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Fetal hea can be detected earliest with trans-vaginal sonography at (from the last menstrual period | 46 days | 6,300 | medmcqa_train |
NO is synthesized by - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Arginine * Nitric oxide, also called endothelium-derived-relaxing factor (EDRF), is formed from amino acid arginine, by the action of the enzyme NO synthase, which is cytosolic.ArginineNO synthase-------Citrulline + NO | 6,301 | medmcqa_train |
The serum concentration of which of the following human Ig is maximum: | IgG | 6,302 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are maternal adverse outcomes which are increased in women with threatened aboion except: | Adverse Outcomes That are Increased in Women with Threatened AboionMaternalPerinatalPlacenta prePPROM & PROM Placental abruptionPreterm bihManual removal of placentaLow bih weightCesarean deliveryFetal growth restrictionFetal and neonatal feath(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | 6,303 | medmcqa_train |
A 12 year old male patient complains of pain in upper front teeth region and gives a history of fall while playing 30 minutes ago. Intra oral examination reveals intrusion of maxillary right central incisor by 2 mm. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? | The treatment for a permanent tooth with a closed root end, and intruded less than 3 mm, is to allow the tooth to erupt without intervention. If no movement is evident after 2 to 4 weeks, the tooth may be repositioned either orthodontically or surgically before ankylosis can take place. If the tooth is intruded 7 mm or more, the tooth is repositioned surgically and stabilized for 4 to 8 weeks by means of a flexible splint. In most instances the pulp will become necrotic with intrusive injuries in teeth with complete root formation. Root canal treatment should be initiated, with calcium hydroxide as a temporary canal- filling material, 2 to 3 weeks after stabilization.
The treatment for an intruded permanent tooth with incomplete root formation is to allow it to erupt spontaneously. If no movement is seen within a few weeks, orthodontic repositioning should begin. If the tooth is intruded 7 mm or more, the tooth can be repositioned surgically and stabilized by means of a flexible splint. Endodontic therapy is often required, however, and the tooth should be monitored closely while a decision on endodontic therapy is pending. | 6,304 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder is: | Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder. However, it must be remembered that benzodiazepines can cause dependence. The other drugs which can be used include SSRIs buspirone and venlafaxine. | 6,305 | medmcqa_train |
Arlts line is seen in | Arlts line is a linear scarring on the upper palpebral conjunctiva in patients of trachoma REF:Refer Khurana 6th edition page number 69 | 6,306 | medmcqa_train |
Squeeze technique is used for? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Premature ejaculation * Squeeze technique (Seman's technique) is used for premature ejaculation. When the male partner experiences 'ejaculatory inevitability' the female partner 'squeezes' the penis on the coronal ridge thus delaying ejaculation. | 6,307 | medmcqa_train |
A young male patient presents with complete rectal prolapse. The surgery of choice is | Surgery is required, and the operation can be performed the perineal or the abdominal approaches. An abdominal rectopexy has a lower rate of recurrence,As an abdominal procedure risks damage to the pelvic autonomic nerves, resulting in possible sexual dysfunction, a perineal approach is also usually preferred in young men. Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1225 | 6,308 | medmcqa_train |
The drug that inhibits uterine contractility and cause pulmonary edema is: | Pulmonary edema is a serious complication of beta-adrenergic therapy (ritodrine) and MgSO4.
This complication occurs in patients receiving oral or (more common) intravenous treatment.
It occurs more frequently in patients who have excessive plasma volume expansion, such as those with twins or those who have received generous amounts of intravenous fluids and in patients with chorioamnionitis.
Patient presents with respiratory distress, bilateral rales on auscultation of the lungs, pink frothy sputum, and typical X-ray picture.
Patients receiving IV beta-adrenergic drugs should be monitored continuously with pulse oxymeter to anticipate the development of pulmonary edema. | 6,309 | medmcqa_train |
Influenzae virus belongs to which family? | Ans. (b) OrthomyxovirusRef: Appendix-141 for viruses classification | 6,310 | medmcqa_train |
Composition of toned milk is approximately close to: | Toned milk is a blend of natural milk and made up milk. It contains 1 pa water, 1 pa natural milk and 1/8 th pa of skimmed milk powder. It has composition almost equivalent to cow milk. Ref: Park, 22nd edition pg: 584 | 6,311 | medmcqa_train |
Noble prize for sequencing insulin aminoacid sequence & molecular structure was given to: | B i.e. Sanger | 6,312 | medmcqa_train |
Several weeks after surgical dissection of her left axilla for the removal of lymph nodes for staging and treatment of her breast cancer, a 32-year-old woman was told by her general physician that she had "winging" of her left scapula when she pushed against resistance during her physical examination. She told the physician that she had also experienced difficulty lately in raising her right arm above her head when she was combing her hair. In a subsequent consult visit with her surgeon, she was told that a nerve was accidentally injured during the diagnostic surgical procedure and that this produced her scapular abnormality and inability to raise her arm normally. What was the origin of this nerve? | The long thoracic nerve was injured during the axillary dissection, resulting in paralysis of the serratus anterior. The serratus anterior is important in rotation of the scapula in raising the arm above the level of the shoulder. Its loss results in protrusion of the inferior angle ("winging" of the scapula), which is more obvious when one pushes against resistance. The long thoracic nerve arises from brachial plexus roots C5, C6, and C7. The upper trunk (C5,C6) supplies rotator and abductor muscles of the shoulder and elbow flexors. The posterior division of the middle trunk contains C7 fibers for distribution to extensor muscles; likewise, the posterior cord supplies extensors of the arm, forearm, and hand. The lateral cord (C5, C6, and C7) gives origin to the lateral pectoral nerve, the musculocutaneous nerve, and the lateral root of the median nerve. There is no sensory loss in the limb in this patient; injury to any of the other nerve elements listed here would be associated with specific dermatome losses. | 6,313 | medmcqa_train |
Post transplant lymphoma is ? | B cell Nearly 1 to 20% of people who receive a solid organ transplant develop a lymphoma. - Lymphomas have also been repoed (though less .frequently) after bone-marrow transplants .for other disorders. Why does it happen? - Post-transplant lymphomas are almost always related to infection by the Epstein Barr Virus (EBV). - Infection by the Epstein Barr Virus causes a transformation of B-cells which becomes cancerous. In normal individuals other cells of the immune system can tackle the EBV infection, but for organ transplants high doses of drugs that suppress the immune system must be administered. With nothing to control the infection, the chances of developing lymphomas increase. The two main factors that determine the chances of getting lymphoma are: How much immunosuppressive treatment is required - The more the immunosuppression, the more the chances of EBV infection. The status of EBV serology of the recipient of the transplant - If this individual has previously been infected by EBV the chances are that the body remembers the infection and the blood already has called antibodies that can identify and kill the virus. Clinical features Post-transplant lymphomas are usually different .from the usual Non-Hodgkin lymphomas. While most patients have involvement mainly of lymph nodes, other organs are very commonly affected as well. These include the brain, lungs and the intestines. The transplanted organ can also get involved. Treatment Whenever possible, immunosuppressive treatment has to be reduced or stopped. In those who have small and localized disease, surgery or radiation may be attempted. If not, the first line of treatment is usually Rituximab, a monoclonal antibody that specifically targets lymphoma cells. Only when this. fails is chemotherapy attempted. Chemotherapy is deferred until necessary as in paially immunosuppressed individuals, chemotherapy may fuher increase the risk of infections. In those who develop lymphomas after bone marrow transplants, donor leukocyte transfusions can be highly effective. Prognosis of Post transplant lymphomas In general, non-Hodgkin lymphomas occurring after organ transplants have a poorer outcome than other NHLs. Around 60-80% of the victims ultimately succumb to their lymphoma. Involvement of brain has poor prognosis | 6,314 | medmcqa_train |
The following insulin can be given intravenously? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Regular insulin o All preparations are administered by S.C. route except regular insulin which can be given | 6,315 | medmcqa_train |
What is the net ATP's formed in glycolysis? | ATP formation in glycolysis: Reaction Catalyzed by Method of ATP Formation ATP per mol of Glucose Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase Respiratory chain oxidation of 2 NADH 5 Phosphoglycerate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Pyruvate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Total 9 Consumption of ATP for reactions of hexokinase and phosphofructokinase -2 Net 7 Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 18. Glycolysis & the Oxidation of Pyruvate. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | 6,316 | medmcqa_train |
Megaloblastic anemia, glossitis, pharyngeal ulcers, and impaired immunity. For each disorder above, select the dietary deficiency that is likely to be responsible. | Folate deficiency can occur from a number of etiologies including poor intake or absorption; in high-demand diseases such as sickle cell; and in inborn errors of metabolism. It can also be seen in conjunction with a variety of medication uses including high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), methotrexate, and phenytoin. Deficiency results in megaloblastic anemia, glossitis, pharyngeal ulcers, and impaired immunity. | 6,317 | medmcqa_train |
Tamsulosin belongs to | The mainstay of treatment for LUTS due to BPH is a1-adrenergic receptor blockers.a-adrenergic receptors are the most common adrenergic receptors in the bladder, and a1 is the most common subtype in the lower urinary system, prostate, and urethra. The action of a1 blockers is to relax the smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate and to reduce outflow resistance. (Prazosin)This class of drugs has become progressively more selective to the a1 subtypes, and many now target the a1asubtype receptor specifically. (Tamsulosin, Alfuzosin)The most common side effects of these drugs are dizziness related to ohostasis, retrograde ejaculation, and rhinitis.The second category of pharmacologic therapy is the 5a-reductase inhibitors that target the glandular component of the prostate. These drugs block the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in the prostate and subsequently reduce the prostate volume, thereby reducing outflow resistance. (Finasteride, Dutasteride)Sabiston 20e pg: 2108 | 6,318 | medmcqa_train |
Krukenberg adenocarcinoma of the ovary can occur as a result of metastases from all except- | Metastatic gastrointestinal & breast neoplasm to ovary are referred to as krukenberg tumors and are characterized by bilateral metastasis composed of mucin-producing signet-ring cells.
The primary sites are → Stomach (most common), Pancreas, Colon, Gall bladder, Breast. | 6,319 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver except: | It is AFP-negative, but patients typically have elevated neurotensin levels, normal liver function tests, and no cirrhosis. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 14th Edition, Page 580, 15th Edition, Page 590 and 18th Edition, Pages 784-785; Concise Pathology, 2nd Edition By Para Chandrasoma, Clive Roy Taylor, Page 650. | 6,320 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with H. Pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H.Pylori infection in this person is which of the following? | Urea breath test is a test with high sensitivity and specificity for Helicobacter pylori. It is a non-invasive test used to diagnose and confirm elimination of H.pylori infection. Ref: Davidson's principles and practice of Medicine, 20th Edition, Chapter 22, Page 886; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 947; 16th Edition, Page 1755, 887 | 6,321 | medmcqa_train |
BRCA-1 postive women have ____% increased risk of breast carcinoma | Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pg no :514-515 Sabiston 20th edition pgno: 832 | 6,322 | medmcqa_train |
Structures in the portal triad are all except: | Ans. B. Hepatic veinThe hepatic lobules are small divisions of the liver defined at the microscopic (histological) scale. The hepatic lobule is a building block of the liver tissue, consisting of a portal triad, hepatocytes arranged in linear cords between a capillary network, and a central vein.A portal triad is a distinctive arrangement within lobules. It consists of the following structures:a. Hepatic arteryb. Portal veinc. Bile duct | 6,323 | medmcqa_train |
Enzyme used in PCR is ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Taq polymerase PCR is a method of enzymatic amplification of a target sequence of DNAe.It is sensitive, selective (specific) and extremely rapid means of amplifying any desired sequence of double stranded DNAe, which can be as sho as 50-100 base pairs (bp) and as long as 10 kbp.In PCR, the DNA to be amplified is replicated by DNA polymerase of Thermus aquaticus (Taq). Taq polymerase is use because it is thermostable0, not denatured at a temperature upto 95degC (in PCR DNA is to be heated to 94deg-95deg C for separation of strands).For amplifying a desired DNA sequence in DNA, we have to know sho flanking sequences on either side of the target segue nce so that complementary primers can be prepared.Primers0 are the synthetic oligonucleotides of 20-35 sequence, which have sequence complementary to flanking sequence, i.e. sequence of flanking region of target DNA sequence.Primers are amplified to produce desired sequence of DNA. | 6,324 | medmcqa_train |
In depression , there is deficiency of: | Ref: Katzung 14th ed. Monoamines like serotonin and nor-adrenaline are deficient in depressive patients, therefore reuptake inhibitors of these monoamines are used for treatment of depression. | 6,325 | medmcqa_train |
The subcostal angle during pregnancy is: | The lower ribs flare out,the subcostal angle increases from 68deg to 103deg,the transverse diameter of the chest increases by 2 cm and the diaphragm rises by about 4 cm in pregnancy. Refer page no 80 of text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2 nd edition. | 6,326 | medmcqa_train |
Rickety rosary seen in all except – | Rachitic (Rickety) rosary
The prominent knobs of bone at costochondral junctions of rickets patient is known as rachitic rosary or beading of ribs.
The knobs create the appearance of large beads under the skin of the rib cage, hence the name by analogy with the beads of a rosary.
Differential diagnosis of enlargement of costochondral junction (Rosary) --> Rickets, Scurvy, Chondrodystrophy | 6,327 | medmcqa_train |
Drug commonly used in t/t of endometriosis - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., GnRH [Ref: Shaw's Gynae 15th/ e p. 473) Both B and C are correct. However- Commonly used is B. Treatment of endometriosis Asymptomatic minimal cases:- Observe for 6-8 months & investigate infertility Symptomatic cases:- Drug treatment OCPs Mirena lUCD Progesterone Androgens GnRH analogues Aromatase inhibitors (eg:- letrozole) RU-486 Minimal invasive surgery (Laproscopy) Destruction by cautery, laser vaporization Excision of cyst Adhesiolysis Presacra! neurectomy LUNA (laproscopic uterosacral nerve ablation) C) Surgery (laprotomy) Incision of chocolate cyst & removal of lining Salpingo-oophorectomy Hysterectomy & unilateral or bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Excision of scar endometriosis | 6,328 | medmcqa_train |
The physiological change occurs in a cardiac muscle cell when there is plateau phase of action potential is: | The transmembrane action potential of single cardiac muscle cells is characterized by, Rapid depolarization (phase 0) Initial rapid repolarization (phase 1) Plateau (phase 2) Slow repolarization process (phase 3) that allows return to the resting membrane potential (phase 4). The initial depolarization is due to Na+ influx through rapidly opening Na+ channels (the Na+ current, INa). The inactivation of Na+ channels contributes to the rapid repolarization phase. Ca2+ influx through more slowly opening Ca2+ channels (the Ca2+ current, ICa) produces the plateau phase, and repolarization is due to net K+ efflux through multiple types of K+ channels. Ref: (2012). Chapter 29. Origin of the Heabeat & the Electrical Activity of the Hea.In Barrett K.E., Boitano S, Barman S.M., Brooks H.L. (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | 6,329 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are principles of tendon transfers except | Answer- B. The line of pull must be straightAdequate strengthThe tendon chosen as a donor for transfer must be strong enough to perform its new function in its altered position.Selecting an appropriate motor is impoant because a muscle will lose one grade of strength following transfer. Do not transfer muscle that has been reinnervated or muscle that was paralyzed and has returned to function. | 6,330 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following procedure is not done in CHC? | Care of routine and emergency cases in surgery Care of routine and emergency cases in medicine 24-hour delivery services,including normal and assisted deliveries Essential and emergency obstetric care Full range of family planning services including laparoscopic services Safe aboion services Newborn care Routine and emergency care of sick children Other management including nasal packing,tracheostomy,foreign body removal (refer pgno:907 park 23 rd edition) | 6,331 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not an indication of amniocentesis for chromosomal anomaly detection? | Ans, is a, i.e. Gestation diabetesRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 647; Fernando Arias 3/e, p 46, 47; COGDT 10/e, p 107, Williams Obs. 23/e, p 299, 300Amniocentesis or chorionic villi sampling should be offered to the following class of patients:-Singleton pregnancy and maternal age 35 years or above.-Twin pregnancy at age over 31 years of pregnancy.-Previous chromosomally abnormal child.-Three or more spontaneous abortions.-Patient or husband with chromosome anomaly.-Family history of chromosome anomaly.-Possible female carrier of X-linked disease.-Metabolic disease risk (because of previous experience or family history).-NTD risk (because of previous experience or family history).-Positive second-trimester maternal serum screen or major fetal structural defect identified by USG. | 6,332 | medmcqa_train |
Multiple painful ulcers over glans without in duration is suggestive of – | Chancre, LGV, Donovanosis Indurated ulcer (firm induration).
HSV Non-indurated ulcer.
Chancroid → Can be both either Non-indurated or soft induration (but there is no firm induration, therefore usually considered as non-indurated). | 6,333 | medmcqa_train |
Which view is best for viewing hollow viscus perforation | The PA erect abdominal radiograph is often obtained in conjunction with the AP supine abdominal view in the acute abdominal series of radiographs. When used together it is a valuable projection in assessing air fluid levels, and free air in the abdominal cavity. Ref: Internet | 6,334 | medmcqa_train |
A child presents with massive hemetemesis and systemic hypotension. He has no fever or other significant history. Examination reveal massive splenomegaly but no hepatomegaly. Likely diagnosis is | Answer is D (Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis): NCPF is suspected in a patient presenting with symptoms of poal hypeension with: YOUNG AGE Moderate/Large Splenomegaly NO FEATURES SUGGESTIVE OF LIVER CELL FAILURE -No Jaundice (uncommon) - No Ascitis (uncommon) - No Hepatomegaly (uncommon) - No Stigmata of liver cell failure (uncommon) Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis is a condition of liver characterized by widespread fibrosis of the 1 ver (mainly poal, subcapsular and rarely perisinusuoidal) causing wide variation in the normal architecture but there is no true cirrhosis. NCPF is the most impoant causes of intrahepatic non cirrhotic poal hypeension in India | 6,335 | medmcqa_train |
Initial treatment of keloid | Answer- B. Intralesional steroidIntralesional injection of steroid (Triamcinolone acetate) is now recommended as the first line of t/t for keloid. | 6,336 | medmcqa_train |
Edema feet is not a feature of: | Ans. A. Conn syndromea. In Conn syndrome there is profound hypokalemia that leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.b. Although excess of sodium is reabsorbed due to high amount aldosterone, but excess of water is lost. Hence edema feet is not a feature in Conn syndrome. | 6,337 | medmcqa_train |
Not the signs of accidental injury in a child: CMC (Vellore) 10 | Ans. Subdural hematoma | 6,338 | medmcqa_train |
Ash leaf maculae is found in : | A i.e. Tuberous sclerosis | 6,339 | medmcqa_train |
Chest X-ray showing opacity in the lung with irregular calcification is suggestive of – | Irregular central calcification is characteristic of hamartoma. | 6,340 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest valvular manifestation of acute as well as previous rheumatic carditis is | Mitral regurgitation (MR) is the commonest manifestation of acute as well as previous rheumatic carditis. Reference: Essential Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; Page no: 438 | 6,341 | medmcqa_train |
Thinnest pa of the skull | The anterior pa of the floor of the temporal fossa is crossed by an H shaped suture where four bones,frontal,parietal,greater wing of sphenoid and temporal adjoin each other.This area is termed the pterion. REF.B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy VOL.3,Fouh edition | 6,342 | medmcqa_train |
A 43-year-old woman with chronic alcoholism presents with shortness of breath and edema. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse 110/min, JVP is 8 cm, the cardiac apex is displaced and enlarged, there are bilateral inspiratory crackles, and there is pedal edema.For the patient with vitamin deficiency or excess, select the most likely diagnosis | Thiamine deficiency can cause high-output cardiac failure (wet beriberi) or neurologic symptoms (dry beriberi). In North America, thiamine deficiency occurs in alcoholics or those with chronic disease. In alcoholics, deficiency is secondary to low intake, impaired absorption and storage, and accelerated destruction. Genetic factors are important as clinical manifestations occur only in a small proportion of chronically malnourished individuals. Beriberi heart disease is characterized by peripheral vasodilatation, sodium and water retention, and high-output CHF. | 6,343 | medmcqa_train |
Clinical features of anicteric Leptospirosis are all EXCEPT: March 2013 | Ans. C i.e. High moality Leptospira Leptospirosis is transmitted by: Rat urine Leptospirosis is associated with: Rat, Ricefields, Rain Weils disease is caused by: L. icterio-hemorrhagica | 6,344 | medmcqa_train |
Ulcers in diabetes are precipitated by all EXCEPT: September 2012 | Ans. A i.e. Microangiopathic changes in blood vessels | 6,345 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following features in the knee are recognized to be consistent with a torn medial meniscus, except | A i.e. Excessive - History of twisting strain (flexion, abduction/ valgus and medial rotation of femur on fixed tibia Q/ lateral rotation of tibia on fixed femur) followed by locking of knee pintQ is diagnostic of medial meniscus tear. - Mc Murray's test, Apley grinding test and Squat tests are done to diagnose meniscus (medial & lateral) injuryQ. - Excessive forward glide is d/t anterior cruciate ligament tear (not meniscus injury)Q. Meniscal tear is the commonest knee injury that require surgery. Medial meniscal tears are 3 times more common than lateral meniscus tears . Paial meniscetomy is done for tears not amenable to repair eg. cornpex, degenerative and central/ radical tearsQ. Meniscal repair should be done for all acute lateral/ peripheral tears especially in young patient undergoing concurrent ACL reconstructionQ. Meniscal Injury *Meniscus or semilunar cailage are relatively avascular structure with poor healing potentialQ. *Medial meniscus is larger and more oval than its fellow Medial meniscus is more frequently torn than the lateral because it is securely attached and less mobileQ where as lateral meniscus is more mobile and protected by action of popliteus muscle At bih entire meniscus is vascular; by age a months, the inner one third has become avascular. This decrease in vascularity continues by age 9 years, when the meniscus closely resembles the adult meniscus. In adults , only 10- 25% of lateral meniscus and 10- 30% of medial meniscus is vascular. Because of the avascular nature of inner two thirds of the meniscusQ; cell nutrition is believed to occur mainly through diffusion or mechanical pumping. So inner avascular meniscus once torn does not healQ. *The commonest type of medial meniscal injury in a young adult is the bucket handle tearQ (i.e. complete longitudinal tear). Other types are - flap tears, radial tears, complex tears etc *Ceain active spos- such as soccer, hockey, tennis, badminton, squash and skiing are commonly associated with meniscus injuries, paiculary when pivoting with all the weight on one leg with the knee flexed (i.e. twisting in flexed knee)Q. It used to be common in coal miners who had to stoop or squat in narrow seams with the knee joints flexed. *A common history is as follows: whilst involved in violent spoing activity or work with the knee in a position of flexion the patient suddenly sustains an outward twist of the foot or an inward twist of femur on the fixed foot. He immediately feels acute pain on anteromedial aspect of joint along with feeling of a tearing sensation and displacement of an internal structure. On attempting to rise, straightening of the knee is usually not possible (locking)Q *The meniscus may become completely displaced and locked between the femur and tibia, preventing full extension of the knee. More frequently the torn meniscus will cause pain, intermittent catching and occasionly locking as it flips into and out of the region of contact between the femur & the tibia. *In meniscal injury due to development of effusion (not hemahrosis) with in a few hours (not immediately) joint swells. It is impoant to note that swelling occuring immediately after injury, is d/t hemahrosis; which may be caused by an injury to cruciate or collateral ligaments or by an osteochondral fracture. The doughy feel of haemahrosis distinguishes ligment injuries from the fluctuant feel of the synol effusion of a meniscus injuryQ. *Symptoms include- joint line pain, catching, popping and lockingQ, usually and weakness & giving wayQ (instability) sometimes. Deep squatting and duck walking are usually painful. Joint line tendernessQ, pain with squatting, a positive flexion Mc Murry testQ. and positive Apley's compression-distraction testQ are all indicaive of meniscal injury. *Before the impoance of meniscus was understood and ahroscopy was available the meniscus was often removed entirely. But now attempts are made to remove only the torn poion of meniscus (if tear is in avascular poion), or repair the meniscus (in vascular peripheral poions if possible). Ahroscopy is the gold standard for making diagnosisQ and ahroscopic repair or removal is the treatment of choice. *Tears in the peripheral third of the meniscus, if small (< 15 mm), may heal spontaneously because this poion in adults has good blood supply. Larger tears require repair. Diagnostic Tests For Meniscal Injury - MC- Murray, Apley and Squat tests are useful tests to diagnose meniscal injury. All of them basically involve attempts to locate and reproduce crepitations, snaps or catches, either audible or detected by palpation that result as the knee is manipulated during flexion, extension and rotator motions of joint. Mn-" MAS Tests" -If these noises can be localized to the joint line (confirmed by palpation of posteromedial / posterolateral margin of joint), the meniscus most likely contains a tear. Whereas similar sounds from quadriceps mechanism, patella and patella femoral grove must be differentiated. Tears of one meniscus can produce pain in opposite compament of knee. This is most commonly seen with the posterior tears of lateral meniscus. Therefore these tests are valuable diagnostically but not diagnostic (confirmatory) and MRI or ahroscopy is needed for confirmation. Negative MAS tests do not rule of meniscal injury. Management of Meniscal Injury - Nonoperative management consists of groin to ankle cylinder cast or knee immobilizer worn for 4-6 weeks with crutch walking and toe touch down weight bearing. If symptoms recur after this, surgical repair or removal of damaged meniscus may be necessary and more specific diagnostic procedures (MRI, ahroscopy) are indicated. - Complete removal of meniscus is only justifiable when it is irreparably torn, and the meniscus rim should be preserved if at all possible. Total meniscetomy is better avoided in young athletes or people whose daily activity requires vigorous use of knee. Excision of only torn poion (paial, sub total meniscetomy) are better procedures. - Ideal indication for meniscal repair is an acute, 1 to 2 cm, longitudinal, peripheral tear that is repaired in conjunction with anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction in a young individual. Peripheral 1/3rd to 1/4th meniscus is vascular enough to provide vascular granulation tissue that results in healing of meniscal tears in this zone. Miller-Warner & Harrier categorized tears a/ t there location in 3 zones of vascularity : red - red, fully within peripheral vascular zone; red-white, at the border of vascular area; and white -white, within the central avascular area. They recommended repair of red-red and red white tears. Likelihood of healing or reparability, depends on several other factors in addition to vascularity specifically type of tear, chronicity and size (in same order), Longitudinal -acute and small tears heal better than radial/ flap type - chronic and large tears. In cruciate ligament injury the findings can be somewhate perverse i.e. with a complete tear the patients may have little or no pain, whereas with a paial tear the knee is painful. Swelling also is worse with paial tears, because haemorrhage remains confined with in the joint; with complete tears ruptured capsule permits leakage and diflusion. Paial tears permit no abnormal movement, but the attempt cause pain. Complete tears permit abnormal movement which sometimes is painless. | 6,346 | medmcqa_train |
`NALGONDA technique' is used in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Endemic fluorosis interventions to prevent fluorosis a) Changing of water source o Running surface water contains lower quantities of fluoride than ground water. b) Chemical treatment Water can be chemically defluoridated in a water treatment plant. The National Environmental Engineering Research Institute, Nagpur has developed a technique for renewing fluoride by chemical treatment, k/a Nalgonda technique. It involves the addition of two chemical (viz lime and alum) in sequence followed by flocculation, sedimentation and f i Iteration. c) Other measures Fluoride toothpastes are not recommended for children in areas of endemic fluorosis. Fluoride supplements should not be prescribed for children who drink fluorinated water. | 6,347 | medmcqa_train |
Post moem stiffening is called: March 2005 | Ans. B: Rigor mois Putrefaction: It is the final stage following death in which destruction of the soft tissues of the body is mainly caused by the action of bacterial enzymes. Rigor mois/death stiffening/cadaveric rigidity: is a state of muscle stiffening sometimes with slight shoening of the fibres. Post-moem hypostasis/ subcutaneous hypostasis/postmoem staining/livor moryis/ cadaveric. lividity/suggilations: This is the bluish purple discoloration (due to deoxyhemoglobin) which appears under the skin in most superficial layers of the dermis (rete mucosum) of the dependent pas of the body after the death due to capillovenous distension. Mummification: It is a modification of putrefaction. Dehydration or drying and shriveling of the cadavers occurs from the evaporation of the water. | 6,348 | medmcqa_train |
Renal threshold for glycosuria | For glucose, the renal threshold is 180 mg/dl and Tm is 375 mg/min. In other words, glucose stas to appear in urine when blood level is more than 180 mg/dl, and all the glucose molecules above 375 mg are excreted in the urine. abnormal conditions, the renal threshold may be lowered so that even at lower blood levels, compounds are excreted in urine, e.g. renal glycosuria (glucose); and renal tubular acidosis (bicarbonate).Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 316 | 6,349 | medmcqa_train |
Bulls eye retinopathy is seen in toxicity of- | Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine can cause toxic retinopathy due to their binding of melanin in the retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE) as well as direct toxicity to retinal ganglion cells. Early findings include mottling of the RPE and blunted foveal reflex. As the retinopathy progresses, a bull's-eye maculopathy develops, as seen in this image. In addition to the bull's-eye maculopathy, patients can demonstrate paracentral scotomas on visual field testing and parafoveal outer retinal atrophy on OCT. Other causes of Bulls Eye Maculopathy- Cone dystrophy Cone rod dystrophy Inverse retinitis pigmentosa Stargardt's disease. | 6,350 | medmcqa_train |
The following are indications for performing thoracotomy after blunt injury of the chest, except | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Rib fracture | 6,351 | medmcqa_train |
True regarding colovesical fistula | .* Left sided growth presents with colicky pain, altered bowel habits (alternating constipation and diarrhoea), palpable lump, distension of abdomen due subacute/ chronic obstruction. Later may present like complete colonic obstruction. Tenesmus, with passage of blood and mucus, with alternate constipation and diarrhoea, is common. Bladder symptoms may warn colovesical fistula. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery ,ed 3,pg no 838 | 6,352 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about lateral cutaneous nerve EXCEPT: | Ans. B Supplies skin over the medial aspect of thighRef: Clinical Anatomy, 11th ed. pg. 251* The femoral nerve supplies the skin of the medial and anterior aspects of the thigh via its medial and intermediate cutaneous branches.* The lateral aspect is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L2-3).* As its name suggests, it is purely sensory.* It arises from L2 and L3, travels downward lateral to the psoas muscle, crosses the iliacus muscle (deep to fascia), passes either through or underneath the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament, and finally travels onto innervate the lateral thigh. | 6,353 | medmcqa_train |
Persistant vomiting most likely causes -a) Hyperkalemiab) Acidic urine excretionc) Hypochloraemiad) Hyperventilation. | Persistent vomiting leads to loss of large amount of gastric fluid.
Gastric fluid consists of large amount of HCL along with potassium
Thus the metabolic abnormality associated with repeated vomiting is metabolic alkalosis in combination with hypochloretnia and hypokaletnia.
In the early stages the kidneys are able to compensate by reabsorbing hydrogen and chloride ions in exchange for sodium potassium and bicarbonate, however as the body stores of sodium and especially potassium becomes depleted these ions are selectively retained while hydrogen is excreted in the urine, causing the paradoxical aciduria.
The excretion of hydrogen in the urine aggravates the alkalotic stage. | 6,354 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following lesion is least likely to be eccentric? | Simple Bone cyst is seen in metaphysis or in diaphysis and it can be least likely to be at an eccentric location. Aneurysmal bone cyst is the lesion most likely to occur in ecentric location. All other lesions might sta from centre but ultimately during presentation,they present as eccentric lesion. | 6,355 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is an anti-apoptotic gene? | Ans. (c) bcl-2 | 6,356 | medmcqa_train |
True about pilocytic astrocytoma all except - | Pilocytic astrocytomas are relatively benign tumors, typically affecting children and young adults. Most commonly located in the cerebellum, they also may involve the third ventricle, the optic pathways, spinal cord, and occasionally the cerebral hemispheres. There is often a cyst associated with the tumor, and symptomatic recurrence from incompletely resected lesions is often associated with cyst enlargement, rather than growth of the solid component. Tumors that involve the hypothalamus are especially problematic because they cannot be resected completely. Ref: Robbins Basic Pathology 9th edition pg no 843 | 6,357 | medmcqa_train |
Decreased vascularity of fibroid is seen with : | Ans. is a, b, and c i.e. GnRH analogues; Danazol; and Mifeprestone As I have already explained in previous question, the drugs used to decrease blood loss / vascularity of fibroid during surgery are : | 6,358 | medmcqa_train |
Intercourse in closely related individual in relation - | Ref:Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no. 404 Incest is defined as natural sexual intercourse between two persons so closely related that they are forbidden by law to marry. Incest most frequently occurs between members of nuclear family, and the victim s are most often children. | 6,359 | medmcqa_train |
Drug metabolized by Glutathionation is | Fosfomycin and Ifosfamide are metabolized by glutathionation. | 6,360 | medmcqa_train |
A 19-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a stab wound at the base of the neck (zone I) (Figure below). The most important concern for patients with such injuries is which of the following?For the purpose of evaluating penetrating injuries, the neck is divided into three zones. Zone I is below the clavicles and is also known and the thoracic outlet. Zone II is located between the clavicles and hyoid bone, and Zone III is above the hyoid. | Exsanguinating hemorrhage is the predominant risk, because bleeding may not be easily recognized, given that bleeding into the pleural cavity and mediastinum can occur. The abundant collateral blood supply generally protects against upper extremities or cerebrovascular compromise. | 6,361 | medmcqa_train |
Westermark's sign is seen in: | Ans. (a) Pulmonary embolismRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1633Westermark sign is due to focus of oligemia in pulmonary embolism (PE). The sign develops due to following reasons:* Dilation of the pulmonary arteries proximal to the embolus* Collapse of the distal vasculature creating the appearance of a sharp cut off on chest X rayThe chest x-ray is normal in the majority of PE cases, the Westermark sign is seen in 2% of patients | 6,362 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not a content of inguinal canal - | Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Inferior epigastric artery Contents of inguinal canalo Spermatic cord in male or round ligament of uterus in female.o Ilioinguinal nerve : It enters through the interval between external and internal oblique muscles,\o Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve is a constituent of spermatic cord. | 6,363 | medmcqa_train |
True about ACE inhibitors are all except: | The adverse effect profile of all ACE inhibitors is similar. One adverse effect is:
Hyperkalaemia: This is likely in patients with impaired renal function and in those taking K+ sparing diuretics, NSAIDs or blockers.
In others, significant rise in plasma K+ is rare. It does not cause decrease in K+ concentration.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 531 | 6,364 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following ophthalmological anomaly is seen in WAGR syndrome | Some impoant syndromes and their associations to be remembered Down's syndrome: Congenital cataract Rubella Syndrome : Congenital Cataract WAGR Syndrome: Aniridia Gillepsie syndrome: Aniridia FRASER Syndrome: Cryptophthalmos Marfan's syndrome: Subluxation of lens Patau Syndrome: PHPV | 6,365 | medmcqa_train |
ACTH is produced by which of the following Bronchogenic carcinomas | Answer is B (Small cell carcinoma): Small cell carcinomas are the most common bronchogenic carcinomas associated with paraneoplastic syndrome and ectopic hormone production including ACTH. ACTH may also be uncommonly produced by non small cell variants including adenocarcinoma and squamous carcinomas, but small cell carcinoma is the most common source of ectopic ACTH. 'Small cell carcinoma lung (>50%) is by for the most common cause of ectopic ACTH production followed by Thymic carcinoids (15%), islet cell tumors (10%), bronchial carcinoids (10%), other carcinoids (5%) and pheochromocytomas (2%) - Harrison's 18th/829 Ectopic ACTH Production (Bold) Small cell carcinoma (50) Lung Thymic carcinoids (15%) Islet cell tumors (10%) Bronchial carcinoid (10%) Other carcinoids (5%) Pheochromocytomas (2%) | 6,366 | medmcqa_train |
A female married to a normal male but her father had vitamin D resistant rickets. So what are the chances that her childrens will be colour blind: March 2013 | Ans. B i.e. 50% X-linked dominant are transmitted by an affected heterozygous female to half her sons and half her daughters and by an affected male parent to all his daughters but none of his sons, if the female parent is unaffected. | 6,367 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are described surgical procedures for CTE V except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Salter's osteotomy | 6,368 | medmcqa_train |
Rubrospinal tract influences - | Ans. is'b' i.e., Voluntary activityActions of extrapyramidal systemsReticulospinal (Rubrospinal tracts -+ voluntary and reflex (involuntary) activity. | 6,369 | medmcqa_train |
NOT a content of Rectus sheath among the following is | Thorcoabdominal nerves (T7 - T11) and Subcostal nerve ( T12) are the nerves of Rectus sheath. T6 is not the content of Rectus sheath | 6,370 | medmcqa_train |
Characteristic feature of Otosclerosis are all except: | Tuning Fork Tests in OtosclerosisRinnes test-negativeWebers test-lateralised to ear with greater conductive lossAbsolute bone conduction-normal (It is decreased in cochlear otosclerosis)Pure tone audiometry-shows loss of air conduction more for lower frequency. * Tympanic membrane is normal and mobile in 90% cases. Schwaz sign--Flammingo cases pink colour of tympanic membrane is seen in 10% cases. It indicates active focus with increased vascularity.Stapes footplate--Shows a rice grain / biscuit type appearanceBlue mantles are seen histopathologically. | 6,371 | medmcqa_train |
Long term potentiation means | (A) Enhancement of signal transmission# LONG-TERM POTENTIATION (LTP): a long-lasting strengthening of the response of a postsynaptic nerve cell to stimulation across the synapse that occurs with repeated stimulation and is thought to be related to learning and long-term memory.> Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a long-lasting enhancement in signal transmission between two neurons that results from stimulating them synchronously.> It is one of several phenomena underlying synaptic plasticity, the ability of chemical synapses to change their strength.> As memories are thought to be encoded by modification of synaptic strength, LTP is widely considered one of the major cellular mechanisms that underlies learning and memory> NMDA receptor-dependent LTP exhibits several properties, including input specificity, associativity, cooperativity, and persisience. | 6,372 | medmcqa_train |
Cell matrix adhesion are mediated by | ref, Robbins 8/e p96;9/ep24 The cell adhesion molecules are classified into four main families: Immunoglbulin family CAMs Cadherins Selectins | 6,373 | medmcqa_train |
Mr.X fired his gun at Mr.Y who moved and escaped with the bullet only grazing his arm. There was only a little bleeding and no other significant injury. Mr. X is liable for arrest under which section of IPC? | In the question there is simple injury by a dangerous weapon, hence 324 IPC IPC Sections related to Hu etc:- 319. Definition of Hu (Any Bodily pain, Infirmity or Disease) 320. Definition of Grievous hu. 321 Defines Voluntarily causing hu 322 DefinesVoluntarily causing Grievous hu 323 Punishment for causing hu: Up to 01 year, fine up to 1000 Rs 324 Punishment for causing Hu by dangerous weapon: Up to 03 years, or fine 325 Punishment for causing Grievous hu: Up to 07 years, and also fine. 326 Punishment for Grievous hu by dangerous weapons: Imprisonment for life, or up to 10 yrs, and fine 326 A Causing grievous hu by throwing acid: Minimum ten years and maximum upto life 326 B Throwing or attempting to throw acid: Minimum 5 years and maximum upto 7 years) 330 Causing hu to exto confession, or to compel restoration of propey. 331 Causing grievous hu to exto confession, or to compel restoration of propey. 334 Punishment for Hu on provocation: Up to 01 month, or with fine up to 500 rupees, or both. 335 Punishment for Grievous hu on provocation: Up to 04 years or with fine up to 2000 rupees | 6,374 | medmcqa_train |
Fasciotomy- all of the following are cut except | Answer- D. MusclesFasciotomy or fasciectomy is a surgical procedure where the fascia is cut to relieve tension or pressure commonly to treat the resulting loss of circulation to an area of tissue or muscle.Fasciotomy is a limb-saving procedure when used to treat acute compament syndrome | 6,375 | medmcqa_train |
Identical twins can be differentiated by:- | Fingerprints are the impressions of the patterns formed by the papillary or epidermal regions of the fingeips. The patterns are not inherited and paternity cannot be proved through fingerprint patterns The pattern is different even in identical twins. | 6,376 | medmcqa_train |
Paradoxical splitting of second hea sound Heard in | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1447 Reversed or paradoxical splitting refers to a pathologic delay in aoic valve closure, such as that which occurs in patients with left bundle branch block, right ventricular pac- ing, severe AS, HOCM, and acute myocardial ischemia. With reversed or paradoxical splitting, the individual components of S2 are audible at end expiration, and their interval narrows with inspiration, the oppo- site of what would be expected under normal physiologic conditions. | 6,377 | medmcqa_train |
Optic nerve injury following sinus surgery is due to removal of which ethmoidal cells? | Onodi cell "Onodi cell" is the posterior most posterior ethmoid cell extending lateral to the sphenoid sinus. While removing disease from the Onodi cells there are chances of injury to optic nerve and internal carotid which lie in the vicinity. The posterior ethmoidal cells in the floor of orbit are known as "Haller cells". | 6,378 | medmcqa_train |
What is ultimate strength: | option A is fracture strength.
Option B is toughness | 6,379 | medmcqa_train |
Little finger of hand corresponds to which of the following dermatomes: | C i.e. C8Thumb corresponds to C6; middle & ring fingers to C7; and little finger to Cs dermatomesQ | 6,380 | medmcqa_train |
Human fibroblast cell line is used for cultivation of ? | Ans. is b i.e., Poliovirus Human diploid fibroblasts (HDF) cell line is used for cultivation of coxsackie A7, 9, 16; CMV; Echovinis; enteroviruses; HSV-1, 2; Poliovirus; parainfluenzavirus, rhinovirus and VZV. | 6,381 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about estrogen, EXCEPT: | They promote the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, such as breast development. So it is not used in treatment of gynaecomastia. Estrogen and other hormones are given to postmenopausal women as a pa of hormone replacement therapy (H) in order to prevent osteoporosis as well as treat the symptoms of menopause. About 80% of breast cancers rely on supplies of the hormone estrogen to grow: they are known as hormone-sensitive or hormone-receptor-positive cancers. Suppression of production of estrogen in the body is a treatment for these cancers. Estrogens cause intrahepatic cholestasis by altering the composition of the lipid membrane and inhibiting the rate of secretion of bile into the canaliculi. | 6,382 | medmcqa_train |
Not true about tubercular bacilli - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Facultative anaerobe* M. tuberculosis was discovered by Robert koch.* M. tuberculosis is gram-positive, obligate aerobe, acid-fast, straight or slightly curved rod. Electron microscopy shows thick cell wall.* M. tuberculosis is acid-fast bacillus and resists decolorization by 20% H2SO4. Acid fastness depends on presence of high content ofmycolic acid in cell membrane (most important factor) and also on integrity of cell wall.* M. tuberculosis is also alcohol fast as it resists decolorization by absolute alcohol.* Fluorescence microscopy using auramine rhodamine stain is used when several smear are to be examined daily. It is much less tiring to microscopist and is more sensitive than acid fast staining. | 6,383 | medmcqa_train |
A posthumous child is: | Ans. (b) Child born after father's deathRef: The Essentials ofFSM by K.S. Narayan Reddy 31st ed./369* Posthumous child: child born after father's death, the mother being conceived by the said father.* Suppositious child: Fictitious child claimed by a women as her own, a women may pretend pregnancy & deliver and later produce a living child as her own or substitute a living male child for a dead child or for a living female child born for her.* Spurious or phantom child (pseudocyesis): usually seen in women nearing menopause or younger women with an intense desire for children. | 6,384 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are characteristic of Datura poisoning except - | In datura poisoning, there is dilatation of pupil (not pin point pupil).
Features of datura poisoning are described as '9D':-
Dry hot skin: 'Hot as a hare'.
Dilatation of cutaneous blood vessels causing a facial flash. 'Red as a beet'.
Dilatation of pupil with loss accommodation and unresponsive to light (dilated and fixed pupil) : 'Blind as a bat'.
Dryness of throat and mouth: 'Dry 'Dry as a bone'.
Delirium (muttering delirium) : 'Mad as a wet hen'.
Drowsiness
Drunken gait
Dysphagia (difficulty in swallowing).
Difficulty in talking. | 6,385 | medmcqa_train |
The Most common cause of perinatal mortality is | (B) Prematurity # Direct causes of death: About 80% of the perinatal deaths are related to perinatal hypoxia, low birth weight, infection & intracranial haemorrhage.> The undetermined group is reduced to 15%.> Thus autopsy study is essential in any perinatal; mortality study when the real causes of death can only be ascertained so that preventive measures can be taken to prevent its occurrence.> The WHO's definition "Deaths occurring during late pregnancy (at 22 completed weeks gestation and over), during childbirh and up to seven completed days of life" is not universally accepted. The perinatal mortality is the sum of the fetal mortality and the neonatal mortality.> Collectively, the two types of deaths are referred to as perinatal deaths. Maternal and prenatal foetal conditions leading to slow foetal growth, foetal malnutrition and immaturity are the major contributing factors.> Hypoxia, birth asphyxia and congenital anomalies are some of the major causes of perinatal deaths | 6,386 | medmcqa_train |
who introduced camhor for patients for production of seizures for management of mental illness | HISTORY * Medunna ====IM injection of camphor to induce seizures * Ugo cerletti and lucio bini==== ECT in a catatonic patient INDICATIONS * DEPRESSION SUICIDAL IDEAS-------------- first choice * CATATONIC SCHIZOPHRENIA * SCHIZOPHRENIA * MANIA * ELECTRODE PLACEMENT * Most commonly used=== bi fronto temporal * More cognitive side effects==bi fronto temporal * Less cognitive side effect======bi frontal * SIDE EFFECTS * RETROGRADE AMNESIA * BODY ACHE * MEDICATIONS USED IN THE PROCEDURE * ANAESTHETIC======Thiopentone / ethosuximide * MUSCLE RELAXANT====Succynyl choline CURARE IN PSEUDOCHOLINEESTERASE DEFICIENCY * ANTICHOLINERGIC=====Atropine CONTRA INDICATIONS * NO ABSOLUTE Contra indication * RELATIVE -----------------Brain tumour / arrythmia Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psyhiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 1065 | 6,387 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about Sibson's fascia except | Ref. Gray’s anatomy. 41st edition. Page. 446,896.
Topic, Subtopic – Thorax, fascia
Sibson's Fascia:
The suprapleural membrane, also known as Sibson fascia, is a dense fascial layer that is attached to the inner border of the first rib and costal cartilage anteriorly, C7 transverse process posteriorly and to the mediastinal pleura medially.
It is flat and lies in the oblique plane of the thoracic inlet, with a cervical dome of pleura attached to its under surface.
Lying on it are the subclavian vessels and other structures in the root of the neck.
The function of the membrane is to provide rigidity to the thoracic inlet that prevents distortion due changes in intrathoracic pressure during respiration. | 6,388 | medmcqa_train |
Atopic dermatitis is diagnosed by – | Diagnosis of atopic dermatitis is largely clinical and is facilitated by using major and minor criteria. | 6,389 | medmcqa_train |
Colour vision is with the help of: | Ans: b (cones) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 159A straight forward question! Cones play a very important role in colour vision and rods in night vision (dim light)Cones are the visual receptors which impart to the eye, the ability for colour visionThere are three types of cone pigments:- Cvanolabe- Ervthrolabe- ChlorolabeThe other visual receptor - rods is mainly for night vision. The pigment present in rods is rhodopsinDark adaptationIt is the adjustment of visual mechanism from bright light vision to dim light vision (i.e., switching from cone vision to rod vision)Visual areas in brain* Primary visual cortex area - 17* Visual association area-18,19 /* Frontal eye field area - 8Note: * Lateral geniculate body is concerned with vision* Medial geniculate body is concerned with hearingBRIDGEThe time required for Dark adaptation can be minimized by wearing red goggles while entering a cinema theatre.(Remember--L for light and M for music)* Rods are absent in the foveola (contains mainly cones). | 6,390 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs is not used for induction of labour? | Ans is 'd' i.e., Betamethasone o Following are the drugs used in medical induction of labour:# Prostaglandins PGE2, PGE1# Oxytocin# Mifepristone | 6,391 | medmcqa_train |
A 23 yr. old female came with arthritis, Malar rash, oral ulcers, serositis (pleuritis or pericarditis). The likely investigation to be positive is | (A) Anti nuclear antibody # Antinuclear antibody (ANA) tests are positive in 5 to 10 percent of the general population, a rate that increases with age.> Thus, given a one in 20 frequency for ANAs and a one in 2,000 frequency for systemic lupus erythematosus, only one in 100 persons with a positive ANA test will have the disease.> Consequently, positive ANA test results must be interpreted with caution.> Given the high sensitivity of the currently used substrate for testing, a negative ANA test essentially rules out systemic lupus erythematosus. | 6,392 | medmcqa_train |
Coagulative necrosis is commonly seen in all except: | Coagulative necrosis is the most common type of necrosis, there is protein denaturation with preservation of cell and tissue frame work. It is usually seen in all solid organs, exception is brain (liquefactive necrosis). Ref: Tanley L. Robbins, Ramzi S. Cotran, (2012) , Chapter 1, "Cell Injury", In the book, "Pocket Companion to Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease", 8th Edition, USA, Page 4; Robbin's Basic Pathology, 7th Edition, Pages 21, 22 | 6,393 | medmcqa_train |
The process by which fusion of part of a cell membrane occurs is/are | Ans. (b) EndocytosisEndocytosis is the process of taking contents inside the cell. It involves fusion of two cell membranesExocytosis is release of contents from inside of the cell to outside. It involves fusion of vesicles inside the cell to its cell membrane | 6,394 | medmcqa_train |
In a standard deviation of 2, confidence limit is | (B) 95.4% # In a NORMAL CURVE, the area between one standard deviation on either side of the mean will include 68%, the area between two standard deviations 95.4% and the area between three standard deviations will include 99.7% of the values in the distribution.> In a Normal curve: Area between one standard deviation on either side of the mean (x +- la) will include approximately 68 per cent of the values in the distribution Area between two standard deviations on either side of the mean (~x +- 2a) will cover most of the values, i.e., approximately 95 per cent of the values Area between (x +- 3a) will include 99.7 per cent of the values. These limits on either side of the mean are called 'confidence limits'. | 6,395 | medmcqa_train |
Bruxism is - | Bruxism is grinding of teeth which occurs during stage 3 & 4 of NREM sleep. | 6,396 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following are the slowly adapting mechan- oreceptors present in the skin that are very sensitive to perpendicular indentation? | Ans. c (Merkel discs). (Ref. Ganong Physiology 21st ed., 125)MECHANORECEPTORS# Four types of mechanoreceptors in glabrous skin are-two in the superficial layers (Meissner's corpuscles and Merkel discs) and two in the subcutaneous tissue (Ruffini endings and Pacinian corpuscles).Meissner's corpuscles# are rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors# respond to Low frequency vibrations, stroking and fluttering types of tactile stimuli.Merkel disc receptors# are slowly adapting receptors# respond to pressure and texture.Pacinian corpuscles# are rapidly adapting and# respond to high frequency vibrations.Ruffini endings# are slowly adapting receptors that respond to skin stretch.# These endings link subcutaneous tissue to skin folds overlying joints.The afferent fibres of these receptors are myelinated and include:# large (group A alpha),# medium (group Ab),# small (group Adelta) diameter fibres.# Smallest (group A gama)- Tactile sensitivity is greatest on the glabrous (hairless) skin of the hands, the soles of the feet, and the lips. | 6,397 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are contents of sub-occipital triangle, except - | Contents of suboccipital triangle are vertebral artery (3rd part), suboccipital nerve (dorsal ramus of C1) and suboccipital venous plexus. Occipital artery lies in occipital triangle. | 6,398 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following feature on second trimester ultrasound is not a marker of Down's | Ans. is b i.e. Choroids plexus cyst Abnormalities associated with Down's syndrome (as listed in Benacerraf and Callen). Brachycephaly (sho frontal lobe) Ventriculomegaly Flat facies, small earsdeg Increase nuchal fold thickness Absent nasal bone Cystic hygroma (more associated with trisomy 18) Sho humerus and femur Clinodactyly Hypoplasia of middle phalanx of 5th digitdeg Single transverse palmar crease Sandal foot--i.e. widened gap between 1st and 2nd toe. Congenital hea defects (CHD) : -- Atrioventricular canal defect (Most common hea defect in Down's syndrome)deg -- VSD -- ASD Esophageal atresia and duodenal atresiadeg Diaphragmatic herniadeg Renal pyelectasis (Mild renal pelvis dilation) Hyperechoic bowel Single umbilical aerydeg Widened iliac angle. As far as Choroid plexus cyst is Concerned : -Several investigators have suggested that choroids plexus cysts are also associated with an increased risk of trisomy 21. However, our group demonstrated that the frequency of choroids plexus cysts among fetuses. with trisomy 21 was the same as that among fetuses without trisomy 21, suggesting that the presence of choroid plexus cysts should not increase a patient's calculated risk of having a fetus with Down syndrome. This is in agreement with the work from Gupta and co-workers, who repoed a 1 in 880 risk of Down syndrome among fetuses with isolated choroid plexus cysts detected antenatally." "The presence of a cyst in the choroid plexus in an axial view through the upper poion of fetal head has been correlated with the increased risk of Trisomy 18." Choroid plexus cysts are found to be associated with trisomy 18 (occurring in nearly 30% of cases of trisomy 18). Choroid plexus cysts are also found in 0.7 to 3.6% of normal second trimester fetuses. | 6,399 | medmcqa_train |
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