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In meiosis chromosome number is | .Ans b: (Ref: NCERT text book) | 6,100 | medmcqa_train |
Ocular manifestations of neurofibromatosis | Ocular - a,b,c
Cutaneous - cafe-au-lait spots to neurofibromota. | 6,101 | medmcqa_train |
Triple deformity of knee joint is seen in | TB KNEE has two stages. In late stage it shows TRIPLE DEFORMITY- Posterior Subluxation External Rotation Flexion Other condition showing triple deformity of knee-Rheumatoid Ahritis REF : MAHESWARI 9TH ED | 6,102 | medmcqa_train |
The rate of mixed whole stimulated saliva increases with age in which of the following age group (according to Crossner) | Crossner reported that in children from 5 to 15 years of age, the rate of mixed whole stimulated saliva increases with age, and boys have consistently higher rates than girls. Saliva substitutes, as well as fluoride and chlorhexidine rinses, are reported to enhance remineralization and promote resistance to demineralization of tooth surfaces, and may help prevent radiation-induced caries. | 6,103 | medmcqa_train |
Following are radiological evidence of Achalasia cardia except not related -radiology | . | 6,104 | medmcqa_train |
Optic tract is related to : | B. i.e. Lateral geniculate body | 6,105 | medmcqa_train |
The T wave on an ECG tracing represents which of the events in the cardiac cycle? | The T wave represents ventricular repolarization and is longer in duration than depolarization (i.e., conduction of the repolarization wave is slower than the wave of depolarization). The P wave represents the wave of depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria, and is usually 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms) in duration. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential. | 6,106 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a specific risk factor for development of adenocarcinoma of ethmoid sinus? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Wood workers * Paranasal sinus cancer is uncommon and represents only 0.2 to 0.8% of all malignancies.* Cancer of paranasal sinus constitutes 3% of all carcinomas of the aerodigestive tract.* The majority of paranasal sinus malignancies (50-80%) originate within the maxillary sinus antrum. Malignancies rarely occur within the other sinuses and originate in the ethmoid, frontal, and sphenoid sinuses in 10%, 1% and 1% respectively.* The cause of parasinus malignancy is unknown. However several risk factors have been associated and therefore it is seen more commonly in people working in hardwood furniture industry, nickel refining, leather work, and manufacturer of mustard gas.* More than 80% of the malignant tumours are of squamous cell variety. Rest are adenocarcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, melanoma, and various type of sarcomas.* Workers of furniture industry (wood workers) develop adenocarcinoma of the Ethmoids and upper nasal cavity. While those engaged in Nickel refining get squamous cell and Anaplastic carcinoma. | 6,107 | medmcqa_train |
A pharmaceutical company develops a new antihypertensive drug. Samples of 24 hypertensive patients, randomly selected from a large population of hypertensive people, are randomly divided into 2 groups of 12. One group is given the new drug over a period of 1 month; the other group is given a placebo according to the same schedule. Neither the patients nor the treating physicians are aware of which patients are in which group. At the end of the month, measurements are made of the patient’s blood pressures. This study | Here, a pharmaceutical company develops a new anti-hypertensive drug; samples of 24 hypertensive patients, randomly selected from a large population of hypertensive people, are randomly divided into 2 groups of 12, and one group is given the new drug over a period of 1 month & the other group is given a placebo according to the same schedule,
Since a new drug (intervention) is given it is an experimental/ interventional study (not a prospective study which is only observational in design)
Also, there are 2 groups, i.e. experimental group (Intervention – new drug is given) and reference group (no intervention is given – only placebo is given) which are compared concurrently, thus it is a ‘Concurrent parallel design of RCT’ (there is no cross-over)
Also, neither the patients nor the treating physicians are aware of which patients are in which group, thus it is a ‘double blinded RCT’. | 6,108 | medmcqa_train |
Chlamydia are isolated by : | Isolation of chlamydiae can done by :
Inoculationinto yolk sac/embryonated eggs of 6-8 day old chick embryo which may be pretreated by streptomycin or polymyxin
Inculation into experimental animals (mice)
Tissue/cell culture :
Preferred mode
Commonly used cell lines are McCoy and HeLa cells.
Cell cultures are pretreated by irradiation or chemicals such as 5-iodo – 2 deoxyuridic or cycloheximide to enhance replication and detection of inclusion bodies.
Pretreatment with DEAE dextrax or centrifugation after inoculation, promotes contact between chlamydiae particles and cell monolayer. | 6,109 | medmcqa_train |
A 50 yr. old male presented with chronic breathlessness and intermittent jaundice. He denies smoking and alcohol abuse. Lung and liver specimens revealed the following findings respectively What is the most probable diagnosis? | The lung specimen reveals diffusive panacinar emphysema. The liver biopsy shows PAS positive diastase resistant deposits. Both the above clues point towards option C. - Option A hemochromatosis would show pearls stain on liver biopsy. - Cystic fibrosis would show bronchiectasis. | 6,110 | medmcqa_train |
Peripheral neuropathy can be as a side effect of all of the following anti-retroviral drugs, EXCEPT: | Peripheral neuropathy is a rare side effect of Lamivudine. Side effects of lamivudine are headache, fatigue, nausea, anorexia and abdominal pain. Predominant side effect of stavudine is peripheral neuropathy. Predominant side effect of Zalcitabine is peripheral neuropathy, other side effects asssociated with it are pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, hepatotoxicity and cardiomyopathy. Prominant dose related toxicity of Didanosine is pancreatitis and peripheral neuropathy. | 6,111 | medmcqa_train |
Apical lung tumor causes | Apical lung cancer/ Pancoast tumor causes - 2deg neuron injury (Preganglionic sympathetic fibres) I/L horner syndrome (Cervical sympathetic chain and ganglion involved) Loss of sweating on same side of face 1deg sympathetic neuron injury occurs in Wallenberg syndrome 2deg sympathetic neuron (preganglionic fibers) injury occurs in Apical lung cancer 3deg sympathetic neuron (postganglionic fibers) injury occurs in Internal carotid aery disection | 6,112 | medmcqa_train |
Recurrence is common in pleomorphic adenoma because of: | Pleomorphic Adenoma:
Local enucleation should be avoided because the entire tumor may not be removed or the capsule may be violated, resulting in seeding of the tumor bed. With adequate surgery the prognosis is excellent, with a cure rate of more than 95%. The risk of recurrence appears to be lower for tumors of the minor glands. Conservative enucleation of parotid tumors often results in recurrence, with management of these cases made difficult as a result of multifocal seeding of the primary tumor bed. In such cases, multiple recurrences are not unusual and may necessitate adjuvant radiation therapy. Tumors with a predominantly myxoid appearance are more susceptible to recur than those with other microscopic patterns.
Key Concept:
One of the characteristic is the microscopic presentation of tumour outside the Incomplete Capsule. So, the recurrence of pleomorphic adenoma is due to Incomplete Capsule.
Reference: ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL PATHOLOGY, Neville, FOURTH EDITION page no 446,447 | 6,113 | medmcqa_train |
Drug used in alzheimer's disease are all EXCEPT: | Ans. (a) BiperidinRef.: Harrison 19th ed. / 2601-02Alzheimer's disease is most common cause of dementia.Drugs Used in the Treatment of Alzheimer's are:* Acetycholine esterase inhiitors:# Donepezil# Tacrine# Galantamine* Rivastigmine: Carbamate derivative of physostigmine* Memantine: NMDA glutaminergic antagonist* Biperidin is an anti cholinergic drug used to treat parkinsonism. | 6,114 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is an intermediate-acting local anaesthetic which is an amino amide causing methemoglobinemia? | Prilocaine causes methemoglobinemia, hence it is largely limited to dentistry. This effect is a consequence of the metabolism of the aromatic ring to o-toluidine. Development of methemoglobinemia is dependent on the total dose administered, usually appearing after a dose of 8 mg/kg. Methemoglobinemia is more common in neonates due to decreased resistance of fetal hemoglobin to oxidant stresses and the immaturity of enzymes in the neonate that conve methemoglobin back to the ferrous state. Ref: Catterall W.A., Mackie K. (2011). Chapter 20. Local Anesthetics. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | 6,115 | medmcqa_train |
Multidrug therapy is given for | B i.e. Leprosy | 6,116 | medmcqa_train |
What is phacoanaphylactic Uveitis? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Uveitis as a result of lens tissue induced inflam mation following cataract surgery o Due to cataract extraction or lens trauma, lens matter induces inflammation in the uveal tissue, called phacoanaphylactic/phacotoxic uveitis:# Phacoanaphylaxis/lens-induced uveitis occurs in the setting of a ruptured or degenerative lens capsule and is characterized by a granulomatous antigenic reaction to lens protein.# Lens proteins are most likely immunologically privileged, and they may initiate an immunologic sensitization only after entering the aqueous humor. This privilege is probably because of numerous factors, as follows: lens proteins are isolated from the fetal circulation early in embryonic life, the lens is devoid of innervation, and the adult lens is completely avascular. | 6,117 | medmcqa_train |
Laryngeal papilloma- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Single; 'b' i.e., Multiple & 'c' i.e., Seen in children Laryngeal papilloma o Most common benign tumor of larynx Single or multiple irregular, wa like glottic masses. HPV-6 & 11 may be the causative factor. Treatment is with CO2 laser ablation. a-IFN and indole - 3 - carbinole may also be used. | 6,118 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug must always be available for emergency use in labour ward if a patient on opoid analgesia? | Opoids are used during labor for analgesia. It may cause newborn respiratory depression. Naloxane is a narcotic antagonist capable of reversing this respiratory depression | 6,119 | medmcqa_train |
Quincke's disease is | Angioedema is an area of swelling of the lower layer of skin and tissue just under the skin or mucous membranes.The swelling may occur in the face, tongue, larynx, abdomen, or arms and legs. Often it is associated with hives, which are swelling within the upper skin.Onset is typically over minutes to hours Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1567 | 6,120 | medmcqa_train |
'Mission Indradhanush' includes all of the vaccines except: | c. Typhoid(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1246, 1292-1293, Ghai 8/e p 197-198)Mission IndradhanushIncludes vaccination against 7 life-threatening diseases (diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles and hepatitis B) in the entire country | 6,121 | medmcqa_train |
Typhoid carriers harbor bacteria in | Salmonella typhi or Salmonella typhimurium can infect the gallbladder. Acute cholecystitis can occur. More frequently, chronic cholecystitis occurs, the patient becoming a typhoid carrier excreting the bacteria in the bile.Ref: Bailey and love 27e pg: 1202 | 6,122 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum tourniquet time for the upper limb is ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1-1/2 hr. In experiment animals tourniquets have been retained for three hours without lasting ill effect but in practice an hour and a half is probably a wise limit. | 6,123 | medmcqa_train |
Preferred treatment in a 60years old patient with Maxillary carcinoma involving anterolateral pa of maxilla is | Treatment of maxillary carcinomas: Early cases with Stage I and II squamous cell carcinomas are treated with surgery or radiation with equal results. T3 and T4 lesions are treated by combined modalities of radiation and surgery. Radiation in such cases may be given preoperatively or postoperatively Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 233. | 6,124 | medmcqa_train |
Splicing Activity is a functions of | Sn-RNA is involved in RNA splicing.
Sno-RNA → r-RNA modification
mi-RNA & St-RNA → Regulation of gene expression
SP-RNA → RNA-interference (RNA i) | 6,125 | medmcqa_train |
In rheumatic hea disease, infective endocarditis is detected by echocardiogram and the largest vegetations seen are due to - | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:161-162 Acute infective endocarditis: Caused by highly virulent organisms mainly S. aureus (20-30%), seeding a previously normal valve 2D Echo * The smallest size of vegetation that can be picked up by echo is 2 mm. * Transoesophageal echocardiography is more sensitive in detecting vegetations in the aoic valve (90%) and mitral valve (100%) than transthoracic echocardiography | 6,126 | medmcqa_train |
Kaposi sarcoma is caused by - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Human herpes virus-8 Important virusesDisease causedo HHV-8Kaposi sarcomaoHHV-6Roseola infantum, multiple sclerosiso VZVChicken pox, herpes zostero EBVIMN, burkitis lymphoma, oral hairy leukoplakia, nasopharyngeal carcinomao Enterovirus-72Hepatitis Ao Coxsackie-AHerpangina, hand-foot-mouth diseaseo Coxsackie-BPleurodynia, myocarditis, pericarditis, Bornholm diseaseo OrthomyxovirusInfluenzao ParamyxovirusesMumps, measles, parainfleuenzao HIVAIDSo JC virusProgressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyo RhabdovirusRabiesoHPVWarts, condyloma accuminatum, cervical cancero ParvovirusErythema infectiosum, aplastic anemia, fetal hydrops | 6,127 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about acute acalculous cholecystitis except | Distended GB is seen in scintigraphy Cholescintigraphy demonstrates absent gallbladder filling in acalculous cholecystitis Acalculous cholecystitis Acute inflammation of gallbladder without stones Clinical features Similar to acute calculous cholecystitis Patients may present with only unexplained fever, leucocytosis and hyperamylasemia and RUQ tenderness If untreated, rapid progression to gangrene and perforation may occur Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1508 | 6,128 | medmcqa_train |
. All of the following forms of porphyria are associated with peripheral neuropathy except | Porphyria is a group of inherited disorders caused by defects in heme biosynthesis. Three forms of porphyria are associated with peripheral neuropathy: acute intermittent porphyria (AIP), hereditary coproporphyria (HCP), and variegate porphyria (VP). The acute neurologic manifestations are similar in each, with the exception that a photosensitive rash is seen with HCP and VP but not in AIP. Attacks of porphyria can be precipitated by ceain drugs (usually those metabolized by the P450 system), hormonal changes (e.g., pregnancy, menstrual cycle), and dietary restrictions. Ref Harrison 20th edition page 3211 | 6,129 | medmcqa_train |
True about subendocardial hemorrhages are all, except AIIMS 10; UPSC 11 | Ans. Involves the right ventricular wall | 6,130 | medmcqa_train |
Pulse deficit more than 10 is seen in- | Atrial fibrillation (AF or A-fib) is an abnormal hea rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atrial chambers of the hea.Often it stas as brief periods of abnormal beating which become longer and possibly constant over time.Often episodes have no symptoms. Occasionally there may be hea palpitations, fainting, lightheadedness, shoness of breath, or chest pain.The disease is associated with an increased risk of hea failure, dementia, and stroke.It is a type of supraventricular tachycardia Leads V4 and V5 of an electrocardiogram showing atrial fibrillation with somewhat irregular intervals between hea beats, no P waves, and a hea rate of about 150 BPM. Pulse deficit occurs when there are fewer pulses than there are heabeats. Atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter can cause pulse deficit because they cause the hea to beat so fast, and often irregularly, that the force of blood out of the hea is sometimes not strong enough to create a pulse. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1576 | 6,131 | medmcqa_train |
Anti U1 RNP is a feature of: | MCTD | 6,132 | medmcqa_train |
Rideal-Walker coefficient is related with ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Disinfecting power Traditional testing of disinfectants Two traditional tests for determining the efficiency of disinfectants are :? 1) Rideal-Walker test : Phenol is taken as the standard with unit as phenol coefficient (pheno1=1) 2) Chick-Main test : The disinfectant acts in the presence of organic matter (dried yeast or feces). | 6,133 | medmcqa_train |
Feature (s) of DiGeorge syndrome is/are all except: | D. B cell defectDiGeorge Syndrome {Thymic Hypoplasia) Robbins 9th/24lDiGeorge syndrome is a T-cell deficiency that results from failure of development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. The latter give rise to the thymus, the parathyroids, some of the C cells of the thyroid, and the ultimobranchial body. Thus, individuals with this syndrome have a variable loss of T cell-mediated immunity (resulting from hypoplasia or lack of the thymus), tetany (resulting from lack of the parathyroids), and congenital defects of the heart and great vessels.Absence of cell-mediated immunity is caused by low numbers of T lymphocytes in the blood and lymphoid tissues and poor defense against certain fungal and viral infections.The T-cell zones of lymphoid organs--paracortical areas of the lymph nodes and the periarteriolar sheaths of the spleen--are depleted. Ig levels may be normal or reduced, depending on the severity of the T-cell deficiency."Patients who survives the neonatal period show enhanced susceptibility to viral, fungal and bacterial infections, which ultimately prove fatal"- Ananthanarayan 10th/175Patients with DGS may have poor T-cell production compared to their peers, and as a result, have an increased susceptibility to viral, fungal and bacterial infections- primaryimmune.orgDiGeorge Syndrome Harrison I9th/2483A form of hypoparathyroidism associated with defective development of both the thymus and the parathyroid glands is termed the DiGeorge syndrome, or the velocardiofacial syndrome.Congenital cardiovascular, facial, and other developmental defects are present, and patients may die in early childhood with severe infections, hypocalcemia and seizures, or cardiovascular complications.Most cases are sporadic, but an autosomal dominant form involving microdeletions of chromosome 22q11.2 has been described. | 6,134 | medmcqa_train |
The following are part of Hamstrings -a) Semitendinosusb) Semimembranosusc) Gracilisd) Short head of biceps femorise) Sartorius | Hamstrings
- Semimembranosus
- Semitendinosus
- Long head of biceps femoris
- Ischial head of adductor magnus | 6,135 | medmcqa_train |
A person is having painless lymphadenopathy. On biopsy, binucleated owl shaped nuclei with clear vacuolated area is seen. On IHC CD 15 and CD 30 were positive. What is the most probable diagnosis? | Ans. (a) Nodular sclerosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 606-611)Binucleated owl shaped nuclei with clear vacuolated area refers to Lacunar cells.Lacunar cells are seen in the nodular sclerosis subtype of Hodgkin's diseaseLacunar cells have delicate, folded, or multilobate nuclei and abundant pale cytoplasm that is often disrupted during the cutting of sections, leaving the nucleus sitting in an empty space (lacuna) | 6,136 | medmcqa_train |
Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dry tap (hypocellular) Myelofibrosiso The hallmark of primary myelofibrosis is rapid development of obliterative marrow fibrosis,o Myelofibrosis suppresses bone marrow hematopoiesis, leading to peripheral blood cytopenias.o This results in extensive extramedullary hematopoiesis in the spleen, liver and lymphnode - Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly.o Blood cell production from sites of extramedullary hematopoisis is disordered and ineffective - Persistent cytopenia.Peripheral blood pictureLeukoerythroblastosis - Presence of erythroid and granulocytic precursors in the peripheral blood.Tear-drop erythrocytes (dacrocytes) - Fibrotic marrow distorts and damages the membranes of erythroid proginators.Bone marrow findingso Initially marrow is hypercellular.o With progression marrow becomes hypocellular and diffusely fibrotic --> Bone marrow aspiration is a dry tap.o There is increase laying down of reticulin fibril network.o Cellularity of bone marrow is decreased, but megakaryocytes are increased and demonstrate features of dysmegakaryopoiesis.o Dilated marrow sinusoids. | 6,137 | medmcqa_train |
A 60-years old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is – | Late complications of cataract surgery are cystoid macular oedema, retinal detachment, epithelial in growth, fibrous in growth, vitreous touch syndrome, after cataract.
Retinal detachment (rhegmatogenous) presents with sudden painless loss of vision with floaters and photopsia. | 6,138 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following can cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease- | Ref: Parks 23rd edition Disease will be Prevalent so long it exist in the community. Longer the duration of the illness, longer will it persist in the community and hence higher will be its prevalence. | 6,139 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest thyroid tumor in MEN (multiple endocrine neoplasia) - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Medullary o Thyroid tumor is seen in MEN II, and is medullary carcinoma of thyroid. | 6,140 | medmcqa_train |
What is a placental cotyledon: | Functional unit of the placenta is called a fetal cotyledon or placentome,which is derived from a major primary stem villus. These stem villi pass down through the intervillous space to anchor onto the basal plate.About 60 stem villi persist in human placenta. Thus each cotyledon(totalling 15-29) contains 3-4 major stem villi. Reference : Dutta Textbook of Obstetrics &th edition page no 31 | 6,141 | medmcqa_train |
Thrombosis is initiated by | ref : robbins 10th ed | 6,142 | medmcqa_train |
Investigation of choice for diagnosis and staging of renal cell carcinoma | IOC - CECT.
IOC if renal vein or IVC involved - MRI. | 6,143 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following amino acid takes a role in detoxification of ammonia normally in the human body? | Ammonia is produced in the body during normal protein metabolism and by intestinal bacteria, primarily those in the colon. The liver plays a role in the detoxification of ammonia by conveing it to urea, which is excreted by the kidneys. Striated muscle also plays a role in detoxification of ammonia, which is combined with glutamic acid to form glutamine. Ref: Kaplan M.M. (2012). Chapter 302. Evaluation of Liver Function. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | 6,144 | medmcqa_train |
Delusion of Nihilism and Early morning insomnia are characteristic features of - | Nihilistic delusion, insomonia and early morning awakening are seen in depression | 6,145 | medmcqa_train |
Reliability means - | Repeatability (reliability)
Repeatability means, the test must give consistent results when it is repeated more than once on the same individual under same conditions.
That means the results of test are precise (exact), So repeatability is some time called precision, reliability or reproducibility. | 6,146 | medmcqa_train |
A pregnant female has past history of embolism in puerperium. What medical management she should take in next pregnancy to avoid this | Ans. is b i.e. To take Warfarin after delivery Friends venous thromboembolism in pregnancy, is one of those topics which we donot study in detail during undergraduation. So, I am giving in brief, all the impoant points you need to remember : Venous thromboembolism in pregnnacy : Venous thromboembolism is the leading cause of maternal deaths in developed countries. Pregnancy increases the risk of thromboembolism 6 times as all components of virchow's triad are increased.deg A. Deep vein thrombosis : Left sided DVT is more common than Right sided DVT. Clinical features : swelling / redness / pain and calf muscle tenderness and oedema. Investigations - Recommended method during pregnancy : Doppler ultrasound - Gold standard (in conditions other than pregnancy) : venography Mangement : Therapeutic The treatment should be staed on clinical grounds if confirmatory tests are not available. Drug of choice - Heparin (as it doesnot cross the placenta) Initially intravenous Heparin is given with the aim to prolong APTT (activated paial thromboplastic time) by 1.5 to 2 times the control followed by subcutaneous Heparin. Monitoring is done by APTT and platelet count (as Heparin causes Thrombocytopenia). Oral anticoagulants like Warfarin cross the placenta and cause teratogenesis therefore should be avoided in pregnancy. Treatment is continued for 6 weeks following which prophylactic subcutaneous heparin is given throughout pregnancy. Heparin is stopped just before delivery. Regional anaesthesia should be avoided at the time of delivery in patients on heparin due to the risk of hematoma formation. Heparin is restaed about 6 - 8 hours after delivery as the puerperium is the time of greatest risk for VTE. Warfarin is commenced simultaneously and thereafter monitoring is done by prothrombin time (PT). Once the prothrombin time INR is between 2 and 3, heparin can be discontinued. Usually warfarin is continued for 6 to 18 weeks and is safe for breast feeding mothers. Thromboprophylaxis : Thromboprophylaxis is considered for women who are at increased risk of thromboembolism (TE). Risk category Risk factors High risk Recurrent TE Previous TE with thrombophilia Previous TE with family history TE in current pregnancy Low risk One episode of previous TE without thrombophiiia or family history Thrombophilia without previous thrombosis Additional risk Cesarean section, obesity, grand multiparity, age above 35, pre-eclampsia, prolonged immobilization etc. High risk patients need antepaum heparin, intrapaum heparin and postpaum prophylaxis for 6 weeks. Low risk patient require intrapaum and postpaum low dose prophylaxis for 6 weeks. Well, now that you have a detailed knowledge of thromboembolism, lets have a look at the question. It says : a female with previous history of embolism becomes pregnant,what medical management should be given to her? Option 'a. i.e. Compulsory prophylaxis with warfarin at 10 weeks. It is absolutely wrong as warfarin is not given during pregnancy. Option 'b Le to take warfarin after delivery - According to William obs. 22/e, p 1077 table 47-3, 23/e, p 1028 - table 47.6 In case of prior VTE associated with a non recurring risk factor and no known thrombophilia? During pregnancy : Only surveillance is required as per American college of chest physicians. Prophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin is required as per American college of obs & gynaecology (which also explains option 'd is paly correct). Postpaum : warfarin is given for 6 weeks. So, option 'b' is absolutely correct i.e. warfarin should be given in the post paum period for six weeks. | 6,147 | medmcqa_train |
A woman trying to get pregnant has a sister whose child has an autosomal recessive disease characterized by dysfunction of mucus-secreting cells. As a result, this child has abnormally thick mucus that tends to precipitate into dense plugs that obstruct the pancreatic ducts, bronchi, and bronchioles, as well as the bile ducts. Which of the following tests could be performed to determine if this woman and her husband are carriers of this disease? | The disease described is cystic fibrosis, which phenotypically presents with meconium ileus, deficiencies of pancreatic enzymes, pulmonary obstruction and infection leading to progressive pulmonary damage and ultimate respiratory failure. The most frequent mutation in this autosomal recessive disorder is a small deletion of a phenylalanine at position 508. An amplification of this region using PCR can be done and then that poion sequenced to see how it compares to the normal sequence. Nohern blot is used to determine RNA levels inside a cell and would not help us determine if this person is a carrier. Southern blots are used to study genomic DNA on a gross level and could not be used to see a single base-pair deletion. Western blots are used to look for the presence or absence of a paicular protein, but since the protein is produced, though defective, this technique would not give the information needed. | 6,148 | medmcqa_train |
Bacterial cell wall is composed of all except -? | Bacteria are usually single-celled, except when they exist in colonies. ... The major component of the bacterial cell wall is peptidoglycan or murein. This rigid structure of peptidoglycan, specific only to prokaryotes, gives the cell shape and surrounds the cytoplasmic membrane. Ref:Ananthanarayan & panikers Textbook of microbiology 9th edition page no 15,16 | 6,149 | medmcqa_train |
A 27-yrs-old woman has been feeling low for the past 2 weeks. She has little energy and has trouble concentrating. She states that 6 weeks ago she had been feeling very good, with lots of energy and no need for sleep. She states this pattern has been occurring for at least the past 3 years, though the episodes have never been so severe that she couldn't work. Most likely diagnosis is? | Cyclothymic disorder *Cyclothymic disorder is characterized by recurrent periods of mild depression alternating with periods of hypomania. *This pattern must be present for at least 2 years (1 year for children and adolescents) before the diagnosis can be made. *During these 2 years, the symptom-free intervals should not be longer than 2 months. Cyclothymic disorder usually stas during adolescence or early adulthood and tends to have a chronic course. *The marked shifts in mood of cyclothymic disorder can be confused with the affective instability of borderline -, personality disorder or may suggest a substance abuse problem. | 6,150 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following condition is associated with hepatomegaly with liver pulsation? | Characteristic features of Tricuspid regurgitation are marked hepatomegaly and systolic pulsations of the liver. Hepatic pulsation in tricuspid regurgitation is caused by reversed systolic blood flow in the great veins. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012, Chapter 10; The Cleveland Clinic Cardiology Board Review By Brian P. Griffin, Page 290 | 6,151 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the follwing gas given off in a fire is most commonly known to cause metabolic poisoning? | Ans. B. CO. (Ref. Bailey & Love 26th ed. Pg. 386; Summary box 28.3)Metabolic poisoning in burns:# There are many poisonous gases that can be given off in a fire, the most common being carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion that is often produced by fires in enclosed spaces. This is the usual cause of a person being found with altered consciousness at the scene of a fire.# Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin with an affinity 240 times greater than that of oxygen and therefore blocks the transport of oxygen. Levels of carboxyhaemoglobin in the bloodstream can be measured. Concentrations above 10% are dangerous and need treatment with pure oxygen for more than 24 hours. Death occurs with concentrations around 60%.# Another metabolic toxin produced in house fires is hydrogen cyanide, which causes a metabolic acidosis by interfering with mitochondrial respiration.Additional educational points:The shock reaction after burns# Bums produce an inflammatory reaction# This leads to vastly increased vascular permeability# Water, solutes and proteins move from the intra- to the extravascular space# The volume of fluid lost is directly proportional to the area of the bum# Above 15% of surface area, the loss of fluid produces shockASPHYXIANTS# Include CO, CO2, Hydrogen sulphide and some war gases.- CO reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood;- Carbon dioxide produces oxygen lack in the tissues;- Hydrogen sulphide paralyses the respiratory centre.Cause of death in burns:# Primary neurogenic shock - instantaneously from fear or pain or within 24-48 hrsfrom severe pains or from injury to vital organ from burning, or from oligemic shock.# If a victim survives this stage, this stage merges rapidly into the stage of secondary shock due to depletion of blood (serum) volume.# Apart from actual burning, death may occur from asphyxia (suffocation) due to inhalation of smoke containing carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and other products of combution, which may be poisonous (in recent yrs cyanide intoxication has been recognized as important, especially where plastics and paints are burning), or accidental injuries from falling structures whle trying to escape from abuming house, or from fat embolism. | 6,152 | medmcqa_train |
Roll back malaria programme focused mainly on ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Insecticide treated bed nets The main strategies of Roll Back Malaria initiative are : a) Strengthen health system to ensure better delivery of health care, especially at district and community level. b) Ensure the proper and expanded use of insecticide treated mosquito nets. c) Ensure adequate access to basic health care and training of health care workers. d) Encourage the development of simpler and more effetive means of administering medicines, such as training of village health workers and mothers on early and appropriate treatment of malaria, especially in children. e) Encourage the development of more effective and new anti-malaria drugs and vaccines. | 6,153 | medmcqa_train |
Influenza vaccine cause ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above Mild problems following inactivated flu vaccine: Soreness, redness, or swelling where the shot was given Hoarseness Sore, red or itchy eyes Cough Fever Aches Headache Itching Fatigue If these problems occur, they usually begin soon after the shot and last 1 or 2 days. Moderate problems following inactivated flu vaccine: Young children who get inactivated flu vaccine and pneumococcal vaccine (PCV13) at the same time may be at increased risk for seizures caused by fever. Ask your doctor for more information. Tell your doctor if a child who is getting flu vaccine has ever had a seizure. Problems that could happen after any vaccine: Brief fainting spells can happen after any medical procedure, including vaccination. Sitting or lying down for about 15 minutes can help prevent fainting, and injuries caused by a fall. Tell your doctor if you feel dizzy, or have vision changes or ringing in the ears. Severe shoulder pain and reduced range of motion in the arm where a shot was given can happen, very rarely, after a vaccination. Severe allergic reactions from a vaccine are very rare, estimated at less than 1 in a million doses. If one were to occur, it would usually be within a few minutes to a few hours after the vaccination. | 6,154 | medmcqa_train |
The following rodent is the natural reservoir of plague - | - the reservoir of plaque is wild rodents, filed mice gerbils and skunks. - in India, the wild rodent Tatera indica is the main reservoir. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:293 <\p> | 6,155 | medmcqa_train |
A 35-year-old man developed headache, nausea, vomiting, and sore throat 8 weeks after returning from a trip abroad. He eventually refused to drink water and had episodes of profuse salivation, difficulty in breathing, and hallucinations. Two days after the patient died of cardiac arrest, it was learned that he had been bitten by a dog while on his trip. Which of the following treatments, if given immediately after the dog bite, could have helped prevent this disease? | Rabies is caused by a rhabdovirus, a minus-sense, single-stranded, non-segmented RNA virus with an enveloped, bullet-shaped virion). The virus infects a wide range of warm-blooded animals, including humans. The virus is widely disseminated within the infected animals, with high levels in saliva. If the animal is captured or killed, examination of its brain for rabies virus can be done in time to determine whether rabies prophylaxis is necessary. The best means to prevent rabies begins with scrupulous wound care, including washing and probing for any foreign bodies (e.g., broken teeth) in the wound. If the animal is not available, or tests positive for rabies, and if the person has not been immunized with rabies vaccine, the treatment of choice is to give human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIg) plus rabies vaccine at separate sites (d). The HRIg should be infused into the wound and the remainder given as a deep IM injection. After onset of symptoms, neither of these should be given. Broad-spectrum antibiotics (a) may be given as part of wound care to prevent bacterial infection, but they will not prevent rabies. Acyclovir (b) and ribavirin (c), regardless of dosage or route of administration, have no role in rabies prophylaxis. Tetanus immune globulin and/or tetanus toxoid vaccine (e) may also be part of the wound care regimen, but are given to prevent tetanus, not rabies. | 6,156 | medmcqa_train |
A 22-year-old primigravida at 11 weeks of gestational age has a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg obtained during a routine visit. . The patient denies any headache, visual changes, nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. Her repeat BP is 160/90 mm Hg, and urinalysis is negative for protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Chronic hypeension is defined as BP >140/90 mmHg before pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation, or hypeension first diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation and persistent after 12 weeks postpaum. The average prevalence of hypeension in women aged 18 to 39 years is approximately 5-7 percent. | 6,157 | medmcqa_train |
Height of children in 2-10 years of age is increased by- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 6 cm/year "After 4 years, the child gains about 5 cm in height every year, until the age of 10 years" -- O.P. Ghai. "An average child gains approximately 7-8 cm in height between the age of 2-6 years and 6-7 cm in height between 6-12 years". -- Nelson Amongst given option, 6 cm/year is the best answer. | 6,158 | medmcqa_train |
Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by: | Ans: B (Patch test) Ref: Eczema. In: Thappa DM. editor. Essentials in Dermatology, 2nd,edn.. New Delhi: jaypee brothers medical publishers (P) Ltd 2009:99-113. & Atopic dermatitis. Eczema and non infectious immunodeficiency disorders. In: James WD. Berger TG, Elston DM. editors. Andrew's diseases of the skin: Clinical Dermatology, 11th edn., China: Saunders Elsevier 2011: 62-87.Explanation:Patch test - Application of allergens suspected to be the cause of allergic contact dennatitis to intact uninflamed skin in non irritating concentrationDiagnostic of allergic contact dermatitis (airborne contact dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis wherein the allergens are airborne like pollen, cement, etc)Patch test - Delayed hypersensitivity (type IV hypersensitivity)Reading done two days laterPrick testType I hypersensitivity reaction, used to detect allergy to a host of allergens like food, dust, insects, drugs, etcDone in atopic dermatitis, chronic urticaria, allergic rhinoconjunctivitis, bronchial asthmaReading done in 15 minutesSerum IgE levels are non specifically elevated in allergic conditions characteristically high levels are seen in atopic dermatitis and very high levels in hyper IgE syndromeSkin biopsy reveals nonspecific features of spongiosis seen in all cases of dermatitis and not specific for airborne contact dermatitis. | 6,159 | medmcqa_train |
Children with apathy, general weakness, loosening of the skin, marasmic features also has X3B Xerophthalmia features. Eye finding will be | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 467 - 470)X3A Corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting less than a one-third corneal surfaceX3B corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting more than a one-third corneal surfaceXS corneal scar due to xerophthalmia XF Xerophthalmic fundus | 6,160 | medmcqa_train |
A perforated peptic ulcer is treated by all except | The most impoant component of the operation of perforated peptic ulcer is a thorough peritoneal toilet to remove all of the fluid and food debris. If the perforation is in the duodenum it can usually be closed by several well-placed sutures, closing the ulcer in a transverse direction as with a pyloroplastyIf the perforation is difficult to close primarily itis frequently possible to seal the leak with an omental patch (Graham patch) alone, and many surgeons now employ this strategy for all perforations.In the past, many surgeons performed definitive procedures such as either truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty or, more recently and probably more successfully, highly selective vagotomy during the course of an operation for a perforation.Following operation,gastric antisecretory agents should be staed immediately. H.pylori eradication is mandatory.Under-running of a vessel is done in peptic ulcer bleedingBailey and love pg: 1126 | 6,161 | medmcqa_train |
Hyperkalemia with no ECG finding. The drug that should not be used is - | calcium gluconate immediately antagonises the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia, whereas the others are used to correct hyperkalemia. (reference : harrisons principles of internal medicine,19E page- 312) | 6,162 | medmcqa_train |
Trials stage for experimentation of adverse drug reaction in large scale population is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IV o Long-term adverse effects on large number of patients -f Phase IV clinical trial. | 6,163 | medmcqa_train |
Blue vire technology is used in | VorTEX uses M wire NiTi | 6,164 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of hyperkalemia? | drugs used for hyperkalemia- IV calcium gluconate, calcium chloride, insulin, sodium bicarbonate, albuterol, thiazide diuretics, loop diuretics New drug patiromer was recently approved for the treatment of hyperkalemia ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMACOLOGY SIXTH EDITION -KD TRIPATHI Page:323 | 6,165 | medmcqa_train |
Cataract is cases of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycated crytallins Diabetic cataract Senile cataract tends to develop at an earlier age and more rapidly than usual in diabetic subjects. The lenses of an adult diabetic are said to be in the same condition as a non-diabetic who is 15 years older. In diabetic adults, coin- pared to non-diabetics, cataracts are more prevalent, are dependent on the duration of diabetes and progress more rapidly. The mechanisms are believed to be glycation, carbamylation of crystallins and increased oxidative damage. True diabetic cataract is a rare condition occurring typi- cally in young people in whom the diabetes is so acute as to disturb grossly the water balance of the body. A large number of fluid vacuoles appear under the anterior -td posterior pas of the capsule, initially manifesting as myopia and then producing a diffuse opacity which at this stage is reversible. The lens then rapidly becomes cataractous, with dense, white subcapsular opacities in the anterior and posterior coex resembling a snowstorm- 'snowflake' cataract. Fine, needle-shaped polychromatic coical opacities may also form. With appropriate treatment to control hyperglycaemia, the rapid progression to mature cataract may be arrested at this stage. | 6,166 | medmcqa_train |
All the drugs have anti-androgenic effects except | Progesterone had mild androgenic effects except for 3rd gen progesterones which are devoid of androgenic effects Flutamide,nilutamide and bicalutamide are androgen antagonists. Finasteride and dutasteride 5 alpha reductase inhibiters Spironolatone is androgen receptor antagonist Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed Pg 595 | 6,167 | medmcqa_train |
Whooping cough is caused by? | Ans. (b) B.pertisusRef: Harrison's 18th ed ch-148 | 6,168 | medmcqa_train |
UPSIT is used for testing: | The University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT): A far superior test to other assessments is the University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT). It is highly recommended for the evaluation of a patient with smell disorder. This test utilizes 40 forced-choice items that feature microencapsulated scratch-and-sniff odors. | 6,169 | medmcqa_train |
A patient at 28 weeks pregnancy presents with low grade fever, malaise, vomiting since 1 week. On examination she is icteric, Her Hb is 10 gm%, bilirubin is 5 mg/dL, SGOT and SGPT at 630 and 600 with normal platelet count. Most probable cause of her jaundice is | Patient here has presented with prodrome of viral hepatitis. Investigations to diiferentiate various causes of jaundice in pregnancy are IHCP AFLP HELLP Viral hepatiis Bilirubin (mg/dL) 1-5, direct 2-10, direct <2 >5 SGOT/ SGPT <200 <1000 <500 500-3000 ALP Raised Normal Normal Normal/raised Platelets Normal low Low Normal Prothrombin time Normal Prolonged prolonged prolonged | 6,170 | medmcqa_train |
An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is: | A i.e. Oral griseofulvin Tenia capitis is most commonly caused by Microsporum canis > Trichophyton tonsurans; and never caused by Epidermophyton as it does not involve hair. It presents with localized non-cicatrial (mostly) alopecia, itching, scaling with or without boggy swelling of scalp & easily pluckable hair. Tinia capitis is diagnosed by potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mounts of hair & scale and treated by griseofulvin. Griseofulvin is used systemically only for dermatophytosis, it is ineffective topically. It is the drug of choice for treatment of tinea requiring systemic therapy. Griseofulvin has no role in treatment of Tinea versicolar & candida. | 6,171 | medmcqa_train |
Causes of diffuse hyperpigmentation include all of the following except? | Busulfan administration Busulfan, cyclophosphamide, 5-fluorouracil, and inorganic arsenic induce pigment production and cause diffuse hyperpigmentation Nelson's syndrome Increased ACTH (Which has paial MSH activity) due to bilateral adrenalectomy Addison's disease Increased ACTH (Which has paial MSH activity) due to destruction of adrenal coex and low coisol Hermanksy- Pudlak syndrome Autosomal recessive disorder which results in oculo-cutaneous albinism (decreased pigmentation), and bleeding problems due to a platelet abnormality (platelet storage pool defect) | 6,172 | medmcqa_train |
HLA associated with Dermatitis herpetiform is: | Ans. C. HLA B8a. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a disease characterized by erythematous vesicular or bullous lesions and severe itching. The disease most commonly occurs between 20-40 years of age and men are more commonly affected. IgA is deposited in the reticular dermis of the uninvolved skin suggesting an immune etiology.b. More than 90% of patients express the HLA B8/DRW3 and HLA DQW2. It is also associated with gluten sensitive enteropathy. Polymorphism of the eruption (erythematous blotches or stain, grouped vesicle or bullae) and intense itching are characteristic features of the disease.c. The attacks last for weeks or months with intervals of partial remission over a period of years. General health of the patient is unaffected except due to sleeplessness caused by irritation or secondary infection. Although any part of the body may be involved but mucous membranes are involved only in 1% of the cases.d. Distribution is usually bilateral and symmetrical and forearms, thighs, inter-scapular region and buttocks beings most commonly involved. Dapsone is the drug of choice and is given 50mg 1-4 times a day orally.e. Most of the patients are controlled by 100mg daily dose but the require pent varies from time to time. The effect of dapsone is dramatic and rapid with all signs disappearing in 48 hours.f. However, the treatment must be continued indefinitely as it is suppressive and not curative. It is also necessary to treat the patient with a gluten free diet because this reduces the dose of drug required to suppress the eruption. | 6,173 | medmcqa_train |
Which virus can cause hemorrhage - | Adenovirus causes Acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children and generalized exanthem. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:482 | 6,174 | medmcqa_train |
Residual volume of lung in an average adult male is: (Repeat) | AnsL C (1.2 L) Ref: Davidson, 21st ed, pg 651Explanation:Refer Medicine 2013 question explanation.TLC: Volume of air in the lungs following maximal inspiration ( N= 5-6L)FVC: Maximum amount of air exhaled following maxima] inspiration ( N= 4.8L)VT: Volume of air entering and leaving lungs during normal respiration ( N+ 500 ml)RV: Volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiratory' effort (1.2L)FRC; Volume of air within the lungs at the end of normal respiration (2.5-3L)FEV: Volume of air exhaled in a given time during a forced vital capacity effort | 6,175 | medmcqa_train |
Most potent analgesic agent among following | Ans. a. Nitrous oxide above options, most potent analgesic agent is Nitrous oxide. "Nitrous oxide- 50:50 nitrous oxide and oxygen has revolutionized it as analgesic agent; it has been used as an analgesic agent in obstetric surgeries; dental procedures; in acute trauma; burn dressings and cardiac pain as well."- Wiley and Churchill-Davidson A Practice of Anesthesia 7/e p536 Miller says "Nitrous oxide produce analgesia that is in pa because of release of proenkephalin derived family of endogenous opioids Physical propeies of N20 It is colourless, non-irritating and sweet smelling Boiling point is -89degC. Critical temperature is 36.5degCdeg which is a.bove room temperature, therefore it can be kept in liquefied state. Stored as liquid in blue color cylindersQ 35 times more soluble than nitrogen Remember: Anesthesia with No analgesia HalothaneQ Only analgesia N20Q Profound analgesia KetamineQ Best/maximum analgesia TrileneQ | 6,176 | medmcqa_train |
Stye is other name of - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hordeolum externum o Acute infection of Zeis (Moll) glando Acute infection of tarsal gland (Meibomian gland)o Chronic infection of tarsal gland (Meibonium gland)-Stye (Hardoleum externum)- Hardoleum internum -Chalazion | 6,177 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, EXCEPT | (C) Negative symptoms PROGNOSTIC FEATURES OF SCHIZOPHRENIA GoodBadHistoryPrevious psychiatric HistoryNoPresentFamily HistoryNegativePositiveFamily History +ve ofMood disordersSchizophreniaPreuproid adjustmentGoodPoorWork HistorySteadyUnsteady / UnemployedMartial statusMarriedUnmarriedSocial SupportGood (High social class)Poor (low social class)Precipitating factorsObvious, transientUnknown / chronicsClinical presentationOnsetAcuteInsidiousAge of onsetLateEarlyDuration of symptomsShortLongSymptomsPositiveNegativeMental stateGeneral AppearanceConfusionAssaultiveAffectDepressedBlunted / flatThinkingParanoid (or) CatatonicOCD / disorganisedTESTSFunctioning (CNC)NormalImpairedCT ScanNormalStructural abnormalityCourse TypeUndulatingChronic | 6,178 | medmcqa_train |
The carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by all, EXCEPT: | Many systemic conditions are strongly associated with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). These conditions may directly or indirectly affect microcirculation, pressure thresholds for nerve conduction, nerve cell body synthesis, and axon transpo or interstitial fluid pressures. Peurbations in the endocrine system, as observed in individuals withdiabetes, acromegaly and hypothyroidism and in women who are pregnant, are linked to CTS. Conditions affecting metabolism (eg, alcoholism, renal failure with hemodialysis, mucopolysaccharidoses) also are associated with CTS. | 6,179 | medmcqa_train |
Tentative cut is a feature of? | D i.e. Suicidal attempt | 6,180 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with sore throat has a positive Paul Bunnel test. The causative organism is : | Paul Bunell test is the standard diagnostic procedure of infectious mononucleosis which is caused by EBV.
Paul Bunell test detects heterophile antibody.
Paul Bunell test
In this test inactivated serum (56 0 C for 30 minutes) in doubling dilutions is mixed with equal volumes of a 1% suspension of sheep erythrocytes.
An agglutination titre of 100 or above is suggestive of infectious mononucleosis.
For confirmation, differential absorption of agglutinins with guineapig kidney and ox red cells is necessary
The Paul Bunell antibody develops early during the course of infectious mononucleosis, and disappears within two months.
False positive : In patient with lymphoma hepatitis, malaria connective tissue disease
Remember :
– MC cause of heterophile antibody (+)ve infectious mononucleosis is EBV.
– MC cause of heterophile antibody (–) ve infectious mononucleosis is CMV.
– Heterophile (–) ve IM also caused by toxoplasmosis, Listeria, non-infectious stimuli. | 6,181 | medmcqa_train |
Which type of haemorrhoids is treated by the injection of sclerosing agent? | Injection sclerotherapy is the treatment of choice of internal hemorrhoids. It helps in reducing the size of the hemorrhoids and stop it from bleeding. A solution containing either quinine and urea or phenol is used as the sclerosing agent. Hemorrhoids are swollen veins around the anus and in the rectum that may protrude from the anus. Patients presents with itching, burning, pain, swelling, irritation and bleeding per rectum. Bleeding is bright red in colour and is associated with bowel movements. Ref:Bailey and Love's Sho Practise of Surgery, 24th Edition, Page 1255. | 6,182 | medmcqa_train |
Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with which of the following | Ureteric injury has an incidence of 0.1-1.5% of all pelvic surgery The highest risk is for Weheim Radical hysterectomy since this surgery involves stripping of the ureteric fascia and that can compromise the ureteric blood supply and hence a devascularisation injury. | 6,183 | medmcqa_train |
Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by: September 2012 | Ans. A i.e. Chlamydia | 6,184 | medmcqa_train |
X-ray proximal femur in a patient with pain hip. The deformity shown is: | "Fibrous dysplasia of proximal femur has shepherd crook deformity". | 6,185 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the initial Imaging modality of choice for Insulinoma? | For PETs in the pancreas, EUS is highly sensitive, localizing 77-100% of insulinomas, which occur almost exclusively within the pancreas. Tests for location of pNET: Somatostatin Receptor Scintigraphy is the initial imaging modality but is less available. Helical CT scan has a sensitivity of 82-94%. Gadolinium based MRI has sensitivity of 85%. If above scans are negative, then Endoscopic ultrasound will be able to pick up the insulinoma which is usually <1.5 cm in size. If all the above tests turn negative then calcium stimulated angiography can be used to localize the tumor. The intra-aerial calcium test also allows differentiation of the cause of the hypoglycaemia and indicates whether it is due to an insulinoma or a nesidioblastosis. | 6,186 | medmcqa_train |
Prostate is supplied by: | Ans: A (Sympathetic + Parasympathetic) Ref: Gray's Anatomy, 40th edition, pg.1245Explanation:The superior hypogastric plexus conveys the sympathetic nerves from the pre-ganglionic fibres are derived from LI and L2The parasympathetic fires are derived from the pelvic splanchnic nerves which convey preganglionic fibres from S2, S3 & S4. They are secretomotor to the glands.The somatic pudendal nerve supplies the external urethral sphincterNerves containing neuropeptide Y and vasointestinal polypeptide (VIP) are localized in the subepithelia] connective tissue, in the smooth muscle layers of the gland, and in the walls of its blood vessels. | 6,187 | medmcqa_train |
Consider the following statements about Jacuzzi syndrome and mark the true statement . | Jacuzzi syndrome :- It is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa This condition arises due to inflammation of hair follicles (haiub folliculitis). It is usually self limiting condition . It can be extremely painful or itchy condition . | 6,188 | medmcqa_train |
Resistance to ciprofloxacin is due to: | Ref: Goodman & Gillman's 13th ed. P 1016* Ciprofloxacin is one of the fluoroquinolones along with norfloxacin, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, spartloxacin, etc.* MOA of quinolones: The quinolone antibiotics target bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV.* The quinolones inhibit gyrase-mediated DNA supercoiling at concentrations that correlate well with those required to inhibit bacterial growth.* Mutations of the gene that encodes the A subunit of the gyrase can confer resistance to these drugs. | 6,189 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following enzyme does not catalyse the irreversible step in glycolysis | Glycolysis Site of occurrence Cytosol Aerobic glycolysis Glucose - Pyruvate ; 8 ATP Anaerobic glycolysis Glucose - Lactate ; 2 ATPReaction occurring in aerobic conditions only Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate - 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate Inhibitors Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphateIodo acetate 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate Arsenite Enolase Fluoride Glycolysis TCA cycle Malate shuttle ( Liver , Hea , Kidney )38 ATP / 32 ATP ( new )Glycolysis TCA cycle Glycerophosphate shuttle ( Brain , White skeletal muscles )36 ATP / 30 ATP ( new )Irreversible reactions Reactions Enzymes Glucose - Glucose-6-phosphateHexokinase Fructose-6-phosphate - Fructose-1,6,bisphosphatePhosphofructokinasePhosphoenolpyruvate - Pyruvate Pyruvate kinase Oxidative / Substrate level phosphorylation Reactions Enzymes 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate - 3 phosphoglyceratePhosphoglycerate kinase Phosphoenol pyruvate - Pyruvate Pyruvate kinase Harper's illustrated Biochemistry , 30th ed , page 172 | 6,190 | medmcqa_train |
All are affected in Graft-Versus host reaction : | Lung Graft versus host disease Graft versus host disease occurs in any situation in which immunologically competent cells or their precursors are transplanted into immunologically crippled patients and the transferred cells recognize alloantigens in the host. Graft versus host disease occurs most commonly in the setting of allogenic bone marrow transplantation but may also follow transplantation of solid organs rich in lymphoid cells (e.g. the liver) or transfusion of unirradiated blood. Recipients of bone marrow transplants are immunodeficient because of either their primary disease or prior treatment of the disease with drugs or irradiation. When such recipients receive normal bone man-ow cells from allogenic donors, the immunocompetent, T cells present in the donor marrow recognizes the recipient's HLA antigen as foreign antigen and react against them. Both CD4+ and CD8+T cells recognize and attack host tissues. In clinical practice GVH can be so severe that bone marrow transplants are done only between HIA matched donor and recipient. Acute GVH disease occurs within days to weeks after allogenic bone marrow transplantation. Although any organ may be affected, the mayor clinical manifestation results from involvement of the immune system and epithelia of the skin, liver and intestines. Involvement of the skin in GVH disease is manifested by a generalized rash leading to desquamation in severe cases. Destruction of small bile ducts gives rise to jaundice and mucosal ulceration of the gut results in bloody diarrhoea. Immunodeficiency is a frequent accompaniment of GVH disease the immunodeficiency may be a result of prior treatment, myeloablative preparation for the graft, a delay in repopulation of the recipient's immune system and attack on host's inunune cells by grafted lymphocytes. Affected individuals are profoundly immunosuppressed and are easy prey to infections. Although many different types of organisms may infect patients, infection with cytomegalovirus is paicularly impoant. | 6,191 | medmcqa_train |
A 21 year old lady with a history of hypersensitivity to neostigmine is posted for an elective caesarean section under general anesthesia. The best muscle relaxant of choice in this patient should be: | B i.e. Atracurium You might be thinking that this Q has never been asked, but think a while and try to understand that around which concept the Q is based. In other words, they are trying to ask that which muscle relaxant will not require reversal? I think now you need no explanation - In pancuronium reversal is often required d/ t its longer duration of action - Ve/Ro-curonium seldom require reversal unless repeated doses have been given - In atracurium & cis-atracurium reversal is mostly not required due to its unique feature of spontaneous non eyzmatic degradation (Hoffmann elimination) Q. | 6,192 | medmcqa_train |
Adenoidectomy is contraindicated in | Adenoidectomy contraindicated in 1. Bleeding disorder 2. Acute infection of upper respiratory tract 3. Cleft palate or submucous palate Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition; Pg no: 431 | 6,193 | medmcqa_train |
Diagnosis in a ten year old boy with recurrent epistaxis and a unilateral nasal mass is | Nasopharyngeal fibroma/Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a major cause for recurrent epistaxis in adolescent males. It is testosterone dependent. Benign tumour but locally invasive Ref - PL DHINGRA diseases of ear nose and throat, 6th edition | 6,194 | medmcqa_train |
Watson-Jones approach is done for? | (d) Hip replacement- Watson-Jones operation is anterolateral approach to the hip joint.There are four commonly used approaches to the hip joint:- Anterior or Smith-Peterson- commonly used to access the hip in cases of suspected septic arthritis - Anterolateral or Watson-Jones- is used for hemi or total hip arthroplasty - Direct lateral or Hardinge - Posterior or Southern approach | 6,195 | medmcqa_train |
A bullet fired form a gun is not released. It is ejected out with the subsequent shot. It is known as - | If during firing, the bullet remains in the barrel; during subsequent firing two bullets, one behind the other are projected out → called as Tandem bullet. | 6,196 | medmcqa_train |
To notify a slide as AFB negative minimum how many fields should be checked? ? | Ans. is `b' i.e., 100 | 6,197 | medmcqa_train |
N-myc gene amplification is seen in which of the following tumors? | N-myc amplification seen in neuroblastoma.
C-myc amplification - Burkitt's lymphoma
L-myc amplification - lung carcinoma | 6,198 | medmcqa_train |
Minimum angle of resolution when visual acuity is 6/6 | Answer-A. 1 min of arcVisual acuity is the first test performed after taking history.Measurement of the central visual acuity is essentially an assessment of function of the fovea centralis.An object must be presented so that each poion of it is separated by a difinite interval, known as minimum angle of resolution (MAR). Customarily, this interval has become one minute of an arc.The test object should subtends an angle of five minutes of an arc. | 6,199 | medmcqa_train |
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