query
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| pos
stringlengths 1
22.5k
| idx
int64 0
161k
| task_name
stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|
The drug X is used in osteoporosis. Its mechanism of action is shown in the Figure below. X is likely to | New drug for osteoporosis: 1. Teriparatide: PTH with 1-34 amino acid, stimulates osteoblast.2. Strontium ranelate: dual action: stimulate osteoblast and inhibit osteoclast.3. Denosumab: monoclonal antibody against rank ligand. | 2,300 | medmcqa_train |
Pharmacodynamics includes | Pharmacodynamics- the branch of pharmacology concerned with the effects of drugs and the mechanism of their action. Ref-KDT 7/e p1 | 2,301 | medmcqa_train |
In an RTA, a patient sustained soft tissue and Brachial plexus injuries with nerve affected in weakness of extensors of entire arm, forearm, hand with shoulder flexion, and extension. This is suggestive of involvement of | (C) C5 to T1 # Preganglionic lesions have a poor prognosis as these do not recover and are surgically irreparable.> Postganglionic lesions have better prognosis than preganglionic lesions and histamine test is useful in making the distinction> Postganglionic lesions: Disruption proximal to the dorsal root ganglion Avulsion of nerve root from the spinal cord Cannot Recover Surgically irreparable Histamine test is positive Pseudomeningoceles on CT myelography or MRI due to root avulsion may be seen (positive result is unreliable during first few days). Sensory conduction from anaesthetic dermatome on nerve conduction studies suggests a preganglionic lesion (i.e. nerve distal to ganglion is not interrupted)> Erb's palsy: Upper obstetric palsy C5-C6 roots are affected Abductors and external rotators of the shoulder are paralysed Arm is held to the side (adducted), internally rotated and pronated (Waiter's tip deformity)> Klumpke's palsy: Lower obstetric palsy C8-T1 roots are affected (Involvement of T1 root may cause a homer's syndrome due to sympathetic nerve disturbance) This is a complete plexus lesion and more severe. Arm is frail and pale. Generalized wasting of all intrinsic muscles and a claw hand deformity is seen. Unilateral (ipsilateral) Horner's syndrome is often associated.> Histamine test: Intradermal injection of histamine usually causes a triple response in the surrounding skin. Central capillary dilatation Wheel Surrounding flare> If the flare reaction persists in an anaesthetic area of skin, the lesion must be proximal to the posterior root ganglion i.e. it is probably a root avulsion.> Postganglionic lesions have better prognosis than preganglionic lesions and histamine test is useful in making the distinction. | 2,302 | medmcqa_train |
Serous papillary cystadenocarcinomas of the ovaries express | CA-125 | 2,303 | medmcqa_train |
Lymph from glans penis drain into | Lymphatics from the glans drain into the deep inguinal nodes also called gland of Cloquet. Lymphatics from the rest of the penis drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.Ref: Vishram Singh; Volume II; 2nd edition; Page no: 464 | 2,304 | medmcqa_train |
A pregnant lady at 32 weeks' gestation period presents with a BP of 160/110 mm Hg, Proteinuria with Retinal Hemorrhage What is the Definitive Management of choice in this case? | Ans. D. Termination of pregnancyPatient presents with the characteristics of Severe Hypertension indicating delivery.Induction of labor is the best suited management of choice.Magnesium Sulfate prophylaxis should be provided to prevent the onset of seizures.Severe pre-eclampsia can be characterized as:* Pulmonary edema* BP >160/110* Fetal growth restriction* >-3+ proteinuria* Complaints of convulsion, headache, upper abdominal pain, oliguria and visual disturbances* Increased levels of serum creatinine, serum transaminase or presence of thrombocytopenia | 2,305 | medmcqa_train |
No treatment of withdrawal is req uired in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., LSD o Clinically significant withdrawal syndrome (requires treatment)Alcohol, opioids, amphetamines, Barbiturates, BZDs, Nicotine.o No or minimal clinically significant withdrawal syndrome (requires no treatment) :-LSD (nil). Cannabis (minimal). | 2,306 | medmcqa_train |
Complications of placenta pre include all except ___________ | Complication of placenta pre: Maternal complications Antepaum Labour Postpaum Puerperium APH Cord Prolapse PPH Sepsis Malpresentation Intrapaum hemorrahage Retained placenta Premature labour Early rupture of membranes Associated abruptio: 10% Fetal complications Low bih weight: 15% (Most common fetal complication) Bih Asphyxia IUD Bih injuries Congenital malformation (3X risk) Most common complication of abruptio placenta: Prematurity Most common complication of placenta prec: LBW Ref: DC Dutta&;s Textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Pgno: 288, 289 | 2,307 | medmcqa_train |
National institute of Homeopathy is located in: | The government of india has established a national institute of Ayurveda in Jaipur and a national institute of homeopathy in Kolkata. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 849. | 2,308 | medmcqa_train |
Karyotyping is useful in diagnosis of - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chromosomal abnormalitieso Karyotyping is the study of chromosomes and is used in cytogenetics to study the chromosomal abnormalities. o After arresting the cells in metaphase the chromosomes are examined to see for:(i) Numbers --> to detect abnormalities in chromosome numbers such as aneuploidy (trisomy, tetrasomy), polyploidy.(ii) Structure ---> to detect structural chromosomal anomalies such as translocations, deletions, inversions. | 2,309 | medmcqa_train |
In Complete deft the hard palate is totally separated from? | ANSWER: (C) VomerREF: With textPalate cleft can occur as complete (soft and hard palate, possibly including a gap in the jaw) or incomplete (a 'hole' in the roof of the mouth, usually as a cleft soft palate).Normally the hard palate is continuous in front and laterally with the alveolar processes of the maxilla, and gives attachment posteriorly to the soft palate."In cleft palate the hard palate may or may not be attached to the vomer. If it is attached to the vomer, it is called as incomplete. Hard palate in complete cleft palate is totally separated from vomer' REF: Cleft lip and palate: diagnosis and management - Samuel Berkowitz Page 50."In incomplete unilateral cleft palate, nasal septum (Vomer) is attached to the uncleft side of hard palate. In bilateral complete deft lip and palate, Vomer is free and septum hangs freely"REF: Synopsis of Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery by Ghosh page 155Incomplete deft palateUnilateral complete lip and palateBilateral complete lip and palate | 2,310 | medmcqa_train |
All vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy except | All live vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy except yellow fever vaccine. | 2,311 | medmcqa_train |
Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by: | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Chlamydia trachomatis Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by chlamydia trachomatis (serotypes D- K).Chlamydial inclusion conjunctivitis is generally spread by sexual transmission from the genital reservoir of infection. The primary source of infection is a benign subclinical venereal disease producing a mild urethritis in the male and cervicitis in the female.The modes of transmission are orogenital activities and hand to eye spread of infective genital secretions. A common mode of transmission is through the water in swimming pools; thus the disease may occur in local epidemics (swimming pool conjunctivitis). It is also transmitted from the mother to the newborn.Treatment- azithromycin or doxycycline | 2,312 | medmcqa_train |
Example of Type IV hypersensitivity is - | Ans. (b) Granulomatous reaction(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 208-211; 8th/pg 205-208; Illustrated Dictionary of Immunology by M.P.Arora - Page 501)Granulomatous reaction is an example of type IV hypersensitivitySerum sickness & Arthus reactions are examples of type III hypersensitivityShwartzman reaction is a non-immunologic phenomenon in which endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) induces local & systemic reactions; It can either be local or systemic type; | 2,313 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following changes in C-MYC oncogene may be associated with colonic malignancy? | C- MYC amplification may be responsible for Ca breast, Ca colon, Ca stomach and lung. L - MYC amplification is associated with Ca lung and bladder. N- MYC amplification is associated with neuroblastoma and Ca lung. Ref: Harrison, 17th Edition, Page 496 | 2,314 | medmcqa_train |
Name of the curved laryngoscope ? | Laryngoscopy (larynx + scopy) is a medical procedure that is used to obtain a view of the vocal folds and the glottis. Following are the types of the available laryngoscopes :- i) Straight blade: Miller ii) Curved blade: Macintosh | 2,315 | medmcqa_train |
The hilum of the right lung is arched by: | B i.e. Azygous vein | 2,316 | medmcqa_train |
Half life of factor 8 | Factor VIII is also called as anti hemophilic factor Its half life is 8-12 hrs Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno :138 | 2,317 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of lower respiratory tract infection in 3 year old child is | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Streptococcal pneumonia | 2,318 | medmcqa_train |
In which condition doctor is passive | Classical Psychoanalysis No detailed history taking, mental status examination, or formalised psychiatric diagnosis is attempted. The patient is allowed to communicate unguided, by using 'free association'. The therapist remains passive with a non-directive approach; however, the therapist constantly challenges the existing defences and interprets resistance (during the therapy) and transference (patient's feelings, behaviours and relationship with the therapist). No direct advice is ever given to the patient. The crux of the therapy is on interpretation. During the therapy, the patient typically lies on the couch, with the therapist sitting just out of vision. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 213 | 2,319 | medmcqa_train |
Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., BronchoscopeEndoscopes are sterilized by chemical methods Methods for sterilization of endoscopes Rigid endoscope - Autoclave Flexible - Glutaraldehyde Peracetic acidNowadays musculoskeletal tissue allografts are being increasingly used for knee reconstructive procedures.The soft tissue allografts commonly being used are bone-patellar tendon-bone, Achilles tendon, fascia lata, anterior and posterior tibial tendon.Infections with allografts is a serious concern.Therefore these allografts need proper sterilization and disinfection.The proper sterilization procedure for these allografts is Gamma/Electron beam irradiation. | 2,320 | medmcqa_train |
Normal intraabdominal pressure is ? | Ans. is'a'i.e., 0 - 8 mmHgNormal intra-abdominal pressure is 0-6 mmHg. | 2,321 | medmcqa_train |
Conduction velocity of nerves is NOT affected by which of the following? | Motor neuron disease is at anterior horn cell, pyramidal neurons and not the nerves. Thus the conduction velocity in the nerves is normal. Leprosy - Affects nerves and both sensory nerve conduction /motor nerve conduction studies may demonstrate reduced amplitude in affected nerves but occasionally may reveal demyelinating features. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (CMT) -MC hereditary neuropathy and has reduced motor nerve conduction velocity A.I.D.P -Segmental demyelination in the spinal cord and peripheral nerves. Early features-prolonged F-wave latencies Prolonged distal latencies Reduced amplitudes of compound muscle action potentials, d/t involvements of nerve roots and distal motor nerve terminals | 2,322 | medmcqa_train |
Arteriole is | Arterioles regulate the distribution of blood flow by altering their diameter to increase or decrease the peripheral resistance as required. | 2,323 | medmcqa_train |
Ether was first used by: | Moon | 2,324 | medmcqa_train |
In which of the following Arbiskov cells are seen ? | Granulocytic Sarcoma Also known as Choloroma or myeloblastoma. It is a hematopoietic stem cell tumour. It is an extramedullary tumor of immature granulocytic series cells. It is a localised tumour forming a mass in the skin of orbital & periorbital tissue due to infiltration of tissues by leukemic cells. It is most commonly associated with AML M2 Arbiskov cells are monocytes which can be seen in choloroma. | 2,325 | medmcqa_train |
Epistaxis in elderly person is most commonly due to: | (c) Hypertension(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed. 680)The most common cause of epistaxis in an elderly person is hypertension.Foreign body is not seen at this age.Bleeding disorder will present with bleeding from multiple sites.Nasopharyngeal carcinoma presents with upper deep cervical lymph node. Nasal obstruction and blood tinged nasal discharge can occur later on. | 2,326 | medmcqa_train |
A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in preterm labour. Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of the following conditions except: | “Corticosteroids can be given even in presence of maternal hypertension or diabetes mellitus, but should preferably be avoided if PROM is associated with definitive evidence of chorioamnionitis”
Meherban Singh 5/e, p 227
“Steroid treatment is contraindicated in presence of overt infection.”
Fernando Arias 3/e, p 220
Steroid therapy in preterm labour:
Steroids are recommended for all women in preterm labour before 32 weeks with or without membrane ruptures in whom there is no evidence of chorioamnionitis. According to ACOG, single dose steroid injection is recommended between 24 to 32 weeks. There is no concensus regarding treatment between 32-34 weeks. Corticosteroid therapy is not recommended before 24 weeks.
Advantage:
Steroids reduce the rate of respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage and necrotising enterocolitis in the newborn.
The effect of treatment is maximal between 24 hours of the first dose and uptil 7 days.
Earlier it was recommended to give repeated doses weekly till the patient delivers but this practice is associated with significant fetal and neonatal side effects like cerebral palsy and should be abandoned.
Betamethasone is the steroid of choice as it also prevents periventricular leukomalacia although dexamethasone can also be used.
Dose:
Betamethasone = 2 doses of 12 mg, 24 hours apart,
Dexamethosane: 4 doses of 6 mg, 12 hours apart. | 2,327 | medmcqa_train |
Insulin inhibits ketogenesis by all except | Insulin inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue due to inhibition of hormone-sensitive lipase Insulin depresses HMG CoA synthase and so ketogenesis is decreased In the presence of insulin, acetyl CoA is completely utilized in the citric acid cycle because oxaloacetate generated from glucose is available in plenty. Insulin also ours fatty acid synthesis from acetyl CoA. All these factors reduce the availability of acetyl CoA so that production of ketone bodies reduced.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 322 | 2,328 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment for dendritic ulcer includes all except: March 2009 | Ans. C: Steroids Debridement of the edges of the ulcer with a moistened, fine cotton tipped applicators helps in reducing the load of active virus-infected cells. The standard treatment is idoxuridine drops/ trifluridine drops/ acyclovir 3% eye ointment/ 3% vidarabine ointment produces a resolution of herpes in 95% of the patients. Steroids are contraindicated in suspected cases of herpes simplex epithelial keratitis paicularly in the presence of active viral replication. Penetrating keratoplasty is useful in cases with herpetic scarring where the eye has been free of activity for a year. | 2,329 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following condition is associated with limitation of both adduction and abduction of the affected eye? | Weakness of both adduction and abduction of the eye is a feature of Duane retraction syndrome type 3. Duane retraction syndrome is a congenital, incomitant ocular motility disorder characterized by abnormal function of lateral rectus muscle in the affected eye together with retraction of the globe and narrowing of the palpabrel fissure on attempted adduction. Retraction of the globe and narrowing of the palpabrel fissure occur due to simultaneous contraction of medial and lateral rectus muscles on attempted adduction. There are of 3 types: DRS type 1 - limited abduction, normal adduction DRS type 2 - limited adduction, normal abduction DRS type 3 - limited adduction and abduction | 2,330 | medmcqa_train |
In an infant born to a HIV infected mother, at what age of child the ELISA test can reliably diagnose HIV infection | Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and Western blotting are used to initially detect HIV-specific antibodies but these tests are not used for diagnosis in patients younger than 18 months of age. This is because of the persistence of the maternal HIV antibody in infants younger than 18 months.
Infants younger than 18 months require virologic assays that directly detect HIV in order to diagnose HIV infection. | 2,331 | medmcqa_train |
Vitamin A requirement in infant is - | - daily intake of vitamin A recommended by ICMR for infants is 350 mcg retinol. - daily intake of vitamin A recommended by ICMR for infants is 2800 mcg beta carotene. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:616 <\p> | 2,332 | medmcqa_train |
Sarcoma botryoides of vagina commonly occurs in which age group- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., < 10 years * Sarcoma botryoides or botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma is a subtype of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, that can be observed in the walls of hollow, mucosa lined structures such as the nasopharynx, common bile duct, urinary bladder of infants and young children or the vagina in females, typically younger than age 8. The name comes from the gross appearance of "grape bunches" (botryoid in Greek). | 2,333 | medmcqa_train |
A 70-year-old man with hypeension wakes up with severe chest pain and diaphoresis. On examination he has bounding pulses with wide pulse pressure. A diastolic murmur is heard along the right sternal border. Which of the following is the possible etiology? | Option A= High B.P | Aoic dissection | Leads to Retrograde spread | develop Aoic Root dilation | Leads to develop Aoic Regurgitation- Diastolic Murmur Option B= STEMI with Papillary muscle dysfunction have systolic murmur. Option C= Myocarditis with functional regurgitation- Systolic murmur Option D= Flash Pulmonary edema related to Renal aery stenosis/Reno vascular hypeension | 2,334 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following about gastrointestinal carcinoid tumours are true, Except | About 15% rectum is involved in a carcinoid tumour it arises from the submucosa with the overlying intact mucous membrane. Reference SRB 5 the edition page no. 877 | 2,335 | medmcqa_train |
Obesity is associated with all of the following except: | Answer is D (Pancreatitis): Pancreatitis has no association with obesity. RISKS OF OBESITY INCLUDE THE FOLLOWING : A. Cardiovascular disease : -increased risk of atherosclerosis -increased risk of hypeension - increased risk of sudden death B. Pulmonary function : Sleep apnea and Right hea failure C. Gall bladder disease : Increased incidence of Gall stones D. Joint : - Increased risk of osteoahritis Q :paly due to added trauma of increased weight bearing - Increased incidence of Gout 2:due to impairment in urate clearance. E. Diabetes mellitus : Type II diabetes mellitus Q is almost always seen in the obese. F. Cancer : Increased incidence of endometrial carcinoma post menopausal breast cancer prostate cancer Q - colorectal carcinoma G. Skin : Increased incidence of Acanthosis nigricans Q H. Endocrine : Insulin Resistance : leading to Hyperinsulinemia is directly related to degree of obesity. Growth hormone Q :secretions is reduced but IGF-I levels are normal thus growth is not affected. Testosterone level is reduced.Q | 2,336 | medmcqa_train |
Syndrome characterized by an elaborate delusion that the patient is passionately loved by another person is also known as: COMEDK 15 | Ans. De Clerambault's syndrome | 2,337 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following indications of deep brain stimulation is not FDA approved? | FDA approved indications for deep brain stimulation are: a. Parkinson's disease and essential tremors b. Dystonia c. Obsessive compulsive disorder | 2,338 | medmcqa_train |
An 18 yr old male presents with massive hematemesis; he has history of fever for the past 14 days for which he was managed with drugs; moderate splenomegaly is present; diagnosis is: | Answer is C (Esophageal varices) Presence of massive haematemesis in the background of moderate splenomegaly suggests a diagnosis of esophageal varices secondary to poal hypeension. Esophageal varices : Most common presentation of esophageal varices is Hematemesis. 'Splenomegaly, sometimes with hipersplenism, is the next most common presenting feature in the poal vein obstruction.' | 2,339 | medmcqa_train |
Most sensitive investigation to see intracranial bleed in a patient with head injury - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., CT-scan o Has been explained in previous session | 2,340 | medmcqa_train |
Autoantigen is ? | None | 2,341 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of following is Polysaccharide vaccine:- | Polysaccharide vaccines are: Typhim-Vi Pneumococcal vaccine Meningococcal vaccine Hib. | 2,342 | medmcqa_train |
Vaccine which requires the most stringent conditions for storage | Among the vaccines, polio is the most sensitive to heat, requiring storage at minus 20 degree Celsius. Vaccines which must be stored in the vaccine compaments are polio and measles. The cold chain is a system of storage and transpo of vaccines at low temperature from the manufacturer to the actual vaccination site (refer pgno:109 park 23 rd edition) | 2,343 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following condition is positive for double stranded DNA antibody? | Serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) are found in nearly all individuals with active SLE. Antibodies to native double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) are relatively specific for the diagnosis of SLE. Anti-SSA or anti-SSB antibodies are seen in Sjogren's syndrome. Topoisomerase I antibodies (also known as Scl-70), Anticentromere antibodies, Fibrillarin antibodies and antibodies to ribonucleoprotein (RNP) are present in scleroderma. Anti-U1-RNP antibodies, and antibodies against U1-70 kd small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (snRNP) are characteristic of mixed connective tissue disorder (MCTD). | 2,344 | medmcqa_train |
The drug of choice for treatment of meningococcal meningitis is | Ans. b. CeftriaxoneRef: Goodman Gilman 13th E/PI 035Ceftriaxone is the drug of choice for treatment of meningitis caused by H. influenza, N. meningitidis (meningococcal meningitis) and S. pneumoniae.Ampicillin is the drug of choice for treatment of meningitis caused by L. monocytogenes.Meningitis seen in post neurosurgery or penetrating head trauma patients caused by staphylococcus, Propionibacterium, pseudomonas or acinetobacter is treated by meropenem+vancomycin.Note: For prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis (contacts or mass chemoprophylaxis) ciprofloxacin is the drug of choice. Ceftriaxone though us the best drug for prophylaxis is not the drug of choice as it is a parenteral drug. | 2,345 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following topical agent boosts cell - mediated immunity in burns | Cerium nitrate boosts cell - mediated immunity and forms sterile eschar in burns. | 2,346 | medmcqa_train |
A 40yr old patient developed high fever of sudden onset .Peripheral blood film showed malaria parasite pigment was yellowish brown and schizonts were 9-10microns and contained 20 merozoites each | The features are consistent with the diagnosis of Pl vivax .yellow brown pigment-vivax Dark brown pigment-falciparum Ref: D.R. Arora. Medical parasitology 4th ed pg. 77 | 2,347 | medmcqa_train |
The cells which lie outside blood testis barrier: | Ans. is d, i.e. Leydig cellsBlood testis barrier is formed by Sertoli cells which keeps the growing germ cells (its all stages) separated from blood. | 2,348 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about supraglottic laryngeal carcinoma except: | Glottie part is the most common sites for carcinoma larynx followed by supraglottic & subglottic pats respectively. | 2,349 | medmcqa_train |
Order of anastomosis in lung transplant: | Order of anastomosis in lung transplant pulmonary vein, bronchus, pulmonary aery. LUNG TRANSPLANTATION PROCEDURE SLT: Performed through posterolateral thoracotomyQ image on left side DLT: Performed through bilateral thoracotomy or median sternotomyQ Sequence of anastomoses in lung transplantation (PV By BA PA): Pulmonary Vein - Bronchial Anastomosis - Pulmonary AeryQ COMPLICATIONS OF LUNG TRANSPLANTATION Dehiscence of airway anastomosisQ Late airway stenosis at bronchial anastomosis due to ischemia: Treated by dilatationQ | 2,350 | medmcqa_train |
Which statement is FALSE regarding specific learning disorders (SLD) | Specific developmental disorders of scholastic Skills (specific learning disorders) includes reading disorder, spelling disorder, disorder of arithmetical skills, and mixed disorder of Scholastic Skills. Dyslexia (reading disorder) is included in lCD-10 in a separate category of symbolic dysfunction. The terms, Dyscalculia (mathematics disorder), and Dysgraphia (written language disorder) are also used by investigators and clinicians, but their inclusion in diagnostic classihcation systems has been inconsistent and a source of some disagreement among expes. A student exhibiting a significant discrepancy between scores on tests of intelligence and tests of academic achievement could be classified as a student with an SLD, and would subsequently be eligible for Special Education Services i.e. those student may did very well in IQ testing but not in academic achievement or tests. Ref:- Nelson&;s textbook of paediatrics; pg num:- 672 | 2,351 | medmcqa_train |
An 8-month-old child presented with reduced appetite, abdominal distension and pain and psychomotor retardation. The child was normal at bih and both parents are normal. O/E: - Hepatosplenomegaly Moderate lymphadenopathy Abnormal posturing of the limbs, trunk, and face Impaired voluntary rapid eye movements Cheery red spot on fundus examination. Bony defects Lymph node-histopathology and electron microscopy. EM findings Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient in the above disease: - | This is a case of Niemann-pick disease. 1. Autosomal recessive disease 2. Divided into 2 groups depending on deficiency: - Deficiency of acid sphingomyelinase enzyme- Type A and B Impaired intracellular cholesterol trafficking- Type C and D 3. Normal at bih 4. Presents with hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and cherry red spot on fundus examination. 5. HPE image shows Niemann-pick cells- These are foam cells with soap suds appearance (Distention of Lysosomes due to sphingomyelin and cholesterol) 6. Electron microscopy shows Zebra bodies - These are concentric lamellated myelin figures (in engorged secondary lysosomes). OTHER ENZYME DEFICIENCIES: - Hexosaminidase A- Tay-sach's disease Alpha-galactosidase A - Fabry's disease Glucocerebrosidase - Gaucher's disease | 2,352 | medmcqa_train |
Feature of hydrops fetalis in a fetus can be due to: | Hydrops fetalis - Excessive destruction of the fetal red cells leads to severe anemia, tissue anoxemia and metabolic acidosis It is accumulation of fluid in the body of the fetus in two out of three compaments: ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion Most common cause of immune hydrops fetalis - Rh incompatibility Others causes of hydrops fetalis Cardio vascular cause - congenital hea block ( Most common) Chromosomal cause - turner syndrome (45 XO ), triploidy , trisomies 21,18 and 13 Hematological - a 4 - thalassemia (HB bas) , fetomaternal hemorrhage Infections - Parvovirus B19(mc) , syphilis , cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis Rubella, HSV | 2,353 | medmcqa_train |
A 40-year old man presented with acute onset pain and swelling of left great toe. On X-ray, punched out lytic lesion seen on phalanx with sclerotic margins and overhanging bony edges. Diagnosis is: | Ans. a. Gout | 2,354 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements is true concerning the vascular response to injury? | After wounding, there is transient vasoconstriction mediated by catecholamines, thromboxane, and prostaglandin F2 (PGF2a). This period of vasoconstriction lasts for only five to ten minutes. Once a clot has been formed and active bleeding has stopped, vasodilatation occurs in an around the wound. Vasodilatation increases local blood flow to the wounded area, supplying the cells and substrate necessary for fuher wound repair. The vascular endothelial cells also deform, increasing vascular permeability. The vasodilatation and increased endothelial permeability is mediated by histamine, PGE2, and prostacyclin as well as growth factor VEGF (vascular endothelial cell growth factor). These vasodilatory substances are released by injured endothelial cells and mast cells and enhance the egress of cells and substrate into the wound and tissue. | 2,355 | medmcqa_train |
60 yr old male presented with dysphagia. Mucosal biopsy is provided here which show? | . | 2,356 | medmcqa_train |
The most common ovarian cause of increased androgenic state is: | (A) PCOD# Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS):> it was earlier known as Stein Leventhal syndrome. 1% female population suffers from PCOS, and the patients are mostly 15-25 years age.> PCOS includes chronic non-ovulation and hyperandrogenemia associated with normal or raised oestrogen (E2), raised, LH & low FSH/LH ratio.> In PCOS-LH>FSH: Obesity and hirsuitism are important features PCOS includes chronic non- ovulation and hyper androgenemia. | 2,357 | medmcqa_train |
Measles vaccine is not given before: | 9 months | 2,358 | medmcqa_train |
What is the major source of extracellular cholesterol for human tissues? | The uptake of exogenous cholesterol by cells results in a marked suppression of endogenous cholesterol synthesis. Low-density human lipoprotein not only contains the greatest ratio of bound cholesterol to protein but also has the greatest potency in suppressing endogenous cholesterogenesis. normally suppress cholesterol synthesis by binding to a specific membrane receptor that mediates inhibition of hydroxymethylglutaryl (HMG) coenzyme A reductase. In familial hypercholesterolemia the LDL receptor is dysfunctional, with the result that cholesterol synthesis is less responsive to plasma cholesterol levels. Suppression of HMG CoA reductase is attained using inhibitors (statins) that mimic the structure of mevalonic acid, the natural feedback inhibitor of the enzyme. Note: The LDL (apoB-100, E) receptor is defective in familial hypercholesterolemia, a genetic condition in which blood LDL cholesterol levels are increased, causing premature atherosclerosis. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 25. Lipid Transpo & Storage. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | 2,359 | medmcqa_train |
Inferior tibiofibular joint is which type of joint | syndesmosis is a fibrous joint between two bones and linked by ligaments and a strong membrane. The distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is asyndesmotic joint. Ref: Maheshwari 6e pg 159,162,163. | 2,360 | medmcqa_train |
Which is used in CA Breast? | Ans. (b) Doxorubicin(Ref: Bailey 26/e p815, 25/e p844; Schwartz 10/e p550-551, 9/e p263)* In CAF regimen- Adriamycin (Anthracylcines- Doxorubicin or Epirubicin) is used* Anthracyclines have cardio toxicity | 2,361 | medmcqa_train |
The hard palate contains | The hard palate contains keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, has a submucosa, and contains minor salivary gland. The bony structure of the hard palate is covered by a firmly attached mucosa in the central pa. In the lateral pas, the hard palate also has a submucosal layer containing blood vessels. There are minor mucous type salivary glands in the submucosa in the posterior pa of the hard palate. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 510 | 2,362 | medmcqa_train |
Subtle presentation of hyperparathyroidism is: | Answer is D (Asymptomatic hypercalcemia) In view of the above facts from Harrison the best option to consider a 'subtle presentation' should probably be `asymptomatic hypercalcemia' | 2,363 | medmcqa_train |
Which bullet may produce key hole entry wound? | Yawning bullet is irregular pattern, thus producing key hole entry wound in some cases. | 2,364 | medmcqa_train |
Cardinal signs of Inflammation are all except? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cyanosis o Cardinal signs of acute inflammation (celsus' signs): Rubor (redness), tumor (swelling), color (warmth), Dolor (pain). | 2,365 | medmcqa_train |
Oral hypoglycemic drug that is less likely to cause hypoglycemia is: | Rosilglitazone are selective agonists for the nuclear peroxisome proliferator activated receptor,which enhances the transcription of several insulin responsive genes Metformin and glitazones- antihyperglycemic agents- no hypoglycemia but reduce excess plasma glucose levels REF: K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 270) | 2,366 | medmcqa_train |
A 66-year-old man with obstructive jaundice is found on ERCP to have periampullary carcinoma. He is otherwise in excellent physical shape and there is no evidence of metastasis. What is the most appropriate treatment? | Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is treated with radical excision of the head of the pancreas along with the duodenum. Continuity of the biliary and GI tract is established by performing hepaticojejunostomy, pancreaticojejunostomy, and gastrojejunostomy (Figure below). The 5-year survival rate is higher for periampullary carcinoma (30%) than that for pancreatic head lesions (10%). Most centers do not give irradiation routinely before or after surgery, because pancreatic cancers do not respond well to radiotherapy. Endoscopically placed stents alone are used only in palliative circumstances in patients with limited life expectancy.Pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure). A: Preoperative anatomic relationships showing a tumor in the head of the pancreas. B: Postoperative reconstruction showing pancreatic, biliary, and gastric anastomoses. A cholecystectomy and bilateral truncal vagotomy are also part of the procedure. In many cases, the distal stomach and pylorus can be preserved, and vagotomy is then unnecessary | 2,367 | medmcqa_train |
Reflux laryngitis produces -a) Sub- glottic stenosis b) Ca larynxc) Cord fixationd) Acute supra- glottitise) Laryngitis | There are lots of controversies regarding the reflux laryngitis secondary to reflux gastrointestinal disease. But now some studies document that there is a clear relation between the two.
Reflux laryngitis may have the following sequlae:
– Bronchospasm
– Chemical pneumonitis
– Refractory subglottic stenosis
– Refractory contact ulcer
– Peptic laryngeal granuloma
– Acid laryngitis (Heart burn, burning pharyngeal discomfort, nocturnal chocking due to interarytenoid pachydermia)
– Laryngeal Carcinoma (According to recent reports laryngeal reflux is the cause of laryngeal carcinoma in patients who are life time non-smokers).
Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Here classical GERD symptoms are absent. Patients have more of daytime/upright reflux without the nocturnal/supine reflux of GERD. In laryngopharyngeal reflux esophageal motility and lower esophageal sphincter is normal, while upper esophageal sphincter is abnormal. The traditional diagnostic tests for GERD are not useful in LPR.
Symptom Chronic or Intermittent dysphonia, vocal strain, foreign body sensation, excessive throat mucus, Postnasal discharge and cough. Laryngeal findings: Interarytenoid bunching, Posterior laryngitis and subglottic edema (Pseudosulcus)
Sequelae of Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Subglottic stenosis
Carcinoma larynx
Contact ulcer/granuloma
Cricoarytenoid joint fixity
Vocal nodule/polyp
Sudden infant deaths
Laryngomalacia (Association)
Treatment is in similar lines as GERD, but we need to give proton pump inhibitors at a higher dose and for a longer duration (at least 6–8 months). | 2,368 | medmcqa_train |
Activation of classical complement pathway ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., IgM | 2,369 | medmcqa_train |
Fusion of the caudal portions of the kidneys during embryonic development is most likely to result in which of the following congenital conditions? | During development, the kidneys typically "ascend" from a position in the pelvis to a position high on the posterior abdominal wall. Although the kidneys are bilateral structures, occasionally the inferior poles of the two kidneys fuse. When this happens, the "ascent" of the fused kidneys is arrested by the first midline structure they encounter, the inferior mesenteric artery. The incidence of horseshoe kidney is about 0.25% of the population. | 2,370 | medmcqa_train |
Mitochondrial chromosomal abnormaity leads to | Diseases caused by mutations in mitochondrial genes are rare. Because mitochondrial DNA encodes enzymes involved in oxidative phosphorylation, diseases caused by mutations in such genes affect organs most dependent on oxidative phosphorylation (skeletal muscle, hea, brain). Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is the prototypical disorder in this group. This neurodegenerative disease manifests itself as progressive bilateral loss of central vision that leads in due course to blindness. Prader-Willi and Angelman Syndromes- Diseases Caused by Alterations of Imprinted Regions (Robbins Basic Pathology, 9 th edition. page : 243) | 2,371 | medmcqa_train |
True about protooncogene- | A proto-oncogene is a normal gene that could become an oncogene due to mutations or increased expression. Proto-oncogenes code for proteins that help to regulate cell growth and differentiation. Proto-oncogenes are often involved in signal transduction and execution of mitogenic signals, usually through their protein products. Upon acquiring an activating mutation, a proto-oncogene becomes a tumor-inducing agent, an oncogene. Examples of proto-oncogenes include RAS, WNT, MYC, ERK, and TRK. The MYC gene is implicated in Burkitt's Lymphoma, which stas when a chromosomal translocation moves an enhancer sequence within the vicinity of the MYC gene. The MYC gene codes for widely used transcription factors. When the enhancer sequence is wrongly placed, these transcription factors are produced at much higher rates. Another example of an oncogene is the Bcr-Abl gene found on the Philadelphia Chromosome, a piece of genetic material seen in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia caused by the translocation of pieces from chromosomes 9 and 22. Bcr-Abl codes for a tyrosine kinase, which is constitutively active, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation. | 2,372 | medmcqa_train |
The CNS tumor present with calcification: | Oligodendroglioma is associated with calcification. BT associated with calcification (COM):CraniopharyngiomaQ (most) > ODGQ (90%) > MeningiomaQ (20-25%) | 2,373 | medmcqa_train |
Sellick manouever is used to prevent: | C i.e. Aspiration of Gastric content | 2,374 | medmcqa_train |
A plant prick can produce sporotrichosis. All are true statements about sporotrichosis except | Sporotrichosis is a chronic infection involving cutaneous, subcutaneous and lymphatic tissue. It is frequently encountered in Gardners, forest workers and manual labourers. It may develop in otherwise healthy individuals also. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | 2,375 | medmcqa_train |
The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that | The most impoant reason to classify the antipsychotics in typical and atypical agents is the occurrence of extrapyramidal symptoms. Typical antipsychotics have significant extrapyramidal symptoms such as parkinsonism, acute muscle dystonia and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects are negligible or minimal with atypical agents like clozapine, olanzapine and risperidone. | 2,376 | medmcqa_train |
Opsomyoclonus is encountered as C/F of- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Neuroblastoma o Neuroblastoma can present as paraneoplastic syndrome of autoimune origin manifesting as ataxia or oposmyoclonus (Dancing eyes and dancing feat). o In such cases primary tumor is in the chest or abdomen and the brain is negative for tumor. o Some tumor produce catecholamines that can cause sweating and HTN and some release vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) causing secretary diarrhea. | 2,377 | medmcqa_train |
Examine the renal histopathology slide. What is the probable diagnosis? | The presence of diffuse involvement of glomeruli and histologically showing enlarged hyper cellular glomeruli is suggestive of Acute infectious GN. It can be both infectious and non-infectious (SLE) but the most common infectious acute proliferative GN is post streptococcal GN. So, the likely answer is post streptococcal glomerulonephritis. | 2,378 | medmcqa_train |
Diveiculum most common site is | Sigmoid diveiculitis Diveicular disease refers to acquired pseudo diveicular outpouchings of the colonic mucosa and submucosa. Rare below 30yrs but prevalence approaches 50% beyond 60yrs. Diveicula generally are multiple and the condition is referred to as diveiculosis. PATHOGENESIS Colonic diveicula tend to develop under conditions of elevated intraluminal pressure in the sigmoid colon TEXT BOOK OF ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.586 IMAGE REF: ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY NINTH EDITION FIG: 14-25 PAGE 586 | 2,379 | medmcqa_train |
"Inflation of lungs induces fuher inflation" is explained by: | C i.e Head's paradoxical reflex.Inflation of lungs, under ceain conditions, enhances inspiratory activity.Since inflation induces fuher inflation of lungs, the reflex is considered paradoxical.The vagal fibers mediating Head's paradoxical reflex carry information originating in receptors present in lungs.This reflex has a role in the initiation of respiration at bih. Ref: Understanding Medical Physiology By R.L. Bijlani, M.D., RL Bijlani MD SM DSc (Hon Causa) FAMS, S. Manjunatha, M.D., 2010, Page 245. | 2,380 | medmcqa_train |
Flexner-Wintersteiner rossette is seen in- | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition the microscopic structures of retinoblastoma characteristically arranged in rossettes. The rossettes are of 2 types 1. Flexner Wintersteiner rossettes characterised by small tumor cells arranged around a lumen with their nuclei away from the lumen. 2. Homer Wright rosettes- having radial arranarrangement of the tumor cells around the central neurofibrillar structure.. | 2,381 | medmcqa_train |
Merkels cells of Epidermis are derived from | (C) Neural crest # MERKEL CELLS, which are believed to be derived from the neural crest, contain many large (50-100 nm) dense-cored vesicles, presumably containing transmitters, which are concentrated near the junction with the axon. F.S. Merkel referred to these cells as Tastzellen or "touch cells" Merkel cells are found in the skin and some parts of the mucosa (stratum germinativum) of all vertebrates. In mammalian skin, they are clear cells found in the stratum basale (at the bottom of sweat duct ridges) of the epidermis approximately 10 pm in diameter. They also occur in epidermal invaginations of the plantar foot surface called rete ridges. Most often, they are associated with sensory nerve endings, when they are known as Merkel nerve endings (Merkel cell-neurite complex). They are associated with slowly adapting (SA1) somatosensory nerve fibers. They are associated with the sense of light touch discrimination of shapes and textures. They can turn malignant and form the skin tumor known as Merkel cell carcinoma.DERIVATIVES OF NEURAL CRESTDerivative of neural crestDeveloping partsNeurons1. Spinal posterior nerve root ganglion (dorsal root ganglia) 2. Sensory ganglia of V, VII, VIII, IX & X cranial nerves 3. Sympathetic gangliaPiamater & Arachnoid mater (Not duramater)--Schwann cellsNeurolemmal sheaths of all peripheral nervesAdrenal medullaChromaffin tissuePigment cells of skinMelanoblasts; Merkel's cells of epidermisMesenchyme of dental papilla & Odontoblasts--Cells from cranial part of neural crest (Somatomeres)Development of musculature of head & in formation of face | 2,382 | medmcqa_train |
A patient of 18 years of age presents with sudden agonising pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. The patient feels nausea and gives a history of vomiting. On physical examination, the testis seems high. The cremasteric reflex is lost. What is the most possible cause? | Ans. (d) Testicular torsion.Testicular torsion is most common between 10 and 25 years of age, although a few cases occur in infancy. Typically, there is sudden agonising pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. The patient feels nauseated and may vomit. Torsion of a fully descended testis is usually easily recognized. The testis seems high and the tender twisted cord can be palpated above it. The cremasteric reflex is lost.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> | 2,383 | medmcqa_train |
Pleomorphism is seen in: | (Chickenpox): Ref: (134-Park 20th)* Chickenpox shows pleomorphic rash i.e. different stages of the rash evident at one given time because rash appears in successive crops | 2,384 | medmcqa_train |
Placental alkaline phosphates is marker of: | PLAP-most useful marker for bulk disease. Tumour marker for seminoma is PLAP. BETA HCG is also raised in 5-10% of pure seminomas as they contain syncytiotrophoblast like giant cells. | 2,385 | medmcqa_train |
Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of all of the following drugs except. | Ans. (C) Ketoconazole(Ref: KDT 8th/e p698)Cimetidine is a potent inhibitor of microsomal enzymes. It prolongs the half lives of warfarin, theophylline, phenytoin, oral hypoglycemic agents, alcohol and benzodiazepines. | 2,386 | medmcqa_train |
Cardiac output is increased by all except | Standing from lying down because of pooling of blood in lower limb decrease in cardiac o/p by 20-30%Increasing factorsAnxiety and excitement (50-100%)Eating (30%)Exercise (up to 700%)High environmental temperaturePregnancyEpinephrine 2. Decreasing factorsSitting or standing from lying position (20-30%)Rapid arrhythmiasHea diseaseRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition pg No:514 | 2,387 | medmcqa_train |
An 8 year old boy presented with fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy with prior history of sore throat. There was no hepatomegaly. The peripheral blood smear shows >20% lympho plasmacytoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is: | Ans. B. Infectious MononucleosisThe given clinical situation suggests Infectious MononucleosisFeatures of Infectious Mononucleosis:* Cervical Lymphadenopathy* Fever* History of sore throat* >20% atypical lymphocytesHepatomegaly may be absent (Occurs only in 30% of cases) | 2,388 | medmcqa_train |
Regarding Good pasture's syndrome all are true except | Good pasture's syndrome causes glomerulonephritis that results in rapidly progressive renal failure. | 2,389 | medmcqa_train |
A 60-year-old man with diabetes acutely develops double vision and discomfort in his left eye. On examination, there is ptosis of the left eyelid, the eye is rotated down and out, and the pupil is 3 mm and reactive to light. The right eye is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Third nerve palsy can result in ptosis of the eyelid. There is also loss of the ability to open the eye, and the eyeball is deviated outward and slightly downward. With complete lesions, the pupil is dilated, does not react to light, and loses the power of accommodation. In diabetes, the pupil is often spared. The sixth cranial nerve can also be affected by diabetes, but this is much less common. | 2,390 | medmcqa_train |
Lethal midline granuloma arises from ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., NK cellso Lethal midline granuloma or polymorphic reticulosis is a lymphoma of natural killer (NK) cells infected with EBV. | 2,391 | medmcqa_train |
In near vision what is the change? | Ans. b. Depth of focus increasesThe most common problems developed in adults between ages 41 to 60 may to seeing clearly at close distances, especially when reading and working on the computer.This normal change in the eyes focusing ability, called presbyopia. | 2,392 | medmcqa_train |
In a community of 5000 people, the crude bih rate is 30 per 1000 people. The number of pregnant female is? | Crude Bih rate: Annual number of live bihs per 1000 mid year population Here, CBR is 30 per 1000 population So for 5000 population - 30/1000 x5000 = 150 That implies, no of pregnant women is 150 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 532 | 2,393 | medmcqa_train |
A young male presents with fever, followed by headache, confusion, focal seizures and right hemiparesis. MRI shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Patient is showing features suggestive of herpes simplex encephalitis. Clinical manifestations in viral encephalitis includes altered level of consiousness (confusion, behavioral abnormalities), mild lethargy to coma, evidence of both focal or diffuse neurologic signs and symptoms and focal or generalized seizures. Investigations: CSF shows lymphocytic leukocytosis, red blood cells due to hemorrhagic necrosis and elevated cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein levels. In HSV encephalitis80% will have abnormalities in temporal lobe and 10% have extra temporal abnormalities. The lesions are typically hyper intense on T2-weighted images. Brain biopsy has been the gold standard for defining HSV encephalitis, but now PCR for detection of HSV DNA in CSF has largely replaced biopsy for defining CNS infection. Acyclovir is used in the treatment. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 3421, 3437, Chapters 179, 379, 381. | 2,394 | medmcqa_train |
The shake test shown below can be done to know: | Shake test: - Test done to check cold damage to Vaccine due to freezing. - Once the vaccine is frozen, it tends to form flakes which gradually settle to the bottom, after the l is shaken. - Thus, sedimentation occurs faster in a vaccine l which has been frozen as compared to control l. - These ls should be discarded irrespective of their expiry date. - Used for DPT, DT, TT or Hepatitis B | 2,395 | medmcqa_train |
Absence of lamina dura in the alveolus occurs in: | Radiological Features of Hyperparathyroidism Subperiosteal resorption of terminal tufts of phalanges, lateral end of clavicle and symphysis pubis. Loss of lamina dura (i.e. thin coical bone of tooth socket surrounding teeth is seen as thin white line, is resorbed). Fig : Loss of Lamina Dura Brown Tumor Salt and Pepper appearance of skull Treatment: Direct parenteral supplementation of calcium. -Dental findings of other options : Osteomalacia- no tooth abnormality as such Rickets- enamel defect Deficiency of vitamin C- bleeding gums + dentine defects | 2,396 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy- | (B) (Methyldopa) (506 Dutta 7th)* Intravenous labetalol or hydralazine are drugs most commonly used to manage preeclampsia (56-H 8th).* Antihypertensive drugs are essential when the BP is 160/110 mm Hg to protect the mother from eclampsia, cerebral hemorrhage, cardiac failure and placental abruption.* First line therapy is either methyldopa or labetalol second line drug is nifedipine. DrugsMechanism of actionSide effectsContraindication and precautionsMethyldopa* Drug of the first choice* Central and peripheral antiadrenergic action* Effective and safe for both the mother and the fetusMaternal - Postural hypotension, hemolytic anemia, sodium retention, excessive sedation, Coomb's test may be positive.Fetal - Intestinal ileusHepatic disorder psychic patients congestive heart failure.Postpartum (risk of depression)HydralazineActs by peripheral vasodilatation as it relaxes the arterial smooth muscle. Orally it is weak and shouldbe combined with methyldopa or b blocker.It increases the cardiac output and renal blood flow* Maternal hypotension, tachycardia arrhythmia, palpitation, lupus-like syndrome, fluid retention.* Fetal - reasonably safe.* Neonatal - ThrombocytopeniaBecause of variable sodium retention diuretics should be used. To control arrhythmias propanol may be administered intravenously.LabetalolCombined a and b adrenergic blocking agents* Tremors, headache asthma, CHF.* Efficacy and safety with short-term use appear equal to methyldopa* Hepatic disorders* Asthma, CHF | 2,397 | medmcqa_train |
Most common ophthalmic complication of diabetes mellitus is | (A) Retinopathy # Most common ophthalmic complication of diabetes mellitus is diabetic retinopathy, with diabetic retinopathy being the most common preventable cause of blindness> Ocular features of diabetes mellitus: Blurring of vision Cataract formation Diabetic pupil Diabetic retinopathy Macular edema Retinal neovascularization Vitreous hemorrhage Retinal detachment Neovascularization of the iris (i.e. Rubeosis iridis) Cranial nerveCN III, IV and VI palsy> Blindness is primarily the result of progressive diabetic retinopathy and clinically significant macular edema.> Diabetic retinopathy is classified into two stages: nonproliferative and proliferative. Nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy usually appears late in the first decade or early in the second decade of the disease and is marked by retinal vascular microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots.> Mild nonproliferative retinopathy progresses to more extensive disease, characterized by changes in venous vessel caliber, intraretinal microvascular abnormalities, and more numerous microaneurysms and hemorrhages. The pathophysiologic mechanisms invoked in nonproliferative retinopathy include loss of retinal pericytes, increased retinal vascular permeability, alterations in retinal blood flow, and abnormal retinal microvasculature, all of which lead to retinal ischemia. | 2,398 | medmcqa_train |
Hyaline casts are seen in | Hyaline casts
Normal urine , Febrile disease, diuretics thereapy, prerenal azotemia. | 2,399 | medmcqa_train |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.