5 0 4 5 . 0 8
Reading Decimal Numbers: There are two ways to read a decimal number. The first way is to simply read the whole number followed by "point", then to read the digits in the fractional part separately. It is a more casual way to read decimals. For example, we read 85.64 as eighty-five point six-four. The second way is to read the whole number part followed by "and", then to read the fractional part in the same way as we read whole numbers but followed by the place value of the last digit. For example, we can also read 85.64 as eighty-five and sixty-four hundredths.
Decimals in Expanded Form Decimals can also be written in expanded form just like whole numbers. As you know that to write any number in expanded form, we have to write the face value multiplied by the place value of all the digits in the number combined together with an addition sign in between. For writing decimals in expanded form, we will be doing the same. For example, let us write the expanded form of 23.758. The first step is to write the digits of the given number in the place value chart of decimals, as shown below.
Tens Ones Decimal Point Tenths Hundredths Thousandths 2 3 . 7 5 8
As we can observe, the place values are clearly marked along with the face values of each of the digits of the number 23.758. So, the expanded form of 23.758 can be expressed in the following way:
23.758 = 2 × 10 + 3 × 1 + 7 × 1/10 + 5 × 1/100 + 8 × 1/1000
OR
23.758 = 20 + 3 + 0.7 + 0.05 + 0.008
Rounding Decimals to the Nearest Tenths Rounding a decimal number to the nearest tenths is done by taking the digit at the hundredth place into consideration. The digit in this hundredth place can have two variations. First, if that number is 4 or less, just remove all the digits to the right of the tenth place digit and the remaining portion is our desired result. But if the digit at the hundredths place is 5 or greater, we need to increase the tenths place digit by 1, and then remove all the digits on the right of the tenths place digit.
For example, let us try rounding 765.27446 to the tenth place. As we can see, the hundredth place digit in 765.27 446 is 7. Now, since 7>5, therefore, to round this number to the nearest tenths place, we add 1 to the tenths place digit and ignore the rest. Hence, when we round off 765.27446 to the nearest tenth place, the result will be 765.3.
Check this article to know more about "Rounding Decimals".
Comparing Decimals In order to compare the decimals, keep the following two things in mind. First, compare the whole number part of the given decimals. The decimal number with the greater whole number will be greater than the other number, and vice-versa. Second, if the digits before the decimal point are equal to each other then we compare the first digit after the decimal point which is the tenth place digit, and examine which is greater or smaller. We repeat this process and keep on comparing digits to the right until we get the unequal digits.
For example, let's compare 23.789 with 23.759. Here we see digits before the decimal point are equal which is 23 = 23. Now moving on to the tenth place digits to compare. i.e., 23.7 89 with 23.7 59, we get 7 = 7. Both of them are again equal. Now we move to the next term to the right of the tenth place digit which is the hundredth digit. i.e., 23.78 9 with 23.75 9. Now, since 8>5, then we can say that 23.789 > 23.759. ∴ 23.789 > 23.759. This is how we compare decimal numbers.
Types of Decimals Decimals can be divided into different categories depending upon what type of digits occur after the decimal point. It will depend upon whether the digits are repeating, non-repeating, or terminating. Let us have a look at how the decimals are categorized based on their type here.
Terminating decimals: Terminating decimals mean it does not reoccur and end after a finite number of decimal places. For example: 543.534234, 27.2, etc.Non-terminating decimals: It means that the decimal numbers have infinite digits after the decimal point. For example, 54543.23774632439473747..., 827.79734394723... etc. The non-terminating decimal numbers can be further divided into 2 parts:Recurring decimal numbers: In recurring decimal numbers, digits repeat after a fixed interval. For example, 94346.374374374..., 573.636363... etc.Non-recurring decimal numbers: In non-recurring decimal numbers, digits never repeat after a fixed interval. For example 743.872367346.., 7043927.78687564... and so on.► Interesting Facts and Notes on Decimals
Below given are some interesting facts and notes on decimals. This will help you in understanding the topic faster.
The prefix "deci" in the word "decimal" means ten. Always remember to add the decimal point after the ones place so that we know from where the fraction begins. To compare the decimal or fractional part of any decimal number, consider one digit at a time from the right of the decimal point. For example, 4.109 < 4.2, as at the tenths place 1 < 2. ► Related Articles
Check these interesting articles related to the concept of decimals in math.
Decimal Examples
Example 1: Raven bought 100 apples from a nearby fruit vendor but later found out that 5 of them were rotten. Can you tell the fraction as well as decimals of the rotten apples to the total apples bought by Raven?Solution: Here, we have 5 rotten apples out of 100. So our fraction becomes, (5/100) or 1/20. Now, how do we write it as decimals? Such problems are solved by dividing the numerator by the denominator. Here, we need to divide 5 by 100. To divide 5 by 100, we will simply shift the decimal point by 2 places towards the left. The number of decimal places we can shift in the numerator depends upon the trailing zeroes the whole number in the denominator has. Thus, after division, we get: 5/100 = 0.05. Therefore, rotten apples to fresh apples are 0.05 in decimal form.
Example 2: A gas station sold 665.45745 gallons of gas in a day. How many gallons of gas did the gas station sell when rounded to the nearest tenths of the decimal place?Solution: Here, total gallons of gas sold by a gas station in a day = 665.45745. Now, we know that in order to round off to the nearest tenths, we check the digit at the hundredth place, i.e. 5 in 665.4
745. Now, since it is greater than 4, we add 1 to the digit at the tenths place and drop all the digits on its right side. So, 665.45745 is approximately 665.5 gallons.5 FAQs on Decimals What is a Non-Decimal Number? All integers without any fractional part are non-decimal numbers. For representing these we do not use a decimal point. Also, there is no tenths place or hundredths place in these numbers. For example, 34, 5637, 8765 etc.
How to Read Decimals? Read the whole number part followed by "and", then read the fractional part in the same way as we read whole numbers but followed by the place value of the last digit. For example, 12.87 is "twelve and eighty-seven hundredth".
Are Decimals Integers? Every integer can be represented in the form of decimals. For example, 12 is an integer that can be represented as 12.00. But decimals are not integers as integers are not in the form of p/q. By default, an integer can be considered as a decimal. For performing arithmetic operations involving integers and decimals, the integers are to be converted as decimals. For the addition of 4 to 3.36, we convert 4 to 4.00.
Why do We Use Decimals? Decimals are used to make our calculations easy. We use them to quickly compare fractions without doing many calculations. For example, comparing (675/63) with (463/77) can be very time-consuming. Instead, we write them as decimals 10.71 and 6.01 and compare easily and determine which one is greater than the other. We also use them to shorten the complicated fractional equations. We use decimals every day while dealing with money, weight, length, etc. Decimal numbers are also used in situations where more precision is required which whole numbers or fractions cannot provide.
How to Round Decimals? To round a decimal number look at the next digit to the right side of the place up to which we want to round off. If the digit is less than 5, round down and if the digit is 5 or more than 5, round up the digit at its left. For example, the decimal 3.284 can be rounded to the nearest hundredths as 3.28.
What are Repeating and Non-Repeating Decimals? Repeating decimals are those in which one or more digits repeat again and again, for example, 1/3 = 0.3333333, while non-repeating decimals are those in which the decimal digits do not form any repeating pattern. For example, 2.09374359827492..... is a non-terminating non-repeating decimal number.
How do you Write in Decimals? Decimals are used to express the whole number and fraction in a single notation. In decimals, whole numbers and fractions are separated by a point known as a decimal point. For example, in 65.4, 65 is a whole number and 4 is the fractional part (4/10).
What is 1/4 in Decimals? Let us see how to represent 1/4 in decimals. Here, multiply the numerator and the denominator with 25, to obtain 100 in the denominator. Further, we need to convert this fraction with a denominator of 100 to a decimal by shifting the decimal point to two places towards the left.
1/4 x 25/25 = 25/100 = 0.25
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More Bingo
Flower Vowel Sounds BingoUsing Letters of the Alphabet
More Letter Activities
Print out the following pages to make a flower-themed alphabet bingo game. To play, the teacher can call out words (one at a time) and have the students figure out which type of vowel sound it has: long a, short a, long e, short e, long i, short i, long o, short i, long u or short u.
Teacher Instructions: Print up enough bingo cards so that each student has one. Each student will need one bingo card and a few pennies or other small objects to cover up the letters on their card.
Pass out the bingo cards and pennies (or other small objects) to the students. Explain to the students how bingo works (see the "Student Instructions" to the right).
To play, show and/or state one word at a time (or you can use a set of picture flashcards). For example, the word "cat" (which has a short "a" sound). You need to say words ffor each of the vowel sounds in random order (but someone may get bingo before you have gone through all the letters).
Some Vowel Sounds:
Long a: bay, clay, gate, hay, jay, ray, sail, say, stay, way. Short a: bat, bag, can, car, cat, man, pan, stand, stamp. Long e: bee, cheese, eel, green, need, sheep, tree, wheel. Short e: hen, jet, leg, net, pen, pet, ten, web. Long i: bike, fire, flight, ice, kite, light, nine, pipe, ride, sight. Short i: fish, gift, lips, pig, pin, ring, ship, trip. Long o: bone, bowl, cone, no, oboe, phone, row, so, yolk, yo-yo. Short o: clock, dog, doll, frog, hog, log, moth, ox, pot, stop, top. Long u: cube, cute, fuel, huge, mule, use. Short u: cub, cup, hut, jug, jump, plus, pup, rub, sun, tub, up, us.
Continue until a student gets "bingo" (five adjacent vowel sounds on the bingo card). If you like, you can check the winner's answers at the end.
Student Instructions: Listen to the words that the teacher says. (Every time the teacher says a word, figure out what the first letter of the word is.) Look for that letter sound on your bingo card. Put a penny on that letter if it is there.
When you have covered any
To get back to this page from a printout, just click on the picture.
Skills practiced: vowel sounds.
Bingo Cards (Need one for each Student):
For a pdf version of all 24 single-digit flower bingo cards, click here (site members only).
Flower Vowel Sounds Bingo Card #1
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Product Name: Ground Continuity Tester Warranty: 1 Year Power Supply: AC 220V±10V，50Hz±1 Hz Test Current: 1A,2.5A,5A,10A,20A Measuring Range: 100μΩ～1Ω (20A); 500μΩ～2Ω (10A); 1mΩ～4Ω (5A); 2mΩ～8Ω (2.5A); 5mΩ～20Ω (1A); Minimum Resolution: 0.1μΩ Accuracy: ±(0.5%±2words) Display: LCD Data Storage: 1000 Groups Ambient Temperature And Relative Humidity: 0℃～40℃; <90%RH,no Condensation Overall Dimensions: 400 * 225 * 350 (mm) Weight: Host Machine: 15.1KG, Wire Box: 5.75KG High Light: 20A Ground Continuity Tester ,Anti Interference Ground Continuity Tester ,20A earthing continuity tester
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Open Question Answering | Discover more from Economics Design Newsletter Understanding Volatility in Crypto: A Comprehensive Guide Welcome to all our free subscribers. What will be shared today are free alpha from our Economics Design's researchers.
Introduction What we have been noticing The world of cryptocurrency or crypto has seen tremendous growth in recent years, with people flocking to invest in the market in the hopes of making a fortune. However, the extreme fluctuations in crypto valuations have resulted in both gainers and losers, regardless of which crypto they invested in. It is not uncommon for two investors to invest in Bitcoin, but have vastly different outcomes due to timing. This is because crypto is often associated with high levels of volatility, prices can fluctuate wildly, with sudden gains or losses occurring within a matter of hours or even minutes. For example, Dogecoin’s value plummeted by 21% in a single day on 3 April 2023.
But why is crypto so volatile? The answer to this question lies in the fact that cryptocurrencies are not backed by any intrinsic value, unlike traditional assets such as gold or diamonds. In this article, we will delve into the concept of volatility in crypto, exploring its causes and effects on the market, as well as strategies to mitigate the risks.
Key topics this article will cover: What is volatility in crypto and why does it matter?
Types of volatility in crypto
10 Factors contributing to volatility in crypto
Strategies to mitigate crypto volatility risks
Conclusion: Future outlook for crypto volatility
What is volatility in crypto and why does it matter? In traditional finance, volatility refers to the measure of the dispersion of an asset’s price over a period of time. It shows how much a security's market price fluctuates around its average price. Generally, the higher the volatility, the riskier it is to invest in that asset.
Similarly, volatility in digital assets as crypto refers to the degree of fluctuation or rapid and unpredictable changes in the price of cryptocurrencies, such as Bitcoin or Ethereum, over a particular period. However, there is much higher volatility in the overall crypto market than in traditional finance. As a result, major cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin and Ethereum have their own volatility indexes. The most popular is the Bitcoin Volatility Index (BVOL) which measures Bitcoin's price fluctuation. Let’s take a look at the example below.
The graph shows the performance of two different markets over time, one with high volatility and one with low volatility. In the high volatile market, the line on the graph appears to be very jagged and unstable, with frequent ups and downs that are often quite significant. This indicates that the market is experiencing a lot of fluctuations and uncertainty, and that investors are likely to see a lot of risk and potential reward. On the other hand, the low volatile market appears much more stable and predictable, with a smoother line that shows little variation over time. This suggests that the market is relatively calm and that investors are likely to encounter less risk and more stability when investing in this market.
Volatility is an important measure of an investment’s risk. In most cases:
The higher the volatility, the riskier the investment.
The lower the volatility, the less risky the investment.
Types of volatility in crypto There are three main types of volatility that are relevant to the crypto market: historical volatility, implied volatility, and realised volatility. Each of these types of volatility measures the degree to which the price of a crypto fluctuates over a given period of time, but they do so in different ways.
Historical Volatility: Historical volatility looks at how much the price of a crypto has varied in the past, typically over a period of 30, 60, or 90 days, and can help predict how much it might vary in the future. It is calculated by taking the standard deviation of the logarithmic returns of a crypto over the given time period. Historical volatility is a backward-looking measure that can be used to forecast how much a crypto is likely to fluctuate in the future.
Implied Volatility: Implied volatility is a forward-looking measure of how much the market thinks the price of a crypto will vary in the future. This is calculated based on the prices of options contracts. Options contracts are contracts that give the buyer the right (but not the obligation) to buy or sell crypto at a specified price on or before a specified date. The more expensive the options, the higher the implied volatility.
Realised Volatility: Realised volatility is a measure of how much a cryptocurrency's price has actually fluctuated over a given period of time. It is calculated by taking the standard deviation of the logarithmic returns of a crypto over the given time period. Realised volatility is a useful measure for evaluating the accuracy of historical volatility forecasts and for assessing the performance of trading strategies that rely on volatility forecasts.
Understanding the different types of volatility in crypto is important for investors and traders who want to manage risk and make informed decisions about buying, selling, or holding cryptocurrencies. By monitoring historical, implied, and realised volatility, investors can gain a better understanding of how the crypto market is likely to behave in the future and adjust their strategies accordingly.
Watch the video below to learn more about volatility and how it affects crypto. Don’t forget to like and subscribe so you don’t miss out on important updates and our newly uploaded videos.
What else did you miss? 10 Factors contributing to volatility in crypto
Strategies to mitigate crypto volatility risks
Conclusion: Future outlook for crypto volatility
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QUESTION 293 A company has a Flex VPN solution for remote access and one of their Cisco any Connect remote clients is having trouble connecting property. Which command verifies that packets are being encrypted and decrypted?
A. show crypto session active B. show crypto ikev2 stats C. show crypto ikev1 sa D. show crypto ikev2 sa E. show crypto session detail
Answer: E
QUESTION 294 Refer to the exhibit, which result of this command is true?
A. Makes the router generate a certificate signing request B. Generates an RSA key called TRIALFOUR C. It displays the RSA public keys of the router D. It specifies self- signed enrollment for a trust point
Answer: A
QUESTION 295 An engineer is attempting to establish a new site-to site VPN connection. The tunnel terminates on an ASA 5506-X which is behind an ASA 5515-x. The engineer notices that the tunnel is not establishing. Which option is a potential cause?
A. Certificates were not configured B. Diffie -Helman Group is not set C. Access lists were not applied D. NAT – traversal is not configured
Answer: D
QUESTION 296 Which algorithm does ISAKMP use to securely derive encryption and integrity keys?
A. Diffie -Hellman B. AES C. ECDSA D. RSA E. 3DES
Answer: D
QUESTION 297 Which purpose of configuring perfect Forward secret is true?
A. For every negotiation of a new phase 1 SA, the two gateways generate a new set of phase 2 keys. B. For every negotiation of a new phase 2 SA, the two gateways generate a new set of phase 1 keys. C. For every negotiation of a new phase 1 SA, the two gateways generate a new set of phase 1 keys. D. For every negotiation of a new phase 2 SA, the two gateways generate a new set of phase 2 keys.
Answer: A
QUESTION 298 An engineer has successfully established a phase 1 tunnel, but notices that no packets are decrypted on the head end side of the tunnel. What is a potential cause for this issue?
A. different phase 2 encryption B. misconfigured DH group C. disabled PFS D. firewall blocking Phase 2 ESP or AH
Answer: A
QUESTION 299 Which option describes traffic that will initiate a VPN connection?
A. trusted B. external C. internal D. interesting
Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 You are a SharePoint administrator for Contoso, Ltd. The company acquires WingTip Toys. You must be able to manage and administer SharePoint site collections in the WingTip Toys SharePoint farm by using Windows PowerShell. You need to configure permissions for SharePoint site collection administrators. What should you do?
A. Add the WingTip Toys SharePoint administrators to the Site Collection Administrators group. B. Add the Contoso, Ltd. SharePoint administrators to the Site Collection Administrators group. C. Add the Contoso, Ltd. SharePoint administrators to the SharePoint_Sheii_Access role. D. Add the WingTip Toys SharePoint administrators to the SharePoint_Sheii_Access role.
Answer: C
QUESTION 2 You are a SharePoint administrator for a company. You deploy OneDrive for Business on-premises. Files are explicitly shared with external users by sending email invitations Users report that they cannot immediately view files in the OneDrive for Business Shared with Me view. You need to ensure that users can view all files as they are shared while minimizing the changes to the current service topology. What should you do?
A. Enable the Recently Shared Items cache on the My Site server. B. Enable Continuous Crawl. C. Enable the Distributed Cache on all servers. D. Enable the Recently Shared Items cache on the Search server.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Hotspot Questions You are a SharePoint administrator for Contoso, Ltd. You manage an on-premises SharePoint environment. A user named User1 is the site collection administrator for the Human Resources (HR) site. User1 leaves the company and is replaced with a user named User2. Access requests for the HR SharePoint site are still being sent to User1. You need to ensure that User2 receives all access requests to the HR site. How should you complete the Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, select the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment from each list in the answer area.
Answer:
QUESTION 4 Hotspot Questions A company uses SharePoint2016 in a hybrid environment. You replace an administrator that has left the company. A vendor notifies you that the SSL certificate that you purchased from the vendor is expired. The hybrid environment is not able to authenticate domain users that attempt to access it. When accessing the online environment by using a cloud user account, you observe that Search is not returning results from the entire farm. You need to locate the expired certificates and renew them. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate certificate type of location from each list in the answer area. Note: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
QUESTION 5 You are a SharePoint administrator for Contoso, Ltd. You manage a large SharePoint Server farm. You configure a single SharePoint Search application for the farm. The Search Service application has five crawl databases. All crawl databases have content. Contoso would like to crawl content from a partner company named WingTip Toys. This crawled content must be stored in a dedicated crawl database. You need to configure the environment. What should you do?
A. Provision a new Search Server for the existing Search Service application. Add dedicated crawl components for WingTip Toys to the new Search Server. B. Create a dedicated Microsoft SQL Server instance for the WingTip crawl database. C. Add a crawl database to the existing Search Service application. D. Provision a new Search Service application. Configure the Search Service application to crawl WingTip Toys content.
Answer: C Explanation: Maximum crawl databases per Search Service application increased from 5 to 15 in SharePoint 2016. https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/cc262787(v=office.16).aspx
QUESTION 6 In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result these questions will not appear in the review screen. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You have an existing SharePoint 2016 on-premises environment. You are configuring a SharePoint hybrid solution. You must store all personal sites in Office 365. You create App Management service, Managed Metadata service, and User Profile service applications. You create a web application and site collection for the My Site Host. You grant users the Create Personal Site and Follow People and Edit Profile permissions. Then, you create an audience for the users that will be redirected to Office 365. In the SharePoint Central Administration, you configure hybrid OneDrive for Business settings. Does this solution meet the goal?
A. Yes B. No
Answer: A
QUESTION 7 In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You have an existing SharePoint 2016 on-premises environment. You are configuring a SharePoint hybrid solution. You must store all personal sites in Office 365. You create and configure a User Profile service application and deploy an App Management service application. You deploy a My Site host collection. In SharePoint Central Administration, you create an audience. On the Configure hybrid OneDrive for Business settings page, you enter a value for the My Site U RL field and specify the audience. Does this solution meet the goal?
A. Yes B. No
Answer: B
QUESTION 8 In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You have an existing SharePoint 2016 on-premises environment. You are configuring a SharePoint hybrid solution. You must store all personal sites in Office 365. You configure the Managed Metadata service and User Profile service applications. You create a My Site Host site collection. In SharePoint Central Administration, you grant the Create Personal Site and Follow People and Edit Profile permissions to users and configure hybrid OneDrive for Business settings Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes B. No
Answer: B
QUESTION 9 In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You are the SharePoint administrator for a company. You must provide an on-premises SharePoint solution that helps monitor and analyze your business in order to make informed business decisions that align with the objectives and strategies for the company. The solution must include the following features:
– Dashboards – Scorecards – Key Performance Indicators (KPI)
You configure Delve. Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes B. No
Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Drag and Drop Questions You are the system administrator for a company. You have both Microsoft Exchange 2016 and SharePoint 2016 in your environment. You plan to integrate SharePoint and Exchange and use site mail boxes. You need to configure the environment to support site mail boxes. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:
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Open Question Answering | December/2019 New Braindump2go 5V0-33.19 Exam Dumnps with PDF and VCE Free Released Today! Following are some 5V0-33.19 Real Exam Questions,
New QuestionWhich feature enables customers to keep the availability of OVA, ISO images and scripts in sync between on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC deployments?
A. vCenter Content LibraryB. vCenter Image LibraryC. vCenter Template LibraryD. vCenter Format Library
Correct Answer: A
New QuestionWhich two virtual devices are appropriate for virtual machine migration with HCX into VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose two.)
A. VMDK DisksB. Virtual RDMsC. SR-IOV DevicesD. Shared VMDKsE. Mounted CD images
Correct Answer: AC
New QuestionWhat are two requirements for using the bulk migration feature of HCX for virtual machines migrating into VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose two.)
A. No mounted CD DrivesB. Virtual RDMsC. NSX for vSphereD. Virtual Hardware 7 and aboveE. Physical RDMs
Correct Answer: AD
New QuestionWhich Native AWS construct are third-party ISV partners able to leverage for data archiving within the data-protection service?
A. AthenaB. GlacierC. KinesisD. Cognito
Correct Answer: B
New QuestionDuring which two points in a customer engagement is a Hybrid Cloud Readiness Assessment appropriate? (Choose two.)
A. During SDDC deploymentB. After SDDC deploymentC. Before SDDC deploymentD. During the validation phase of the SDDC deploymentE. Scoping
Correct Answer: BE
New QuestionA customer wishes to deploy a new application on VMware Cloud on AWS. This application will consist of several web servers and application servers. The data on the application services needs to be backed up regularly and backups must be stored outside the SDDC to meet compliance. The backup solution should be able to support full VMDK restores as well as file restores. A recovery time objective (RTO) of 5 hours is required for backups up to 30 days old. After 30 days, the RTO of a backup is 48 hours.
Which solution will meet the requirements more efficiently?
A. Deploy a third-party backup solution from a supported VMware ISV partner. Store backup jobs to Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3) or an Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instance with an attached EBS drive. After 30 days, migrate backups from S3 or EBS to Amazon Glacier.B. Deploy a third-party backup solution from a supported VMware ISV partner. Store backup jobs to the local on-premises SDDC, and once the backups reach 30 days old, transfer these backups to tape libraries.C. Deploy two SDDCs in two separate regions. Set up Site Recovery between the two SDDCs and configure vSphere Replication to take snapshots of the virtual machines every 15 minutes.D. Deploy an SDDC cluster in stretched mode expanding across two availability zones in the same region. This configuration provides the lowest RTO possible.
Correct Answer: A
New QuestionWhat is the proper calculation used to determine the bandwidth requirement for vSphere Replication?
A. VMs datastore size divided by the link speedB. Peak data change rate within a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) period divided by the link speedC. VMs datastore size divided by recovery time objective (RTO)D. Average data change rate within a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) period divided by the link speed
Correct Answer: D
New QuestionWhich three levels of access could a managed services provider (MSP) partner provide to users of a managed organization? (Choose three.)
A. Tenant Management AccessB. No AccessC. Partially Managed AccessD. Full AccessE. User AccessF. Root Access
Correct Answer: ACF
New QuestionAfter VMware Site Recovery is activated on VMware Cloud on AWS, which two steps are required to use VMware Site Recovery Service? (Choose two.)
A. Install the Site Recovery Manager Server instance at the on-premises site.B. Install a vSphere Replication appliance at the on-premises site.C. Install the Site Recovery Manager Server instance on the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC.D. Install a vSphere Replication appliance on the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC.E. Activate VMware Site Recovery at the on-premises site.
Correct Answer: BE
New QuestionWhich three service appliances does the HCX Enterprise Manager deploy? (Choose three.)
A. HCX Network ExtensionB. HCX WAN OptimizationC. HCX MigrationD. HCX L2VPNE. HCX InterconnectF. HCX Cross Cloud vMotion
Correct Answer: ABE
New QuestionWhich statement is true about HCX Bulk Migration?
A. Virtual machines must be powered off to initiate replication.B. The HCX Bulk Migration maintenance window could be scheduled.C. HCX Bulk Migration requires that vMotion be fully configured.D. Extended Layer 2 networks are required for each virtual machine.
Correct Answer: B
New QuestionIn what order must the step for protecting a workload for VMware on AWS DRaaS be completed?
A. Add a virtual machine to a protection group, then replicate the virtual machine, then add the virtual machine to a recovery plan.B. Replicate a virtual machine, then add the virtual machine to a recovery plan, then add the virtual machine to a protection group.C. Replicate a virtual machine, then add the virtual machine to a protection group, then add the virtual machine to a recovery plan.D. Add a virtual machine to the recovery plan, then add the virtual machine to a protection group, then replicate the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: C
New QuestionWhich three API standards are supported in VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose three.)
A. RESTfulB. OAuthC. SOAPD. JSONE. XMLF. HTML
Correct Answer: ABD
And,
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Open Question Answering | There’s a lot of information out there about pet vaccinations, and it can be tough to know what’s true and what’s not. In this blog post, we’ll answer some of the most common questions about pet vaccinations and explain how they protect your pet from serious diseases.
Question: How do vaccines work to protect my pet?
Answer: Vaccines are designed to trigger your pet’s protective immune response to prepare them for future immunity against infectious diseases. When your pet is given a vaccine, their body produces antibodies that will reappear when a pathogenic threat reappears.
Q: What vaccinations does my pet need?
A: Pet vaccinations are divided into two categories: core and non-core. Core vaccinations are those that every pet needs, whereas non-core vaccinations are given based on a pet’s lifestyle and exposure risk. Common vaccinations for dogs generally include rabies, distemper, adenovirus-2 (i.e., hepatitis), and parvovirus. Canine non-core vaccinations include bordetella (i.e., kennel cough), leptospirosis, Lyme disease, parainfluenza, and canine influenza. For cats, core vaccinations include rabies, calicivirus, panleukopenia, and feline herpesvirus-1. Feline non-core vaccinations include feline leukemia virus (although all cats should have an initial series) and chlamydophila.
Instead of giving every pet the same set of vaccinations, our team will discuss your furry pal’s lifestyle with you to determine what exposure risk they have and which vaccinations would be best.
Q: Why does my pet need vaccinations if they rarely go outside?
A: Do you have a house cat who never steps a paw outside? Or, maybe your tiny Chihuahua is trained to use puppy pads, so they rarely venture outdoors. Despite a decreased exposure risk, these pets also need preventive vaccinations . Wildlife can sneak into attics or basements and expose your pet to rabies or other transmissible diseases. You also may need to board your pet in an emergency situation, and boarding facilities require pets to be current on vaccinations to protect not only them but their other pet guests.
Vaccinations cause few, if any, side effects for most pets and generally protect against far worse diseases. Contact our team for questions about which vaccinations would be best for your pet. |
Open Question Answering | If you’ve ever worked from home, you know that it’s not the magical, liberating experience most people imagine. Keeping your focus and morale up and keeping colleagues in the loop aren’t as easy as most people assume. But fortunately, the work-from-home problem has gotten a lot of attention: you can find plenty of blog posts and podcasts dedicated to it, with all kinds of great, actionable advice.
But there’s a closely related problem that doesn’t get nearly as much love, and that’s the challenge of learning from home. Learning from home is very different from working from home, because it’s self-directed (you don’t have a boss telling you what you *must* learn) and — especially in data science — it’s open-ended (there’s no limit to how much you can learn, so it’s hard to know when to stop).
With more MOOCs, online bootcamps and free learning resources out there than ever, this is becoming an increasingly important issue to address, and I’m going to do just that in this post.
Common problems and how to solve them Problem: I’m losing focus, and I’m finding it hard not to get distracted. Solution: This is a common problem, but there are actually quite a few things you can do to avoid distractions, and stay on task.
→ Log out of social media after each use. This won’t turn your usage down to zero, but forcing yourself to log in each time you use Twitter or Instagram will make you more conscious of the way you’re using your time.
→ Don’t work from home. Instead, try a coffee shop, a public library, or a co-working space. Clearly separating your “work” space and “home” space can help you track of the time that you’re actually spending on your projects and MOOCs, and enter a more focused frame of mind when you do.
→ Find someone to work with. Bonus points if it’s another aspiring data scientist or developer, but almost anyone will do. Agree to track one another’s goals to keep each other honest. Note: your study buddy doesn’t even have to be physically present — an open videochat can work, too.
Problem: I’m not making enough progress, and I’m having trouble with motivation. Solution: It’s always possible that the timeline you’re shooting for is unrealistic, and that’s the first possibility you should consider (completing a career transition to data science can take months or even years). Beyond that, the key to staying on track is accountability.
→ Set explicit learning goals. Aim for short-term goals (“Here’s what I want to do today”), which can be scoped out more realistically.
→ Commit to your goals publicly. Keep your Twitter followers or LinkedIn connections up to date on your progress (if you don’t have Twitter or LinkedIn, sign up). If you can, reach out to an industry professional, and ask them if you can keep them in the loop on your latest work with a weekly newsletter. This is a pretty easy way to give yourself some extra motivation to make sure you have something to show for each week’s work, and doubles as a great way to grow your professional network.
→ Try to set up your project so that it will result in an output that feels significant to you. Aim to deploy it as a Flask app for your friends to play with. Plan to write it up as a blog post. Prepare a presentation on it for a local meetup. A focus on producing concrete, tangible outputs can be a great motivator.
Problem: I don’t know when to move on. Solution: This is an especially big problem in data science, where projects can be unusually open-ended. How good is good enough for your model? How can you know when you’ve finished the data exploration step? Should you try another encoding strategy?
→ The best projects are designed as products, with a specific target audience, and a specific use case in mind. Decide ahead of time who you’re building your project for, and keep your focus on building something that would be useful to them. Do your data exploration with that purpose in mind: what insights could you get from exploring your data, that would result in a better product?
→ Decide on your success criteria (what you want to learn, how well your model should perform, etc) ahead of time. Most industry projects have an explicit scope, and yours should have one too.
→ Time-box your project. Before you start working on it, set yourself an explicit deadline to complete it. This has the added benefit of simulating the time constraints and triage decisions you’ll face as a professional data scientist.
Problem: I don’t know where to start. If you’re very early on, the first thing you need to do is figure out where your interests lie.
→ Take a free MOOC (you can find a bunch here). If you’re just getting started, focus on something that lets you build your Python skills, and that introduces you to Jupyter notebooks, scikit-learn, and pandas.
→ Once you’ve done that, ask yourself: what kind of data scientist do I want to be? Of course, you’ll want to know about the options you have, and that’s why I wrote this post.
→ Get some perspective on the path ahead. Talk to people who’ve made similar career transitions, and ask them about what they did to make it happen. I’d also recommend checking out this post about the most common data science career transitions I’ve seen, since chances are, your case will be among them.
I’ve seen each of these things result in significant improvements in progress and productivity for SharpestMinds mentees. That said, one critical thing to remember is to be patient with yourself.
You might fail the first time you try to implement this strategy or that, you might still fall behind schedule, and you might not finish your project in time. That’s okay: the key is to treat your journey as an experiment, and keep track of what’s working and what isn’t. Like any good machine learning model, you’ll find your optimum sooner or later as long as you keep iterating. |
Open Question Answering | Specification
Color Red Type Epoxy Polyester Gloss 40-50% Thickness 60-80μm Hardness 2H Adhesion 0 Grade Curing 200ºC*10min Shelf Life 1 Year
Product Description
Test Item Test Standard Test Index Impact Resistance GB/T 1732 -1993 50kg·cm Adhesion(Cross-Cut) GB/T 9286 - 1998 Class 0 Flexibility GB/T 6742-1986 2mm Pencil Hardness GB/T 6739-1996 1H-2H Salt Spray Test GB/T 1771-1991 >400 Hours Heat & Humidity Resistance GB/T 1740-1979 >500 Hours,film gloss slightly lose
Production Process Our Factories FAQ Q1. Can I have a sample order for powder coating? A: Yes, we welcome sample order to test and check quality. Mixed samples are acceptable. Q2. What about the lead time? A: Sample needs 3-5 days, mass production time needs 1-2 weeks for inspection and customs declaration. Q3. Do you have any MOQ limit for powder coating? A: Low MOQ, 1-2kg sample powder checking is available. Q4. How to proceed an order for powder coating? A: Firstly let us know your requirements or application. Secondly We quote according to your requirements or our suggestions. Thirdly customer confirms the samples and places deposit for formal order. Fourthly We arrange the production. Q5: Do you offer guarantee for the products? A: Yes, we offer professional after-sale service for every customer.
Specification
Color Red Type Epoxy Polyester Gloss 40-50% Thickness 60-80μm Hardness 2H Adhesion 0 Grade Curing 200ºC*10min Shelf Life 1 Year
Product Description
Test Item Test Standard Test Index Impact Resistance GB/T 1732 -1993 50kg·cm Adhesion(Cross-Cut) GB/T 9286 - 1998 Class 0 Flexibility GB/T 6742-1986 2mm Pencil Hardness GB/T 6739-1996 1H-2H Salt Spray Test GB/T 1771-1991 >400 Hours Heat & Humidity Resistance GB/T 1740-1979 >500 Hours,film gloss slightly lose
Production Process Our Factories FAQ Q1. Can I have a sample order for powder coating? A: Yes, we welcome sample order to test and check quality. Mixed samples are acceptable. Q2. What about the lead time? A: Sample needs 3-5 days, mass production time needs 1-2 weeks for inspection and customs declaration. Q3. Do you have any MOQ limit for powder coating? A: Low MOQ, 1-2kg sample powder checking is available. Q4. How to proceed an order for powder coating? A: Firstly let us know your requirements or application. Secondly We quote according to your requirements or our suggestions. Thirdly customer confirms the samples and places deposit for formal order. Fourthly We arrange the production. Q5: Do you offer guarantee for the products? A: Yes, we offer professional after-sale service for every customer. |
Open Question Answering | Q : What are the age groups for the various divisions?
A : Based on school grade, with a maximum allowable age.
For the Fall 2023 Season
Age Group Type of play
Eligible School Grades And Born Between Pre-K/K Local Pre-K, K 1/1/2017 8/31/2019 Grade 1/2 Local 1, 2 1/1/2015 8/31/2017 Grade 3/4 Travel 3, 4 1/1/2013 8/31/2015 Grade 5/6 Travel 5, 6 1/1/2011 8/31/2013 Grade 7/8 Travel 7, 8 1/1/2009 8/31/2011 Grade 9/10 Travel 9, 10 1/1/2007 8/31/2009 Grade 11/12 Travel 11, 12 1/1/2005 8/31/2007
Q: What is the schedule for the Fall 2023 Season
A:
Game Day 1 - September 9 Game Day 2 - September 16 Game Day 3 - September 23 Game Day 4 - September 30 No games Columbus day weekend Game Day 5 - October 14 Game Day 6 - October 21 Game Day 7 - October 28 Game Day 8 - November 4 Q : What does it cost to play?
A : $85 per season for Pre-K/K & Grade 1/2, $115 per season for Grade 3/4 and older. There is a $25 late fee for grades 3 and up after the initial registration deadline. Players must also purchase official uniforms (can be used multiple seasons) that are $20 for U6 & U8 and $60 for older divisions.
Q: When will rosters be released?
A: Rosters are generally released between one and two weeks before the beginning of the season. Rosters can only be released when the age group coordinator has completed team assignments and at least one coach has completed their registration with both the club and Mass Youth Soccer (MYSA). Only registered coaches will appear on a roster. All rosters will not be released at once. Only registered coaches can participate in practices and games.
Q : When are games played?
A:
Current Game times for the Fall 2023:
Q : What is the correct ball size for each age group?
A : Here is the information for each division
Program Pre-K/K Grade 1/2 Grade 3/4 Grade 5/6 Grade 7/8 HS Eligible Grade PreK – K 1 – 2 3 – 4 5 – 6 7 – 8 9-12 Ball Size 3 3 4 4 5 5 Game Play 4v4 no goalies 5v5 7v7 9v9 11v11 11v11 Max. Roster Size (no limit for REC) 10 10 12 16 22 22 Field Size feet 1/2 U8 Field 130 x 85 165 – 190 x 120 210 x 165 312 x 198 312 x 198 Goal Size PUG 6' x 4 yd 6' x 4 yd 6' x 6 yd 8' x 8 yd 8' x 8 yd Game Duration 5-min halftime 2 x 20 min 2 x 25 min 2 x 30 min 2 x 30 min 2 x 35 min 2 x 35 min Usual Saturday Game Time 12:00 Girls 8:30 Boys 10:00 Girls 9:00 Boys 10:30 Girls 12:00 Boys 1:30 Girls 3:00 Boys 4:30 Sundays
1, 3, 5PM
Note: For 7/8 and HS, the maximum team size for the MTOC tournament is 18. Teams are limited to 18 players per game dressed to play, but players can be alternated as necessary.
Q : Which color jersey does the home team wear for Pre-K/K and G 1/2?
A : The home team is Maroon, away team is White.
Q : When are practices held?
A : Practice takes place during the week for all 1/2, and older teams, and schedules are set by the individual coaches at the beginning of the season. The club allows the coach the flexibility to choose practice days and times that work for both the coach and the players on his/her team. Pre-K/K practice time is included in the Saturday afternoon sessions.
Q : Where can I find the schedule for a Grade 3/4, 5/6, 7/8 or HS age player?
A : The game schedules for Grade 3/4 & older teams are set by the Nashoba Valley Youth Soccer League (NVYSL). For the Fall 2023 season, the schedule can be found at nvysl.org. Schedules for all Pre-K/K and Grade 1/2 games are posted on the GDYSC website on the Game Schedules/Practices tab on the left-hand navigation bar of the GDYSC home page at www.gdysc.org. There are also maps of the Cow Pond and Larter field layouts on the website.
Q : Why is jewelry not allowed?
A : To avoid the risk of injury to all players, the league has adopted a no-jewelry policy. If there is a question, the referee has the final say. All players must remove any earrings, or they will not be allowed to play. This includes any newly pierced ears, so please plan accordingly, as placing tape (or band-aids) over earrings is not allowed. |
Open Question Answering | B. P. asks, “Is evidence of a changed life an important indication of whether a person is truly born again?”
Most Evangelicals say that their assurance of salvation requires an ongoing self-examination of our works. They reason in this way:
Major premise: Only those who persevere in faith and good works will gain
final salvation.Minor premise: I can’t be sure that I will persevere in faith and good works.
Conclusion: Examination of my faith and works over years and decades indicates how likely it is that I will persevere to the end and gain
final salvation. At the Desiring God website, in an article entitled “Helping People Have the Assurance of Salvation,” Dr. John Piper says that assurance requires “the painful work of self-examination” and that “assurance is a fight until the day we die.” See here for the whole article.
Calvinist John MacArthur has a message at the Grace to You website entitled “Resting in the Assurance of Our Salvation.” He says that assurance is found in the objective promises in the Bible and in our subjective works. He adds, “‘What is going on in my life? Am I seeing a transformation in my life?’ because that’s essential, that’s essential.” You can read the article here.
The problem with this approach is that neither the Lord Jesus nor His apostles taught that perseverance in faith or works is necessary to gain final salvation . They taught that salvation is final the very moment one believes in the Lord Jesus Christ for it (John 3:16; 5:24; 6:47; 11:26; Acts 16:31; Eph 2:8-9; 1 Tim 1:16; Titus 3:5; Rev 22:17). Those are perseverance-free promises. The sole condition of everlasting life and of assurance of everlasting life is faith in the Lord Jesus Christ for that life.
Here is a more accurate syllogism:
Major premise: The Lord Jesus promises everlasting life to all who believe in Him for that life.
Minor premise: I believe in the Lord Jesus for everlasting life.
Conclusion: I am sure that I have everlasting life.
Calvinist David Engelsma warns about assurance by introspection so prevalent among the English and American Calvinists:
These Puritans taught that assurance is, and should be, a real problem for many, if not most, believers and children of believers. It is normal to lack assurance; normal to wonder whether one is really saved; normal to struggle with the question of assurance; normal that one’s relation to assurance is that of a “quest,” a long, even lifelong, “quest,” with no assurance of a favorable outcome of the quest, namely, finding assurance in this life; and, therefore, also, normal to abstain from the sacrament of the Lord’s Supper (The Gift of Assurance, p. 9).
If you look to your works for assurance, then you will be on a lifelong quest that will never be satisfied. You will doubt your eternal destiny every day because your works are imperfect and because the Lord never intended you to look inward for assurance.
If you look to Christ for assurance, then you will be sure of your eternal destiny. As long as you look to Him alone for assurance, you will remain sure.
Keep your eyes on Him. He is trustworthy. |
Open Question Answering | a many-valued logic form which may have truth values of variables in any real number between 0 and 1 . … Fuzzy logic algorithm helps to solve a problem after considering all available data. Then it takes the best possible decision for the given the input.
What is fuzzy method?
what is fuzzy set .
Contents Fuzzy logic is a computing technique that is based on the degree of truth . A fuzzy logic system uses the input’s degree of truth and linguistic variables to produce a certain output. The state of this input determines the nature of the output. … In boolean logic, two categories (0 and 1) are used to describe objects.
Advantages of Fuzzy Logic System The Fuzzy logic system is very easy and understandable . The Fuzzy logic system is capable of providing the most effective solution to complex issues. The system can be modified easily to improve or alter the performance. The system helps in dealing engineering uncertainties.
Fuzzy logic is used in Natural language processing and various intensive applications in Artificial Intelligence . It is extensively used in modern control systems such as expert systems. Fuzzy Logic mimics how a person would make decisions, only much faster. Thus, you can use it with Neural Networks.
Fuzzy logic is an extension of Boolean logic by Lotfi Zadeh in 1965 based on the. mathematical theory of fuzzy sets, which is a generalization of the classical set theory. By introducing the notion of degree in the verification of a condition, thus enabling a.
Explanation: Fuzzy Logic (FL) is a method of reasoning that resembles human reasoning .
Fuzzy Logic (FL) is a method of reasoning that resembles human reasoning. The approach of FL imitates the way of decision making in humans that involves all intermediate possibilities between digital values YES and NO. … The fuzzy logic works on the levels of possibilities of input to achieve the definite output .
In logic, fuzzy logic is a form of many-valued logic in which the truth value of variables may be any real number between 0 and 1 . It is employed to handle the concept of partial truth, where the truth value may range between completely true and completely false.
A major drawback of Fuzzy Logic control systems is that they are completely dependent on human knowledge and expertise . You have to regularly update the rules of a Fuzzy Logic control system. These systems cannot recognize machine learning or neural networks.
Fuzzy logic contains the multiple logical values and these values are the truth values of a variable or problem between 0 and 1 . This concept was introduced by Lofti Zadeh in 1965 based on the Fuzzy Set Theory.
The fuzzy logic, which is a technique of the artificial intelligence , rises as a result of studies based on simulating the human brain. It is a type of logic that recognizes more than simple true and false values. … In computer game industry, it can be used to develop artificial intelligence based games.
Fuzzy logic has been successfully used in numerous fields such as control systems engineering, image processing, power engineering, industrial automation, robotics, consumer electronics, and optimization . This branch of mathematics has instilled new life into scientific fields that have been dormant for a long time.
Advertisements. Fuzzy sets can be considered as an extension and gross oversimplification of classical sets . It can be best understood in the context of set membership. Basically it allows partial membership which means that it contain elements that have varying degrees of membership in the set.
2.2. As is well known [16], a fuzzy proposition is a proposition where the truth value (that is, the value indicating the relation of the proposition to truth) belongs to the interval . Fuzzy propositions may be quantified by a suitable fuzzy quantifier.
Fuzzy logic inventor Lotfi Zadeh , UC Berkeley professor, to receive 10 million yen Okawa Prize.
What is Fuzzy Logic? Fuzzy Logic (FL) is a method of reasoning that resembles human reasoning. The approach of FL imitates the way of decision making in humans that involves all intermediate possibilities between digital values YES and NO.
The first step is to take the inputs and determine the degree to which they belong to each of the appropriate fuzzy sets via membership functions (fuzzification).
How is Fuzzy Logic different from conventional control methods? Explanation: FL incorporates a simple, rule-based IF X AND Y THEN Z approach to a solving control problem rather than attempting to model a system mathematically.
Description. Statistical data are not always precise numbers, or vectors, or categories. Real data are frequently what is called fuzzy. Examples where this fuzziness is obvious are quality of life data, environmental, biological, medical, sociological and economics data.
Fuzzy logic is an abstract concept that is completely independant of programming lanuages . The basic idea is that instead of boolean logic where any statement is either “true” or “false”, you use a continuum where a statement can be anywhere between “100% true” and “0% true”.
Fuzzy decision making is the collection of single or multicriteria techniques aiming at selecting the best alternative in case of imprecise, incomplete, and vague data . … The classification is based on the new extensions of fuzzy sets: Intuitionistic, hesitant, and type-2 fuzzy sets. |
Open Question Answering | Random Observation/Comment #313: I never thought that I could get in shape playing ping pong. Of course, I play table tennis now… and I’m also not in shape…
I just played at least 8 hours of table tennis today at the monthly Westchester tournament with Will Shortz (the owner of the club) and some buddies from all around. I am unable to move right now so I guess writing these entries are productive.
The Challenge: Host an event to play table tennis and play a lot…
The Reason: I really just want to play table tennis with friends. I do this on a regular basis already, but I needed to make TT (table tennis) a part of this 30 day challenge. I can’t see my life without it, so how could I not include it? It’s in my ideal day for goodness’s sake.
The Result: The Epic TT match between Johnson and Clemens will occur Monday, 12/17 at SPiN from 5-7PM . Unfortunately, they only have one table available, but I will be recording the match and buying the table and beers for whomever can join. It’s a fun bar all around anyway.
For a preview of our steady improvement, here is our matches earlier: U1750 in May – http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YKuGUCV1A74
Here are some more recent matches: Clemens vs Johnson – http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iVYDZLvTKLo Clemens vs Edmund win – http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LBCh5ssC5O4 Johnson vs Edmund win 1 – http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=r6C-jldXAmE Johnson vs Edmund win 2 – http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=r6C-jldXAmE
There’s nothing better than 5:30-6:30PM every day at SPiN when I play TT (table tennis) against Johnson. We improve in our game every day and it seems to get more and more addictive. It is my favorite drug. We always get a happy hour $3 pint of New Castle and play around 15 games. Usually, we’re pretty evenly tied, but there’s always one person that’s more on their game. It forces the other to catch up and come up with new FH and BH shots.
In the past 3 month, I have played with a Jun Mitzutani Butterfly blade with Xiom Omega IV Pro BH (backhand) and short pips Flarestorm FH (forehand). I tend to flip with my BH shot to set-up for a strong BH or FH smash. My FH is used for chops and smashes with some no spin pushing tendencies. I just purchased a new racket today with the Tenergy 05 on both sides on a Michael Maze blade, which I did pretty well with today during practice.
The Conclusion: For those who are reading the above and have no idea what I’m talking about, the sport of TT goes to the next level of ping pong. We buy blades and rubbers and make our own paddles costing around $200 for an average custom made one. It also comes with special shoes for lateral movement and some pretty cool looking cases…. for storing the paddles.
For those who understand what I have stated above: Let’s play. I’m so ready.
~See Lemons Love TT |
Open Question Answering | One of the joys of reading the Scriptures from cover to cover (and I encourage you to do this every year!), is that we can begin to see the astounding unity of this entire library of God’s word. Every part feeds every other part. The Bible is its own commentary on itself! Case in point. Today I’ve included three passages: one from the OT writings, one from the psalms, and a New Testament epistle. I wanted us to see the relationship. (Yes, it will take you a little longer to read today!)
Reader: “Christ was offered once for all time . . .”
Response: “as a sacrifice to take away the sins of many people.”
Scripture: Hebrews 9:23-28; Psalm 84; 2 Chronicles 29:1-11, 16-19
That is why the Tabernacle and everything in it, which were copies of things in heaven, had to be purified by the blood of animals. But the real things in heaven had to be purified with far better sacrifices than the blood of animals. For Christ did not enter into a holy place made with human hands, which was only a copy of the true one in heaven. He entered into heaven itself to appear now before God on our behalf. And he did not enter heaven to offer himself again and again, like the high priest here on earth who enters the Most Holy Place year after year with the blood of an animal. If that had been necessary, Christ would have had to die again and again, ever since the world began. But now, once for all time, he has appeared at the end of the age to remove sin by his own death as a sacrifice.
And just as each person is destined to die once and after that comes judgment, so also Christ was offered once for all time as a sacrifice to take away the sins of many people. He will come again, not to deal with our sins, but to bring salvation to all who are eagerly waiting for him.
Psalm 84
How lovely is your dwelling place,
O Lord of Heaven’s Armies.
I long, yes, I faint with longing
to enter the courts of the Lord.
With my whole being, body and soul,
I will shout joyfully to the living God.
Even the sparrow finds a home,
and the swallow builds her nest and raises her young
at a place near your altar,
O Lord of Heaven’s Armies, my King and my God!
What joy for those who can live in your house,
always singing your praises. Interlude
What joy for those whose strength comes from the Lord,
who have set their minds on a pilgrimage to Jerusalem.
When they walk through the Valley of Weeping,
it will become a place of refreshing springs.
The autumn rains will clothe it with blessings.
They will continue to grow stronger,
and each of them will appear before God in Jerusalem.
O Lord God of Heaven’s Armies, hear my prayer.
Listen, O God of Jacob. Interlude
O God, look with favor upon the king, our shield!
Show favor to the one you have anointed.
A single day in your courts
is better than a thousand anywhere else!
I would rather be a gatekeeper in the house of my God
than live the good life in the homes of the wicked.
For the Lord God is our sun and our shield.
He gives us grace and glory.
The Lord will withhold no good thing
from those who do what is right.
O Lord of Heaven’s Armies,
what joy for those who trust in you.
2 Chronicles 29:1-11, 16-19
Hezekiah was twenty-five years old when he became the king of Judah, and he reigned in Jerusalem twenty-nine years. His mother was Abijah, the daughter of Zechariah. He did what was pleasing in the Lord’s sight, just as his ancestor David had done.
In the very first month of the first year of his reign, Hezekiah reopened the doors of the Temple of the Lord and repaired them. He summoned the priests and Levites to meet him at the courtyard east of the Temple. He said to them, “Listen to me, you Levites! Purify yourselves, and purify the Temple of the Lord, the God of your ancestors. Remove all the defiled things from the sanctuary. Our ancestors were unfaithful and did what was evil in the sight of the Lord our God. They abandoned the Lord and his dwelling place; they turned their backs on him. They also shut the doors to the Temple’s entry room, and they snuffed out the lamps. They stopped burning incense and presenting burnt offerings at the sanctuary of the God of Israel.
“That is why the Lord’s anger has fallen upon Judah and Jerusalem. He has made them an object of dread, horror, and ridicule, as you can see with your own eyes. Because of this, our fathers have been killed in battle, and our sons and daughters and wives have been captured. But now I will make a covenant with the Lord, the God of Israel, so that his fierce anger will turn away from us. My sons, do not neglect your duties any longer! The Lord has chosen you to stand in his presence, to minister to him, and to lead the people in worship and present offerings to him.The priests went into the sanctuary of the Temple of the Lord to cleanse it, and they took out to the Temple courtyard all the defiled things they found. From there the Levites carted it all out to the Kidron Valley.
They began the work in early spring, on the first day of the new year, and in eight days they had reached the entry room of the Lord’s Temple. Then they purified the Temple of the Lord itself, which took another eight days. So the entire task was completed in sixteen days.
Then the Levites went to King Hezekiah and gave him this report: “We have cleansed the entire Temple of the Lord, the altar of burnt offering with all its utensils, and the table of the Bread of the Presence with all its utensils. We have also recovered all the items discarded by King Ahaz when he was unfaithful and closed the Temple. They are now in front of the altar of the Lord, purified and ready for use.”
Reader: This is the word of the Lord.
Response: Thanks be to God.
Some thoughts:
To gain the full impact of the Hebrews passage, it is important to know the history of the Tabernacle which later became more permanent with the Temple in Jerusalem. Their function was identical. In looking at the psalm, we are reminded that the observant Jew made three pilgrimages a year to Jerusalem to observe Passover, Pentecost and the Feast of Tabernacles. Being physically present in the courts of the Temple was a joy, giving a sense of “here is where I belong forever! I don’t ever want to leave.” The reason was the pilgrim was near the presence of the Lord who dwelt in a cloud in the Holy of Holies behind the curtain. The pilgrim was envious of the birds whose nests were at the Temple, plus the priests got to live there. This Temple in Jerusalem was God’s dwelling place on earth and the lover of God wanted to be as close to him as possible and that place was at the Temple.
In looking at the Chronicles passage we find a good king, Hezekiah, wanting to repair and restore this Temple which had fallen into disrepair and closed under the godless king Ahaz. Note that only Levites and priests, those directly descended from the line of Aaron, were able to do the repairs in accordance with God’s directive. They purified themselves and all the utensils used in the Temple according to the law because it was the earthly place of purity, holiness, and worship. But we learn in the Hebrews passage that the earthly sanctuaries were but a shadow, a copy, of things in heaven which is why God was so specific in giving Moses and David instructions on how to build both the Tabernacle in the wilderness and the Temple in Jerusalem.
While the priests purified the earthly Temple with the blood of unblemished animals, the heavenly realm was purified once and for all with the blood of God’s Son, the eternal High Priest. The fact that God tore the veil opening the way into the Holy of Holies is evidence that God accepted this sacrifice as payment for our sin and the sin of the whole world since the beginning of time. As a result, God’s people had become a kingdom of priests! At that moment, the sin of Adam and Eve was atoned for and every sin since then. (In passing, the writer of Hebrews notes that human beings die but once; there is no reincarnation! Following death comes judgment, but not a judgment regarding salvation since trusting in Christ has already secured eternal life for the believer.) Little did Hezekiah realize in his efforts to restore the Temple, that another would come later to model in an ultimate way true worship in spirit and in truth and that the temple would be God’s own people filled with his Holy Spirit. When the Son comes again, he will bring the full completion of salvation to all who are eagerly awaiting his return.
In these three passages we see once again the unity of the whole of Scripture, God’s one glorious plan of which he has chosen us to be a part.
Music: “The Sign of the Son” Simon Khorolskiy in Russian with English translation
Simon has produced many videos proclaiming the gospel in unique ways to the Russian people. There are some in English as well. Check out “O the Deep, Deep Love of Jesus.”
Prayer: Lord Jesus, our Sustainer and Provider, help us to be your hands and feet to those in need. You have given to us so lavishly in so many varied ways. Tune our hearts to your own generous heart that we may more and more see as you see and do something about it. May the gradual transformation of our being into your likeness lead to the transformation of our doing and your doing through us lead to a transformation of the world around us. Thank you for coming to us in our great need. You are our only hope and salvation. May we bring hope, the hope found in you, to those around us. In Jesus’ name. Amen.
―Daniel Sharp |
Open Question Answering | WoW Classic Wrath of the Lich King Coaching Looking to improve your PvP skills in Wrath of the Lich King? Our WotLK Coaching services provide personalized coaching and guidance to help you master the game. Our experienced coaches will work with you to identify your weaknesses, develop strategies, and improve your gameplay. Whether you’re a beginner or an experienced player, our WotLK Coaching services will help you take your skills to the next level. With our coaching services, you can expect to see significant improvements in your gameplay, as well as a better understanding of the mechanics and strategies involved in the game.
FAQ
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Q: Who can benefit from WotLK Coaching? A: Anyone looking to improve their skills in Wrath of the Lich King can benefit from our coaching services. Whether you’re a beginner or an experienced player.
Q: How does WotLK Coaching work? A: Our coaching services are scheduled with an experienced coach. During the coaching session, the coach will analyze your gameplay, identify your weaknesses, and provide personalized guidance and strategies to help you improve.
Q: How long does a coaching session last? A: The length of a coaching session varies depending on the service you choose. Generally, coaching sessions range from 2-3 hours, but we also offer longer coaching sessions for those who need more extensive guidance and support. You can purchase as many hours as you like and divide them into as many sessions as you prefer.
Remember, we grind so you don’t have to! |
Open Question Answering | Duck Jokes Ducks are known for their quirky, quacky grins, and it's no wonder they always bring a smile to our faces. If you're in the mood for some lighthearted humor, check out these duck puns and memes that are guaranteed to brighten up your day!
Laugh Like a Duck Q: Why did the duck not go to the vet?A: Because the duck thought the doctor was a quack!
Q: Why was the duck put into the basketball game?A: To make a fowl shot.
Q: What time does a duck wake up in the morning?A: At the quack of dawn.
Q: What do you call a crate full of ducks?A: A box of quackers!
Q: What is a duck’s favorite sea monster?A: The quacken.
Q: What did the duck say to the banker?A: My bill is bigger than yours!
Q: Who stole the soap?A: The robber ducky.
Q: What are a duck’s favorite type of television shows?A: Duckumentaries!
Q: What do you call a duck that wins the lottery?A: A lucky duck!
Q: Why was the teacher annoyed with the duck?A: It wouldn’t stop quacking jokes! |
Open Question Answering | 5 Core Car Stereo Amplifier | 300W Dual Channel High Power MOSFET Power Supply | Powerful Speaker Amplifier with EQ Control, 2 Mic, 1 USB, and SD Card Input- CEA 14 5 Core Car Stereo Amplifier | 300W Dual Channel High Power MOSFET Power Supply | Powerful Speaker Amplifier with EQ Control, 2 Mic, 1 USB, and SD Card Input- CEA 14 5 Core Stereo Amplifier- Experience a New Level of Audio Clarity 300-watt power: With apower output of 300W(PMPO) , this2-channel power amplifier receiver is an excellent choice for your car, PA, or home theater sound system. The300W peak power is suitable for use with multiple speakers . Multi-inputs: The 5 Corepremium Stereo Amplifier offers a variety of inputs toenhance your listening options . The amplifiersupports USB, SD, and AUX input and even includesbuilt-in 2 microphone inputs for added versatility. EQ control: Take control of your audio with the professional compact stereo amplifier car receiver. It features afront panel EQ control center withconvenient rotary knob controls foradjusting volume, bass, treble, and dedicated input settings . Thermal protection: Your safety and protection of your sound system is paramount. That's why this stereoamplifier is equipped with thermal, overload, and short-circuit protection . High-quality sound without compromising safety. Push-down speaker terminal: With the 5 Core amplifier mixer, you can effortlesslyconnect your speaker wires directly to the amplifier by using the push-down speaker terminal . Car Amp Description Experience the power & versatility of the 2 Channel 5 Core stereo amplifier receiver. This amplifier is perfect for your Car, PA, or home theater acoustic sound system. Enjoy high-quality amplified audio with 300W PMPO and support for multi speakers(upto 2). Its multi-input capability allows playback from USB, SD, and AUX sources and even includes built-in 2 microphone inputs.
At 5 Core, Customer satisfaction is our priority—a proven track record of delivering the
Stereo Amplifier Features USB PORT FRONT PANEL BUTTON HIGH-PERFORMANCE SHORT PROTECTION Immerse yourself in high-resolution audio with the USB port featured in this amplifier. Indulge in superior sound quality. The front panel of this amplifier boasts a control panel. These buttons allow you to control the input and output very conveniently. Elevate your audio setup with the high-performance 2-channel amplifier. With a formidable 300W PMPO. It effortlessly has two speakers. Enjoy peace of mind with integrated safety features. Auto shut-off protects the amplifier if it gets too hot or speakers fail, causing a short.
Technical Specification:
PMPO: 300W EQ Control: Yes Output Power: 15 No. Of Mic input: 2 No. of Channels: Two USB/SD Flash Support: Yes Package Includes:
1x Power Amplifier Stereo Amplifier Usages
Well suited to be used as a PA system. Install the amplifier to enhance your car's audio. Upgrade your OEM or low-power amp with 5 Core. Ideal for trucks, boats, ambulances & other vehicles. Install the car amp to give your speakers a power boost.
Benefits of products
Well suited to be used as a PA system. Let you create a customized audio experience. Boost the speaker power by supplying enough power. Upgrade your driving experience with premium audio. Eliminate signal loss & ensure optimal audio transmission.
Benefits of 5 Core over other products
2 Microphone Input. USB/SD Flash Support. Front panel EQ controls. Works with all the Latest Devices. Compact design with stylish VU Meter.
Why 5 Core
Backed by a proven track record of happy customers and peace of mind. 5 Core has been known for producing high-quality, premium products since 1984. The best deals compared to other brands in the market without compromising on quality. The trustworthy choice for thousands of customers scattered worldwide in more than 65 countries. We are committed to using only the best materials and components to ensure the longevity of our products.
Car Amp Comparison
Specification 5 Core Product Other Product EQ Control Yes No Two Mic input Yes No Versatile Application Yes No
About Brand
5 Core, headquartered in California, with a warehouse in Bellefontaine, OH, USA, has a reputation for being a trusted and reliable brand, offering products designed to meet the highest industry standards. Our products are thoroughly tested and inspected before they are sent to the end user, ensuring that the customers receive products of the highest quality and reliability. With a commitment to quality, affordability, and customer satisfaction, 5 Core is a brand people can trust for all their needs and wants.
Frequently Asked Question & Answer
Question: How many microphones can I use?Answer: You can use 2 microphones with this stereo amplifier car. Question: Can I add it to my OEM head unit?Answer: Yes, you can use this stereo amp with an OEM head unit. Question: Can I use this amplifier in Karaoke?Answer: Absolutely! You can use this 2 channel amplifier in Karaoke sessions. Question: Can this amplifier power subwoofer?Answer: Yes, this amplifier can power your subwoofer, whether it's in the car or DJ sound system. Question: Can I play high-resolution music with stereo amplifier car?Answer: Yes, the stereo amplifier features a USB port that allows you to connect your USB device, and you can enjoy high-resolution audio playback.
Looking for a different Stereo Amplifier? 5 Core has a range of Car amplifiers that can power up your car audio to improve clarity, loudness, and bass. These amps are versatile and can be used with RV, Boat, DJ systems, and more. |
Open Question Answering | The Defence services are much sort after as it gives job security and a chance to serve the nation and so many aspire to join the Indian Defense Forces. However, passing this exam is really difficult, but if you are entirely committed to your desire and willing to work extremely hard, nothing will be able to stop you from accomplishing your goal. To pass the NDA exam, you’ll need suitable guidance and instruction. In India, there are numerous reputable tutoring institutions in most regions that offer thorough NDA training. However, before enrolling in any tutoring facility or institute, you must have a basic understanding of the NDA exam.
NDA / CDS Coaching in Chandigarh We excel in NDA / CDS coaching in Chandigarh, Bansal Academy is offering coaching in NDA / CDS exams with competitive study material to match the latest exam pattern and syllabus. Our Faculty members are Ex Defence personals with many years of experience coaching for NDA / CDS exams. A free library facility is provided to encourage dedication and enthusiasm in the students. Free online test series are provided to train them to appear in the online test mode of Bank Exams. Regular doubt sessions are conducted by the existing faculty members to give comfortable learning to the students. For soulful guidance regarding the best bank coaching in Chandigarh connect with Bansal Academy.
AQs – Questions About NDA / CDS Coaching in Chandigarh? Ques-1 How much BANSAL ACADEMY Chandigarh Charge for a NDA / CDS coaching course? Ans: The fee structure is competitive and reasonable at BANSAL ACADEMY Chandigarh and suits every pocket. For more details, you can contact the counsellor as it varies from your requirement and the exam you want to pursue. Generally speaking, fee at BANSAL ACADEMY Chandigarh for Bank course is 10,000 – for the entire course, depending upon your choice and preferences. As the right bank coaching in Chandigarh, BANSAL ACADEMY has various options for bank coaching courses in Chandigarh addition to coaching one can enroll for online test series and extra sessions for doubts. There is an option for a weekend course.
Ques-2 What is the duration of NDA / CDS coaching course at BANSAL ACADEMY Chandigarh?
Ans: Full time course for NDA / CDS has 4 to 5 months duration which includes practice and doubt sessions for the continual assistance to the students before the exam date.
Ques-3 What are the eligibility criteria to enroll in an NDA / CDS exam?
Ans: Candidate eligible to enroll in an NDA / CDS exam should be a graduate with minimum of 60% with age limit between 20-30 years.
Q4: How much does a NDA / CDS earn and what are the job placement opportunities in Chandigarh?
Ans: Defence personals gets a starting salary of Rs. 5.5 lakh per annum. The defence aspirants who qualify the written, Physical & exam and interview are appointed in the Indian defence services ie. the Army, Navy and Air Force.
Ques-5 Do you also coach for interview and Physical exams?
Ans:
Ques-6 Why consider giving NDA / CDS exam?
Ans: In India, Defence jobs are most sought jobs as they guarantee job security as well as better career progression. In addition, defence employees enjoys lots of perks and allowances like leased accommodation, traveling allowance, medical aid, coverage under the new pension scheme along with an attractive salary package.
Ques-7 What services can I expect from a professional coaching institutes like BANSAL ACADEMY in Chandigarh?
Ans: In BANSAL ACADEMY Chandigarh, experts will help students in the most comprehensive way, from enrolling for the exam to preparing for the interview. Like every top-ranked institute, BANSAL ACADEMY Chandigarh offers competent study materials, conduct online tests on a regular basis along with online teaching facilities. These significant factors help students in gaining a better insight about the exam and give them desired confidence to face the exam pressure.
NDA Eligibility: Age Limit and Marital Status Minimum Age 15.7 years (not later than 1st January 2005)/ 16 years during the commencement of course Maximum Age 18.7 years (not earlier than 2nd January 2002)/ 19 years during the commencement of course
Married candidates are ineligible to apply for the NDA Exam . NDA Eligibility: Educational Qualification The academic qualifications vary slightly according to the post that the candidate has applied for. The details of educational qualification for different posts are specified below:
For Army Wing of National Defence Academy: Pass certificate in 10+2 exams via recognized board or a University. For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy: Candidates should have passed Class 12th exam in the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
It must be noted that candidates studying in Class 11 are not eligible for appearing in NDA 1 or 2. Those candidates who have failed INSB / PABT earlier will not be considered eligible for recruitment in the Air Force. Those candidates, who are currently studying in Class 12 at the time of application, must submit proof of passing the exam by the deadline. Requests for extending the due date would not be entertained on any grounds.
It must also be noted that the candidates who have been debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of Commission in the Defence Services will be considered ineligible for admission to the exam.
NDA Exam Pattern – A Summary NDA exam will have two parts- written exam and interview. The written exam will consist of two papers – Mathematics and General Ability Test (GAT). The Mathematics paper is for 300 marks. The GAT paper will carry 600 marks. So, the written exam will carry a total of 900 marks. The Mathematics question will be up to the 12th standard. The GAT paper will include quespertainingtions to English, General Knowledge and General Science.
The SSB interview will also have two stages. The first stage will have OIR and PP&DT tests, while the second stage will have psychology tests and the conference. The interview will also carry a maximum of 900 marks The details of every part of the exam are discussed in the following sections
NDA Written Exam Pattern Mathematics: In the written test, the Maths paper will have 120 questions. The mark for the correct answer to each of these questions is 2.5. The total marks of this section are 300. There will be negative marking. The negative marking for each of the incorrect answers is ⅓ of 2.5 – that is 0.83.
General Ability Test: The GAT paper will consist of 150 questions. Each of these questions carries a total of 4 marks, and thus the total marks for this section are 600. There will be negative marking too. The negative marking for each of the incorrect answers is ⅓ of 4 – that is- 1.33. This is where the NDA exam pattern differs a bit from other exams. |
Open Question Answering | Coimbatore-based Dr. Razia is a well-known doctor specialising in Dentistry. She has over 11 years of experience practising medicine in various hospitals and clinics. She practices medicine at Ehans Dental Care. She has worked with KG hospital in the past. Dr. Razia specialises in Cosmetic/ Aesthetic Dentistry, Ceramic Veneers / Crowns , Scaling / Polishing, Oral Surgery Procedures, Tooth Extraction, Orthodontic Treatment. Apart from Her association with different hospitals, She has put Her skills to the test in many other ways. Dr. Razia finished Her BDS from Madras Dental College.
Q: How many years of experience does Dr. Razia have?
A: Dr. Razia has 11 years of experiences in the field of Dentistry.
Q: What are the treatments that Dr. Razia offers?
A: Dr. Razia offers Cosmetic/ Aesthetic Dentistry, Ceramic Veneers / Crowns , Scaling / Polishing to patients. Please find the full list of services and treatments provided by Dr. Razia.
Q: How can I make an appointment with Dr. Razia?
A: Click on "Book an appointment" for an online consultation or an in-clinic appointment with Dr. Razia through myUpchar. |
Open Question Answering | A: We only take one person per business specialty. So if you are a residential real estate person and we already have one, we can refer you to another Chapter, or we may work with you to open another Chapter. Of course, if you are a commercial real estate person, you could be eligible to participate in this chapter.
Q2: How do you know new members are reputable?
A: The application asks for references and each chapter has a Membership Committee that conducts reference checks. There are also interviews. It's referral marketing, so before they even come to a meeting they have to have spoken to someone or been invited by someone in the group. Everyone has to have a sponsor, or one is assigned to them, and they interview them.
Q3: What if a member gets a referral and does poor work?
A: We have a Code of Ethics and it's the Membership Committee's job to make sure it's respected. It is imperative that anyone who gives a referral and finds out it was not satisfactorily handled must report that to the Membership Committee, who will investigate in a professional manner.
Q4: What occupations benefit the most from networking?
A: It is not the occupation, it is the individual. The occupation can be anything. If you're focused and you have a dream and you're willing to take action, you are the person we want in the group.
Q5: Are members supposed to bring visitors?
A: You're encouraged to bring visitors to help promote the Chapter and the Members.
Q6: Do ethical rules for certain professions prohibit participation in BNI?
A: BNI understands the importance of the ethical concerns governing certain professions and acknowledges that rules can differ by location. As such, BNI therefore requires its members to uphold the rules of its profession so as not to violate the professional’s ethical obligations. In the event that BNI’s general rules could potentially violate a professional’s ethical code, BNI’s rules are superseded by the dictates of the professional’s ethics code.
Q7: If I specialize in a field within my industry, am I expected to be an expert in all aspects of my industry?
A: BNI understands that many industries and professions are broad and that people often specialize. BNI does not expect, nor does it encourage, any person to participate in an area outside their expertise.
Q8:My profession does not let me directly solicit business. Is BNI still right for me?
A: BNI’s primary objective is to assist its members in ways to improve their business and to educate them concerning how they can effectively network. Business people get business when their expertise is known and others reach a comfort level with them. BNI provides a forum that allows members to meet other business peers who need to know effective and efficient business people.
For more information contact the BNI SoZona office by calling (520) 982-5131 or send an email. |
Open Question Answering | 1. Why study in New Zealand? Answer: New Zealand is the second safest country in the world. It has the best Instagram-ready beautiful scenery. The home of friendly people and clean surroundings. The skills you gain while studying is Internationally-recognized and work-ready.
2. How do I apply? Answer: Send your CV or resume to [email protected] for assessment. You may call 09171479040 or 032-236-4186. Or you may visit our office at Room 103, NDI Commercial Complex, A.S. Fortuna St., Mandaue City, Cebu
3. What course should I take? Is there age limit to study in New Zealand? Answer: Your course should be related to your degree or your work experience. Yes, up to age 45 years old.
4. Do I need to take IELTS? Answer: Yes, it is required because it is an English-speaking country. If you sign up with Enlight Migration Consultancy, you are entitled to a free IELTS review to our affiliated review center.
5. How long is the processing of my application? Answer: Usually, it would take 20 working days.
6. Am I allowed to work while I study? Answer: As a full-time student, you are allowed to work for 20 hours per week and 40 hours per week during break.
7. What happens when I finish my studies? Answer: You may be eligible to gain a 1-year Job search visa.
8. What happens when we arrive in New Zealand? Answer: Enlight Migration Consultancy will assist you from airport pick-up to finding you an accommodation when you get to New Zealand.
9. What are living costs like in New Zealand? Answer: New Zealand is a reasonably low-cost place to live compared to other countries. The total cost will depend on your spending habits. However, Immigration requires the international students of at least NZD 15,000 per year to cover all living expenses.
Answer: If you have completed your studies, have a one year full-time work related to your course and if you live outside Auckland, that’s the time you can apply for Permanent Residence in New Zealand. |
Open Question Answering | In the previous sections, we saw how to access and modify portions of arrays using simple indices (e.g., arr[0]
), slices (e.g., arr[:5]
), and Boolean masks (e.g., arr[arr > 0]
).In this section, we'll look at another style of array indexing, known as fancy indexing .Fancy indexing is like the simple indexing we've already seen, but we pass arrays of indices in place of single scalars.This allows us to very quickly access and modify complicated subsets of an array's values.
Exploring Fancy Indexing¶ Fancy indexing is conceptually simple: it means passing an array of indices to access multiple array elements at once. For example, consider the following array:
import numpy as nprand = np.random.RandomState(42)x = rand.randint(100, size=10)print(x)
Suppose we want to access three different elements. We could do it like this:
[x[3], x[7], x[2]]
Alternatively, we can pass a single list or array of indices to obtain the same result:
ind = [3, 7, 4]x[ind]
When using fancy indexing, the shape of the result reflects the shape of the index arrays rather than the shape of the array being indexed :
ind = np.array([[3, 7], [4, 5]])x[ind]
Fancy indexing also works in multiple dimensions. Consider the following array:
X = np.arange(12).reshape((3, 4))X
Like with standard indexing, the first index refers to the row, and the second to the column:
row = np.array([0, 1, 2])col = np.array([2, 1, 3])X[row, col]
Notice that the first value in the result is X[0, 2]
, the second is X[1, 1]
, and the third is X[2, 3]
.The pairing of indices in fancy indexing follows all the broadcasting rules that were mentioned in Computation on Arrays: Broadcasting.So, for example, if we combine a column vector and a row vector within the indices, we get a two-dimensional result:
X[row[:, np.newaxis], col]
Here, each row value is matched with each column vector, exactly as we saw in broadcasting of arithmetic operations. For example:
row[:, np.newaxis] * col
It is always important to remember with fancy indexing that the return value reflects the broadcasted shape of the indices , rather than the shape of the array being indexed.
Combined Indexing¶ For even more powerful operations, fancy indexing can be combined with the other indexing schemes we've seen:
print(X)
We can combine fancy and simple indices:
X[2, [2, 0, 1]]
We can also combine fancy indexing with slicing:
X[1:, [2, 0, 1]]
And we can combine fancy indexing with masking:
mask = np.array([1, 0, 1, 0], dtype=bool)X[row[:, np.newaxis], mask]
All of these indexing options combined lead to a very flexible set of operations for accessing and modifying array values.
Example: Selecting Random Points¶ One common use of fancy indexing is the selection of subsets of rows from a matrix. For example, we might have an $N$ by $D$ matrix representing $N$ points in $D$ dimensions, such as the following points drawn from a two-dimensional normal distribution:
mean = [0, 0]cov = [[1, 2], [2, 5]]X = rand.multivariate_normal(mean, cov, 100)X.shape
Using the plotting tools we will discuss in Introduction to Matplotlib, we can visualize these points as a scatter-plot:
%matplotlib inlineimport matplotlib.pyplot as pltimport seaborn; seaborn.set() # for plot stylingplt.scatter(X[:, 0], X[:, 1]);
Let's use fancy indexing to select 20 random points. We'll do this by first choosing 20 random indices with no repeats, and use these indices to select a portion of the original array:
indices = np.random.choice(X.shape[0], 20, replace=False)indices
selection = X[indices] # fancy indexing hereselection.shape
Now to see which points were selected, let's over-plot large circles at the locations of the selected points:
plt.scatter(X[:, 0], X[:, 1], alpha=0.3)plt.scatter(selection[:, 0], selection[:, 1], facecolor='none', s=200);
This sort of strategy is often used to quickly partition datasets, as is often needed in train/test splitting for validation of statistical models (see Hyperparameters and Model Validation), and in sampling approaches to answering statistical questions.
Modifying Values with Fancy Indexing¶ Just as fancy indexing can be used to access parts of an array, it can also be used to modify parts of an array. For example, imagine we have an array of indices and we'd like to set the corresponding items in an array to some value:
x = np.arange(10)i = np.array([2, 1, 8, 4])x[i] = 99print(x)
We can use any assignment-type operator for this. For example:
x[i] -= 10print(x)
Notice, though, that repeated indices with these operations can cause some potentially unexpected results. Consider the following:
x = np.zeros(10)x[[0, 0]] = [4, 6]print(x)
Where did the 4 go? The result of this operation is to first assign x[0] = 4
, followed by x[0] = 6
.The result, of course, is that x[0]
contains the value 6.
Fair enough, but consider this operation:
i = [2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4]x[i] += 1x
You might expect that x[3]
would contain the value 2, and x[4]
would contain the value 3, as this is how many times each index is repeated. Why is this not the case?Conceptually, this is because x[i] += 1
is meant as a shorthand of x[i] = x[i] + 1
. x[i] + 1
is evaluated, and then the result is assigned to the indices in x.With this in mind, it is not the augmentation that happens multiple times, but the assignment, which leads to the rather nonintuitive results.
So what if you want the other behavior where the operation is repeated? For this, you can use the at()
method of ufuncs (available since NumPy 1.8), and do the following:
x = np.zeros(10)np.add.at(x, i, 1)print(x)
The at()
method does an in-place application of the given operator at the specified indices (here, i
) with the specified value (here, 1).Another method that is similar in spirit is the reduceat()
method of ufuncs, which you can read about in the NumPy documentation.
Example: Binning Data¶ You can use these ideas to efficiently bin data to create a histogram by hand.For example, imagine we have 1,000 values and would like to quickly find where they fall within an array of bins.We could compute it using ufunc.at
like this:
np.random.seed(42)x = np.random.randn(100)# compute a histogram by handbins = np.linspace(-5, 5, 20)counts = np.zeros_like(bins)# find the appropriate bin for each xi = np.searchsorted(bins, x)# add 1 to each of these binsnp.add.at(counts, i, 1)
The counts now reflect the number of points within each bin–in other words, a histogram:
# plot the resultsplt.plot(bins, counts, linestyle='steps');
Of course, it would be silly to have to do this each time you want to plot a histogram.This is why Matplotlib provides the plt.hist()
routine, which does the same in a single line:
plt.hist(x, bins, histtype='step');
This function will create a nearly identical plot to the one seen here.To compute the binning, matplotlib
uses the np.histogram
function, which does a very similar computation to what we did before. Let's compare the two here:
print("NumPy routine:")%timeit counts, edges = np.histogram(x, bins)print("Custom routine:")%timeit np.add.at(counts, np.searchsorted(bins, x), 1)
Our own one-line algorithm is several times faster than the optimized algorithm in NumPy! How can this be?If you dig into the np.histogram
source code (you can do this in IPython by typing np.histogram??
), you'll see that it's quite a bit more involved than the simple search-and-count that we've done; this is because NumPy's algorithm is more flexible, and particularly is designed for better performance when the number of data points becomes large:
x = np.random.randn(1000000)print("NumPy routine:")%timeit counts, edges = np.histogram(x, bins)print("Custom routine:")%timeit np.add.at(counts, np.searchsorted(bins, x), 1)
What this comparison shows is that algorithmic efficiency is almost never a simple question. An algorithm efficient for large datasets will not always be the best choice for small datasets, and vice versa (see Big-O Notation).But the advantage of coding this algorithm yourself is that with an understanding of these basic methods, you could use these building blocks to extend this to do some very interesting custom behaviors.The key to efficiently using Python in data-intensive applications is knowing about general convenience routines like np.histogram
and when they're appropriate, but also knowing how to make use of lower-level functionality when you need more pointed behavior. |
Open Question Answering | Matter thirty-five. Whether your cost of one complementary a good goes up,after that (a) demand bend changes so you’re able to remaining (b) request contour changes in order to right (c) demind bend moves downwards (d) demand curve motions upward Answer: (a) consult curve shifts to help you remaining
Concern 1 Question 36. x = 30-4P, where P is the price of the product. The demand at price of ? 4 will be (a) 20 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 10 Answer: (c) 14
If the request was synchronous in order to X-axis, just what will end up being the characteristics away from flexibility? (a) well elastic (b) inelastic (c) Flexible (d) Very elastic Address: (a) Perfectly flexible
seven. Whenever demand for that item falls on account of fall-in rate of your almost every other a, the 2 goods are called as ____________ products. Answer: Replace
13. If on account of fall in the cost of good X, need for good Y goes up, both goods are ____________ Answer: Complements
fourteen. A beneficial ____________ put try a couple of most of the bundles offered to a consumer during the prevalent market price at certain number of income. Answer: Budget
fifteen. ____________ was a great locus various combinations out-of a couple merchandise that your individual eats and you can whose cost is precisely means to help you their income. Answer: Funds line
16. “A mental individual favors more of the item which provides him a sophisticated out of fulfillment” and therefore it is called ____________ Answer: Monotonic tastes.
17. Since buyer’s earnings expands, the quantity necessary once and for all increases and as the latest consumer’s income decreases, the amount needed decreases for an effective, this type of products are called as ____________ . Answer: Normal items.
18. ____________ is the level of a great one to a consumer commands within the an industry at a certain rate, at the a specific date. Answer: Request
19. ____________ ‘s the aggregate of amount needed by every individuals’ people for the industry from the additional rates during certain time frame, Answer: Business Demand
21. A group of apathy shape for a few commodities proving more levels out-of fulfillment is called ____________. Answer: Indifference Map
Question 37 23. ____________ refers to the level of a beneficial one a customer commands from inside the an industry during the a certain speed, within a certain big date. Answer: Request
twenty five. The latest responsiveness regarding consult in order to a modification of certainly their determinants, whenever you are most other determinants remain ongoing is called given that ____________ Answer: Suppleness of demand
twenty six. In the event the cost of an excellent decrease as well as the numbers required increases then it’s known as ____________ . Answer: Extension off request.
twenty seven. If the price of an effective develops plus the wide variety demanded reduces then it’s known as ____________. Answer: Contraction from consult.
Answer: step blackfling 1. (b) Down ward inclining 2. (an effective) d(P) = good – bp step 3. (e) |ed| = step one 4. (c) Pencil ink 5. (d) Children away from apathy bend
(c) Limited Rate away from Replacement (g) Need fulfilling stamina (e) Ceteris Paribus (f) If the consumers earnings grows, interest in a great including decreases (a) In the event the People earnings increases, Interest in goods disappear (d) Tea and Coffees (b) Teas and you will Glucose What is finances range? Answer: Finances line was a great locus of various combos from one or two commodities that individual eats and whoever costs is precisely means so you can their income.
Concern 2. What exactly do you mean of the cardinal Energy Investigation? Answer: It is the approach where in actuality the utility would be mentioned with cardinal quantity particularly 1, dos, step three, an such like. Cardinal amounts reference those individuals numbers which may be added, subtracted or multiplied.
Concern 3. Give the meaning of limited power? Answer: Limited utility is the change in complete power due to practices of one more product out of a commodity. |
Open Question Answering | Breasts are an important part of a woman’s body, and their shape and size are two of the most important factors in how she looks. But age, pregnancy, breastfeeding, and weight loss are all things that can cause the breasts to lose their shape and firmness. This can be annoying and hurt a woman’s sense of self-worth.
In this article, we’ll talk about seven good ways to get your breasts to stand up again and get your confidence back.
Understand the Causes of Sagging Breasts Before we talk about how to make your breasts stand up again, it’s important to know what causes them to hang down. Some of the most common causes of sagging breasts are age, gravity, pregnancy, breastfeeding, changes in weight, and genes.
If you know what’s causing the sagging, you can take the steps you need to stop it from getting worse and work on making your breasts stand up again.
What Can I Do for My Breasts to Stand Again Exercise Regularly Not only is regular exercise good for your health as a whole, but it can also help lift and tone your breasts. Push-ups, chest presses, and chest flies are all exercises that work the chest muscles and can help your breasts look better. Cardiovascular exercises like running, walking, and swimming can also help burn fat and change the way your body looks overall.
Start with your hands shoulder-width apart in a plank position. Lower your body until your chest touches the ground, and then push back up to the starting position.
For chest presses, lie on your back with your knees bent and your feet on the ground. Hold a weight in each hand and reach your arms up toward the ceiling. Slowly bring the weights down to your chest, then press them back up.
Arm raises: Stand with your feet shoulder-width apart and a weight in each hand. Raise your arms out to the sides until they are parallel to the ground, then bring them back down.
Stand in front of a wall with your arms stretched out in front of you. Lean into the wall and push back to where you started.
Wear a Well-Fitting Bra Wearing a bra that fits well can help keep your breasts from sagging and make them look better. If your bra is too big or too small, it can make your breasts sag, so it’s important to get measured regularly and buy a good quality bra that gives your breasts the support they need.
Choose the right size bra. Get measured often to make sure you’re wearing the right size bra. Your bra should fit snugly around your ribcage, and the cups should fit comfortably around your breasts.
Choose a bra with an underwire: Underwire bras can give your breasts more support, which can help keep them up.
Look for bras with wide straps. Wide straps can help spread the weight of your breasts out so they don’t pull down on your shoulders.
Keep your diet healthy A healthy diet can help you keep a healthy weight, which can keep your breasts from sagging. Here are some things to think about when you plan your meals:
Eat foods that are high in vitamins and minerals. Foods high in vitamins A, C, and E can help your skin stay healthy and young looking. These vitamins can be found in foods like leafy greens, citrus fruits, and nuts.
Stay hydrated. Drinking enough water throughout the day can help your skin look full and hydrated.
Avoid foods that can make you gain weight. Sugary and fatty foods can make you gain weight, which can make your breasts hang down over time.
You should massage your breasts often. Regularly massaging your breasts can help improve blood flow, which can help keep your breasts healthy and stop them from sagging. You can gently massage your breasts in a circle with natural oils like olive oil or coconut oil.
Use remedies from nature There are a number of natural ways to make your breasts look better and make them stand up again. For example, putting a mixture of egg whites and yogurt on your breasts and leaving it on for 30 minutes before rinsing it off with cold water can help lift and firm your breasts.
Think about your surgical options If you’ve tried natural remedies and exercises but haven’t seen the results you want, you might want to think about surgery. Breast lift surgery, also called mastopexy, is a cosmetic procedure that improves the look of the breasts by getting rid of extra skin and reshaping the breast tissue.
Avoid smoking and drinking too much alcohol: Both smoking and drinking too much alcohol can make your skin age faster, which can cause your breasts to sag. What you need to know is this:
Smoking can cause your collagen and elastin in your skin to break down, which can speed up the aging process and cause your skin to sag.
Too much alcohol can make you gain weight and sag. This is because alcohol is high in calories and can make you gain weight if you drink too much of it. Over time, this weight gain can make your breasts sag.
Think about getting a breast lift: If you still don’t like how your breasts look after trying these tips, you might want to think about getting a breast lift. What you need to know is this:
What is surgery to lift the breasts? Breast lift surgery, also called mastopexy, is a surgical procedure that lifts and reshapes breasts that have sagged.
How is surgery to lift the breasts done? During the surgery, the doctor will cut around the areola and down the breast. He or she will then cut away any extra skin and tissue, reshape the breast, and move the nipple and areola.
What are the risks that come with having a breast lift? Breast lift surgery has some risks, like bleeding, infection, and scarring, just like any other surgery. Before you get the surgery, you should talk to your surgeon about these risks.
How does getting better work? Most people feel some pain and swelling while they are healing from breast lift surgery, but most can go back to work within a week or two. Different ways that breasts sag
There are different kinds of breast sagging, and the severity can change based on age, weight, and health in general. Some common types of sagging breasts are grade 1, grade 2, and grade 3, which are based on how much the breasts sag and where the nipple is in relation to the breast crease.
What Makes Breasts Sag? Aging As we get older, our skin loses its natural elasticity and the connective tissues that hold up our breasts start to get weaker, which makes our breasts sag.
Being pregnant and nursing During pregnancy and breastfeeding, hormonal changes can cause the ligaments that support the breasts to stretch and weaken, which can cause the breasts to sag.
Gain or Loss of Weight When you gain or lose a lot of weight, your skin can stretch or shrink, which can cause your breasts to sag.
Genetics Some women may have less breast tissue or weaker connective tissues because of their genes. This can cause their breasts to sag.
Smoking If you smoke, your skin can lose its elasticity and your breasts can sag.
FAQs: Q: Will working out really help my breasts look fuller? A. Yes, exercise can help make your breasts look perkier by making the muscles around them stronger.
How do I know if the bra I’m wearing is the right size? A. Look for a bra with cups that fit comfortably around your breasts and a tight fit around your ribcage.
Q: Is it safe to have breast lift surgery? A. Breast lift surgery has risks, just like any other surgery. Talk to your doctor about the procedure to find out if you are a good candidate for it.
Q: Will exercises really help my breasts go up? A: Yes! Workouts that focus on your chest muscles can help lift and tone the tissue around your breasts, which can make them look perkier over time.
How often should I wear a bra that holds me up? A: You should wear a supportive bra as much as possible, especially when you are moving around a lot.
Q: Is it safe to have a breast lift? A: Breast lift surgery is usually safe, but it has some risks like any other surgery. Before you get the surgery, you should talk to your surgeon about these risks.
Conclusion
There are many things you can do if you want to get your breasts to stand up again. You can keep your breasts looking perkier by working out regularly, wearing a supportive bra, eating a healthy diet, and not smoking or drinking too much. If you still don’t like how your breasts look, you might want to think about breast lift surgery. Talk to your doctor about which choice is best for you. |
Open Question Answering | Dragonflight Arena With our WoW Dragonflight Arena Boost, you can explore the thrilling and very exciting world of World of Warcraft PvP! SkipTheGrind.Online is your go-to shop for all of your World of Warcraft boosting and carry needs, including Arena rating boosts and carry services.
Arena, for those inexperienced with World of Warcraft, is a competitive game mode in which players compete in 2v2, or 3v3 matches. The arena is one of the most exciting and difficult aspects of World of Warcraft, which requires a high degree of skill and coordination in order to thrive. Why choose us At SkipTheGrind.Online, we offer a range of WoW Dragonflight Arena boosting and carry services. We want to help you achieve your desired rating and earn valuable rewards and achievements. Our team of highly skilled and experienced PvP players is dedicated to help you succeed in the arena.
Whether you’re looking to climb the Arena ladder, improve your PvP skills, or simply enjoy the thrill of competitive gameplay, we have the services to meet your needs. Our Arena rating boosts and carry services are fast, reliable, and affordable, with transparent pricing and no hidden fees. Are you ready If you are ready to take on the competition and reach the top of the Arena rankings? Then browse our WoW DF Arena category today and discover the best WoW boosting and carry services on the market.
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FAQ
Q: What is Arena in World of Warcraft? A: Arena is a PvP game mode in World of Warcraft where players can battle against each other in 2v2 or 3v3 matches. The goal is to defeat the opposing team and earn Arena rating. Arena rating is used to determine your position on the Arena ladder and earn valuable rewards.
Q: What is an Arena rating boost? A: In WoW Dragonflight Arena rating boost is a service where a highly skilled PvP player helps to boost your Arena rating. He does this by playing on your behalf. This service can help you quickly climb the Arena ladder and earn valuable rewards. Some of them could be high-level gear and items or achievements. These are usually called piloted arena boosts.
On the other hand, we also provide WoW DF self-play arena boost. With this service, you would be teamed up with a professional player or players depending on the mode you have selected. We always recommend using self-play services due to safety reasons.
Q: How do I prepare for Arena matches? A: To prepare for Arena matches, you should make sure that your gear and items are optimized for your class and spec. You should also be familiar with your class’s abilities and PvP strategies. Another thing that we recommend is to communicate effectively with your team. If you’re new to Arena, you may want to consider working with a boosting or carry service like SkipTheGrind.Online to help you get started. And if you purchase our WoW DF Arena Boost service, our boosters can help you with preparation.
Q: How long does it take to complete an Arena rating boost or carry service? A: The time required to complete an Arena rating boost or carry service can vary. It can depend on your current and desired rating and other factors. At SkipTheGrind.Online, we strive to provide fast and effective services. We will work with you to determine the best timeline for you.
If you are looking to get a few wins, achieve a specific rating, or even get one of many PvP titles, we can help with that. Our Arena boosters are highly experienced and very skilled and will not waste your time.
In case you have any additional questions, please don’t hesitate to contact us. We are available 24/7 and always happy to help.
Remember, we grind so you don’t have to! |
Open Question Answering | from a handpicked tutor in LIVE 1-to-1 classes
17/4 as a Mixed Number A mixed number is a fraction that contains a whole and a fraction. It is obtained when the numerator and denominator of an improper fraction are divided and is written as Quotient (Remainder/Divisor).
Answer: 17/4 as a mixed number is 4 ¼. Let us divide 17 by 4 and understand how the mixed number is obtained.
Explanation:
To find the mixed number of the fraction 17/4, you will find the closest number to 17 divisible by 4. Here it is 16.
4 x 4 = 16
When 17 is divided by 4, the quotient is 4, the remainder is 1, and the divisor is 4.
Now that we have gotten a new numerator, we will give us the final answer in the mixed number form.
Hence, 17/4 can be written as a mixed number, 4 1/4.
visual curriculum |
Open Question Answering | Every year, hundreds of thousands of people around the world experience a stroke. Of the survivors, around 65% will have stroke-related visual symptoms that can make daily living a struggle.
The good news is that many of these visual symptoms are treatable. At KW NeuroVision, we help stroke survivors regain healthy visual functioning and minimize uncomfortable symptoms using neuro-optometric rehabilitation therapy.
What’s a Stroke? A stroke occurs when a portion of the brain is suddenly deprived of blood, either due to a burst blood vessel or a blocked artery. When brain tissue is starved of oxygen and nutrients, its cells eventually die, impairing brain function in that area. If a stroke occurs in the brain’s visual center, it can negatively impact vision and eye functioning in the following ways.
Eye Movement Abnormalities A stroke can cause a lack of blood supply and damage the nerves in the head. Damage to the eye’s nerves can make it difficult, sometimes impossible, to control eye movements.
A stroke survivor may find it challenging to shift their gaze from one object to another, or the eyes may move back and forth rapidly (a condition called nystagmus).
Blurred, Double or Distorted Vision Because eye movements may be erratic following a stroke, the two eyes can struggle to work as a team. This often leads to a condition called diplopia , otherwise known as double vision.
Nerve damage from a stroke can also cause blurred or distorted vision .
Extreme Sensitivity to Light Photophobia , or sensitivity to light, is a common side effect of strokes and ministrokes. It affects up to 30% of stroke survivors. Post-stroke headaches are often a precursor for experiencing photophobia.
Visual Processing Problems Even if the eyes themselves are healthy, the brain’s ability to process visual information sent from the eyes may be damaged.
Visual neglect and agnosia are examples of visual processing disorders that cause the person to not perceive what's in their visual field. When someone with visual neglect draws a clock, they may include numbers on only one side of the clock.
Visual neglect is a very common post-stroke condition that affects up to 80% of right-sided stroke survivors.
Neuro-Optometric Rehabilitation Therapy in New Hamburg The process of regaining visual skills after a stroke can be achieved through neuro-optometric rehabilitation therapy.
This specialized form of visual rehabilitation therapy aims to maximize healthy visual functioning and help patients achieve their goals.
The therapy consists of personalized eye exercises that retrain the brain and eyes to work as a well-functioning team. Prisms may also be used to correct certain visual impairments and symptoms.
After a successful round of neuro-optometric rehabilitation therapy, a stroke survivor may experience relief from debilitating visual symptoms and is often able to resume daily activities independently.
At KW NeuroVision , we understand how stroke-related vision problems can be life-altering, and we’re here to help. We'll develop an individualized treatment plan and follow the patient closely to monitor any improvements or changes.
If you or a loved one has survived a stroke, call KW NeuroVision in New Hamburg to schedule a neuro-optometric evaluation.
Our practice serves patients from Kitchener & Waterloo region, Cambridge, Guelph, and Stratford, Ontario and surrounding communities.
Frequently Asked Questions with Dr. Howard Dolman A: Neuro-optometry is a specific form of eye care created to treat visual dysfunction associated with neurological problems. Neuro-optometric rehabilitation therapy is suitable for patients who’ve sustained any type of traumatic brain injury, such as a concussion or whiplash. Typical conditions treated by neuro-optometrists include binocular vision dysfunction, accommodative dysfunctions, convergence insufficiency, nystagmus, photophobia, eye muscle movement problems, spatial disorientation and cranial nerve palsy, among others.
Q: Can visual symptoms signal a stroke? A: Yes. Loss of vision, especially on one side of the visual field, can signal a stroke. Some patients report seeing a dark shadow either in the upper or lower portion of their visual field. Light sensitivity can also be a symptom of an onsetting stroke. Seek immediate medical care if you or a loved one experiences any of these symptoms. |
Open Question Answering | 2019/January Braindump2go AZ-301 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE New Updated Today! Following are some new AZ-301 Real Exam Questions:
1.|2019 Latest AZ-301 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE) 65Q&As Download:
2.|2019 Latest AZ-301 Exam Questions & Answers Download:
Question: 34
You have 100 Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSISJ packages that are configuted to use 10 on-premrees SQ1 Server databases as their destinations.You plan to migrate the 10 on-premises databases to Azure SQL Database. You need to recommend a solution to host the SS1S packages in Azure.The solution must ensure that the packages can target the SQL Database instances as the* destinations.What should you include m the recommendation?
A.Azure Data CatalogB.SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMS)C.Data Migration AssistantD.Azure Data Factory
Answer: A
Question: 35
You need to recommend a solution lo generate a monthly report of all the new Azure Resource Manager resource deployment in your subscription What should you include in the recommend3tlon,
A.Azure Activity LogB.Azure Monitor action groupsC.Azure AdvisorD.Azure Monitor metrics
Answer: B
Question: 36
You have 100 Standard F2vs-v2 Azure virtual machines. Each virtual machine has two network adapter.You need to increase the network performance of the workloads running an the virtual machine The solution must meet the following requirements.*The CPU-to-memory ratio must remain the same.*The solution must minimize costs. What should you do?
A.Enable SRIOVB.Enable ROMA over InfiniBandC.Insall an additional network adapter.D.Configure NIC teaming.
Answer: A
Question: 37
Your company has several Azure subscriptions that are part of a Microsoft Enterprise Agreement? The company’s compliance team creates automatic alerts by using Ware Monitor.You need to recommend a solution to apply the alerts automatically when new subscriptions are added to the Enterprise agreement.What should you include in the recommendation?
A.Azure PokeyB.Azure Resource Manager templatesC.Azure log Analytics alertsD.Azure Monitor action groupsE.Azure Automation runboote
Answer: D
Question: 38
Your company has 300 virtual machines hosted in a VMWare environment. The virtual machines vary in size and have various utilization levels.You plan to move all the virtual machines to Azure.You need to recommend how many and what size Azure virtual machines will be required to move the current workloads to Azure. The solution must minimize administrative effort.What should you use to make the recommendation?
A.Azure Cost ManagementB.Azure MigrateC.Azure pricing calculatorD.Azure Advisor recommendations
Answer: A
Question: 39
HOTSPOTYou have an Azure environment that contains the Azure subscription and the virtual networks shown in the following table.You need to recommend a virtual network peering solution to ensure that the resources connected to any other virtual network. The solution must minimize administrative effort.Which virtual network peering topology should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate topology in the answer area.NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point,
Answer:
Question: 40
HOTSPOTYour company has three branch offices and an Azure subscription. Each branch office contains a Hyper V host that hosts application servers.You need to recommend a storage solution for the branch offices. The solution must ensure that the application servers can connect to a central storage device by unrig 6C9 connections. Data saved to the iSCSl slot age device (torn the application servers must be uploaded to Azure automatically.Which components should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.NOTE : Each correct selection is worth one point
Answer:
Question: 41
You have Azure virtual machines that run a custom Iine-business web application. You plan to use a third-party solution to parse event logs from the virtual machine stored in an Azure storage account. You need to recommend a so to save the event logs from the virtual. What should you include in recommendation?
A.Azure VM Diagnostics ExtensionB.Azure MonitorC.Azure log AnalyticsD.event log subscriptions
Answer: D
Question: 42
DRAG DROPYou are designing a network connectivity strategy for a new Azure subscription. You identify the following requirements*The Azure virtual machines on a subnet named Subnet must be accessible only from me computers in your London office.*Engineers -equ.re access to the Azure virtual machines on a subnet named Subnets over the Internet on a specific TCP/IP management port.*The Azure virtual machines in the West Europe Azure region must be able to communkate on all ports to the Azure virtual machine in the North Europe Azure region.You need to recommend which components must be used to meet me requirementWhat should you include m the recommendation? To answer, drag me appropriate components .a the correct requirement. Each component may be used once, more than once.not at all You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content NOTE: Each correct selection is worm one point
Answer:
Question: 43
DRAG DROPYou are planning an Azure solution that will host production database for a high-performance application. The solution will include the following components:Two virtual machines that will run Microsoft SQL Server 2016, will be deployed to different data centers in the same Azure region, and will be part of an Always On availability group.SQL server data that will be backed up by using the Automated Backup feature of the SQL Server IassS Agent Extension (SQLIaaSExtension)You identify the storage priorities for various data type as shown in the following table.Which storage type should you recommend for each data type? To answer, drag the appreciate storage types to the correct data types. Each storage type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the spilt bar between panes or scroll to view content.NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Question: 44
You have .NeT web service named service1 that has the following requirements. Must read and write to the local file system.Must write to the Windows Application event log.You need to recommend a solution to host Service1 in Azure . The solution must meet the following requirements:Minimize maintenance overhead. Minimize costs.What should you include in the recommendation?
A.an Azure web appB.Azure functionC.an App service EnvironmentD.an Azure virtual machine scale set
Answer: B
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Open Question Answering | Spirit & Success, Together, Enbon led display screen
Outdoor Solution
Scenario: Car parkRecommended solution: Enbon FC Pro SeriesWhy: Many vehicle rental sites are now fitted with LED displays to indicate relevant information. The FC Pro is the perfect choice for this type of solution.
FC Pro Adaptation Scenario
Scenario: Car park
Recommended solution: Enbon FC Pro Series
Why:Many vehicle rental sites are now fitted with LED displays to indicate relevant information. The FC Pro is the perfect choice for this type of solution.
For more product details, please click on the link to view-> |
Open Question Answering | A Construction Worker is a skilled professional in the Construction industry. They are responsible for building and repairing different structures such as roads, buildings, bridges, and more. A Construction Worker job description includes physical labor such as digging, carrying heavy loads, and operating machinery. They can work in a variety of industries such as residential, commercial, or industrial. In order to succeed in this career, it is important to have knowledge of different tools, safety procedures, and construction techniques. Construction Workers must also work collaboratively with other workers such as architects, engineers, and project managers to complete projects on time and within budget. The career path of a Construction Worker can lead to other positions such as Construction Supervisor, Construction Manager, or Project Manager. This is a physically demanding job that requires stamina and strength, as well as attention to detail and problem-solving skills.
To work as a Construction Worker in the Construction industry, you usually need a high school diploma or equivalent. Some employers may require a certification or apprenticeship in a specific trade like plumbing or electrical work. On-the-job training is also common and can range from a few weeks to several years depending on the type of work. Experience working in construction or a related field is preferred but not always required. It's important to have good physical fitness, hand-eye coordination, and the ability to work well with others. Most importantly, a strong work ethic and a commitment to safety are essential for success in this career.
Wondering about the Construction Worker salary range in the US? According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), in May 2020, the median annual salary for a Construction Worker was $37,890 or $18.21 per hour. The lowest 10 percent earned less than $24,650, and the top 10 percent earned over $65,590 per year. Experience level, location, and industry are factors that can impact a Construction Worker's salary. In Canada, a Construction Worker earns an average of C$22.40 per hour, while in Australia, the income is around AU$33.68 per hour. Nevertheless, salaries may vary depending on the cost of living in different regions.
Sources:
Construction workers are the backbone of the construction industry, a vital sector that has seen tremendous growth in recent years. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), employment of construction workers is expected to grow 5% from 2019 to 2029, faster than the average for all occupations. This increase is mainly due to the continued demand for new infrastructure, such as roads, bridges, and housing.
The construction industry is also investing in new technologies, such as Building Information Modeling (BIM) and virtual reality, to increase efficiency and reduce costs. This means that workers who can adapt to these new technologies will have a competitive advantage in the job market.
In conclusion, the career outlook for construction workers looks bright, with job opportunities and wages increasing. The industry is growing, and with new technologies being introduced, it is expected to continue to do so in the next 5 years.
Source: https://www.bls.gov/ooh/construction-and-extraction/construction-laborers-and-helpers.htm
Q: What does a construction worker do?
A: A construction worker participates in building, repairing, and maintaining various types of buildings or structures. This can involve duties such as digging trenches, mixing and pouring concrete, laying bricks, and operating heavy machinery.
Q: What skills do I need to become a construction worker?
A: Important skills for a construction worker include physical strength and stamina, the ability to follow instructions, basic math skills, mechanical aptitude, and the ability to work well in a team.
Q: What education do I need to become a construction worker?
A: There is no formal education required to become a construction worker, but many employers prefer employees with a high school diploma or equivalent. On-the-job training is usually provided.
Q: What are the working conditions like for a construction worker?
A: Construction workers often work outdoors and must cope with varying weather conditions. They may also need to work in confined spaces, at heights, and around noise and heavy machinery. Safety equipment such as hard hats, gloves, and eye protection is typically required.
Q: What is the job outlook for construction workers?
A: According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, employment of construction workers is projected to grow 5 percent from 2019 to 2029, about as fast as the average for all occupations. The demand for new buildings, highways, bridges, and other structures will drive employment growth. |
Open Question Answering | Answer:This and many other products are now available for order online and pickup at the Power Equipment Direct warehouse in Bolingbrook, Illinois or at a Ferguson Supply location near you.
How Do I Update My Pickup Location?
Answer:The nearest pickup location within a 50-mile radius is automatically chosen when you enter the site. To change your pickup location and see availability for other nearby locations, click the "Change Pickup Location" link on the product page or in the cart.
How Do I Place a Local Pickup Order?
Answer:Eligible items will have the Local Pickup option available both on the product page and in the cart. Select this option for all items you wish to pick up. Please note that Local Pickup can only be scheduled online at this time.
When Can Items Be Picked Up?
Answer:Items are usually ready for pickup the same day the online order is placed, but this will depend on order volume and time of day. When your order is ready, you will receive an email including specific pickup instructions. Orders that have not been picked up within two business days may be cancelled. You should opt to have your items shipped if you are not able to pick them up promptly.
Who Can Pick Up My Order?
Answer:You will be prompted to enter the name, mobile phone, and email address of the person who will be picking up the order during checkout. We will use this information to ensure the order is picked up by an authorized individual.
Why Can't I Select Local Pickup for Some Items?
Answer:Not all items are available at all locations, so pickup availability will vary based on the selected store. Additionally, some items ship directly from our manufacturer partners and are not available for pickup. You can use the "Change Pickup Location" link to check for availability at nearby Local Pickup locations.
Why Can't I Select Shipping for Some Items?
Answer:Due to packaging, shipping costs, and other factors, some items cannot be shipped and are offered exclusively through Local Pickup.
Which Payment Methods Are Accepted?
Answer:Credit/debit cards, Apple Pay, Google Pay, PayPal, and financing are accepted for Local Pickup orders.
Hover to zoom
1 Of 5
Durastar - 24k BTU - Wall Mounted - For Multi or Single Zone
Expert Recommended AccessoriesSelected by Ken, our Expert
Required Accessories9
These accessories are required to properly setup/install this product.
Optional Accessories10
Features
Engineered for comfort, Durastar is backed by resilient technology and will withstand the test of time and nature's elements. Providing energy efficient, value-friendly HVAC equipment for every space, Durastar creates a comfortable environment for any homeowner. Durastar mini-splits are ideal for renovations, remodels and zone-specific heating and cooling needs. This wall mounted heat pump mini split indoor unit is for use in single zone and multi-zone systems.
Wireless Remote Control With "Follow Me" Technology
This function uses the temperature at the remote's location, instead of the indoor unit's location, to optimize the temperature around you and ensure maximum comfort.
Auto Restart
The indoor unit has an auto-restart module that allows the unit to restart automatically and, in the case of a sudden power failure, will restore those setting automatically after power returns.
24-Hour Timer Feature
The timer function establishes the amount of time that will elapse before the unit will automatically turn on/off.
Anti-Corrosive Fin Coating
Durastar condensers and indoor units feature Golden Fin Coating, an anti-corrosive fin coating to ensure the longevity, reliability and prevent corrosion this improves its durability.
Quiet Operation
Both the outdoor and indoor units enjoy reduced electrical and mechanical sound thanks to their brushless direct current fan motors.
Washable Filter
With a washable filter, the indoor unit features easy, low cost maintenance.
Auto Changeover
Set it and forget it. With Durastar's Auto Changeover feature, you can set the temperature and it will automatically switch between heating and cooling to maintain your temperature.
Eco/Gear Mode
With Eco/Gear Mode set in cooling mode, energy consumption of the indoor unit is reduced in three tiers ranging from 10-50%.
Timer Function
Set your unit based on your schedule with the Timer function.
Turbo Mode
Get comfortable fast with Turbo Mode. This feature enables the unit to reach your set temperature quickly by controlling the fan speed automatically.
Swing/Gentle Feature
The Durastar indoor unit with Swing/Gentle feature allows for the air flow to be circulated and directed around the room.
Sleep Mode
Help reduce your energy consumption with Sleep Mode. This mode adjusts the temperature in minor increments and automatically turns off after 8 hours and returns to normal operation.
10 Year Warranty
Durastar stands behind their product with a hassle-free 10 year limited warranty.
Third-Party Thermostat Interface
The DR24VINT1 interface works with Durastar indoor units, enabling third-party Wi-Fi compatible thermostats to control them. It's compatible with various 24V Wi-Fi thermostat brands like Nest, Ecobee, Honeywell, and Proselect for wireless control.
California residents see
WARNING: Cancer and Reproductive Harm - www.P65Warnings.ca.gov.
Operating Mode Operating ModeSome products are only capable of cooling, while others can either heat or cool a space. Some products heat via "heat pump" technology while others use electric heating elements. Learn More
Heating and Cooling
Multi-Zone Compatible
Yes
Indoor Unit Size(s) Indoor Unit Size(s)Mini split systems can have one or more indoor units connected to a single outdoor unit. Indoor Unit Size(s) specifies what indoor unit sizes are used in a system. We have combined 6k and 7k indoor units to enhance searchability.
24
Installation Location
Indoor
Remote Included
Yes
UPC
781889870594
Performance
Cooling BTU
24000
Heating BTU
26000
Moisture Removal
131.52 Pints/Hour
Maximum Air Flow
601 CFM
Minimum Air Flow
382 CFM
Minimum Sound Level
28 dB
Maximum Sound Level Maximum Sound LevelSound levels are measured in decibels (dB). The lower the decibel rating, the less noise the product makes. As an example, a ticking watch is 20 dB while on the other end of the scale, a lawn mower is around 90 dB. Learn More
48 dB
Electrical Data
Voltage
208/230 Volts
Phase
1
Frequency
60 Hz
Recommended Breaker Size
15 Amps
Dimensions
Gas Connection Size
5/8 Inch
Liquid Connection Size
3/8 Inch
Product Height
13 1/4 Inches
Product Width
42 5/8 Inches
Product Depth
9 3/16 Inches
Product Weight
30 Pounds
Certifications
ETL Listed
No
Energy Star Listed
Yes
Warranty Information
Parts Warranty Parts WarrantyA warranty is a safeguard from defects in manufacturing and can vary in length and terms. Some manufacturers require registration for extended warranty benefits, be sure to check out features and the warranty document. To see the manufacturer's warranty statement, click on the Manuals tab. Learn More
10 Years
Reviews
Durastar DRAW24F1B Reviews & Ratings
Be the First to Write a Review
Do you own this product? Please share your insights with fellow shoppers.
Product Q&A
Be the First to Ask A QuestionAnswered by Ken, the eComfort Product Expert
How-To Articles
How to Pick the Perfect Mini Split Suspended Indoor Unit
A ceiling-suspended mini split is the perfect ductless solution for large open ... |
Open Question Answering | Beat cancer with immunotherapy in India Do you know you can train your immune system to fight even cancer cells with Immunotherapy in India?
The treatments of cancers are focussed on removing fast-growing cancerous cells and tissue. Be it surgery or chemotherapy or radiation therapy. The focus is on removing the cancerous tissues and cells from the body. However, the possibility of relapse is always there.
However, if we can make our immune system strong enough or train the immune system to fight the cancerous cell, the body will learn to fight on its own.
This is precisely the direction where new cancer treatment advancements are focussed upon.
If your immune system is ready to recognise and fight the cancer cells, your immune system, which is the biggest defense mechanism of the body, can kill the specific cells very precisely without harming the normal cells.
The side effects of Cancer treatments will fade away, the trauma of surgery followed by chemotherapy or Radiotherapy will go away. The probability of relapse of cancer will also be minimized.
The therapy which can achieve this is called immunotherapy. The researchers are continuously evolving this therapy for consistent results and wider applications.
Though the research is ongoing, the oncologists have started using it in select cancer conditions and in combination with other therapies. When all the treatment options for cancer patients are exhausted, doctors today count on immunotherapy in India to extend the longevity of life, and they are successful as well.
Let’s understand the experience of Norris from cape town, South Africa
Norris is a 52-year-old civil engineer, father of two children, and husband of a caring wife.
Three years ago, Norris was having difficulty breathing for some days and getting a cough which was not controllable with the prescribed medications. Norris also started feeling restless because of the continuous cough. One day Noris spitted the blood while he was coughing.
Noticing the blood, Norris’s wife Martha got concerned about her husband’s health and booked the appointment with the pulmonologist.
The doctor examined Norris and suggested a chest X-ray and sputum test. The next day reports came and the doctor suspected a trace of cancer and subsequent investigations confirmed that. Norris was diagnosed with stage 3 non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC).
Norris started his treatment in cape town and pretty soon he exhausted all the treatment options but was not able to control his cancer. His doctor had given a life expectancy of a maximum of six months.
Norris’s wife and children were shocked and shattered. Collecting all their courage, they started searching for advanced treatment. While researching they came across the MedicoExperts website and read the information on advanced treatment for lung cancer treatment with the highest survival rates using the tumor board approach. Martha filled out the inquiry form
After receiving the inquiry MedicoExperts patient care department got in touch with Martha. Martha forwarded her husband’s reports, after receiving the reports MedicoExperts arranged the online video consultation with one of its senior-most empanelled oncologist. The doctor explained the treatment options and approach and cleared all the doubts of Martha and Norris during the consultation.
After understanding the treatment protocol, Norris and Martha decided to come to India for the treatment.
After one week they came to India, on the same day Norris was admitted to the hospital and a pre-evaluation investigation was performed to check the current condition of cancer. The tumor board examined the reports and decided to go for immunotherapy in India.
Immunotherapy was started immediately. Norris responded very well to the treatment. After a two-month test was re-conducted and reports revealed that the tumor had shrunk.
Norris and Martha were very much happy with the progress and completed the therapy.
At the time of writing this article, i.e. two years after the treatment, Norris was living a happy and productive life.
This could be your story as well.
The immune system consists of several organs, antibodies (proteins), and immune cells that work together to fight disease and infections.
Immune cells consist of:
B-cell lymphocytes: These white blood cells produce antibodies that fight infections.T-cell lymphocytes: These white blood cells go after diseased cells and kill them. T-cells also signal the presence of diseased or foreign cells to other cells.Dendritic cells: To stimulate an immune response, these immune cells interact with T-cells.Granulocytes: Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are white blood cells that fight infections.Now, Let’s understand what immunotherapy is.
Immunotherapy is a type of cancer treatment in which your immune system is used to fight the disease. Sometimes it is also called Biological therapy.
Immunotherapy can help the immune system find and attack cancer cells by boosting or changing how the immune system recognizes the cancer cells.
Let’s understand how immunotherapy works.
Cytokines are protein molecules produced by immune cells that act on other cells. Large amounts of these proteins are introduced into the body during immunotherapy.
The procedure is :
Increases the production of disease-fighting immune cells by stimulating the immune system. Assist the immune system in identifying and attacking cancer cells. Let’s understand what to expect before and during the immunotherapy treatment
What are the types of immunotherapy? Following are the different types of immunotherapy that are used to treat cancer.
Drugs that block immune checkpoints are known as immune checkpoint inhibitors. These checkpoints are a normal part of the immune system that prevents overactive immune responses. These drugs block them, allowing immune cells to respond more forcefully to cancer.
T-cell transfer therapy is a treatment that enhances your T cells’ natural ability to fight cancer.
Immune cells from your tumor are taken in this treatment. Those that are most effective in fighting cancer are chosen or modified in the lab to better attack cancer cells, grown in large batches, and injected back into your body through a vein needle.
Adoptive cell therapy, adoptive immunotherapy, and immune cell therapy are all terms used to describe T-cell transfer therapy.
Monoclonal antibodies are immune system proteins that have been designed in the lab to bind to specific targets on cancer cells.
Some monoclonal antibodies label cancer cells to help the immune system recognize and destroy them.
Therapeutic antibodies are another name for monoclonal antibodies.
Treatment vaccines boost your immune system’s response to cancer cells, which helps you fight cancer.
Modulators of the immune system that boost the body’s ability to fight cancer. Some of these agents target specific parts of the immune system, while others have a broader impact on the immune system.
Let’s now understand the advantages of immunotherapy treatment.
What are the advantages of immunotherapy treatment? There are several reasons why your doctor may recommend immunotherapy to you. The main advantages are as follows.
Immunotherapy may be effective when other treatments have failed: Some cancers (such as skin cancer) do not respond well to radiation or chemotherapy, but after immunotherapy, they begin to fade away.It improves the effectiveness of other cancer treatments: In some cases, doctors prescribe immunotherapy to increase the effectiveness of conventional treatments such as chemotherapy.It has lesser side effects than other treatments: This is because it only affects your immune system and not all of your body’s cells.It’s possible that your cancer won’t come back: Your immune system learns to go after cancer cells if they reappear after immunotherapy. This is known as immune memory, and it may help you avoid cancer for longer.What are the side effects of immunotherapy? Immunotherapy side effects vary depending on the drug and the type of cancer.
Infusion-related reactions. Diarrhea or colitis Bone or muscle pain Fatigue Flu-like symptoms Headaches Loss of appetite Mouth sores Skin rash Shortness of breath Pneumonitis What kind of cancer can be treated with immunotherapy? Immunotherapy in India for cancer is used to treat various cancers some of them were:
Kidney cancer, liver cancer, and lung cancer Leukemia Lymphoma Prostate cancer Bladder cancer Brain cancer (brain tumor) Breast cancer Cervical cancer and ovarian cancer Colorectal (colon) cancer Head and neck cancer Skin cancer Who is a good candidate for immunotherapy? Immunotherapy eligibility is determined by the type and stage of your cancer, biomarkers expressed by your cancer, and whether current cancer treatment guidelines and data support immunotherapy in certain situations.
If you have any of the following symptoms, you may be a candidate for immunotherapy in India:
Your cancer has progressed. You have non-small cell lung cancer, which is most likely metastatic or advanced. Patients with advanced non-small-cell lung cancer who respond to immunotherapy live longer than those who do not receive immunotherapy, according to studies. Immunotherapy may be used to lower the risk of relapse in people who have had their non-metastatic cancer cured. Lung cancer and some melanomas are more prone to this. In genomic testing, if biomarkers are positive for PD-L1 expression, high microsatellite instability, or high tumor mutational burden. Immunotherapy may also be used in conjunction with chemotherapy, depending on the type of cancer.
Cost of immunotherapy in India In India, the average cost of immunotherapy for a single cycle ranges from 1 lakh to 1.5 lakhs. A cancer patient usually requires 3 – 4 cycles.
However other factors that can impact on the cost of immunotherapy were patient age, health condition, type of tumor, and stage of cancer.
Frequently asked questions and patient concerns: Q1. How is immunotherapy different from chemotherapy? Ans: Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cancer cells directly, but it can also harm other rapidly dividing cells, including normal cells. The treatment takes effect right away. Chemotherapy shows its effects immediately, on the other hand, The effects last as long as the treatment is continued.
Immunotherapy works by boosting the immune system’s response or teaching it to recognize and destroy cancer cells. Immunotherapy may take longer to work, but once it does, the effects can last for a long time.
Q2. How do you know if immunotherapy is effective? Ans: Your doctor will see you frequently. The doctor will examine you physically and inquire about your health. Medical tests, such as blood tests and various types of scans, will be performed on you. These tests will look for changes in your blood work and measure the size of your tumor.
Q3. How is immunotherapy given? Ans: Different types of immunotherapy can be given in various ways. Among them are:
Intravenous (IV) : Immunotherapy is injected directly into a vein.Oral : The immunotherapy is taken in the form of pills or capsules.Topical : Immunotherapy comes in the form of a cream that you apply to your skin. This type of immunotherapy can be used to treat skin cancer in its early stages.Intravesical : Immunotherapy is delivered directly to the bladder.Q4. How is immunotherapy administered? Ans: Patients usually receive immunotherapy infusions through a port or intravenous therapy (IV) at an outpatient oncology center. The dosage and frequency are governed by the doctor. Intervals between treatments can range from two to four weeks.
Q5. How effective is immunotherapy for cancer? Ans: Individual factors, such as cancer type and stage, influence the success rates of any cancer treatment, including immunotherapy. Immunotherapy is generally effective against a wide range of cancers.
While some cancers are more immunogenic than others. Immunotherapy, unlike chemotherapy or radiation, can produce long-lasting responses, but only about 25% of patients experience them.
Q6. Why is Immunotherapy not a first line of treatment? Ans: Immunotherapy is a new way to treat cancer and is still evolving. That’s the reason doctors prefer the other options which have more scientific data to treat cancer as the first line of treatment. However, Doctors have started using immunotherapy in combination and also when the other treatments options are exhausted.
MedicoExperts is a Global virtual hospital which is established to offer quality healthcare services at affordable pricing without compromising the success rates of the treatment. MedicoExperts is having a network of highly experienced super specialist doctors and well equipped hospitals across the globe and offering second opinion through online video consultation and surgical interventions through its empanelled super specialist doctors at its network hospitals in 17 countries from 3 continents. By the virtue of its approach and model, MedicoExperts is successfully achieve to deliver
Latest and most advanced treatments with success rates of international benchmarks. Multiple cost options depending upon the hospital facilities, with the same doctor. Treatment option in multiple cities/state/countries. Trust and peace of mind. Most suitable for patients who are looking for:-
Planned Surgeries and treatment from most experienced doctors and at multiple cost options as per hospital facilities with best possible outcomes. Second Opinion from expert doctors. Complex cases involving multi specialities International patients looking for treatment from Indian doctors |
Open Question Answering | 9 String Headless Guitar!
Multi-Scale Fan Fret Design
EMG-X active 9 string humbucker pickups
Smaller Lighter Body
Double cutaway, light weight, mahogany with burl ash top.
Contoured back for improved comfort
Adjustable dual action dual truss rod
Headless design for space and weight savings
Answer: As on any guitar, adjusting your intonation involves moving the guitar saddle towards or away from the nut so tuning below the 12th fret is more accurate.In the headless Agile Chiral (2021 and onwards) and Geodesic models this is done by loosening the hex screw (click to see red arrow) and sliding the entire saddle bridge forward or back.Note that string tension should always be reduced before adjusting and it may also help to temporarily lower the string height when adjusting the intonation.
Question: I am in the process of changing strings and I cannot get the bridge receiver to come all the way forward to insert the new string. Answer: It's likely that the ball end from the previous string may be stuck in the receiver. You may remove it by removing the bridge receiver and then taking out the ball send. See this video
Question: I was in the process of changing strings and the headlock has stripped Answer: Please follow this suggested procedure when changing strings to avoid cross-threading your string locks. First, whenever possible, when removing strings, simply loosen the string lock at the headstock and do no remove the screw completely. If you do happen to remove, carefully replace the screw, and tighten at least one full turn, being careful not to cross-thread BEFORE inserting the string. Secondly, remember this is not a floyd locking system. There is no need to overtighten the locking mechanism to fully secure the string.
n taking out the ball send. See this video
Question: What is the difference between passive and active pickups? Answer: A passive pickup is a magnetic pickup which directly sends the signal from your string, through the wood, into the pickup, and then into the amp which creates the most dynamic sound you can produce. Many artists prefer a passive pickup which enables a multitude of tones. Jeff Beck, Darrell Abbott, Eddie Van Halen, and Jimi Hendrix are prime examples of passive pickup users. An active pickup is powered by a separate battery stored in the guitar enabling higher output and overall balanced frequency. Many artists who are looking for a consistent sound such as in metal music use active pickups to achieve a powerful and consistent tone without compromising quality. Kirk Hammett and Kerry King use active electronics which enable them to push their amps near their limits and still retain a tight and focused clarity in their sound.
Question: I received my Agile and there is some fret buzz. What do I do? Answer: Your guitar was set up and buzz free when it was shipped. However the neck may have moved during shipment. This video should help: Set Up Tips . The video describes the set up for a 6 string guitar, but the concepts are the same for your 7 string guitar.
Question: What is your return policy for this item? Answer: See our detailed policy by clicking on "Return Policy" on the right side of the home page.
Question: Where is the Agile made? Answer: Agile guitars are made in South Korea, Indonesia, and Vietnam. |
Open Question Answering | 2017 June Cisco Official New Released 200-355 Dumps in Lead2pass.com!
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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: http://www.lead2pass.com/200-355.html
QUESTION 41 A wireless engineer has an access point using the 5.725-GHz channel in the United States. In which band is the AP operating?
A. UNII-1 B. UNII-2 C. UNII-2 Extended D. UNII-3
Answer: C
QUESTION 42 Which RRM feature allows an access point to avoid non-IEEE 802.11 interference?
A. DCA B. TPC C. RF groups D. coverage hole detection
Answer: A
QUESTION 43 Which IEEE 802.11n client feature can combine the signal from multiple antennas and radio chains to improve SNR?
A. channel aggregation B. spatial multiplexing C. MAC layer efficiency D. TxBF E. MRC F. MCS
Answer: E
QUESTION 44 An engineer needs an AP with at least two spatial streams, four receivers, and three transmitters. Which device meets these requirements?
A. 2×4:3 B. 2×3:4 C. 4×3:2 D. 3×4:2
Answer: D
QUESTION 45 Which option is used to form the BSSID in a BSS?
A. AP radio MAC address B. AP wired MAC address C. AP serial number D. client radio MAC address E. client wired MAC address F. client serial number
Answer: A
QUESTION 46 A network engineer at a retail store needs a wireless deployment that can be easily maintained and verified for PCI compliance. What solution will meet this need with the least work?
A. Cloud B. Autonomous C. FlexConnect D. Centralized
Answer: A
QUESTION 47 When using a Split MAC architecture, how many CAPWAP data tunnels will be built to an AP with four SSIDs across two VLANs?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Answer: A
QUESTION 48 A customer is using the access point GUI to upgrade the software on an autonomous access point to convert it to a lightweight access point. Which two transfer protocols are valid for conducting this transfer from the WLC? (Choose two.)
A. FTP B. RCP C. SFTP D. HTTP E. SCP F. TFTP
Answer: DF
QUESTION 49 An engineer wants to set up guest wireless that requires users to log in via a splash page prior to accessing the network. Which authentication method should be configured?
A. LDAP B. RADIUS C. local authentication D. WebAuth E. PSK
Answer: D
QUESTION 50 An engineer would like to setup secure authentication for a wireless network that will utilize single sign-on. Which two authentication methods can be used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. LDAP B. RADIUS C. Local authentication D. WEP E. PSK
Answer: AB
QUESTION 51 What suite of algorithms results in slower connection rates when using 802.11N technology?
A. WPA2 B. CCMP C. TKIP D. AES
Answer: C
QUESTION 52 An engineer assists a user in configuring an Android device for authentication to an IEEE 802.1x EAP WLAN with PEAPv1. The Phase 2 authentication should be configured as which option?
A. LEAP B. MSCHAPv2 C. TLS D. TTLS
Answer: B
QUESTION 53 Refer to the exhibit. Which two wireless functions is the client experiencing? (Choose two.)
A. Inter-controller Roaming B. Intra-controller Roaming C. Layer 2 Roaming D. Layer 3 Roaming E. Inter-subnet roaming F. Re-authentication
Answer: BC
QUESTION 54 What is the approximate time difference for a client to perform an intracontroller roam compared to an intercontroller roam?
A. 1 ms B. 10 ms C. 20 ms D. 30 ms
Answer: B
QUESTION 55 Which two attributes must be configured to match in order for WLCs to operate in the same mobility group? (Choose two.)
A. mobility domain name B. virtual IP address C. service interface address D. hardware model E. software version
Answer: AB
QUESTION 56 Which operating mode is valid for controllers in a converged access architecture?
A. switch peer groups B. mobility controller C. auto-anchor D. foreign anchor
Answer: B
QUESTION 57 An engineer wants to deploy a 2504 controller as the anchor controller for a guest WLAN that resides on a 5508 controller in a different mobility group. What configuration change must be applied to support this deployment strategy?
A. UDP 16666 and IP Protocol 97 must be enabled on the 2504 controller B. UDP 5246 and TCP Protocol 97 must be enabled on the router C. The 2504 controller must be added to the same mobility group as the 5508. D. DHCP Option 43 must be added to the neighboring switchport
Answer: C
QUESTION 58 A help desk engineer is attempting to perform a remote packet capture on the wireless network. Which access point mode is necessary to perform this function?
A. sniffer B. SE-Connect C. monitor D. rogue detector E. FlexConnect
Answer: A
QUESTION 59 Refer to the exhibit. A help desk ticket has been entered for the wireless infrastructure. A wireless client is not able to connect at IEEE 802.11n rates. Which option allows for connectivity?
A. Set WMM mode to Optional or Required. B. Set Quality of Service (QoS) to Silver. C. Set Quality of Service (QoS) to Platinum. D. Set 7920 AP CAC to Enabled.
Answer: A
QUESTION 60 An engineer has been asked to upgrade the FUS on the Wireless LAN controller. How can they monitor the status of the upgrade?
A. WLC GUI B. WLC CLI C. WLC Console D. WLC Management in Prime Infrastructure
Answer: C
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Open Question Answering | The best listeners are engaged with whatever they are listening to. This could be a lecture at school or a conversation with a friend. Have you ever spoken to a friend and then thought, ‘Oh, what did he just say?’ because you were daydreaming? You weren’t being a good listener! And this can happen in your IELTS Listening test too.
The introduction to the IELTS test goes something like this:
You will hear a number of different recordings. And you will have to answer questions on what you hear. There will be time for you to read the instructions and the questions, and you will have a chance to check your work. All the recordings will be played once only. The test is in four sections. At the end of the test you will be given a chance to transfer your answers to the answer sheet. (Note: The transfer time is not applicable to computer-delivered IELTS.)
The challenge in the Listening section is you have to listen, read, and write during the test. What’s more, you only hear the recording once — if you miss it, it’s gone forever. It may all seem difficult but there are things you can do before and during the test to improve your performance.
Practise good note-taking Since you only listen to the Listening audio once, your first step is to train yourself to be an attentive listener. One way to practise this is to listen to audios or watch videos and make good notes.
Take, for example, this TED talk by Sir Ken Robinson. As you watch, make notes on the following questions. The more information you have, the better.
What is Sir Ken ‘interested’ in? What does he believe about children? What does he want to talk about in his speech? He tells the story of a little girl. What is she doing? He tells the story of his son. What play was his son in? You can find the answers to these five questions in the first five minutes of the video (and at the end of this blog post).
Look before you listen Spend some time looking at the questions. There is some time set aside specifically for you to read through the instructions and the questions. You can use this time to anticipate the kind of information you are listening for.
So, what sort of information can you expect to hear? Is it a name, a topic, an idea, a belief? What words do you expect to hear? For example, when you are listening for what he ‘believes’ in, you might hear ‘I think…’ or ‘I’m sure that..’, or ‘It seems to me that…’ or ‘It’s my belief that…’. As well as listening for different phrases, it is important to listen for synonyms too.
Start practising! You can improve your ability as an engaged listener by listening to talks, listening to music and watching movies – you’ll be getting better by doing the things you like! Start by taking notes of talks that interest you (check out this list). Then go to Road to IELTS and do some more free IELTS Listening activities. Better yet, try a Road to IELTSpractice Listening test to see how you’re doing. You can access it here. Remember that becoming a good note-taker is just one way you can improve your listening score. Take a look at 2 other things you can do to improve here.
Answers: Q: What is Sir Ken ‘interested’ in? A: ‘I have an interest in education.’ Q: What does he believe about children? A: ‘They have extraordinary capacities for innovation…. All kids have tremendous talent.’ Q: And what does he want to talk about in his speech? A: ‘I want to talk about education. And I want to talk about creativity.’ Q: He tells the story of a little girl. What is she doing? A: ‘The girls said ‘I’m drawing a picture of God.’ Q: He tells the story of his son. What play was his son in? A: ‘He was in the nativity play.’ |
Open Question Answering | A Clinical Research Administrator job description involves managing clinical research studies in the science industry. It's their responsibility to ensure that research projects meet all ethical, regulatory, and legal requirements. These individuals oversee the budget and timeline of a research study, while ensuring data accuracy and quality control.
Clinical Research Administrators also coordinate with various stakeholders like medical professionals, funding agencies, and research teams. They manage documents like informed consents, progress reports, and clinical trial agreements. They provide guidance to study coordinators, provide training to new team members, and support initiatives that improve clinical research processes.
To enter this profession, candidates need to have a bachelor's degree in a related field like life sciences, nursing, or healthcare administration. Many Clinical Research Administrators hold a Master's Degree in one of these fields. They should have excellent problem-solving, organizational, and communication skills. A strong ability to work in a team and attention to detail are also essential.
• Ensure compliance with regulations and protocols to protect the safety and welfare of study participants
• Manage budgets, grant applications, and financial reports for research projects
• Facilitate communication between research teams, sponsors, and regulatory authorities
• Develop and implement strategies to streamline operations and improve efficiency in research processes
• Monitor recruitment and retention of study participants, and maintain accurate records of study data
• Assist in the preparation of research proposals, IRB submissions, and study-related presentations
• Provide guidance and training to research staff on the conduct of clinical trials and compliance with regulations
• Coordinate the logistics of research studies, including scheduling, equipment procurement, and supply management
• Collaborate with other departments on study-related activities, such as data management and statistical analysis
To become a Clinical Research Administrator in the Science industry, you need to have a bachelor's degree in a relevant field like biology, or nursing. Strong communication, organizational, and multitasking skills are necessary. Experience in the clinical research field is a must, and this includes experience in conducting, monitoring, and managing clinical trials or projects. Candidates should also have knowledge of regulatory requirements and ethics involved in clinical research. In addition to education and experience, they should possess strong computer skills and be able to work independently or as part of a team. A Clinical Research Administrator must also have excellent attention to detail and possess strong analytical and problem-solving skills.
A Clinical Research Administrator has a significant role in the science industry, and their salary range is worth considering. In the United States, a Clinical Research Administrator earns an average salary ranging from $51,000 to $95,000 annually according to Payscale. However, other factors like experience, location, and academic credentials can impact their salary range. For instance, a Clinical Research Administrator in Boston earns approximately $71,121 per year on average, which is 26% above the national average. Meanwhile, the same role in Sydney, Australia, can bring in a salary range of AUD 70,000 to AUD 110,000 annually. The salary range for a Clinical Research Administrator varies and one should consider factors that contribute to it.
Sources:
If you're interested in becoming a Clinical Research Administrator in the Science industry, then there is good news for you. The career outlook is promising and the demand for these professionals is expected to increase over the next five years.
According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, the employment of Medical and Health Services Managers, which includes Clinical Research Administrators, is projected to grow by 20% from 2016 to 2026, much faster than the average for all occupations. This growth is due to the aging population and increasing demand for healthcare services.
Clinical Research Administrators are essential in managing clinical trials, ensuring compliance with regulations, and analyzing data. As pharmaceutical and biotech industries continue to expand, there will be a greater need for Clinical Research Administrators to oversee the research more effectively.
Overall, the demand for Clinical Research Administrators is increasing, and the profession shows no signs of slowing down. It is an excellent opportunity for those who want a competitive salary, job security, and a fulfilling career in the Science industry.
Sources:
Bureau of Labor Statistics - Medical and Health Services Managers
Clinical Research Administrators Association
Q: What does a Clinical Research Administrator do?
A: A Clinical Research Administrator is responsible for the management and coordination of clinical trials, ensuring compliance with regulations, recruiting and supervising research staff, and overseeing budgets.
Q: What qualifications do I need to become a Clinical Research Administrator?
A: Most employers require a Bachelor's degree in a related field, such as biology, chemistry, or health sciences. A Master's degree in Clinical Research Administration can also be helpful.
Q: What are some important skills for a Clinical Research Administrator to possess?
A: A Clinical Research Administrator should have strong organizational and communication skills, attention to detail, problem-solving abilities, and knowledge of clinical trial regulations and processes.
Q: What are some common challenges faced by Clinical Research Administrators?
A: Some common challenges include managing multiple trials and stakeholders simultaneously, navigating complex regulatory requirements, and ensuring participant safety and data integrity.
Q: What is the career outlook for Clinical Research Administrators?
A: According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, employment of Medical and Health Services Managers, which includes Clinical Research Administrators, is projected to grow 32 percent from 2019 to 2029, much faster than the average for all occupations. |
Open Question Answering | wbjee Examination result 2022 The WBJEE Result 2022 will be released online on the official website of WBJEEB. The examination was conducted on April 30th and it is not clear. The Joint Entrance Exam for the state of West Bengal was completed on April 30th, and all the students who took it are now eagerly awaiting their results. The date of releasing the WBJEE result 2022 is not available yet but it can be expected that the result will be released by the officials soon, West Bengal JEE result will be released online on the official portal of WBJEEB. The examination is being conducted for the 2022-23 session. Through this exam, candidates will get admission into the undergraduate courses in engineering, technology, architecture, and pharmacy. All the applicants are advised to read the following article thoroughly as we have mentioned the latest update on the WBJEE Result 2022. WBJEE Result 2022 Is there any update?As per the latest news, the result for this test is expected to be released by the officials in a few days.
wbjee Examination result 2022 WBJEEB will conduct OMR based Common Entrance Examination (WBJEE-2022 ) for admission in the academic session 2022-23 into Undergraduate Courses in Engineering & Technology, Pharmacy and Architecture of different Universities, Government Colleges as well as Self Financing Engineering & Technological Institutes in the State of West Bengal.
Tentative date of examination: 30th April 2022 (Saturday) .
Tentative date to start online application: 24th December 2021.
The result of WBJEE 2022 comprises details related to marks secured by the candidates in WBJEE 2022 along with other personal details. Applicants shortlisted on the basis of WBJEE result 2022 will be eligible for admission into the undergraduate engineering courses offered by the participating institutions of the West Bengal.
wbjee Examination result 2022 Date and Time
WBJEE exam date 2022 April 30, 2022 WBJEE result date 2022
After June 12
WBJEE 2022 result tme
To be notified
WBJEE 2022 official website
wbjeeb.nic.in
Details required to check WBJEE 2022 result
Application number and password
Commencement of WBJEE Counselling 2022
To be notified
Steps How to check wbjee Examination result 2022? Candidates will be able to access the WBJEE 2022 result from the official website using their application number and password. The result of WBJEE 2022 will be released for the candidates who appeared in the entrance exam. Follow step by step guide to check WBJEE result 2022 is given below.
Visit the official website of WBJEE – wbjeeb.nic.in 2022.
Click on the WBJEE 2022 results link available on the web.
Login using the application number and password.
Upon successful login, the result of WBJEE 2022 will be displayed on the screen.
Download and take a printout of it.
Information Mentioned on wbjee Examination result 2022 Following details will be mentioned in the result of WBJEE 2022 –
Name of the candidate.
Roll number.
Rank secured in WBJEE 2022.
Total scores obtained.
Individual scores in Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics.
Date of birth.
Category.
Domicile.
Application number.
Gender.
wbjee Examination result 2022 – Tie Breaking Procedure In case two or more candidates have secured the same marks in WBJEE 2022 result then the authorities follow the tie-breaking procedure to allot ranks. The WBJEE tie-breaking procedure is given below.
Candidates with less collective negative marks in PCM will be given a higher rank.
If the tie is still not broken, then the candidates with more collective positive marks in PCM will be allotted a higher WBJEE rank.
Otherwise, the candidates with more positive marks in Mathematics and Chemistry taken together will be given a higher rank.
If the tie still persists, then the candidates with less negative marks in Mathematics and Physics taken together will be given a higher rank.
Those candidates with less negative marks in Mathematics and Chemistry taken together will be allotted a higher rank, if the tie still exists.
If the authorities are still not able to resolve the tie, then the candidates with more positive marks in Mathematics for only the 2 marks questions will be given a higher rank.
If the tie still exists, then the candidates with more positive marks in Physics for only the 2 marks questions will be allotted a higher rank.
Candidates with more positive marks in Chemistry for only the 2 marks questions will be given a higher rank if the tie still persists.
If the tie is still ongoing, the candidates with less negative marks in Mathematics for only the 2 marks questions will be allotted a higher rank.
If the tie still persists, candidates with less negative marks in Physics for only the 2 marks questions will be given a higher rank.
If the authorities are not able to break the tie, the candidates with less negative marks in Chemistry for only the 2 marks questions will be allotted a higher WBJEE rank.
If all of the above criteria fails to break the tie, then the candidates will be allotted a higher rank on the basis of age. Older candidates will be given higher preference for admission.
wbjee Examination result 2022 – Points to Remember The result of WBJEE 2022 will be released on the official website.
The WBJEE 2022 result will mention candidates’ All India Rank and marks secured by them in total and also individual scores of each subject in WBJEE result 2022 rank list.
Candidates who do not download the score card/ rank card of WBJEE within specified dates will have to pay additional charges for downloading the scorecard.
Students must keep their WBJEE result saved with them until the admission process is over.
wbjee Examination result – Previous Year’s Statistics Particular
Details
Number of students registered for WBJEE 2021
92,695
Students appeared in the exam
65,170 (71%)
Students passed WBJEE exam
64,850 (99.5 %)
Male candidates appeared
74%
Female candidates appeared
26%
Here are wbjee Examination result 2022 Participating Institutes Candidates who will be declared qualified in the WBJEE result 2022 will be eligible to attend the counselling for admission into the participating institutes. Management will be based on the performance in the WBJEE result.A total of 29 institutes will be participating in the WBJEE result 2022 along with 15 sponsoring institutes. The participating institutes are:
1
Jadavpur University, Kolkata
2
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad University of Technology, Kolkata
3
Bidhan Chandra Krishi Viswavidyalaya
4
Haldia Institute of Technology
5
Heritage Institute of Technology, Kolkata
6
Kalyani Government Engineering College, Nadia
7
Academy of Technology, Adisaptagram, Hooghly
8
Government College of Engineering & Ceramic Technology, Kolkata
9
Goverment College of Engineering and Leather Technology, Kolkata
10
Government College of Engineering and Textile Technology, Berhampore
Frequently Asked Question (FAQs) – wbjee Examination result 2022 (Soon) Question: How can I download WBJEE 2022 results? Answer:
To check WBJEE result 2022, candidates will have to visit the official website and log into the result portal using the application number and password.
Question: Where will the authorities release the WBJEE results? Answer:
The WBJEE 2022 result will be declared soon on the official website – wbjeeb.nic.in
Question: What are the credentials required to check my WBJEE 2022 result? Answer:
To check the result of WBJEE 2022, the candidates will have to log in using their application number and password.
Question: Will my individual subject scores also be available in WBJEE 2022 result? Answer:
Yes. The secured individual subject scores along with total obtained scores and ranks will be released through the result of WBJEE 2022.
Question: How are my scores used to create WBJEE merit list? Answer:
The authorities will use the allotted ranks to prepare the merit list of WBJEE 2022. Those candidates who are listed in the WBJEE 2022 merit list will be able to participate in the counselling session.
Question: Will I need my WBJEE result 2022 during the counselling session? Answer:
Absolutely yes. Candidates are advised to download and keep the WBJEE 2022 result/score card safely till the entire admission process is over.
Question: Will I be able to check my rank in the WBJEE result? Answer:
Yes. Candidates will be able to check the rank secured by them in WBJEE 2022 exam after the declaration of result.
Question: When will WBJEE 2022 result be declared? Answer:
WBJEE result date is June 5 (tentative). |
Open Question Answering | Conservation efforts have led to an increase in lion populations in Indian national parks. The Asiatic lion, found only in India, was on the brink of extinction in the 1990s with only 180 remaining individuals. However, recent efforts by the Indian government to protect and conserve these big cats have led to their population increasing to over 600 individuals in recent years. Gir Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park has seen the largest increase in population as a result of reduced human interference and reintroduction of lions to new areas. Other national parks have also seen population increases, with plans to decentralize the habitat to ensure their long-term survival.
Lion Populations Increase in Indian National Parks India’s majestic lions have been on the verge of extinction, with their population dwindling considerably over the past few years. However, recent conservation efforts have helped in the increase of lion populations in Indian national parks. The government’s initiative in protecting and conserving these big cats has been a welcome sight for conservationists, wildlife enthusiasts and tourists alike.
The Success Story of Asiatic Lion Conservation in India Asiatic lions are found only in India, specifically in the forests of Gir in Gujarat. In the 1990s, this species was on the verge of extinction, with only 180 individuals remaining. The Indian government then launched various conservation efforts, resulting in the population of Asiatic lions increasing to over 600 individuals in recent years.
The success story of the Asiatic lion has been largely attributed to the conservation measures taken in the forests of Gir Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park. This has included measures such as reducing human interference in their habitats and reintroducing lions to new areas beyond the boundaries of the national park.
Increasing Populations in Other National Parks Apart from Gir Wildlife Sanctuary, other national parks in India, such as Nagarhole National Park and Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve, have also seen an increase in lion populations. In 2018, Narendra Modi, the prime minister of India, announced the release of Asiatic lions in Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh to decentralize their habitat.
Although this move was opposed by wildlife activists, the government has stated that the initiative will ensure the long-term survival of Asiatic lions by reducing over-dependence on a single national park. This will also allow more lions to thrive in different national parks, ultimately leading to an increase in the lion population nationwide.
Conservation Measures Taken The Indian government has taken significant steps to ensure the protection of these big cats. They have set up conservation centers and invested in training necessary staff, equipped with modern technology to monitor their habitats. The government has also taken efforts to increase the area under national parks and has formulated plans to maintain a sustainable lion population.
FAQs Q: Are Asiatic lions different from African lions? A: Yes, Asiatic lions are a subspecies of the African lion and found only in India.
Q: Which national park is known for its population of Asiatic lions? A: Gir Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park in Gujarat is known for its population of Asiatic lions.
Q: What is the reason behind the success of lion conservation in Indian national parks? A: The success of lion conservation in Indian national parks can be attributed to a combination of factors, including reducing human interference in their habitats, reintroducing lions to new areas beyond the boundaries of the national park, and improving conservation efforts in the forests of Gir Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park.
Q: How has the government contributed to the increase in lion populations in Indian national parks? A: The Indian government has set up conservation centers, invested in training necessary staff, and equipped them with modern technology to monitor lion habitats. They have also increased the area under national parks and formulated plans to maintain a sustainable lion population. |
Open Question Answering | When we are talking about some celebrity in our blog then we should and must discuss a very famous and popular social media celebrity her name is Hongkongdoll.
She is very famous all over the world. But she was born in China and her father is an American nationality holder. She was only born in Shanghai, China but lives in the United States of America. So we can say that she has both countries’ ancestors in her blood. She is half Chinese and half American personality. In this article, we are going to share all the related details of this famous and popular Instagram and Onlyfans celebrity.
Who is Hongkongdoll? Hongkongdoll is a Chinese and American-based actress & social media celebrity. She is very popular and famous for her bold and sexy pictures and videos. Moreover, Hongkong has a popular star not only in China but in America too. And she is also a social media personality. Hongkong is an influencer and she worked as an adult model and star too for various websites. Moreover, she is a very cute and gorgeous personality. And she is becoming an internet sensation.
Hongkongdoll decision of modeling and acting: She has worked with many versatile brands and many kinds of modeling studios. Hongkong has come into the limelight of social media and other modeling networks after the cute accident. When she was only a teen girl then she came and stepped into the modeling world. She is a very sexy adult model too. She is doing many adult and po*n videos for various websites. And thus she has succeeded to reach brilliant followers over there. Then she decided to post her sexy pictures on her social media accounts. And in this way, she also gained huge followers due to her killer looks.
Hongkongdoll pictures & videos viral controversies: Hongkongdoll is among the most trending and popular models in the adult world. And she is also becoming a famous model on the po*n world website. She has done many roles in this industry. And due to her notorious roles, she has received many controversies. Moreover, she is also an active member of the adult video industry. Hongkong has worked with various types of top brands & studios in the adult and modeling industry.
Also, Hongkong is well-known as an adult star and icon. She has worked with so many famous adult male stars for making her videos and pictures over the internet.
All her videos and pictures took storm on the internet and also in the fashion industry. Her picture wearing a mask is also gone viral these days.
In this article, we will share and discuss all the information about her wiki, biography, age, height, birthday, profile, and videos also. We will also discuss her latest and ex-boyfriend’s rumors and controversies for our readers here.
Hongkongdoll childhood life: As we all know that Hongkong is a very talented model and Instagram celebrity. But she is also famous as an influencer. Hongkong is working with so many top-notch brands and also for many adult male actors and models.
Also, Honkongdoll was born on the 1st of August 1994 in Shanghai, China. Her mother is a Chinese woman and she fell in love with an American man. They both decided to marry but her mother did not want to leave her beloved country. So, they decide to give birth to her first child in China. Further, they brought up their child in America.
So, Hongkong has a duo effect on her personality, she is looking like a Chinese girl but she has the qualities of an American too. She has duo nationality.
Hongkong is only a 27-year-old model and actress. And her sun and birth sign is Gemini. When Hongkong was very young then she left China and shifted to America for further livelihood with her loving parents. Hongkong is a very hardworking girl and model.
Hongkongdoll early education: She did and finished her schooling time at a local high school in Shanghai, China. And there she got very good marks and percentages. And then Hongkong has graduated from the University Of Washington, America.
She wanted to become a professional model & influencer in the American film industry. But Hongkong could not make her real value in Hollywood. Then this model decided to become a social media star and also a social media model.
Hongkong has created so many accounts on famous social media platforms. And she is doing it for only being famous there. She gained a huge following after her pictures and videos went viral on these platforms. Moreover, Hongkong has placed and made a good name in the adult industry. She also found huge success in AV Movies & web series.
HongKongDoll parents & siblings information: Hongkongdoll was born and raised by her parents in China. As we tell about her that she is a Chinese lady and her father is an America. But all family lived with her mother in China. Then her mother shifted with her children. And she wanted to live with her husband, which is living in America.
She did not share her parents’ names but most media resources are claiming that, her father’s name is Mr. Hong Kong and her mother’s name is Mrs. Hong Kong as well.
She has three younger siblings, but we did not know their names and professions too. She is a private personality and celebrity. Even she did not tell and share any little info about them on social media.
Hongkongdoll modeling and social media career: As Hongkong has started her social media career with many reputed production companies. And she has done so much work for them. Hongkongdoll has started her modeling journey and career as a model in Hub or as an AV actress.
And she has a perfect and flexible body. She has been seen in many romantic and adult scenes as well. Therefore, she has seen many brutal scenes in videos. Hongkong has adopted her acting and modeling as a career according to the situation and mood also
Hongkongdoll and her leading roles: She has performed various significant and famous roles like a student, teacher, girlfriend, friend, step-family, and many other related characters on adult websites. Hongkong is a very confident and strong model and actor for AV movies and videos. Hongkong has seen many acting roles in films and she also performs different scenes full of passion and love. She can take any risks to make her scene fantastic and near to real.
HongKongDoll height, weight & body Measurements: She has the perfect height of 5 feet and 6 inches tall. And her weight is 48 Kg only. She has blonde hair and she has dark green eyes. Hongkong has very deep green eyes. Every fan of hers is wanting to dip into her eyes.
Hongkong’s dress size is 4 according to the US and her shoe size is 7 according to the US standard. She has the perfect body measurement 32B-24-34. Hongkong has a cute smile on her face, and she also has an attractive figure.
She has a very flirty voice. Hongkong is making many adult films and videos of her. And she is also playing the role of flirting. And she is making many romantic videos.
HongKongDoll Net Worth and income details: According to the survey of 2022, she has a total net worth of and it is estimated to be USD 100K. And her main source of income is coming from the adult industry and modeling projects. And Hongkong is doing many films and web series for the adult and modeling industry.
Interesting facts and figures about Hongkongdoll: There are some interesting facts and figure about her personality following here:
She is the best person and a celebrity. And she is very kind and courteous
She is not telling about her school name and she is not telling about her college name. But, she got graduated from high school and a local school in Shanghai, China. And her college and University are the best in reputation in Shanghai, China.
She has 3 younger siblings. Although, we have not known any relationships or sibling information about them. Hong Kong has no ex-boyfriend nor any husband in her career life. Her favorite hobbies are photoshoots, Makeup, Shopping, and Beach relaxation.
And HongKong has a total net worth is about USD 100K. And her net income sources are acting & modeling too.
Her favorite colors are Black, Pink, Blue & Red. Hong Kong has some of my favorite actors Tom Cruise and Jimmy Michael. And her favorite female actress is Angela Jolie and Christine. Her favorite destination is Paris and New York and of course, China also.
She is a very gorgeous and charming personality. And her every picture is going viral over the internet.
She becomes famous at a very young age and also from her college life. Also, She started her modeling career and acting career at an early age on many social media platforms.
She is also famous on Instagram and Only Fans accounts.
Hong Kong is also well known and famous all over the United States of America and China. Because she has two nationalities.
Hong Kong has double the qualities of China and the United States of America. Her Instagram username can be found easily on @HongKong00.
As we all know, she was born in Shanghai in China.
6: She loves to wear utterly modern clothes and pieces of jewelry.
Hong Kong OnlyFans account: She is also available on her OnlyFans platform. And her Onlyfans subscription is free for all her premium users and followers. She is famous and popular due to her adult and bold modeling videos and pictures on her Instagram and OnlyFans accounts. And she is also famous on many other social media accounts.
She has a fit and perfect body and Hongkongdoll has an accuracy of all her social resources. We can see all her stunning adult pictures and videos which are taken from all her social media handles.
She loves to make amazing reels and videos for all her social media accounts and handles. We can easily check out all her sizzling performances. We can also check out her most amazing viral videos and pictures on her social media accounts.
She loves to make many Tiktok and Instagram videos. And we can easily check out all her performances and availability. She is a fashion enthusiast and is also known as a big personality. And her Instagram and TikTok account is full of adult and bold pictures and videos also.
Hongkong has an Instagram account and also has a Twitch account. Hong Kong has loaded with 3.9M+ fans and followers on above mention accounts.
Most Frequent Asked Questions about Hongkongdoll (FAQs) 1: Does Hongkongdoll drinks alcohol? Ans: No, she does not drink.
2: Does she smokes a cigarette? Ans: No, she is not smoking.
3: Who is Hongkongdoll? Ans: Hongkongdoll is a Chinese and American model and social media celebrity, and actor. And she is also a big personality in the adult modeling industry.
4: Where was Hongkongdoll born? Ans: She was born in Shanghai, China.
7: What is her height? Ans: Hongkong stands 5 feet and 5 inches.
8: What is her body figure? Ans: Hongkongdoll is hot, curvy, and has amazing body features and she has measured as 32B-24-34.
9: What is her total net worth of her? Ans: As of 2022, Hongkong has a total net worth is estimated to be $100K.
11: What is her occupation of her? Ans: She is a famous and popular adult star.
Disclaimer: The all detail about this famous personality and hot celebrity is taken from different websites. And we do not have 100% original content and guarantee.
The Final Words: HongKongDoll is a very famous model and hot celebrity. She is also known as an adult model on various websites. And she has various social media accounts and also has millions of fans and followers on her accounts. |
Open Question Answering | The Finance Act 2017 introduced the latest Section 92CE of the Income Tax Act. This section of the Income Tax law deals with secondary adjustments on transfer pricing. Besides, before including this section, the Income Tax Department did not try to make any secondary adjustments for the difference between ALP (Arm’s Length Price) and the actual price.
Read on to learn all about Section 92CE of the Income Tax Act – what is it, its provisions and sub-sections.
The primary purpose of introducing transfer pricing is to bring parity in a transaction between Associated Enterprises (Related/Dependent Party) and Third Party (Unrelated/Independent Party). Here, one cannot claim tax benefits by entering into tax beneficial transactions with Associated Enterprises.
Transfer pricing refers to an accounting practice when an exchange of goods and services happens between two divisions of the same company. Through transfer pricing, organisations can save on taxes. Companies use this practice to reduce the tax burden on the parent company. However, tax authorities can contest these claims.
For instance, an Indian Company A buys goods worth ₹80 from their USA associate entity B at ₹100. As a result, Company A takes a deduction of ₹20 and ends up saving ₹20 on taxes. Hence, multinational companies manage to save millions through this practice. However, to curb these practices government introduced s ection 92CE of the Income Tax Act.
This section mandated transfer pricing regulation. For example, Company A must record its transactions at “Arm’s length price” (ALP). In this case, the ALP is ₹80, and the adjustment in taxable income will be ₹20. This is known as primary adjustment; however, this leads to a loss of Government funds. As a result, the GoI formed guidelines of section 92CE to bring back those funds.
Section 92CE aligns transfer pricing provisions with best international practices. Moreover, this section offers secondary adjustments in specific cases. Further, these secondary adjustments can be made if there are primary adjustments made to transfer prices like:
Sub-Section 92CE(1)
As per this sub-section, the assessee should make secondary adjustments to transfer prices specified by the primary adjustments. The provisions of section 92 (1) of income tax have specific exemptions like:
Sub-Section 92CE(2)
The provision under this sub-section provides excess money available with the associate enterprises that should be sent back to India. Further, the funds should be repatriated within the prescribed time. Moreover, there are 4 divisions in this sub-section.
Without bias to sub-section (2) provisions, where the excess money or part thereof has not been sent back within the set time, the assessee may have to pay an additional 18% income tax on the excess funds or part thereof.
Taxes that the assessee pays as per the guidelines of sub-section 2A will be treated as the final payment. Moreover, the assessee cannot claim back the taxes.
Deduction on paid taxes will not be allowed to the assessee under this act.
The assessee needs to make secondary adjustments on taxes paid under sub-section 2A. Further, individuals should calculate under the guidelines of sub-section (2). Additionally, they should make the secondary adjustments under sub-section (1).
After the introduction of section 92 CE of the income tax act, taxpayers have to be more careful while entering into international transactions. Moreover, GoI introduced this section to bring the excess funds into the Indian economy. However, experts find it challenging to conclude its purpose because of the ambiguous language employed to draft this section.
Ans: The term primary adjustment is a means to determine transfer price based on ALP. Further, the ALP increases total income or decreases losses.
Ans: One can use the following methods to calculate ALP: Profit Split Method Resale Price Method Comparable Uncontrolled Price Method Cost Plus Method Transaction Net Margin Method Board prescribed methods
Ans: The time limit is 90 days.
Ans: The rate of interest is 3.25% for the Indian rupee and 3.00% for foreign denominations.
Ans: Some exemptions are: The amount should not be from the previous financial year Should not exceed ₹1 crore Taxpayers should make primary adjustments under AY 2016-2017
This article is solely for educational purposes. Navi doesn't take any responsibility for the information or claims made in the blog.
Section 112A Section 50 Section 245 Section 80QQB Section 32AD Section 250 Section 35D Section 143 (1a) Section 115BAB Section 143 Section 79 Section 140A Section 17(2) Section 3 Section 94A Section 147 Section 80 Section 40A Section 48 Section 115AD Section 14A Section 45 Section 285BA Section 6 Section 36 Section 87A Section 80GGA Section 244A Section 234E Section 28 Section 197 Sectio 548 Section 194J(1)(ba) Section 145A Section 80P Section 92CD
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Open Question Answering | Course of Action 1 This type of reasoning questions consists of a statement which is followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to analyze the problem discussed in the statement and decide which course of action should be followed to solve the problem.
1) Statement: A severe drought is reported in many states of the country.
I. The government should immediately provide financial assistance to the people of the affected states.
In this situation, the government should think about saving the lives of people and livestock by providing basic amenities like food and water. Providing financial assistance will not provide immediate relief and would put an extra burden on the funds.
2) Statement: A large number of people in the city die every year due to polluted drinking water.
I. The government should make necessary arrangements to provide safe drinking water to the people of the city.
In this situation, the government should provide safe drinking water as well as spread awareness about the ill effects of drinking contaminated water.
3) Statement: Due to repeated crop failures, the villagers are facing financial problems and migrating to urban areas.
I. The government should provide villagers alternate source of income so that their income is not affected by crop failure.
Migration to urban areas is not a solution, i.e., it will increase the burden on the city?s infrastructure. So, the villagers should have some alternate source of income so that they can continue earning even if their crop fails.
4) Statement: The sale of the product of a company has decreased significantly; the company is worried about the future of the product.
I. The company should analyze the rival products available in the market.
By analyzing the rival products, the company can understand why people are not buying its product. Lowering the price and improving the quality is not the right solution.
5) Statement: The education minister discussed the importance of flexibility in the education system and regretted that the curriculum had not been revised to match the changing needs of students and the education system.
I. The education system should be made more flexible.
The situation demands that the education system should be more flexible and should be revised periodically.
Course of Action 2
Course of Action 3
Course of Action 4
Next Topic |
Open Question Answering | Most of the sites mentioned above are usually tricks and can damage your device with destructive substances. Currently, with Brazzerpasswords2019-2020 Apk, you don't have to pay an expensive amount for your browser's monthly subscription. You can watch it for free.
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Open Question Answering | If a doctor prescribes tylenol iii with codeine, he or she has prescribed a __________. a. stimulant b. depressant c. narcotic d. hallucinogen please select the Question a. stimulant
b. depressant
c. narcotic
d. hallucinogen please select the best answer from the choices provided. a b c d
2 Answer The right option is c. narcotic Tylenol iii with codeine belongs to the group of medications called narcotic analgesics (pain relievers). Narcotics are drugs that are administered to provide relief from severe pain. Narcotics are sometimes prescribed when other forms of pain relievers are not working. Examples of narcotics are hydrocodone, codeine, tramadol and opium.
Answer: It would be c. :)
Explanation: ed. 2020 |
Open Question Answering | What to Expect APPLY TO VOTE AT THE REGISTRAR’S TABLE You will go to the appropriate registrar based on the first letter of your last name.
The registrar will look up your name in the poll book and have you complete an application for ballot.
On your application you will indicate which election you wish to vote in (if more than one is being held).
VIEW VOTING MACHINE DEMONSTRATION When you first come into the polling place, the first thing you will do is receive a demonstration on how to vote on the new E-Slate Voting Machine
RECEIVE VOTER ACCESS CODE FROM BALLOT CLERK After applying to vote at the registrar’s table, you will then proceed to the ballot clerk.
The ballot clerk will issue you a randomly printed 4-digit access code number which you will use to pull up your correct ballot on the E-Slate voting machine.
VOTE ON THE E-SLATE Once you receive your access code number from the ballot clerk, you will then go to an empty voting booth and cast your ballot on the E-Slate.
At any time during this process, you may request that an election official assist you in voting.
If you request assistance, both the Democratic and Republican Judge must accompany each other in giving you assistance.
IF YOU HAVE A CHANGE OF ADDRESS If you have moved since the last election but did not update your address with the election commission, you will be sent to the Officer of Elections who will call our office to see which precinct you will need to go to in order to vote based on your new address.
If you are at the correct voting precinct based on your new address, then you will have to complete a Change of Address Form (also called a Fail-Safe Form)
Once that is complete you will be sent to the ballot clerk to receive your 4-digit voter access code and then proceed to vote.
If you are at the wrong precinct, then the Officer of Elections will send you to your correct voting precinct with a completed (Change of Address/Fail-Safe Form).
According to election law, you must vote in the precinct in which you live.
IF YOUR NAME IS NOT ON THE POLL BOOKS AT THE PRECINCT YOU APPLY TO VOTE IN You will be sent to the Officer of Elections who will call our office to see if you are registered to vote and if you are at the correct voting precinct. More often than not the voter is at the wrong precinct. If you are registered to vote and at the wrong voting precinct (based on your residence address), the Officer of Elections will direct you to your correct voting precinct.
If you are at the correct voting precinct but we cannot find that you are registered to vote, and you claim that you registered to vote at a particular agency, the only alternative that you have is to vote a Provisional Ballot. You will first complete an application to vote by provisional ballot. Then you will be handed a paper ballot to vote on and place in a provisional ballot envelope and deposited in the provisional ballot box. Note- whether or not your provisional vote will count will be based on whether or not we can verify that you actually did register to vote with another agency.
QUESTIONS:
Question: Can I wear a Campaign T-shirt, hat, jacket, etc. into the polling place when I vote?
Answer: No. Tennessee law prohibits anyone from displaying any campaign clothing or soliciting voters within 100 feet from the entrance to the polling place. However, you may do so outside the 100 foot boundary. If you walk into the polling place with a campaign hat on, you will be allowed to vote only if you take off the hat and do not show it to anyone. If you have a campaign shirt on you will be asked to immediately leave the polling place to go home and change. However, if you can cover up the shirt with a jacket so no one else can see it, then you will be allowed to vote. Sorry, this is state law.
Question: Is it OK to have a bumper sticker on my car when I pull into the polling place to vote?
Answer: Yes, but only long enough to go inside the polling place and vote, and then you must remove your vehicle from inside the 100 foot boundary once you have finished voting. |
Open Question Answering | Security Survey: Clear Water Bay - Part 2 of 3 Part one recap:
In part one, we shared and discussed some low quality installation and careless design on floodlights, security cameras, and infra-red motion sensors. Let's continue!
Part two: false sense of security
This gate shown in the photo was a back door that was not very frequently used, but nonetheless served the same purpose as the main entrance as long as security was concerned.
So was there anything wrong with this gate?
Short answer: Plenty.
Long answer:
1) Start from the top. The protruding spike wires were severed and significantly rusted. That showed lack of maintenance and limited attention by residents; thus posed a low level of psychological deterrence, weak physical denial capability, and therefore crime inviting.
2) Just below the spike wires, there was an infra-red motion sensor . If you have read part one, you would notice the obvious issues. Another problem was the sensor direction. The sensor seemed to be trying to protect the top of the door on the right hand side, but with the sensor placed inside the plastic box, the angle of detection was impaired.
3) Now the gate itself. The gate was tall and sturdy enough to be an effective barrier, but at least three areas required improvement works:
a) the horizontal metal plates across the door provided ways for stepping and climbing;
b) the door hinges should be installed on the secured side instead of what was shown in the photo;
c) the plastic cable containment should be replaced with metal conduit. Why invest in a sturdy metal gate but go cheap in the cable containment? Security is always only as good as the weakest link, and criminals crave weaknesses!
4) Moving on to the drainage tank at the lower right hand side of the photo. The tank was exposed and not enclosed by the metal gate was most probably due to the need of access by the maintenance staff.
However, the three-pieced tank cover was removable and could provide ample room for an adult to gain access. If maintenance staff were to arrive from outside, then the metal gate shall enclose the secured side of the tank from inside out; vice versa if staff were to arrive from inside.
5) Lastly, the keypad device . Let's assume the keypad device was of reasonable quality to defend against normal attack such as a powerful magnet. The problem was the way that it was installed. Attacker could reach to the back of the keypad and tamper with its wiring.
An economically effective way to protect this particular keypad would be a simple two-step task:
a) relocate the keypad 30cm to the right;
b) install a metal plate that is 75 x 75 cm in dimensions to the back of the keypad.
The idea is that the metal plate would prevent an adult to easily and comfortably reaching the back of the keypad for tampering.
Closing:
Just one photo of a back gate has given us many valuable information on how to improve security. There is seldom a case where one have to spend a fortune to reach reasonable security. We just need to do it correctly; not necessarily expensively.
Part three preview:
Normal guard booth. See the notice under the window? Let's think security. |
Open Question Answering | [June-2018-New]Full Version SY0-501 PDF Exam Dumps 563Q for Free Download[352-362] 2018 June Latest CompTIA SY0-501 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Just Updated Today! Following are some new SY0-501 Real Exam Questions:
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QUESTION 352A web developers improves client access to the company’s REST API. Authentication needs to be tokenized but not expose the client’s password. Which of the following methods would BEST meet the developer’s requirements?
A. SAMLB. LDAPC. OAuthD. Shibboleth
Answer: A
QUESTION 353A vulnerability scan is being conducted against a desktop system. The scan is looking for files, versions, and registry values known to be associated with system vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the type of scan being performed?
A. Non-intrusiveB. AuthenticatedC. CredentialedD. Active
Answer: C
QUESTION 354A security analyst is updating a BIA document. The security analyst notices the support vendor’s time to replace a server hard drive went from eight hours to two hours. Given these new metrics, which of the following can be concluded? (Select TWO)
A. The MTTR is faster.B. The MTTR is slower.C. The RTO has increased.D. The RTO has decreased.E. The MTTF has increased.F. The MTTF has decreased.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 355Which of the following could help detect trespassers in a secure facility? (Select TWO)
A. Faraday cagesB. Motion-detection sensorsC. Tall, chain-link fencingD. Security guardsE. Smart cards
Answer: BD
QUESTION 356The IT department is deploying new computers. To ease the transition, users will be allowed to access their old and new systems. The help desk is receive reports that users are experiencing the following error when attempting to log in to their previous system:Logon Failure: Access DeniedWhich of the following can cause this issue?
A. Permission issuesB. Access violationsC. Certificate issuesD. Misconfigured devices
Answer: C
QUESTION 357A third-party penetration testing company was able to successfully use an ARP cache poison technique to gain root access on a server. The tester successfully moved to another server that was not in the original network. Which of the following is the MOST likely method used to gain access to the other host?
A. BackdoorB. PivotingC. PersistanceD. Logic bomp
Answer: B
QUESTION 358Ann, a security administrator, wants to ensure credentials are encrypted in transit when implementing a RADIUS server for SSO. Which of the following are needed given these requirements? (Select TWO)
A. Public keyB. Shared keyC. Elliptic curveD. MD5E. Private keyF. DES
Answer: AE
QUESTION 359The POODLE attack is a MITM exploit that affects:
A. TLS1.0 with CBC mode cipher.B. SSLv2.0 with CBC mode cipher,C. SSLv3.0 with CBC mode cipher.D. SSLv3.0 with ECB mode cipher.
Answer: B
QUESTION 360To determine the ALE of a particular risk, which of the following must be calculated? (Select TWO).
A. AROB. ROIC. RPOD. SLEE. RTO
Answer: AD
QUESTION 361Which of the following are used to increase the computing time it takes to brute force a password using an offline attack? (Select TWO)
A. XORB. PBKDF2C. bcryptD. HMACE. RIPEMD
Answer: BC
QUESTION 362Users in a corporation currently authenticate with a username and password. A security administrator wishes to implement two-factor authentication to improve security. Which of the following authentication methods should be deployed to achieve this goal?
A. PINB. Security questionC. Smart cardD. PassphraseE. CAPTCHA
Answer: C
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Open Question Answering | It’s been a little over two months since Bill and Melinda Gates announced they are divorcing, and since then there has been much discussion about the future of their philanthropic work. It’s certainly unusual for a foundation as prominent as the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation to experience a complete governance overhaul. While some things have become more clear—I addressed potential board changes in a June article—many important questions remain.
Whatever happens, the inevitable changes coming to the foundation will be an important case study when considering best practices for operations, governance and protecting donor intent at large foundations. The Gates news may be the biggest philanthropy story of 2021, but the full impact on the charitable sector will not be known for some time—likely years to come. We’ll continue to observe the developments with interest.
What has changed since the Gates announced their news on May 3, 2021?
Although he will remain a donor, Warren Buffet has resigned as a board member of the Gates Foundation. A trustee since 2006, the 90-year-old Buffet implied that age was the primary factor in his decision, noting of his tenure as Berkshire Hathaway CEO and chairman, “I’m clearly playing in a game that, for me, has moved past the fourth quarter into overtime.” In a display of continuity, Bill and Melinda Gates approved multi-year funding plans for polio eradication and gender equality and will add an additional $15 billion to the foundation’s endowment to support its existing programs in those and other areas. Anticipating potential governance challenges, the foundation announced that Melinda French Gates would leave the foundation if, after two years, either she or Bill Gates decided they could no longer work together. Should that occur, she would receive funding from Bill Gates’s personal resources to continue her own philanthropic efforts. Additional trustees will be identified, and their responsibilities clarified by the end of this year, with a public announcement in 2022. Every new fact, however, seems to lead to another question—all of them falling to Gates Foundation CEO, Mark Suzman, to answer. Thanks to the subscriber-based newsletter of Teddy Schleifer, a Silicon Valley reporter, we’ve heard a few of those questions and answers from a recent staff meeting at the foundation. It’s not surprising that many of the staff members’ questions echo those of the philanthropy’s colleagues, observers and persistent critics.
Despite many statements to the contrary, question #1 remains, “Will all these changes (and now the potential departure of one of the founders) affect the foundation’s mission?” Answer: No. Will the foundation maintain its intention to close after 20 years of the death of both Bill and Melinda? Answer: Yes. Will more staff be hired in the wake of the latest donation and the departure of Warren Buffet, who apparently was quite vocal about “bloated foundations?” Answer: We did hire more staff and we’ll work smarter going forward. Personally, my questions are all about governance:
Where will the Gates Foundation look for its new board members? By what criteria will they be chosen? Will Bill and Melinda consider bringing on any of their children who now range in age from 18 to 25? Given that the current foundation retained a board of only three persons for two decades, how many new trustees will be added? We may have a clue to the answer for that last question from the above-mentioned foundation staff meeting. At the meeting, Gates CEO Suzman reportedly told staff, “Don’t expect a very large board.”
Whatever the size of the new Gates board, we hope that those making the choices follow the advice offered in our June 7 blog and “choose board members who will make the best decisions to steward the foundation’s mission.”
For more information on best practices for good governance at foundations see the governance section of our Donor Intent Hub . |
Open Question Answering | Read the given extract and answer the questions I would have him prodigal, returning to
His father's house, the home he knew,
Rather than see him make and move
His world. I would forgive him too,
Shaping from sorrow a new love.
(Father to Son)
Question (i) What does the word "prodigal" mean in this context? Answer:
As written by the student: The word "prodigal" means wasteful or reckless in this context.
Step-by-step explanation of the answer: 📝 The word "prodigal" comes from the Latin word "prodigus", which means lavish or extravagant. 📝 It is often used to describe someone who spends money or resources in a careless or excessive way, without thinking of the consequences. 📝 In this context, the father uses the word "prodigal" to refer to his son, who has left his father's house and gone away to live his own life. 📝 The father implies that his son has wasted his opportunities and talents, and has been reckless with his choices and actions. 📝 The father also alludes to the biblical story of the prodigal son, who left his father's home and squandered his inheritance, but later returned and was forgiven by his father. Question (ii) What literary device is used in the phrase "shaping from sorrow a new love"? Answer:
As written by the student: T he literary device used in the phrase "shaping from sorrow a new love" is a metaphor.
Step-by-step explanation of the answer: 📝 A metaphor is a figure of speech that compares two things that are not alike, without using words like "as" or "like". 📝 A metaphor creates an image or an idea in the reader's mind by suggesting that one thing is another thing. 📝 In this phrase, the father compares his sorrow to a material that can be shaped into something new, such as clay or metal. 📝 He also compares his new love to a product or a result of shaping his sorrow, such as a sculpture or a jewel. 📝 The metaphor implies that the father has transformed his negative emotions into positive ones, and that he has found a new way to love his son despite their differences. Question (iii) Why does the father want his son to return to his father's house rather than make and move his world? Answer:
As written by the student: The father wants his son to return to his father's house rather than make and move his world because he misses him and wants to reconnect with him.
Step-by-step explanation of the answer: 📝 The phrase "return to his father's house" means to come back to the place where he grew up and where he was loved and cared for by his father. 📝 The phrase "make and move his world" means to create and pursue his own goals and dreams, and to live independently from his father. 📝 The father feels that his son has abandoned him and has become a stranger to him. He does not understand or approve of his son's choices and actions. 📝 The father wishes that his son would come back to him and restore their relationship. He wants to share his life and his love with his son again. Question (iv) Select the option that is NOT true about the lack of punctuation at the end of line 1 in the extract. (a) It creates a sense of incompleteness (b) It shows the father's hesitation and uncertainty (c) It indicates a pause or a break in the father's speech (d) It emphasizes the contrast between the two lines Answer:
As written by the student: The option that is NOT true about the lack of punctuation at the end of line 1 in the extract is (d) It emphasizes the contrast between the two lines
Step-by-step explanation of the answer: 📝 The lack of punctuation at the end of line 1 in the extract is called enjambment. It is a poetic technique that occurs when a sentence or a phrase runs over from one line to another without a pause or a break. 📝 Enjambment can create different effects depending on how it is used. In this case, it creates a sense of incompleteness (A), as the father's wish is not fully expressed in one line. It also shows the father's hesitation and uncertainty (B), as he does not seem confident or sure about his desire. It also indicates a pause or a break in the father's speech (C), as he may be struggling to find the right words or emotions to convey his feelings. 📝 However, enjambment does not emphasize the contrast between the two lines (D). In fact, it does the opposite. It connects the two lines and makes them flow together, rather than creating a sharp or clear distinction between them. The contrast between the two lines is created by other elements, such as word choice and tone. Question (v) How does the father's attitude change from line 1 to line 5 in the extract? Answer:
As written by the student: The father's attitude changes from wishful to hopeful in the extract.
Step-by-step explanation of the answer: 📝 In line 1, the father expresses his wish that his son would return to his father's house. He uses the word "would", which indicates a conditional or hypothetical situation that is unlikely to happen. 📝 In line 5, the father expresses his hope that he can forgive his son and shape a new love from his sorrow. He uses the word "would", which indicates a potential or possible situation that he is willing to make happen. 📝 The change in the father's attitude shows that he has moved from a passive to an active stance. He has realized that he cannot change his son's choices or actions, but he can change his own feelings and reactions. He has decided to let go of his resentment and bitterness, and to embrace his love and compassion. Question (vi) Complete the sentence: The rhyme scheme of the extract is _____. Answer:
As written by the student: The rhyme scheme of the extract is ABABC.
Step-by-step explanation of the answer: 📝 The rhyme scheme is the pattern of sounds that end each line of a poem. It is usually represented by letters that correspond to each rhyme. 📝 To find the rhyme scheme of a poem, we need to look at the last words of each line and identify which ones rhyme with each other. We assign a letter to each rhyme and write it next to the line. 📝 For example, in the extract, the last words of each line are: to, knew, move, too, love. We can see that "to" and "too" rhyme with each other, so we assign them the letter A. We can also see that "knew" and "move" do not rhyme with anything else, so we assign them different letters, B and C. Finally, we can see that "love" rhymes with "move", so we assign it the same letter as "move", C. 📝 The rhyme scheme of the extract is ABABC, as shown below: I would have him prodigal, returning to A
His father's house, the home he knew, B
Rather than see him make and move C
His world. I would forgive him too, A
Shaping from sorrow a new love. C |
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QUESTION 91 When you first login in to the IP Office Security Setting using the Manager Application, the user named is “security”. What is the default password?
A. security B. administrator C. password D. securitypwd
QUESTION 92 Which method can be used to add new users to a Server Edition in Select mode?
A. with copy and paste B. with Outlook Plugin C. with UMS D. with LDAP
Answer: D Explanation: https://www.avaya.com/en/documents/ip-office-select-sme7648.pdf
QUESTION 93 Which statement about Manager used in conjunction with Server Edition is correct?
A. Manager is not compatible with Server edition and you must use Web Manager to configure the system. B. Manager is the only application you can use to configure User on the Server Edition. C. Manager can only be installed from the Admin DVD. D. Manager can be installed from either the admin DVD or Web Management.
Answer: C Explanation: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101005673
QUESTION 94 Which three licenses are part of Centralized Licensing? (Choose three.)
A. SoftConsole B. Power User C. 3rd Party Endpoints D. Additional PRI Channels E. SIP Trunk Channels
Answer: BCE Explanation: https://www.manualslib.com/manual/864437/Avaya-Ip-Office-8-1.html?page=84
QUESTION 95 In an installation of Server Edition, as well as the IP Office, the Voicemail Pro and one-X?Portal are also installed at the same time. Therefore, by default they should both be running. Which application would you use to check they are in fact up and running?
A. Voicemail Pro Windows Client B. System Status Application C. Web Manager D. Manager Application
Answer: D Explanation: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100173993
QUESTION 96 Which method will avoid corruption of the data on the SD card when removing the SD card from the IP Office?
A. Dial the shutdown short code to shut down the card before removing the SD card. B. Use the Manager application to shut down the card before removing the SD card. C. Use System Monitor to shut down the card before removing the SD card. D. Pull out the card. Special shutdown is not required.
QUESTION 97 A customer has the capacity to register 10 soft consoles simultaneously, and wants to increase that to 15. Which action is needed to complete this increase?
A. Add a Preferred license. B. Upgrade to Select Mode. C. Add five receptionist licenses. D. Upgrade to Server Edition.
Answer: C Explanation: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101028316
QUESTION 98 When implementing a fully integrated multi-site network using only IP500 control units, which license is required to be on all sites?
A. Advanced Small Community Networking B. IP500 IP Office Multi-Site Network C. IP500 Voice Networking Channels D. Preferred Edition ?Messaging
Answer: D Explanation: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101005793
QUESTION 99 Which application will allow a system administrator to see historical events and alarms on a trunk in the IP Office?
A. System Status Application B. Historical Reporting Application C. Advanced Summary Reporter D. Call Detail Reporter
Answer: A Explanation: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100150298
QUESTION 100 How can you find the IP address of an IP extension?
A. Use ARP from your PC. B. Use the Extension Summary in SSA. C. Look on the label on the underside of all IP Phones. D. Use Monitor to reset the telephone, and watch it get a new DHCP address.
QUESTION 101 Which statement is an example of “Top Down Troubleshooting” with an IP Phone that is not working?
A. Check the IP Phone configuration and confirm that the gateway IP address is present. B. Ping the telephone, and if successful, try to call it. C. Swap out the telephone patch cord, and if the telephone boots up, call the telephone. D. Listen for a dial tone, and if not heard, then check for an indicator light where the telephone is connected.
Answer: D Explanation: https://downloads.avaya.com/elmodocs2/ip_phones/r2_0/233507_2/lanad052.html
QUESTION 102 A customer reports that when they receive a call over analog trunks, it takes 5 seconds to ring on the target. What is causing this problem?
A. The system Locale is not configured properly. B. The high level is set on Incoming Call Route. C. The ring delay on the system telephony settings is not configured. D. The IP Office is not receiving the ICLID from PSTN.
Answer: D Explanation: https://downloads.avaya.com/elmodocs2/ip_office/R3.1/maintenance.pdf
QUESTION 103 Calls into the IP500 are not ringing to the expected user. Which statement describes how the call routing is validated?
A. Use Customer Call Status (CCS) to see what user the call is ringing to. B. Use the System Status Application (SSA) to see what user the call is ringing to. C. Capture a System Monitor trace and escalate to Avaya for an answer. D. Wait until the system is idle and place test calls so you can hear which telephone is ringing.
Answer: A Explanation: https://downloads.avaya.com/elmodocs2/ip_office/DOCS3_0/DATA/Additional/mergedProjects/ productdescription/management/callstatus.htm
QUESTION 104 Where is the TCP Streaming Tool found?
A. in SSA B. in Monitor C. in Manager D. in Web Manager
Answer: B Explanation: http://www.tek-tips.com/viewthread.cfm?qid=1760220
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Open Question Answering | (Note: Please contact me with other examples of mistakes made by forensic engineers – in addition to the following, and I will publish them in an update)
Following is an update of a previous blog on mistakes forensic engineers make in the practice of forensic engineering in Atlantic Canada. They have been taken in part from a publication by Babitsky and Mangraviti that resonated with me as relevant to Atlantic Canada (Ref. 1), partly from my experience in forensic engineering, and partly from suggestions by colleagues.
Mistakes numbers 4, 5, 8, 13, and 18 have been added to the list.
Counsel can assist the forensic engineer avoid many of these mistakes. Asking the forensic engineer about any of these issues is one way of assisting.
Most of the mistakes occur in the investigative and report preparation stages of a forensic engineering investigation. Mistakes occur in other stages of an investigation but these are not reported here.
Taking case Mistake #1 : Preparing different CVs for different clients.
This might happen inadvertently when a professional engineer updates his CV for each new case.
Lesson : More than one CV may imply or show that the engineer’s CV changed depending on the type of case being considered.
Solution : A professional engineer should have one CV
Mistake #2 : Accepting rush cases that do not permit the engineer to follow the steps in the forensic engineering investigative process (Ref. 2).
Counsel sometimes call professional engineers late in the process of civil litigation with last-minute assignments. These assignments require a rushed investigation, review, analysis, and forming of an opinion.
Lesson : Rushing an investigation can produce an opinion that is vulnerable to rebuttal and cross-examination. Forensic engineers need to be able to recognize a rush assignment and decline when the time-frame is too tight to do their work properly.
Solution : Counsel should not offer and professional engineers should not accept rush or last-minute assignments.
Mistake #3 : Accepting low-budget cases. Forensic engineers sometimes accept low-budget cases.
Lesson : In low-budget cases, it is unlikely that forensic engineers will be able to do adequate investigation and analysis due to budgetary constraints. There is never an adequate excuse – including a low budget – for doing substandard or incomplete forensic investigative work.
Solution : Forensic engineers should not accept low-budget cases. The forensic engineer should determine at the outset if an adequate budget has been set to perform investigative work properly.
Mistake #4 : Taking a case for which the forensic engineer is not qualified.
Experts sometimes mistakenly step outside their sandbox and take a case for which they are not qualified.
Lesson: The almost certain inadequacy of your forensic investigation will be found out. This will reflect on your reputation and credibility.
Solution: Do not accept work for which you are not qualified.
Mistake #5 : Recommending an expert to counsel when we do not know well that expert’s qualifications.
We sometimes refer counsel to other experts whose qualifications for the investigation we do not know well. And subsequently, that expert does not carry out an adequate investigation.
Lesson: The inadequate work of the recommended expert reflects poorly on the person who recommended him/her.
Solution: Do not recommend anyone whose work you do not know well.
Investigation Mistake #6 : Failing to document. Forensic engineers fail to adequately document their investigation and findings.
Lesson: The judge, jury, opposing counsel, and other forensic engineers may take a long, hard look at the manner in which a forensic engineer documents his investigative work. If the engineer is careless, less weight will be given to his findings and opinion. Forensic engineers run the risk of having their investigative tasks, reports, opinions, and testimony discounted or even excluded.
Solution: Forensic engineers should meticulously document their investigative work.
Mistake #7: Failing to establish and follow a standard investigative protocol.
Failing to follow one’s own standard investigative protocol due to time or financial constraints can be a serious mistake.
Lesson: When forensic engineers have a protocol or procedure and do not follow it they should expect that their findings, conclusions, and opinions will be questioned, and in some cases undermined.
Solution: Brief retaining counsel on the difficulty this presents and consider declining the assignment when the deadline or budget is insufficient.
Mistake #8: Getting seduced by the tyranny of the obvious (Ref. 3)
The professional engineer does not carry out a thorough forensic engineering investigation because the cause is ‘obvious’.
Lesson: You learn from an expert for another party to the action that the obvious cause was incorrect.
Solution : Carry out a thorough forensic engineering investigation even if it’s only to confirm the obvious.
Mistake #9 : Failing to review the the complete set of records.
Forensic engineers are sometimes provided an incomplete set of records or portions of records to review, and agree to review this less than full record.
Lesson: In agreeing to review less than the full record, the forensic engineer may put themselves in a very difficult position. They should expect to be asked why they did not review the entire record, if missing portions may be significant, particularly if they requested to see the entire set of records. They may be asked to review the omitted records while testifying.
Solution: Forensic engineers should not accept portions of records or an incomplete set of records to review without the full understanding of retaining counsel of the potential consequences of this.
Mistake #10 : Not asking for all the records.
Forensic engineers sometimes do not ask for all of the records in the case they are working on.
Lesson: The forensic engineer shows a lack of due diligence when he does not ask for a complete set of records from retaining counsel. In addition, the engineer opens himself up to unnecessary questioning by opposing counsel.
Solution: The forensic engineer should ask for all documents.
Mistake #11 : Not corroborating facts provided by counsel.
Forensic engineers take facts provided by retaining counsel without checking them.
Lesson: Forensic engineers who do not corroborate the facts are vulnerable to cross-examination by opposing council.
Solution: Where feasible, corroborate the facts in the case. This is best done by a comparison to the records, documents, statements, discovery testimony, and investigative findings.
Writing reports Mistake #12: Writing reports that are based on incomplete investigations and insufficient data.
Forensic engineers sometimes write reports, for example, a preliminary report, that they do not anticipate will become part of the litigation process. They also are sometimes asked to take on forensic assignments only to learn later that insufficient data are available to render a report to a reasonable degree of engineering certainty.
Lesson: The failure to do a complete and adequate investigation and testing will always look worse when the engineer is forced to testify and support his (preliminary) report.
Solution: Forensic engineers writing reports should always anticipate that they may have to defend their reports at discovery or trial. The report should be of a quality that is easily defended (Ref. 4).
Do not write a report and express an opinion until you have sufficient facts to do so. It might be necessary after studying the available evidence to advise counsel that he is unable to render an opinion to a reasonable degree of engineering certainty.
Mistake #13: Writing vague, equivocal and uncertain reports.
Experts sometimes write vague, uncertain reports that are open to different interpretations because of insufficient data or the expert’s writing style.
Lesson: Your report and opinion may be rejected by the court. This is happening often enough.
Solution: Carry out a thorough forensic investigation. Use precise, certain language and state your findings and opinion clearly and directly in simple, declarative sentences. (Ref. 4)
Mistake #14: Writing a report without being asked by counsel.
Professional engineers may do this because it is a natural step in an investigation. However, counsel is an advocate on behalf of the client. If the investigative findings are not favourable counsel may not want a report published.
A report is also an expense, even if the findings are favourable, and may be seen as a means of reducing costs.
Lesson: Forensic engineering reports are generally discoverable. They are also expensive and must be requested.
Solution: Do not write a report until retaining counsel requests one. But, encourage a report because it is usually the best way to explain fully and properly to counsel and to the judge and/or jury the technical issues, the forensic investigation and the findings. Judges are wordsmiths and usually prefer a well written report.
Mistake #15 : Not writing a report according to civil procedure rules like Rule 55 in Nova Scotia. Rule 55 is very explicit on what to cover in a report. It outlines what the justice system needs to resolve the technical issues in a dispute.
Lesson: Not writing a report according to the rules may undermine the report and reduce it’s weight.
Solution: Write your report according to the rules.
Mistake #16: Sharing draft reports with counsel.
Forensic engineers share their draft reports with retaining counsel and then re-work the reports.
Lesson: Sharing draft reports invites close questioning from opposing counsel about the influence of retaining counsel on the report writing process.
Solution: Do not share draft reports with retaining counsel.
Mistake #17: Not ensuring counsel understands the investigation and the findings thoroughly – the investigative tasks, the purpose of each task, the data from each task, the analysis, the findings, and the cause of the problem.
Lesson: Counsel may not present the technical evidence correctly and as a result argue ineffectively on behalf of his client. This could reflect unfairly on the forensic engineer.
Solution: Recommend a meeting with counsel and report on the investigation in detail. Make certain counsel clearly understands.
Mistake #18 : Appearing to advocate on behalf of the client.
This may inadvertently occur when the technical findings of the investigation support the client’s case. The forensic engineer may appear to be advocating in making the technical truth known to the justice system.
Lesson: Your credibility as an expert is compromised if you are perceived to be advocating for the client. Credibility is like a slippery rock: Hard to get back (on)once you lose it (slip off).
Solution: State the technical data quietly and clearly without any hint of enthusiasm for the truth you have found. Do not use emphasis when expressing findings or conclusions.
References
Babitsky, Steven and Mangraviti, Jr., James L., The Greatest Mistakes Expert Witnesses Make and How to Avoid Them , SEAK, Inc., Falmouth, MA, 2008 http://store.seak.com/the-biggest-mistakes-expert-witnesses-make-and-how-to-avoid-them/ Steps in the forensic engineering investigative process , posted October 26, 2012 http://www.ericjorden.com/blog/2012/10/26/steps-in-the-forensic-engineering-investigative-process/ Getting seduced by the tyranny of the obvious , posted December 9, 2013 http://www.ericjorden.com/blog/2013/12/09/getting-seduced-by-the-tyranny-of-the-obvious/ Babitsky, Steven and Mangraviti, Jr., James L., Writing and Defending Your Expert Report, SEAK, Inc., Falmouth, MA, 2002 Stockwood, Q.C., Civil Litigation , 5th, Thomson Carswell Ltd, 2004 |
Open Question Answering | The average investor will face higher tax bills in the years ahead. This is true even if President Biden’s tax plan—including higher marginal tax rates, higher capital gain rates and numerous other wealth-reducing provisions—never makes its way into law. Why? Because the average investor owns a portfolio that contains significant unrealized capital gains.
This is certainly the case with clients of Bragg Financial. The stock market has done well over the last decade. Over ten years ending June 30, 2021, the S&P 500 is up 225.4% cumulatively (12.5% annualized), and most of that return has come in the form of price appreciation. As a result, owners of diversified portfolios have large unrealized gains that are widespread throughout the portfolio.
Rebalancing the portfolio—trimming stocks and adding to bonds to return to the target allocation—after the run-up in stock prices has become more challenging without realizing capital gains. Investors who regularly draw from their accounts—whether monthly withdrawals or periodic lump sums—likewise find that trimming equities to fund these withdrawals face the same challenge.
Yes, it is a good problem to have. Few of us would trade our widespread gains for the alternative. But paying taxes is painful nonetheless.
Is there an alternative? Our answer in most cases is that there is not a good alternative to simply taking the hit and paying the tax. Perhaps this Q&A will be helpful.
Q: What if I don’t rebalance and simply let my stocks run? In other words, what if I let stocks become an increasing percentage of my overall portfolio balance relative to bonds.
A: This works well until it doesn’t. When the market takes a significant hit—and it will at some point—it is critical that your allocation is appropriate. You’ll need to have an adequate sum in bonds/cash to get through the decline and subsequent recovery. If you are drawing on your portfolio, our preference is for you to have a multiple of your annual draw, preferably 8–10 times the amount of your draw, in bonds/cash.
Q: What if I simply fund my withdrawals by trimming bonds and let the stocks continue to run?
A: Our answer is similar to the the first answer. Again, you’ll need to rebalance to trim your winners (trim stocks) and replenish your bond/cash position to maintain your target allocation and to have adequate liquidity.
Q: I don’t make withdrawals from my portfolio. Do I still need to rebalance?
A: Yes. We think it makes sense to recognize that yesterday’s winner, whether an asset class like US Large Cap or Emerging Markets or a sector like Technology or Healthcare, might be tomorrow’s laggard. Rebalancing within asset classes, sectors and even specific positions reduces the risk that we end up with too much concentration in the portfolio. Rebalancing means trimming overweight asset classes, sectors and positions at the margins in order to add to underweight positions in order to maintain diversification.
Q: Should I take on debt to fund my withdrawals to avoid drawing from the portfolio?
A: Only if your withdrawal is a temporary phenomenon. For example, you might use debt in the form of a bridge loan if you are moving from one house to another or if you have a different temporary need for a lump sum that has a time-certain end date.
In summary, the market has been good to us over the last decade. Most long-term investors have widespread gains embedded in their portfolios and normal portfolio activity—rebalancing the account or trimming holdings to fund withdrawals—will result in higher capital gains as we go forward.
Please note that this article does not address the changes to tax rates, including capital gain rates, being considered by Congress. These changes being considered by Congress, if passed as proposed, would add additional planning challenges. Please look for our articles about this subject in the months ahead.
If you would like to discuss your portfolio or the issues raised here, please contact us.
This information is believed to be accurate but should not be used as specific investment or tax advice. You should always consult your tax professional or other advisors before acting on the ideas presented here. |
Open Question Answering | Gary Sinise is a renowned American actor, musician, and humanitarian who has captured the hearts of millions through his remarkable talent and philanthropic endeavors. With a career spanning several decades, Sinise has become a household name, known for his memorable performances and his unwavering commitment to giving back to the community.
In this article, we will delve into the fascinating world of Gary Sinise, uncovering 47 intriguing facts about his life, career, and the impact he has made both on and off the screen. From his breakout role in Forrest Gump to his inspiring work with veterans and first responders, Sinise’s journey is filled with captivating stories, achievements, and the relentless pursuit of making a positive difference.
So, let’s embark on a journey together and discover some incredible insights into the life of the extraordinary Gary Sinise.
Born on March 17, 1955 Gary Sinise was born on March 17, 1955, in Blue Island, Illinois, USA. His birth sign is Pisces, known for their creativity and compassion.
Co-Founder of the Steppenwolf Theatre Company Sinise co-founded the acclaimed Steppenwolf Theatre Company in This Chicago-based ensemble theatre group has produced a multitude of award-winning productions.
Breakthrough Role in “Of Mice and Men” (1980) Sinise gained widespread recognition for his portrayal of George Milton in John Steinbeck’s play “Of Mice and Men.” This breakthrough performance showcased his immense talent and garnered critical acclaim.
A Multitalented Musician In addition to his acting prowess, Sinise is an accomplished musician. He is the bass guitarist for the Lt. Dan Band, which he formed to entertain and support military personnel and veterans.
Iconic Role as Lieutenant Dan Taylor Sinise’s portrayal of Lieutenant Dan Taylor in the 1994 film “Forrest Gump” remains one of his most iconic performances. This role earned him an Academy Award nomination for Best Supporting Actor.
Dedicated Advocate for Veterans Sinise is a passionate advocate for veterans’ rights and has been involved in numerous charitable organizations supporting servicemen and women. He established the Gary Sinise Foundation, which aims to honor and support veterans, first responders, and their families.
Founded the Actors’ Gang Sinise co-founded the theatrical collective known as the Actors’ Gang in Los Angeles in The group is committed to creating innovative and thought-provoking theater productions.
Starred in the Hit TV Series “CSI: NY” From 2004 to 2013, Sinise captivated audiences with his role as Detective Mac Taylor in the popular TV series “CSI: NY.” His portrayal of the dedicated detective resonated with viewers worldwide.
Emmy and Golden Globe Nominations Sinise has received numerous award nominations for his outstanding work in the entertainment industry. He has been honored with Emmy and Golden Globe nominations for his exceptional performances.
Passion for Supporting Military Families In addition to his work with veterans, Sinise is dedicated to supporting military families. He actively participates in programs and initiatives that alleviate the hardships faced by families of deployed servicemen and women.
Talented Voice Actor Sinise has lent his distinctive voice to various animated films and documentaries. His powerful voice adds depth and emotion to each project he undertakes.
Acted in Over 70 Films and TV Shows Throughout his career, Sinise has appeared in a wide range of films and television shows. His filmography boasts over 70 productions, showcasing his versatility as an actor.
Successful Director Sinise has directed several critically acclaimed productions, including the film “Of Mice and Men” (1992), which further solidified his talent behind the camera.
Star on the Hollywood Walk of Fame In 1998, Sinise received a star on the Hollywood Walk of Fame, honoring his contributions to the entertainment industry.
Avid Supporter of Education Sinise recognizes the importance of education and actively supports initiatives that promote learning and creativity among young people. He actively engages with schools and educational programs across the United States.
Heartfelt Dedication to the USO Sinise has been a steadfast supporter of the United Service Organizations (USO), entertaining troops deployed overseas and bringing a piece of home to those serving abroad.
Nominated for a Grammy Award Alongside the Lt. Dan Band, Sinise was nominated for a Grammy Award in 2004 for their album “On the Boulevard.” This recognition speaks to his musical talent and dedication to honoring veterans.
Strong Advocate for First Responders Sinise extends his support not just to veterans but also to first responders. He honors their sacrifices and contributions, recognizing the vital role they play in keeping communities safe.
Received the Presidential Citizens Medal In 2008, Sinise was awarded the prestigious Presidential Citizens Medal for his outstanding service to the country and his commitment to improving the lives of others.
Philanthropic Work for Children Sinise actively contributes to charitable organizations that focus on improving the lives of children facing adversity. His philanthropic efforts encompass a wide array of causes close to his heart.
Notable Stage Performances Apart from his film and television work, Sinise has left an indelible mark on the stage. His notable performances in theatrical productions have earned him accolades and cemented his status as a gifted actor.
Graced the Cover of “Time” Magazine Sinise was featured on the cover of “Time” magazine in 2003, highlighting his dedication and unwavering support for the military community.
Active Voice for Missing and Exploited Children Sinise uses his platform to raise awareness about missing and exploited children. He collaborates with organizations that work tirelessly to bring these children home safely.
Collaborations with Renowned Directors Throughout his career, Sinise has had the privilege of working with esteemed directors such as Robert Zemeckis, Ron Howard, and Brian De Palma, among others.
Passionate about Animal Welfare Sinise is a devoted animal lover and actively supports organizations dedicated to animal welfare and advocacy.
Strong Connection to the Military Community Sinise’s deep connection to the military community stems from his portrayal of Lieutenant Dan Taylor in “Forrest Gump.” This role resonated with veterans and established a lifelong bond.
Inspiring Motivational Speaker Sinise is a sought-after speaker, captivating audiences with his inspiring words and stories of resilience, determination, and service.
Recognized with the George Catlett Marshall Medal In 2016, Sinise was awarded the distinguished George Catlett Marshall Medal, recognizing his unwavering commitment to honoring and supporting the men and women of the armed forces.
Instrumental in the Creation of the National WWII Museum Sinise played a pivotal role in the establishment and development of the National WWII Museum in New Orleans. He actively supports the museum’s mission to educate future generations about the sacrifices made during World War II.
Honorary Marine Sinise’s dedication to the military community earned him the honorary title of Marine. His unwavering support and commitment to the Marine Corps are widely recognized and appreciated.
Recipient of the Bob Hope Award for Excellence in Entertainment In 2015, Sinise received the prestigious Bob Hope Award for Excellence in Entertainment, honoring his exceptional contributions to the entertainment industry and his unwavering support for the military.
Dedicated Family Man Outside of his professional endeavors, Sinise is a loving husband and father. He cherishes his family and strives to create a strong and supportive environment for his loved ones.
Hosted the National Memorial Day Concert Sinise has hosted the National Memorial Day Concert in Washington, D.C., for many years. The concert pays tribute to the men and women who have made the ultimate sacrifice for their country.
Supporter of the Gary Sinise Foundation’s R.I.S.E. Program Sinise’s foundation, the Gary Sinise Foundation, runs the R.I.S.E. program (Restoring Independence Supporting Empowerment), which constructs specially adapted smart homes for severely wounded veterans.
Memorable Roles in Crime Thrillers Sinise has delivered memorable performances in various crime thrillers, showcasing his versatility as an actor. Films such as “Ransom,” “The Forgotten,” and “Snake Eyes” highlight his range and talent.
Strong Advocate for Mental Health Awareness Sinise uses his platform to raise awareness about mental health issues and supports organizations that strive to provide resources and assistance to those in need.
Recipient of the Ellis Island Medal of Honor In recognition of his commitment to honoring the contributions of immigrants to American society, Sinise was awarded the Ellis Island Medal of Honor.
A Favorite Among Righteous Gemstones Fans Sinise’s portrayal of Pastor, a charismatic and morally questionable character in the TV series “Righteous Gemstones,” has garnered praise from critics and audiences alike.
Recognized with the Presidential Medal of Freedom In 2020, Sinise was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom, the highest civilian honor in the United States, for his extraordinary efforts in supporting veterans and the military community.
Starring Role in the “Truman” Show on Broadway Sinise wowed audiences with his portrayal of President Harry S. Truman in the Tony Award-winning play, “Truman.” His performance showcased his ability to captivate and embody historical figures.
Creator and Executive Producer of “Criminal Minds: Beyond Borders” Sinise took on a behind-the-scenes role as the creator and executive producer of the TV series “Criminal Minds: Beyond Borders,” further establishing his versatility in the entertainment industry.
Dedicated to Supporting Military Caregivers Sinise recognizes the crucial role played by military caregivers and actively supports organizations that provide resources and assistance to these unsung heroes.
Iconic Narrator of the Highways and Byways Sinise’s distinctive voice has lent itself to countless narration projects, including commercials, documentaries, and audio books, adding depth and gravitas to the stories being told.
Collaborations with the United States Air Force Band Sinise has collaborated with the United States Air Force Band on numerous occasions, where his musical and theatrical talents converge to deliver awe-inspiring performances.
Inspirational Roles in Biographical Films Sinise has portrayed real-life figures in biographical films, bringing their stories to life with depth and authenticity. Films such as “Truman,” “George Wallace,” and “Apollo 13” showcase his ability to embody historical figures.
Avid Supporter of Arts Education Sinise actively advocates for arts education and believes in its transformative power in the lives of young people. He champions programs that provide access to arts education for students from all backgrounds.
The Legacy of Gary Sinise Throughout his career, Gary Sinise has left an indelible mark on the entertainment industry, philanthropy, and the military community. His passion, talent, and unwavering dedication have garnered him international acclaim and the enduring admiration of fans worldwide.
The 47 facts about Gary Sinise showcased in this article provide a glimpse into the life and achievements of this extraordinary actor and advocate. From his iconic roles on the big screen to his tireless efforts in supporting veterans and military families, Sinise has exemplified the power of using one’s platform for the greater good. Truly, Gary Sinise’s impact extends far beyond his remarkable performances, solidifying him as a beloved figure in the hearts of fans everywhere.
Conclusion Gary Sinise is a multi-talented actor, musician, and philanthropist who has made a significant impact on both the entertainment industry and society as a whole. With a career spanning decades, Sinise has showcased his versatility and dedication to his craft through his memorable performances in movies, television shows, and theater productions. Moreover, his involvement in charitable work, particularly supporting veterans and active-duty military personnel, has earned him widespread admiration and respect.Not only has Sinise captivated audiences with his acting skills, but he has also demonstrated a genuine commitment to giving back. Through his foundation, the Gary Sinise Foundation, he has been able to provide essential support and resources to veterans, first responders, and their families. Sinise’s tireless efforts to honor and assist those who have served their country are a testament to his unwavering compassion and dedication.In summary, Gary Sinise’s contributions to the entertainment industry and his philanthropic endeavors have solidified his status as a beloved and respected figure. His talent, generosity, and dedication continue to inspire and uplift countless individuals, making him a true icon in the entertainment world and a beacon of hope and support for those in need.
FAQs Q: How did Gary Sinise get his start as an actor?
A: Gary Sinise began his acting career in the theater, co-founding the Steppenwolf Theatre Company in Chicago. He gained recognition through his stage performances, which eventually led to opportunities in film and television.
Q: Which role is Gary Sinise best known for?
A: Gary Sinise is best known for his portrayal of Lieutenant Dan Taylor in the award-winning film “Forrest Gump.” His powerful performance earned him an Academy Award nomination and solidified his place in cinematic history.
Q: What other notable roles has Gary Sinise played?
A: Apart from his role in “Forrest Gump,” Gary Sinise has delivered standout performances in movies such as “Apollo 13,” “Ransom,” and “Of Mice and Men.” He has also made notable appearances on television shows like “CSI: NY” and “Criminal Minds: Beyond Borders.”
Q: Is Gary Sinise involved in any charitable work?
A: Yes, Gary Sinise is actively involved in charitable work. He is the founder of the Gary Sinise Foundation, which focuses on supporting veterans, military service members, first responders, and their families. The foundation provides various programs and initiatives aimed at honoring their sacrifices and improving their quality of life.
Q: How can I support Gary Sinise’s philanthropic efforts?
A: You can support Gary Sinise’s philanthropic efforts by donating to the Gary Sinise Foundation or participating in their fundraising events. Additionally, you can spread awareness about the organization and the important work they do by sharing their mission with others. |
Open Question Answering | Open Courseware Initiative Open Courseware Initiative (MIT)
URL = http://web.mit.edu/ocw
The MIT OpenCourseWare Inititiative's catalog: http://ocw.mit.edu/OcwWeb/Global/all-courses.htm
For other initiatives see the main overview page: Open Courseware Initiatives
Status Report Notes from the “Open Access at University - OpenCourseWare and Beyond” afternoon working group session at yesterday’s IS2K7 conference.
2011 "Lecture notes, course readings, syllabi, and exams from more than 2,000 MIT courses from 33 majors are available on the OpenCourseWare website. The program received $3.7 million during the 2011 fiscal year — $1.5 million from MIT’s operating budget and the rest from donations, grants, and contributions from 2010." (http://www.ecampusnews.com/top-news/mits-goal-reach-1-billion-with-open-courseware/)
2007 The experience so far, Anne Margulies of MIT, June 2, 2007:
"Once MIT started publishing the raw materials, students were not as concerned as they were in the beginning. 32% of students said that open access (OA) led favorably in their decision to go to MIT. It was the alumni who spoke the loudest, concerned about the money they spent on acquiring their degrees, now content would be free for everyone.
The OA consortium is comprised of over 150 institutions, mainly non-U.S. schools.
Intellectual property is still the biggest problem with OA at MIT. When they use third party material they can not publish it. It is not as complete as it could be.
Q: Has the OpenCourseWare project (OCW) had effect on the attendance of lectures?
A: (Anne) This was a major concern. The faculty were concerned so OCW at MIT surveyed them. The faculty had not noticed a significant drop in attendance. They are able to use their class time in a different way, because students can get the material outside the class.
The students do come with interesting questions in mind. For this reason, OCW has had a positive impact at MIT.
Q: How will this impact career building among faculty? how does it impact tenure?
A: We’re starting to bring agencies together to make peer review part of the deal.
Q: How do you generate publicity for these initiatives?
A: (Anne) We don’t do it very well. We’ve been passive about it and as a result, we’re only scratching the surface for those who can benefit from this material.
About two years ago there was a big amount of traffic from MIT to our site. Indeed MIT students used the site regularly about 70%. 40% of faculty used the OCW site to check what their colleagues were teaching and to make sure the pre-reqs were met so that their students were learning.
MIT faculty are much more aware of what other faculty are learning and they are learning best practices in informal ways. OCW at MIT has connected faculty, which in one instance helped create a new course out of two faculty members who were both interested in the same disciplines.” (http://colinrhinesmith.com/2007/06/02/open-access-at-university-opencourseware-and-beyond-at-is2k7/)
More Information The catalog of the Open Courseware Consortium is at http://www.ocwconsortium.org/use/index.html The Curriculum Archive, http://www.buildingrainbows.com/CA/ca.home.php Open CourseWare Finder at http://opencontent.org/ocwfinder/ Open Courseware blog Also:
Listen to Anne Margulies on Open Courseware |
Open Question Answering | Table of Contents
What are major component components? A major component includes any assembled element which forms a portion of an end item without which the end item is inoperable. For example, for an automobile, components will include the engine, transmission, and battery.
What are major environmental components?
The four major components of environment include lithosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere and biosphere, corresponding to rocks, water, air and life respectively.
What is the major component components for measuring the performance of problem?
Explanation: A problem has four components initial state, goal test, set of actions, path cost. Solution quality is measured by the path cost function, and an optimal solution has the highest path cost among all solutions.
What is known as components? noun. a constituent part; element; ingredient. a part of a mechanical or electrical system: hi-fi components.
What are the 2 major components of biotic environment?
Answer: Two major components of biotic environment are Plants and Animals.
What are the major components of food?
The major nutrients in our food are carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals. In addition, food also contains dietary fibres and water. Carbohydrates and fats mainly provide energy to our body.
What are the 4 types of environment? The four major components of environment include lithosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere and biosphere, corresponding to rocks, water, air and life respectively. Lithosphere is the outermost layer of earth called crust, which is made of different minerals.
What are the 5 components of environment?
The five components of our environment are: atmosphere, lithosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere and solar energy.
Atmosphere is the gaseous layer enveloping the Earth. Lithosphere is the outermost layer of the Earth which is known as the crust and its main components are the tectonic plates. How many parts does problem consist of?
7. How many parts does a problem consists of? Explanation: The four parts of the problem are initial state, set of actions, goal test and path cost.
What are main goals of AI? The basic objective of AI (also called heuristic programming, machine intelligence, or the simulation of cognitive behavior) is to enable computers to perform such intellectual tasks as decision making, problem solving, perception, understanding human communication (in any language, and translate among them), and the …
What is basic component?
There are five basic components which include: Input Unit. Output Unit. Memory Unit. Control Unit.
What are examples of components?
The definition of component means one part of a whole thing. An example of a component is the CD player in a stereo system. An example of a component is an ingredient in a recipe. One element of a larger system.
What are the example of components? kəm-pō’nənt The definition of component means one part of a whole thing. An example of a component is the CD player in a stereo system. An example of a component is an ingredient in a recipe.
What are critical components?
Definition of Critical Components. Critical Components means a component or system of components that, due to their importance in the continued proper operation of the device, have been designated by the manufacturer as requiring special fabrication, maintenance, inspection or operation.
What components are found?
7 essential hardware components Motherboard. Think of the motherboard as the backbone of nearly any technological device. Networking cards. Networking cards, or network interfacing cards, may be separate cards or integrated into the motherboard. Graphics card. A graphics or video card can come in two varieties – integrated or expansion. Processor. Hard drive. USB ports. Monitor ports.
What components to build PC? Once you know what kind of computer you want, then you can determine what components you will need. Essentially to build a computer, you need: the motherboard, a processor, RAM memory, a hard drive, the computer case, an optical drive, and depending on whether or not the motherboard has onboard audio and video,… |
Open Question Answering | Edward's Enterprises Plumbing in Westlake Village offers both gas & electric water heater installations & repairs including: Gas water heater tank installs Electric water heater repairs Point of use water heaters replaced Hooking up electric water heaters Insta-hot breakers swapped out Leaking supply lines replaced Earthquake straps installed Drip pans replaced Temperature & pressure valves plumbed Drain lines plumbed outside Water heater platforms installed Water heater sheds assembled & attached Gas safety valves replaced Gas coated flex lines installed Mobile home water heater repairs Water heaters relocated Chronomite water heaters swapped out Water heater ducting fixed Need to find out if we can help with your 50 gallon or less water heater replacement? Call our office to discuss your new point of use instant hot water heater installation plans!
Please note we currently do not install water heaters over 50 gallons.
Q: A common question asked is: how much hot water will a water heater produce per hour? A: The answer is that your water heater tank's per hour water production depends on your groundwater temperature & the temperature degree rise that you require. A good rule of thumb is that the standard gas water heater will produce approximately 35-45 gallons per hour of hot water for your home or office plumbing system. Electric water heaters will provide approximately 18-25 gallons per hour if they give off 4500 watts & can give 25-35 gallons per hour if they contain 5500 watts. Q: Another question that is often asked is: how long will the hot water take to travel to the faucet? A: & this answer depends on how far away the water heater is from the faucet. If the faucet is plumbed about 30 feet away, then the hot water will take about 30 seconds to arrive to the faucet. This can become frustrating & waste water, so some home owners will have a built in re-circulation system which will give you hot water instantly.
Water Heater Leaks Leaks Not Noticed If a leak develops in your water heater, the water may not be easily noticed, sometimes the damage is already done when seen. One of the best ways to avoid extensive water damage is to regularly inspect the water heater along with the pipes around the unit. Be sure there is not moisture, mold mineral buildup or corrosion. Regularly Inspect the Water Heater Flushing out the water heater every 6 months will help eliminate sediment buildup. Also, placing a drip pan under the water heater that drains to the outside will prevent thousands of dollars in damage. Another important factor is the age of the water heater. Most water heaters have a lifespan of 8 to 12 years. So replacing the unit prior to any real problems may be an idea to consider. Signs of a Problem If any of these issues occur be sure to contact a specialist, plumber or water heater expert: Water is not as hot as it was. Rust in the water coming out of your faucets on your clean clothes. There are cracking & popping sounds when water is being heated. The water tastes metallic. There is rust on the bottom of the water heater. A puddle is under the water heater. The burner units are becoming clogged or rusty.
What is the longest lasting water heater? The most durable water heater that you can find in the market is Rheem Marathon water heater, & it's simple to install & service, its lightweight in design & has a lifetime warranty. FAQ Source Should I replace my 20 year old water heater? If you have placed your water heater at a place that is prone to damage, if it has a leakage, if you notice rusty water coming out of it, if it's rumbling & making noises, or there's water around the heater, then you shouldn't wait for it to go for as long as 20 years before you replace it. FAQ Source |
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Steps for SALESFORCE CRT-450 Certifications Exam booking Select Date and Center of examination and confirm with payment value of 200$ Visit to SALESFORCE Exam Registration Search for SALESFORCE CRT-450 Certifications Exam Signup/Login to SALESFORCE account Salesforce Certified Platform Developer I Sample Questions (Q76-Q81): NEW QUESTION # 76 When using SalesforceDX, what does a developer need to enable to create and manage scratch orgs?
A. Environment Hub B. Production C. Sandbox D. Dev Hub Answer: D
Explanation: https://developer.salesforce.com/docs/atlas.en-us.sfdx_dev.meta/sfdx_dev/sfdx_dev_scratch_orgs.htm When using SalesforceDX, a developer needs to enable Dev Hub in order to create and manage scratch orgs. A Dev Hub is a special type of org used by developers to store source code and other development-related artifacts. It is also used to create and manage scratch orgs, which are temporary orgs used for development and testing. Reference: https://developer.salesforce.com/docs/atlas.en-us.sfdx_dev.meta/sfdx_dev/sfdx_dev_intro.htm
NEW QUESTION # 77 Which two roll-up summary field types are required to find the average of values on detail records in a Master-Detail relationship?
A. Roll-up summary field of type SUM B. Roll-up summary field of type TOTAL C. Roll-up summary field of type NUM D. Roll-up summary field of type COUNT Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 78 The account object has a custom percent field, rating, defined with a length of 2 with 0 decimal places. An account record has the value of 50% in its rating field and is processed in the apex code below after being retrieved from the database with SOQL public void processaccount(){ decimal acctscore = acc.rating__c * 100; } what is the value of acctscore after this code executes?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 79 Which component is available to deploy using Metadata API? Choose 2 answers
A. Case Layout B. Account Layout C. ConsoleLayout D. Case Feed Layout Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 80 When a user edits the Postal Code on an Account, a custom Account text field named "Timezone" must be update based on the values in a PostalCodeToTimezone__c custom object. How should a developer implement this feature?
A. Build an Account Assignment Rule. B. Build an Account Workflow Rule. C. Build an Account custom Trigger. D. Build an account Approval Process Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 81 ......
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Open Question Answering | Each day, millions of employers pray that they would find an exceptional candidate. And millions of job seekers browse new openings hoping to find their dream job.
One platform has 200 million resumes, and the other uses AI to match your CV with the best recruiter. So which one would you use?
The following is an in-depth comparison between the services of ZipRecruiter vs. Indeed. By the time you reach the end of this article, you should be able to tell which one is better for you.
What Is ZipRecruiter? What Is Indeed? What Does ZipRecruiter Offer? What Does Indeed Offer? How is ZipRecruiter Similar to Indeed? How is ZipRecruiter Different Than Indeed? Conclusion: Is Indeed or ZipRecruiter Better? Frequently Asked Questions Wrapping Up What Is ZipRecruiter? ZipRecruiter is a SaaS-based job search website that uses AI to match talent with suitable vacancies.
Ziprecruiter focuses on effective communication, and that’s why they put in a lot of effort to make their mobile phone app exceptional. It’s currently the “#1 rated job search app on iOS and Android”, and among the highest-rated hiring sites in the US.
Ian Siegel, Ward Poulos, Joe Edmonds, and Will Redd launched the company in 2010. In 2018 they started implementing AI algorithms to optimize the employer/employee matching process. And in a few years, they managed to stand beside giants like LinkedIn and Indeed.
Employers looking for skilled candidates to fill job openings can post their requests, and ZipRecruiter spreads this announcement over a hundred other job posting boards. This exchange comes at a cost, which is often is monthly/yearly subscription.
People seeking employment sign up for free and can target specific jobs or leave their CVs on the site. There’s an option to set the profile visibility to “public” which improves the odds of getting a job offer.
What Is Indeed? If you’re looking for free job posting sites, then check out Indeed. It’s a job posting platform, so unlike ZipRecruiter, it doesn’t send job requests to other boards. It’s massive and generally considered “the #1 job site worldwide”.
They’ve been around since 2004 after Paul Forster and Rony Kahan founded this site as a subsidiary of Recruit Holdings. The has offices in Austin, New York, in addition to a huge global presence in 60 countries.
Employers can post job openings for free on Indeed, but that only gets a basic amount of reach. Extra payments provide individually priced services and premium features.
Job seekers can also sign up in Indeed for free. The platform is easy to navigate, and its database is filled to the brim with attractive job listings.
What Does ZipRecruiter Offer? ZipRecruiter has a great reputation as a dependable partner that responds promptly to the staffing needs of big businesses. It’s not uncommon to get the right employee a day after posting a job announcement on this board.
The services of ZipRecruiter aren’t cheap, but employers often get their money’s worth. Job seekers are quite happy as well, and they don’t even need to pay anything at all.
What Does ZipRecruiter Offer Job Searchers? As a job seeker, you’d like to spend your time on an easy-to-navigate website, that also connects you with the best companies in the field.
Here are some of the benefits you get from using ZipRecruiter.
Creating a detailed profile with salary, location, and other preferences. You can link to your portfolio, references, or other professional credentials. One-click for filling up a job application, since your profile is already solid. Optional public visibility to employers. A valuable and extensive database of reputable companies. Signing up and using the board is free. AI matching for optimal placement. What Does ZipRecruiter Offer Companies? ZipRecruiter has had a dedicated R&D facility since 2015, and its main focus is getting the best employee for every job opening. This alone is a great feature, but there’s a lot more that companies get by signing up.
Flexible payment plans that you can change at any time. The pricing model is simple and clear. Company dashboard to facilitate the posting, screening, and selection processes. Customizable job posting templates. No caps on the number of resumes you can receive for each job posting. Traffic boost option to increase the reach more than 3X the normal posts. Multiple job posting slots. Exceptional customer support. Spreads the job postings quickly to 100 different job boards. What Does Indeed Offer? Indeed is a huge platform buzzing with traffic, and holding more than 200 million resumes in its database.
Most of the services are free for job seekers and employers. And besides that, there are premium features for employers that come at reasonable prices.
What Does Indeed Offer Job Searchers? The platform is practical, basic, and doesn’t beat around the bush. They just ask you what kind of job you want, and where are your preferred locations. Then, they jump to action as soon as you press “Find jobs”.
Knowing how to get a job is an invaluable skill, and this platform helps a lot with that. Here’s what you get when you use Indeed to find a job.
A user-friendly platform. Company reviews from peers are often available. Optional assessment to improve your CV. Job alerts are a great way to be always in the know. You can make your profile private or public to employers. What Does Indeed Offer Companies? The giant recruitment platform is on point with what it offers potential employers.
Free plan to use the basic features of the platform. Pay-per-click pricing plus budget control. Online skill assessment options. A company page for added reach. Easy to handle employer dashboard. Resume database of more than 200 million professionals. How is ZipRecruiter Similar to Indeed? ZipRecruiter and Indeed both offer premium features at a cost. And they’re both free for job seekers.
Employers can receive an infinite number of resumes from both sites, they can include screening questions, and there are smart search tools in ZipRecruiter and Indeed.
How is ZipRecruiter Different Than Indeed? The main differences between Ziprecruiter and Indeed are their business models and pricing plans.
ZipRecruiter sends job postings to other job boards, while Indeed is a huge platform that aggregates job postings from various sources.
Ziprecruiter is a subscription-based service, with various payment plans. There’s a 4-day free trial, but that is almost never used. On the other hand, Indeed provides a pay-per-service model for companies, plus a free plan.
Other differences include multiple job postings, 8 user seats, and background screening in ZipRecruiter only. On the other hand, Indeed has a bigger database, online skills assessment, a dedicated company page, and free job postings.
Conclusion: Is Indeed or ZipRecruiter Better? ZipRecruiter and Indeed are both reliable options. Whether you’re an employer looking for skilled candidates, or a job seeker aspiring for career advancement you can’t go wrong either way.
ZipRecruiter is a bit more costly, so it’s a great choice when you have a bunch of positions to fill. Scaling up, branching out, and acquisitions call for such action, and that would be your best option.
If you’re a small company, with only two urgent job postings, then Indeed would be a better option. Especially, if you choose the free plan for job postings.
Frequently Asked Questions Can I Trust ZipRecruiter? ZipRecruiter has been in the market for more than 10 years, and its track record is stellar. Also, it’s known for accurately matching skilled people with the right employers.
I’d say you can trust ZipRecruiter to get you the desired outcome.
Can I Trust Indeed? Indeed has also been operating globally for decades, with a high rank in the field. It provides full transparency in its financial dealings and screening processes, and that’s why it’s easy to trust such a platform. This platform can offer you many places to find a job you love.
Wrapping Up Employers spend weeks on end looking at resumes and interviewing candidates whenever they try to fill a job opening. This could get frustrating, and quite often, the recruiters settle for an average employee.
The same time-consuming story happens with job seekers. They send their resumes to a bunch of job boards and hope for the best.
With platforms like ZipRecruiter and Indeed the process becomes much easier. They both have individual perks, but in most cases, you can choose either one of them and still get great results. |
Open Question Answering | Make Every Seal Count Unlock the secret to flawless bottle sealing and versatile crafting with our Ultimate Tapered Corks #9. Designed to meet the precise needs of homebrewers, winemakers, and craft makers, these corks boast natural elasticity, ensuring your creations stay perfectly sealed.
Key Features:
Dimensions: 29x25x19 mm | 1.14x0.98x0.75 in | 1-9/64x1x3/4 in Naturally Elastic : Provides a dependable and snug seal for all beverage containers. Bulk Pack of 100 : Ample supply for all your sealing and crafting needs. Easily Customizable : Can be cut or trimmed to fit your specific project requirements. Versatile Applications : Suitable for homebrews, wines, crafts, labs, and even for filling holes in various structures. FAQ’s:
Q: What size are these #9 Tapered Corks?
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Q: How many corks come in a single pack?
A: The pack contains 100 corks, ensuring you have a sufficient quantity for even large projects.
Q: Can these corks be used for both wine and homebrew bottles?
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A: You can easily cut or trim these corks to meet your needs.
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Whether you're into homebrewing, winemaking, or craft-making, our Ultimate Tapered Corks #9 offers the sealing solution you've sought. Buy now and enjoy the flexibility and reliability of this bulk pack 100. |
Open Question Answering | In this article, we mention Nesto Bank PO Coaching In Chennai with the help of fee structure, location, and much other information in Chennai 2022.
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Bank PO Course Fees NILBatch Size 35 – 40 Students Study Material Bank PO Coaching Notes, Bank PO Exam Preparation Booklets, Bank PO optional coaching Notes, Bank PO Coaching Notes, Video Lectures, Live Classes with faculty, Chat Facility AvailableBank PO Faculties Best Bank PO Coaching Faculties in the Institute. Bank PO Coaching Results Best Bank PO Exam Result in 2022. Many Bank PO toppers have done Bank PO preparation from Nesto Bank PO. Bank PO Coaching Rating 4.7 out of 5 stars Website:- www.nesto.in
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Open Question Answering | Let us know about Common Factors of 24 and 30. What is the GCF of 24 and 30? The GCF of 24 and 30 is 6 . To calculate the GCF of 24 and 30, we need to factor each number (24 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24; factors of 30 = 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10) , 15, 30) and choose the greatest factor that exactly divides both 24 and 30, i.e., 6.
Also, what are the common factors of 309 and 24?
For 9, 24 and 30 those factors look like this: 9: Factors 1, 3, and 9. 24: Factors 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12 and 24. 30: Factors 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15 and 30. Here, what are the common factors of 36 and 30?
GCF of 30 and 36 by listing common factors
4 and 30 have 36 common factors, which are 1, 2, 3, and 6 . Therefore, the greatest common factor of 30 and 36 is 6.
Also to know what is the least common multiple of 24 and 30? The LCM of 24 and 30 is 120 .
What are the factors of 30?
factors of 30 30: Factors 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15 and 30. Negative factors of 30: -1, -2, -3, -5, -6, -10, -15 and -30. 30: prime factors of 2, 3, 5 Prime factorization of 30: 2 × 3 × 5 = 2 × 3 × 5. The sum of the factors of 30:72. What are the common factors of 30? The factors of 30 are 1, 2, 3, 5, 10, 15, and 30 .
What are the common factors of 24 and 32? The GCF of 24 and 32 is 8 . To calculate the greatest common factor of 24 and 32, we need to factor each number (24 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, factors of 24; Factors of 32 = 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32) and choose the greatest factor that completely divides both 24 and 32, i.e., 8.
What are the factors of 10 30 36? The factors of 30 are 30, 15, 10, 6, 5, 3, 2, 1. The factors of 36 are 36, 18, 12, 9, 6, 4, 3, 2, 1. 30 and 36 are 6, 3, 2, 1 , intersecting the two sets above.
What is the GCF of 36 and 27? Answer: The GCF of 27 and 36 is 9 .
What are the factors of 36? factors of 36
36: Factors 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18 and 36. 36: Negative factors of -1, -2, -3, -4, -6, -9, -12, -18 and -36. 36: prime factors of 2, 3 Prime factorization of 36: 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 = 2 2 × 3 2 The sum of the factors of 36:91. What is the smallest common multiple of 24? What is the LCM of 24 and 24? 24 and 24. The LCM of is 24 .
What is HCF of 30? Factors of 30 (thirty) = 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15 and 30. Factors of 24 (twenty four) = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12 and 24. Therefore, the common factor of 30 (thirty) and 24 (twenty four = 1, 2, 3, and 6 . Highest Common Factor (HCF) of 30 (thirty) and 24 (twenty four = 6)
What is a multiple of 24? The multiples of 24 are 24, 48, 72 96,120, 144, 168, 192 , and so on. The multiples of 12 are 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, 108, 120, 132, 144 etc.
What are the three factors of 30? The factors of 30 are 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15 and 30 .
What are the factors and prime factors of 30? The number 30 can be written in a prime factorization as: x x 2 3 5 . All factors are prime numbers. Using the exponential form, 30 = 2 1 3 1 5 1 , indicating that a 3, a 5, and a 30 are multiplied together to get the result of 2.
What are the factors of 10 and 30? The GCF of 10 and 30 is the largest possible number which exactly divides 10 and 30 without any remainder. The factors of 10 and 30 are 1, 2, 5, 10 and 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30 respectively. There are 30 commonly used methods for finding the GCF of 3 and 10 – long division, prime factorization, and the Euclidean algorithm.
What are the two factors of 30? The factors of 30 are 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15 and 30 . The factors of 31 are 1 and 31. Thus, the common factor of 30 and 31 is only 1, because 31 is a prime number.
What are the common factors of 20 and 30? GCF of 20 and 30 by listing common factors
4 and 20 have 30 common factors, which are 1, 2, 10, and 5 . Therefore, the greatest common factor of 20 and 30 is 10.
What are the common factors of two numbers? What is a common factor?
A common factor is a number that can be divided into two different numbers without leaving a remainder. Often numbers may share more than one common factor. It is possible to find the common factors of more than two numbers. What are the factors of 32? factors of 32
32: Factors 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 and 32. 32: Negative factors of -1, -2, -4, -8, -16 and -32. prime factors of 32:2 Prime factors of 32: 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 2 5 The sum of the factors of 32:63. What are the common factors of 36 and 54? The GCF of 36 and 54 is 18 . To calculate the greatest common factor (GCF) of 36 and 54, we need to factor each number (36 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36; 54 = 1, 2 ) is needed. , 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54) and choose the greatest factor that completely divides both 36 and 54, i.e. 18.
What is a GCF of 30? If we break down the factors until all the factors are prime numbers, we say that we have. prime factors of that number. 30 = 5 × 6=5 × 3 × 2. The prime factors of 30 are: 5 3, and 2 . Greatest Common Factor or “GCF”
What are the prime factors that 27 and 36 share? 27: Prime factors for 3, 3, and 3 Prime factors for 36: 2, 2, 3, and 3 .
What is the GCF of 22 and 33? Answer: The GCF of 22 and 33 is 11 .
What is the GCF of 36? Answer: The factors of 36 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36. There are 9 integers which are factors of 36. The greatest factor of 36 is 36. is . 4. |
Open Question Answering | LHE Electronics offers 6 pin connector,An electrical connector is an electromechanical device used to join electrical conductors and create an electrical circuit. Most electrical connectors have a gender – i.e. the male component, called a plug, connects to the female component, or socket. The connection may be removable (as for portable equipment), require a tool for assembly and removal, or serve as a permanent electrical joint between two points. An adapter can be used to join dissimilar connectors.
ZHEJIANG LIANHE ELECTRONICS CO LTD
Year of Established:
1996
Registered address:
NO 8 ChuangxinRoad,YueqingwanZone,Nanyue Town Yueqing,Wenzhou City,Zhejiang China
39(19person have 10year experience,15 person have 5year experience,5person have 3 year experience)
Production Equipment:
njection molding machine (QTY:50)Gantry precision high-speed presses(QTY:40, from Taiwan)Automaticmachine(QTY:60,30 of the made by LHE)low-speed Wire EDM：(QTY:3,from Japan)Electric pulse machine(QTY:10,from Switzerland )Grinding Machine(QTY:30，from Taiwan)
Measuring Equipment:
Energy dispersive X-ray Fluorescence Spectrometer(QTY:1,Japan)CCD inspection equipment(QTY:8)Salt mist test, glow wire tester,Tracking test,Needle flame tester,Leakage test machine,High and low temperature test chamber,Vivtorinox hardness tester,Image measuring instrument, Insulation resistance tester, Resistance tester, (QTY;1 of each)
Marketing Zone
Southeast Asia, North America, South America, Mid East, Western Europe, Northern Europe, Africa, Domestic Marke
1.Q: Do you have a catalogue? Can you send me the catalogue to have a check of all your products?
A: Yes,can contact us on line or send an Email to get catalogue.
2. Q: I can’t find the product on your catalogue, can you make this product for me?
A: Our catalogue shows most of our products,but not all.So just let us know what product do you need,and how many do you want. If we do not have it,we can also design and make a new mould to produce?it.For your reference, making a ordinary mould will take about 35-45 days.
3. Q : What about your delivery time?
A: The stock goods delivery within 1 day, customized goods delivery within 5-7days
Product name:
JST ZR female brass terminal 6 pin connector
Original part number:
6 pin connector
Specification:
6 pin connector,with PA66 connector,brass metal terminal. |
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Exam Name: Administering Visual Studio Team Foundation Server 2012Certification Provider: MicrosoftCorresponding Certifications: MCSD, MCSD: Application Lifecycle Management
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QUESTION 61 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server 2012 (TFS) server that uses default ports for communication. Visual Studio 2012 has been installed on your computer recently. You need to connect to the TFS server. What are two possible options for entering Name or URL in the Connect to TFS dialog box? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
Answer: AB
QUESTION 62 Your network environment is configured according to the following table: You install Microsoft SharePoint Enterprise 2010 on a new server. You need to change the default site collection setting for your TFS installation. What should you do?
A. From the TFS Administration Console, update the team project collection’s SharePoint default site location. B. From IIS Manager, create an alternate access mapping for the new SharePoint default location. C. From the TFS Administration Console, edit the SharePoint Web Application URL. D. From the TFS Command Prompt, run the STSADM.exe command to change the TFS SharePoint default location.
Answer: A
QUESTION 63 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. Your development team uses Visual Studio 2012. You store specialized design files within your Visual Studio solution by using version control. These design files are stored in a proprietary binary format and use the filename extension .dzn. You need to meet the following requirements: – Ensure that all developers can modify these design files. – Prevent multiple check-outs on all .dzn files. – Ensure that all other file types can be edited by multiple developers at the same time. What should you do?
A. Within the Source Control Explorer, right-click each .dzn file and uncheck the Allow multiple check outs option. B. Add a new file type for .dzn to the Team Project Source Control Settings and clear the Enable file merging and multiple check out checkbox. C. Within the Visual Studio Options dialog box for Source Control, add the .dzn extension to the Prevent multiple check-outs for the following file types list in the Visual Studio Team Foundation server node. D. Add a new file type for .dzn to the Team Project Collection Source Control Settings and clear the Enable file merging and multiple check out checkbox.
Answer: D
QUESTION 64 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. Your developers use Visual Studio 2012. Developers frequently work from locations where there is no network connection. You need to ensure that developers are able to easily compare their current changes to the last version retrieved from version control. Which type of workspace should you configure?
A. Server B. Local C. Server-synchronized D. Windows Azure
Answer: B
QUESTION 65 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. You create a new build definition and select the Continuous Integration trigger. The build definition runs a build verification test. You discover that the build fails because the build verification test has not passed, even though compilation of the source code succeeds. You need to prevent further check-ins until the code passes the build verification test and the build succeeds. What should you do?
A. Enable the Builds check-in policy. B. Configure the build definition’s source control folders to be read-only for the other developers. C. Enable the Testing check-in policy. Select the same test that is used as the build verification test to be run and passed for the check-in to succeed. D. Configure the server-side check-in event handler to roll back if the earlier build has failed.
Answer: A
QUESTION 66 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. The Application Lifecycle Management (ALM) Center of Excellence of your organization has created a ruleset to perform the code analysis of the code being developed. You need to ensure that all developer’s code passes the static code analysis with the custom ruleset at the time of check in. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Under the source control of the team project, check in the .ruleset file. B. Create a .reg file on your machine to add a registry entry for the Code Analysis policy with the custom ruleset under HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\1 11.0_Config\TeamFoundation\SourceControl\Checkin Policies. C. Distribute the .reg file that you have created to all developers and request them to run it with elevated privileges. D. Add Code Analysis check-in policy team project source control settings. When prompted, select the custom ruleset file by browsing under the source control.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 67 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. Your development team has a Visual Studio solution file that is used to build a software product. A developer reports that when he retrieves the latest source file to his computer from TFS and performs a build, the build frequently breaks. You need to provide a solution that prevents check-ins to TFS that will break developers’ builds. What should you do?
A. Configure a Team Build for the project and set the build trigger to Continuous Integration. Then modify the build template to automatically roll back check-ins from failed builds. B. Configure a Team Build for the solution and set the trigger to Gated Check-in. C. Configure a Team Build for the solution and set the trigger to Schedule. Then modify the build template to automatically roll back check-ins from failed builds. D. Configure a Team Build for the project and set the build trigger to Continuous Integration.
Answer: B
QUESTION 68 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. You create a new project using the default Visual Studio Scrum 2.0 template. You want to inform the product owner when a Product Backlog Item (PBI) is ready for testing. You need to ensure that when the development of a PBI has been completed, the tester is able to change the state of the item to be Ready for Acceptance Testing. You need to achieve this goal without developing custom code. What are two possible ways to accomplish this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the TFSFieldMapping command to map a new state for Product Backlog Item. B. Use the Visual Studio Process Template editor to modify the Product Backlog Item template. C. Write a Visual Studio Extension (VSIX) so developers can change the state in Visual Studio. D. Modify the Product Backlog Item template XML and use the witadmin command to import the modified XML.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 69 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. Developers use Visual Studio 2012. You want to modify the build definition deployment process. You need to meet the following requirements: – The process will stop new builds from being started while making the modifications. – Builds should queue up while modifications are being made. – Once modifications are complete, all queued builds should be processed. What should you do?
A. Set the build controller’s Processing property to Paused. Once maintenance has been completed, reset the property back to its original value. B. Set the build definition’s Queue Processing property to Paused for each of the build definitions being modified. Once maintenance has been completed, reset the property back to its original value. C. Set the build definition’s Queue Processing property to Disabled for each of the build definitions being modified. Once maintenance has been completed, reset the property back to its original value. D. Set the build controller’s Processing property to Disabled, Once maintenance has been completed, reset the property back to its original value.
Answer: B
QUESTION 70 Your network environment is configured according to the following table: The data tier is configured to use SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) and SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The data tier currently does not contain a database named TFS_Analysis. You need to rebuild the data warehouse, including the SSRS and SSAS databases. What should you do?
A. Log on to the application-tier server, then rebuild and redeploy the data warehouse cube by using SQL Server Business Intelligence Studio. B. Log on to the application-tier server and run the TFSConfig.exe Rebuild Warehouse /analysisServices/ReportingDataSourcePassword: <password> command. C. Log on to the application-tier server. From the Reporting node in the TFS Administration Console, select the Start Rebuild option. D. Log on to the database-tier server and rebuild the data warehouse using SQL Server Management Studio. E. Log on to the database-tier server, then rebuild and redeploy the data warehouse cube by using SQL Server Business Intelligence Studio.
Answer: C
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Open Question Answering | -$75.00
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Microsoft Windows 11 Professional has become the most popular operating system in the world. It is intuitive and easy to use, and features improved security to help keep your PC safe. Windows 11 also features Fast Startup, designed to reduce the time it takes for the computer to boot up from being completely shut down. Additionally, the Start Menu is available in an expanded and customizable format. Windows 11 is also the perfect operating system for running Microsoft Office 2021 software.
Simple And Easy To Use
Windows 11 provides a similar Start Menu to other versions of Windows, but now provides quicks access to all your favorite tools. The familiar start menu is back and better than ever, to give you quick access to your most important tools. Users can also customize the menu and choose which folders appear on the Start link.
Faster Startup
The Fast Startup feature in Windows 11 allows your computer to boot up faster after shutdown. This is partly because, when you shut your computer down, it will put your computer into hibernation mode rather than a full shutdown. It also features a Battery Saver, prolonging your battery time, allowing you to work and play for longer periods when disconnected from a power source.
Security
Windows 11 has improved its security features, including virus and threat protection, malware protection, scanning of the device for threats, and advanced anti-ransomware features. BitLocker is also available to help protect your data with encryption and security management.
Windows 11 Compatibility
Windows 11 is compatible with the applications that operate on Windows 7 or Windows 8/8.1. This means that you will not risk losing any files or documents saved on previous versions of the operating system.
Digital Assistance
Cortana is Microsoft’s personal digital assistant, designed to help save time and stay focused on what needs to get done. Among other things, Cortana helps you manage your calendar, create and manage lists, set reminders and alarms, and opens apps on your computer.
All-new Microsoft Browser
Microsoft Edge is Windows 11 supported browser. Edge is available on all supported versions of Windows, macOS, iOS, and Android. It also allows users to sync passwords, favorites, and settings across multiple devices.
Multi-Tasking
Windows 11 is a great way to stay organized and productive. Windows 11 allows you to open up to four applications on the screen at once – known as screen splitting. You can also create virtual desktops on the same machine for when you need more space.
Remote log-in.
Windows 11 enables you to log in with Remote Desktop to sign in and use your Pro PC while at home or on the road.
Virtual machines.
Windows 11 supports virtual machines, which allows you to run more than one operating system at a time with Hyper-V.
Your apps in the Store.
Windows 11 allows you to create your own private app section so that you can conveniently access your favorite apps.
Includes: Lifetime License key and the Download link
Installation Method: Digital Download Devices Supported: 1 Device Operating Systems Supported: Windows 10, Windows 11 Minimum Hard Drive Space: 4 GB Minimum Memory: 2 GB (32 Bit) / 4 GB (64 Bit) Minimum Processor Speed: 1.6 GHz, 2 Core Processor
Refund policy
Once a purchased software package has been activated or an activation has been attempted through the Microsoft site the package becomes none refundable. We cannot add the software package to our stock if an activation has been completed or attempted. We cannot issue a refund if a customer has purchased the wrong product. Example: A customer purchases a windows software package for a Mac machine.
Microsoft Keys strives to provide our customers with superior assistance in regard to our return services. To ensure that our customers are satisfied with the product(s) they order, we offer a 30-day money-back guarantee, if the download wasn't attempted,
Exchanges Microsoft Keys will exchange software purchases for up to 30 days after order completion but only if the software has not been downloaded by the customer, you can also return your purchased software within 30 days if the software remains none downloaded for a full refund. Refund process Refunds will be credited back to the credit/debit card that customers used to place their order, refunds are processed from our platform immediately the time taken to credit to the customer depends entirely on the customers card issuer and/or bank account. How to initiate a Refund/Exchange Please contact us by email at [email protected] to arrange a refund/replacement.
Q: What is a Digital Download? A: A digital download is described as a product which will be delivered to you through the internet, most commonly through email, giving you access to download the product you have purchased immediately. Microsoft Keys will not dispatch and physical DVD or CD. Your software will be sent within minutes to the email address provided during the order process. Q: How soon after purchase will I receive my software? A: As soon as your payment has been successfully processed you will be able to instantly download your software from the order confirmation page. You will also receive a download link in a confirmation email to the email address provided. Q: How can I be certain that my copy of Microsoft Office is legitimate? A: Microsoft Keys encourages all customers to register their email address with their specific Microsoft Product Key through the Microsoft online activation to ensure verification and tracking of their authentic software. By doing this you will know the Microsoft Office product you have purchased is 100% legitimate. Q: How are you able to sell software for such low prices? A: We work directly with a variety of suppliers to purchase large volumes to get the lowest prices possible, as we save on costs we want to ensure our customers save too. As an online store we have minimal overheads which is also another reason we can offer the product at a reasonable price. Q: Can I buy one licensed software and install it on multiple computers. A: No. Retail Product software licenses are designed to install and active on one computer only. We do however offer bulk deals on all our products. Q: Do you supply your products in large wholesale or bulk orders? A: Yes. Large volume bulk orders can be processed by contacting us directly through live chat or emailing our support team at [email protected]
Q: How do I download my program?
A: Download links are contained within the email containing the license from [email protected] |
Open Question Answering | How Does Squirrel Girl Defeat Deadpool?
How does Squirrel Girl defeat Deadpool? In this article, we will examine the character’s unique abilities: she can communicate with squirrels, uses her teeth and claws to attack enemies, and can communicate with fish. What’s her secret? Read on to find out! The main difference between a normal girl and a super powered squirrel is that she can attack her targets with her teeth and claws.
Table of Contents
Squirrel Girl has powers of a squirrel and a girl Squirrel Girl is a mutant that possesses the powers of a girl and a squirrel, and can communicate with rodents. The young mutant first appeared as part of the Great Lakes Avengers, but now has her own series of comic books. Squirrel Girl’s achievements in comic books are impressive. She has defeated Deadpool, Doctor Doom, and Kraven the Hunter, and is in the process of getting her own movie.
The movie is not without its flaws. Squirrel Girl has the powers of a girl and a squirrel, and her character was born with them. Her character is not only intelligent, but she can also control a squirrel army. Unlike other superheroes, she can rewrite reality and manipulate reality in ways other humans cannot.
She can communicate with squirrels How does Squirrel Girl defeat Deadpool? Basically, Squirrel Girl is a self-aware superhero who uses notes to fight villains. The comics portray Squirrel Girl defeating the hulk and all the other supervillains. But, what is the secret behind her powers? We will look at that shortly. Before we get into the details of how Squirrel Girl defeats Deadpool, let’s take a closer look at this plot point.
The superhero Squirrel Girl is a mutant with superhuman strength, agility, reflexes, and speed. Her sidekick is a squirrel named Tippy Toe. Fans of both heroes have been clamoring for the character to appear in the Marvel Cinematic Universe. However, this is far from confirmed. Some fans have cast Anna Kendrick as Squirrel Girl. As of now, the character is still in development for the Marvel Cinematic Universe, but fans will certainly be happy if she shows up.
She attacks targets with her teeth and claws In ‘Deadpool’, a superhero using her teeth and claws tries to knock a man unconscious. In the end, she succeeds, nudges Bob sideways while he’s still in the air, and waves to the carrier above. ‘Deadpool’ is a funny character who has seen his fair share of tragedies and triumphs.
The two characters have sparred numerous times in the comics. Wolverine has been the winner in most fights, and he’s far more intelligent and experienced in battle than Deadpool. He can incapacitate Wade and chop off his head, but Deadpool’s healing factor and adamantium skeleton makes her a better choice. As far as weapons go, Logan has a higher edge, with her adamantium skeleton and superior weapons.
Vanessa pulls out her katana and slides down the container, where she thrusts the blade into Ajax’s KIDNEY. Ajax, meanwhile, dodges her swings and blocks her attacks. Deadpool then throws a thunderous uppercut to defeat Vanessa. Angel Dust also moves in for the KILL, but Deadpool is unable to fight back because she yanks the katana from Ajax’s hand.
She can communicate with fish The Unbeatable Squirrel Girl, also known as Doreen Green, is one of the strongest superheroes in the Marvel universe. She is a highly self-aware superhero who uses notes as weapons against supervillains. But how does she defeat Deadpool? We’ll explain. And you’ll learn how she does it in this video! Also, be sure to watch Deadpool’s first fight against Spider-Man, as well!
The upcoming comic book film, How Squirrel Girl Defeats Deadpool, tells us more about the villain’s history, and explains how the two characters met in the first place. While Deadpool is a ruthless anti-hero who has a reputation for being an assassin, Squirrel Girl has an edge over her rival. She can speak squirrel, can communicate with other creatures, and has superhuman strength and agility. She is armed with a prehensile tail, razor-sharp claws, and retractable knuckle spikes. The combination of her asskickery and Squirrel Girl is enough to make any villain melt.
After defeating Deadpool, Squirrel Girl sent an army of squirrels after the Time Lord Maelstrom. This forced Deadpool to a vortex, killing all the GLC agents and saving Tippy-Toe, a young monkey who was considered to be Monkey Joe 2. The New Avengers team then revealed their mutant identities. Hawkeye and Songbird then joined the team. Eventually, they defeated the villain in the final battle.
How does Squirrel Girl have the power to defeat Deadpool? Answer: She has the proportionate strength of a squirrel.
How did Squirrel Girl originally defeat Deadpool? Answer: She defeated him by using her tail to block his oxygen supply.
What is one of Squirrel Girl’s most famous victory? Answer: She is most famous for defeating Thanos.
How does Squirrel Girl usually defeat her opponents? Answer: She usually defeats her opponents by using her squirrel like abilities such as her sharp claws and teeth.
What is one of Squirrel Girl’s weaknesses? Answer: One of her weaknesses is that she is afraid of dogs.
What is Deadpool’s real name? Answer: Wade Wilson
What is Deadpool’s superpower? Answer: Deadpool’s superpower is his healing factor which allows him to heal from any wound.
How did Deadpool originally get his healing factor? Answer: Deadpool originally got his healing factor from the Weapon X program.
What is one of Deadpool’s goals? Answer: One of Deadpool’s goals is to kill Spider-Man.
Why does Deadpool want to kill Spider-Man? Answer: Deadpool wants to kill Spider-Man because he was once rejected by him.
Who is Deadpool’s arch-nemesis? Answer: Deadpool’s arch-nemesis is Cable.
What is Cable’s real name? Answer: Nathan Summers
What is Cable’s superpower? Answer: Cable has the ability to control metal with his mind.
How did Cable originally get his metal controlling ability? Answer: Cable originally got his metal controlling ability from the techno-organic virus.
What is the name of Deadpool’s girlfriend? Answer: Deadpool’s girlfriend is Copycat.
Jessica Watson is a PHD holder from the University of Washington. She studied behavior and interaction between squirrels and has presented her research in several wildlife conferences including TWS Annual Conference in Winnipeg. |
Open Question Answering | Q: I have a quick question, which I hope won’t sound stupid. If I use a real estate attorney for the purchase of a bank-owned foreclosed home, is it necessary for me to still have a real estate agent, considering I have already done the footwork myself?
A: Here’s a quick answer: No. You don’t need to hire a real estate agent if you use a good real estate attorney, have already found the house, know what you want to spend on it, know the neighborhood, understand what is going on with real estate in that community, and have already made the offer and had that offer accepted.
However, the bank may have a real estate firm marketing the property and may have already agreed to pay the agent a commission whether or not you bring a buyer’s agent to the table with you. It’s also possible that agent will get a full commission (both sides) because you don’t have an agent.
None of that should concern you, as it’s unlikely the bank will change the price of the home just because of the commission being paid.
Why would you want to have an agent? If you find an agent who is well-versed in foreclosure purchases, you may find you’ll get an even better price by using an agent and you’ll have someone to work on the purchase (which can take months!) while you continue on with your own life. Many great agents also understand the economics of certain neighborhoods and have great insight into specific homes or blocks that a person should avoid, particularly if there is a sense that more homes will be foreclosed on in a particular block.
But since you may have already found the home and done most everything an agent would do, it’s probably not worth your time to hunt for an agent at this point in the game. I do like the idea of you using a real estate attorney, however. Buying a short sale or a foreclosure can be difficult and an attorney will make sure you are protected.
April 24, 2009 |
Open Question Answering | [ad_1] Why Is My AC Making Noise in My Car?
The air conditioning (AC) system in your car is responsible for keeping you cool and comfortable during those hot summer days. However, there may come a time when you notice unusual noises coming from your AC unit. These noises can range from a slight humming or buzzing sound to a loud and obnoxious racket. In this article, we will explore some common reasons why your AC may be making noise in your car.
1. Compressor Issues: One of the most common culprits behind a noisy AC system is a problem with the compressor. The compressor is responsible for pressurizing the refrigerant and circulating it through the AC system. If the compressor becomes worn out or damaged, it may start making rattling, grinding, or squealing noises. This could indicate a need for compressor repair or replacement.
2. Loose or Worn Belts: Another possible cause of noise from your AC system is loose or worn belts. The belts in your car’s engine are responsible for driving various components, including the AC compressor. Over time, these belts can become loose or worn out, leading to squealing or chirping sounds. It is essential to have these belts checked and replaced if necessary to prevent further damage to your AC system.
3. Fan Issues: The AC unit in your car has a fan that helps circulate the cool air throughout the vehicle. If the fan becomes dirty, loose, or damaged, it may start making loud noises. These noises can range from a whirring sound to a loud, clanking noise. Regular maintenance and cleaning of the fan can help prevent these issues.
4. Clogged or Dirty Condenser: The condenser is responsible for releasing the heat absorbed by the refrigerant. If the condenser becomes clogged or dirty, it can restrict airflow, leading to a strain on the AC system. This strain can result in unusual noises, such as hissing or gurgling sounds. Regular cleaning and maintenance of the condenser can help prevent these issues.
5. Refrigerant Leak: A refrigerant leak in your AC system can cause a variety of problems, including noise. When the refrigerant level drops, the compressor may have to work harder, resulting in strange noises. Additionally, a refrigerant leak can lead to the formation of ice on the evaporator coil, causing a rattling or hissing sound. It is crucial to have any refrigerant leaks repaired promptly to avoid further damage to your AC system.
FAQs:
Q: Is it safe to drive my car if the AC is making noise? A: While some AC noises may not indicate immediate danger, it is advisable to have your AC system inspected by a professional. Ignoring the issue may lead to further damage and costly repairs.
Q: Can I fix the AC noise myself? A: Some minor issues, such as loose belts, can be fixed by tightening or replacing them. However, for more complex issues, it is recommended to seek professional help to avoid causing further damage.
Q: How often should I have my AC system inspected? A: It is recommended to have your AC system inspected at least once a year, preferably before the summer season. Regular maintenance can help identify and prevent potential issues before they become major problems.
Q: Can a noisy AC impact fuel efficiency? A: Yes, a noisy AC can impact fuel efficiency. If your AC system is not operating efficiently, it may require more energy to cool the vehicle, resulting in decreased fuel economy.
In conclusion, if you notice unusual noises coming from your AC system, it is essential to have it inspected and repaired by a professional. Ignoring the issue may lead to further damage and costly repairs down the line. Regular maintenance and cleaning can help prevent many AC noise issues, ensuring a comfortable and quiet ride during those hot summer days. [ad_2] |
Open Question Answering | Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics:
According to this law, two systems in thermal equilibrium with a third system separately are in thermal equilibrium with each other. Thus, if A and B are separately in equilibrium with C, that is if TA = TC and TB = TC , then this implies that TA = TB i.e., the systems A and B are also in thermal equilibrium.
First Law of Thermodynamics:
Heat given to a thermodynamic system (ΔQ) is partially utilized in doing work (ΔW) against the surrounding and the remaining part increases the internal energy (ΔU) of the system.
Therefore, ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
First law of thermodynamics is a restatement of the principle conservation of energy.
In an isothermal process, change in internal energy is zero (ΔU = 0).
Therefore, ΔQ = ΔW
In an adiabatic process, no exchange of heat takes place, i.e., Δθ = O.
Therefore, ΔU = – ΔW
In an adiabatic process, if gas expands, its internal energy and hence, temperature decreases and vice-versa.
In an isochoric process, work done is zero, i.e., ΔW = 0, therefore
ΔQ = ΔU
Thermodynamic Processes:
A thermodynamical process is said to take place when some changes occur in the state of a thermodynamic system i.e., the thermodynamic parameters of the system change with time.
(i) Isothermal Process:
A process taking place in a thermodynamic system at constant temperature is called an isothermal process.
Isothermal processes are very slow processes.
These process follows Boyle’s law, according to which
pV = constant
From dU = nCv dT as dT = 0 so dU = 0, i.e., internal energy is constant.
From first law of thermodynamics, dQ = dW, i.e., heat given to the system is equal to the work done by system surroundings.
Work done W = 2.3026μRT l0g10 (Vf / Vi ) = 2.3026μRT l0g10 (pi / pf )
where, μ = number of moles, R = ideal gas constant, T = absolute temperature and Vi Vf and Pi , Pf are initial volumes and pressures.
After differentiating P V = constant, we have
i.e., bulk modulus of gas in isothermal process, β = p.
P – V curve for this persons is a rectangular hyperbola
Examples:
(a) Melting process is an isothermal change, because temperature of a substance remains constant during melting.
(b) Boiling process is also an isothermal operation.
(ii) Adiabatic Process
A process taking place in a thermodynamic system for which there is no exchange of heat between the system and its surroundings.
Adiabatic processes are very fast processes.
These process follows Poisson’s law, according to which
From dQ = nCdT, Cadi = 0 as dQ = 0, i.e., molar heat capacity for adiabatic process is zero.
From first law, dU = – dW, i.e., work done by the system is equal to decrease in internal energy. When a system expands adiabatically, work done is positive and hence internal energy decrease, i.e., the system cools down and vice-versa.
Work done in an adiabatic process is
where Ti and Tf are initial and final temperatures. Examples
(a) Sudden compression or expansion of a gas in a container with perfectly non-conducting wall.
(b) Sudden bursting of the tube of a bicycle tyre.
(c) Propagation of sound waves in air and other gases.
(iii) Isobaric Process
A process taking place in a thermodynamic system at constant pressure is called an isobaric process.
Molar heat capacity of the process is Cp and dQ = nCp dT.
Internal energy dU = nCv dT
From the first law of thermodynamics dQ = dU + dW dW = pdV = nRdT
Process equation is V / T = constant.
p- V curve is a straight line parallel to volume axis.
(iv) Isochoric Process
A process taking place in a thermodynamics system at constant volume is called an isochoric process.
dQ = nCv dT, molar heat capacity for isochoric process is Cv .
Volume is constant, so dW = 0,
Process equation is p / T = constant
p- V curve is a straight line parallel to pressure axis.
(v) Cyclic Process
When a thermodynamic system returns to the initial state after passing through several states, then it is called cyclic process. Efficiency of the cycle is given by
Work done by the cycle can be computed from area enclosed cycle on p- V curve.Isothermal and Adiabatic Curves
The graph drawn between the pressure p and the volume V of a given mass of a gas for an isothermal process is called isothermal curve and for an adiabatic process it is called adiabatic curve .
Fig: Isothermal vs adiabatic curve
The slope of the adiabatic curve
= γ x the slope of the isothermal curve
Volume Elasticities of Gases:
There are two types of volume elasticities of gases:
(i) Isothermal modulus of elasticity ES = p
(ii) Adiabatic modulus of elasticity ET = γ p
Ratio between isothermal and adiabatic modulus
ES / ET = γ = Cp / CV
where Cp and Cv are specific heats of gas at constant pressure and at constant volume.
For an isothermal process Δt = 0, therefore specific heat,
c = Δ θ / m Δt = &;
For an adiabatic process 119= 0, therefore specific heat,
c = 0 / m Δt = 0
Second Law of Thermodynamics:
The second law of thermodynamics gives a fundamental limitation to the efficiency of a heat engine and the coefficient of performance of a refrigerator. It says that efficiency of a heat engine can never be unity (or 100%). This implies that heat released to the cold reservoir can never be made zero.
Kelvin’s Statement:
It is impossible to obtain a continuous supply of work from a body by cooling it to a temperature below the coldest of its surroundings.
Clausius’ Statement:
It is impossible to transfer heat from a lower temperature body to a higher temperature body without use of an external agency.
Planck’s Statement:
It is impossible to construct a heat engine that will convert heat completely into work.
All these statements are equivalent as one can be obtained from the other.
Entropy:
Entropy is a physical quantity that remains constant during a reversible adiabatic change.
Change in entropy is given by dS = δQ / T
Where, δQ = heat supplied to the system
and T = absolute temperature.
Entropy of a system never decreases, i.e., dS ≥ o.
Entropy of a system increases in an irreversible process
Heat Engine:
A heat energy engine is a device which converts heat energy into mechanical energy.
Fig: Heat Engine
A heat engine consists of three parts:
(i) Source of heat at higher temperature
(ii) Working substance
(iii) Sink of heat at lower temperature
Thermal efficiency of a heat engine is given by
where Q1 is heat absorbed from the source,
Q2 is heat rejected to the sink and T1 and T2 are temperatures of source and sink.
Heat engine are of two types:
(i) External Combustion Engine: In this engine fuel is burnt a chamber outside the main body of the engine. e.g., steam engine. In practical life thermal efficiency of a steam engine varies from 12% to 16%.
(ii) Internal Combustion Engine: In this engine, fuel is burnt inside the main body of the engine. e.g., petrol and diesel engine. In practical life thermal efficiency of a petrol engine is 26% and a diesel engine is 40%.
1. What are the laws of thermodynamics?
2. What is a heat engine?
3. How does the first law of thermodynamics relate to heat engines?
4. What is the second law of thermodynamics and its significance for heat engines?
5. What is the significance of the third law of thermodynamics in relation to heat engines? |
Open Question Answering | Introduction Keeping ourselves healthy and maintaining overall well-being is crucial for living a happy and productive life. While there are various ways to achieve this, incorporating natural health tips into our daily routine can significantly enhance our vitality. In this article, we will explore some easy-to-follow natural health tips that can help boost your well-being.
Eat a Balanced Diet One of the fundamental aspects of natural health is feeding your body with proper nutrition. A balanced diet consisting of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats provides essential nutrients, antioxidants, and fiber that contribute to a strong immune system and a healthy body. It is important to limit the intake of processed foods and refined sugars as they can lead to various health issues.
Stay Hydrated Water is essential for maintaining the proper functioning of our body. Drinking an adequate amount of water throughout the day helps in detoxifying the body, carrying nutrients to cells, regulating body temperature, and promoting digestion. It also helps in maintaining healthy skin, preventing dehydration, and enhancing overall energy levels.
Engage in Regular Physical Activity Exercise is not only beneficial for weight management but also plays a significant role in improving mental health and overall well-being. Engaging in regular physical activity, be it through jogging, yoga, strength training, or any other form of exercise, helps in reducing stress, boosting mood, increasing energy levels, improving sleep quality, and enhancing overall cardiovascular health.
Get Sufficient Sleep A good night’s sleep is vital for our physical and mental well-being. It is during sleep that our body repairs and rejuvenates itself. Lack of proper sleep can lead to fatigue, irritability, difficulty concentrating, weakened immune system, and various health problems. To ensure quality sleep, establish a bedtime routine, create a comfortable sleeping environment, limit screen time before bed, and aim for 7-9 hours of sleep every night.
Reduce Stress Levels Chronic stress can have detrimental effects on our health, both mentally and physically. Finding healthy ways to manage stress is essential for overall well-being. Engaging in activities like meditation, deep breathing exercises, spending time in nature, practicing mindfulness, and pursuing hobbies can help reduce stress, promote relaxation, and improve mental clarity.
Prioritize Mental Health Maintaining good mental health is as important as physical health. Taking care of your mental well-being involves acknowledging your feelings, seeking support when needed, practicing self-care, and prioritizing activities that bring joy and fulfillment. Connecting with loved ones, engaging in positive self-talk, and seeking professional help if required are vital for mental well-being.
FAQs Q: How can a balanced diet improve my overall well-being? A: A balanced diet provides essential nutrients, antioxidants, and fiber that strengthen the immune system, support healthy bodily functions, and prevent various health issues.
Q: How much water should I drink daily? A: While individual needs may vary, it is recommended to consume at least 8 glasses (64 ounces) of water per day. However, factors such as activity level and climate should also be considered.
Q: Can exercise help with mental health? A: Yes, regular physical activity has been proven to reduce stress, improve mood, and enhance overall mental well-being.
Q: How can I reduce stress in my daily life? A: Engaging in activities such as meditation, deep breathing exercises, spending time in nature, and pursuing hobbies can help reduce stress and promote relaxation.
Q: Why is prioritizing mental health important? A: Prioritizing mental health helps to maintain emotional well-being, cope with daily challenges, and lead a fulfilling and balanced life. |
Open Question Answering | The DAV Class 4 Science Book Solutions and DAV Class 4 Science Chapter 2 Question Answer – Plants are essential study tools for DAV public school students in Class 4.
DAV Class 4 Science Chapter 2 Question Answer – Plants DAV Class 4 Science Ch 2 Question Answer – Plants Something To Know
A. Fill in the blanks:
Question 1. ______ is the underground part of a plant. Answer: Root
Question 2. Roots absorb ______ and ______ for the plant. Answer: Water, minerals
Question 3. Neem and peepal have ______ roots. Answer: Tap
Question 4. ______ and ______ are two main functions of roots. Answer: Absorption, fixatio
Question 5. Mangrove plants have ______ roots. Answer: Aerial.
B. Write True or False for the following statements.
1. Carrot and beetroot store food in them. 2. Beans and rose have fibrous roots. 3. All roots are edible. 4. Roots do not get sufficient oxygen in marshy areas. Answer: 1. Carrot and beetroot store food in them. (True) 2. Beans and rose have fibrous roots. (False) 3. All roots are edible. (False) 4. Roots do not get sufficient oxygen in marshy areas. (True)
C. Tick (✓) the correct option.
1. The root of this plant stores food (a) mango (b) apple (c) banana (d) carrot Answer: (d) carrot
2. This plant has a tap root (a) banana (b) grass (c) wheat (d) rose Answer: (d) rose
3. These plants have breathing roots (a) mangrove (b) apple (c) neem (d) peepal Answer: (a) mangrove
D. Answer the following Questions in brief.
Question 1. Name the two different types of roots. Answer: Types of roots: (a) Tap root (b) Fibrous root
Question 2. Give two examples of plants having fibrous roots. Answer: Grass and wheat
Question 3. Why do aerial roots need to come out of the soil? Answer: Roots of plants in marshy areas do not get sufficient oxygen. In these plants, aerial roots need to come out of the soil. This helps the roots in getting enough oxygen.
E. Answer the following Questions.
Question 1. Draw the shape of the tap root and the fibrous root. Answer:
Question 2. In what way(s) is the tap root different from the fibrous root? Answer:
Tap root Fibrous root A single, long root comes out from the plant. Many roots come out from the plant. A tap root usually grow deeper into the soil. Fibrous roots do not grow much deeper into the soil.
Question 3. State two main functions of roots. Answer: Two main functions of roots are as follows: (a) Anchoring the plant in to the soil. (b) Absorption of water and minerals from the soil.
Question 4. In what way are the roots of banyan tree and maize ‘special’? Answer: The roots of banyan tree and maize serve special purpose. These roots provide extra support to the banyan tree or the maize plant. Hence, roots of banyan and maize trees can be called ‘special’.
Value Based Questions
Question 1. What does the above situation tell us about Rohan? Answer: Rohan appears to be a nice boy. He is concerned about the environment. He is also concerned about the difficulties of poor people.
Question 2. How did he help the watchman? Answer: Rohan helped the watchman by giving him a blanket.
Question 3. Rohan, stopped the watchman from cutting trees. Have you ever done anything similar to save your environment? Answer: Once I was playing in the nearby park. I saw the gardener trying to burn a heap of dry leaves. I explained to him that it was bad for the environment. The gardener understood the matter and stopped burning those leaves. He buried those leaves in a pit to make compost. That is how I tried to save the environment.
Something To Do.
Question 1. Take a small sapling of grass and a mustard plant, observe their roots and note down their differences, if any. Answer: Tap root is present in mustard plant, while fibrous roots are present in grass.
Question 2. Prepare a chart showing some ‘edible roots’. List down the ways in which they are usually eaten. Answer:
Edible roots Way of eating Carrot Raw and cooked Radish Raw and cooked Beetroot Raw and cooked Sweet potato Cooked
In Class-III, we learnt a little bit about plants. Let us revise the same completing the following statements:
Help Box: chlorophyll, stem, seeds, root.
(a) ______ fixes the plant to the soil. Answer: Root
(b) ______ supports the plant and keeps it upright. Answer: stem
(c) ______ Leaf has in it to prepare food and to make it green. Answer: chlorophyll
(d) Fruits have ______ in them which germinate to form plants. Answer: Seeds
DAV Class 4 Science Chapter 2 Solutions – Plants I. Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Which part of the plant usually grows under the ground? (a) Root (b) Stem (c) Leaves (d) Buds Answer: (a) Root
2. Which of the following plants has edible root? (a) Banana (b) Carrot (c) Neem (d) Pea Answer: (b) Carrot
3. Which of the following plants has special roots for extra support? (a) Mango (b) Neem (c) Banyan (d) Guava Answer: (c) Banyan
4. Which of the following plants has fibrous roots? (a) Mango (b) Neem (c) Banana (d) Peepal Answer: (c) Banana
5. Which of the following plants has tap root? (a) Pea (b) Wheat (c) Maize (d) Grass Answer: (a) Pea
II. Fill in the blanks:
Question 1. ______ of a carrot plant can be eaten. Answer: Root
Question 2. Special roots come out from ______ of a banyan tree. Answer: branches
Question 3. Special roots come out from the ______ of stem in a maize plant. Answer: base
Question 4. ______ plants grow in marshy areas. Answer: mangrove
Question 5. ______ roots have branches. Answer: Tap.
III. Write True or False for the following:
1. Stems usually grow under the ground. 2. Roots usually grow above the ground. 3. Roots help a plant to stand upright in soil. 4. Tap root is found in a maize plant. 5. Fibrous roots are found in wheat plant. Answer: 1. Stems usually grow under the ground. (False) 2. Roots usually grow above the ground. (False) 3. Roots help a plant to stand upright in soil. (True) 4. Tap root is found in a maize plant. (False) 5. Fibrous roots are found in wheat plant. (True)
IV. Answer the following Questions in one word:
Question 1. Which type of root has branches? Answer: Tap root
Question 2. Which type of root does not have | branches? Answer: Fibrous root
Question 3. What is the name of a root which can I be eaten? Answer: Edible root
Question 4. What is the source of water and minerals i for plants? Answer: Soil
Question 5. What is the function of special roots in a banyan tree? Answer: Extra support
V. Answer the following Questions in brief:
Question 1. What are the functions of roots? Answer: Following are the functions of roots:
Roots hold the plant upright in soil. Roots help the plant to absorb water and minerals from the soil. Question 2. Explain different types of roots. Answer: There are two types of roots. These are as follows: (a) Tap Root: A single, main, long root with many thin roots arising from it is called tap root. Examples: beans, okra, mango, neem, peepal, etc.
(b) Fibrous Roots: When many thin roots arise from the base of the plant; they are called fibrous roots. Examples: banana, maize, wheat, rice, grass, etc.
Question 3. Write the names of the main parts of a plant. Answer: A plant has following main parts: root, stem, branches, leaves, flowers and fruits.
Question 4. What is the function of aerial roots in mangrove plants? Answer: The aerial roots in mangrove plants allow fresh air to enter the roots.
Question 5. What is the special function of roots in a carrot plant?
VI. Picture Based Question
Question 1. Label the following figure as shown by 1 to 5 Answer: 1. Root 2. Stem 3. Leaf 4. Flower 5. Fruit.
DAV Class 4 Science Chapter 2 Notes – Plants → Parts of a plant: A plant has six main parts: root, stem, branches, leaves, flowers and fruits.
→ Root: Root usually grows under the ground. When the plant grows, its roots become thick and woody with corky outer layer.
→ Types of Root: There are two types of roots. These are as follows:
Tap Root: A single main long root with many thin roots arising from it, is called tap root. Examples: beans, okra, mango, neem, peepal, etc. Fibrous Roots: When many thin roots arise from the base of the plant; they are called fibrous roots. Examples: banana, maize, wheat, rice, grass, etc.
→ Functions of Root
Roots hold the plant upright in soil. Roots help the plant to absorb water and minerals from the soil. → Special Functions of Root
In some plants, food is stored in roots. Examples: carrot, radish and beetroot. Such roots are used as food and are also called edible roots. In some plants roots provide extra support. For example; in a banyan tree roots grow from the branches and go down into the ground. These roots provide extra support to the banyan tree. In maize plant, many roots come out from the base of the stem to provide extra support. In mangrove plants, hollow roots grow in upward direction. These hollow roots provide passage for fresh air to enter. Mangrove plants are found in marshy areas and air is not present in marsh. Such roots are called aerial roots. |
Open Question Answering | 2017 July Cisco Official New Released 400-101 Dumps in Lead2pass.com!
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QUESTION 201 Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three)
A. IPv6 NA B. NHRP C. HSRP D. DVMRP E. GLBP F. IPv6 RA
Answer: CEF
QUESTION 202 An IPv6 network has different MTUs on different segments, if the network is experiencing reliability issues, which option is the most likely reason?
A. ICMPv6 is filtered. B. The Do Not Fragment bit is marked. C. HSRPv6 is configured incorrectly. D. The MTU size is greater than 1470 bytes.
Answer: A
QUESTION 203 What are two reasons for an OSPF neighbor relationship to be stuck in exstart/exchange state? (Choose two.)
A. There is an area ID mismatch B. There is an MTU mismatch C. Both routers have the same router ID. D. There is an authentication mismatch E. Both routers have the same OSPF process ID
Answer: BC
QUESTION 204 Which IP SLA operation requires Cisco endpoints?
A. UDP Jitter for VoIP B. ICMP Path Echo C. ICMP Echo D. UDP Jitter
Answer: A
QUESTION 205 What are two functions of an NSSA in an OSPF network design ?(Choose two)
A. It overcomes issues with suboptimal routing when there are multiple exit points from the areas B. It uses opaque LSAs C. It allows ASBRs to inject extemal routing information into the area D. An ASBR advertises type 7 LSAs into the area E. An ABR advertises type 7 LSAs into the area
Answer: CD
QUESTION 206 Which two statements about out-of-order packet transmission are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can occur when packets are duplicated and resent B. It occurs only over TCP connections C. It can occur when packets are dropped and resent D. It can occur when packets take the same path to arrive at the same destination E. It can occur when packets use different paths to arrive at the same destination.
Answer: BE
QUESTION 207 What is used to acknowledge the receipt of LSPs on a point-to-point network in IS-IS?
A. hello B. CSNP C. PSNP D. IIH E. CSH
Answer: C
QUESTION 208 Which two options are restrictions of BGP ORF? (Choose two)
A. It can be used only with IPv4 multicast. B. It requires access lists to match routes. C. It can be used only with eBGP. D. Multicast is not supported. E. It can be used only with iBGP.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 209 What are the two Cisco recommended methods for reducing the size of the TCAM on a Layer 3 switch? (Choose two)
A. Use the ip route profile command. B. Adjust the output queue buffers. C. Filter unwanted routes. D. Optimize the SDM template. E. Use summary routes.
Answer: CE
QUESTION 210 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. The Cisco PfR state is UP; however, the external interface Et0/1 of border router 10.1.1.1 has exceeded the maximum available bandwidth threshold. B. The Cisco PfR state is UP; however, an issue is preventing the border router from establishing a TCP session to the master controller. C. The Cisco PfR state is UP and is able to monitor traffic flows; however, MD5 authentication has not been successful between the master controller and the border routers. D. The Cisco PfR State is UP; however, the receive capacity was not configured for inbound traffic. E. The Cisco PfR state is UP, and the link utilization out-of-policy threshold is set to 90 percent for traffic exiting the external links.
Answer: E
QUESTION 211 Which two statements about TCP MSS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The two endpoints in a TCP connection report their MSS values to one another. B. It operates at Layer 3. C. MSS values are sent in TCP SYN packets D. It sets the maximum amount of data that a host sends in an individual datagram E. It sets the minimum amount of data that a host accepts in an individual datagram
Answer: CD
QUESTION 212 Which Cisco PfR monitoring mode is recommended for Internet edge deployments?
A. active mode B. fast mode C. active throughput mode D. passive mode
Answer: D
QUESTION 213 Which Catalyst switch feature configured on a per-port basis can be used to prevent attached hosts from joining select multicast group?
A. IGMP Filtering B. MLD Filtering C. IGMP Snooping D. PIM Snooping
Answer: A
QUESTION 214 Which information is contained in an OSPF Type 7 Not-So-Stubby Area NSSA External LSA?
A. The paths and costs to all OSPF NSSA areas that are external to the current area. B. The path and costs to reach other stub area border routers in the OSPF routing domain. C. The address of routers that connect the current area to other areas and the cost to reach those routers. D. External network address,mask,and cost to reach each network that is external to the OSPF domain and only within the NSSA E. The external network address,mask,and cost to reach networks that are external to the OSPF NSSA,including the default route.
Answer: D
QUESTION 215 Drag and Drop Question Drag each set action for policy-based routing on the left to the matching statement on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION 216 Drag and Drop Question
Answer:
QUESTION 217 Drag and Drop Question IPv4 host address on the left to the matching network address on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION 218 Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop each EIGRP packet type from the left onto the matching description on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION 219 Drag and Drop Question
Answer:
QUESTION 220 Drag and Drop Question
Answer:
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QUESTION 11 You configure Active Directory Federation Services to issue security tokens for users. What are the individual pieces of data inside a token called?
A. credentials B. signatures C. trusts D. claims
Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which authentication model does Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online support?
A. client certificates B. direct authentication to Active Directory C. forms authentication D. authentication to Active Directory through a Security Token Services server
Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A user has a Basic license for Microsoft Dynamics CRM. For which two objects does the user have read-only access? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Leads B. Cases C. Opportunities D. System dashboards
Answer: BC
QUESTION 14 You need to access Microsoft Dynamics CRM by using CRM for Tablets on an Apple device. Which configuration is supported?
A. a fourth generation iPad that runs iOS 6 B. a second generation iPad Mini that runs iOS 7 C. a third generation iPad Mini that runs iOS 8.1 D. a third generation iPad that runs iOS 5.1
Answer: C
QUESTION 15 You configure Active Directory Federation Services to authenticate users to Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online. You are signing in with a domain account. Which component is responsible for creating the login page?
A. Microsoft Dynamics CRM B. the browser C. the Security Token Service D. Azure Active Directory
Answer: B
QUESTION 16 You add a new user to Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online. You assign the user the System administrator role. The user reports that he cannot access all of the available entities. The only entities available are used to configure or customize the system. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The user does not have the security role assigned. B. The user does not have a Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online license. C. The user is on the incorrect business unit. D. The user Access mode is set to Administrative mode
Answer: D
QUESTION 17 You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM. You did NOT install Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions. Which task are you able to perform?
A. Upload fetch-based reports. B. Run default reports. C. Import an organization. D. Upload SQL-based reports.
Answer: D
QUESTION 18 You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server. You must install the Asynchronous Processing Service on a different server than the Microsoft Dynamics CRM website. Which server role group should you install on the server that runs the Asynchronous Processing Service?
A. Back-End Server B. Front-End Server C. Deployment Administration Server D. Full Server
Answer: A
QUESTION 19 You plan to install Microsoft Dynamics CRM. You need install the supporting components that are required before you begin the installation. Which component should you install?
A. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions B. SQL Server Reporting Services C. Microsoft SharePoint D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Email Router
Answer: B
QUESTION 20 What does a system job with a suspended status represent?
A. The process is waiting for resources to be available. B. The process has not started yet. C. The process has failed. D. The process is currently in a waiting state that is caused by a predefined condition.
Answer: D
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QUESTION 45 As the Cisco ACI fabric administrator for a service provider, you have deployed a multitenant environment for your customers. Can a customer see the configuration of other customers’ environments and fabric configurations?
A. Yes, by default, all tenants of the fabric have administrative permissions. B. No, read/write restrictions prevent tenants from seeing other tenants including fabric configurations. C. No, intrusion detection devices hinder intertenant communication. D. Yes, by extrapolating data contained in multicast encapsulated frames, a tenant can intercept data of other tenants.
Answer: B
QUESTION 46 Which entity manages Layer 4 to Layer 7 services in the Cisco ACI?
A. vendor B. Cisco APIC C. MP-BGP D. ISIS
Answer: B
QUESTION 47 How can system and pod health scores be viewed?
A. GUI system dashboard B. cumulonimbus collector C. Cisco APIC Python D. Cisco Health Score Viewer
Answer: A
QUESTION 48 Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI?
A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway. B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine. C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant’s bridge domain exists. D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric.
Answer: C
QUESTION 49 On what does the Cisco ACI fabric object-oriented operating system run?
A. each Cisco Nexus 9000 series node B. each Cisco Nexus 9000 leaf node C. each Cisco Nexus 9000 spine node D. only the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
Answer: A
QUESTION 50 How does the Cisco ACI fabric decouple host identity from its location in the fabric?
A. VTEP addresses B. contract C. end point groups D. L2VPN EVPN address family
Answer: C
QUESTION 51 Which best describes the Cisco ACI fabric configuration?
A. manual discovery, manual provisioning, 10- and 40-Gb/s links, Clos design B. autodiscovery, manual provisioning, 10- and 40-Gb/s links, Clos design C. autodiscovery, zero-touch provisioning, 40-Gb/s links, Clos design D. manual discovery, zero-touch provisioning, 40-Gb/s links, Clos design
Answer: C
QUESTION 52 What is the requirement to establish connectivity in the Cisco ACI fabric between two EPGs in separate tenants?
A. scope tenant contract B. scope private contract C. scope intertenant contract D. scope global contract
Answer: D
QUESTION 53 Which network protocol is used for Cisco ACI fabric data plane forwarding?
A. VXLAN B. ISIS C. MP-BGP D. FabricPath
Answer: A
QUESTION 54 The Cisco ACI solution allows users to use Layer 2 and Layer 3 to connect to outside networks. What are two valid use cases for this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Connect to an existing switch network infrastructure and provide connection between workloads in the ACI fabric and workloads outside of the ACI fabric. B. Connect to LAN routers in the data center so that a LAN router provides data-center interconnect or Internet access for tenants. C. Extend the Layer 2 domain from ACI to a DCI platform so that the Layer 2 domain of ACI can be extended to a remote data center. D. In the existing data centers, connect a new switching network to an ACI leaf, and create a new VLAN and subnet across ACI and the existing network.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 55 In Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. In Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. Which order should the configuration be done? 1) Create connection points between EPGs by using policy constructs. 2) Create policies to define connectivity with permit, deny, log, and so on. 3) Create EPGs.
A. 3, 2, 1 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 2, 3, 1 D. 1, 3, 2
Answer: A
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