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Endotoxin consists of _____. | Endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide is found in the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. | 6,400 | medmcqa_train |
A young boy, Rahul presents with massive hemetemesis. He had fever for 15 days few days back which was treated with few drugs. Clinical examination reveal moderate splenomegaly). No other history is positive) Probable diagnosis is: | Answer is D (Oesophageal varices) Oesophageal variceal bleeding secondary to poal hypeension .should always be the initial diagnosis in a young patient presenting with massive hematemesis and a moderate to large splenomegaly' Features in our of oesophageal varices: Most common presentation of oesophageal varices is G.I. bleed, which may be 'massive'. - Massive hematemesis in children is almost always due to variceal bleed - Shwaz - Gastrointestinal bleed in peptic ulcer disease usually occurs in persons who are > 60 years old i.e. (it ceainly is an uncommon presentation in a young boy) - Harrison - Erosive drug induced gastritis is usually superficial therefore hemodynamically significant 'massive' bleeding is rare Patients presents with moderate splenomegaly which is an impoant pointer towards presence of poal hypeension. - Absence of any significant history of altered liver function in the presence of poal hypeension could well be attributed to an extrahepatic causes of poal hypeension. | 6,401 | medmcqa_train |
Rosette cataract is seen due to: | Trauma. Ring/ pettal shaped marking on the lens. Ref: AK khurana 7th ed. | 6,402 | medmcqa_train |
Most common type of shoulder dislocation is:March 2011 | Ans. B: AnteriorShoulder joint is the commonest joint in the body to dislocateAnterior shoulder dislocation is much more common than posterior dislocationShoulder dislocation:MC joint to dislocate in body: ShoulderMC type of shoulder dislocation: Subcoracoid/ inferiorRarest type of shoulder dislocation: PosteriorPosterior type of shoulder dislocation is associated with: Epileptic fitsBanka's lesion is related with avulsion of glenoidal labrumHill Sach's lesion is found on humeral headTest for dislocation of shoulder joint:- Duga's test,- Hamilton ruler test,- Callaways testKocher's manouevre is done to reduce a dislocated shoulder | 6,403 | medmcqa_train |
Bechet's disease is characterized by: | Hypopyon REF: Khurana 4th ed p. 156 Uveitis in bechet's disease Bilateral Recurrent iridocyclitis Hypopyon Viteritis Periphlebitis Retinitis | 6,404 | medmcqa_train |
Central anticholinergics are used in treatment of all except- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Neuroleptic malignant syndrome o Central anticholinergics are ineffective in neuroleptic malignant syndrome. o Central anticholinergics are not used in tardive dyskinesia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome. | 6,405 | medmcqa_train |
A 32-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic for symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia. She has no significant past medical history and her only medication is the oral contraceptive pill.Her physical examination is entirely normal. Urine and serum biochemistry investigations are suggestive of central diabetes insipidus (DI). Which of the following is the most likely finding on magnetic resonance imaging (MRT) of the brain? | Because DI is usually caused by destruction, or agenesis, of the posterior pituitary, its normal signaling is lost. Pituitary DI can also result from trauma, tumors (both primary and secondary), granulomas, infections, inflammatory diseases, chemical toxins, congenital malformations, and genetic disorders.Depending on the cause, the MRI may demonstrate other associated findings. | 6,406 | medmcqa_train |
Bastio surgery for refractory LV hyperophy is: | Bentall&;s Operation For aoic root aneurysm repair Reimplantation of coronary ostia into composite graft Bastio surgery For Left Ventricular hyperophy Ventriculectomy is done Ref: Bailey 27th edition Pgno: 936 | 6,407 | medmcqa_train |
Insulin decreases: | Lipolysis | 6,408 | medmcqa_train |
Obesity in a child of age 2 years is defined as: | d. BMI >95th percentile(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 307-315, Ghai 8/e p 528-529)Obesity in children is defined as BMI >95th percentile; Body mass index (BMI) is equal to weight/height2 (in kg/m2). | 6,409 | medmcqa_train |
A 32-year-old male is a known hypertensive and is being planned for cholecystectomy. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is contraindicated in this person? | Ans. (B) Ketamine(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p437; KDT 8th/e p411)Ketamine increases all pressures (blood pressure, intracranial tension, intraocular pressure) in the body. It is therefore intravenous anesthetic of choice for shock and should be avoided in hypertensive patients (increases blood pressure). Further it is contraindicated in glaucoma (increases IOP) and head injuries (increases ICT). | 6,410 | medmcqa_train |
Methysergide is banned as it causes ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pulmonary fibrosis Methysergide It is chemically related to ergot alkaloids and antagonizes the action of serotonin on smooth muscles including that of blood vessels, withot producing ergot like effects. It is a potent 5HT2A/2C antagonist. It has been used for migraine prophylaxis, carcinoid and postgastrectomy dumping syndrome. Prolonged use has caused abdominal, pulmonary and endocardial fibrosis, because of which it has gone into disrepute. | 6,411 | medmcqa_train |
Dohlman's procedure is used for: | Ans. (d) Zenker's diverticulumRef: Sabiton 20th Edition, Page 1019* Dohlman Endoscopic stapling procedure is indicated for diverticulum >3cm size | 6,412 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of Bipolar disorder includes: | A, C, B i.e. Anti-depressant drugs, ECT, Lithium carbonate | 6,413 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following hallucinations is pathognomonic of schizophrenia - | Third person hallucinations, e.g. voices heard arguing, commenting or discussing the patient or giving a running commentary on one's action; are characteristic of schizophrenia. | 6,414 | medmcqa_train |
A 9-year-old girl presents with menarche. History reveals thelarche at the age of 7 years and adrenarche at the age of 8 years- the M/C cause of this condition in girls is: | Precocious pubey It is the appearance of appropriate secondary sexual charecters before the age of 8 years and occurance of menstruation before the age of 10 years The most common cause is constitutional(idiopathic -75% cases) due to premature activation of HPO Axis. SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOOGY,Pg no:56,15th edition | 6,415 | medmcqa_train |
Drug-induced colitis is most frequently associated with | Clindamycin: This potent lincosamide antibiotic is similar in mechanism of action (inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosome) and spectrum of activity to erythromycin with which it exhibits paial cross resistance. Modification of the ribosomal binding site by constitutive methylase enzyme confirs resistance to both. It inhibits most gram-positive cocci (including penicillinase producing Staph., but not MRSA), C. diphtheriae, Nocardia, Actinomyces, Toxoplasma, but the distinctive feature is its high activity against a variety of anaerobes, especially Bact. fragilis. Aerobic gram-negative bacilli, spirochetes, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Rickettsia are not affected. Side effects are rashes, uicaria, abdominal pain, but the major problem is diarrhoea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis due to Clostridium difficile superinfection which is potentially fatal. The drug should be promptly stopped and metronidazole (alternatively vancomycin) given to treat it. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:731 | 6,416 | medmcqa_train |
Refractive error concerned most commonly with divergent strasbismus is: September 2012, March 2013 | Ans. A i.e. Myopia | 6,417 | medmcqa_train |
A 45 year old male has multiple grouped vesicular lesions present on the TN segment dermatome associated with pain. The most likely diagnosis is | Painful vesicles along the distribution of a dermatome suggest the diagnosis of Herpes zoster. | 6,418 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about salivary gland tumor except: | Ans: D (Parotid tumours...) Tumours of minor salivary glands are histologically similar to those of major glands; however, up to 90 per cent of minor salivary gland tumours are malignant"- L&B 26th/722'Warthin tumour (papillary cystadenoma Lymphomatosum): It arise almost alwaysQ in the parotid gland (the only tumour virtually restricted to the parotid & occur more commonly in male'1 than in female (other tumour more common in female). Oncocytese that are epithelial cell stuffed with mitochondria are found in warthin tumour. (Robbins 7th/792-93)"The parotid gland is the most common site for salivary tumours. Most tumours arise in the superficial lobe and present as slow growing,, painless swellings below the ear, in front of the ear or in the upper aspect of the neck"- L& B 26th/732"Tumours involving the sublingual gland are extremely rare and are usually (85 percent) malignantTreatment requires wide excision involving the overlying mucosa and simultaneous neck dissection"- L & B 26th/725"Tumours of the submandibular gland are uncommon and usually present as a slow-growing, painless swelling within the submandibular triangle.Only 50 per cent of submandibular gland tumours are benign, in contrast to 80-90 per cent of parotid gland tumours"- L & B 26th/728TablefL & B 26th/728): Salivary gland tumours - frequency and distribution.TypeLocationFrequencyMalignant (%)MajorParotidSubmandibularSublingualCommonUncommonVery rate10-205085MinorUpper aerodigestive tractRare90PLEOMORPHIC ADENOMA (MIXED TUMOUR)This is the commonest tumour0 of the major salivary glandsThis tumour most commonly(r) occur in the parotid & about 90% isseen in thisgland\7% is seen in submandibulargland. In the parotid the commonest location is the tail of parotid.Age : It is more frequent around 40 years of age, but it is also seen in childrenSex : Slightly higher incidence in woman(r) has been noticedSymptom : The patients complains of a painless swelling of the side of the face which has been present for months or years. It is a slow growing turnout^ & gradually increases in size.This tumour is radioresistant(r), so excision is the treatment of choice.Superficial parotidectomy(r) is the treatment of choice(r). This operation is also known as patey's operation (S. Das 5th/609)In case of submandibular gland neoplasms, the whole gland is excised with particular care to preserve the lingual & hypoglossal nerve. | 6,419 | medmcqa_train |
Cold water is not used for ear cleaning because | temperature for ear syringing - 370c because if you decrease or increase the temperature we can stimulate lateral semicircular canal in the middle ear and patient will have veigo and nystagmus (caloric stimulation ) | 6,420 | medmcqa_train |
A patient Secta is diagnosed to be having iron deficiency anemia. The agent that can be used to improve the absorption of iron is: | (Ref: KDT 6/e p582, 583) Substances improving the absorption of iron Substances improving the absorption of iron 1. Acid 1. Antacids 2. Reducing substances like ascorbic acid 2. Phosphates 3. Meat 3. Phytates 4. Tetracyclines 5. Food in the stomach | 6,421 | medmcqa_train |
A 38 year old woman with a history of multiple sexual paners is most at risk for which of the following? | In a sense, cervical carcinoma can be considered a "sexually transmitted disease," since human papilloma virus (typically strains HPV-16 or HPV- 18) is transmitted venereally. In our culture, HPV-related dysplasia of the cervix is common, even in the 18-28 year old group, and carcinomas of the cervix (more rare now than in the past due to screening and aggressive therapy of dysplasia) can occur in the 35-45 age group. The other cancers listed typically occur in older age groups and are not as clearly related to venereal agents. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 30. Cervical Cancer. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | 6,422 | medmcqa_train |
A 60 year old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is: | Answer is D (Superior Vena cava obsuction) : The patient in question is presenting with classical signs and symptoms of superior mediastinal syndrome or Superior vena caval syndrome. Lung cancer is the commonest cause of superior vana caval syndrome or SVC obstruction. As the options provided include superior vena caval obstruction as a distinct entity, it is the option of choice. Clinical manifestations of obstruction to SVC : Symptoms Signs * Swelling around neck & face especially around the eyes * Dilated neck veins * Dyspnea * Increased number of collateral veins over * Cough * anterior chest wall * Others: Hoarseness / Headache / Tongue * Cyanosis swelling / Nasal congestion / Epistaxis * Edema of face, arms & chest Haemoptysis / Dysphagia / Pain / * Proptosis, glossal and Laryngeal edema and obtundation in Dizziness / Syncope severe cases Symptoms are aggrevated by bending forwards and lying down. | 6,423 | medmcqa_train |
A boy is suffering from acute pyelonephritis. Most specific urinary finding will be - | Wbc casts are seen in- Interstitial nephritis Acute pyelonephritis Allograft rejection Malignant infiltration of the kidney. Rbc casts - GN vasculitis Malignant hypeension Thrombotic microangiopathy Granular casts- ATN GN vasculitis Tubulointerstitial nephritis. Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no. 2106 | 6,424 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following changes may be observed in a normal pregnancy, EXCEPT: | During pregnancy there is a dispropoionate increase in plasma and RBC volume which produces a state of hemodilution during pregnancy. During pregnancy plasma volume increases upto 50%. RBC volume increases to the extend of 20-30%. The advantages of hemodilution are: Diminished blood viscosity ensures optimum gaseous exchange between the maternal and fetal circulation. Protection of mother against the adverse effects of blood loss during delivery. Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C. Dutta, 6th edition, Pages 51-55 | 6,425 | medmcqa_train |
"Double bubble" sign with absent distal bowel air shadows on X-ray abdomen is characteristic of | Ans. b (Duodenal atresia) (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/ 119)Duodenal atresia may take the form of a membrane or the proximal and distal duodenum may be completely separated. Prenatal ultrasound finds a 'double bubble' in the fetal abdo- men with polyhydramnios. There is an association with Down syndrome. Postnatally, there is bilious vomiting if the atresia is distal to the ampulla. A plain abdominal x-ray also shows the double bubble. Repair is by duodenoduodenostomy. Occasionally, there is a duodenal membrane with a modest central perforation, which may delay symptoms until later childhood. Important radiological GI signsX-RAY/Ba sign Diagnosis1. Single Bubble Sign2. Double Bubble Sign # CHPS# Duodenal atresia# Ladd's band# Annular pancreas# Malrotation of gut# Preduodenal vein3. Triple Bubble Sign multiple4. Bubble Signs Jejunal or proximal ileum atresia Ileal atresia5. Rigler's sign6. Football sign7. Dog's cape sign8. Falciform ligament sign}Pneumoperitonium9. Sentinel loop sign10. Colon cut-off sign11. Renal halo sign12. Gasless abdomen}Acute pancreatitis13. Seagull or Mecedes Benz sign14. Rigler's triad Gall stones (Triradiate)Gall stone ileus# Pneumobilia# Ectopic gallstone# Small bowel obstruction15. "Arc-like" calcification in RUQ16. "Tooth-like" calcification in pelvis Liver hydatid cystOvarian dermoid17. Distorted fundic bubble18. Fracture 9-11 ribs19. Loss of splenic outline20 Elevation of left hemidiaphragm}Splenic trauma21. Multiple air-fluid levels with stepladder pattern22. "String of beads" sign (pathognomonic)}Small bowel obstruction23. Liver overlap signFlank overlap signDIO overlap signCoffee-bean signInverted U/V signOmega signBent inner tube sign}Sigmoid volvulus24. Carman's meniscus signCa stomach (malignant ulcer)25. Hampton's lineBenign gastric ulcer26 Ram's horn stomach & 'Pseudo-Billroth' appearanceCrohn's disease (WB 09&SuperSp 11)27. String signCHPS28. String sign of KantorCrohn's disease29. Inverted umbrella signSterling signPulled up/contracted caecumString sign}Ileaocaecal Tb30. Segmentation and flocculation of BariumDiffuse non-specific SB dilatationJejunization of ileumMoulage sign (Loss of mucosal details)}Barium features of Malabsorption31. "Saw-tooth" apperance Diverticulosis32. Thumb print sign Ischemic colitis33. Claw sign andCoiled spring sign}Intussusception34. Hat sign Colonic polyp35. "Apple core" appearance Ca colon36. Mucosal granularity (earliest sign)Loss of haustrationsUlcersPseudoploypsLead pipe or pipe stem colon}Ulcerative Colitis (UC)37. Angiodysplasia of Colon38. Solitary Rectal Ulcer39. Colitis cystic profunda}Generally Ba Studies reveal no abnormality | 6,426 | medmcqa_train |
What is deficient in exclusively breast fed baby ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vitamin B o Deficiency of Vitamin B12 may occur in exclusive breastfed infants of mother who is on strict vegetarian diet. Remember following impoant facts ? o Milks from the mother whose diet is sufficient and properly balanced will supply all the necessary nutrients except fluoride and Vitamin D. o The iron content of human milk is low, but most normal term infants have sufficient iron stores for the first 4-6 months. Human milk iron is well absorbed. Nonetheless, by 6 months the breast-fed infant's diet should be supplemented with iron foified complementary foods. o The Vitamin K content of human milk is low and may cause hemorrhagic disease of newborn. | 6,427 | medmcqa_train |
All are true regarding MEN-I syndrome, except | MEN syndromes are inherited as autosomal dominant disorders.MEN-1 The gene is located on long arm of chromosome 11 (11q13) (Refer: Robbins & Cotran's - Pathologic Basis of Disease, SAE, 1st edition, Vol II-pg no: 1136-1137) | 6,428 | medmcqa_train |
EEG rhythm recorded from the surface of the scalp during REM sleepa) Alphab) Betac) Deltad) Theta | Stages of sleep and rhythm
- Beta rhythm- Alert, awake, maximum concentration.
- Alpha rhythm- Eyes closed, mind wandering, less attentiveness
- Theta rhythm- Stage 1 NREM
- Sleep spindles, K complex- Stage 2 NREM
- Delta rhythm- Deep sleep (Stage 3 & 4 NREM)
- Beta Rhythm and occasional reappearance of alpha rhythm- REM | 6,429 | medmcqa_train |
Strength of association is given by | Strength of association is given by Odds ratio or Cross product ratio in a Case control study. Odds ratio = ad/bc OR > 1 - Positive association, OR=1 - No association, OR < 1 - Inverse/ negative association. Chi-square test or t-test can only tell whether an association is statistically significant based on p-value, but doesn't give the magnitude of strength of association. | 6,430 | medmcqa_train |
Early diagnosis of acute hepatitis-B infection is made by- | After a person is infected with HBV, the first virologic marker detectable in serum within 1-12 weeks, usually between 8-12 weeks, is HBsAg. Circulating HBsAg precedes elevations of serum aminotransferase activity and clinical symptoms by 2-6 weeks and remains detectable during the entire icteric or symptomatic phase of acute hepatitis B and beyond. In typical cases, HBsAg becomes undetectable 1-2 months after the onset of jaundice and rarely persists beyond 6 months. After HBsAg disappears, antibody to HBsAg (anti-HBs) becomes detectable in serum and remains detectable indefinitely thereafter. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 2540) | 6,431 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is false regarding Aircraft injuries | Fracture Thoracic spine is most commonly seen spinal injury . It is usually due to hyperflexion injuries due to rapid deceleration when the aircraft strikes the ground. Most of the aircraft accidents occur on landing (35 %) or take off (35 %) | 6,432 | medmcqa_train |
Hara-kiri is death by | Hara- kiri(seppuku) means cutting the belly. This is a ritual suicide formerly practiced in Japan and nearby counties by samurais(warrior class) when disgraced. Stabbing is done as a ceremony. In this type of suicide, in front of an audience, the person stabs himself on the abdomen and produces a large wound to make the intestines come out. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY DR PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 132 | 6,433 | medmcqa_train |
In submandibular gland excision all of the following nerves may be affected except | Ans. (c) Glossopharyngeal nerveRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition Page 780The following nerves are at risk during Submandibular surgery:2 Superficial nerves:* Marginal Mandibular branch of Facial nerve* Rarely Cervical Branch of Facial nerve* 2 Deep Cranial nerves:* Lingual Nerve* Hypoglossal nerve | 6,434 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following disease is transmitted by phlebotomus argentipes - | Kala-azar by Sandfly Trypanosomiasis African - Tsetse fly American (Chagas) - Triatomine bug Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 836 | 6,435 | medmcqa_train |
The following is responsible for causing ophthalmia neonatorum on 5-7th day after bih: March 2013 (b) | Ans. B i.e. Herpes simplex virus II Ophthalmia neonatorum Time frame of signs/ symptoms following bih play an impoant role in determining the most likely etiology and subsequent proper diagnosis and treatment Within 48 hours: Chemical conjunctivitis (Typically presents within first 24 hours following bih) & Niesseria gonorrhoe 48-72 hours: Staph. aureus, Strepto. Hemolyticus 5-7 days: HSV-II More than 1 week: C. trachomatis (D-K) | 6,436 | medmcqa_train |
The dose of Dapsone at which it does not cause hemolysis? | Doses of dapsone less than 50mg in normal healthy persons cause no hemolysis.Ref: Goodman Gillman 12th ed. Pg: 1564 | 6,437 | medmcqa_train |
Capsid of viral structure is- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Protein coat around nucleic acid Structure of viruso The extracellular infectious virus particle is called as the virion.o The virion consist of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat, the capsid.o The capsid with the enclosed nucleic acid is known as the nucleocapsid.o Two kinds of symmetry are encountered in the capsid -a) Icosahedral (cubical)b) Helicalo Virion may be enveloped or nonenveloped (naked).o Envelope is lipoprotein in nature, lipid is derived from host cell, while protein is virus coded. | 6,438 | medmcqa_train |
A 23-year-old man presents with fever, weight loss, malaise, abdominal pain and myalgias. Workup reveals that the patient has polyaeritis nodosa. Which of the following is associated with this form of vasculitis? | Although the significance remains unclear, 30% of patients with polyaeritis nodosa have serum antibodies to the hepatitis B virus. Arsenic is associated with the development of angiosarcoma. Chlamydia pneumonia has been implicated in the development of atherosclerosis. KSHV, HHV-8, causes Kaposi sarcoma in individuals infected with human immunodeficiency virus. | 6,439 | medmcqa_train |
Graft for myringoplasty- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Temporalis fascia o Graft material used for myringoplasty are :i) Temporalis fascia (most common)iii) Tragal cartilageii) Perichondrium from the tragusiv) Veino Sometimes, homografts such as dura, vein, fascia and cadaver tympanic membrane are also used.[?][?] Dhingra 36 | 6,440 | medmcqa_train |
Auzpitz sign is seen in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Psoriasis Various bed side tests and signs associated with psoriasis :-1. Grattage test :- Scraping of the psoriasis lesion causes accentuation of silvery scales (due to trapping of air).2 Auspitz's sign :- Scraping of the psoriasis lesion causes accentuation of silvery scales (like in grattage test). If scrapping is continued further, a glistening white membrane (Bulkely's Membrane) appears. On removing this membrane, punctate (pin point) bleeding becomes visible, referred to as auspitz's sign.3. Woronoffs ring: - Occasionally a hypopigmented ring is seen surrounding the lesion, k/a woronofFs ring. Mostly associated with treatment with topical steroids. | 6,441 | medmcqa_train |
Moth eaten bone is seen in which of the following ? | Moth eaten pattern - Areas of destruction with ragged borders - Implies more rapid growth More likely chance of malignancy - Example Multiple Myeloma Metastasis Ewing&;s Sarcoma ref : maheswari 9th ed | 6,442 | medmcqa_train |
A 68-year-old male musician presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of colicky abdominal pain and massive vomiting of 4-hour duration. Examination shows an elevated WBC of 13,200 with a HCT of 45%. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are normal. An erect film of the abdomen reveals dilatation of the stomach with distended loops of bowel. What is his clinical diagnosis? | Mechanical obstruction implies a barrier that impedes progress of intestinal contents. Complete mid or distal small-bowel obstruction presents with colicky abdominal pain, more marked abdominal distention but with vomiting that is less frequent and occurs at a later stage than that of proximal jejunal obstruction. | 6,443 | medmcqa_train |
A 40-year-old male patient presented to the dermatology OPD with complaints of a characteristic rash over the face along with fever, ahralgia and moderate chest pain. Patient gave history of using some drug for 3 months. On examination, there was no CNS involvement. Lab findings revealed normal urine r/m studies and normal RFTs. ANA and anti-histone antibody titres were found to be raised. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely implicated in the above disease: - | This is a case of Drug induced Lupus. More common in females. Presents with the characteristic malar skin rash. Along with serositis, most commonly pleuritis. Kidney and CNS are rarely involved. Titres of anti-histone Abs are increased. It is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. It is associated with HLA-DR2 Image A shows Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction Image B shows Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction Image C shows Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction | 6,444 | medmcqa_train |
There are 20 amino acids with three codons in spite of the no of amino acids could be formed is 64 leading to that an amino acid is represented by more than one codon is called: | Ans. B. Degeneracy(Ref: Harper 31/e p395)Genetic Code--Salient features of Genetic CodeTriplet Codon: Each amino acid is represented by triplet sequence.Degenerate (Redundant)--More than 1 codon represent a single amino acid. Degeneracy of the codon lies in the 3rd Base.Nonoverlapping-- Reading of genetic code do not involve overlapping sequence.Unambiguous--A codon can represent only one amino acid.Universal--A specific codon represent a specific amino acid in all the species.Exception to this rule-Codons of Mitochondrial DNAInitiator codon#In eukaryotes--AUG codes for Met#In Prokaryotes--AUG codes for N-Formyl MethionineTerminator Codons#UAG--Amber#UGA--Opal#UAA--OchreWobbling PhenomenonThe base pairing at the 3rd nucleotide between the anticodon in the tRNA and Codon in the mRNA is not stringently regulated. | 6,445 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following muscles of tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve, EXCEPT? | The muscles of the tongue, with the exception of palatoglossus, are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve. Palatoglossus is supplied the pharyngeal plexus. | 6,446 | medmcqa_train |
Hemagglutinin, (Anti-A and Anti-B) are which type of antibodies? | Ans. B. IgM. (Ref. H-17th/pg. 708-709; Wintrobe's clinical hematology 13th/ pg. 979)Isohemagglutinins, substances that agglutinate the red blood cells of others of the same species, are also found in humans. Thus, there are four main blood groups, which differ with respect to two antigens, A and B, in the red blood cells and two isohemagglutinins, anti-A and anti-B, in the serum. Thus, in humans, type O has neither antigen but both agglutinins, type A has A antigen and anti-B.# Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are usually IgM and do not pass through the placenta. | 6,447 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following method is used for HIV pre-test and post-test counselling? | In HIV the patient has to visit ICTC (Integrated Counselling and Testing Centre); Where a private counselling session is done. It holds valid for both pre-test and post-test counselling. | 6,448 | medmcqa_train |
A patient tries to make a fist but the index and middle finger remain partially extended. The nerve most probably involved is | Answer: (a) Median nerve.MEDIAN NERVE INJURY* When the median nerve is severed in the elbow region, flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joints of the lst-3rd digits is lost and flexion of the 4th and 5th digits is weakened.* Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints of the 2nd and 3rd digits is also lost.* Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits is not affected because the medial part of the FDP is supplied by the ulnar nerve.* The ability to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints of the 2nd and 3rd digits is affected because the digital branches of the median nerve supply the 1st and 2nd lumbricals.* Thus, when the person attempts to make a fist, the 2nd and 3rd fingers remain partially extended (hand of Benediction).* Thenar muscle function (function of the muscles at the base of the thumb) is also lost, as in carpal tunnel syndrome.* When the anterior interosseous nerve is injured, the thenar muscles are unaffected, but paresis (partial paralysis) of the flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus occurs.* When the person attempts to make the "okay" sign, opposing the tip of the thumb and index finger in a circle, a "pinch" posture of the hand results instead owing to the absence of flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger (anterior interosseous syndrome) | 6,449 | medmcqa_train |
30 year old female comes with visual defects, breast engorgement and Amenorrhea. Investigation of choice is | This is likely to be a case of pituitary adenoma. The most common pituitary adenoma causing the symptoms is prolactinoma. | 6,450 | medmcqa_train |
A young boy presented with a lesion over his right buttock which had peripheral scaling and central clearing with scarring. The investigation of choice would be: | C i.e. Biopsy | 6,451 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the most common primary malignancy of hea ? | Myxoma is the most common primary neoplasm of hea (30- 50%). 75% of cardiac myxomas develop in the left atrium. Histologically, it is composed of a myxomatous stroma with large stellate cells mixed with multiWnuleated cells and covered with endothelium. Unusual benign tumors of hea are fibroma, lipoma, angioma, teratoma and cysts. Reference: Schwa'z Principles of Surgery 9e chapter 21. | 6,452 | medmcqa_train |
A case of 32 weeks of pregnancy with cornual placenta with breech presentation, treatment of choice is : | Wait & Watch | 6,453 | medmcqa_train |
Hyper parathyroidism is characterised by the following except | Clinical features of Hyperparathyroidism Patients with PHPT formerly presented with the 'classic' pentad of symptoms Kidney stones Painful bones Abdominal groans Psychic moans Fatigue oveones Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pgno :1560 | 6,454 | medmcqa_train |
Preferred method of contraception for a female with family H/O ovarian cancer : | OCPs reduce ovarian cancer. TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 368 Table no 33.4 | 6,455 | medmcqa_train |
Most common differential diagnosis for appendicitis in children is | Differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis in children Gastroenteritis Mesenteric adenitis Meckel's diveiculitis Intussusception Henoch-Schonlein purpura Lobar pneumonia Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1209 | 6,456 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs is to be immediately stopped in a patient of diabetes with HTN and serum creatinine level of 5.6 mg? | ANS. AMetformin is contraindicated in patients with high creatinine because of the risk of lactic acidosis.# Specific side effects of OHAMetformin1. GI symptoms2. B12 deficiency3. Lactic acidosis (especially in patients with high creatinine, liver failure, alcoholism, cardiorespiratory insufficiency)Piogiitazone1. Unsafe in Renal failure, Liver failure, cardiac failure2. Increased risk of bladder cancer3. OsteoporosisDPP-4 inhibitors1. Upper respiratory tract infection2. Renal toxicity (Vildagliptin is hepatotoxic)(Safest DPP-4 inhibitor in renal failure is linagliptan)(asked in Nov AIIMS 2016 and May 2017)SGLT2 inhibitors1. UTI2. Risk of bladder cancer | 6,457 | medmcqa_train |
Large unilateral hypopigmented lesion on right trunk and arm in female. Which of the following best explain the etiology for it? | Image shows large U/L hypopigmented lesion on right trunk and arm in young female: segmental vitiligo. Vitiligo Segmental Non segmental Unilateral along dermatome Localised Generalised Focal: few mucosal: mucosa -Vulgaris - MC, B/L symptoms - Acrofacial (including hand and face) - Universalis >90% Etio: Autoimmune condition - Antibody formed destroy melanocytes Neurogenic hypothesis - It is only valid for segmental type The image shown above in question is of Segmental vitiligo Self-destruct theory of Lerner - Given for vitiligo It states that the oxidative stress which is going on in body causes destruction of melanocytes. If question would be about Vitiligo or B/L type, answer would be Autoimmune hypothesis. If there is family history of Vitiligo , answer would be Genetic factors | 6,458 | medmcqa_train |
The layer of the cornea once destroyed does not regenerate is: | Ans. Bowman's membrane | 6,459 | medmcqa_train |
A 59-year-old man complains of progressive weakness. He reports that his stools are very dark. Physical examination demonstrates fullness in the right lower quadrant. Laboratory studies show iron deficiency anemia, with a serum hemoglobin level of 7.4 g/dL. Stool specimens are positive for occult blood. Colonoscopy discloses an ulcerating lesion of the cecum. Which of the following serum tumor markers is most likely to be useful for following this patient after surgery? | Colorectal cancer is asymptomatic in its initial stages. As the tumor grows, the most common sign is occult blood in feces, especially when the tumor is in the proximal portion of the colon. Chronic, asymptomatic bleeding typically causes iron-deficiency anemia. Adenocarcinomas of the colon usually express CEA, a glycoprotein that is released into the circulation and serves as a serologic marker for these tumors. CEA is also found in association with malignant tumors of the pancreas, lung, and ovary. AFP (choice A) is expressed by hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumors. Chromogranin (choice D) is expressed by neuroendocrine tumors. Chorionic gonadotropin (choice C) is secreted by choriocarcinoma.Diagnosis: Colon cancer | 6,460 | medmcqa_train |
Succinylcholine is sho acting due to | Succinylcholine is rapidly metabolized in plasma by pseudocholinesterase. Ref Katzung 12th ed. | 6,461 | medmcqa_train |
Spermicide acts by - | CHEMICAL METHODS of contraception In the 1960s, before the advent of IUDs and oral contraceptives, spermicides (vaginal chemical contraceptives) were used widely. They comprise four categories. a) Foams : foam tablets, foam aerosols b) Creams, jellies and pastes squeezed from a tube c) Suppositories inseed manually, and d) Soluble films - C-film inseed manually. The spermicides contain a base into which a spermicide is incorporated. The commonly used modern spermicides are "surface-active agents" which attach themselves to spermatozoa and inhibit oxygen uptake and kill sperms. The main drawbacks of spermicides are : (a) they have a high failure rate (b) they must be used almost immediately before intercourse and repeated before each sex act (c) they must be introduced into those regions of the vagina where sperms are likely to be deposited, and (d) they may cause mild burning or irritation, besides messiness. The spermicide should be free from potential systemic toxicity. It should not have an inflammatory or carcinogenic effect on the vaginal skin or cervix. No spermicide which is safe to use has yet been found to be really effective in preventing pregnancy when used alone. Therefore, spermicides are not recommended by professional advisers. They are best used in conjunction with barrier methods. Recently there has been some concern about possible teratogenic effects on foetuses, following their use. However, this risk is yet to be confirmed. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 546-547 | 6,462 | medmcqa_train |
Gas most commonly used in laparoscopy is | Ans. is a i.e. CO2 CO2 is the gas used to create pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopy. Other option is N20. But it is expensive, less soluble in blood and suppos combustion. Also know : Instrument used for creating pneumoperitoneum is veress needle. Flow Rate of CO2 for creating pneumoperitoneum 200 -- 2000 ml/min and pressure between 15 -- 25 mm of Hg. | 6,463 | medmcqa_train |
Absolute Contraindication for the Use of OCPs is: | Absolute contraindications of OCP'S: - C - Cancers - L - Liver diseases - U - Uterine bleeding - T - Thromboembolism - C - Cardiovascular diseases - H - Hyperlipidemia - Preganancy Also remember, Long-standing or complicated diabetes (with microvascular complications) is absolute contraindication. Grade I hypeension is relative contraindication and Grade II is absolute. Simultaneous use of some anti-epileptics is relatively contraindicated . | 6,464 | medmcqa_train |
Magnesium sulphate potentiates the hypotensive action of - | ans-B | 6,465 | medmcqa_train |
A new born girl not passed meconium for 48 hrs, has abdominal distention and vomiting, Initial investigation of choice would be | bowel obstruction with an absent caecal gas shadow in ileocolic cases. A soft tissue opacity is often visible in children. A barium enema may be used to diagnose the presence of an ileocolic intussusception (the claw sign) Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1196 | 6,466 | medmcqa_train |
Non Oliguric Acute Renal Failure is typically associated with | Answer is A (Aminoglycoside toxicity): Oliguric phase of ATN is asociated with Hyponatremia and not hypernatremia Hyponatremia results from expansion of ECF volume due to dimnished water excretion and excessive administration of free water (volume overload) | 6,467 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a true statement regarding Enterobacteriaceae: | Ans. (c) Shigella does not ferments mannitol "Members of enterobacteriaceae rcduce nitrates to nitrites, form catalase but not oxidase." Enterobacteriaceae: lmpoant features Features Escherichia Salmonella Shigella Motility by peritrichous flagella + + - Gas from glucose + + - Acid from lactose + - - Acid from sucrose d - - Growth in KCN - d - lndole + - d MRA/VP + + + Citrate - + - H2S - + - Urease - - - Phenylalanine deaminase (PPA) - - - Arginine dehydrolase d + - Lysine decarboxylase + + - Omithine decarboxylase d + d (d = result different in different species or strains) Remember: - Polar flagella: Vibrio, pseudomonas, legionella, spirilla, campylobacter, H. pylon, spirochetes. - V. parahemolytic produce both polar and peritrichous flagella. | 6,468 | medmcqa_train |
Heberden done denotes involvement of | In osteoahritis of hand:Distal interphalangeal joint: Heberden's nodeProximal interphalangeal joint: Bouchard's node(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 88, 101, 127) | 6,469 | medmcqa_train |
APGAR score includes all except | Sign
0 points
1 point
2 points
Heart rate
Absent
< 100 bpm
> 100 bpm
Respiratory effort
Absent
Slow, irregular
Good, crying
Muscle tone
Flaccid
Some extremity flexion
active motion
Reflex irritability
No response
Grimace
Vigorous cry
Color
Blue, pale
Body pink, extremities blue
Completely pink | 6,470 | medmcqa_train |
The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual coex is most sensitive for the stimulus of | From the lateral geniculate nucleus, a magnocellular pathway and a parvocellular pathway project to the visual coex. The parvocellular pathway, from layers 3-6, carries signals for color vision, texture, shape, and fine detail. The parvocellular pathway also carries color opponent data to the deep pa of layer 4.Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third Edition | 6,471 | medmcqa_train |
Dose of chloroquine at 4-8 year - | - for children between 4-8 years, the dose of chloroquine per day is 300 mg. - 2 tablets of chloroquine 150mg base is provided. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition pg no:264 <\p> | 6,472 | medmcqa_train |
Percentage change of cystic glandular hyperplasia turning to malignancy: | As discussed in the preceding text:
Endometrial hyperplasia is of the following four varieties:
Simple hyperplasia without atypical cells
Complex hyperplasia without atypical cells
Simple hyperplasia without atypical cells
Complex hyperplasia without atypical cells.
Logically speaking least chances of malignant transformation are with simple hyperplasia without atypia and maximum chances are with complex hyperplasia with atypia.
Chances of Progression to Carcinoma:
Type of hyperplasia
Simple without atypia - 1%°
Complex without atypia - 3%°
Simple with atypia - 8%°
Complex with atypia - 29-30%°
Thus, from the table, it is reaffirmed that minimum chances of progression to carcinoma are with simple hyperplasia without atypia ( also called as cystic glandular hyperplasia )and maximum chances of carcinoma are with complex hyperplasia with atypia. | 6,473 | medmcqa_train |
The chestnut coloured fungal cells known as muriform bodies are seen in: | Muriform cells are also called chromo/medlar/copper penny/ sclerotic bodies. They are chestnut/golden brown colored fungal cells found mainly in giant cells in infiltrate of chromoblastomycosis. Ref: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, 8th Edition, Page 36.75. | 6,474 | medmcqa_train |
FALSE statement about Hallucinations | (C) Sensory organs are not involved # Hallucination is a perception in the absence of external stimulus that has qualities of real perception.> It is perception without stimuli.> It is independent of will of the observer.> It occurs in inner subjective space i.e. sensory organs are not involved.> It is a vivid sensory perception but not very well defined as a true sense perception and imagery. | 6,475 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following skin changes are associated with Diabetes Mellitus except | Salmon patch is associated with "Sturge - Weber" syndrome. | 6,476 | medmcqa_train |
A young boy presented with high fever shows clinical features suggestive of Legionnaires' Disease. Treatment of choice is: | The macrolides (especially azithromycin) and the respiratory quinolones are now the antibiotics of choice and are effective as monotherapy. Compared with erythromycin, the newer macrolides have superior in vitro activity, display greater intracellular activity, reach higher concentrations in respiratory secretions and lung tissue, and have fewer adverse effects. Ref: Sabria M., Yu V.L. (2012). Chapter 147. Legionella Infections. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | 6,477 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is/are bile acids? | Primary bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid, which are synthesized from cholesterol in liver. In the intestine some of the primary bile acids are conveed into secondary bile acids, i.e., deoxycholic acid (formed from cholic acid) and lithocholic acid (derived from chenodexoxycholic acid). Glycine and taurine conjugates of these bile acids are called as bile salts. For example, cholic acid is a bile acid, and its glycine conjugate (glycocholic acid) is a bile salt. Bile salts = Sodium or potassium + Amino acid (glycine or taurine) + Bile acids (Cholic acid or chenodeoxycholic acid) So, Bile salts are : - Sodium + glycine + cholic acid = Sodium-glyco-cholic acid (sodium-glyco-cholate) Sodium + taurine + cholic acid = Sodium-tauro-cholic acid (Sodium-tauro-cholate) Sodium + glycine + chenodeoxycholic aicd = Sodium-glyco-chenodeoxycholate Sodium + taurine + chenodeoxycholic acid = Sodium-tauro-chenodeoxycholate o Similarly potassiun bile salts are potassium-glycocholate, potassium-taurocholate, potassium-glycochenodexoxycholate, and potassium-tauro-chenodexoxycholate. | 6,478 | medmcqa_train |
In leprosy neural involvement occurs in what percentage of patients | A chronic granulomatous disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae, principally affecting peripheral nerves and skin. Nerve involvement is seen in all cases of leprosy. The cardinal signs are: 1. Hypopigmented/hypoanaesthetic patches 2. Peripheral nerve thickening 3. Skin slit smear(AFB). | 6,479 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a specific somatoform disorders?. | Ans--b. Fibromyalgia (Ref Harrison 19/e p2238. 18/e p122. 2849: Kaplan and Sada'ock!s Synopsis of Psychiatry 10/e p276; Niraj Ahuja 7/e p104-105)Fibromyalgia is not a specific somatoform disorder, it has organic basis behind its pathologysomatic like is a generic term first used in DSM III for a group of disorders charactrized by physical symptoms that are not explained by organic factors (i.e. for syndromes of presumed psychological origin)." | 6,480 | medmcqa_train |
Fluoride helps in | Fluoride helps in denon and reduces tooth decay,
Flourine is oen called a two edged sword
Excess intake →Causes Endemic fluorosis
Inadequate →Causes dental caries | 6,481 | medmcqa_train |
The epithelium is absent in lens on | There is no posterior epithelium, as these cells are used up in filling the central cavity of lens vesicle during The epithelium development of the lens. | 6,482 | medmcqa_train |
Bronchus is the site of pathological changes for all of the following diseases, except: | Emphysema occurs at the site of acinus, the anatomical site for the rest of them is the bronchus. | 6,483 | medmcqa_train |
Systemic infection is caused by all fungi except | Dermatophytes are a group of fungi that infect only superficial keratinised tissue without involving the living tissue. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition | 6,484 | medmcqa_train |
Which cyclooxygenase plays a role in maintaining GI mucosal integrity? | Cyclooxygenase 1- plays a role in maintaining GI mucosal integrity The beneficial effects of NSAIDs on tissue inflammation are due to inhibition of COX-2 S/E of NSAIDs: GI mucosal ulceration and renal dysfunction- due to inhibition of the COX-1 isoform. Highly COX-2-selective NSAIDs- provide the beneficial effect of decreasing tissue inflammation & minimizing toxicity in the GI tract. Selective COX-2 inhibitors have had adverse effects on CVS, leading to increased risk of myocardial infarction. | 6,485 | medmcqa_train |
Bruxism is: NEET 13 | Ans. Grinding of teeth during sleep | 6,486 | medmcqa_train |
Absence of corkscrew glands is seen in | Ans. D. Metropathia hemorrhagicaEndometrial histology - secretory phasea. The characteristic feature of endometrium in Metropathia hemorrhagica is cystic glandular hyperplasia.b. Another important feature is absence of secretory endometrium with absence of corkscrew glands.c. Endometrium is usually thick and polypoidal.d. Thin polypi project into the uterine cavity. | 6,487 | medmcqa_train |
In HIV window period indicates: | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 579 and 8th/e, p. 578)* It takes 2 - 8 weeks to months for antibodies to appear after infection. This period, from infection to appearance of antibodies is called as window period.* During this period patients is seronegative, i.e., serological tests (ELISA and Western blot) are negative.* The individual may be highly infectious during this period. | 6,488 | medmcqa_train |
Rule of Hasse is used to determine: DNB 09; Punjab 10; NEET 13 | Ans. Age of fetus | 6,489 | medmcqa_train |
All are signs of inoperability of carcinoma of cervix except | Contraindications of Pelvic Exenteration Extra pelvic spread of the disease with distant metastasis to lungs, liver and bones Women with comorbid conditions Urethral obstruction, Sciatic pain, Unilateral leg edema Ref: D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY; 6th edition; Pg no:349 | 6,490 | medmcqa_train |
Early age of sex is risk factor for | Ans. A. Carcinoma cervixEarly Coitarche (early age of first intercourse) is a risk factor for carcinoma cervix. | 6,491 | medmcqa_train |
Pressure volume loop is shifted to left side in | Ans. (c) Aortic stenosis(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.540)In aortic stenosis,PV loop is shifted to left sideVentricular systolic pressure increases to overcome the stenosisThere is increase in End systolic volumeStroke volume decreases | 6,492 | medmcqa_train |
A 15-year-old girl in a rural community has swollen, painful lymph nodes in her right axilla. Physical examination reveals multiple scratches on her right arm with a papule associated with one of the scratch marks. She states that the scratches occurred about 5 days ago. What type of animal is the most likely source of the infection? | This patient has the classic symptoms of cat scratch disease caused by the bacillus Baonella henselae. The disease is self-limited with the onset of symptoms occurring 3-10 days following an inoculating scratch. The organism can be isolated from kittens, typically less than 1 year of age, or from fleas. A history of a new kitten in the house and the papule at the site of a scratch with regional painful adenopathy defines the classic scenario. Chickens can harbor Salmonella spp. producing a gastroenteritis or enterocolitis. Chicken guano is also a orable environment for the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. The mycelial phase thrives in the rich soil. The human disease is a granulomatous infection involving the lungs and mimicking tuberculosis. Dogs or puppies carry Capnocytophaga canimorsus as pa of the normal flora of the oral cavity. Infections from licking or biting range from a self-severe infections are those with asplenia, alcoholism, or hematologic malignancies. This organism is also associated with cat bites, but the patient develops cellulitis and fulminant septicemia, especially in asplenic patients. Pasteurella multocida is another pathogen that colonizes the nasopharynx and gastrointestinal tract of cats and dogs. Cats have the highest rate of colonization (50-90%), followed by dogs (50%), swine (50%), and rats (14%). P. multocida most commonly causes a localized soft tissue infection or cellulitis after an animal bite, but systemic symptoms may be present in about 40% of the cases. These symptoms include osteomyelitis, septic ahritis, or tenosynovitis. Horses and horse manure have been associated with a pulmonary oppounistic infection with cavitation caused by Rhodococcus equi that resembles tuberculosis in immunocompromised patients. Burkholderia mallei (the cause of glanders) is characterized by non-caseating granulomatous abscesses of skin, lymphadenopathy, and pronounced involvement of the lungs. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 20. Gram-Negative Rods Related to Animal Sources (Zoonotic Organisms). In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | 6,493 | medmcqa_train |
Spleen projects into the following space of peritoneal cavity: | Being developed in the dorsal mesogastrium, the spleen projects into the greater sac surrounded by peritoneum of the original left leaf of the dorsal mesogastrium. It lies at the left margin of the lesser sac below the diaphragm, and its diaphragmatic surface is moulded into a reciprocal convexity. Its hilum lies in the angle between the stomach and left kidney, each of which impresses a concavity alongside the attached the splenic vessels. Ref: Last's Anatomy: Regional and Applied By Chummy S. Sinnatamby, 2011, Chapter 5. | 6,494 | medmcqa_train |
A 6 years old boy presented with Complex seizures per day in spite of adequate 4 drug antiepileptic regime. He had history of repeated high-grade fever in childhood. MRI for epilepsy protocol revealed normal brain scan. Which of the following will not be helpful for functional imaging of brain? | Brain perfusion study using perfusion agents like Tc-99m HMPAO, i.e., Tc-9W6HMPAO brain SPECT is indicated in acute cerebral infarct imaging before evidence of CT/MRI pathology, when positive findings are seen with 1 hour of event. Brain metabolic rate and functional activity study by using 18F –FDG PET is indicated in focal epilepsy prior to seizure.
MDCT is not useful for functional studies of brain. | 6,495 | medmcqa_train |
Phocomelia is best described as: | ANSWER: (A) Defect in development of long bonesREF: Goodman Gillman manual of pharmacology and therapeutics 2008 edition page 897, http:// en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PhocomeliaPhocomelia is lack of development of proximal part of limb. The distal part being present is called as seal limb. Phocomelia is an extremely rare congenital disorder involving the limbs. Although various numbers of factors can cause phocomelia, the prominent roots come from the drug use of thalidomide and from genetic inheritance | 6,496 | medmcqa_train |
Large antigen - antibody reaction is required to cause - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ahus reaction | 6,497 | medmcqa_train |
All are sphincters of lower genito urinary tract of female except | In males and females, both internal and external urethral sphincters function to inhibit the release of urine. In males, the internal sphincher muscle of urethra functions to prevent reflux of seminal fluids into the male bladder during ejaculation. Females do have a more elaborate external sphincter muscle than males as it is made up of three pas: the sphincter urethrae, urethrovaginal muscle, and the compressor urethrae. Ref - semantischolar.org | 6,498 | medmcqa_train |
Bird beak appearance on barium swallow study is seen in - | ’’Bird beak appearance on barium study is seen in achalasia cardia.
Important esophageal signs | 6,499 | medmcqa_train |
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